RXPG Series-Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER (2004) (PDF) (UnitedVRG)

PG
SERIES
PREVENTIVE
AND
SOCIAL MEDICINE
BUSTER
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PG
SERIES
PREVENTIVE
AND SOCIAL RG
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MEDICINE BUSTER
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(In case of any difficulty students are advised to

refer PARK and PARK, 17th Edition 2002)
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Compiled by
Dharmendra Sharma
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MBBS, MD
Consultant Cardiologist
Life Line Heart Centre and Hospital
Kamla Nagar, Bypass Road
Agra
JAYPEE BROTHERS
MEDICAL PUBLISHERS (P) LTD
New Delhi
Published by
Jitendar P Vij
Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P) Ltd
EMCA House, 23/23B Ansari Road, Daryaganj
New Delhi 110 002, India
Phones: 23272143, 23272703, 23282021, 23245672, 23245683
Fax: 011-23276490 e-mail: jpmedpub@del2.vsnl.net.in
Visit our website: http://www.jpbros.20m.com
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Branches
202 Batavia Chambers, 8 Kumara Kruppa Road, Kumara Park East
Bangalore 560 001, Phones: 2285971, 2382956 Tele Fax: 2281761
e-mail: jaypeebc@bgl.vsnl.net.in
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Pantheon Road, Chennai 600 008, Phone: 28262665 Fax: 28262331
e-mail: jpmedpub@md3.vsnl.net.in
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4-2-1067/1-3, Ist Floor, Balaji Building, Ramkote Cross Road

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106 Amit Industrial Estate, 61 Dr SS Rao Road, Near MGM Hospital

Parel, Mumbai 400 012, Phones: 24124863, 24104532 Fax: 24160828
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PG SeriesPreventive and Social Medicine BUSTER

2004, Dharmendra Sharma
All rights reserved. No part of this publication should be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system,
or transmitted in any form or by any means: electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording,
or otherwise, without the prior written permission of the editor and the publisher.
This book has been published in good faith that the material provided by editor is
original. Every effort is made to ensure accuracy of material, but the publisher, printer
and editor will not be held responsible for any inadvertent error(s). In case of any
dispute, all legal matters to be settled under Delhi jurisdiction only.
First Edition: 2004
ISBN
81-8061-215-5
Typeset at JPBMP typesetting unit

Printed at Gopsons Papers Ltd., Sector 60, Noida
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To
my loving daughter
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Tanya
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The reasons you should buy this book

Contains the question pagewise and chapterwise with the relevant text.
Latest questions of different examinations are included.
Excellent companion to revise PSM.
A must for students aspiring for PG Medical Entrance Examination.
High-Yield facts given in the boxes
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Acknowledgements
The work will definitely demand a special note of acknowledgement to all of the staff of Life Line Heart Centre
and Hospital for their unconditional support and to my patients as it was their time which I have stolen for
the book work. Special thanks to Miss Ruby Sharma and Miss Shivani Sharma for formating the framework
on computer and finalizing the data as a consolidated book. A vote of thanks for Mr. Praveen Bedi for his
efforts in keeping technical work and computers always ready and fit for the job.
Thanks for support to my driver Shivpratap and staff members Rajesh Tyagi and Mr Dheeraj Dixit. The
successful completion of the book has a lot to do with the help and support provided by Dr CL Verma who
has provided the inspiration.
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Above all, thanks to all my readers for their encouragement and good feedback for Medicine BUSTER.
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Tips to the Readers

First of all 'Best of Luck' for starting the preparation.
Always remember to have a thorough command on the subject.
Keep the Text and MCQs hand in hand; divide your time with 60 percent text and 40 percent question
in first six months of study and after that shift the proforma.
Always try to consult standard textbooks and recent advances; sometimes newspaper gives you the answer
before the text appears in books, viz. Viagra.
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Dont cram the answers; try to understand the basics of topic and see other topics in its surrounding.
Discussion will help you a lot in understanding the facts.
At the last moment only revise the latest questions of previous 5 to 7 years.
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Answers are right to our extent but for the possibility of computer and typographical error, we apologise
in advance.
Any correction with references, new questions and suggestions are welcomed by our readers. They will
be duly acknowledged in our further editions and a special gift is offered to them.
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Preface
Put your best efforts and you will get the reward. No one can deny the fact that GOD helps those who help
themselves. But one can only help himself when he knows the way to help himself.
When the sand in the sand clock is continuously flowing how can you be able to flow in the same stream.
Choose the right way at right time to get the right rank. Preventive and social medicine is one of the subject
most frequently asked in every exam with bulk of question and fortunately we are lucky enough that we
need not have to wander here and there for sorting the answer. Special thanks to PARK & PARK for their
efforts of consolidating such a wide subject in a handy form.
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I am providing you the questions which have already been asked in various examinations for providing
you the way to read. What to cram and what to leave. The book will help you from the very beginning you
enter your second professional course start your slow race from beginning and success will be yours like that
of tortoise. In case of any difficulty students are advised to refer PARK and PARK, 17th Edition 2002.
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Time will not stand for you, you will have to stand, think and start your journey with a planning in favour
of victory.
Best of luck.
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Dharmendra Sharma
Contents
1. Concepts of Health and Disease ............................................................................................................. 1
2. Principles of Epidemiology and Epidemiologic Method ...................................................................... 6
3. Screening for Disease ............................................................................................................................ 20
4. Epidemiology of Communicable Disease ............................................................................................
A. Respiratory infections ...........................................................................................................................
B. Intestinal infections ...............................................................................................................................
C. Arthropod- Borne infections ..................................................................................................................
D. Zoonoses ..............................................................................................................................................
E. Surface infections .................................................................................................................................
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23
23
34
43
48
54
5. Epidemiology of Chronic Non-Communicable Diseases and Conditions ......................................... 59

6. Health Programmes in India ................................................................................................................. 62
7. Demography and Family Planning ....................................................................................................... 68
8. Preventive Medicine in Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics ........................................................ 74
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9. Nutrition and Health ............................................................................................................................... 82

10. Social Sciences and Health .................................................................................................................. 93
11. Environment and Health ........................................................................................................................ 95
12. Occupational Health ............................................................................................................................. 108

13. Mental Health ........................................................................................................................................ 112
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14. Health Information and Basic Medical Statistics .............................................................................. 114

15. Communication for Health Education ................................................................................................ 120
16. Health Planning and Management ..................................................................................................... 122
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17. Health Care of the Community ........................................................................................................... 124

18. International Health .............................................................................................................................. 128
19. Self Assessment ..................................................................................................................................... 129
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JAYPEE BROTHERS
MEDICAL PUBLISHERS (P) LTD
EMCA House, 23/23B Ansari Road, Daryaganj

New Delhi 110 002, India
Concepts of Health and Disease
Concepts of Health and

Disease
1. A screening test is used in the same way in two similar population; but the proportion of false-positive results
among those who are test positive in population A is lower than those who are test positive in population B.What
is the likely explanation.
(PAR/12) (AIIMS/02)
(a) The specificity of the test is lower in population A
(b) The prevalence of the disease is lower in
population A
(c) The prevalence of the disease is higher in population A
(d) The specificity of the test is
higher in population A.
2. Physical quality of life in India is:
(PAR/15) (JIPMER 80, DELHI 93)
(a) 31
(b) 43
(c) 50
(d) 61
3. PQLI includes all except:
(PAR/15) (AI 99)
(a) Per capita income (b) Life expectancy at age 1 year
(c) Literacy
(d) Infant mortality
Physical quality of life index
Combines the infant mortality life expectancy at age one and literacy
It is also scaled from 0 to 100 and objective is to attain PQLI of 100. It measures the outcome of
social, economic and political policies and does not replace GNP.
Human development index
Adult literacy rate and mean years of schooling and life expectancy at birth.
Its value ranges from 0 to 1
Income as real GDP per capita in purchasing power (In dollars)
Actual value Minimum value
Calculation of Indices =
Maximum value Minimum value
Established fixed minimum and maximum values of indicators are
25 yrs and 85 yrs for life expectancy at birth.
0% and 100 % for adult literacy rate
0% and 100 % for combined gross enrolment ratio
100 and 40,000Real GDP per capita
HDI is average of all three indices.
4. Objectives of the health services include each of the following except:

(PAR/16) (JIPMER 78, UPSC 86)
(a) Delivery of curative care only
(b) Health promotion
(c) Prevention control, or eradication of disease
(d) Treatment and rehabilitation
5. Infant mortality rate in Kerala is:
(PAR/20)(UPSC/03)
(a) 38
(b) 30
(c) 26
(d) 16
1 C
2 B
3 A
4 A
5 D
2 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER

Comparison of Kerala and All India Health Statistics
Kerala
All India
Rural birth rate (1998)
18.3
28.0
Death rate /1000 (1998)
6.4
9.0
Annual growth rate ,percent (2001)
0.9
1.93
Infant mortality rate (1999)
14
70
Life expectancy at birth (1993)
66.5
61.5
Female literacy rate (2001)
87.86
54.16
Mean age at marrige females(1998)
23.6
19.5
Literacy rate ,percent (2001)
90.92
65.38
Doctor-population ratio(1991)
1:7213
1:2148
Per capita income (1998-99)
Rs. 17756
Rs. 14712
6. In the burden of disease is best represented by:

(a) Infant mortality rate
(b) DALYS (c) PQLI
( PAR/22)(AIIMS/NOV/01)
(d) Case fatality rate
Morbidity indicators
a. Notification rates
b. Incidence and prevalence
c. Duration of stay in hospital
d. Spells of sickness or absence from work or school
e. Admission, readmission and discharge rates
f. Attendance rates at outpatient departments,health centres,etc.
7. Most important epidemiological tool used for assessing disability in children is:
(PAR/22) (AI/03)
(a) Activities of daily living (ADL) scale
(b) Wings handicaps, behaviour and skills (HBS) schedule
(c) Binet and Simon IQ tests
(d) Physical quality of life index (PQLI)
Disability rates
A. Event type indicators:
1.
Number of days of restricted activity
2.
Work loss days (or school loss days) within a specified period
3.
Bed disability days
.
B. Person type indicators:

1.
Limitation of activity: For example, limitation to perform the basic activities of daily living
(ADL), e.g. eating, washing, dressing, going to toilet, moving about, etc limitation in major
activity, e.g. ability to work at job, ability to house work ,etc.
2.
Limitation of mobility: For example,confined to bed confined to the house, special aid in
getting around either inside or outside the house.
Sullivan indexmeasures the expectation of life free of disability .
SI= Life expectancy (limitation in major activity + duration of bed disability)
8. The measure used to express the global burden of disease, i.e., how a healthy life is affected by disease, is:
(PAR/22) (KARNAT 99)
(a) Disability-adjusted life year
(b) Case fatality rate
(c) Life expectancy
(d) Age-specific incidence rate
9. Which one of the following is NOT a socio-economic indicator:
(PAR/23)(UPSC/02)
(a) Literacy rate
(b) Family size
(c) Housing
(d) Life expectancy at birth
6 B
7 A,B
8 A
9 D
HALE(Health-adjusted life expectancy)It is the another name given to disability-adjusted life

expectancy at birth (DALE) comprises life expectancy at birth plus time spent in poor health.
DALY (Disability-adjusted life year)It is a measurement of burden of disease and achievement of
intervention one lost year of healthy life is equal to one DALY.
Health care delivery indicators:
a. Doctor-nurse ratio
b. Doctor-population ratio
c. Population per traditional birth attendant
d. Population per health /subcenter
e. Population bed ratio
Socio-economic indicators:
a. Level of unemployment
b. Dependency ratio
c. Rate of population increase
d. Per capita income
e. Family size
f. Literacy rates ,especially female literacy rates
g. Housing: The number of person per room
h. Per capita calorie availability
10. Main purpose of sentinel surveillance is:
(PAR/33) (PGI/2000)
(a) To find out total number of cases
(b) For intervention of therapeutics
(c) To depict natural history
of disease
(d) Prevention of sentinel piles
11. Keeping the frequency of illness within acceptable limits is best described as disease:
(PAR/34) (PGI 79, JIPMER 81)
(a) Control (b) Prevention
(c) Eradication
(d) Surveillance
(e) Treatment
12. Match list I (activities) with list II (levels of prevention) and select the correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:
(PAR/34)(UPSC/01)
List I
List II
A. Post-exposure prophylaxis with rabies vaccine
i. Secondary level prevention
B. Screening for hypertension
ii. Tertiary level prevention
C. Surgical intervention for claw hand in leprosy
iii. Primordial prevention
D. Preventing emergency of high prevalence of
iv. Primary level prevention
obesity in the population
Codes:
(a) A (iv), B (iii), C (ii), D (i)
(b) A (iv), B (i), C (ii), D (iii)
(c) A (ii), B (i), C (iii), D (iv)
(d) A (i), B (ii), C (iv), D (iii)
Primordial prevention
Means prevention of risk-factors development in the groups in which they have not yet appeared
Intervenation is through individual and mass education
Primary prevention
For prevention of chronic diseases where the risk-factors are establised by population (mass)
strategy high-risk strategy.
Secondary prevention: By the measures which stops the progress of disease at its incipient stage
thus preventing the complications, e.g. screening tests and case finding programme.
Tertiary prevention: Stands for promoting measures to reduce or limit disabilities and impairments.
13. Keeping the frequency of illness within acceptable limits is best described as disease:
(PAR/34) (PGI 79, JIPMER 81)
(a) Control
(b) Prevention
(c) Eradication
(d) Surveillance
(e) Treatment
10 A
11 A
12 C
13 A

14. Pap smear is an example of:
(PAR/34) (AI 88)
(a) Primary level of prevention
(b) Secondary level of prevention
(c) Tertiary level of prevention
(d) None of the above
15. Primordial prevention is applied when:(PAR/34) (AI/2000)
(a) Risk factors appear before disease
(b) After risk factors appear
(c) Prevalence of disease is low
(d) No disease and no risk factors
Sentinel Surveillance: Find out the missed cases thus supplementing the data. It is applied to the
entire population for calculating the disease prevalence in whole population.
16. Total morbidity is determined by:
(PAR 34) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Active surveillance
(b) Passive surveillance
(c) Sentinel surveillance
(d) Annual survey
17. A concept directed against prevention of risk factors of CAD is:
(PAR/34)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Primordial prevention
(b) Secondary prevention
(c) Health education
(d) Primary prevention
18. Sentinel surveillance is done for all except:
(PAR/34) ( AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) HIV
(b) Diarrhea
(c) Acute flaccid paralysis
(d) Per capita income
19. Prophylactic administration of vitamin A in a child is:
(PAR/35) (JIPMER 93)
(a) Health promotion
(b) Treatment
(c) Specific protection
(d) Rehabilitation
20. Tertiary level of prevention is:
(PAR/35) (AI 89)
(b) Chemoprophylaxis
(c) Rehabilitation
(d) Early diagnosis and treatment
21. Which type of prevention used in change of smoking habit:
(PAR/35) (UP 97)
(a) Primordial prevention (b) Population (mass) strategy (c) High risk strategy (d) Secondary prevention
Modes of intervention
(1) Health promotion
Health education
Environment modification
Nutritional intervention
Lifestyle and behavioural changes
(2) Specific protection
As chemoprophylaxis, immunization protection against occupational hazard
Protection against accidents
Use of specific nutrients
Avoidance of allergens
Protection from carcinogens
Control of consumer product, etc
(3) Early diagnosis and treatmentas of essential hypertension, breast cancer, cancer of cervix
tuberculosis and STD.
(4) Disease limitation
Disabilities prevention
Rehabilitation
22. False about primary prevention is:
(PAR/35) (AI/2000)
(a) Early diagnosis and treatment
(b) Environmental sanitation
(c) Vaccination
(d) Health promotion
23. Primordial prevention is applied when:
(PAR/35) (AI/2000)
(a) Risk factors appear before disease
(b) After risk factors appear
(c) Prevalence of disease is low
(d) No disease and no risk factors
24. Primary aim of sentinel surveillance is:
(PAR/35)(AI/2000)
(a) To know total number of disease patient
(b) To know trend of disease
(c) To decide mode of
treatment
(d) Notification
25. All are health promotion activities except:
(PAR/35) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Better treatment of a problem
(b) Critical awareness and lifestyle changes
(c) Adoption of
prophylactic services (d) Better health services and usage
14 B
15 A
16 C
17 A
18 B
19 C
20 C
21 A
22 A
23 A
24 D
25 B
26. Sentinel surveillance is:

(PAR/35) (UP 95)
(a) Continuous scrutiny
(b) For missing cases
(c) Estimate the incidence rate
(d) More costly
27. The best method of promoting healthy lifestyle in children:
(PAR/35) (AI 91, UP 96)
(b) Specific protection
(c) Secondary prevention
(d) High risk strategy
28. Checking for sputum AFB comes under:
(PAR/36) (AI 95)
(a) Primary prevention
(b) Secondary prevention
(c) Tertiary prevention
(d) Quaternary prevention
29. The current concept of health promotion and the related activities lead to:
(PAR/36) (KARN 95)
(a) Better treatment of a problem
(b) Critical awareness and lifestyle changes
(c) Adoption of
prophylactic services
(d) Better health services usage
30. Iron and folic acid supplementation is type of:
(PAR/36) (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Specific protection
(b) Health promotion
(d) Primordial protection
31. Screening for carcinoma cervix is:
(PAR/36) (UPSC 86, 88, 89)
(c) Early diagnosis and treatment
(d) Disability limitation
32. Which of the following is tertiary level of prevention:
(PAR//36) (AI 88, 89)
(c) Early diagnosis and treatment
(d) Disability limitation
33. Which of the following constitutes specific protection:
(PAR/ 36)(PGI/2000)
(a) Immunization
(b) Aviodance of allergens
(c) Healthy environment
(d) Chemoprophylaxis
34. Administration of oral polio vaccine to the children is a measure of:
(PAR/36)(UPSC/03)
(c) Treatment
(d) Rehabilitation
35. About community diagnosis all are true except:
(PAR/42) (AI/2000)
(a) Vital statistics taken
(b) Age and sex distribution statistics needed
(c) Age specific,death rate
needed
(d) Incidence of important diseases taken
36. False about primary prevention is:
(PAR/36) (AI/2000)
(a) Early diagnosis and treatment
(b) Environmental sanitation
(c) Vaccination
(d) Health promotion
37. The restoration of body function is known as:
(PAR/37) (AI/2000)
(a) Vocational rehabilitation
(b) Primary prevention
(c) Social rehabilitation
(d) None of these
38. Prophylactic administration of vitamin A in a child is:
(b) Treatment
(c) Specific protection
(d) Rehabilitation
39. The concept of Social Medicine was first introduced by:
(PAR/39) (KERALA 2K)
(a) Neumann and Virchow
(b) Robert Grtjahn
(c) John Ryle
(d) Rene Sand
(e) Crew
40. One of the following is not true of International Classification of Disease:
(a) It is revised once in 10 years
(b) It was devised by UNICEF
(c) The 10th revision consists of 21
major chapters
(d) It is accepted for National and International use
(e) It provides the basis for use
in other health fields
26 B
39 A
27 A
40 B
28 B
29 B
30 A
31 C
32 D
33 A,B 34 B
35 C
36 A
37 A
38 C
Principles of Epidemiology and

Epidemiologic Method
1. Modern epidemiology refers to:

(a) Study of incidence of disease
(b) Study of frequency of disease
(c) Study of prevalence of disease
(d) Study of morbidity of disease
2. Regarding crude death rate which is false:
(PAR/48) (UP 97)
(a) It is reapportion (b) Number of death during the year 100 mid year population (c) Comparison between
two population
(d) It measures all death 630
3. A useful index to measure the lethality of an acute infectious diseases is:
(PAR/49) (PGI 81, AIIMS 88)
(a) Attack rate
(b) Incidence rate
(c) Case fatality rate
(d) None of these
4. In an outbreak of cholera in a village of 2,000 population, 20 cases have occurred and 5 died. Case fatality rate
is:
(PAR/49) (JIPMER /UPSC 89)
(a) 1%
(b) .25%
(c) 5%
(d) 25%
5. Case fatality rate is:
(PAR/49) (AI 97)
(a)Ratio (b) Proportion (c) Numerator is always constant (d) Numerator and denominator are two separate
quantities
6. True about case fatality rate is all except:
(PAR/49) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Time interval is not considered
(b) Changes with different epidemic
(c) Tells about killing power
of diseases
(d) More useful for chronic diseases
7. In case fatality rate:
(PAR/49) (AIIMS 94)
(a) Numerator and denominator are 2 separate quantities
(b) Numerator and denominator are proportion of
each other
(c) Denominator is always constant
(d) Numerator is always constant
Its represent the killing power of diseases and used for acute infectious diseases (as food
poisoning, cholera, measles)
Time interval is not specified
8. Virulence of a disease is indicated by:
(PAR/49)(AI/2001)
(a) Proportional mortality rate
(b) Specific mortality rate
(c) Case fatality ratio
(d) Amount of
GDP spent on the disease
9. In direct standardization, false is:
(PAR/50) (AI/2000)
(a) Age specific death rates are not required
(b) Number of persons in each age group should be
taken
(c) Standard population is compared with normal population
(d) Difference of standard error
of mean is calculated
10. All are true of standardised mortality ratio except:
(PAR/51) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Expressed as rate per year
(b) Can be adjusted for age
(c) Can be used for events other than death
(d) Ratio of observed deaths to expected deaths
1 B
2 A
3 C
4 D
5 A
6 D
7 A
8 C
9 A
10 A
Principles of Epidemiology and Epidemiologic Method

Standardized mortality ratio (SMR) =
Observed deaths 100
Expected death
If the ratio had value greater than 100, the risk of mortality rises
SMR permit adjustment for age and it is of value if the event of interest is occurrence of disease
rather than death.
Other standardization techniques
Life table
Regression techniques
Multivariate analysis
11. True about direct standardization is all except:

(PAR/51) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) Age specific death rate not required
(b) Number of persons in both group should be known (c) A standard
population is to be choosen
(d) The rate is calculated per 1000
12. True statement regarding direct standardization is:
(PAR/-51)(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Age specific rates are required
(b) Age specific rates are not required
(c) It is a type of case control
study
(d) Two population with different age groups are compared
13. To compare two population. The best index is:
(PAR/51)(AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) Standardized death rate
(b) Infant mortality rate
(c) Crude birth rate
(d) Couple protection rate
14. Death rates of two country is compared by:
(PAR/51) (AI 97)
(a) Crude death rate
(b) Proportional crude death
(c) Standardised mortality rate
(d) Age specific death
15. Incidence is defined as:
(PAR/52) (AIIMS 84)
(a) Number of cases existing in a given population at a given moment
(b) Number of cases existing in a given
period
(c) Number of new cases occurring during a specified period
(d) Number of old cases present
Incidence - number of new cases occurring in a define population during a specified time period
Number of new cases of specific diseases during a given time period 100
Population at risk during that period

Special incidence rates
(1) Attack rate (case rate) - Incidence rate used only when the population is exposed to risk for a
limited period of time (as epidemic)
Number of new cases of specified disease during a time interval 100
Total population at risk during same interval

Secondary attack rate - Number of exposed person developing the disease within the incubation
period following exposure to a primary case.
Uses of incidence rates
To control disease
For research into aetiology and pathogenesis and distribution of disease and efficiency of prevention
therapeutic.
(2)
16. True about prevalence are all except:

(a) Rate
(b) Specifically for old and new cases
(c) P = L D
(PAR/52) (AI 96)

(d) Prevalence of two types
Prevalence: It is a ratio of total number of all individuals who have diseases at a particular
time (Or a particular period) divided the population at risk at that point of time or midway
through the period (multiplication factor is 100)
Prevalence = incidence duration
Uses of prevalence
Estimate the magnitude of health / disease problem in the community and high-risk group
Useful for administrative and planning purpose
11 A
12 A
13 A
14 C
15 C
16 A

17. In a bulk of hundred children out of whom 28 are immunised 2 of them get measles simultaneously. Subsequently
14 get measles. Assume the efficacy of the vaccine to be 100%. What is the sec. attack rate?
(PAR/52)(AI/2001)
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 21.5%
18. A village has a total of 100 under-five children. The coverage with measles vaccine in this age group is 60%.
Following the occurrence of a measles case in a child after a visit outside, twenty-six children developed measles.
The secondary attack rate of measles is:
(PAR/52)(UPSC/2K)
(a) 25%
(b) 40%
(c) 50%
(d) 65%
19. In a community, increase in new cases denotes:
(PAR/52)(AI/2001)
(a) Increase incidence rate (b) Increase prevalence rate (c) Decrease incidence rate (d) Decrease prevalence
rate
20. In a population of 5000 incidence of disease is 100 in 1 year duration of disease studied for 2 years calculate
prevalence:
(PAR/53) (UP 96)
(a) 20/1000
(b) 40/1000
(c) 80/1000
(d) 400/1000
21. In a stable situation:
(PAR/53) (UPSC 96)
(a) Incidence = Prevalence + Duration
(b) Prevalence = Incidence Duration
(c) Incidence = Prevalence
Duration
(d) Prevalence = Incidence + Duration
22. Prevalence is a:
(PAR/53) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Rate
(b) Ratio
(c) Proportion
(d) Mode
23. Prevalence of a disease:
(PAR/53)(AIIMS/02)
(a) Is the best measure of disease frequency in etiological studies
(b) Can only be determined by a cohort
study
(c) Is the number of new cases in a defined population
(d) Describes the balance between
incidence mortality and recovery
24. In a village of Rajasthan the incidence of trachoma is 3% while prevalence is 4% it indicates:
(PAR/53)(AIIMS 99)
(a) Previously transmission of disease was low
(b) Previously transmission was high but now is under control
(c) There is no change in past and present
(d) Previously transmission are under control but now is high
25. In a disease epidemological study the incidence in female is more than in male but the prevalence is equal in
both. It indicates:
(PAR/53) (AIIMS 99)
(a) Case fatality is more in female
(b) Mortality in male is more
(c) Disease is of less duration in
male
(d) Female harbour disease for long duration
26. Descriptive epidemiology is study in relation to:
(PAR/54) (AMU 95)
(a) Time
(b) Place
(c) Person
(d) All of the above
27. Study of time place and person distribution is:
(PAR/54) (AI 99)
(a) Analytical epidemiology
(b) Experimental epidemiology
(c) Descriptive epidemiology
(d) Observation epidemiology
28. The three major types of epidemics would include all except:
(PAR/55) (UPSC/ 98)
(a) Common source epidemics
(b) Periodic epidemics
(c) Propagated epidemics
(d) Slow epidemics
29, Chernobyl tragedy is an example of:
(PAR/56) (AI 91)
(a) Point source epidemic
(b) Propagated epidemic
(c) Modern epidemic
(d) Continuous epidemic
30. The following statements are true for a propagated epidemic except:
(PAR/56) (AI 89)
(a) It shows gradual rise over up a period of time
(b) The speed of spread depends upon head immunity
(c) There are no secondary waves ( d) Most often transmission is person to person.
31. Bhopal gas tragedy is an example of:
(PAR/56) (AI 90)
(a) Slow epidemic
(b) Continuous epidemic
(c) Point source epidemic
(d) Propagated epidemic
Type of epidemic
A. Common source epidemic
1. Single exposure or point sourceall cases develop in one incubation period; epidemic curve rises
falls rapidly; no secondary waves; clustering of cases within a narrow interval of time, e.g.
Bhopal gas tragedy in India and minamata disease in Japan.
17 C
30 C
18 D
31 C
19 A
20 B
21 B
22 B
23 D
24 B
25 A
26 D
27 C
28 B
29 A
2. Continuous or multiple exposure epidemicTime may not be same, e.g. prostitute serving a
source of infection; legionnaires disease outbreak in Philadelphia
B. Propagated epidemic
Result from person to person transmission as epidemics of hepatitis and polio. Curve shows a
gradual rise and falls in a much longer period of time.
Spreading speed depends upon herd immunity, opportunities for contact and secondary attack
rate.
C. Slow (modern) epidemic
Periodic fluctuation
(1) Seasonal trend
(2) Cyclic trendoccur due to variation in herd immunity. Usually occur due to antigenic variation.
Long-term or secular trendsImplies changes on the occurrence of disease (i.e. a progressive increase
or decrease over a long period of time), e.g. coronary heart disease, lung cancer and diabetes.
32. True about propagated epidemic are all except:
(PAR/56) (AI/2000)
(a) Secondary peaks are seen
(b) Herd immunity is present
(c) Regular supply of susceptibles
(d) Epidemic curve has allow rising slope with rapid decline
33. False about point source epidemic is:
(PAR/56) (AI/2000)
(a) Children are more affected
(b) Rapid rise and fall
(c) All cases occur in one incubation period
(d) No secondary waves
34. Sacular trends refers to:
(PAR/57) (UP 97)
(a) Gradual change in a particular direction
(b) Change of pattern over along period of time
(c) Decrease
in prevalence of disease
(d) Increase in prevalence
35. Residents of three villagers with three different types of water supply were asked to participate in a study to
identify cholera carriers. Because several cholera deaths had occurred in the recent past, virtually everyone
occurred in the time submitted to examination.The proportion of carriers was in each village who were carriers
was computed and compared. This study is a:
(PAR/60) (AIIMS/02)
(a) Cross-sectional study
(b) Case-control study (c) Concurrent cohort study
(d) Non-concurrent
36. Study of a person who has already contracted the disease is called:
(PAR/61) (TN 91)
(a) Case control
(b) Cohort
(c) Control cohort
Cross-sectional studies
Observational study or prevalence study
Useful for chronic disease when interest is distribution of disease
Less expensive / Less time required in establishing relationship.
Longitudinal studies
Useful to study the natural history of disease and its future outcome.
Identifies the risk factors of disease
Finds out the incidence of disease but more expensive and more time consuming.
37. The most useful study in a hospital setting is:
(PAR/61)(Delhi/93)
(a) Cross-sectional
(b) Longitudinal
(c) Cohort
(d) Case control
38. All are true about case control studies except:
(a) It is easy to conduct
(b) It is cheaper
(c) Can measure attributable risk
(d) Those with disease are
matched with those without
39. All of the following are true regarding case control study except:
(a) Relative risk can be calculated
(b) Less expensive
(c) Suitable for rare disease
(d) Backward study
40. The process of "matching" allows:
(PAR/62) (CSE/95)
(a) The matched variables to be evaluated
(b) For selecting the case and control group with the same known
confounding variables
(c) Matching of factors in doubt
(d) One to avoid focussing on variables desired
41. All are true about case control study except:
(PAR/62)
(a) It is cheaper than other studies (b) It is useful to investigate a rare disease (c) Odds ratio can be detected
from it
(d) Relative risk can be detected from it
32 D
33 A
34 B
35 A
36 A
37 D
38 C
39 B
40 C
41 D
10
Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER
42. Weight in kg is:

(a) Normal variable
(b) Discrete variable
(PAR/63) (AI 96)

(d) Continuous variable
(c) Confounding variable
Matching variablesDiscrete variablesAs smoking and lung cancer; or exposure and disease
for discrete variables the test of significance usually adopted is the standard error of
difference between the two proportions or the Chi-square test.
Continuous variables as age or blood pressure, the test of significance used should be standard error
of difference between two means or t test.
p < 0.05 is statistically significant but statistical association (p value) does not imply causation
Odds ratio: Measure of the strength of the association between risk factor and outcome; derived
from a case control study and used for rare diseases.
BIAS
(1) bias due to confounding
(2) memory or recall bias
(3) selection bias
(4) Berkesonian bias
(5) Interviewers bias
43. Incidence among exposed and nonexposed is called:
(PAR/63) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Relative risk
(b) Attributable risk
(c) Odds ratio
(d) Attack ratio
44. The following is discrete variables except:
(PAR/63) (UP 96)
(a) Weight in body
(b) Carcinoma of cervix
(c) Ulcer on tonsil
(d) Leg ulcer
45. All are morbidity indicators except:
(PAR/63)(AI 91)
(a) Period of stay in hospital
(b) Doctor population ratio
(c) Attendance of outpatient department
(d) Notification rates
46. Discrete variability are all except:
(PAR/63) (AI 91)
(a) Colour of skin
(b) Boys in the classroom
(c) Obesity weight
(d) Leukocyte count
47. Relative risk can be obtained from:
(PAR/63) (AI 90)
(a) Case study
(b) Cohort study
(c) Case control study
(d) Experimental study
48. In a village of 1 lakh population, among 20,000 exposed to smoking, 200 developed cancer, and among 40,000
people unexposed, 40 developed cancer. The relative risk of smoking in the development of cancer is:
(a) 20
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 15
49. Calculate the Odd's ratio:
(PAR/64) (AIIMS/2000)
Diseased
Undiseased
Positive
30
20
Negative
20
30
(a) 0.44
(b) 1.5
(c) 0.8
(d) 2.25
50. Berkesonian bias refers to:
(a) Different rates of admission to the hospital
(b) Interviewers bias
(c) Systemic sampling
(d) Systematic
difference in characteristic cases and controls
51. Case control study is used for:
(PAR/64) (AI 95)
(a) Finding a rare cause
(b) Finding multiple risk factors
(c) Finding incidence rate
(d) Finding morbidity
rates
Case control study ( For cause)
ADVANTAGES
DISADVANTAGES
Easy rapid and inexpensive

Require few subjects without any risk
Suitable for rare diseases
Risk factors can be identified
Study of several different etiological factors
No attrition problem
Incidence cant be measured

problem of bias and control selection
No distinction b/w cause and associated
factors
No help in evaluating therapy prophylaxis
of disease
42 D
43 A
44 A
45 B
46 A
47 B
48 B
49 D
50 A
51 B
11
52. When launching a study many respondents are invited some of whom fail to come. This is called:
(a) Response bias
(b) Volunteer bias
(c) Selection bias
(d) Berkesonian bias (PAR/64) (AI 96, 98)
53. In case control study all are true except:
(PAR/64) (UP 95)
(a) Can find multiple risk factor
(b) Can find rare disease
(c) Measure incidence
(d) Few groups required
54. Case control study most characteristic is:
(PAR/64) (AI 96, 98)
(a) Odds ratio estimation
(b) Problem bias
(c) Yields incidence rate
(d) Expensive
55. All true about cohort studies except:
(PAR/65) (AP 96)
(a) Prospective
(b) Useful for rare diseases
(c) Necessary for incidence
(d) Costly
Cohort study (for disease)
Advantages
Disadvantages
give incidence rates, relative

as well as attributable risk
Information gained for more than one disease
- Larger subject, long follow-up ample funds

- In appropriate when the disease or exposure
under investigation is rare
- Test formulated hypothesis
56. If you desire to study the incidence of diarrhoea in a community which study method would you like to opt for:
(PAR/65)(AIIMS 99)
(a) Cross-sectional study
(b) Cohort study
(c) Case control study
(d) Double blind placebo study
57. Best method to calculate the incidence rate is:
(PAR/65) (AIIMS/2K)
(a) Case control study
(b) Sentinel surveillance
(c) Cohort study
(d) Cross sectional prevalence study
58. Relative risk could show an association between:
(a) Smoking and lung cancer
(b) OCP and pregnancy
(c) Efficacy of 2 drugs
(d) Altitude and endemic
goitre
Relative Risk - Ratio of incidence of disease among exposed and unexposed.
Incidence of disease among exposed
RR =
Incidence of disease among non-exposed
RR = 1 (no associataion)
RR> 1 Positive association
59. One a study it was established that the disease (carcinoma cervix was 5 times more common in those who had
multiple sexual partners than those with single partners. The attributable risk of exposure in the former group
is:
(PAR/68) (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 80%
(d) 5%
60. As a community physician, treatment plan of action you should use:
(PAR/68) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Relative risk
(c) Population attributable risk
(d) Odds ratio
61. The ratio between the incidence of disease among exposed and non-exposed is called: (PAR/68) (UPSC/02)
(a) Causal risk
(b) Relative risk
(c) Attributable risk
(d) Odds ratio
62. In an epidemiologic study the following data is observed. Calculate the relative risk of developing lung carcinoma
in smokers:
(PAR/68) (AIIMS 99)
Developed Ca
Not developed Ca
Total No of People
Smokers
100
9,900
10,000
Non-smokers
5
4595
5000
(a) 1%
(b) 10%
(c) 13%
(d) 25%
63. Best indicator to determine maximum benefit to the community through preventive intervention strategies is:
(a) Relative risk
(c) Absolute risk
(d) Odds ratio
(PAR/68) (UPSC/2001)
52 B
53 C
54 A
55 B
56 B
57 C
58 A
59 C
60 C
61 B
62 B
63 B
12

Attributable risk: Difference in incidence rates of disease between exposed and non-exposed
group it is rate
Incidence of disease among exposed incidence of disease among non-exposed
AR =
100
Incidence rate among exposed
It is used by community physicians to estimate the amount by which the disease could be reduced in
that population if the suspected factor was eliminated or modified
It gives a better idea of success of preventive or public health programme in reducing the problem.
64. Which is false about cohort study:

(a) Incidence can be measured
(b) Used to study chronic diseases
(c) Expensive
(d) Always prospective
65. Evaluation of new antihypertensive drug, test of significance is:
(PAR 105) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Chi-square test
(b) Fischer F, test
(c) Paired t-test
(d) Pooled
66. Cohort study differentiate from case control study in following points except:
(PAR/69) (UP 93)
(a) Cause to effect
(b) Requires larger number of people
(c) Only estimate Odds ratio
(d) Find out more
information in more disease
67. Prevalence of disease in a community can be found out by:
(PAR/69)UPSC/03
(c) Cohort study
(c) Cross-sectional study
(d) Analytical study
68. True about case control study are all except:
(PAR/70) (AI 97)
(a) Quick results
(b) Incidence rate measure
(c) Proceeds from effect to cause
(d) Inexpensive
69. Which of the following is not true of case control study:
(PAR/70) (AI 94)
(a) Easy to carryout
(b) Inexpensive
(c) Attributable risk can be measured
70. Randomized controlled trial is true is all except:
(PAR/71) (UP 97)
(a) Confounding factor
(b) Selection bias
(c) Selecting reference and experimental population
(d) Experimental epidemiology
71. Randomisation is useful to eliminate:
(PAR/72) (KERALA 94)
(a) Observer bias
(b) Confounding factors
(c) Patient bias
(d) Sampling bias
72. All are true of randomised controlled trial except:
(PAR/72) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Groups are representative of the population
(b) Bias may arise during evaluation
(c) Both study and
control groups should be comparable
(d) In a single blind trial the doctor does not know of group allocation
73. Double blind study means:
(a) Observer is blind about the study
(b) Person or group being observed are blind about the study
(c) Both observer and observed group in blind
(d) Interpreters and analysers are blind about the study
74. Crossover study is done when:
(PAR/73)(KERALA/98)
(a) Control and case are the same
(b) Case and control are different
(c) Control is same and case is different
(d) Case is the same and control is different
Crossover Study
Used where patient serves as his own control. Not suitable
If the drug of interest cures the disease
If the drug is effective only during a certain stages of the disease
If the disease changes radically during the period of time required for the study
75. Association is best implicated by:
(b) Prospective study
64 D
65 C
66 C
67 A
68 B
69 C
(c) Cross sectional study
70 A
71 B
72 D
(PAR/77)(AIIMS/99)
(d) Experimental epidemiology
73 C
74 A
75 D
13
Criteria for judging causality

(1) Temporal association
(2) Strength of association
(3) Specificity of the association
(4) Consistency of the association
(5) Biological plausibility
(6) Coherence of the association
76. The best criteria to judge association causes relationship is:
(PAR/78) (AI 94)
(a) Strength of association
(b) Consistency
(c) Chronological sequence of event
(d) Specificity
77. Study on lung carcinoma in non-smokers is:
(PAR/78) (AI 96, 98)
(a) Unifactorial
(b) Multifactorial
(c) Passive smoking is also increased risk of cancer
(d) Bidi smokers
carry higher lung cancer than cigarette
78. Temporal association between a risk factor and the disease relates to:
(PAR/78) (UPSC/03)
(a) Does- response relationship
(b) Duration-response relationship
(c) One-to-one relationship
(d) Cause and effect relationship
79. Anthropozoonosis are all except:
(PAR/82) (AI 95)
(a) Guinea worm infestation
(b) Rabies
(c) Plague
(d) Hydatid cyst
80. Disease imported to a country not otherwise present:
(PAR/-82) (ORRISA/01)
(a) Exotic
(b) Enzootic
(c) Epzootic
(d) Endemic
81. Eradication is possible in all of the following diseases except:
(a) Measles
(b) Polio
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Dracunculosis
82. Diseases which are imported into a country in which they do not otherwise occur is:
(a) Exotic
(b) Epizootic
(c) Endemic
(PAR/83) (JIPMER 81, PGI 84)
Exotic: Disease imported into a country
Epizootic: Epidemic of disease in an animal population, e.g. anthrax, brucellosis, rabies, influenza etc
Enzootic: Endemic occurring in animals, e.g. anthrax, rabies, brucellosis, bovine tuberculosis endemic
tick typhus
Zoonosis (from vertebrate animals to man)
Anthropozoonoses: From animals to man, e.g. rabies, plague, hydatid disease, anthrax, trichinosis
Zooanthroponoses: Infections transmitted from man to vertebrate animals, e.g. Human
tuberculosis in cattle
Amphixenoses: Infections maintained in both man and lower vertebrate animals that may be
transmitted in either direction, e.g. T.cruzi and S. japonicum
83. Surveillance includes all except:
(PAR/83) (AI 89)
(a) Active reporting
(b) Passive reporting
(c) Cross-sectional studies
(d) Specific follow-up investigations
84. Healthy carriers are found in all except:
(PAR/84) (AIIMS 96)
(a) Cholera
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Typhoid
(d) Pertussis
85. Carriers are not an important source of transmission in the following disease:
(PAR/84) (AI 88)
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Measles
(c) Typhoid
(d) Poliomyelitis
Reservoir of Infection- Human - Cases and carrier
Animal
Reservoir in non-living things
Subclinical cases: Subclinical infection occur in most infectious disease, e.g. rubella; mumps; polio
hepatitis A and B, Japanese encephalitis, influenza, diphtheria.
Latent infection: Host does not shed the infectious agent which lies dormant within the host without
symptoms. Latent infection occurs in herpes simplex; Brill-Zinsser disease, infection due to slow
viruses, ancylostomiasis, etc.
76 C
77 B
78 D
79 A
80 B
81 C
82 A
83 D
84 D
85 B
14

CARRIERS
Incubatory carriers: Measles, mumps, polio, pertussis, influenza, diphtheria and hepatitis B.
Convalescent carriers: Typhoid fever, dysentery (bacillary and amoebic), cholera, diphtheria and
whooping cough.
Healthy carriers: Poliomyelitis, cholera, Meningococcal meningitis, Salmonellosis and Diphtheria
Animal Reservoir
- Rabies
- Yellow fever
- Influenza
Reservoir in non-living things - Tetanus
- Anthrax
- Coccidioidomycosis
- Mycetoma
86. Primary case occurs after:

(PAR/84) (AIIMS 86)
(a) Incubation period
(b) First reported case
(c) First case has died
(d) First case has recovered
87. Carrier state is important in following except:
(PAR 84) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Measles
(b) Polio
(c) Cholera
(d) Typhoid
88. First case in an epidemic is called:
(PAR/84) (AIIHPH/98)
(a) Index case
(b) Primary case
(c) First case
89. Transovarian transmission of diseases includes:
(PAR/86) (AIIMS 88)
(a) Syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) KFD
(d) Rubella
90. Vertical transmission is by:
(PAR/86) (AMC 88, DELHI 87)
(a) Mosquitoes
(b) Direct contact
(c) Droplet
(d) Placenta
91. The biological transmission in the case of filariasis is:
(PAR/86) (UPSC 85, 88)
(a) Cyclopropagative
(b) Cyclodevelopmental
(c) Propagative
92. The cycle of yellow fever virus in Aedes is:
(a) Propagative
(b) Cyclopropagative
(c) Cyclodevelopmental
(d) Any of the above
Biological transmission
Propagativeagent merely multiplies in vector but no change in from.
e.g. yellow fever, plague
Cyclopropagativeagent changes in form and number .
e.g. Malaria parasite, cyclops in guinea worm
CyclodevelopmentalThe disease agent under goes only development but no multiplication
e.g. microfilaria in mosquito
93. Type of biological transmission in case of malaria paracite in mosquito:
(PAR/86) (BHU 88)
(a) Cyclodevelopmental
(b) Developmental
(c) Propagative
(d) Cyclopropagative
94. Which is most difficult to block spread of:
(PAR/86) (UP 94)
(a) Vector
(b) Man to man
(c) Airborne
(d) Waterborne
95. When disease enters and first symptom appears is known as:
(PAR/87) (PGI 81, AMC 87, 89)
(a) Serial interval
(b) Incubation period
(c) Quarantine
(d) Period of infectivity
Incubation periodmedian incubation period defined as the time required for 50% of the
cases to occur following exposure:
Factors the determining the incubation period include .
Generation time
Infective dose
Portal of entry
Individual susceptibility
86 A
87 A
88 B
89 C
90 D
91 B
92 A
93 D
94 C
95 B
15
Disease communicable during the incubation period are:

Measles
Chickenpox
Whooping cough
Hepatitis A
Use of incubation period:
Tracing the source of infection and contacts
Period of surveillance
Immunization
Identification of point source or propagated epidemic
Prognosis
96. Secondary attack rate is calculated from:
(PAR/88) (AIIMS 81, UPSC 84)
(a) Minimum incubation period
(b) Maximum IP
(c) Average IP
97. Serial interval means:
(PAR/88) (AP 93)
(a) Difference between primary and secondary cases
(b) Longest incubation period
(c) Shortest incubation period
(d) Time in which the parasite develops in the vector
98. After entry of the organism to produce maximum infection known as:
(PAR/88) (AIIMS 96, AI 98)
(b) Generation time
(c) Serial interval lead
(d) Lead time
Generation Time
The interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximal infectivity of that host.
Incubation period is used for infections that manifest disease whereas generation time refers to
transmission of infection whether clinical or subclinical.
99. Incubation period is helpful for all except:
(PAR/88) (AIIMS/99)
(a) Quarantine
(b) Source identification
(c) Preventive immunization
(d) Isolation
100. Which does not have latent infection:
(PAR/88) (AI 93)
(a) Smallpox
(b) Chickenpox
(c) Mumps
(d) Malaria
101. Out of a total of 100 children in the age group 0 to 5 years, 28 were given measles vaccination. 7 days later 2
cases of measles occurred simultaneously. Within 14 days, 1 more cases were detected. Assuming 100% protection
by vaccination, secondary attack ratio is:
(PAR/88) (AI 89)
(a) 14%
(b) 16.6%
(c) 20%
(d) 21.1%
102. Denominator in secondary attack rate is:
(PAR/88) (AIIMS 95)
(a) Number of contacts developing disease
(b) Number of contacts developing disease within max IP
(c) Total number of persons in the area
(d) Total number of susceptibles exposed
103. In a population of 1000, measles coverage is 60%, one child goes out of station and comes back with measles
from whom 26 more children get the measles. Secondary attack rate of measles is: (PAR/88) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) 6.5
(b) 65
(c) 7.5
(d) 0.65
104. Denominator while calculating the secondary attack rate includes:
(PAR/88) (AI/03)
(a) All the people living in next fifty houses
(b) All the close contacts
(c) All the susceptibles amongst the close contact (d) All the susceptibles in the whole village
105. Secondary attack rate reflects:
(PAR/89) (AIIMS 89)
(a) Severity
(b) Communicability
(c) Fatality
(d) Infectivity
Secondary attack rate =
No. of exposed person developing the disease within the

range of the incubation period
Total number of exposed / susceptible contacts
Primary case is excluded from both the numerator and denominator
96 B
97 A
98 B
99 D
100 A
101 C
102 D
103 A
104 C
105 B
100
16

When the primary case is infective over a long period of time, duration of exposure is an important
factor then
Number of contacts developing the disease
SAR =
100
Number of person weeks (months or year) of exposure
106. In the absence of a known incubation period for a disease, which of the following is an effective tool to assess
and manage an epidemic situation?
(PAR/88) (UPSC/03)
(a) Period of infectivity
(b) Serial interval
(c) History of contact
(d) Latent period
107. Disease in which herd immunity does not protect on individuals is:
(PAR/90) (AI 95)
(a) Measles
(b) Tetanus
(c) Polio
(d) Diphtheria
108. Herd immunity is not valuable in:
(PAR/90) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) Tetanus
(b) Measles
(c) Rubella
(d) Chickenpox
Herd immunitycontributed by
1. Occurrence of clinical and subclinical infection in the herd
2. Immunization of the herd
3. Herd structure
109. Percentages in the segments are indicated by:
(PAR/90) (UP 93)
(a) Bar charts
(b) Histogram
(c) Pictogram
(d) Pie charts
110. All are live vaccines except:
(a) Measles
(b) BCG
(c) OPV
(d) Hepatitis B
111. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below in the lists:
(PAR/91) (UPSC/01)
List I
List II
1. Tuberculosis
i. Toxoids
2. Measles
ii. Killed bacteria
3. Diphtheria
iii. Live attenuated viruses
4. Whooping cough
iv. Live attenuated bacteria
Codes:
(a) 1 (iv), 2 (iii), 3 (i), 4 (i)
(b) 1 (iii), 2 (iv), 3 (ii), 4 (i)
(c) 1 (iii), 2 (iv), 3 (i), 4 (ii)
(d) 1 (iv), 2 (iii),
3 (ii), 4 (i)
112. Live vaccines are all except:
(PAR/91) (UP 95)
(a) Typhoid oral
(b) Measles
(c) BCG
(d) Pertussis
Live vaccine should not normally be given for 12 weeks after an infections of normal human
immunoglobin
LIVE VACCINE
INACTIVATED VACCINE
TOXOID
BCG
Typhoid oral
Plague
Measles
Influenza
Mumps
Rubella
Yellow fever
Oral polio
Typhoid
Pertussis
Rabies
Salk polio
KFD
Hepatitis B
JE
Influenza
Cholera
Diphtheria
Tetanus
113. Live attenuated vaccine used in man is:

(a) Influenza
(b) BCG
(c) Yellow fever
106 B
107 B
108 A
109 D
110 D
111 A
(PAR/91) (PGI 88)

(d) Japanese-B-encephalitis
112 D
113 A
17
114. Killed bacterial vaccine is:

(PAR/91) (PGI 78, DELHI 89)
(a) BCG
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Pertussis
(d) Toxoid
115. Live attenuated vaccines are:
(PAR/91) (PGI 87, AP 85)
(a) OPV
(b) Hepatitis
(c) Japanese-B-encephalitis
(d) Chickenpox
116. Salk vaccine is a:
(a) Live vaccine
(b) Live attenuated vaccine
(c) Killed vaccine
(d) Toxoid
117. Which one of the following is not a live vaccine:
(PAR/91) (UPSC/02)
(a) OPV
(b) BCG
(c) Hib vaccine
(d) Ty 21a against typhoid
118. Which of the following is a live vaccine:
(PAR/91) (AI 94)
(a) Salk
(b) Hepatitis-B
(c) HDCV
(d) 17-D
119. Live attenuated vaccines are all except:
(PAR/92) (AI 98, 96)
(a) BCG
(b) Salk
(c) Sabin
(d) Measles
120. Measles vaccine is kept in refrigerator in:
(a) Chilled tray
(b) Freezer
(c) Tray below the freezer
(d) Shelves in the door
121. Vaccine which requires most stringent condition for storage:
(a) DPT
(b) OPV
(c) BCG
(d) TT
122. Ideal temperature for DPT storage:
(a) Room temperature
(b) 4 to 8C
(c) 0 to 20C
123. Vaccine which must be stored in the freezer compartment of a fridge is/are:
(PAR/93) (AP 85)
(a) BCG
(b) OPV
(c) Measles
(d) Smallpox
(e) All of the above
124. The following diseases are under surveillance by WHO, except:
(PAR/96) (AI 91)
(a) Relapsing fever
(b) Plague
(c) Malaria
(d) Tuberculosis
125. Notifiable disease is:
(a) Varicella
(b) Cholera
(c) Malaria
(d) Influenza
(PAR/96) (AI 89
NotificationNotifiable disease are those which are considered to be serious menaces to
public health they may also include non-communicable disease and conditions asCancer,
Congenital defects, accidents, etc.
Disease under surveillance of International Health Regulationscholera, plague and yellow fever
Disease under surveillance of WHOlouseborn typhus fever, relapsing fever, paralytic polio,
malaria viral influenza.
126. In control of communicable diseases, the period of quarantine in respect of a disease is determined by:
(b) Infectivity period
(c) Duration of illness
(d) Carrier state
127. Following diseases require isolation to break transmission except:
(PAR/97) (AI 94)
(a) Measles
(b) Mumps
(c) Chickenpox
(d) Tetanus
IsolationsSeparation for the period of communicability
Types
Standard isolation
Strict isolation
Protective isolations
High security isolations
Ring immunization for measles and polio
Duration of isolation is determined by the duration of communicability of the disease and the effect
of chemotherapy on infectivity.
Quarantine
Period not longer than longest usual incubation period of the disease for which contact with nonexposed ones is prohibited.
It is now being replaced by active surveillance.
114 C
127 D
115 A
116 C
117 A
118 D
119 C
120 B
121 B
122 B
123 E
124 D
125 B
126 A
18
128. Not included in expanded programme of immunization:

(a) Influenza
(b) Tetanus
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Polio
129. MMR vaccination is given at:
(a) Birth
(b) 6th months
(c) One year
(d) 1 years
130. Universal programme of immunisation includes A/E:
(a) BCG
(b) Polio
(c) DPT
(d) MMR

(PAR/99) (AIIMS 86, AI 88)
(PAR/99) (PGI 87)
Active immunizationRecommended
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Disease
Immunity develop
Cholera
Influenza
Plague
Yellow fever
Typhoid fever
6 days after inoculation, booster every 6 month

Immunity last for 3 -6 months
5-7 days after inoculation and last for 6 months.
Immunity begins 10-12 days after vaccination and last for 10 years
10-12 days after immunization and extends upto 10 years
131. Which is true regarding universal programme of immunisation:

(PAR/99) (TN 91)
(a) One dose BCG, 3 doses of DPT, 3 doses of OPV and 1 dose of MMR
(b) Should be given on time
(c) Must be potent
132. Vaccine which is given at earliest:
(PAR/99) (AIIMS 81, PGI 90, AI 95)
(a) BCG
(b) OPV
(c) MMR
(d) DPT
(e) DT
133. The target by which primary immunization is to be completed under the Universal Immunization Programme
is:
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years
(PAR/99) (AI 89)
Universal immunization programmeLaunched on 19 Nov 1985
National immunization schedule
a. For infants
At birth
At 6 weeks
BCG and OPV-dose

BCG (if not given birth)
DPT-1 and OPV -1
DPT-2 and OPV -2
DPT-3 and OPV -3
Measles
DPT and OPV
DT- the second dose
Tetanus Toxoid- The second dose of TT
At 10 weeks
At 14 weeks
At 9 months
b. At 16-24 months
c. At 5-6 years
d. At 10 and 16 year
e. For pregnant women
Early in pregnancy
TT-1 or booster
One month after
TT-1-TT-2
Combined passive active immunization is given for tetanus, diphtheria and rabies
134. A one-year-old unimmunised child, attends the immunization clinic. He should be advised: (PAR/99) (AI 89)
(a) BCG and measles to be followed by 6 weeks by the first dose of OPV and DPT and called after 1 month for
booster dose
(b) BCG the first doses of OPV, DPT, and measles and called after 1 month for booster dose
of OPV and DPT
(c) The first doses of OPV and DPT, mealses 1 week later and called after 1 month for a
booster dose of OP
(d) The first dose of OPV and DPT measles 1 week later and called after 1 month for a
booster dose OPV
(e) BG
135. Surveillance by WHO is not done for:
(PAR/100) (AIIMS 91, UP 95)
(a) Polio
(b) Malaria
(c) Viral encephalitis
(d) Relapsing fever
128 A
129 C
130 D
131 D
132 A
133 A
134 B
135 C
19
136. Which is not under WHO surveillance:

(PAR/100) (AI 92)
(a) Malaria
(b) Polio
(c) Varicella
(d) Influenza
137. Chemoprophylaxis should be given for all except:
(PAR/100) (AI 91, UP 95, 96)
(a) Acute bacterial conjunctivitis
(b) Cholera
(c) Diphtheria
(d) Typhoid
(e) Meningococcal meningitis
138. Chemoprophylaxis is not indicated in:
(PAR/100) (AIIMS 88)
(a) Rheumatic fever
(b) Typhoid
(c) Leprosy
(d) Meningococcal meningitis
Chemoprophylaxis is indicated in
Cholera
Conjunctivitis
Diphtheria
Influenza
Malaria
Meningitis
Plague
139. Chemoprophylaxis is given in all except:
(PAR/100) (AIIMS/2K)
(a) Cholera
(b) Plague
(c) Measles
(d) Meningococcal meningitis
140. According to WHO, all the following diseases require surveillance except:
(PAR/100)(UPSC/01)
(a) Chickenpox
(b) Yellow fever
(c) Malaria
(d) Rabies
141. Forty percent formalin is used to sterilize:
(PAR/102) (DELHI 85, 83, AMC 86)
(a) Plastic syringes
(b) All microbes + spores
(c) Clothes
(d) Stitches
142. For disposable items, the best method for sterilization is:
(a) Dry heat
(b) Incineration
(c) Gamma radiaton
(d) Boiling heat
143. Which of the following is most powerful chemical disinfectant:
(PAR/102) (JIPMER 81, AMC 87)
(a) Phenol
(b) Lysol
(c) Dettol
(d) Potassium permanganate
144. Sharp instruments may be sterilized with:
(PAR/102) (ORISSA 90)
(a) Radiation
(b) Lysol
(c) Hot air
145. All of the following are false about bleaching powder except:
(PAR/103) (AI 96)
(a) Contains 20% available chlorine
(b) 20% solution used for disinfection of faeces
(c) Unstable compound
on storage
(d) Not used for disinfection of faeces and urine
146. In fresh bleaching powder the chlorine availability is:
(PAR/103) (AI 89, UP 96)
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 33%
(d) 40%
147. In an epidemic first to be done is to:
(PAR/104) (PGI 81, AMC 92)
(a) Identify the cases
(b) Confirm the diagnosis
(c) Identify the prone people
(d) Identify the causative
factors
148. First step in investigation of epidemic:
(PAR/104) (DNB 2001)
(a) Find the source
(b) Confirm diagnosis
(c) Sanitation
(d) Spot map
Investigation of an epidemicsteps to be followed chronologically are:
(1) Verification of diagnosis
(2) Confirmation of the existence of an epidemic
(3) Defining the population at risk
(4) Rapid search of all cases and their characteristics
(5) Data analysis
(6) Formulation of hypothesis
(7) Testing of hypothesis
(8) Evaluation of ecological factor
(9) Further investigation of population at risk
(10) Writing the report
149. The first step for conducting an epidemic investigation is to:
(a) Determine the case count
(b) Determine the population at risk
(d) Verify the diagnosis
136 C
149 D
137 D
138 B
139 C
140 C
141 C
142 C
143 B
144 D
(PAR/104)(ORISSA 98)
(c) Calculate the incubation period
145 C
146 C
147 B
148 B
20
Screening for Disease
1. Of the following, which is a usual approach or technique for obtaining chronic disease morbidity information:
(PAR/109) (JIPMER 79, PGI 83)
(a) Physicians reports
(b) Case registries
(c) Immunization records
(d) Household surveys
(e) Screening programmes
Lead timethe period between diagnosis by early detection and diagnosis by other means
2. Which is most economical and best screening:
(a) Mass screening
(b) High-risk screening
(c) Multiphasic screening
(PAR/110) (PGI 78, UPSC 88)

Screeningfinding the infections or disease in population who are not seeking health care, e.g.
Neonatal screening; screening for breast cancer
Uses of screening
1. Case detection
2. Control of disease
3. Research purpose
4. Educational opportunities
Types of screening
1. Mass-screening
2. High-risk or selective screening
3. Multiphasic screening
3. The criteria for validity of a screening test are:
(a) Accuracy
(b) Predictability
(c) Sensitivity and specifically

(d) Cost effectiveness
ValidityTests the accuracy of test two main components sensitivity and specificity along
with predictive accuracy form the inherent properties of a screening test.
4. Predictive value of positive test is:
(a)
True +ve
(b)
100
False +ve + true ve
(c)
True + ve
False +ve + true +ve
1 B,E 2 B
3 C
4 C
100
(d)
(PAR/111) (AI 99)

False +ve
False +ve + false ve
True + ve
False ve + true +ve
100
100
Screening for Disease
21
Screening test result by diagnosis

Screening test result
Positive
Diagnosis
Diseased
Not diseased
true positive
false positive
Negative
false negative
TP
Sensitivity =
(means true positive)
TP + FN
true negative
100
TN
Specificity =
(means true negative)
TP + FN
Predictive value of positive test =

Predictive value of negative test =
100
TP
TN
TN + FN
FN
Percentage of false negative =
TP + FN
FP
Percentage of false positive =
100
TP + FP
FP + TN
100
100
100
5. In a community with prevalence of HIV 5% if the sensitivity is 95% and specificity is 95% of ELISA. Find the
positive predictive value of the test:
(PAR/111)(AIIMS 99)
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) 0%
6. The parameters of sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing
(PAR/111) (AI/03)
(a) Criterion validity
(b) Construct validity
(c) Discriminant validity
(d) Content validity
7. Studying this formula carefully:
(PAR/111) (AI/03)
True Positives
100
True Positives + False Positives
This denotes:
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Specificity
(c) Positive predictive value
(d) Negative predictive value
8. For the calculation of positive predictive value of a screening test, the denominator is comprised of:
(PAR/111) (AI/03)
(a) True positives + False negatives (b) False positives + True negatives (c) True positives + False positives
(d) True positives + True negatives
9. True positives as a percentage of all positives is:
(a) Specificity
(b) Predictive value
(c) Sensitivity
10. Most important in screening test for community is:
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Specificity
(c) Predictive value of +ve test
(d) Detectability
11. The sensitivity of a diagnostic test means its ability to detect:
(a) Negative result in those who have disease
(b) Positive result in those who have disease
(c) Negative
result in those who have no disease
(d) Positive result in those who have no disease
12. Sensitivity is:
(PAR/112) (AIIMS 93, AI 97)
(a) True +ve
(b) True ve
(c) False +ve
(d) False ve
13. A drug company is developing a new pregnancy-test kit for use on an out patient basis.The company used the
pregnancy test on100 women, 99 showed positive test. Upon using type same test on 100 non-pregnant women,
90 showed negative results. What is the sensitivity of the test:
(PAR/112)(AIIMS/02)
(a) 90%
(b) 99%
(c) Average of 90 and 99% (d) Cannot be calculated from the given data
5 B
6 A
7 B
8 C
9 C
10 C
11 B
12 A
13 B
22
14. The usefulness of a screening test depends upon its:

(PAR/112)(AIIMS/02)
(a) Sensitivity (b) Specificity
(c) Reliability
(d) Predictive
15. Specificity increases with:
(a) Increase in True +ve
(b) Increase in True ve
(c) Increase in False +ve
(d) Increase in False ve
16. High prevalence of disease in an area affects:
(PAR/112) (AI 92)
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Specificity
(c) Predictive value
17. In a community, the specificity of ELISA is 99% and sensitivity is 99%. The prevalence of the disease is 5/1000.
Then, the positive value of the test is:
(a) 33%
(b) 67%
(c) 75%
(d) 99%
18. Is specificity of test means:
(PAR/112) (AI/2000)
(a) How well, it detects cases of disease
(b) How well, it detects severity of disease
(c) False negative
(d) Predictive accuracy of the test
19. False positivity of a screening test is high with:
(PAR 15th/112) (AIIMS/2K)
(a) When the disease prevalence is low
(b) When the disease prevalence is high
(c) Very high sensitivity
(d) Very high specificity
20. The findings of a test using sputum examination of AFB (Acid Fast Bacilli) for the diagnosis of tuberculosis in
a community are shown in the following table:
(PAR/112) (UPSC/01)
Final Diagnosis
Tuberculous
Sputum positive
Sputum negative
Total
Not Tuberculous
13
7
20
2
9978
9980
Sensitivity and specificity of this test are, respectively

(a) 65% and 99.9%
(b) 99% and 65%
(c) 35% and 65%
14 A
15 B
16 C
17 D
18 A
19 A
20 A
Total
15
9985
10.000
(d) 65% and 35%
Epidemiology of Communicable Disease
23
Epidemiology of
Communicable Disease
Rash according to appearance with fever

1st Day
Very - varicella
2nd Day
Sick - scarlet fever
3rd Day
People -pox
4th Day
Must- measles
5th Day
Take- typhus
6th Day
Ease- enteric fever
A. Respiratory Infections
1. The national smallpox eradication programme (NSEP) was launched in India in:
(a) 1958
(b) 1959
(c) 1960
(d) 1962
(e) 1961
(PAR/115) (PGI 81, AIIMS 87)
2. The most common complication following smallpox vaccination is:
(a) Allergic rashes
(b) Eczema vaccination
(c) Encephalitis
(d) Generalised vaccine
3. Last case of smallpox occurred in India during which one of the following years?
(PAR/115) (UPSC/02)
(a) 1965
(b) 1975
(c) 1986
(d) 1995
4. The last case of smallpox was reported in the world:
(PAR/115) (PGI 84)
(a) 1977
(b) 1978
(c) 1979
(d) 1982
5. Smallpox was eradicated because of the following factors except:
(PAR/116)(AIIMS 86)
(a) Extra human reservoir control
(b) Easy to recognize
(c) Potent vaccine
(d) Long incubation period
6. Which of the following is true of chickenpox:
(PAR/117)(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Virus not found in scab
(b) Virus can be grown on the chick embryo
(c) Caused by RNA virus
(d) Does not cross the placental barrier
7. Infectivity of chickenpox last:
(a) Till last scab fall offs
(b) 3 days after appearance of rash
(c) 6 days after appearance of rash
(d) As long as fever last
8. The most common complication of chickenpox in children is:
(PAR/117) (PGI/2000)
(a) Pneumonia
(b) Secondary bacterial infections
(c) Otitis media
(d) External otitis
Chickenpox
Caused by human (alpha) herpes virus 3 with latent infection
Virus can be grown on tissue culture
Rash is vesicular characterised by dew drops on rose petal
Virus can be readily isolated from the vesicular fluid during 1st three days of illness but scabs are
not infective
1 E
2 D
3 B
4 A
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
24
Period of communicability1-2 days before the appearance of rash and 4to5 days thereafter
Secondary attack rate in household contacts is 70%
Infections during pregnancy presents a risk for the foectus and the neonate (25%)
Transmission is from person to person by droplet, there is no role of fomities
I.period is 14-16 days
Rash is symmetrical and centripetal in distribution
9. Communication period of chickenpox is:

(PAR/117)(AIIMS 2000)
(a) Till last scab falls off
(b)4-5 days after rash
(c) In the incubation period
(d) Only upto fill fever
lasts
10. Which is not a complication of chickenpox:
(PAR/117-118) (AIIMS 86, UPSC 85)
(a) Pancreatitis
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Encephalitis
(d) Thrombocytopenia
11. Chickenpox is characterised by all except:
(a) Live virus can be isolated from crust
(b) Rapid transformation of stage
(c) Rash is centripetal in
distribution
(d) Lesions appear in crops usually
12. True about chickenpox rash:
(PAR/117) (UP 94)
(a) Centrifugal
(b) Pleomorphic
(c) Umbilicated
(d) Deep seated
13. All stages of rash are seen in:
(PAR/117) (UP 94)
(a) Chickenpox
(b) Smallpox
(c) Measles
(d) Typhoid
14. Following are complication of chickenpox except:
(PAR/118) (AI 93)
(a) Reys syndrome
(b) Meningitis
(c) Pneumonia
(d) Enteritis
Complication
Pneumonia
Encephalitis
Acute cerebellar ataxia
Reys syndrome
Foetal wastage and birth defects
Cutaneous scars
Atrophied limbs
Microcephaly and LBW baby
Vaccine- under trial - live attenuated OKA strain
15. Carriers are associated with transmision of disease in all except:
(a) Typhoid
(b) Cholera
(c) Measles
(d) Diphtheria
16. Following is true for measles are A/E:
(a) Caused by myxovirus
(b) Incubation period is 18-21 days
(d) One attack gives lifelong immunity
17. Carriers are not seen in:
(a) Cholera
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Typhoid
(d) Measles
18. Kopliks spots are seen in:
(a) Rubella
(b) Rubeola
(c) Typhoid
(d) Chickenpox

(PAR/119) (UP 96)
(c) Kopliks spots are pathognomonic
(PAR/119) (AI 92)
(PAR/119) (AI 92)
Measles (Rubeola) caused by one serotype of RNA paramyxovirus, source of infection is only case,
carriers are not known to occur however subclinical infection do exist
Period of communicability4 days before and 5 days after the appearance of rash.
Secondary attack rate - is over 80%
One attack gives life-long immunity I.P is 10- 14 days
19. All are true about measles except:

(a) IP = 10-14 days
(b) Sec attack rate 30%
can occur
9 B
10 A
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 D
(PAR/119) (PGI 81, AIIMS 92)

(c) More severe in malnourished
(d) Subclinical infection
15 C
16 B
17 D
18 B
19 B
25
20. Carriers are not an important source of transmission in:

(PAR/119) (AI 89)
(a) Typhoid
(b) Poliomyelitis
(c) Diphtheria
(d) Measles
21. All of following are true about measles except:
(PAR/119) (AI 96)
(a) Maximum incidence in 6 to 36 months age group
(b) Best age for immunization is 9-12 months
(c) Secondary attack rate is 30%
(d) I.P. = 714 days
Clinical features of measles in prodromal stage
Kopliks spot appears on the buccal mucosa opposite the first and second upper molars.
Macular rash begins behind the ears and are confluent and blotchy
In post measles phase there may be growth retardation, diarrhoea, cancrum oris, pyogenic infections
candidiasis and reactivation of tuberculosis
Complication of measles most common ones are: Diarrhoea, pneumonia, other respiratory
complication, otitis media
Febrile convulsion, encephalitis and subacute sclerosing pancephalitis
Acute deficiency of vitamin A leading to keratomalacia and blindness from corneal scarring.
22. In all carriers cause transmission except:
(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Measles
(d) Poliomyelitis
23. Measles vaccine should be used within the following time after reconstitution: (PAR/120) (DELHI 96, AI 89)
(a) 1 hour
(b) 2 hours
(c) 3 hours
(d) 1/2 hours
24. Measles vaccine given to a contact of measles case exerts protective effect within:
(PAR/120) (DELHI 96)
(a) 1 day
(b) 3 days
(c) 7 days
(d) 10 days
Vaccine
All are tissue culture vaccine; HDC -Edmonston Zagreb strain vaccine may protect children from
4-6 months of age.
Diluent to be used is distilled water and reconstituted vaccine should be kept on ice and used within
one hour
Measles vaccine has recently been adopted for aerosol administration.
Measles illness is a mild fever and rash developing 5-10 days after immunization
Immunity develops 11-12 days after vaccination
Pregnancy is a contraindication for vaccination other c/i are acute illness, deficient CMI
Toxic shock syndrome result as adverse effect of vaccine because of contamination
Live measles vaccine should be given 8-12 weeks after immunoglobulin.
25. All of the following are true for measles vaccine except:
(PAR/120) (AI 96,98)
(a) Fever can occur 6-10 days after vaccination
(b) Immunity develops 11-12 days after vaccination
(c) There is spread of virus from vaccine to contacts
(d) Single dose of vaccine gives 95% protection
26. True about measles vaccines are A/E:
(PAR/120) (AI 95)
(a) Given subcutaneous
(b) High efficacy
(c) Given below 1 year of age
(d) Diluent does not require for
storage
27. SSPE can occur following infection with:
(PAR/120) (PGI/2000)
(a) Measles
(b) Rubella
(c) Mumps
(d) Chickenpox
(e) Polio
28. Keratomalacia is associated with:
(PAR/120) (PGI/2000)
(a) Measles
(b) Mumps
(c) Rubella
(d) Diarrhoea
(e) Chickenpox
29. Vaccine contraindicated during pregnancy is:
(PAR/122) (UP/2000) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Rubella
(b) OPV
(c) Tetanus
(d) Influenza
Rubella - cause is a virus (one antigenic type) of the togavirus family.
Characterised by low grade fever, lymphadenopathy and a maculopopular rash
Most of the infections are subclinical
Period of infectivity is 7 days before and 7 days after the eruption of rash
One attack give life-long immunity
40% of women of childbearing age are susceptible to rubella
20 D
21 C
22 C
23 A
24 C
25 C
26 D
27 A
28 C
29 A
26
I.P is 18 days
There is no role of environmental factors in transmission
Nearly 50-65 % cases are asymptomatic
Postauricular and posterior cervical lymph nodes appear even 7 days before rash. Rash may be
absent in subclinical cases (25% cases)
Complications
Arthralgia
Encephalitis
Thrombocytopenic purpura
Congenital Rubellarubella virus affects cell division
First trimester of pregnancy is the most dangerous time
Classical triad is patent ductus arteriosus
Cataract
Deafness
Infection in the second trimester may cause deafness but infection after 16 week cause no major
abnormality.
30. What is not usually a feature of rubella:

(PAR/122) (PGI/2000)
(a) Low grade fever
(b) Arthralgia
(c) Posterior auricular lymphadenopathy
(d) The rash begins on the
trunk
31. Which of the following vaccine was introduced most lately:
(PAR/123) (AIIMS 80, BHU 90)
(a) Mumps
(b) Pertusis
(c) Measles
(d) Rubella
Rubella vaccine
Live attenuated vaccine RA27/3 ( From human diploid fibroblast)
This is the only vaccine preferred for young girls in their teens (1-14 years)
In pregnancy it is contraindicated and recipients of the vaccine should be advised not to become
pregnant over the next three months
32. Which of the following diseases gives life-long immunity after an attack:
(a) Typhoid
(b) Mumps
(c) Tetanus
(d) Diphtheria
(PAR/123) (AIIMS 80, DELHI 93, UP 94)
33. Incubation period for mumps is:
(PAR/123) (AI 89)
(a) 18 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 5 days
34. Following statements is not true regarding mumps:
(PAR/123) (UP 96)
(a) Caused by paramyxovirus
(b) Incubation period is less than one week
(c) About 31-40 % of infections
are clinically in apparent
(d) Orchitis occurs in about one in 4 males 25%
Mumps- caused by one serotyped myxovirus having affinity for glandular and nervous tissue.
Disease present with both clinical and subclinical cases (30-40%)
Period of transmission 4-6 days before and 7 days after onset of symptoms.Infectivity is maximum
just before and at the onset of parotitis and subsides with disappearance of swelling
Secondary attack rate is 86 percent
one attack gives life-long immunity
I.P is 18 days
C/F affects parotid, testes, pancreas CNS, ovaries prostate etc.
Complication
Orchitis
Ovaritis
Pancreatitis
Meaningo-encephalitis
Myocarditis, nerve deafness, polyarthritis, hydrocephalus
B/L orchitis is rare
30 D
31 D
32 B
33 A
34 B
27
35. True about mumps is all except:

(PAR/123) (UP 95)
(a) Incubation period 2-3 weeks
(b) Aseptic meningitis may be present
(c) Even after B/L orchitiss sterility
is unusual
(d) Hyperamylasia falls in pancreatitis
36. Which of the following vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy:
(a) Rubella
(b) OPB
(c) BCG (d) Hepatitis
37. All are features of influenza epidemic except:
(a) Large number of subclinical cases
(b) Long lncubation period
(c) Absence of cross immunity
(d) Sudden outburst
38 Regarding influenza all are true except:
(a) Antegenic drift occur in all three type
(b) Antigenic shift occur due to genetic reassortment
(c) Influenza A is capable of antigenic shift
(d) Influenza B is also capable of genetic reassortment
Influenza- caused by influenza virus (a,b,c)
Pandemics were mainly caused by influenza A type
Epidemics tend to occur at interval of 2-3 years in case of influenza A and 4-7 years in case of
influenza B
Characteristic of influenza epidemic are1. Sudden rise
2. Easy spread
3. Short incubation period
4. Large number of subclinical cases
5. High proportion of susceptible population
6. Short duration immunity
7. Absence of cross immunity
Sporadic cases are explained by extra human reservoirs (pigs, horses, birds) latent infection in
human or continuous transfer from one human to another
Influenza a virus is frequently subjected to antigenic variation either shift or drift
Antigenic shift appears to result from genetic recombination of human with animal or avian virus
Antegenic drift involves points nutrition in the geneowing to selection pressure by immunity in the
host populations
High-risk groups1. Old people over 65 year of age
2. Children under 18 months
3. Persons with diabetes or chronic heart disease, kidney and respiratory ailments.
Prevention of influenza epidemics by prophylactic mass vaccination seems remote because to be
effective it should be administered at least two weeks before the onset of an epidemic.
39. Which of the following diseases has incubation period less than one week:
(PGI/2000)
(a) Kala azar
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Leprosy
(d) Influenza
(e) Food poisoning
40. Live vaccine of influenza is given:
(PAR/126) (PGI 80, AIIMS 86)
(a) S/C
(b) I/M
(c) Intranasally
(d) Orally
Influenza vaccine
1. Killed vaccine
S.C vaccine with immunity lasting for 3-6 months
Revaccination annually
2. Live attenuated vaccine
Nose drops available
3. Bewer vaccine
Split virus vaccine
Neuraminidase vaccine
Recombinant vaccine
35 D
36 A
37 B
38 A
39 E
40 C
28
41. The infectivity of a patient with diphtheria is:

(a) Till cough subsides
(b) Till patient is febrile
(c) Life-long
(d) For 15 days after infection
42. The most common age group for diphtheria is:
(PAR/127) (PGI 86)
(a) 1-2 years
(b) 2-5 years
(c) 2-7 years
(d) 2-9 years
43. Bull neck in diphtheria is due to:
(PAR/127) (AI 96)
(a) Retropharyngeal abscess
(b) Laryngeal oedema
(c) Cellulitis
(d) Lymphadenopathy
44. True about diphtheria are A/E:
(PAR/127) (AI 96)
(a) Incubation period is 2-6 days
(b) Carriers can be prevented by immunization
(c) Shick test detect
susceptibility
(d) Portal of entry through resp. tract
Diphtheria - caused by exotoxin of gram-positive non-motile organism C. diphtheriae
Cases range from subclinical to frank clinical infection but carriers are common source of infection
ratio being 95 carriers for 5 cases.
Nasal carriers are most dangerous and immunization does not prevent the carrier state.
Period of infectivity is14 to 18 days from the onset of the disease.
Epidemic can be prevented by herd immunity of over 70 percent.
I.P is 2-6 days
C/FAffects pharyngotonsillar, laryngotracheal and nasal area
Marked edema of the submandibular area and anterior portion of the neck along with
lymphadenopathy give a characteristics bull neck appearance
Laryngotracheal diphtheria is most severe form of disease
45. One of the following is used in DPT vaccine:
(a) Mg. sulphate
(b) Aluminium phosphate
(c) Aluminium sulphate
(d) Mg. hydroxide
46. Which of the following statements is not true regarding carriers of diphtheria:
(a) Nasal carriers are most dangerous
(b) They are responsible for most cases of infection
(c) Immunisation prevents carrier state
(d) Treatment of contacts indicated
47. Which one of the following combinations is of DPT vaccine?
(PAR/128) (UPSC/03)
(a) Toxoid, live and killed
(b) Toxoid, killed and toxoid (c) Live, killed and toxoid (d) Killed, killed and toxoid
48. For which of the following diseases is the usual antibody source equine:
(PAR/128) (AIIMS 81, PGI 80)
(a) Tetanus, Diphtheria
(b) Infective hepatitis
(c) Measles
49. Management of nonimmunised diphtheria contacts includes all except:
(a) Prophylactic penicillin
(b) Single dose of toxoid
(c) Daily throat examinations
(d) Throat swab culture
50. A herd immunity of over........is considered necessary to prevent epidemic spread of diphtheria:
(a) 50%
(b) 55%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%
(PAR/128) (PGI 80, AIIMS 77)
51. Treatment of choice for diphtheria carrier is:
(a) Erythromycin
(b) Tetracycline
(c) Penicillin
(d) DPT
52. Management of unimmunised contacts of diphtheria is:
(a) Antitoxins
(b) Immunoglobins and antitoxin
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Isolation
Control of diphtheria- By
Early detection
Isolation for at least 14 days
Treatment of cases by antitoxin ( 10,000 to 80,000 units or more ) along with penicillin (2.5 lakh
units every 6 hrly or erythromycin (250 mg every 6 hrly ) for 5-6 days
Treatments of carrierserythromycin for 10 days
Prophylactic penicillin or erythromysin for non-immunized close contacts along with 1000-2000 units
of diphtheria antitoxin and active immunization
Bacteriological surveillance of close contacts for several weeks by repeated swabbing at weekly intervals
53. Which one of the following doses in lethal flocculent units of diphtheria toxoid is incorporated in DPT
vaccine?
(PAR/128)UPSC/02
(a) 5
(b) 15
(c) 25 (d) 35
41 D
42 B
43 D
44 B
45 B
46 C
47 D
48 A
49 B
50 D
51 A
52 C
53 B

54. If convulsions are present, which vaccine should not be given:
(a) DPT
(b) Oral polio
(c) BCG
(d) Tetanus toxoid
55. Excessive crying is seen after vaccination with:
(a) Polio (SALK)
(b) DPT
(c) BCG
(d) Measles
29
(PAR/129) (JIPMER 80, 81, PGI 90)

(e) Measles
DPT Vaccine - (triple vaccine ) available as plain or adsorbed

Absorption or aluminium phosphate or hydroxide increase the immunological effectiveness of the
vaccine.
On a subcenter, should be used within 7 days
Given deep intramuscularly for 3 doses at 4 weeks interval
Complications
Neurological [encephalitis / encephalopathy prolonged convulsion]
Infantile spasms
Ryes syndrome
C/I
Collapse or shock like state
Persistent screening episode
Temperature above 40C
Convulsion neurological symptoms and anaphylactic reactions
56. All of the following statements are true about DPT vaccine except:
(PAR/129)(AIIMS/02)
(a) It should be stored in deep freezer (b) Exposure to direct sunlight,when in use should be avoided (c) Store
stocks are needed for three months at PHC level (d) Half-used vials should not be put back in to the cold chain
after the session
57. Infective period of whooping cough lasts for weeks after onset of paroxysmal stage:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
58. Incubation period of pertussis is:
(a) 7-14 days
(b) Less than 2 weeks
(c) 16-28 days
(d) 6 weeks
59. 59-year-old sister of a neonate is suffering from pertussis, which has been documented by isolation and culture
of the organism. Most appropriate statement regarding this clinical situation is: (PAR/130) (MANIPAL/98)
(a) If mother received pertussis vaccine,the neonate is protected
(b) Hyperimmune globulinis indicated for the
neonate
(c) Erythromycin prophylaxis is indicated in the neonate
(d) DPT vaccine is recommended for the
elder child before birth of child
60. True regarding pertussis is:
(a) 95% of vaccinated are protected
(b) Erythromycin should be given to contacts
(c) Booster is required
in cases of epilepsy
(d) Leucocytosis is diagnostic
Whooping cough (Pertussis)hundred day cough caused by B.pertussis and clinical disease is
associated with encapsulated phase 1 strains
Source of infection is a case of pertussis, subclinical stage and chronic carrier state does not exist
Pertussis is infectious 10 days before and after whoop and is most infectious during catarrhal stage.
Secondary attack rate is 90 percent
Mostly affects children below the age of 5 years with highest mortality among females less than
6 months as there is no protection from maternal antibody.
Attack does not confer life-long immunity
Role of fomites in the spread of infection is small
Complications of pertussisBronchitis, Bronchopneumonia and bronchiectasis
61. The absolute contraindication for administration of pertussis vaccine is:
(PAR/131) (AI 90)
(a) Diarrhoea
(b) Fever
(c) Malnutrition
(d) Convulsions
62. Contraindication of DPT vaccines are A/E:
(PAR/131) (AI 95)
(a) Family history of epilepsy
(b) Any febrile upset
(c) Recent history of infectious disease (d) Children
age below 2 years of age
54 A
55 B
56 D
57 C
58 A
59 C
60 B
61 D
62 B
30
63. After DPT convulsion develop what is done:

(PAR/131) (UP 94)
(a) DT instead of DPT
(b) TT
(c) Further dose DPT given
(d) Rest and continue DPT
64. True about pertussis is all except:
(PAR/131) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) Vaccine has 95% efficacy
(b) Incidence of brain damage with vaccine is 1:50,000
(c) Erythromycin is
drug of choice for contacts
(d) Raised leucocyte count corresponds to severity of cough
65. Not true about carrier state of N. gonorrhoeae is:
(a) Carrier state remains for several months
(b) Organisms can be isolated from nasopharynx
(c) Affect
5-30% of cases during epidemics
(d) It is coccobacillus
66 In a hostel campus, a boy named Xevior developed meningococcal meningitis. 3 days later, a boy named Khiroth
developed fever and neck rigidity. On investigation, Xevior was found to be infected with meningococci group B
and Khiroth was found to be infected with meningococci group C virus:
(PAR/132)(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Prophylatic antibiotics to all contacts of Xevior and Khiroth
(b) Vaccination to all student who came in
contact with Khiroth
(d) Treat both with Ceftriaxone
67. Which of the following is true about meningococcal meningitis:
(PAR/132) (AI 91)
(a) Case fatality less than 10% in untreated cases
(b) Cases are the main source of infection
(c) Rifampicin
is the drug of choice
(d) Treatment in the first 2 days can save the life of 95% cases
Meningococcal meningitis ( Cerebrospinal fever)
Cause is N. meningitidisGroup B cause major epidemic
Carriers are most important source of infection while clinical cases are very less
Period of communicability is as long bacteria is present in discharge from nose and throat and
within 24 hours of specific treatment they are rendered noninfectious.
I.P - 2 to 10 days There is seasonal variation with preference for dry and cold months.
Prevention and control - Isolation is not very effective, cases should be treated with penicillin
and carriers by rifampicin, chemoprophylaxis by rifampicin for close contacts.
Effective vaccine is there for group A,C,Y and W 135 but not recommended for use infant and
children under 2 years age and pregnant women.
Case fatality rates have reduced from 80 to 10% with early diagnosis and treatment.
68 Average incubation period for meningococcal meningitis is:
(PAR/132) (AIIMS 81, PGI 81)
(a) 90 days
(b) 25 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 5 days
(e) 60 days
69. Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy:
(PAR/132) (AI 92)
(a) Cholera vaccine
(b) Typhoid vaccine
(c) Meningococcal vaccine
(d) Polio vaccine
70 Vaccines are available against group....Meningococcus:
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) A and C
71. In meningococcal epidemic all of the following are useful for prophylaxis except:
(a) Rifampicin
(b) Sulfas
(c) Vaccine
72. The following diseases are under surveillance by WHO, except:
(PAR/96) (AI 91)
(a) Relapsing fever
(b) Plague
(c) Malaria
(d) Tuberculosis:Tetracycline
73 In meningococcal meningitis:
(PAR/132) (AI 91)
(a) Fatality of typical untreated case is 10%
(b) Rifampicin is the drug of choice in eradicating carrier state
(c) Cases are the most important source of infection
(d) Cases start losing their infectiousness 3-4 days after
starting specific antimicrobial therapy
74 Meningococcal vaccine exists for all except following strains:
(PAR / 132) (AIIMS 98)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) W-135
75. Prevalence of RIID in children in India:
(PAR/136)(BURDWAN 2K)
(a) 3/1000
(b) 6/1000
(c) 8/1000
(d) 10/1000
76. The drug used by health workers in the management of acute respiratory illness
(PAR/137)(KARNAT 99)
(a) Cotrimoxazole
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Benzyl penicillin
(d) Gentamycin
77. The following statements are true for tuberculosis in India, except:
(PAR/140) (AI 91)
(a) Average prevalence of infection is 30%
(b) The annual incidence of new cases is 0.4% above the age of
10 years
(c) Nonspecific sensitivity is prevalent
(d) Estimated number of annual death is 500,000
63 A
76 A
64 B
77 B
65 D
66 B
67 D
68 D
69 C
70 D
71 C
72 D
73 B
74 B
75 B
31
78. Assessment of magnitude of TB and its trend in community is by:

(AI 2000) (PAR/140) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Tuberculin conversion index
(b) Incidence rate
(c) Prevalence rate
(d) Fatality rate
Tuberculosis categorization of countries according to dots strategy
Category
0
1
Definition
Countries not reporting to WHO
Countries not implementing the DOTs strategy and having case notification rate
of over 10 cases per 100,000 population
Countries implementing the DOTs strategy in less than 10 percent of total
population (pilot phase)
Countries implementing the DOTs strategy in 10-90% of total population
(expansion phase)
Countries implementing the DOTs strategy in over 90 percent of the total
population (routine implementation)
Countries not implementing DOTs strategy but having a case notification rate of
less than 10 cases per 100,000 population (low incidence)
2
3
4
5
79. Which is best indicator of evaluating TB and its trends in society:

(PAR/140) (AI/2000)
(a) Tuberculosis conversion index
(b) Mortality rate
(c) Prevalence of infection
(d) New cases
80. Infectious pool of tuberculosis is denoted by:
(PAR/140) (UPSC 86,88 DELHI92)
(a) Prevalence of sputum +ve cases
(b) Prevalence of X-ray +ve cases
(c) Clinically +ve cases
81. Estimated number of sputum +ve pulmonary tuberculosis in India:
(PAR/140) (AIIMS 91, AP 91)
(a) 6 million
(b) 10 million
(c) 5 million
(d) 2.5 million
Indian statistics
Prevalence of infection
30% (22% is <14year)
0.6- 2.3 %
1-2%
4 cases / 1,000 pop
1 case / 1000 pop
53 / 100,000 pop in 1993
Incidence of infection
Rate of infection
Prevalence of disease
Incidence of new cases
Annual deaths
82. Annual infection rate in TB is the percentage of:

(PAR/140)(UPSC/2001)
(a) Persons converted from tuberculine negative to positive (b) New cases of tuberculosis (c) Sputum positive
cases
(d) Radiological cases
83. Regarding prevalence of tuberculosis all are correct except:
(PAR/141) (AI 91)
(a) Death occurs one in 500,000 population
(b) 40% of cases occur in children
(c) 0.4% children are 10 years
of age
(d) Nonspecific sensitivity is highly prevalent
84 Prevalence of tuberculosis infection is measured by:
(a) Chest X-ray
(b) Sputum AFB
(c) Tuberculin test
(d) Sputum culture
85. A case in TB is defined as:
(PAR/141) (AP 96)
(a) X-ray positive
(b) Culture positive
(c) Sputum AFB positive
(d) Tuberculosis positive
86 A patient with sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis is on ATT for the last 5 months but the patient is still
positive for AFB in the sputum. This case refers to:
(a) New case
(b) Failure case
(c) Relapse case
(d) Drug defaulter
78 A
79 A
80 A
81 D
82 A
83 A
84 C
85 C
86 B
32

Smear negative tuberculosis: After three negative smears but tuberculosis suggestive symptoms and
X-ray abnormalities or positive culture.
New cases: Sputum positive tubercular case without any prior treatment or ATT for less than 4 weeks
Relapse: A patient who returns smear positive having previously been treated and declared cured after
completion of his treatment.
Failure case: A smear positive case who remainded or become smear positive again at five months
or later during the course of treatment.
Return after default: A patient who returns sputum smear positive after having treatment for at
least three months.
The most common source of infection is the human case and effective antimicrobial treatment
reduces infectivity by 90 percent within 48 hours
Tuberculosis is not trasmitted by fomities hence sterilization of articles is of little value.
87. HIV virus can be isolated from all except:

(a) Semen
(b) Saliva
(c) Blood
(d) Skin scraping
88. Prevalence of open TB in our country is:
(a) 0.1%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 1%
(d) 4%
Prevalence of infection is the percent of individual who show a positive reaction to standard
tuberculin test.
Every 1% annual risk of infection is said to correspond to 50 new cases of smear positive pulmonary
tuberculosis per year for 1,00,000 general population. This is tuberculin conversion index and is best
for evaluating the tuberculosis problem
Case load or number of infective cases is estimated by prevalence of disease or case rate.
89. Under the revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme, a new case is one who has never had treatment
for tuberculosis or has taken anti-tubercular drugs for less than:
(PAR/141)(UPSC/2001)
(a) 2 weeks
(b) 4 weeks
(c) 6 weeks
(d) 8 weeks
90. Annual infection rate in TB is the percentage of:
(PAR/141) (UPSC/01)
(a) Persons converted from tuberculine negative to positive (b) New cases of tuberculosis (c) Sputum positive
cases
(d) Radiological cases
91. Not true about tuberculin test:
(PAR/142) (AI 95)
(a) INH converts positive negative
(b) 10 mm suggest disease
(c) Specific to TB
(d) Absence of reaction
should be continuously interpreted
92. True about Mantoux test is:
(PAR/142) (AI 96, 98)
(a) Test is read before 48 hrs (b) 6-9 mm induration have chances of Dev T.B. (c) New cases occur in tuberculin
negative person
(d) Induration>10 mm is diagnostic
93. Tuberculin test is read after:
(PAR/142) (UPSC 85)
(a) 48 hours
(b) 72 hours
(c) 96 hours
(d) 24 hours
94. For Mantoux test, the standard dose of tuberculin used in India is:
(PAR/142) (UPSC 96)
(a) 0.5 TU
(b) 1.0 TU
(c) 5.0 TU
(d) 10.0 TU
95. In tuberculin testing induration of.....is considered positive:
(PAR/142) (TN 88)
(a) 5 mm or more
(b) 7 mm or more
(c) 10 mm or more
(d) 15 mm or more
96. Tuberculin test positivity depends on:
(PAR/142) (AI 96)
(a) Erythema
(b) Nodule formation
(c) Induration
(d) Ulcerative change
97. Person who is sputum+ve at 5 months or stops treatment between 1-5 months is:
(a) Treatment defaulter
(b) Failure case
(c) Chronic case
(d) Cured case
98. True about tuberculin test:
(PAR/142) (AI 98)
(a) Used for diagnosis of TB (b) Measure incidence of disease (c) More than 10 mm in 72 hr indicates positive
test
(d) Measure immunity status
Control of TB: Control is said to be achieved when the prevalence of natural infection in the age group
0-14 years is of the order of 1 percent which is 40 percent in India.
Case finding tools
1. Sputum examination
2. Mass miniature radiography
3. Tuberculin test
87 D
88 B
89 B
90 A
91 C
92 D
93 B
94 B
95 C
96 C
97 A
98 C
33
99. Diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis is best confirmed by:

(PAR/143) (UPSC 85, 88, AI 88)
(a) Sputum examination
(b) Mass miniature radiography
(c) Tuberculin testing
(d) History alone
100. The most frequently used combination of antituberculous drugs in India is:
(a) INH + Ethambutol
(b) INH + Thiacetazone
(c) INH + PAS
(d) Streptomycin
101. Disadvantage of domiciliary treatment of tuberculosis is:
(PAR/144) (AI 92)
(a) Increased side effects
(b) Irregular treatment
(c) More costlier
(d) Exposure to household contacts
102. To prevent emergence of resistance in TB following are done except:
(PAR/144)(AIIMS 98)
(a) Multidrug regimen used
(b) Drug to which bacteria are sensitive is used
(c) Defaulter action
(d) Pretreatment regular culture sensitivity
103. Short-term antitubercular therapy is given to minimise:
(PAR/145) (AIIMS 79, DELHI 89)
(a) Resistance
(b) Toxicity
(c) Relapse
(d) Cost
104. DOTS indicates
(PAR/146)UPSC/02
(a) Long-term treatment under direct observation (b) Short-term treatment under direct observation (c) Shortterm treatment without observation
(d) Domiciliary treatment without observation.
105. A person with tuberculosis on domiciliary treatment is expected to do all except:
(a) Dispose sputum safely
(b) Use separate vessels
(c) Collect drugs regularly
(d) Report to PHC if new symptoms arise
106. 0.1 ml of BCG contains...mg. moist weight:
(PAR/147) (PGI 81, DNB 89)
(a) 0.050
(b) 0.025
(c) 0.075
(d) 0.100
107. A adult male patient presented in the OPD with complaints of cough and fever for 3 months and haemoptysis
off and on. His sputum was positive for AFB. On probing it was found that he had already received treatment
with RHZE for 3 weeks from a nearby hospital and discontinued. How will you categorize and manage the patient?
(PAR/148) (AIIMS/02)
(a) Catgory III, start 2 (RHZ)c
(b) Catgory II, start 2 (RHZE)c.
(c) Catgory I, start 2 (RHZE)c
(d) Catgory II, start 2 (RHZEs)c
Treatment of Tuberculosis category wise
TB category
Initial phase
(daily/3 times per wk)
I
II
III
IV
2HRZE (S)
2HRZES + 1 HRZE
2HRZ
For H resistance
For H + R resistance
Continuation phase
Total duration
4 HR or 6HE
6/8
5HRE or 5H3R3E3
8
4 HR or 6HE
8
12 RZE
6
ZE + S/Etm +
ciprolofl can be used
108. All the following are correct regarding BCG vaccination reactions except:
(a) Ulceration with crust
(b) Heals within 6-12 weeks
(c) Maximum size of papule is reached at 5 weeks
(d) Suppurative lymphadenitis
109 BCG vaccine is administered to children:
(PAR/149) (AIIMS 81, BHU 86)
(a) Intradermally
(b) Subcutaneously
(c) Intramuscularly
(d) Orally
BCG vaccination - BCG vaccination is of two types Freeze dried (more stable)
Liquid vaccine
Normal saline is recommended as a diluent and vaccine may be used up within three hours
Given intradermally with tuberculin syringe
2-3 weeks after vaccination, a papule develops at site of vaccination which reaches a size of 4-8 mm
in about 5 weeks, healing occurs spontaneously within 6- 12 weeks
If local abscess fromTreatment is aspiration with local PAS or INH powder and no other injection
in that arm for at least 6 months.
BCG is less effective in controlling tuberculosis as it offers only partial protection but still in India
BCG gets priority over chemoprophylaxis. Surveillance is an integral part of any TB control
programme.
99 A
100 B
101 B
102 D
103 A
104 B
105 B
106 C
107 C
108 D
109 A
34
110. The direct BCG vaccination in India is given up to age of:

(PAR/149) (AIIMS 81, DNB 92)
(a) 10 years
(b) 15 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 25 years
111. The vaccine administered by subcutaneous route is:
(a) BCG
(b) OPV
(c) Tetanus toxoid
(d) Measles
112. In the administration of BCG vaccine, the diluent is:
(PAR/149)
(a) Glycerine
(b) Glycerol
(c) Normal saline
(d) Distilled water
113. BCG is not given to patients with:
(a) Generalised eczema
(b) Infective dermatosis
(c) Hypogammaglobulinaemia
114. Diluent used for BCG vaccine is:
(PAR/149) (AI 99)
(a) Distilled water
(b) Saline water
(c) Lime water
115. A positive Mantoux test indicates that the child:
(PAR/150) (JIPMER 80,81, PGI 88)
(a) Is suffering from active TB
(b) Has had BCG vaccination recently
(c) Has had tuberculosis infection
(d)All of the above
116. Effectivity of BCG vaccine is:
(PAR/150) (JIPMER 81, DELHI 85, 87)
(a) 80%
(b) 60%
(c) 40%
(d) Less than 40%
117. A rural woman diagnosed as a case of pulmonary tuberculosis has just delivered a baby. She is advised the
following except:
(PAR/150)(AI 89)
(a) Chemoprophylaxis for the child
(b) Regular antitubercular therapy for 2 years
(c) Collection and disposal
of her sputum daily
(d) Withholding of breastfeeding
118. All are true of BCG innoculation, except:
(a) Papule in 7 days
(b) Forms an ulcer
(c) Heals spontaneously
(d) Size of 4-8 mm in 5 weeks
119. AIDS was first detected in India in the year:
(a) 1975
(b) 1981
(c) 1986
(d) 1991
B. Intestinal Infections
120. Multiplication factor for estimating total cases of paralytic polio is:
(PAR/154) (AI/2000)
(a ) 1.2
(b) 1.33
(c) 1.5
(d) 2
121. Number of subclinical cases for 1 paralytic polio is:
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 1,000
(d) 10,000
122 All true for a polio epidemic curve in a community except:
(a) All cases within 7-14 days
(b) Orofecal mode of transmission
(c) Herd immunity present
(d) Epidemic
curve has a slow rising slope and decline
123. The most predominant type of polio virus during epidemics is:
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Combined infection of II and III
124. Wrong about polio patient who had paralysis:
(PAR/155) (PGI 82, DELHI 88)
(a) Can transmit it by nasal discharge
(b) Subclinical infection common
(c) Can be given vaccine
125. Which of the following type of polio is most common:
(PAR/155) (AIIMS 80, AMU 90)
(a) Inapparent
(b) Abortive
(c) Nonparalytic
(d) Paralytic
126. The epidemiological trend of poliomyelitis are all except:
(a) Affects higher age groups
(b) Increasing in tropics
(c) Also cause upper limb paralysis
(d) Sporadic to epidemic
127. True about polio epidemic:
(PAR/155) (UP 97)
(a) Curve rises and falls fastly
(b) Transmission via percutaneous route
(c) All college and school is closed
inform the public
(d) All susceptible children should be immunised
128. In polio transmission easy block can be applied by acting on:
(PAR/155) (UP 94)
(a) Reservoir
(b) Susceptible host
(c) Faecooral
(d) Agent
129. Least likely to diagnosed Polio is:
(a) Fever, malaise for 2 days
(b) Fever and signs of neck rigidity
(c) Descending symmetrical paralysis with
preservation of reflexes and sensory system
(d) Gradual recovery of muscle function in 6 months
110 C
123 C
111 D
124 A
112 C
125 A
113 D
126 A
114 B
127 D
115 D
128 B
116 D
129 C
117 D
118 A
119 C
120 B
121 C
122 D
35
130 Pulse polio immunisation is done in India in Dec-Jan because of:

(PAR/155(AMC/99)
(a) Administrative convenience
(b) Easiness of maintaining cold chain
(c) As a tradition
(d) All of the
above
(e) None of the above
131 Consider the following statements regarding poliomyelitis:
(PAR/155) (UPSC/01)
1. It is primarily an infection of alimentary tract but may affect the central nervous system in some cases
2. It occurs mostly in the age group of 5 to 10 years
3. It occurs sporadically, endemically or in epidemic form
4. It can be prevented, controlled and even eradicated by a proper vaccination programme
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) 2,3 and 4
C/F of polio paralytic polio mostly caused by type 1 virus
Man is the only reservoir of infection and most of the infection are subclinical.
Disease is communicable 7 -10 days before and after onset of symptoms
Most vulnerable age is 6 months -3 years.
Paralytic polio is ppt by fatigue, trauma, intramuscular injections and operative tonsillectomy.
Mode of trasmission may be faeco-oral or droplet
I.P is 7-14 days
1- Subclinical infection 95%
2- Abortive polio or minor illness 4-8%
3- Nonparalytic polio<1%
4- Paralytic polio<1%
Predominant sign of paralytic polio is asymmetrical flaccid paralysis. Progression of paralysis
to reach its peak in 4-7 days. The paralysis is of descending type. Proximal muscle group are
more involved than distal ones. Deep tendon reflexes are diminished before the paralysis
begins but there is no sensory loss.
132. Concentration of type 3 virus in OPV is:
(a) 20,000 TCID 50
(b) 50,000 TCID 50
(c) 150,000 TCID 50
(d) 300,000 TCID 50
133. Vaccine associated paralytic polio is due to.... virus in OPV:
(PAR/156) (AMU 91)
(a) Type 1
(b) Type 2
(c) Type 3
(d) All types
134. The following is not true of inactivated polio vaccine:
(PAR/156) (AI 90,91)
(a) Induces only circulating antibodies
(b) Prevents both paralysis and reinfection by wild poliovirus
(c) Does not require stringent storage temperature
(d) Not useful in controlling epidemics
135. The following statements are true for inactivated polio vaccine except:
(PAR/156) (UP 96)
(a) It does not produce intestinal immunity
(b) It prevents paralysis
(c) It is contraindicated in immune
deficiency disorders
(d) Booster doses with oral polio vaccine can be given
Polio vaccine
Oral (sabin) polio vaccine - The vaccine contains over
- 3,00,000 TCID 50 of type 1 polio virus
- 1,00,000 TCID 50 of type 2 polio virus
- 3,00,000 TCD 50 of type 3 virus per dose
Differences between IPV and OPV
IPV (Salk type)
OPV (Sabin type)
1. Killed formalised virus

2. Given subcutaneously or IM
3. Induces circulating antibody but
no local (intestinal) immunity
130 A
131 C
132 D
133 C
134 B
Live attenuated
Given orally
Immunity is both humoral
and intestinal, induces antibody quickly
135 C
36

4. Prevents paralysis, but does not
prevent reinfections by wild polio
virus.
5. Not useful in controlling epidemics
elicits substantial immunity
6. More difficult to manufacture
7. The virus content is 10,000
times more than OPV hence costlier
8. Does not require stringent
Prevents not only paralysis, but also intestinal

reinfections
Can be effectively used in controlling epidemics. Even
a single dose (except in tropical countries)
Easy to manufacture
Cheaper
Requires to be stored and trasported at subzero
temperatures, unless stabilized condition during
storage and transportation has a longer self-life
136. False regarding polio vaccine:

(a) Helps in herd immunity
(b) Killed vaccine prevents paralysis
(c) Difficult to maintain chain
(d) Immunity takes a long time to develop
137. In an epidemic of poliomyelitis best to stop spread by:
(PAR/156) (AI 94)
(a) Injection of killed vaccine
(b) OPV drops to all children
(c) Isolation of the cases
(d) Chlorination of all the wells
138. All of the following feature are suggestive of asbestosis except:
(a) Occurs within five years of exposer (b) The disease progress even after removal of contract (c) Can lead
to pleural mesothelima
(d) Sputum contains asbestos bodies
The efficiency of cold chain system for oral polio vaccine as monitored by vaccine vial
139. Monitor (VVM) depends on.
(a) Change in colour of vaccine (b) Temperature indicator of the system
of colour on the label of the bottle
140. Acute flaccid paralysis in which age group is to be reported:
(a) 0-5 years
(b) 0-10 years
(c) 0-15 years
(d) 0-3 years
(PAR/157)UPSC/02
(c) Viral potency test
(d) Change
(PAR/-158) (ALL INDIA/02)
Polio AFP surveillance

For children less than 15 years two stool sample are analysed by WHO acredited laboratory.
Evaluated by
1. Sensitivity of reporting( target being non-polio AFP rate of at least 1 case per 100,000
children <15 year)
2. Completness of specimen collection (two adequate stool specimens from at least 80 percent of
all AFP cases).
141. All of following are AFP under the polio eradication programme, except:
(a) Wild strain isolated from feces
(b) Residual paralysis at 30 days
of diagnosis
(c) Those dying before confirmation
Strategies for polio eradication in India

Conduct pulse polio immunization days every year for 3-4 years or until poliomyelitis is eradicated
Sustain high levels of routine immunization coverage
Arrange follow-up of all cases of AFP at 60 days to check for residual paralysis
Monitor OPV coverage at district level and below
Ensure rapid case investigation including the collection of stool samples for virus isolation
Improve surveillance capable of detecting all cases of AFP due to polio and non-polio etiology
Conduct outbreak control for cases confirmed or suspected to be polio to stop trasmission.
Even a single case is treated as an outbreak and preventive measure are initiated, usually within
48 hours of notification of the case.
136 D
137 B
138 A
139 A
140 C
141 B
37
All cases of acute flaccid paralysis must be reported to CMO/district immunization officers along
with following details Name / age / sex of the patient
Fathers name and complete address
Vaccination status
Date of on set paralysis and date of reporting
Clinical diagnosis
Doctors name /address and phone number
Mopping Up
Involves door-to-door immunization in high risk districts
Colours monitor or labels are put on vaccine bottles. Each label has circle of deep blue colour
Inside it is a white square which changes colour and gradually becomes blue if vaccine is exposed
to higher temperature.
142. Average incubation period of infectious hepatitis is:
(a) 7 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 25 days
(d) 50 days
PAR/160)(AIIMS 86)
Hepatitis A
Caused by type 72 enterovirus which is not affected by chlorine in doses usually employed for
chlorination.
Virus is inactivated by ultraviolet rays /boiling for 5 minutes / autoclaving and formalin.
Asymptomatic infections are especially common in children
Period of infectivity is from two weeks before to 1 week after the onset of jaundice.
One attack usually gives immunity for life.
Prevention
0.5% sodium hypochlorite to be used for disinfection of faces and fomites
1 mg/l of free residual chlorine can cause destruction of the virus in 30 minutes at pH 8.5 or less.
Vaccine and immunoglobin are available for control of susceptible population.
143. The persistent carrier state in hepatitis B is defined once the HBsAg is present in blood for longer than:
(a) 2 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 6 months
(163) (AI 88)
144. True about viral hepatitis B is:
(163)(AIIMS 86)
(a) Transmits by oral route
(b) More incubation period than viral A
(c) Different histopathologically from
viral A hepatitis
(d) Can be cultured
145. Best method to protect newborn from HBs Ag + ve, mother is:
(PAR/164) (AI 99)
(a) Isolation (b) Stopping breastfeeding (c) Hep B immunoglobulin (d) Hep B vaccine and immunoglobulin
Hepatitis B
Characterized by long incubation period (6 weeks -6 months )
Risk of an adult becoming a carrier after acute infection is 5-15% and in infants more than 50%
Prevention
Hepatitis B vaccine
Plasma derived
RDNA -yeast drived
3 Doses of 1ml, first at an elected date, second 1 month later and third 6 month after first dose
- Hepatitis B Immunoglobulin (HBG)
146. Maximum maternal mortality is seen in:
(a) Hepatitis B
(b) Hepatitis E
(c) Hepatitis C
(d) Hepatitis
147. Most common cause of epidemic of infective hepatitis in Inida is:
(a) HAV
(b) HBV
(c) HCV
(d) HEV
142 C
143 D
144 B
145 D
146 B
147 D
(PAR/165) (PGI 89)

(PAR/165) (ORRISA/01)
38

Hepatitis C
Caused by a single stranded RNA virus with low risk of sexual and metarnal (neonatal
transmission.
RIBA (recombinant immunoblot assay) tests are used to confirm anti HCV positive cases
Most RIBA positive ones are potentially infectious
Interferon is the only drug found effective in the treatment of HCV infection
Hepatitis E
Characterized by a fluminating form of acute disease, most commonly in pregnant women (20 %)
Infection during pregnancy causes abortions, IUD and high perinatal morbidity and mortality.
Hepatitis G- usually associated with blood transfusion.
148. Cholera is a vehicle transmitted disease because:

(PAR/168) (AI 91)
(a) When the vehicle is controlled the epidemic subsides
(b) It is always possible to isolate the organism from
the vehicle
(c) The common source of infection is not traceable
(d) The organism does not travel great
distances
149. About cholera true is:
(a) Eltor variety rarer than classical
(b) Vaccine is essential during epidemics
(c) Antibiotic therapy
contraindicated
(d) Ganglioside receptors in the intestines
150 True in eltor cholera are A/E:
(PAR/168) (AI 97)
(a) Infections are mild and symptomatic
(b) They are resistant to polymyxin-B unit disc
(c) Chronic carriers
are common
(d) Secondary attacks rate high family
151. True about eltor epidemiology are all except:
(a) Chronic carrier are common
(b) Asymptomatic mild cases common
(c) Long extraintestinal survival
(d) High secondary attack rate in families
152. Epidemiology of cholera in England was classified by:
(PAR/168)(BURDWAN 2K)
(a) John Snow
(b) Winslow
(c) Chadwick
(d) Howard Hughes
Cholera
Caused by Vibrio cholerae (Classical or Eltor)
Case fatality may be high as 30-40%
Most of the cases are now caused by eltor biotype with serotype ogawa
Most of the cases are subclinical
The disease has an epidemic tendency with a higher infection to case ratio
Cholera has long-term carriers
Existence of the diminished but continous trasmission involving asymptomatic cases
Persistence of the organism in a free living, perheps altered from in the enviorment
V cholerae are killed by cresol bleaching powders (6 mg/lit) and heat at 56C
Infection is due to enterotoxin affecting cyclase CAMP system
Only reservoir of infection is man and most of the cases are mild asymptomatic
Carriers are usually temporary rarely chronic. Incubationary carriers are potential patients
153. Of the total deaths, diarrhoea induced deaths among children below 5 years of age in India are:
(a) 35% to 40 %
(b) 25% to 30 %
(c) 15% to 20 %
(d) 5% to 10%
(PAR/168) (UPSC/01)
154. Which one of the following is the longest carrier state found in the disease of cholera? (PAR/169) (UPSC/03)
(a) 2 to 3 weeks
(b) 1 to 5 years
(c) 5 to 10 years
(d) Above 10 years
155. In a case control study of a suspected association between breast cancer and the contraceptive pill, all of the
following are true statements except:
(PAR/169)(AIIMS/02)
(a) The control should come from a population that has the same potential for breast cancer as the cases
(b) The control should exclude women known to be taking the pill at the time of the survey
(c) All the
control needs to be healthy
(d) The attributable risk of breast cancer resulting from the pill may be
directly measured.
148 A
149 D
150 C
151 D
152 A
153 C
154 D
155 D

156. The infectivity of a convalescent case of cholera lasts for:
(a) Less than 7 days
(b) 7 to 14 days
(c) 14 to 21 days
39
(PAR/169)(UPSC/2001)
(d) 21 to 28 days
Carriers may be-
Incubatory
Convalescent
Contact or healthy
Chronic
Vibrio is destroyed in an acidity of pH 5 or lower hence conditions affecting gastric acidity may
influence individual susceptiblity
Immunity is local and vaccination gives only temporary, partial immunity for 3-6 months
I.P is 1-2 days
Eltor cholera differs from classical cholera by a higher incidence of mild and asymptomatic
infection.
Fewer secondary cases in the affected families
Occurrence of chronic carriers
Eltor vibrios are more resistant than classical cholera in surviving in extraintestinal enviornment.
Control of cholera
1. Verification of diagnosis
2. Notification
3. Early case finding
4. Establishment of treatment centers
5. Rehydration therapy
6. Adjuncts to therapy
7. Epidemiological investigation
8. Sanitation measure
9. Chemoprophylaxis
10. Vaccination
Vaccination has two doses at interval of 4-6 weeks with booster every six months.
Vaccine is no value in controlling epidemics.
Live vaccine is CVD - 103 HgR strain of Vibrio Cholerae 01
International vaccination certificate is considered valid for a period of six months starting 6 days
of infection.
157. The required amount of bleaching powder necessary to disinfect choleric stools is:
(a) 25 gm/litre
(b) 50 gm/litre
(c) 75 gm/litre
(d) 100 gm/litre
158. Which is not essential in case of cholera epidemic:
(a) Weekly chlorination
(b) Notification
(c) Vaccination of individuals
(d) Treatment with ORS and tetracycline
(PAR/170)(AI 91)
(PAR/171) (AI 92, 98)
Composition of ORS -citrate

Ingredient
Quantity
Glucose
Sodium chloride
Potassium chloride
Potable water
Trisodium citrate dehydrate
20.0 g
3.5 g
1.5 g
1 litre
2.9 g
159. Oral rehydration fluid does not contain:

(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Calcium lactate
(c) Bicarbonate
160. The WHO formula for ORS provides in mEq/L:
(a) 70 of sodium
(b) 20 of potassium
(c) 30 of chloride
156 C
157 D
158 C
159 B
160 B
(PAR/171) (PGI 86)

(d) Glucose
(PAR/171) (AI 90)
(d) 80 of sodabicarb
40
161. Oral rehydration therapy consists of the following except:

(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Potassim chloride
(c) Magnesium sulphate
(d) Glucose
162. Citrate is added to conventional oral rehydration solution (ORS) in order to:
(PAR/171) (UPSC 98)
(a)Improve sodium chloride absorption
(b) Correct acidosis
(c) Increase its shelf-life
(d)Improve glucose
absorption
163. The best method to treat diarrhoea in a child is:
(PAR/172) (PGI 86)
(a) IV fluids
(b) ORS
(c) Antibiotics
(d) Bowel binders
164. Osmolality of WHO ORS is (mmol):
(PAR/172)(AI 99)
(a) 240
(b) 270
(c) 800
(d) 330
165. The drug of choice in cholera is:
(PAR/173) (KARN 94)
(a) Tetracycline
(b) Sulphadiazine
(c) Ampicillin
(d) Streptomycin
166. Chemoprophylaxis for cholera is by administrating:
(PAR/173) (AI 88)
(a) Doxycycline 300 mg. once
(b) Metrogyl 400 mg. 3 tablets
(c) Vancomycin 1 mg. stat
(d) Kannamycin 500 mg.stat
167. In a cholera epidemic, the information is to be given up to level of:
(PAR/173) (DELHI 85, AMC 92)
(a) Health ministry
(b) DGF AMS
(c) Hospital
(d) CMO and IMO
168. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all of the following measures are recommended except:
PAR/173(AI/03)
(a) Mass chemoprophylaxis (b) Proper disposal of excreta (c) Chlorination of water (d) Early detection and
management of cases
169. Best prophylaxis of cholera is:
(a) Early case detection (b) Improved water sanitation (c) Chemoprophylaxis (d) Check spread of epidemic
170. As per the latest guidelines which of the following dehydration status requires ORS prescription:
(PAR/173) (KARN 95)
(a) Mild dehydration
(b) Moderate dehydration
(c) Some dehydration
(d) Any dehydration
171. Regarding cholera vaccine all are correct except that:
(PAR/174) (ASSAM 95)
(a) It is given at intervals of 6 months
(b) Long-lasting immunity
(c) Not useful in epidemics
(d) Not given orally
172. Certificate of cholera vaccination is valid after.......days:
(PAR/174) (JIPMER 78, AIIMS 83)
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 10
173. Of the total deaths, diarrhoea-induced deaths among children below 5 years of age in India are:
(a) 35 to 40%
(b) 25 to 30%
(c) 15 to 20%
(d) 5 to 10%
(PAR/175)(UPSC/2001)
174. The common cause of diarrhoea in children is:
(PAR/176) (PGI 86)
(a) Rota virus
(b) Norwalk virus
(c) Adenovirus
(d) Giardiasis
175. Vomiting occurs in a group of children in the night who had a meal at noon. The causative agent for food poisoning
is most likely to be:
(a) Salmonella
(b) Botulism
(c) Staphylococcus
(d) Viral gastroenteritis
176. In salmonellosis isolation done till:
(PAR/179) (UP 95)
(a) Fever subsides
(b) Blood culture negative
(c) Spleen subsides
(d) Stool culture negative for three
times
177. Only human beings are the reservoirs for:
(PAR/179) (DELHI 84, 88)
(a) Pox
(b) Influenza
(c) Salmonella
(d) Rabies
178. In typhoid, a permanent carrier is one who excretes bacilli for more than:
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 1 year
(d) 3 years
Typhoid Fever
Caused by S. typhi which is readily killed by drying, pasteurization and other common disinfectants.
Man is the only reservoir in the form of cases or carriers
Average carrier rate is 3% and faecal carriers are more frequent than urinary carriers
Carrier rate is more in females.
CMI plays an important role is controlling infection. Host factors contributing to resistance to
S.typhi are gastric acidity and local intestinal immunity.
I P is 10-14 days
161 C
174 A
162 C
175 C
163 B
176 D
164 D
177 C
165 A
178 C
166 A
167 A
168 A
169 B
170 D
171 B
172 C
173 C
41
179. Highest incidence of typhoid fever in the age group (years):

(PAR/179) (PGI 80, DNB 90)
(a) 10-12
(b) 20-30
(c) 30-40
(d) 40-60
180. Case fatality rate of typhoid is:
(PAR/179)(AI IHPH 2K)
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
181. The time period is more than __________ for chronic carrier of typhoid:
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(d) 12 months
182. In typhoid carrier:
(a) Typhoid bacilli are excreted for 4 months only
(b) Occurs more in females
(c) Excreted more in faeces
than in urine
(d) Sputum or milk may be the source
183. In salmonellosis, isolation is recommended till:
(PAR/ 180) (AIIMS 98)
(a) 3 consecutive stool cultures are ve
(b) Fever subsides
(c) Widal reaction is ve
(d) 72 hour after
chloramphenicol therapy
Control typhoid fever
1. Control of reservoir
2. Control of sanitation
3. Immunization
Antityphoid vaccine - acetone killed vaccine is superior to both phenol and alcohol vaccine
Protection is 70-85% for 3-4 years
Vaccine available are1. Monovalent antityphoid vaccine
2. Bivalent
3. TAB vaccine
4. Live oral Ty 21a vaccine
TAB vaccineGiven subcutaneously and immunity develops 10-21 days after inoculation and the
protection is maintained for at least 3 years
Live oral Ty 21a vaccineContains 10 viable organism of the attenuated Salmonella typhi strain
Ty 21a
Indicated for immunization of adults and children more than 6 years
One capsule administered on day 1,3,5 irrespective of age, one hour before meal with cold milk or
water.
Protection commences 2 weeks after taking last capsule and last for at least 3 years
Vaccine is contraindicated in
1.
Congenital or acquired immunodeficiency
2.
Pt on treatment with immunosuppressive
3.
Antimitotic drugs
4.
Acute febrile illness
5.
Acute intestinal infection
184. For a typhoid endemic country like india, the immunization of choice is:
(a) TAB Vaccine
(b) Typhoral 21 A oral vaccine
(c) Monovalent vaccine
185. Bivalent vaccine of typhoid contains:
(a) S. typhi + S. paratyphi A
(b) S. typhi + S. paratyphi B
(c) S. paratyphi A + B
(d) S. paratyphi B + C
186. In acetone killed typhoid vaccine the immunity last for:
(PAR/181) (PGI 91)
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 3 years
187. A group of people suffer from abdominal cramps, diarrhoea and vomiting two hours after eaten barfi. The
suspected aetiological agent is:
(PAR/182) (AI 89)
(a) Salmonella typhimurium
(b) Staphylococcus aureus
(c) Clostridium botulinum
(d) Vibrio cholerae
188. A child has taken milk products but within 6 hrs, he starts vomiting,the likely organism is:
(PAR/182)(AI/2000)
(a) Staph aureus
(b) Salmonella
(c) Bacillus cereus
(d) Clostridia
179 A
180 C
181 D
182 C
183 A
184 C
185 A
186 D
187 D
188 A
42
189. Food poisoning is caused by:

(PAR /182) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Cl. perfringens
(b) S. paratyphi A
(c) V. cholerae type 139
(d) Staph epidermis
190. Which one of the following organisms is responsible for toxin mediated food poisoning: (PAR/183) (UPSC 98)
(a) Bacillus anthracis
(b) Salmonella species
(c) Staphylococcus aureus
(d) Campylobacter jejuni
FOOD POISONING
(a) Salmonella
IP-12 -24 hrs
(b) Staphylococcal
IP.1-6 hrs
(c) Botulism
IP12-36 hrs
SOURCE
Meat, milk and milk product
C/F
Chills, fever, nausea, vomiting
and profuse watery diarrhoea
Milk and milk products,
No fever, vomiting, cramps,
Salad and custard
diarrhoea
Preserved food caned vegetable Acts on parasympathetic or
Smoked or pickled fish cheese system causing dysphagia
Diplopia, ptosis, dysarthria,
blurring of vision fever is
absent.
Guanidine hydrochloride reverses the neuromuscular block of botulism
(d) Cl.perfringens
Meat, meat dishes, poultry
Nausea vomiting rare
I.P (6-24 hrs)
peak at 10 -14 hr
(e) B.cereus
Rice
1-6 hrs - upper gi features
IP (1-6 hrs)
12-24 hrs - Diarrhoea
191 Chandlers endemic index in used in:
(PAR/186) (JIPMER 92 AMC 96)
(a) Typhoid
(b) Hookworm infestation
(c) Urban TB patients
(d) Diabetics
192. The total number of hookworm cases in India is estimated to be:
(a) 40 million
(b) 200 million
(c) 400 million
(d) 100 million
193. Chandler index is:
(a) No. of hookworm larvas in 100 gm stool
(b) No. of hookworm eggs in 10 gm stool
(c) No. of hookworm
eggs in 10 gm soil
(d) No. of hookworm eggs in 1 gm. of stool
194. Dracunculosis is highest in:
(PAR/188) (AI 96)
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Punjab
(d) Karnataka
195. In India disease to be eradicated in near future is:
(a) Tetanus
(b) Measles
(c) Dracunculosis
(d) Leprosy
196. No. of cases infected with guinea worm, detected in year 1999 are:
(PAR/188) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Ten
(d) Four
Dracunculiasis
Caused by Dracunculus medinensis
Vector-borne disease affecting by subcutaneous tissue
Man acquires infection by drinking water containing infected cyclops
Disease is amenable for eradication by1. Provision of safe drinking water
2. Control of cyclops
3. Health education of public matters relating to boiling or sieving drinking water through a double
thickness cotton cloth for personal protection and prevention of water contamination by infected
persons
197. Guinea worm eradication was achieved by:
(PAR/189) (AI 88)
(a) Discontinuation of the use of step well
(b) Chlorination of water
(c) Boiling of water for drinking
(d) Chemotherapy
198 In guinea worm prophylaxis, all of the following are true except:
(a) Health education to people to use a seive for drinking water
(b) Mass treatment with mebendazole
(c) Identification of carriers
(d) Active search of new cases
189 A
190 C
191 B
192 B
193 D
194 B
195 C
196 B
197 A
198 B
43
C. Arthropod-Borne Infections
199. Dengue hemorrhagic fever occurs in:
(PAR/190) (PGI/2000)
(a) Immunocompromised patients
(b) Malnourished children
(c) Reinfection after an initial infection
with type II
(d) It is a primary infection
200. Transversal transmission occurs in:
(a) Malaria
(b) Plague
(c) Filariasis
(d) Dengue fever
201. True about dengue fever is all except:
(a) Transmitted by anopheles
(b) Saddle back fever
(c) Subcutaneous hemorrhage
(d) Spontaneous
remission
202. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is diagnosed by:
(PAR/190)(UPSC/2K)
(a) Acute onset of high fever, presence of petechiae, epistaxis and platelet count < 2 lakhs
(b) Acute onset
of high fever, positive tourniquet test, epistaxis or malena and platelet count < 1.5 lakh
(c) Acute onset of
high fever lasting 2 to 7 days, associated with hemorrhagic manifestations e.g. hemoptysis and platelet count
less than 1.5 lakhs
(d) Acute onset of high fever, positive tourniquet test, bleeding gum and platelet count
less than 1.0 lakh
203. Immediate treatment of peripheral circulatory failure in dengue shock syndrome is:
(a) I/V high dose of dexamethasone
(b) I/V crystalloid infusion
(c) I/V dextrose saline
(d) Dopamine + dobutamine
204 Resistant malaria has not been reported from:
(PAR/192) (PGI 89)
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
Malaria
Roll back malaria
Launched by WHO, UNICEF, UNDP and World Bank in 1998 with
Strengthen health system to ensure better delivery of health care, especially at district and
community level.
Ensure the proper and expanded use of insecticide treated mosquito nets.
Ensure adequate access to basic health care and training of health care workers
Encourage the development of simpler and more effecting means of administering medicine such
as training of village health workers and mothers on early and appropriate treatment of malaria
especially in children
Encourage the development of more effective and new anti -malaria drugs and vaccines
205. The current global strategy for malaria control is called:
(PAR/193) (KARN/01)
(a) Modified plan of operation
(b) Malaria eradication programme
(c) Malaria control programme
(d) Roll back malaria.
206. Urban malaria is spread by:
(a) Anopheles stephensi
(b) Anopheles culiformis
(c) Culex fatigans
(d) Mansonides
Epidermiological types of malaria in india
Tribal malariaMostly caused by Plasmodium falciparum- High risk group are
Infants
Young children
Pregnant women
Rural MalariaAn culicifacies is the main vector and P.vivax is predominant during lean period and
P. falciparum during periodic exacerbation.
Urban MalariaAn culicifacies is the main vector; P.vivax is an endemic with moderate to low
transmission and there is focal P. falciparum transmission
Malaria in projects areas
- Border malaria
199 C
200 D
201 A
202 D
203 C
204 C
205 D
206 A
44
207. Man is a secondary host for:

(PAR/195) (AI 89)
(a) Malaria
(b) Tuberculosis
(c) Filariasis
(d) Relapsing fever
208. The cycle of malarial parasite is in sequence of:
(a) Exoerythrocytic stage
(b) Gametocyte stage
(c) Erythrocytic stage
(d) Sporogony
209. Persons with....are resistant to P. vivax infection:
(a) Thalassemia
(b) Sickle cell anemia
(c) Hemoglobin F
(d) Duffy negative RBC
210. Lifespan of a mosquito ranges:
PAR/195(UPSC/03)
(a) between 7 to 15 days
(b) between 15 to 30 days
(c) between 8 to 34 days (d) more than 34 days
211. Which one of the following mosquito vectors is commonly involved in the transmission of urban malaria in India?
(a) An. minimus
(b) An. culcifacies
(c) An. stephensi
(d) An. sundicus
(PAR/195)(UPSC/2K)
212. Which is true about P. falciparum:
(PAR/196) (AI 91)
(a) There is increase in the size of RBCs
(b) All stages are seen in peripheral blood smear
(c) The damaged
blood cells are reinfected by the parasite
(d) It has 72 hours cycle
213 Incubation period of Plasmodium vivax is:
(PAR/197) (DELHI 85, UPSC 86)
(a) 5-7 days
(b) 7-10 days
(c) 10-14 days
(d) 15-30 days
Erythrocyte stage
P. falciparum
48 hrs
P. vivax
72 hrs
P. ovale
72 hrs
P. malariae
72 hrs
Human reservoir is one who harbours gametocytes
Children are more likely to be gametocyte carriers than adults hence they are epidemiology better
reservior than adults
Host Factor
Newborns are resistant due to high HbF
Patients with sickle cell trait have less severe infection with falciparum
Patient with RBC duffy negative are resistant to P.vivax infection.
Pregnancy increase the risk of malaria with consequences of intrauterine death, premature labour
or abortion. Prima being at greatest risk
Active immunity against malaria is species-specific i.e immunity against one strain does not protect
against another.
214. What is true regarding malaria:
(PAR/197) (PGI/2000)
(a) Fluorescent antibody tests are positive within 1 week
(b) Thick slide is used to see parasite in blood
(c) Incubation period is identical for all plasmodia
(d) ABER is the total number of confirmed cases per
100 population
215 The most sensitive index of recent transmission in malaria endemic area is:
(PAR/198) (AIIMS 91, AI 97)
(a) Parasite rate
(b) Parasite density rate
(c) Spleen rate
(d) Infant parasite rate
216. Best indicator for malaria prevalence in a community is:
(a) Adult parasite rate
(b) New cases in a community
(c) Infant parasite rate
(d) Spleen rate
217. Most important index of malaria recently transmitted in a community is:
(a) Infant-parasite rate
(b) Adult parasite rate
(c) Mosquito-density of area
(d) Annual blood examination rate
218. Annual blood smear examination rate is an indicator of:
(a) Disease rate (relevance)
(b) Operational efficiency
(c) % of transmission of malaria
(d) Infectivity
rate
Diagnosis
Thin flim - For detection of species
Thick flim - for searching parasite
Malaria fluorescent antibody test - does not indicate current infection.
207 A
208 B
209 D
210 D
211 C
212 C
213 C
214 B
215 D
216 C
217 A
218 B
45
Latest simple and rapid diagnostic technique is a clipstick (antigen capture ) assay for detection
of P. falciparum.
Measurement of malaria
Pre-eradication era a. Spleen rate - percentage of children b/w 2-10 years of age showing enlarged spleen.
Spleen rate is widely used for measuring the endemicity of malaria
b. Average enlarged spleen
c. Parasite rate - percentage of children between 2-10 years showing malaria parasites in there blood
films
d. Parasite density index
e. Infant parasite rate
Most sensitive index of recent trasmission of malaria in a locality
Absence of malaria trasmission is denoted if the infant parasite rate is zero for 3 consecutive
years
f. Proportional case rate - no. of cases diagnosed as clinical malaria for every 100 patient attending
the hospital and Dispensaries.
Current Incidence levels
a. Annual parasite incidence (API)
Confirmed causes during one year
=
1000
Population under surveillance
b. Annual blood examination rate (ABER)
number of slides exaimed
=
100
Population
Index of operational efficiency
c. Annual falciparum incidence
d. Slide positivity rate
e. Slide falciparum rate
219. A malarial survey is conducted in 50 villages having a population of one lakh. Out of 20,000 slides examined,
500 turned out to be malaria positive. The annual parasite index is:
(PAR/198) (AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) 20%
(b) 5%
(c) 0.5%
(d) 0.4%
220. Under NMEP the radical treatment for P. falciparum is:
(a) Chloroquine 600 mg stat + Primaquine 5 days
(b) Primaquine 45 mg state + pyrimethamine 50 mg stat
(c) Chloroquine 600 mg stat + primaquine 45 mg stat
(d) Chloroquine 600 mg BD 1 day + Pyrimethamine
25 mg stat
221. First line drug for falciparum malaria is:
(PAR/199) (DNB 92)
(a) Chloroquine
(b) Primaquine
(c) Quinine
(d) Tetracycline
222. About, presumptive treatment of malaria true is:
(a) 600 mg chloroquine stat, 300 mg 6 hours later, then 300 mg
(b) 300 mg chloroquine daily for 3 days
(c) 300 mg chloroquine + 15 mg primaquine daily for 3 day
Consider the following statements:
223. In revised strategy for control of malaria, high risks areas are identified.
(PAR/199)UPSC/03
1: Doubling of SPR during last 3 years.
2: Problem of chloroquine resistance
3: PF proportion as 30% or more
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
224. In chloroquine resistant area, prophylactic cure of malaria is done with:
(PAR/199) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) Mefloquine
(b) Chloroquine + pyrimethamine
(c) Pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine
(d) Chloroquine
+ primaquine
219 B
220 C
221 A
222 A
223 D
224 B
46

Management of malaria cases
A. In high-risk areas
1.
Presumptive treatment of all suspected / Clinical malaria cases:
Day 1- Tab Chloroquine -10 mg/kg body weight
+
(600 mg adult dose )
Tab Primaquine - 0.75 mg/kg body weight
(45 mg adult dose)
+
Treatment after microscopic confirmation of species
P.vivax Tab.Primaquine 0.25 mg /kg body weight
(15 mg adult dose) daily for five days.
P.falciparum - No further treatment required.
In chloroquine resistant P. falciparum cases/area
Single dose of 25 mg /kg bw tab sulfalence /Sulfadoxine and 1.25 mg /kg body weight pyrimethamine
combination of (3 tabs adult dose) thereafter tab primaquine 0.75 mg /kg body weight
B. In low-risk areas
1.
Presumptive treatment
+
Radical treatment after confirmation of species
P.vivax Tab chloroquine 10mg/kg body wt single dose and tab, primaquine 0.25 mg /kg body
wt daily for five days
P. falciparum - Tab chloroquine 10mg/kg body wt plus tab, primaquine 0.75 mg /kg body wt single
dose.
The national socio-demographic goals for 2010 are as follows:
1. Address the unmet needs for basic reproductive and child health services supplies and
infrastructure.
2. Make school education upto age 14 free and cumpulsory, and reduce drop outs and primary and
secondary school levels to below 20% for both boys and girls
3. Reduce infant mortality rate to below 30% 1000 live births
4. Reduce maternal mortality ratio to below 100% 100,000 live births
5. Achieve universal immunization of children against all vaccine preventable diseases.
6. Promote delayed marriage for girls, not earlier than age 18 and preferably after 20 yrs of age.
25. Regarding malaria prophylaxis all are true except:

(a) It should be started 1 week prior and should be given upto 4 weeks after leaving the endemic area
(b) Sporozonticidal drug prevent only symptoms
(c) Initial dose is 10 mg/kg followed by 5 mg/kg
(d) Drugs
given are all safe in pregnancy
226 A person leaving an endemic area for malaria needs prophylaxis for:
(PAR/200) (PGI 81, UPSC 85)
(a) 3 days
(b) 5 days
(c) 1 week
(d) 4 weeks
Malaria control
1. Case detection
2. Case treatment
Age wise dosage of chloroquine for presumptive treatment
Age (yrs)
Mg base
<1
75
1-4
150
5-8
300
9-4
450
>14
600
225 B
226 D
47
3. Mass drug administration in areas with API/ 1000 pop

4. Chemoprophylaxis should begin a week before arrival in malaria prone area and to be contiuned
for at last 4-6 week.
227 A person wants to visit a malaria endemic area of low level chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria. The best
chemoprophylaxis is:
(PAR/ 200)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Chloroquine
(b) Proguanil + Chloroquine
(c) Sulfadoxine + Pyrimethamine
(d) Mefloquine
228 The dose of chloroquine base to be given to children between the ages of 4-8 years under the National Malaria
Eradication Programme is:
(PAR/200) (AI 88)
(a) 75 mgm
(b) 150 mgm
(c) 300 mgm
(d) 450 mgm
229 Most common nematode in south India:
(a) Brugia timori
(b) Brugia malayi
(c) Onchocerca volvulus
(d) Wuchereria bancrofti
230. Man is a definitive host for:
(a) Echinococclosis
(b) Malaria
(c) Filariasis
(d) Rabies
(e) Leishmaniasis
231. Development of filaria in mosquito is:
(PAR/202) (AI/2000)
(a) Cyclopropagative
(b) Propagative
(c) Cylodevelopmental
(d) Developmental
232. Bancroftian filariasis in India, commonly spreads by:
(a) Culex
(b) Aedes
(c) Anopheles
(d) Mansoides
233. The organism most commonly causing genital filariasis in most parts of Bihar and Eastern U.P. is:
(PAR/203) (AI/03)
(a) Wuchereria bancrofti
(b) Brugia malayi
(c) Onchocerca volvulus
(d) Dirofilaria
234. Maximum density of microfilaria in blood is reported to be between:
(PAR/203) (PNB 92)
(a) 9 PM to 11 PM
(b) 11 PM to 2 AM
(c) 8 PM to 10 PM
(d) 2 AM to 5 AM
235. Filariasis is endemic in all of the following States except:
(PAR/203) (AI 89)
(a) Haryana
(b) Bihar
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Gujarat
236. The following statements are true for W. bancrofti except:
(PAR/203) (AI 90)
(a) These are thread like worms
(b) The females are viviparous
(c) They chiefly inhabit lymphatics
(d) Man and anopheles mosquitoes are the two hosts
237. All are true about filariasis except:
(a) It is usually unilateral (b) Man is the only host for filariasis (c) Immunity is humoral type (d) Morbidity
is increased with age in endemic areas
238. The number of persons crying microfilaria in their peripheral blood out of 100 examined in a sample population
is called:
(a) Microfilaria rate
(b) Filarial disease rate
(c) Filarial endemicity rate
239. All are true statement about filaria except:
(a) Extrinsic incubation period is 10-14 days
(b) Man is the intermediate host
(c) Adults live in the
lymphatics of host
(d) No multiplication in the mosquito
240 Filarial endemicity rate is:
(PAR/204) (AI 91)
(a) % of persons examined showing microfilaria in blood or disease manifestation or both
(b) % of persons
in the sample population showing microfilaria in their blood
(c) Number of microfilaria per unit volume of
blood from individuals
(d) Average number of microfilaria per positive slide
241 All of the following commonly used filarial indices except:
(PAR/204) (AI 94)
(b) Filarial disease rate
(c) Filarial epidemicity rate
(d) Mosquito infection rate
Filaria survey
1. - Mass blood survey
- Thick flim
- Membrane filter concentration (MFC) methods
- DEC provocation test
2. Clinical survey
3. Serological tests (Not differentiate b/w past and present infection)
4. Xenodiagnosis
5. Entomological survey
227 B
240 A
228 C
241 D
229 B
230 C
231 A
232 A
233 A
234 B
235 A
236 D
237 B
238 A
239 B
48

Assessment of filaria control programme
1. Clinical parameters
2. Parasitological parameters
Microfilaria rate
Filaria endemicity rate
Microfilaria density
Average infestation rate
242. All are indicators of filarises except:

(PAR/204) (UP 97)
(b) Familial endemicity rate
(c) Microfilarial density rate
(d) Mosquito rate
243. Health promotion in the case of filariasis is by
(PAR/204)UPSC/03
(a) Vector control by controlling the environment
(b) Larvicidal spraying (c) Promotion of treatment by early
case detection
(d) Using nets and mosquito repellents
244 The most effective means of filariasis control will be:
(PAR/206) (TN 93)
(a) Mass hetrazan therapy
(b) Insecticidal measures against culex mosquitoes
(c) Provision of underground
drainage
(d) Personal prophylaxis
D. Zoonoses
245 In India, Rabies free zone is:
(a) Goa
(b) Lakshadeep
(c) Sikkim
(d) Nagaland
246 Following is not a zoonotic disease:
(a) Giardiasis
(b) Brucellosis
(c) Leptospirosis
(d) Rabies

Zoonoses: Disease and infection which are naturally transmitted between vertebrate animal
and man
Four categories 1. Direct zoonosesRabies, trichinosis and brucellosis
2. Cyclo-zoonosesOne vertebrate host but no invretebsate host in completing development cycl
of agent.
- Human taeniasis
- Pentastomid infections
- Echinococcosis
3. Meta zoonosesTrasmitted biologically by invertebrate vectors
e.g. Plague, schistosomiasis, arbovirus infection
4. Sparo-zoonosesMycoses
247. The Negri bodies are seen in:
(a) Viral hepatitis
(b) Japanese encephalitis
(c) Poliomyelitis
248. Rabies can be transmitted by all routes except:
(a) Aerosol
(b) Bites
(c) Ingestion
(d) Licks
249. The incubation period of rabies is:
(a) Two weeks
(b) Two months
(c) Two years
(d) variable
(PAR/208) (AIIMS 81, AP 90)

(d) Rabies
(PAR/208) (AI 94)
Rabies
It is one of the disease besides AIDS with 100 % mortality
Cause is lyssavirus type 1
There are two type of virus
Street virus
Fixed virus
I.P 20-60 days
- I.P 4-6 days
Passes serially from brain
- used for anti-rabies vaccine
through brain in rabbit
- does not form negri bodies
I.P in man is commonly 3-8 weeks following exposure.
242 D
243 A
244 D
245 B
246 A
247 D
248 C
249 D
(PAR/208) (UPSC/01)
49
250. Which of the following is true about rabies:

(PAR/209) (TN 90)
(a) Live attenuated vaccine is available
(b) Diagnosed by demonstration of antigen by immunofluorescence
(c) Many serotypes are present
(d) It has no envelope
251. All are commercially available vaccines except:
(PAR/209)(UP/2000) (AI 99)
(a) Sleep brain vaccine
(b) Human diploid cell vaccine
(c) Recombinant DNA vaccine
(d) Vero continuous
cell vaccine
Vaccine
1. Nervous tissue vaccine (NTV)
a.
Derived from adult animal nervous tissue (e.g sheep)
b.
Derived from suckling mouse brain
2. Duck embryo vaccine (DEV)
3. Cell culture vaccine
a.
Human deploid cell (HDC) vaccine
b.
Second generation tissue culture
(animal cell vaccines)
Indications of antirabies treatment
All bites by wild animals
Unprovoked bites
If the animal shows signs of rabies or dies within 10 days of observation
Labtest positivity of the brain of the bitting animal
If the bitting animal cannot be traced or identified
252. The incubation period of rabies is:
(PAR/209)(UPSC/2001)
(a) Two weeks
(b) Two months
(c) Two years
(d) Variable
253. The treatment of choice for a lacerated wound caused by a pet dog bite on the left hand of an adult is cleaning
the wound with soap and water+cauterisation with cetavalon+injection tetanus toxoid followed by+cauterisation with
cetavalon+injection tetanus toxoid:
(PAR/210) (AI 89)
(a) Odid followed by:observation of the dog for 10 dyas
(b) Antirabies vaccine (BPL) 5 ml 14 days followed
booster
(c) Antirabies vaccine (BPL) 2 ml for 7 days
(d) Antirabies serum+antirabies vaccine (BPL) 5 ml
for 14 days follwed
254. The best vaccine for rabies in humans is:
(a) Sheep brain vaccine
(b) Inactivated duck embryo vaccine
(c) Human diploid cell vaccine
255. About rabies all the statements are true except:
(PAR/211)(AIIMS 99)
(a) Superficial bites on palms are classified as grade I
(b) Lacerated bites are in Grade II
(c) Dose of BPL
antirabies serum in grade II is 3ml
(d) Grade III wounds needs complete antirabitic schedule
256. In type I of dog bite local infiltration of antiserum is most useful within:
(PAR/212) (UP 94)
(a) 24 hours
(b) 24-48 hours
(c) 48-72 hours
(d) 72 hours
257. Schedule of HDCV in rabies:
(PAR/213) (AI 98, 96)
(a) 0,3,7,14,30
(b) 0,3,10,30
(c) 3,7,14,16,18
(d) 0,7,14,30
Prevention of human rabies
Post-exposure prophylaxis
Pre-exposure prophylaxis- 0,7,28
Post-exposure treatment of person who have been vaccinated previously (0,3,7)
Guideline for post-exposure treatment
Local treatment of wound reduces risk by 80%
Observe the animal for 10 days
Immunization
250 B
251 C
252 D
253 A
254 C
255 B
256 A
257 A
50

Recommendation
1. Touching or feeding of animals; licks or intact skin
2. Nibbing of uncovered skin minor scratches or abrasions
without bleeding, licks on broken skin
3. Single or multiple transdermal bites or scratches
contamination of mucous membrane with saliva
- None
- Vaccine immediately, stop if
animal healthy after 10 days
- Rabies immunoglobin and
vaccine, stop if animal is healthy
after 10 days
258. Pre-exposure prophylaxis for rabies using the HDCV is:

(PAR/214) (AI 95)
(a) 3 doses
(b) 5 doses
(c) 6 doses
(d) 4 doses
259. Active immunization after exposure is given in:
(PRR/214) (AI 99)
(a) Cholera
(b) Plague
(c) Rabies
(d) Typhoid
260. The following measures are essential to control rabies in urban areas, except:
(PAR/215) (AI 8)
(a) Early diagnosis and treatment of cases
(b) Elimination of all stray dogs
(c) Enforcing registration and
licensing of domestic dogs
(d) Immunization of dogs
261. Not useful in prevention of rabies:
(PAR/215) (AI 92)
(a) Vaccination of dogs
(b) Licensing of all domestic dogs
(c) Restraint of dogs in public places
(d) Early diagnosis and treatment
Classification of exposure
Class 1 (Slight risk)
Licks on healthy unbroken skin
Consumption of unboiled milk
Scratches without oozing of blood.
Class 2 - (Moderate risk)
Licks on fresh cuts
Scratches with oozing of blood.
All bites except those on head, neck, face, palms and fingers
Minor wounds less than 5 in number
Class 3- (Severe risk) All bites or Scratches with oozing of blood.on head, neck, face, palms and fingers
Lacerated wounds on any part of the body
Bites from wild animals
Multiple wounds 5 or more in number
Advise to patients on antirabic treatment Abstain from alcohol during and a month after
Avoid undue physical and mental strain
Avoid corticosteroid and immunosuppressive agent
Rabies may develop following inadequate immunization.
262 Which vaccine is most effective:
(PAR/215) (AI 89)
(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Yellow fever
(d) Chickenpox
263. Going from India to Europe, vaccination now required of:
(PAR/216) (PGI 81, UPSC 92)
(a) Cholera
(b) Yellow fever
(c) Hepatitis
264. Quarantine period of yellow fever is:
(PAR/217) (BHU 86)
(a) 4 days
(b) 6 days
(c) 8 days
(d) 10 days
265. For international quarantine when patient is travelling abroad,which vaccination is essential:
(a) Yellow fever
(b) Plague
(c) Cholera
(d) TB
266. International airports should be free of Ades agepti upto:
(PAR/217) (AI/2000)
(a) 100 m
(b) 300 m
(c) 400 m
(d) 800 m
258 A
259 C
260 A
261 D
262 C
263 B
264 B
265 A
266 C
51
Yellow feverI.P is 3-6 days

Vaccination17 D vaccination live attenuated vaccine from a non-virulent strain
Dose0.5 ml given subcutaneously in deltoid, immunity begins to appear on the 7 days and last for
more than 35 years
Booster after 10 years
Cholera and yellow fever vaccine should be given 3 weeks apart
Yellow fever surveillance is done by Aedes aegypti Index which should not be more than 1
percent over an area extending at least 400 meters from airports or sea ports
267. The following epidemiological features are true for Japanese B encephalitis except:
(PAR/218) (AI 88, 97)
(a) The virus infects extra human hosts
(b) Man is an incidental host
(c) Infected pigs manifest symptoms
of encephalitis
(d) Epidemics have been reported in Karnataka
268. Which of the following statements about Japanese encephalitis is false:
(PAR/218) (AI 89)
(a) C. tritaeniouuynchus is the vector
(b) Epidemic in Karnataka
(c) Pigs are intermediate host
(d) Herons are primary hosts
269. Common vector in India for Japanese encephalitis:
(PAR/218) (UP 97)
(a) Culex vishnui
(b) Anopheles
(c) Aedies
(d) Flavivirus fibricus
Japanese encephalitis
Caused by group b arbovirus (Flavivirus) and occur commonly in children less than 15 years of age.
Man-to-man transmission has not so far been recorded
Pigs are main vertebrate host but they do not manifest any overt symptom of illness
Most common vector is culex tritaeniorhynchus which is zoophlic.
I.P is 5-15 days and case fatilaty rate is 20-40%
Average period between onset of illness and death is about 9 days
Control of JE
A. Vector control- By ultra low volume insecticides
B. Vaccination ; 2 doses of 1 ml s.c at interval of 7-14 days, given in inter-epidemic period to most
vulnerable and high risk groups.
270. All are true about Japanes B encephalitis Except:
(PAR/218) (AI 96)
(a) Culex is vector
(b) No man to man transmission
(c) 90-100% mortality rate
(d) Man is incidental
host
271. Following arbovirus prevalent in India are A/E:
(PAR/218) (AI 97)
(a) Dengue
(b) Westnile
(c) Yellow fever
(d) Chikungunya
272. Major determinant to eradication of Japanese encephalitis is:
(a) No effective vaccine
(b) Breeding place of vector
(c) Large no. of in apparent infections
(d) Numerous animal hosts
273. Pig plays a role in Japanese encephalitis as:
(PAR/218)(PGI /2000)
(a) Reservoir host
(b) Primary host
(c) Amplifier host
(d) Fender stratocaster host
274. When vaccine of J.E. is given immunity develops in:
(PAR/219) (MP 98)
(a) 5 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 90 days
275. In Japanese encephalitis, the average period between the onset of illness and death: (PAR/219) (AIIMS 97)
(a) 9 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 17 days
(d) 25 days
276. All the following are strategies to prevent a KFD epidemic except:
(PAR/-220) (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) Deforestation
(b) Vaccinatoon
(c) Personal protection
(d) Preventing roaming of free cattle in the
forest
277. Vector of KFD is:
(a) Anopheles mosquito
(b) Culex mosquito
(c) Flea
(d) Tick
278. Causative organism of bubonic plague is:
(a) Yersinia pestis
(b) Rattus rattus
(c) X-cheopis
(d) X-astia
267 C
268 B
269 A
270 C
271 C
272 B
273 C
274 C
275 A
276 A
277 A
278 A
52

Plague
Caused by Yersenia pestis, gram-negative, non-motile coccobacillus with bipolar staining
Tetara indica (wild rat) is the main reservoir
Source of infection is infected rodents and fleas and case of pneumonic plague with man-to-man
transmission
Immunity after recovery is relative
vector of plague is rat flea mostly X.cheopsis (both sexes)
Blocked flea is more efficient in trasmitting the plague because it can live longer (Even for as
long as 4 years in burrow microclimate)
Flea Indices
(a) Total flea index (average no. of fleas of all species per rate)
(b) Cheopis index
(c) Specific percentage of fleas
(d) Burrow index
Incubation period
(a) Bubonic plague 2-7 days
(b) Septicaemic plague 2-7 days
(c) Pneumonic plague 1-3 days
Bubonic plague cannot spread from person to person primary case of bubonic plague develop
secondary pneumonic plague
Pneumonic plague spreads by droplets infection.
279. The following rodent is the natural reservoir of plague:

(PAR/223) (KARNAT94)
(a) Mus muscles
(b) Tatera indica
(c) Rattus rattus
(d) Rattus norvegicus
280. In an epidemic of plague, within 24-48 hours of application of insecticides by spraying the X cheopis index should fall
to:
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) 5
281. Which is most dangerious for transmitting plague?
(a) Blocked flea
(b) Partial blocked flea
(c) both
(d) Unblocked flea
282. True in plague:
(PAR/226) (AI 97)
(a) Vaccine is not used in epidemic of pneumonic plague
(b) Most important is rodent control
(c) Septicemic plague is highly infectious
(d) Live attenuated vaccine used
283. The longest and shortest incubation period of plague is 7 days and 2 days respectively. The time necessary to
declare an area free of plaque is:
(PAR/226) (AI 95)
(a) 2 days
(b) 9 days
(c) 14 days
(d) 21 days
Prevention and Control
A. Control of case by
1. Early diagnosis
2. Notification
3. Isolation for twice the incubation period
4. Treatment with streptomycin or tetracycline
5. Disinfection
B. Control of fleas - (DDT and BHC to be used as dust or carbaryl 2% or malathion 5% spraying up
to radius of 5 miles around each infected locality.
Within 48 hours of application the flea index should drop down to zero.
C. Control of rodents - by mass destruction
D. Vaccination - only for prevention ; not for control
Two doses of 0.5 and 1ml given s.c at interval of 7-14 days
Immunity starts 5-7 days after inoculation and last for about 6 months
E. Chemoprophylaxis by tetracycline
For plague quarantine is ineffective and surveillance is parexcellence. Serological survey is done
for subclinical plague, of recovered untreated infections and of asymptomatic pharyngeal
infection in carriers.
279 B
280 B
281 B
282 A
283 C
53
284. After two doses of vaccination against plague, the immunity will last for:
(PAR/226) (UPSC 97)
(a) Six months
(b) One year
(c) Eighteen months
(d) Twenty-four months
285. The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in contacts of a patient of pneumonic plague is:
(a) Penicillin
(b) Rifampicin
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Tetracycline
(AIIMS/02) (PAR/226)
286. Rocky mountain spotted fever is transmitted by:
(PAR/229) (AI 89)
(a) Flea
(b) Mite
(c) Tick
(d) Louse
287. Rickettsialpox is transmitted by:
(PAR/229)
(a) Flea
(b) Mite
(c) Tick
(d) Mosquito
288. Which one of the following vectors transmits scrub typhus:
(PAR/229) (UPSC 98)
(a) Louse
(b) Flea
(c) Mite
(d) Ticks
289. Mite transmit:
(PAR/229) (AI 97)
(a) Scabies
(b) Relapsing fever
(c) KFD
(d) Human babesiosis
290. The vector of epidemic typhus:
(PAR/229) (UP 93)
(a) A flea
(b) Hard tick
(c) Louse
(d) Soft tick
Rickettsial Disease
Disease
Rickettsial agent
Insect vectors
1. Typhus group
a. Epidemic typhus
b. Murine typhus
c. Scrub typhus
2. Spotted fever group
Indian tick typhus
Rocky mountain
spotted fever
Rickettsialpox
3. Others
Q fever
Trench fever
R.prowazekii
R.typhi
Pediculous louse
Flea
R.tsutsugamushi
Mite
R.conorii
R.ricketsii
Tick
Tick
R.akari
Mite
C. burnetti
R ochalimaea quintana
Nil
Louse
291. R. typhi is transmitted by:

(PAR/229) (UP 94)
(a) Flea
(b) Louse
(c) Tick
(d) Mite
292. Which of the following statements is true about endemic typhus:
(PAR/230) (AI/03)
(a) Is causd by R.rickettsii
(b) Is transmitted by the bite of fleas
(c) Has no mammalian reservoir
(d) Can be cultured in chemical defined culture medium
293. Rash starting peripherally is a feature of:
(PAR/229) (DNB 90)
(a) Epidemic typhus
(b) Endemic typhus
(c) Scrub typhus
(d) Q-fever
294. A man presents with fever and cills 2 weeks after alouse bite. There was a maculo-papular rash on the trunk
which spread peripherally. The cause of this infection can be:
(a) Scrub typhus
(b) Endemic typhus
(c) Riskettsial pox (d) Epidemic typhus
295. Disease caused by mites is:
(PAR/230) (AI 95)
(a) Scrub typhus
(b) Q fever
(c) Trench fever
(d) Endemic typhus
296. Trench fever is caused by:
(a) R. quintana
(b) R. prowazake
(c) R. akari
(d) R. typhi
297. All of the following statements are true regarding Q fever except:
(a) It is a zoonotic infection
(b) Human disease is charecterized by an interstitial pneumonia
(c) No rash
in seen
(d) Weil felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis
298. Which of the following is a zoonotic disease:
(PAR/232) (AI 95)
(a) Hydatid cyst
(b) Malaria
(c) Filariasis
(d) Dengue fever
299. The most commonly affected tissues in cysticercosis is:
(a) Brain
(b) Eye
(c) Muscles
(d) Liver
284 A
297 D
285 D
298 A
286 C
299 D
287 B
288 C
289 A
290 C
291 A
292 D
293 C
294 D
295 A
296 A
54
300. Reservoir of Indian Kala azar is:

(a) Man
(b) Rodent (c) Canine
(PAR/234)(AIIMS/02)
(d) Equine
E. Surface Infections
301. The mass treatment of trachoma is undertaken if the prevalence in community is:
(a) 3%
(b) 10%
(c) 5%
(d) 6%
302. Herd immunity is not important in:
(a) Polio
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Measles
(d) Tetanus

Tetanus Classification of district in neonatal tetanus elimination

NNT high risk - rate>1/1000 live births
or - TT2 coverage <70%
or - attended deliveries <50%
NNT control rate>1/1000 live births
or - TT2 coverage >70%
or - attended deliveries >50%
NNT elimination- rate <0.1/1000 live births
or - TT2 coverage >90%
or - attended deliveries >75%
303. Disease not transmitted during incubation period is:
(a) Diptheria
(b) Pertussis
(c) Measles
(d) Tetanus
304. The exotoxin produced by Tetanus bacilli mainly affects the following areas of nervous system except:
( PAR/240)AIIMS 97)
(a) Parasympathetic nervous system
(b) Spinal cord
(c) Sympathetic nervous
(d) Brain
Tetanus toxin acts on 4 areas of nervous system
Motor end plate in skeletal system
Spinal cord
Brain
Sympathetic system
It spares the parasympathetic system
305. Neonatal tetanus, all are true except:
(a) Active and passive immunization prevent it
(b) Mother with proper immunization is a prevention
(c) Commonly present with ophisthotonus
(d) Acquired through pass age of birth canal
306. The protective level of anti-tetanus anti-toxin is.
(PAR/240)(UPSC/03)
(a) 0.01 IU/ml of serum
(b) 0.1 IU/ml of serum
(c) 0.1 IU/100 ml of serum
(d) 1.0 IU/ml of serum
307. Best prophylaxis against tetanus is:
(a) Tetanus toxoid
(b) Surgical toilet of the wound
(c) Tetanus hyperimmune globulin
(d) Hyperbaric
oxygen therapy
308. A 10 year old boy following a road traffic accident presents to the casualty with contaminated wound over the
left leg. He has received his complete primery immunization before preschool age and received a booster of DT
at school entry age. All of the following can be done except:
(240)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Injection of TT (b) Injection of human antiserum (c) Broad spectrum antibiotics (d) Wound debridment
and cleaning
309. The following actions are being taken in the MCH programme to reduce the incidence of neonatal tetanus, except:
(PAR/241) (AI 91)
(a) TT injections to girls at the ages of 10 years
(b) 2 doses of TT to be given to a pregnant woman
(c) TT doses to be only given at 16 and 36 weeks of gestation (d) Dais are being trained to conduct safe deliveries
300 A
301 C
302 D
303 D
304 A
305 D
306 C
307 A
308 B
309 A
55
310. Following procedures prevent neonatal tetanus, advised by family welfare programme except:
(PAR/241)(BHU 88)
(a) Giving TT vaccine between age group 10-16 years girls
(b) Immunise pregnant mothers during
16-36 weeks only
(c) Trained dais conducting deliveries
(d) Single dose of TT to mothers who already
received immunisation in previous pregnancy
311. A person has received tetanus full immunisation 10 years ago, now has clean wound without lacerations 2-5 hours
ago. Next step in management will be:
(PAR/241)(AI/2001)
(a) Full course of tetanus toxoid
(b) Single tetanus booster dose
(c) Tet globulin
(d) Tet glob and booster
dose
Recommended for prevention of tetanus After surgical cleaning
Wounds less than six hour old, clean, nonpenetrating and with negligible tissue damage.
Immunity
Treatment
A. TT complete + Booster
within past 5 years
B. TT complete+ Booster
in more than 5 and less than 10 years
C. TT complete + Booster more than 10 years ago
D. Immunity status not known
Human tetanus immunoglobulin along with TT dose is to
C and D
Nothing
Toxoid one dose
Toxoid 1 Dose
TT complete course
be given in other wounds of category
312. False statement regarding tetanus is:

(PAR/241)(AI/2001)
(a) Five dose immunisation provides life-long immunity
(b) TT provides no protection in the present injury
(c) 3 doses in primary round
(d) Immunisation recommended in early infancy
313. Which of the following states has the highest prevalence of leprosy:
(a) Karnataka
(b) Orissa
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh
314. Leprosy is considered a public health problem if the prevalence of laprosy is more than:
(PAR/242 )(AI/03)
(a) 1 per 10,000
(b) 2 per 10.000
(c) 5 per 10,000
(d) 10 per 10,000
315. According to WHO leprosy is a public health problem whose prevalence is:
(a) 0.01%
(b) 0.1%
(c) 0.5%
(d) 1.0%
316. The total number of leprosy cases in India is estimated to be:
(a) 4.7 million
(b) 1.7 million
(c) 5 million
(d) 8 million
317. Leprosy with incidence rate less than 10 is seen in:
(PAR/243) (AI 91)
(a) Andhra pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Orissa
(d) Maharashtra
318. True about lepra bacilli are:
(PAR/243)(AIIMS 94)
(a) Mycobacterium leprae can be grown in foot pad of mice
(b) Incubation period is 3-4 months
(c) INH
inhibits their growth
(d) Antileprosy vaccine gives life-long protection
319. The most common mode of transmission of leprosy is:
(PAR/243) (AP 91, JIPMER 92)
(a) Droplet infection
(b) Skin-to-skin contact
(c) Insect vectors
(d) Through fomites
320. Suppression of cell-mediated immunity is seen in:
(a) Tuberculoid leprosy
(b) Lepromatous leprosy
(c) Indeterminate leprosy
(d) Lepromatous leprosy
321. Single skin lesion is seen in which type of leprosy:
(PAR/244) (AI 93)
(a) TT
(b) BL
(c) BT
(d) LL
322. Lesion in leprosy are A/E:
(PAR/244) (AI 97)
(a) Erythematous
(b) Vesicle
(c) Hypopigmented
(d) Flat and raised
323. For transmission of leprosy most important is:
(PAR/244) (UP 94)
(a) Tuberculoid
(b) Borderline
(c) Lepromatous
(d) Indeterminate
324. Lepromin test is highly positive in:
(a) LL
(b) TT
(c) BB
(d) Indeterminate
310 A
323 C
311 B
324 B
312 A
313 B
314 A
315 A
316 B
317 B
318 A
319 A
320 B
321 A
322 B
56
325. Most sensitive index of transmission in leprosy is:

(a) Incidence
(b) Detection rate
(c) Disability rate

(d) Prevalence
Leprosy
Bacterial Index - negative - no bacilli found in 100 fields
(+) One or less than one bacillus in each microscopic fields
(++) Bacilli found in all fields
(+++) many bacilli found in all fields
Bacterial index is calculated by 7 sites of examination
In paucibacillary leprosy the bacterial index is <2 and In multibacillary leprosy it is greater than 2
Case finding method
a. Contact survey: When prevalence is 1 case/1000 pop
b. Group survey: With prevalence of about 1 case/1000 pop
c. Mass survey: Prevalence of 10 or more per 1000 pop
326. The following statements are true for the bacteriological index (BI) in leprosy, except:
(PAR/246) (AI 91)
(a) Skin smears are from 7 sites
(b) A two plus smear grading indicates bacilli in 1-2 microscopic fields
(c) The BI is calculated by adding the smear gradings and taking an average
(d) BI less than 2 indicates
paucibacillary leprosy
327. Mitsuda reaction in lepromin test is read after:
(PAR/246) (AI 92)
(a) 48 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 4 weeks
(d) 2 weeks
328. True about tuberculoid leprosy:
(PAR/246) (UP 94)
(a) Leonine facies
(b) Thickened vessels
(c) Leramine + ve
(d) Bacilli in lesion
329. Leprosy and tuberculosis are best prevented by:
(PAR/247) (AI 92)
(a) Chemoprophylaxis
(b) Early diagnosis and treatment
(d) Immunoprophylaxis
330. All of the following tests are performed to detect the CMI in leprosy except:
(PAR/247)(AI 92)
(a) FLA-ABS test
(b) ELISA test
(c) LTT test
(d) Monoclonal antibody detection
331. In the management of laprosy, Lepromin test is most useful for:
(PAR/247) (AI/03)
(a) Head immunity
(b) Prognosis
(c) Treatment
(d) Epidemiological investigations
332. A family has a case of lepromatus leprosy. The following management is advised except: (PAR/248) (AI 89)
(a) Chemotherapy of the case
(b) Contact survey of the family
(c) Compulsory isolation of the case
Case finding methods for early case detection of leprosy
a. Contact survey:
Where the prevalence of leprosy is generally low less than 1 case per 1000
population
b. Group survey:
When the prevalence is about 1 per 1000 or higher.
c. Mass surveys:
Total population surveys for examination of each and every individual family
by family by house to house where the prevalence of leprosy is about 10 or
more per 1000 population.
333. Boarderline tuberculoid type of leprosy is best treated by:
(PAR/249) (AI 92)
(a) Dapsone
(b) Dapsone + Clofazimine
(c) Clofazimine
(d) Dapsone + Rifampicin
334. In paucibacillary leprosy, the follow-up examination after adequate treatment should be done yearly for:
(a) 3 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 10 years
335. Treatment of paucibacillary leprosy is ideally carried out for:
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(d) 18 months
336. A patient of paucibacillary tuberculoid leprosy completed 6 months of multidrug therapy. The response to therapy
is good, but the lesion has not healed completely. According to the WHO criteria, which of the following should
be done?
PAR/250)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Stop treatment and watch
(b) Continue the treatment for 6 more months
(c) Continue dapsone for 2
more months (d) Test for drug resistance
325 A
326 B
327 C
328 C
329 B
330 C
331 B
332 C
333 D
334 C
335 B
336 A
57
337. Which is the WHO regimen for paucibacillary leprosy:

(a) Dapsone od 6 months (b) Dapsone od + Rifampicin once a month 2 years (c) Dapsone od + Rifampicin
once a month 6 months
(d) Dapsone od + Rifampicin om + Clofazamine od 2 years
338. Average duration of treatment in multibacillary leprosy:
(a) 2 yrs
(b) 1 yr
(c) 5 yrs
(d) Life long
339. The standard regimen for satisfactory treatment of paucibacillary leprosy consists of: (PAR/250) (UPSC/01)
(a) Dapsone alone for 12 months
(b) Dapsone and rifampicin for 6 months
(c) Dapsone and clofazimine
for 6 months
(d) Dapsone and ethionamide for 12 months
340. Borderline tuberculoid type of leprosy is treated by:
(PAR/250) (AI 92)
(a) Dapsone only
(b) Dapsone + Rifampicin
(c) Dapsone + Clofazimine
(d) Clofazimine only
341. As per the recommendation of the WHO, the multidrug regimen for paucibacillary case of leprosy is:
(PAR/250) (UPSC 98)
(a) Rifampicin 600 mg daily plus dapsone 300 mg daily for six months
(b) Rifampicin 600 mg once a month
plus dapsone 300 mg once a month for six months
(c) Rifampicin 600 mg once a month for six months and
dapsone 300 mg daily for six months
(d) Rifampicin 600 mg once a month for six months and dapsone 100
mg daily for six month.
342. The standard regimen for satisfactory treatment of paucibacillary leprosy consists of: (PAR/250) (UPSC/2001)
(a) Dapsone alone for 12 months
(b) Dapsone and rifampicin for 6 months
(c) Dapsone and clofazimine
for 6 months
(d) Dapsone and ethionamide for 12 months
343. The following agents are sexually transmitted except:
(PAR/253) (AI 91)
(a) Group B Streptococcus
(b) Giardia lamblia
(c) Hepatitis virus A
(d) Candida albicans
(e) None
Sexually Trasmitted Disease
A. Bacterial agents
B.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Viral agents
Human (alpha) herpesvirus 1 or 2 (herpes simplex
virus)
Human (beta) herpesvirus 5 (formerly cytomegalovirus)
Hepatitis virus B
Human papilloma viruses
Molluscum contagiosum virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Mycoplasma hominis
Shigella
Haemophilus ducreyi
Chlamydia trachomatis
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Treponema pallidum
C. Protozoal agents
Campylobacter spp.
Entamoeba histolytica
Group B Streptococcus
Giardia lamblia
Bacterial vaginosis-associated organism
Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Fungal agents
Candida albicans
E. Ectoparasites
Phthirus pubis
Sarcoptes scabiei
344. Which is not an STD:
(a) Herpes simplex
(b) Hepatitis A
(c) Molluscum contagiosum
345. The most common STD in India is:
(a) Syphilis
(b) Gonorrhoea
(c) AIDS
(d) Herpes
346. Not transmitted by sexually:
(a) Syphilis
(b) T. pertenue
(c) Gonorrhoea
(d) Candidiasis
347. Cluster testing is used in the detection of:
(a) STD
(b) Diabetes
(c) Measles
(d) Cancer
337 C
338 A
339 B
340 B
341 D
342 B
343 E
344 B
345 B
(PAR/253) (UP 94)

(d) Papilla virus
(PAR/253) (PGI 81, DNB 91)
(PAR/253) (AI 92)
346 B
347 A
58
348. The maximum efficiency of transmission of AIDS by sexual route is:

(ANA/259) (DELHI 96)
(a) 18%
(b) 40%
(c) 49%
(d) 90%
349. Mortality for AIDS:
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 90%
(d) 100%
350. Regarding HIV transmission to foetus, following are true except:
(a) > 50% risk of transmission to foetus
(b) Can present as failure to thrive
(c) Greatest risk of transmission
is in perinatal period
(d) Cannot be defected using standard techniques
351. Which one of the following is AIDS defining illness ?
(PAR/263) (UPSC 98)
(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis meningitis
(b) Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis
(c) Cytomegalovirus
meningitis
(d) Histoplasma capsulatum meningitis
Laboratory findings with HIV infection
Test
Significance
HIV enzyme-linked
immunosorbent assay
(ELSIA)
Screening test for HIV infection

Sensitivity>99.9%; to avoid false positive
result repeatedly reactive result be must be
confirmed with western blot.
CBC
Anaemia, neutropenia and thrombocytopenia

common with advanced HIV infection.
CD4 lymphocyte
percentage
Percentage may be more reliable than the

Cd4 count risk of progression to an
AIDS opportunistic infection or malignancy
is high with percentage <20%.
Absolute CD4
lymphocyte count
Most widely used predictor of HIV.

progression. Risk of progression to an AIDS
opportunistic infection or malignancy is high
with Cd4<200 cells/ul.
HIV virul load test
These tests measure the amount of

actively replacing HIV virus correlates
with disease progression and
response to antiretroviral drugs.
Western blot
Confirmatory test for HIV specificity when combined with ELISA >99.99 indeterminate result
with early HIV infection, HIV 2 infection
autoimmune disease pregnancy and recent
tetanus toxoid administration.
348 C
349 D
350 A
351 B
Epidemiology of Chronic Non-communicable Diseases and Conditions
59
Epidemiology of Chronic
Non-communicable Diseases
and Conditions
1. Country with highest accident rate is:

(PAR/304) (PGI 79, UPSC 98)
(a) Pakistan
(b) India
(c) Japan
(d) USA
2. All of the following are the well-established modifiable risk factors of coronary heart diseases except:
(PAR/274) (UPSC 98)
(a) Cigarette smoking
(b) Drinking beverages
(c) High blood pressure
(d) Elevated serum cholesterol
3. Consider the following:
(PAR/274)(UPSC/03)
1. Proportional mortality ratio
2. Incidence rate
3. Age-specific death rate
4. Sex specific death rate
Which of these is/are used in measuring the extent of the problem of coronary artery disease?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Which is the least common cause of heart disease in India:
(PAR/275) (AMC 87)
(a) Rheumatic
(b) Hypertensive
(c) Ischaemic
(d) Congenital
5. All are true regarding coronary heart disease in India except:
(PAR/275) (AI 99)
(a) It has arrived a decade later in western country
(b) Diabetes is a leading cause
(c) Smoking increases
the risk
(d) A type classes increases the risk
Coronary heart diseasePattern in India
CHD appears a decade earlier with peak b/w 51 to 60 years
Males affected more than females
Hypertension and diabetes account four more than 40 percent cases
Heavy smoking is one of etiology
Risk factors for CHD
Not modifiable
Modifiable
Age
Cigarette smoking
Sex
High blood pressure
Family history
Genetic factors
Elevated serum cholesterol
Personality
Diabetes, obesity, stress, sedentary habits
Dietary changes for prevention of CHD
1. Reduction of fat intake to 20 to 30 percent of total energy intake
2. Consumption of saturated fat to be limited to less than 10 percent of total energy intake
3. A reduction of dietary cholesterol to below 100 mg /1000 kcal
4. Avoidance of alcohol
5. An increase in complex carbohydrate consumption
1 B
2 B
3 D
4 D
5 A
60
6. Prevention of emergence of risk factor is:

(PAR/276) (UPSC 98)
(b) Primary prevention
(c) Secondary prevention
(d) Tertiary prevention
7. The goal of IHD prevention is:
(276) (PGI/2000)
(a) Cholesterol:HDL ratio of more than 3.5
(b) Cholesterol: HDL ratio of less than 3.5
(c) HDL < 30
(d) Reduction in LDL receptors
8. Changing smoking pattern of a society is an example of which level of prevention:
(b) Secondary
(c) Primary
(d) Tertiary
9. Primary prevention of hypertension are A/E:
(PAR/281) (AI 97)
(a) Weight reduction
(b) Exercise promotion
(c) Reduction of salt intake
(d) Diagnosis of
hypertension
10. All are measures of primordial prevention of hypertension except:
(a) Regular physical exercise
(b) Restrain smoking
(c) Dietary changes
(d) Identification of hypertensives
11. Regarding rheumatic fever in Indian children all are true except
(PAR/284)(AIIMS 99)
(a) Common in age group 5-15 yrs
(b) Communicable disease
(c) SC nodules develop in 4 wks
(d) Secondary prevention is better than primary prevention in India
12. Most common carcinoma in world is of:
(PAR/288) (AIIMS 81, PGI 81)
(a) Lung
(b) Oesophagus
(c) Cervix
(d) Liver
13. Carcinoma cervix screening programme:
(PAR/289) (UP 94)
(a) Is cost effective for selected population
(b) Not cost effective
(c) No screening programme
(d) Cost effective only in new patient
14. Least amenable to screening:
(a) Lung
(b) Breast
(c) Cervix
(d) Oral cavity
15. Best method of screening for early detection of carcinoma breast is:
(a) Regular X-rays
(b) Self examination
(c) Mammography
(d) Regular biopsies
16. Which one of the following is the most sensitive and specific screening test to detect breast cancer?
(PAR 290)(UPSC/2K)
(a) Regular X-ray
(b) Self breast examination
(c) Mammography
(d) Regular biopsy
17. WHO defines blindness if the visual acute is less than:
(PAR/295) (AI 91)
(a) 1/60
(b) 18/60
(c) 6/60
(d) 6/6
Diagnostic values for the oral glucose tolerance test
Diabetes mellitus
(a) Fasting value
(b) 2 hrs after glucose load
Impaired glucose tolerance
(a) Fasting value
(b) 2 hrs after glucose load
Whole blood
Venous
Glucose (mg/dl)
plasma
Capillary
Venous
Capillary
>120
>180
>120
>200
>140
>200
>140
>200
>120
120,180
>120
140,200
<140
140,200
<140
160,200
18. WHO criteria for diagnosis of diabetes is:

(PAR/295)(MP 98)
(a) Venous blood fasting sugar 140 to 200 mg/100 ml
(b) Venous blood fasting sugar 120 to 180 mg/100 ml
(c) Venous blood fasting sugar 120 to 200 mg/100 ml
(d) Venous blood fasting sugar 140 to 180 mg/100 ml
19. Primary prevention of diabetes mellitus includes all except:
(PAR/297) (UP 96)
(a) Reduction of weight
(b) Prevent hypertension
(c) Exercise
(d) Avoid excessive sweets
20. The chosen method for measurement of obesity is:
(PAR/298) (PGI 80, AIIMS 83)
(a) Skinfold thickness (b) Body electrolyte count (c) Hight-weight-sex charts (d) Basal oxygen consumption
21. Corpulence index is a measure of:
(P-299) (AI 91)
(a) Copper content of urine in lead poisoning
(b) Red blood cells found in thalassemia
(c) Obesity in adults
in the community
(d) Transmission of bubonic plague in the community
6 A
18 B
7 B
19 B
8 A
20 A
9 D
21 C
10 D
11 B
12 A
13 A
14 A
15 C
16 C
17 A
Epidemiology of Chronic Non-communicable Diseases and Conditions

OBESITY INDICES
1. Quetlet index
(body mass index)
2. Ponderal index
Cube of body
3. Broca index
4. Lorentzs formula
Ht (cm)-100
5. Corpulence index
61
Weight (kg)
Height (m)2
Height (cm)
Weight (kg)3
Height minus 100=weight
(ht (cm)-150
2 (women)or 4(men)
Actual wt <1.2
Desirable wt
22. In one single visit, a 9 months old, un-immunised child can be given the following vaccination:
(PAR/299)(AI/03)
(a) Only BCG
(b) BCG, DPT-1,OPV-1
(c) DPT-1,OPV-1, Measles
(d) BCG,DPT-1,OPV-1, Measles
23. Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness, the visual acuity should be less than:
(a) 3/60
(b) 6/60
(c) 1/60
(d) 6/24
(PAR/300)(UPSC/02)
24. Blindness as described by WHO is:
(PAR/300) (AI/2000)
(a) < 3/60 with visual correction in better eye
(b) < 6/60 with visual correction in better eye
(c) PL
(d) PR
25. Prevalence of blindness in India is:
(PAR/301 (AIIMS 91)
(a) 0.2%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 1%
(d).1%
Causes of blindness in India
Corneal opacity
Cataract
Vitamin A deficiency
Trachoma and associated infections
Refraction error
Glaucoma
Other causes
3.0 percent
81 percent
0.04 percent
0.2 percent
7.0 percent
2.0 percent
6.76 percent
26. Percentage of blindness due to cataract in India:

(a) 55
(b) 60
(c) 75
(d) 80
27. The commonest cause of low vision in India is:
(a) Uncorrected refractive errors
(b) Cataract
(PAR/301) (PGI 96)

(PAR/301)(AIIMS/02)
(c) Glaucoma
Categories of visual impairments

Visual acuity
Maximum less than
Low vision
- 6/18
- 6/60
- 3/60 ( Finger counting
at 3 meters)
Blindness
1/60 ( Finger counting at 1 meters)
22 B
23 C
24 A
25 C
26 D
27 A
(d) Squint
Minimum equal to or better than

- 6/60
- 3/60
1/60 (Finger counting at 1 meters)
light preception
62
Health Programmes
in India
1. Under NMEP for areas with API more than 2 and vector refractory to DDT, the recommendation is:
(PAR/308) (AI 92)
(a) Malathion-3 rounds/year
(b) HCH-1 round/year
(c) HCH-2 rounds/year
(d) HCH-3 rounds/year
2. Under the National Malaria Eradication Programme, radical treatment for P.vivax malaria is given for:
(a) 1 day
(b) 5 days
(c) 7 days
(d) 14 days
(PAR/308) (AI 90)
3. Under NMEP, for areas with API more than 2 the vector is refractory to DDT, the new recommendation is:
(PAR/308) (AI 93)
(a) HCH-1 round/year
(b) HCH-2 rounds/year
(c) HCH-3 rounds/year
(d) Malathione-2 rounds/year
4. All of the following statements about National Malaria Control Programme are true except:
(PAR/308) (UPSC 98)
(a) Number of slides examined should amount to atleast 10% of the population under surveillance in a year
(b) Annual parasite incidence based on active and passive surveillance and cases confirmed by blood examination
(c) Annual blood examination rate is calculated from the number of slides examined per 100 cases of fever
(d) The slide positivity rate provides information on the trend of malaria transmission
5. Under NMEP, the function of fever depot treatment is:
(PAR/309) (AI 94)
(a) Diagnosis of cases + spraying
(b) Collection of slides + treatment of fever
(c) Treatment fever cases
only
(d) Treatment + slide collection + spraying
6. Under NMEP the minimum annual blood examination rate should be:
(PAR/309) (AI 94)
(a) 10%
(b) 12%
(c) 14%
(d) 18%
7 The expected reduction in API by 2000 AD in India is:
(a) 1/10
(b) 1/100
(c) 1/1000
(d) 0.5/1000
8. Which is not true of malaria eradication programme (MEP):
(PAR/309) (AI 93)
(a) Started in 1953
(b) Modified plan started in 1970
(c) Incidence was 2 million cases in 1958
(d) Incidence decreased to 50,000 in 1961
9. In NMEP, the recommendation for area API-2 are A/E:
(PAR/309) (AI 95)
(a) Presumptive treatment (b) DDT spraying for twice in a year
(c) Epidemiological investigation of all cases
(d) Follow-up every case for one year and monthly blood smears
10. Modified programme for National Malaria Eradication Programme is based on:
(a) API
(b) ABER
(c) Infant parasite rate
(d) Spleen rate
Modified plan of operation(1st April 1977)
Areas with API >2
1. Spraying
Regular insecticidal spray with 2 rounds of DDT
If refractory vector, 3 rounds of malathion
If refractory to both - 2 rounds of synthetic pyrethrium spray at interval of 6 weeks
1 D
2 B
3 C
4 C
5 B
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 A
Health Programmes in India
63
2. Entomological assessment
3. Surveillanceactive and passive
4. Treatment of cases
Areas with API<2
Focal spraying
Active and passive surveillance
Radical treatment for detected cases
Follow-up blood smear at completion of radical treatment and thereafter at monthly intervals for
12 months
Epidermological investigation
National antimalaria programme is a name given to National Malaria Eradication Programme in
1999
Enhanced malaria control project with world bank support was launched on 30 September
1997.Selection criterias for PHC under project are
Annual parasite incidence (API) of more than 2 for last 3years
P. falciparum cases being more than 30 percent of total malaria cases
Twenty-five percent or more population of PHC being tribal
Reported deaths due to malaria from PHC
Components strengthened under the project
Early case detection and treatment
Selective vector control and personal protection methods including insecticide treated mosquito nets
Epidemic planning and Rapid response
Intersectoral coordination, institutional and management capabilities, strengthening
11. Under NMEP the minimum annual blood examination rate should be:
(PAR/309) (AI 94)
(a) 10%
(b) 12%
(c) 14%
(d) 18%
12 The objective of minimum needs programme does not include:
(PAR/309) (AI 93)
(a) One PHC for 30,000 population (b) Link mid-day meal programme to sanitation (c) Integration of health,
water and sanitation
(d) Urban area given priority
13. National programmes are now organised for the following in India except:
(PAR/309) (DNB 89)
(a) Filariasis
(b) Leprosy
(c) Smallpox
(d) Trachoma
14. Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillance now:
(PAR / 309)(JIPMER/2K)
(a) ABER
(b) Infant parasite rate
(c) Annual parasite incidence
(d) Side positivity rate
NATIONAL FILARIA CONTROL PROGRAMME
Activities undertaken are:
a. Delimination of the problem in hitherto unsurveyed areas
b. Control in urban areas through-recurrent antilarval measures and antiparasitic measures
15. In the national leprosy eradication programme (NLEP), mass surgery are done if the prevalence is:
(a) 1/1000
(b) 2/20000
(c) 6/1000
(d) 10/10000
16. Longest incubation period, among the following is of:
(PAR/311) (BIHAR 89, DELHI 92)
(a) Malaria
(b) Hepatitis
(c) Leprosy
(d) Filaria
Modified leprosy elimination campaign (MLEC) April 1997 by giving short-term orientation
training
In leprosy to health staff including medical officer, health workers and volunteers. Increase public
awareness about leprosy ; and house to house search has been conducted to detect new leprosy cases
throughout the country by 5.83 lakh searchers for a period of six days.
17. The screening method of choice in prevalence of leprosy is 1 in 1000 is:
(a) Contact survey
(b) Group survey
(c) Mass survey
11 A
12 D
13 C
14 B
15 D
16 C
17 B
(PAR/311) (AI 95)
64
18. In leprosy control programme, indicator of efficacy of early diagnosis cases is:
(PAR/311)(AIIMS 98)
(a) Disability rate among newly used
(b) Lepromin +ve% among used
(c) Ratio of, multi/pauci bacillary
cases
19. The multidrug regimen under the national leprosy eradication programme (NLEP) for the treatment of all multibacillary leprosy would include:
(PAR/311) (UPSC 97)
(a) Clofazimine thiacetazone and dapsone
(b) Clofazimine, rifampicin and dapsone
(c) Ethionamide,
rifampicin and dapsone
(d) Propionamide, rifampicin and dapsone
20. Strategies in national leprosy control programme (NLCP):
(PAR/311) (AIIMS 79, PGI 90)
(a) Early detection of cases
(b) Short-course multidrug therapy
(c) Rehabilitation
(d) Chemoprophylaxis
with dapsone
21. SET centre is set up if prevalence of leprosy:
(PAR/311) (PGI 81, UPSC 88)
(a) Below 0.1%
(b) Less than 5%
(c) Above 1%
(d) Above 5%
22. Which of the following is/are used as operational indicators in antileprosy activity?(PAR/311)(UPSC/02)
(a) Incidence
(b) Incidence and prevalence (c) Relapse rate and case detection ratio (d) Incidence and case
detection ratio
23. High prevalence zone for leprosy has cases per 1,000 population as:
(a) 1-2
(b) 2-5
(c) 5-10
(d) 10-20
24. India has entered which phase of demographic cycle:
(a) High stationary
(b) Low stationary
(c) Early expanding
(d) Late expanding
25. Under the National Leprosy Eradication Programme, mass surveys are undertaken when the prevalence of
leprosy is:
(PAR/311)AI89
(a) 1/1000 (b) 3/1000
(c) 5/1000
(d) 10/1000
NATIONAL LEPROSY ERADICATION PROGRAMME
The aim is to reduce case load to 1 or less than 1 per 10,000 population.
The programme is implemented through the establishment of leprosy control units; Survey,
education and treatment centres. The leprosy control units has one medical officer, 2 non-medical
supervisors and 20 paramedical workers (PMW) each covering a population of 4.5 lakhs. The staff
appointed at SET centre comprise 1PMW for 20 to 25 thousand population, and one non-medical
supervisor for every 5 PMWs.One urban leprosy centre is established for every 50,000 population
26. The screening method of choice in prevalence of leprosy is 1 in 1000 is:
(PAR/311) (AI 95)
(a) Contact survey
(b) Group survey
(c) Mass survey
27. SET centres established if prevalence % leprosy is:
(PAR/311) (MANIPAL/98)
(a) 0.5-1/1000
(b) 1-5
(c) 5-10
(d) 1
28. District TB control programme is mainly concerned with:
(PAR/312) (UPSC 86, 88, AMC 87)
(a) Finding out new cases
(b) Finding out resistant cases
(c) Detecting cases and treatment
District tuberculosis programme (DTP)Consist of one district tuberculosis centre (DTC) and
on an average 50 peripheral health institutionThe team posted at each DTC
1 District tuberculosis officers (DTO)
1 Second medical officer
2 Laboratory technicians
2 Treatment organiser /health visitor
1 X-ray technicians
1 Non-medical team leader
1 Statistical assistant
1 Pharmacist
29. Under the revised national tuberculosis control program a new case is one who has never had treatment for
tuberculosis or has taken anti-tubercular drugs for less than:
(PAR/312) (UPSC/01)
(a) 2 weeks
(b) 4 weeks
(c) 6 weeks
(d) 8 weeks
18 A
19 B
20 E
21 B
22 D
23 D
24 D
25 D
26 B
27 B
28 C
29 B
65
30. Assertion (A):Radiological examination of the chest is the best method for detection of cases under the National
TB Control Programme. Reason (R): Radiological examination of the chest is the most reliable:
(PAR/312) (AI 88)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R not the
correct explanation of A
(c) A is true and R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
31. False about DOTS is:
(PAR/312)(AI/2001)
(a) Continuation phase drugs are given in a multi-blister pack
(b) Medication is to be taken in presence of
a health worker
(c) Biweekly dosage and DOT as time
(d) Improves compliance
32. Goal of national tuberculosis control programme (NTCP) is:
(a) To eradicate TB
(b) To decrease the transmission of TB
(c) To treat all sputum +ve patients
(d) To decrease the incidence of TB to such a low level that it is no longer a major public health problem
(e) BCG vaccination of all infants
Revised National Tuberculosis Control ProgrammeThe salient features of this strategy are:
1. Achievement of at least 85 percent cure rate of infectious cases through supervised short course
health functionaries
2. Augmentation of case finding through quality sputum microscopy to detect at least 70% cases;
3. Involvement of NGOs; Information education and improved operational reaserch
DOTS is a community based tuberculosis treatment and care strategy with three components:
appropriate medical treatment supervision and motivation by a health or non-health workers and
monitoring of disease status by health services. DOTS will be given by peripheral health staff such
as MPWs, or through workers such as teacher, anganwadi workers, dais, ex- patient, social workers
etc. they will be known as DOT agent and will be paid incentive/honorarium of as 150 per patient
completing the treatment.
33. Main aim of tuberculosis treatment is:
(a) Radiological cure
(b) Contact tracing
(c) Bacteriological cure
(d) To prevent complication
34. A peripheral health institution under the District Tuberculosis Centre is designated as PHI-R when it has:
(PAR/313) (AI 89)
(a) Referral facilities
(b) Microscopy facilities
(c) Microscopy+radiological facilities
(d) Radiological
facilities
35. Consider the following statements:
(PAR/313)(UPSC/03)
The Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme has a strategy base that reflects in:
1. Accountability of system
2. Increasing case detection
3. Ensuring DOTS based drugs for every patient
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
36. Under the national TB programme, for a PHC to be called a PHI-R, requisite is:
(PAR/313)(AI/2001)
(a) Microscopy
(b) Microscopy plus radiology
(c) Radiology
(d) Specialities of doctors
37. With increased plan outlays for National AIDS Control Programme, the secondary divindends of these
interventions shall directly benefit:
(PAR/315)(UPSC/02)
(a) RCH Programme
(b) MCH services
(c) Immunization Programme (d) National Tuberculosis Control
Programme
38. Under the National Programme for Prevention of Blindness, vitamin A is to be given to: (PAR/317) (AI 89)
(a) All children between the ages of 1 to 5 years at 6 monthly intervals
(b) Children with history of night
blindness
(c) Children with severe protein energy malnutrition
(d) Children with Bitot spots
39. The goal set for AD 2005 by the National programme for the control of blindness in India is to reduce blindness
to:
(a) 0.3 percent of total population
(b) 0.6 percent of total population
(c) 1.2 percent of total population
(d) 2.4 percent of total population
(PAR/317)(UPSC/01)
30 D
31 C
32 D
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 B
37 D
38 A
39 A
66

Iodine deficiency disorder (IDD) programme
167 million persons are exposed to the risk of IDD of which 54 million are having goiter, 2.2 million
are certain and 6.6 have mind neurological disorder
Object is to reduce goiter prevalence in the age group 10 to 14 years to less than 5 percent and a
fall to zero in number of cretins born by the year 2000.
The aim was to reduce the incidence of IDD to below 10% by the year 2000
40. In the National Goiter Control Programme, iodine is supplied:

(PAR/318) (AI 89)
(a) In drinking water
(b) In salt as iodide
(c) In salt as iodate
(d) As IM injection of iodised oil
41. Target for EPI to be achieved by 1990 was:
(PAR/31 8) (AI 92)
(a) 60% coverage
(b) 80% coverage
(c) 90% coverage
(d) 100% coverage
42. How will you assess of iodine deficiency control programme earliest by:
(a) Goiter prevalence
(b) Neonatal hypothyroidism
(c) Iodine content in soil
(d) Iodine content in water
43. In the expanded programme of immunisation it is proposed to achieve target of.....immunisation of children by
1990:
(a) 80%
(b) 90%
(c) 95%
(d) 100%
44. All are included in CSSM programme except:
(PAR/319) (AI 99)
(a) Universal immunization
(b) Supplementary nutrition
(c) Essential care
(d) Prevention of URTI
45. Under reproductive and Child Health Programme, following two indicators are used:
(PAR/319)(AI 99)
(a) Life expectancy at age 1 and MMR
(b) Crude birth rate and IMR
(c) Crude death rate and IMR
(d) CDR and CBR
46. In the reproductive and child health (RCH) programme the main addition over and above the child survival and
safe motherhood programme is:
(PAR/319)(UPSC/2001)
(a) Care of reproductive tract infections
(b) Essential newborn care
(c) First referral unit
(d) At-risk
approach
REPRODUCTIVE AND CHILD HEALTH PROGRAMME
Various components of RCH programme
1 Family Planning
2 Child survival and safe
motherhood component
3 Client approach to
4 Prevention / management
health care
of RTI/STD AIDS
Child survival and safe motherhood programme following components:
a. Early registration of pregnancy
b. To provide minimum three antenatal check- ups
c. Universal coverage of all pregnant women with TT immunization
d. Advice on food, nutrition and rest
e. Detection of high risk pregnancies and prompt referral
f. Clean deliveries by trained personnel
g. Birth spacing,and
h. Promotion of institutional deliveries
47. The safe motherhood schemes (CSSM) major thrust area is:
(a) Promotion of reproductive health
(b) Elimination of maternal morbidity
(c) Fertility regulation
(d) To provide essential prenatal, natal and postnatal services
48. The Task Force for Child Survival has identified the following targets by the year 2000 AD, except:
(PAR/320) (AI 90)
(a) Global eradication of polio
(b) 25% reduction in under five deaths due to acute respiratory infection
(c) 70% fewer under five deaths due to be reduced by 25% in all countries
(d) Infant and child mortality
rates to be reduced by 25% in all countries
40 B
41 D
42 B
43 D
44 B
45 A
46 A
47 D
48 A
67
49. In community Needs Assessments approach as part of the Reproductive and Child Health Programme, the target
for various health activities are set at the level of:
( PAR/320)(AIIMS 02)
(a) Community
(b) Sub-centre
(c) Primary health centre
(d) District
50. The National Diabetes Control Programme in India includes all the following activities, except:
(PAR 322)(UPSC/2K)
(a) Primary prevention of diabetes through genetic testing and genetic counselling
(b) Identification of highrisk subjects at an early stage, with appropriate health education (c) Early diagnosis and management of cases
(d) Prevention, arrest or slowing of metabolic and cardiovascular complications of the disease
51. Cancer control programme was launched in:
(a) 1976
(b) 1986
(c) 1970 (d) 1992
National AIDS prevention and control policythe objectives include reduction of the impact
of epidemic and to bring about a zero transmission rate of AIDS by year 2007 through:
Blood safety programme
HIV testing
STD control programme
Condom promotionas almost 65% HIV infection occur due to unprotected and multipartner
sexual contacts
HIV SurveillanceSurveillance are:
(a) HIV sentienal surveillance
(b) HIVsero surveillance
(c) AIDS case surveillance
(d) STD surveillance
Integration with other disease like tuberculosis etc.
Family health awarness campaign
Prevention of HIV transmission from mother to child
Post exposure prophylaxis for health care workersThe antiretroviral drugs in combination of 2-3
drug have been shown to be prophylactic when given within 2 hours exposure
National AIDS telephone helpline
52. The false statement regarding National Water Supply Programme is:
(PAR/323) (AI 93)
(a) 47% of rural population have safe water
(b) 80% of urban population have safe water
(c) In problem villages source of water is 1.6 km
(d) Target for coverage by 199060%
53. Problem village is all except:
(PAR/323) (JIPMER 9898)
(a) Where no water source in a distance of 1.6 km from community
(b) Water is more than depth of 15 m
(c) There is excess on Na+, K+, F+ salts
(d) Risk of guinea worm infection
National Water Supply and Sanitation Programme (1972)
The stipulated norm of water supply is 40 litres of safe drinking water per capita per day and at least
one hand pump / spot source for every 250 persons
Provide safe drinking water to all the villages by the turn of the century as available to about 85
percent of the total population and 16 percent population has access to adequate sanitation
MINIMUM NEEDS PROGRAMME
a. Rural health
b. Rural water supply
c. Rural electrification
d. Elementary education
e. Adult education
f. Nutrition
g. Environmental improvement of urban slums
h. Houses for landless labours
In the field of nutrition, the objectives are (a) To extend nutrition support to 11 million eligible person,
(b) To expand special nutriton Programme to all the ICDS projects and
(c) To consolidate the-mid
day meal programme and link it to health, potable water and sanitation.
49 D
50 A
51 A
52 D
53 C
68
Demography and
Family Planning
1. In what stage of demographic cycle is India today:

(a) Low stationary
(b) High stationary
(c) Early expanding
(PAR/325) (AIIMS 87, JIPMER 86)

(d) Late expanding
Demographic cycle5 Stages

1.
High stationaryHigh BR and high DR
2.
Early expandingDR and constant BR
3.
Late expandingDR and BR starts declining
4.
Low stationaryLow BR and low DR
5.
DecliningBR<DR
India has entered the phase of late expanding
2. Zero population growth rate is seen in:
(PAR/325) (JIPMER 80, 81)
(a) Sweden and GDR
(b) USA and USSR
(c) France and Japan
(d) No country in the world so far
3. In the demographic study of population, a country with low birth rate and a low death rate is in following phase:
(a) 1st phase
(b) 2nd phase
(c) 3rd phase
(d) 4th phase
4. Declining death rate and more declining birth rate the stage is:
(PAR/325) (AI 89)
(a) Late expanding
(b) Early expanding
(c) High stationary
(d) Declining
5. A country with population of 1000 million, birth rate 23, death rate 6, is in which phase?
(a) Early expanding
(b) Late expanding
(c) Plateau
(d) Declining
(PAR/325)(AI/2001)
6. The demographic gap is the difference between:
(PAR/325) (AI 90)
(a) Birth and death rates
(b) General and total fertility rates
(c) Gross reproduction and net reproduction
rates
(d) Age specific birth and crude death rates
7. Copper T acts by all except:
(PAR/325) (PGI 97)
(a) Chronic endometrial inflammation
(b) Anovulation
(c) Tubal motility alteration
(d) Endometrial
atrophy
8. A country is having birth rate on 23 and death rate of 6, it is running in which phase: (PAR/325) (AIIMS/99)
(a) Early expanding
(b) Late expanding
(c) High stationary
(d) Low stationary
9. In demographic cycle late expanding stage indicates:
(PAR/325) (AI 94, 97)
(a) High birth and death rates
(b) Decrease DR and stationary BR
(c) Decreasing BR and decreasing DR
(d) Low DR and BR
10. The growth pattern of a population having annual growth rate of 1.5 to 2.0%:
(PAR/325) (AI 95)
(a) Slow stationary
(b) High stationary
(c) Early expanding
(d) Late expanding
11. Which is not true of annual growth rate in India?
(a) Prior to 1921 growth rate was low
(b) Net gain in births over death lead to increase
(c) Current rate
is 2.9%
(d) Annual growth rate of 1.2% is to be achieved by 2000 AD
1 D
2 A
3 D
4 A
5 B
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 C
Demography and Family Planning
69
Relation between growth rate and population

Rating
Annual rate of growth %
Stationary population
No growth
Slow growth
Less than 0.5
Moderate growth
0.5 to 1.0
Rapid growth
1.0 to 1.5
Very rapid growth
1.5 to 2.0
Explosive growth
2.0 to 2.5
2.5 to 3.0
3.0 to 3.5
3.5 to 4.0
12. Annual growth rate is:
(PAR/327) (AI 97) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Crude birth rate crude death rates
(b) Crude death rate crude birth rates
(c) Crude birth rate
crude death rate 100 / crude birth rate
(d) Crude birth rate crude death rate 100 / mid-year population
13. In the 1991 census the population greater than 60 year is:
(a) 6%
(b) 9%
(c) 18%
(d) 23%
14. The percentage of women in the reproductive age group to the total population in India is: (PAR/328)(AI 88)
(a) 16
(b) 22
(c) 28
(d) 34
15. The proportion of school age children in Indias population is approximately:
(a) 1%
(b) 25%
(c) 40%
(d) 50%
16. Family size is related to:
(a) Total number of female born
(b) Total number of male born
(c) Total number of family member
(d) Total number of children born
17. Male to female ratio is:
(PAR/329) (AP 96)
(a) Males for 1000 population (b) Females for 1000 males (c) Males for 1000 females (d) None of the above
India: Demographic Profile
Total population (2001)

Crude birth rate (1999)
Crude death rate (1999)
Annual growth rate % (2001)
Population doubling time
(at current growth rate)
Population rual % (2000)
Adult literacy rate % (2001)
Density of population per sq. km (2001)
Sex ratio female per 100 a male (2001)
Population below 15 years % (2000)
Population above 60 years % (2000)
Average family size (1998)
Age at marriage, female (1998)
Annual per capita GMP
(at current prices 1999-2000)
1027 million
26.1
8.7
1.93
30 years
74.2
65.38
324
933
34.33
6.77
3.3
19.5 years
Rs. 19592
18. Sex composition can be demonstrated in which of the following:

(a) Pie chart
(b) Component bar chart
(c) Multiple bar chart
(d) Age pyramid
19. In latest Indian census, population density is......per sq.km:
(PAR/329) (UPSC 87, DELHI 92)
(a) 152
(b) 204
(c) 267
(d) 315
20. In calculating dependancy ratio,the numerator is expressed as:
(a) Population under 10 years and 60 and above (b) Population under 15 years and 60 and above (c) Population
under 10 years and 65 and above
(d) Population under 15 years and 65 and above
12 A
13 A
14 B
15 B
16 D
17 B
18 B
19 C
20 D
70
21. The following are included when taking an occupational medical history, except:
(PAR/329) (AI 90)
(a) A chronological list of all jobs
(b) A list of known hazard in the work place
(c) A list of childhood
immunizations
(d) A description of a temporal relationship between work place exposure and illness
22. Goals by 2000 AD are A/E:
(PAR/329) (UP 93)
(a) Perinatal mortality rate 30-35
(b) Immunization coverage 100%
(c) Maternal mortality rate <3%
(d) Family size 2.3
Ninth five-year-plan (2002)
Infant mortality rate per 1000 live births
- Crude birth rate per 1000 population
- Crude death rate per 1000 population
- Maternal mortality rate per 1000 live births
- Life expectancy:
male
female
- Couple protection rate (%)
- Growth rate(%) annual
- Total fertility rate
- Immunization
- Pregnant mothers receiving
antenatal care (%)
- Delivery by trained personnel(%)
- Institutional deliveries(%)
56-50
24/23
9
3
62 (1996-2001)
63 (1996- 2001)
51-60
1.6/1.5
2.9/2.6
universal
90
45
35
23. Family size determined by:

(a) Total fertility rate
(b) General fertility rate
(c) Age specific fertility rate
(d) Gross reproduction rate
24. The denominator to calculate literacy rate is:
(PAR/330) (AI 93)
(a) Population above 14 years
(b) Entire population
(c) Population above 7 years
25. In census literacy rate is assessed by:
(PAR/330)(JIPMER 2K)
(a) Attended literacy classes for one year
(b) Ability to write signature
(c) Ability to read and write
(d)
Ability to read newspapers
26. In census literacy rate is assessed by:
(PAR/330)(JIPMER 2K)
(a) Attended literacy classes for one year
(b) Ability to write signature
(c) Ability to read and write
(d)
Ability to read newspapers
27. Fertility rate can be reduced by following method:
(PAR/331) (AIIMS 81, PGI 89)
(a) Spacing of pregnancies
(b) Early marriages
(c) Change of MTP act
(d) Compulsory sterilisation
28. The number of live births per 1000 women in the reproductive age group in a year refers to: (PAR/333)(UPSC/02)
(a) Total fertility rate
(b) Gross reproduction rate
(c) Net reproduction rate (d) General fertility rate
29. Fertility pattern the best measure is:
(a) Net reproduction rate
(b) Gross reproduction rate
(c) Child-Woman ratio
(d) General marriage rate
30. If the gross reproductive rate of a community is 3.3, the birth rate will be:
(a) 20/1000
(b) 25/1000
(c) 40/1000
(d) 50/1000
31. General fertility rate is a better measure of fertility than the crude birth rate because the denominator includes:
(a) 15-45 years of age female
(b) Mid-year population
(c) Total woman population
(d) Married woman
population
32. What is the denominator in general fertility rate:
(PAR/333) (AI 89)
(a) Married women
(b) Women in reproductive age group
(c) Married women in the age of 15 to 44
(d) All women
33. Mortality experiences is taken into consideration when defining:
(PAR/333) (AI 89)
(a) General fertility rate
(b) Total fertility rate
(c) Net reproduction rate
(d) Gross reproduction rate
21 C
22 C
23 A
24 C
25 C
26 C
27 A
28 D
29 A
30 B
31 A
32 B
33 C
71
34. All are true fertility index (1995) except:

(a) General fertility rate 151
(b) Gross reproduction rate 2.20
(c) Total fertility rate 4.51
(d) Child women ratio 605
35. Total fertility rate refers to:
(a) Number of women between 15-44 years
(b) Number of births/1000 women
(c) Approximate completed
family size
(d) Number of female children / women
36. Number of live births/1000 married women in reproductive age group is:
(a) General fertility rate
(b) Net reproductive rate
(c) General marital fertility rate
(d) Crude birth rate
37. The denominator in general fertility rate:
(PAR/333) (AI 92)
(a) Female between 15-45 years
(b) Married female between 15-45 years
(c) All females above 15 years
(d) Unmarried female between 15-45 years
38. Total fertility rate is:
(PAR/333) (AI 96, 98)
(a) Completed family size
(b) Woman of total unmarried
(c) Women of between 15-45 years
(d) Only
female children born
39. True about child woman ratio is:
(PAR/333) (AI 96)
(a) 0-4 years of children and 15-45 years of age of married women
(b) 0-4 years of children and 15-49 years
of age of married women
(c) 0-4 years of children and 15-44 years of all women
(d) 0-4 years of children
and 20-30 years of married women
40. Denominator in general fertility rate is:
(a) Total population of 15-45 years female
(b) Married + 15-45 years
(c) Mid-year population
(d) Number
of live births
41. Death rate as reported in 1990:
(PAR/334) (TN 92)
(a) 12.5
(b) 10.9
(c) 6.5
(d) 1.60
42. In the calculation of crude birth rate, denominator considered is:
(PAR334) (AIIMS/2K)
(a) Pregnant women in 15-45 years group
(b) Estimated mid-year population
(c) All live births under 1
year
(d) Arithmetical inverse of crude death rate
43. Scope of family planning services include all of the following except:
(PAR/334)
(a) Screening for cervical cancer (b) Providing services for unmarried mothers (c) Screening for HIV infection
(d) Providing adoption services
44. The expected growth rate by 2000 AD is:
(PAR/335) (AI 89)
(a) 0.8
(b) 1.2
(c) 2.0
(d) 2.3
45. The incorrect statement regarding couple protection rate is:
(PAR/336) (AI 93)
(a) 50-60 of births per year are birth order 3 or more
(b) To achieve NRR of 1 CPR should be 60%
(c) CPR was 37% in 1987
(d) CPR 60% is equivalent to 3 children per couple
46. The number of condoms needed for protection for one year is:
(PAR/336) (UPSC 86)
(a) 50
(b) 72
(c) 100
(d) 175
(e) 200
47. If an eligible couple on an average has 3 children, then the birth rate will be:
(PAR/336) (AI 88)
(a) 21/1000
(b) 25/1000
(c) 28/1000
(d) 30/10000
48. According to 7th plan-target for couple protection:
(a) 42%
(b) 50%
(c) 56%
(d) 60%
49. Which of the following is false:
(a) Every year 1 million eligible couple is added to population
(b) 20% eligible couples are in 15-24 years age
group
(c) 150/1000 population will eligible couples
(d) Women between 15-45 years are about 22%
50. CPR=1 when reach this goal by:
(PAR/336) (AI 97)
(a) Condome 72/year
(b) IUCD
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Oral pills
51. The percentage of eligible couples practising family planning in India is:
(PAR/336) (UPSC 98)
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 45
(d) 55
52. Family welfare programmes goal is to reach couple protection rate of:
(PAR/337) (PGI 79, KERALA 88)
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%
53. The national population Policy 2001 aims to achieve NET reproduction rate of 1 by the year:
(a) 2005
(b) 2010
(c) 2015 (d) 2050
(PAR/337)(AIIMS/02)
54. To achieve net reproduction rate in India the eligible couple protection rate shoud be: (PAR/338) (UPSC/01)
(a) 30%
(b) 40%
(c) 50%
(d) 60%
34 A
47 B
35 C
48 A
36 C
49 A
37 A
50 C
38 A
51 C
39 C
52 D
40 A
53 B
41 B
54 D
42 B
43 C
44 B
45 D
46 B
72
55. The thread attached to the Lippes loop offers the following advantage except:
(PAR/338) (Manipal/95)
(a) It has anti-inflammatory properties
(b) It permits the easy removal of the loop
(c) It gives the shape
to the loop
(d) It reassures the user of the continued presence of the loop
56. Intrauterine contraceptive devices are contraindicated in all of the following situations except:
(a) A history of pelvic inflammatory disease 5 years previously (b) Immunosuppressive therapy (c) A previous
ectopic pregnancy
(d) HIV positivity
57. Multiload device contains:
(a) Zinc
(b) Copper
(c) Progesterone
(d) Silver
58. Multiload device refers to:
(PAR/340) (PGI 91)
(a) First generation IUCD
(b) Second generation IUCD
(c) Oral contraceptive pills
(d) Barrier
contraceptives
59. Best method for spacing is:
(PAR/340) (PG I80, DELHI 87)
(a) Condom
(b) Pessary
(c) IUCD
(d) Tubectomy
60. IUCD acts by:
(A) Killing spermatozoa
(b) Aseptic inflammation of endometrium
(c) Increasing cervical mucus
(d) Preventing the fertilization of ova
61. IUCD is absolutely contraindicated in A/E:
(a) Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
(b) Suspected pregnancy
(d) PID
(PAR/341) (AI 97)

(c) Congenital malformation of uterus
Absolute Contraindication of IUCD

Suspected pregnancy
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Vaginal bleeding of unknown aetiology
Cancer of cervix or adnexa
Previous ectopic pregnancy
62. At PHC level a woman who complains of spotting following IUCD insertion should be advised:
(a) Removal of IUCD
(b) Iron supplements and observation
(c) Antibiotics and observation
(d) Analgesics and observation
63. Which of the following is not used for contraception?
(PAR/343)(UPSC/2001)
(a) OCPs (combined)
(b) Progestin pills
(c) Danazol
(d) IUCD
64. DMPA is an injectible contraceptive given every:
(PAR 343) (UPSC/2K)
(a) Three weeks
(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) Two years
65. Mala-N contains:
(a) Ethynyl estradiol 30 mcg
(b) Norgesterol 50 mcg
(c) Ethynyl estradiol 50 mcg
(d) Progesterone
10 mg
66. Side effect of OCs are:
(PAR/345) (AI/2000)
(a) Hepatocellular CA
(b) Hepatic adenoma
(c) Hemangioma
(d) Fibrous dysplasia
67. Oral contraceptive use among women over age 35 who smoke is associated with:
(PAR/345)(AI 90)
(a) Cervical cancer
(b) Breast cancer
(c) Coronary heart disease
(d) Ovarian cancer
68. Which one of the following is a rare complication of use of hormonal contraceptives? (PAR/345)(KERALA 2K)
(a) Contraceptive failure
(b) Cardiovascular effects
(c) Carcinogenesis
(d) Metabolic effects
(e) Liver
disorders
69. On prescription of oral pills to the user, the health worker will ask about the following except:
(a) Number of live children
(b) Calf tenderness
(c) Headache
(d) Swelling of the feet
70. All are side effects of OCPs except:
(a) Break through bleeding
(b) Dysmenorrhoea
(c) Acne
(d) Chloasma
55 C
68 A
56 A
69 A
57 B
70 B
58 B
59 C
60 B
61 C
62 B
63 C
64 C
65 A
66 B
67 C

71. Regarding oral contraceptive pills untrue is:
(a) Risk of fibroadenosis
(b) Risk of epithelial Ca
(c) Hepatic cell hematoma
73

(d) Hepatic cell adenoma
Beneficial effects of pills - benign breast disorders fibroadenoma and fibrocystic

Ovarian cysts
Iron deficiency anemias
PID
Ectopic pregnancy
Ovarian cancer
72. The questionnaire carried by a health worker prescribing OCs contains following except:(PAR 345) (AIIMS 98)
(a) History of headache
(b) History of pain in calf
(c) History of convulsions
(d) Number of living children
73. Side effect of DMPA is:
(PAR/346) (AI/2000)
(a) Irregular bleeding
(b) Cardiovascular disease (c) Endomatrial CA
(d) Cholasma
74. Which one of the following is NOT used for contraception?
(PAR/346) (UPSC/01)
(a) Oestrogen-progesterone combined pills
(b) Progestin pills
(c) Danazol
(d) Intrauterine contraceptive
device
75. The highest calories is in:
(JIPMER 92)
(a) Animal meat
(b) Egg
(c) Sweet potato
(d) Milk
76. As per the MTP Act,1971, medical termination of pregnancy can be done up to a maximum of:
(PAR/348) (UPSC/01)
(a) 12 weeks of pregnancy
(b) 16 weeks of pregnancy
(c) 20 weeks of pregnancy
(d) 24 weeks of pregnancy
77. Consent from 2 doctors is necessary for MTP in pregnancy beyond.........weeks:
(PAR/348) (AI 93)
(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 28
(d) 36
78. MTP act 1971 maximum up to:
(a) 12 weeks
(b) 20 weeks
(c) 24 weeks
(d) 10 weeks
79. The numerator for calculating failure rate for contraceptive methods:
(PAR/351) (AI 93)
(a) Number of woman using contraception
(b) Number of live births
(c) Number of conceptions
(d) Number of abortions
80. Pearl index is a measure of:
(PAR/351) (UPSC 98)
(a) Malnutrition in under five children
(b) The level of mosquito larvae in household containers
(c) The effectiveness of a contraceptive method
(d) Risk factor in coronary heart disease
81. True about National Family Welfare Programme is:
(PAR/354 (AIIMS 97)
(a) 100% sponsored by state
(b) 100% sponsored by centre
(c) 50% state, 50% centre
(d) Planning and
management by state, sponsored by center
82. The Family Planning Programme started in:
(PAR/355) (AIIMS 79, PGI 83)
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1952
(d) 1960
71 A
72 D
73 A
74 C
75 B
76 C
77 A
78 B
79 C
80 C
81 B
82 C
74
Preventive Medicine in
Obstetrics, Paediatrics
and Geriatrics
1. Requirement of extra calories for a lactating mother during first six months is:
(PAR/363) (AI 92)
(a) 300 kcal/day
(b) 450 kcal/day
(c) 550 kcal/day
(d) 650 kcal/day
2. High risk babies is A/E:
(PAR/370) (AI 97)
(a) Working mother
(b) History of abortion
(c) Death of two sibling deaths within two months
(d) Weight between 70-80% of reference
High risk mother
1. Elderly primi (30 years and over )
2. Anemia
3. Twins hydramnios
4. Short statured primi (140 cm and below)
5. Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia
6. Malpresentation viz breech, transverse lie etc
7. Previous stillbirth, intrauterine death, manual removal of placenta
8. History of previous caesarean or instrumental delivery
9. Pregnancy associated with general disease, viz cardiovascular disease, kidney disease,
tuberculosis, liver disease etc
10. Prolonged pregnancy (14 days after expected date of delivery )
11. Antepartum haemorrhage, threatened abortion
12. Elderly grand multiparas
5 CleansClean hands and finger nail, a clean surface for delivery, clean cutting and care of the cord
and keeping birth canal clean by avoiding harmful practices.
At
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
risk infants
Birth weight less than 2.5 kg
Twins
Birth order 5 and more
Artificial feeding
Weight below 75 percent of the expected weight and 3 degrees of malnutrition
Failure to gain weight during three succesive months
Children with PEM, diarrhoea
Working mother/one parent
3. National goals of Heath for all by 2000 AD A/E:

(a) Infant mortalily rate 60
(b) Crude death rate 9
birth 70 years
1 C
2 D
3 D
(c) Crude birth rate 21
(PAR/368) (UP 97)

(d) Life expectancy at
Preventive Medicine in Obstetrics, Paediatrics and Geriatrics

4. By 2000 AD India has to reduce the birth of infants weighing below 2.5 kg to:
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
(PAR/371) (PGI 80, AMC 86,
5. Small for date in comparison to premature birth has:
(PAR/371) (AIIMS 80, UPSC
(a) Low birth weight
(b) More congenital anomalies
(c) More chance of mental retardation
(d) Less survival chances
6. Low birth weight means a weight of less than:
(PAR/371) (KARN
(a) 2.8 kg
(b) 2.7 kg
(c) 2.5 kg
(d) 2.3 kg
7. Small-for-date babies are prevented by:
(PAR/372) (PGI
(a) Spacing of baby
(b) Antenatal care
(c) Nutritional supplement
(d) Immunisations
75
92)
92)
91)
86)
Leading cause of death in low birth weight babies

Atelectasis
Malformation
Pulmonary haemorrhage
Intracranial bleeding
Pneumonia
8. Perinatal rate in India is:
(a) Late fetal death (stillbirth) + death under 1 week
(b) Late fetal death (stillbirth)+death under 2 weeks
(c) Late fetal and early neonatal death weighing over 1000 gm at birth
(d) Late fetal and early neonatal death
weighing over 1500 gm at birth
9. The average daily output of breast milk in an Indian women during first 6 months:
(a) 400 cc
(b) 500 cc
(c) 600 cc
(d) 700 cc
(PAR/37 3) (PGI 84, AIIMS 84)
10. A healthy mother with a healthy child should start artificial feeding by: (PAR/373) (PGI 81, DELHI 89, 92)
(a) 3 months
(b) 5-6 months
(c) 1 year
(d) 1.5 years
11. Following is different between human and cow milk:
(PAR/373) (UP 97)
(a) Proteins and fat
(b) Proteins and sugar
(c) Protein and lactose
(d) Minerals
12. Which of the following statements may be used accurately in support of bottle feeding over breastfeeding:
(PAR/373) (PGI 79/AIIMS 86)
(a) Superior provision of vitamin D and C in bottle formula milk
(b) Breast milk frequency of insufficient
quantity
(c) Fewer infections with bottle milk
(d) Presence of more easily metabolised proteins in
bottle milk
13. Which is true about road to health card:
(PAR378) (AIIMS 92)
(a) 4 lines are present
(b) Top line rep. 50% of percentile
(c) Child between 1st and 2nd line is normal
(d) Lowest line corres. to 70% of std.
14. Road to health card line is:
(PAR/378) (DNB 2001)
(a) 3rd percentile
(b) 50th percentile
(c) 80th percentile
(d) 97th percentile
15. The average birth weight in India is:
(a) 2.5 kg
(b) 2.8 kg
(c) 3.00 kg
(d) 3.2 kg
16. Road to health card has 2 reference points, which are:
(a) 30th percentile for boys and 3rd percentile for girls
(b) 50th percentile for boys and 3rd percentile for girls
(c) 50th percentile for boys and 5th percentile for girls
(d) 80th percentile for boys and 10th percentile for girls
17. Growth is monitored by:
(a) Height
(b) Weight
(c) Growth chart
(d) Anthrabiometric measurement
(e) Mid-arm circumference
18. Which is not true about growth chart used in India:
(a) There are 3 curves
(b) Top most curve corresponds to 50th percentile of Harvard
(c) Second curve
corresponds to 80% of that standard
(d) Children with normal weight fall above the line
Growth chart used in IndiaWHO charts has four references curves
Topmost curve50 percentile
Lower lines60 percent
70 percent
80 percent median weight equal to 2 standard deviation below the median
4 A
17 C
5 A
18 A
6 C
7 A
8 A
9 C
10 B
11 C
12 A
13 A
14 B
15 B
16 B
76

Growth chart by Govt. of IndiaShows three degree of malnutrition
1st degree (mild) malnutrition b/w 80-70 percent lines
Second degree (moderate) malnutrition b/w 70-60 percent line
Third degree (severe) malnutrition below 60 percent
Grade 4 malnutritionbelow 50 percent line
19. Second degree of under nutrition means:

(a) Weight below 50% of the Harvard standard
(b) Weight below 60% of the Harvard standard
(c) Weight
below 60% and 81% of the Harvard standard
(d) Weight between 60% and 71% of the Harvard standard
20. The sampling method adopted for VIP coverage evaluation survey of a district is:
(PAR/382) (JIPMER 80, ORISSA 91)
(a) Random sampling
(b) Cluster sampling
(c) Stratified sampling
(d) Multistage sampling
21. MCH care is assessed by:
(PAR/385) (TN 91)
(a) Death rate
(b) Birth rate
(c) Maternal-mortality rate
(d) Anemia in mother
22. English disease is a term used for:
(PAR/385) (PGI 81, AMC 88)
(a) Chagas disease
(b) Rheumatoid arthritis
(c) Chronic bronchitis
(d) Bronchiectasis
23. Denominator of maternal mortality rate is:
(PAR/386)(UP/2k) (AI 96)
(a) 1000 total births
(b) Mid year population
(c) 1000 live births
(d) Total live births
24. Regarding baby-friendly UNICEF plan, following are true except:
(PAR/ 386) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Mother and child are left together for 24 hours
(b) Feeding on demand
(c) No food/water given other
than breast milk
(d) Feeding started within 4 hours of birth
25. All of the following steps are recommended under Baby-friendly Hospital Initiative promoted by the WHO and
UNICEF except:
(UPSC/2K) (PAR 386)
(a) Allowing mothers and infants to remain together for 24 hours a day
(b) Mother to initiate breast
feeding after 4 hours of normal delivery
(c) Giving newborn infants no food or drink other than breast
milk
(d) Encouraging breast feeding on demand
26. Under the baby-friendly hospital initiative program, all of the following can be done except:
(a) Breastfeeding started 1-4 hours after birth
(b) Mother and the child are kept together for 24 hours of the
day
(c) Feeding on demand
(d) Exclusive breast feeding without any other food is preferd upto 4 months
27. All of the following are causes of postneonatal death in India except:
(a) Tetanus
(b) Respiratory infection
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) Malnutrition
28. Targeted infant mortality rate for 2000 AD:
(PAR/387) (UPSC 88)
(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 80
29. A village with a population of 10,000 has a birth rate of 36/1000 population. In one year there have been 5
maternal deaths. The maternal mortality rate in this village is:
(PAR/387) (AI 89)
(a) 0.5
(b) 5
(c) 13.8
(d) 14.5
30. All of the following are leading obstetrical causes of maternal mortality in India except:
(PAR/387) (AI 8)
(a) Severe anemia
(b) Toxaemia of pregnancy
(c) Vascular accidents
(d) Abortions
31 Denominator of maternal mortality rate is:
(a) Total number of female deaths
(b) Total number of live births
(c) 1000 live births
(d) 1000 female
deaths
32. In a population of 10,000 with birth rate 36 per 1000 and 5 maternal deaths, the MMR is:
(a) 14.5
(b) 13.8
(c) 20
(d) 5
(AI/2001)(PAR/387)
33. In India, all are direct causes of maternal mortality except:
(a) Cardiac disease
(b) Eclampsia
(c) Hemorrhage
(d) Abortion
19 D
32 B
20 B
33 A
21 C
22 C
23 D
24 D
25 B
26 A
27 A
28 B
29 C
30 C
31 B
77
Causes of maternal deaths in India

Haemorrhage
29%
Anemia
19%
Sepsis
16%
Obstructed labour
10%
Abortion
9%
Toxaemia
8%
Others
9%
34. All are common causes of maternal mortality in India except:
(PAR/388) (UP 95)
(a) Anaemia
(b) Haemorrhage
(c) Toxaemia
(d) Diabetes
35. The maternal mortality rate in India is:
(a) 1 per 1,000 live births
(b) 2 per 1,000 live births
(c) 5 per 1,000 live births
(d) 4 per 1,000 live
births
36. Most common indirect cause maternal mortality in India:
(PAR/388) (AI 92)
(a) Infection
(b) Anemia
(c) Heart disease
(d) Accidents
37. Most rare cause of maternal mortality is:
(PAR/ 388) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Abortion
(b) Anemia
(c) Toxaemia
(d) Hemorrhage
38. The commonest cause of maternal mortality in India is:
(PAR/389)(AIIMS/02)
(a) Anaemia (b) Haemorrhage
(c) Abortion
(d) Sepsis
39. In the calculation of IMR which is the time period considered?
(AIIMS/2K)
(a) 7 days
(b) 28 days
(c) Before 1 year
(d) 1-5 years
40. Denominator of perinatal mortality is:
(PAR/390) (TN 89)
(a) Live birth
(b) Stillbirth
(c) Live and stillbirth
(d) Live birth minus stillbirth
41. Stillbirth rate includes babies dead after:
(PAR/390) (AI 94)
(a) 20 weeks
(b) 24 weeks
(c) 28 weeks
(d) 32 weeks
Foetal deaths weighing over 1000g at birth 1000
Stillbirth rate = Total live + stillbirth weighing over 1000 at birth
42. Perinatal mortality is:
(PAR/390) (UP 94)
(a) 20 weeks to 7 days after death
(b) Late fetal death (stillbirth) + death under 2 weeks
(c) Late fetal
death weighing over 2600 g
(d) Body length of at least 20 cm should be used
43. Consider the following statements in respect of perinatal mortality (PNM):
(PAR/.390)(UPSC/01)
1. The PNM rate is defined as the number of foetal deaths plus the deaths in the first week of life per 1000
total births
2. Anoxia/birth trauma are the leading causes of PNM
3. In about one-third of the cases, the cause is unknown
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Late foetal death (28 weeks gestation and more) +
early neonatal deaths (first week) in one year
PMR=
1000
(WHO)
live births in the same year
Late foetal and early neonatal deaths weighing
over 1000g at birth
Perinatal mortality rate=
1000
Total live birth weighing over 1000 g at birth
34 D
35 D
36 D
37 A
38 B
39 C
40 A
41 C
42 A
43 C
78
44. The numerator used to define neonatal death rate is:

(PAR/391)(AI 90)
(a) All infants below one year of age
(b) Infants between 1 to 12 months
(c) Infant below 1 week of age
(d) Infants below 28 days of age
45. Neonatal mortality in proportion of IMR is:
(PAR/391) (UP 94)
(a) 65-75%
(b) 50-60%
(c) 35-45%
(d) 25-35%
46. Infantile deaths is taken only below:
(PAR/392) (AIIMS 81, PGI 80)
(a) 7 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 1 year
(d) 2 years
47. The most important indicator of the health and socioeconomical status of a community is:
(PAR/392) (UPSC 88)
(a) Neonatal mortality rate
(b) Maternal mortality rates
(c) Infant mortality rate
(d) Total mortality
rate
48. Postnatal (early) death rate mainly depends upon:
(PAR/392)(AIIMS 98)
(a) Environmental factors
(b) Antinatal care
(c) Events during birth
(d) Events during early neonatal
period
The neonatal mortality rate is tabulated as:
Number of deaths of children under 28 days age in year
Total live births in the same year
100
The post-neonatal mortality rate is tabulated as:

Number of death of children between 28 days and one year
of age in a given year
Total live births in the same year
100
49. Which state has the lowest infant mortality rate:

(PAR/393) (UPSC 86)
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) West Bengal
(d) Madhya Pradesh
50. MC cause of IMR is:
(PAR/393) (AI 99)
(a) Prematurity
(b) Diarrhoea
(c) Respiratory infection
(d) Birth injury
51. According to ICMR the most common cause of infant death:
(PAR/393) (AI 97)
(a) Prematurity
(b) Diarrhoeal disease
(c) Congenital anomaly
(d) Acute respiratory infection
52. Commonest cause of neonatal mortality in India is:
( PAR/393) (AIIMS/02)
(a) Diarrheal diseases
(b) Birth injuries
(c) Low birth weight
(d) Congenital anomalies
53. IMR up to:
(PAR /393) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Less than 1 year
(b) Equal to 1 year
(c) Up to 1 year
(d) More than 1 year
Number of death of children less than one year
IMR =
Number of live birth in the same year
1000
Causes of infant mortality

Neonatal mortality
(0-4 weeks)
Postneonatal
(1-12 months)
1. Low birth weight

2 Birth injury and difficult labour
Diarrhoeal disease
Acute respiratory infection
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Other communicable diseases

Malnutrition
Congenital anomalies
Accidents
Congenital anomalies
Haemolytic disease of newborn
Condition of placenta and cord
Diarrhoeal diseases
Acute respiratory infections
Tetanus
44 D
45 B
46 C
47 C
48 A
49 A
50 A
51 A
52 C
53 A
79
54. All are true of infant mortality rate except:

(a) 95 per 1000 live birth
(b) Neonatal death is 50%
(c) 90% of death is under 5 years
(d) Has improved
with socioeconomic improvement
55. In a population with birth rate of 4000, population < 5 years is 15,000, infant deaths are 120, 1-4 years deaths
280, calculate the under 5 mortality rate:
(PAR/397) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) 200
(b) 50
(c) 10
(d) 100
Child death rate =
number of death of children aged 1-4 years during a year

total number of children aged 1-4 years at the middle of the year
Child mortality rate =
1000
number of death of children less than 5 years of age in a given year

1000
number of live births in the same year
1000 under 5 mortality rate
Child survival rate =
10
56. The School Health Programmes came into vogue in:

(a) 1946
(b) 1948
(c) 1950
(d) 1960
(PAR/399) (AIIMS 81, PGI 83)
Aspects of school health service:

1. Remedial measures and follow-up
2. Health appraisal of school children and school personnel
3. Nutritional services
4. Prevention of communicable diseases
5. Healthful school enviornment
6. Mental death
7. Dental death
8. Eye health
9. Education of handicapped children
10. Health education
11. First aid emergency care
12. Proper maintenance and use of school health records
57. Which country had introduced school health services for the first time:
(PAR/399) (KARN 94)
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) United States of America
(d) India
58. In school health services the most important functionary should be:
(PAR/400) (PGI 79, AIIMS 86)
(a) School teacher
(b) Health worker
(c) Medical officer
(d) Health assistant
59. Ideal desk recommended for a school child is:
(PAR/400) (PGI 80, UPSC 93)
(a) Minus desk
(b) Plus desk
(c) Zero desk
60. With reference to school health, which one of the following statements is not correct? (PAR/400)(UPSC/02)
(a) Per capita space for students in class room should not be less than 10 square ft (b) Desks should be of plus
type (c) Class room should have sufficient natural light preferably from the left (d) There should be one urinal
for 60 students and one latrine for 100 students
61. Per capita space for students in a class room should not be less than.......sq. feet: (PAR/403) (PGI 80, AMU 92)
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 50
62. The approximate number of mentally retarded persons in India is around: (PAR/403) (JIPMER 79, AMU 86)
(a) 4-8 millions
(b) 1-15 millions
(c) 15-20 millions
(d) 20-25 millions
63. Mental retardation is defined if IQ is below:
(PAR/403) (PGI 81, AMC 92)
(a) 90
(b) 80
(c) 70
(d) 60
54 C
55 D
56 D
57 D
58 A
59 A
60 B
61 B
62 C
63 C
80
64. The following grading of intelligence quotient has been given by WHO for mild mental retardation:
(a) IQ 20-34
(b) IQ 35-49
(c) IQ 50-70
(d) IQ 60-80
(PAR/403) (PGI 80, AIIMS 86)
65. Presence of the following substance reveals the fact of postcontamination of water:
(PAR/403) (KARN 94)
(a) Chlorides
(b) Nitrates
(c) Sulphates
(d) Nitrites
66. A 14-year-old boy having lost his father a year ago, is caught shoplifting. The boy will be sent to:
(a) An orphanage
(b) An anganwadi
(c) A prison
(d) A remand home
(PAR/406)(UPSC/2001)
67. One of the following is not true of Child Guidance Clinic:
(a) First started in Chicago
(b) It is team work job
(c) It is basically meant for children who do not fully
adjust to their environment
(d) Originally designed to deal with juvenile delinquency
(e) It is intended for
service to the children in orphanages
68. When an abandoned child is legally accepted by a couple,it is called as:
(PAR/406)(UPSC/02)
(a) Remand home placement and foster home placement (b) Remand home placement and Borstal placement
(c) Adoption and foster home placement (d) Adoption and remand home placement
69. ICDS scheme was started in the year:
(PAR/407) (AIIMS 81, AMU 89)
(a) 1965
(b) 1970
(c) 1975
(d) 1985
Integrated child development services (ICDS) in 1975 is integrated package of:
1. Supplementory nutrition by 200 calorie and 8-10 gm for protein for children below 1 year, about
300 cal and 15 gm protein for children between 1-6 years and about 500 cal and 25 gm of protein
for pregnant women for nursing mother.Supplementary nutrient is given in 300 days in year
2. Nutrition and health education for women
3. Immunization- Against 6 vaccine preventable
4. Health check up for children under 6 years age
Record of weight and height of children at periodical intervals
Watch over milestone
Immunization
General check-up every 3-6 months to detect disease malnutrition etc
Treatment for diseases like diarrhoea, dysentery, respiratory tract infection, etc. which are widely
present.
Deworming
Prophylaxis against vitamin A deficiency and anemia
Referral and serious cases to hospital has also been provided for
5. Nonformal education for children upto the age of 6 years pregnant and nursing motherThe focal
point of delivery of integrated early childhood services under the ICDS scheme is the trained local
women known as Aaganwadi workers (AWWs). Other functionaries in the ICDS are the child
development project officers (CDPO) who is incharge of 4 supervisors and 100 AWWs
70. Highest amount of protein is seen in:
(PAR/408) (PGI
(a) Soya beans
(b) Groundnut
(c) Bengal gram
(d) Mysore Dal
71. Protein in human milk is:
(PAR/409) (UP
(a) 1.3 gm
(b) 2.3 gm
(c) 3.3 gm
(d) 4.5 gm
72. One of the following is biologically complete:
(PAR/409) (JIPMER 81, PGI
(a) Groundnut
(b) Wheat
(c) Soya bean
(d) Milk
73. Milk is deficient in:
(PAR/409) (KERALA
(a) Ca
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Fe
74. Breast milk compared to cows milk has:
(PAR/409) (DELHI
(a) More calories
(b) More fat
(c) More lactose
(d) More proteins
64 C
65 B
66 D
67 E
68 C
69 C
70 A
71 A
72 D
73 D
74 C
85)
94)
86)
94)
96)

Constituents
PROTEINS
- Casein
Soluble proteins
Lactalbumin
Beta-lactoglobulin
Lactotrasferrin
Immunoglobulin
Lysozyme
NON-PROTEIN
Nitrogenous substances
Lipids
Linolenic acid
CARBOHYDRATES
Lactose
Nitrogenous
Oligosaccharides
MINERALS
Ca
P
Fe
VITAMINS
C
D
ENERGY
Breast milk
gram per litre
11
4
7
3.5
0
1 to 2
1 to 2
0.5
0.32
35
Cows milk gram

per litre
33
28
5
1.5 to 1.8
3.7
0.2 to 0.5
0.5
Traces
0.32
35
3.5
70
62
50
50
2
0.33
0.4 to 1.5 mg
8
1
0.3 to 0.5 mg
60 mg
50 Ul
20 mg
25 Ul
640-720 kcal
2717 KJ
2670-3000 KJ
650 kcal
81
82
Nutrition and Health
1. Lysine is not present in:

(PAR/413) (AI 88)
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Bengal gram
(d) Red gram dal
2. Which of the following serves 1000 people in the urban area:
(PAR/455) (PGI/2000)
(a) Anganwadi worker
(b) Multipurpose health worker
(c) Public health officer
(d) Community health
worker
(e) Village health worker
3. Which cooking oil has the highest amount of essential fatty acids:
(PAR/414) (PGI 84)
(a) Groundnut oil
(b) Coconut oil
(c) Sunflower oil
(d) Castor oil
4. Higher amounts of unsaturated fatty acids are found in:
(PAR/414) (AI 89)
(a) Vegetable oil
(b) Butter
(c) Milk
(d) Egg
5. Which of the following is rich in linolenic acid:
(PAR/414) (ORISSA 99)
(a) Linseed oil
(b) Groundnut oil
(c) Sunflower oil
(d) Soya bean oil
6. The highest percentage of essential fatty acid is found in:
(a) Butter fat (ghee)
(b) Sunflower seed oil
(c) Corn oil
(d) Groundnut oil
7. In comparison to animal fat, vegetable fat is:
(PAR/414) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) More stable
(b) More saturated
(c) More atherogenic
(d) Doesnt contain fat soluble vitamin
8. Iron and folate requirement in a pregnant woman:
(PAR/414) (PGI/2000)
(a) 60 mg, 500 micrograms for 100 days (b) 100 mg, 500 micrograms for 100 days (c) 100 mg, 500 micrograms
for 200 days
(d) 60 mg, 500 micrograms for 60 days
9. Essential fatty acids are lowest in:
(a) Fish liver oil
(b) Sunflower oil
(c) Vegetable oil
(d) Coconut oil
Dietary Sources of EFA
Essential fatty acids
Dietary source
Percent content
Linoleic acids
Safflower oil
Corn oil
Sunflower oil
Soya bean oil
Sesame oil
Groundnut oil
Mustard oil
Palm oil
Coconut oil
Meat, egg
Milk (fat)
Soya bean oil
Leafy greens
Fish oil
73
57
56
51
40
39
15
9
2
0.5-0.3
0.4-0.6
7
varied
10
Arachiodonic acid
Linolenic acid
Eichosapentaenoic acid
1 A
2 A
3 C
4 A
5 A
6 C
7 D
8 A
9 D

10. The rich source of essential fatty acid is:
(PAR/415) (KARN
(a) Ghee
(b) Vanaspati
(c) Butter
(d) Vegetable oil
11. Highest vitamin A content is seen in:
(PAR/416) (UPSC
(a) Lemon
(b) Green leafy vegetables
(c) Tomato
(d) Ragi
12. Which is the most potent vitamin A:
(PAR/416) (PGI
(a) Carotene
(b) Vitamin A1
(c) Vitamin A2
(d) Beta-carotene
13. The highest concentrations of vitamin A is seen in:
(PAR/416 (AMC
(a) Polar bear liver
(b) Cod liver oil
(c) Shark liver oil
(d) Papaya
14. Most immediate treatment of night blindness is:
(PAR/416) (AIIMS
(a) Topical vitamin A
(b) Vitamin A orally
(c) Vitamin A parenterally
15. Prevalence of vitamin A deficiency in a community is assessed as:
(PAR/417) (AIIMS
(a) Bitots spots0.5%
(b) Decreased serum-retinol level0.05%
(c) Corneal ulcer0.01%
(d) Night blindness10%
83
94)
88)
85)
89)
89)
92)
Prevalence criteria for determining the xerophthalmia problem:

Criteria
Prevalence in population at risk

(6 months to 6 years)
More
More
More
More
More
Night blindness
Bitot's spots
Corneal xerosis/corneal ulceration/keratomalacia
Corneal ulcer
Serum retinol (less than 10 mcg/dl)
than
than
than
than
than
1 percent
0.5 percent
0.01 percent
0.05 percent
5 percent
16. Oral vitamin A prophylaxis is given to children every:

(PAR/417) (UPSC 86)
(a) 2 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(d) One year
17. Medium term strategy for prevention of vitamin A deficiency:
(PAR/417) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) Food fortification against measles
(b) Immunization against measles
(c) Required dose of vitamin A
to preschool kids
(d) Supple of food with green vegetable
18. Earliest feature of vitamin A deficiency is:
(PAR/417) (AP 85)
(a) Conjunctival xerosis
(b) Nyctalopia
(c) Bitots spots
(d) Keratomalacia
19. Vitamin A deficiency in the community would be diagnosed by:
(PAR/417) (PGI/2000)
(a) Night blindness > 1%
(b) Corneal ulcer > 1%
(c) Bitots spots > 1%
(d) People with hematomas on
their foreheads by bumping into light posts in the dark, > 1%
20. Vitamin A requirement for a child between 6-12 months is:
(PAR/418) (AI 89, 92)
(a) 100 micrograms
(b) 200 micrograms
(c) 300 micrograms
(d) 400 micrograms
21. The proportion of children in the age group of 0-6 years, who are the beneficiaries of integrated Child Development
Services Scheme, in the population is about:
(a) 6%
(b) 13%
(c) 20%
(d) 27%
22. Dose of oral vitamin A given as prophylaxis is:
(PAR/418) (UPSC 86)
(a) 66,000 IU
(b) 10,000 IU
(c) 1,60,000 IU
(d) 2,00,000 IU
23. Vitamin A prophylaxis schedule of newborn is...mg at birth:
(PAR/418) (AIIMS 79, PGI 81)
(a) 27.5
(b) 55
(c) 110
(d) 165
24. The recommended daily allowance (ICMR) of vitamin A for children between 6 to 12 months is:
(a) 150 mgm
(b) 300 mgm
(c) 500 mgm
(d) 800 mgm
(PAR/418) (AI 89)
25. Vitamin D is synthesized by the body by the action of ultraviolet radiation of the sun on: (PAR/418) (UPSC 98)
(a) Calciferol
(b) Cholecalciferol
(c) 7-dehydrocholesterol
(d) Ergosterol
26. Vitamin D is not present in:
(a) Milk
(b) Fish fat
(c) Cod liver oil
(d) Egg
27. Which milk is a rich source of vitamin K:
(PAR/419) (PGI 79, AMC 86, 87)
(a) Human
(b) Cow
(c) Goat
(d) Camel
28. The richest source of vitamin K is:
(PAR/419) (PGI 78, UPSC 87)
(a) Egg yolk
(b) Green vegetables
(c) Fruits
(d) Wheat
10 D
23 A
11 B
24 B
12 B
25 C
13 A
26 A
14 C
27 B
15 A
28 B
16 B
17 A
18 A
19 A
20 C
21 B
22 D
84
29. For every 100 calories, vitamin B, required is:

(PAR/419) (AIIMS 81, AMC 87)
(a) 0.05 mg
(b) 0.5 mg
(c) 5.0 mg
(d) 1.0 gm
30. The daily requirement of vitamin E in an adult is related to the intake of:
(PAR/419) (UPSC/01)
(a) Essential amino acids
(b) Total proteins
(c) Essential fatty acids
(d) Total fats
31. Vitamin E is absent in:
(PAR/419) (AI 92)
(a) Wheat gram oil
(b) Vegetable oil
(c) Milk
(d) Egg yolk
Requirement
Man
(sedentary)
Woman
(sedentary)
Pregnancy
Lactation
Net energy (kcal/d)

Protein (g/d)
Fat (g/d)
Calcium (mg/d)
Iron (mg/d)
Vit A Retinol (mg/d)
Thiamine (mg/d)
Riboflavin (mg/d)
Nicotinic acid (mg/d)
Pyridoxine (mg/d)
Ascorbic acid (mg/d)
Folic acid (g/d)
Vit B12 (g/d)
Vit D
2425
60
20
400
28
600
1.2
1.4
16
2.0
40
100 mcg
1 mcg
2.5 mcg
1875
50
20
400
30
600
0.9
1.1
12
2.0
40
100 mcg
1 mcg
100 IU
+ 300
+15
30
1000
38
600
+0.2
+0.2
+2
2.5
2.5
400 mcg
1.5 mcg
400 IU
+ 550
+ 25
45
100
30
950
+0.3
+4
+3
40
80
150 mcg
1.5 mcg
400 IU
32. Daily requirement of vitamin D in pregnancy and location is:

(PAR/419)(UPSC/03)
(a) 2.5 micrograms
(b) 5 micrograms (c) 10 micrograms (d) 20 micrograms
33. Dose of vitamin A (IU) and vitamin D (g) in Dalda is:
(PAR/419)(MAHE/98)
(a) 1000 and 100
(b) 1500 and 125
(c) 2000 and 150
(d) 2500 and 175
34. The daily requirement of vitamin E in an adult is related to the intake of:
(PAR/419) (UPSC/2001)
(a) Essential amino acids
(b) Total proteins
(c) Essential fatty acids
(d) Total fats
35. Niacin deficiency in maize eating population is due to:
(PAR/420) (AI 95)
(a) High tryptophan
(b) High isoleucine
(c) High leucine
(d) High phenylalanine
36. Niacin is synthesised from:
(a) Tryptophan
(b) Tyrosine
(c) Methionine
(d) Phenylalanine
37. The occurrence of pellagra is most common in:
(a) Teen ages
(b) Growing children
(c) Young adults
(d) Adults in later life
38. Which one among the following is the rich source of niacin?
(PAR/420)(UPSC/03)
(a) Raw rice
(b) Par boiled rice
(c) Groundnut
(d) Milk
39. In which Indian state is pellagra prevalent:
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) West Bengal
(d) Bihar
40. 100 gm meat gives....mg niacin:
(PAR/420)(AMC 92)
(a) 1.0
(b) 2.8
(c) 4.8
(d) 6.8
41. A cup of good coffee provides about....of niacin:
(PAR/420) (PGI 87)
(a) 1 mg
(b) 2 mg
(c) 5 mg
(d) 10 mg
42. RDA of folic acid in adult pregnant woman:
(a) 50 micrograms
(b) 150 micrograms
(c) 300 micrograms
(d) 500 micrograms
43. Best source of vitamin B12 is:
(a) Milk
(b) Liver
(c) Soya bean
(d) Leafy vegetables
44. Vitamin B12 not found in:
(PAR/421) (AI 97)
(a) Soya bean
(b) Milk
(c) Meat
(d) Fish
45. Poorest source of vitamin among following is:
(a) Guava
(b) Orange
(c) Lime
(d) Cabbage
29 A
42 C
30 C
43 B
31 C
44 A
32 C
45 D
33 D
34 C
35 C
36 A
37 D
38 A
39 B
40 D
41 A
85
46. The highest quantities of vitamin C is found in:

(PAR/422) (AP 85, PGI 86)
(a) Orange
(b) Lemon
(c) Indian gooseberry
(d) Grapes
47. The daily requirement of vitamin C is:
(a) 40 mg
(b) 100 mg
(c) 200 mg
(d) 500 mg
48. One liter of cows milk provides.....mg of calcium:
(a) 400
(b) 600
(c) 800
(d) 1000
(e) 1200
49. The recommended daily allowance of calcium for adults is:
(a) 100 mg
(b) 200 mg
(c) 300 mg
(d) 400 mg
50. Calcium requirement above the normal during the first 6 months of lactation is:
(PAR/422) (AI 92)
(a) 400 mg/day
(b) 550 mg/day
(c) 600 mg/day
(d) 750 mg/day
51. Highest amount of iron is seen in:
(PAR/423) (PGI 86)
(a) Milk
(b) Meat
(c) Spinach
(d) Jaggery
52. The level of iodination of salt in India is:
(PAR/424) (UPSC 87)
(a) 1 in 200
(b) 1 in 20,000
(c) 1 in 30,000
(d) 1 in 40,000
53. Recommended dose for iron during pregnancy is:
(PAR/424) (AI 92)
(a) 24 mg/day
(b) 32 mg/day
(c) 40 mg/day
(d) 60 mg/day
54. Iodine deficiency is associated with all except:
(PAR/424) (AI 89)
(a) High infant mortality rate
(b) Stillbirths
(c) Mental retardation
(d) Cataract
55. Normal iron requirement during pregnancy is:
(PAR/ 424) (AIIMS 98)
(a) 2 mg
(b) 40 mg
(c) 80 mg
(d) 100 mg
56. The haemoglobin cut-off level for determining prevalence of anemia among pregnant women is:
(KARNAT 99) (PAR /424)
(a) Less than 15 G per DL
(b) Less than 13 G per DL
(c) Less than 11 G per DL
(d) Less than
9 G per DL
57. Double-edged sword is:
(PAR/425) (AIIMS 81, PGI 84)
(a) Chlorine
(b) Fluorine
(c) Lead
(d) Selenium
58. Normal Fluoride level in water is:
(a) 0.1mg/lit
(b) 0.2 mg/lit
(c) 0.5 mg/lit
(d) 1mg/lit
59. Safe limit of fluorine in drinking water is....mg/lit:
(PAR/425) (PGI 84, AP 85)
(a) 0.5 to 0.8
(b) 0.1 to 0.3
(c) 1
(d) 1.5
60. People living in goitre-endemic areas in India:
(a) 9 million
(b) 40 million
(c) 120 million
(d) 200 million
61. Rice contains:
(a) 20% protein
(b) 12% of protein
(c) 14% of protein
(d) 0.6% protein
(e) 6-8% of protein
62. Best quality proteins are found in highest quantities in:
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Ragi
(d) Bajra
63. Excessive of leucine can lead to:
(PAR/ 427) (PGI 80, UPSC 85, 88)
(a) Beri-beri
(b) Marasmus
(c) Pellagra
(d) Magenta tongue
64. Par boiling of paddy helps in retaining:
(PAR/427) (KARN 94)
(a) Vitamin C
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Niacin
(d) Thiamine
65. Pulses and cereals are given together in a balanced diet because:
(PAR427)(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Pulses lack lysine and cereals lack threonine
(b) Pulses are rich in methionine and cereals lack methionine
(c) Pulses lack methionine and cereals lack lysine
(d) Pulses have essential amino acids and cereals have nonessential amino acids
66. What is known as Poormans meat:
(PAR/427) (AMU 89)
(a) Milk
(b) Pulses
(c) Fish
(d) Egg
67. Maize are deficient in:
(PAR/427) (AI 97)
(a) Tryptophan
(b) Threonine
(c) Methionine
(d) Leucine
68. Limiting amino acid in soya bean is:
(PAR/428) (PGI 78, AIIMS 85)
(a) Threonine
(b) Lysine
(c) Methionine
(d) Tryptophan
46 C
59 A
47 A
60 C
48 E
61 E
49 D
62 A
50 C
63 C
51 D
64 D
52 D
65 C
53 C
66 B
54 D
67 A
55 B
68 C
56 C
57 B
58 C
86
69. One ounce of fresh cows milk yields about:

(a) 20 kcal
(b) 40 kcal
(c) 67 kcal
(d) 90 kcal
70. About soya bean all are true except:
(a) Digestability coefficient 75%
(b) Minerals 8%
(c) Protein 40%
(d) Highest protein amongst
vegetarians foods
71. Percentage of protein in breast milk is:
(PAR/429) (AIIMS 79, PGI 89)
(a) 1-2 gm%EST
(b) 2-4 gm%
(c) 4-5 gm%
(d) 5-7 gm%
72. Highest biological value is seen in:
(PAR/429) (AI 94)
(a)Eggs
(b) Fish
(c) Soya bean
(d) Gram
73. Reference protein is:
(a) Milk protein
(b) Egg protein
(c) Red mutton protein
(d) Fish protein
74. The ratio of casein to albumin in human milk is:
(a) 2:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 1:1
(d) 7:1
75. One egg yields about.....kcal of energy:
(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 80
76. Egg has all vitamins except:
(PAR/429) (AP 87)
(b) B6
(c) C
(d) E
(a) B1
77. Highest biological value is for:
(PAR/429) (PGI 84)
(a) Eggs
(b) Milk
(c) Soya bean
(d) Meat
78. Best method to compare protein quality is:
(a) Net protein utilization (b) Biological value (c) Specific dynamic action of protein (d) Presence or absence
of essential amino acids
79. For assessing the ability of protein utilisation the best index is:
(a) Urea
(b) NPU
(c) Blood ammonia
(d) Urinary nitrogen content
80. In ICMR project during lactation supplies extra:
(PAR/432) (AI 97)
(a) 300 calories
(b) 550 calories
(c) 700 calories
(d) 900 calories
81. True about NPU is all except:
(PAR/432)(AI/2000)
(a) NPU of Indian diet is 50-80%
(b) Cow's milk has NPU of 81%
(c) NPU is amount of wt. gain per amount
of protein consumed
(d) Egg has maximum NPU
82. Which one of the following is the best indicator of protein quality for recommending the dietary protein
requirement:
(PAR/432) (UPSC 98)
(a) Protein effeciency ratio
(b) Biological value
(c) Digestibility coeffecient
(d) Net protein utilization
83. Which of the following is/are true regarding the nutritional requirement of a 50kg heavy working Indian women:
(PAR/432)PGI/2000)
(a) 2925 Calories/day
(b) Calcium 400gms/day
(c) Iron 40mg/day
(d) Protein 40mg
(e) Fat 30gms
84. Requirement of extra calories for a lactating mother during first 6 months is: (PAR/433) (UPSC 87, AI 93)
(a) 300 kcal/day
(b) 400 kcal/day
(c) 550 kcal/day
(d) 800 kcal/day
85. A normal six-month-old child would require about how many calories per kilogram daily:
(a) 25
(b) 40
(c) 75
(d) 110
(PAR/433) (AIIMS 79, PGI 84)
86. The reference protein nutritional work is:
(PAR/433) (AP 89)
(a) Cows milk
(b) Hens egg
(c) Meat
(d) Fish
87. ICMR recommendation for protein intake for 13-15-year-old girl is:
(PAR/433) (TN 86)
(a) 0.5 g/kg
(b) 0.95 g/kg
(c) 1.3 g/kg
(d) 1.85 g/kg
88. Requirement of protein in a reference Indian male:
(PAR /433) (AIIMS/2K)
(a) 50 gm
(b) 60 gm
(c) 40 gm
(d) 100 gm
89. The daily requirement of fat is.....% of total energy:
(PAR/434) (DNB 91)
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
(e) 30
90. Normal iron requirement per day in pregnancy:
(PAR/435) (AI 93)
(a) 1.5 mg
(b) 1.8 mg
(c) 2.8 mg
(d) 3.5 mg
69 A
82 D
70 A
83 A
71 A
84 C
72 A
85 D
73 B
86 B
74 C
87 C
75 C
88 A
76 C
89 C
77 A
90 D
78 A
79 B
80 B
81 C
87
91. Calcium requirement during pregnancy per day is:

(a) 0.5 gm
(b) 1.5 gm
(c) 2.2 gm
(d) 3.3 gm
92. Which of the following vitamins is not needed in excess of normal daily requirements in pregnancy:
(d) Vitamin C
(PAR/435) (PGI 89)
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B
(c) Vitamin B12
93. Daily additional protein requirement in lactation:
(a) 25 g
(b) 14 g
(c) 45 g
(d) 35 g
94. Essential diagnostic criteria of kwashiorkor:
(PAR/436) (AIIMS 83, 85, ESI 89)
(a) Growth retardation, oedema psychomotor retardation
(b) Hair change, oedema psychomotor retarding
(c) Hair changes, growth psychomotor retarding
(d) Oedema, skin changes and psychomotor retarding
Principal Features of severe PEM
FEATURES
MARASMUS
KWASHIORKOR
CLINICAL
ALWAYS PRESENT
Muscle wasting
Oedema
Obvious
None
Mental changes
Fat wasting
Weight for height
Some times hidden by oedema and fat

Present in lower legs, usually in face and
lower arms
Sometimes quiet and apathetic Irritable, moaning, apathetic
Serve loss of subcutaneous fat Fat often retained but not firm
Very low
Low but may be masked by oedema
CLINICAL
SOMETIMES PRESENT
Hair changes
Appetite
Diarrhoea
Hepatic enlargement
Skin changes
Seldom
Usually good
often (current and past)
None
Usually none
Sparse, Silky,easily pulled out

Poor
often (current and past)
Sometimes, due to accumulation of fat
Deffuse pigmentation, sometimes flaky
Paint dermatosis
Low
Low
Normal slightly decreased

Normal
Low(<3g/100ml blood)
Elevated
BIOCHEMICAL
Hydroxyproline/
creatinine ratio
Serum albumin
Plasma / amino
acid ratio
95. Flaky paint appearance of skin is seen in:

(a) Pellagra
(b) Psoriasis
(c) Marasmus
(d) Kwashiorkor
96. Important clinical diagnostic feature of kwashiorkor is:
(a) Flag sign
(b) Weight loss
(c) Edema
(d) Neurologic dysfunction
(PAR/436) (AI 95)

Gomez Classification
Weight of the child
Weight of a normal child of same age
100 = Weight for age(%)
Between 90 and 110%

Normal nutritional status
Between 75 and 89%
1st degree, mild malnutrition
Between 60 and 74%
2nd degree, moderate malnutrition
Under 60%
3rd degree, severe malnutrition
Waterlows Classification
H/A
W/H
>m-2SD
>m-2SD
normal
wasted < m-2SD
Stunted
91 B
92 C
93 A
94 A
95 D
96 C
< m-2SD
wasted and stunted
88

Interpretation of Indicators
Weight of the child
Weight /Height (%)=
Weight of normal child at same height

Height of the child
Height /Age (%) =
Height of normal child at same age
Nutritional status
Mildly impaired
Severely impaired
Moderately impaired
Normal
Stunting(% of height /age)

87.5-95
<80
80-87.5
>95
100
100
Wasting(% of weight and height)

80-90
<70
70-80
>90
97. The World Health Organization criterion for evidence of a Xerophthalmia problem in the community is:
(a) Night blindness prevalence of more than 1% in 6 months to 6 years age group
(b) Prevalence of Bilots
spots more than 2% in 6 months to 6 years of age group
(c) Serum retinol of less than 10 microgram/100 ml
in more than 3% in 6 months to 6 years of age
(d) Corneal ulcers in more than 0.5% of population of 6 months
to 6 years of age group
(PAR 438))(UPSC/2K)
98. The Vitamin A supplement administered in Prevention of nutritional blindness in children programme
contains":
(PAR/438)(AI/03)
(a) 25,000 IU/ml
(b) 1 lakh IU/ml
(c) 3 lakh IU/ml
(d) 5 lakh IU/ml
XerophthalmiaPrevention and Control
a. Short-term actionLarge doses of vitamin A orally
Vitamin A prophylaxis schedule
Individual
Oral dose of retinol palmitate Timing
Children <12 years
55 mg
4-6 monthly
Children >12 years
110 mg
4-6 monthly
Newborn
27.5 mg
At birth
Women of child age bearing age
165 mg
Within one month of given birth
Pregnant and lactating
2.75 mg and 11 mg
Every day and once every week
b. Medium-term actionFortification of vitamin A to dalda.
Dalda contains 25000 of vitamin A and 175 IU of vitamin D per 100gm
c. Long-term actionNational vitamin A prophylaxis programme for prevention of blindness in
children with 200,000 IU (or 110 mg) of retinol palmitate in an oil every six months
99. The dose of iron and folic acid given as a supplement is:
(a) 200 mg and 5 mg
(b) 60 mg and 500 mg
(c) 200 mg and 500 mg
(d) 200 mg and 1 mg
100. According to the latest estimate the number of people living in the known iodine deficient areas is:
(a) 40 million
(b) 120 million
(c) 20 million
(d) 80 million
101. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of pediatric iron-folic acid tablets supplied under RCH program are:
(PAR/439) (AI/03)
(a) 20 mg iron and 100 microgms of folic acid (b) 40 mg iron and 100 microgms of folic acid (c) 40 mg iron
and 50 microgms of folic acid (d) 60 mg iron and 100 microgms of folic acid
Interventions for Prevention of nutritional Anemia
Iron and folic acid supplementation
To Pregnant women, lactating mothers and children under 12 years
Mothersone tablet of iron and folic containing 60 mg of elemental iron (60mg of ferrus sulphate
and 0.1 mg of folic acid should be given daily
Iron fortificationaddition of ferricortho- phosphate or ferrus sulphate with sodium bisulphate
enough to fortify salt with iron
97 A
98 B
99 B
100 B
101 A
89
102. In national goitre control programme iodine supplementation is implemented in: (PAR/440) (AMU 86, AMC 92)
(a) Sub Himalayas areas
(b) Sub Himalayas area + Hilly areas
(c) Sub Himalayas + Northern areas
(d) Whole of India
The spectrum of iodine-deficiency disorders:
Goitre
Hypothyroidism
Subnormal intelligence
Delayed motor milestones
Mental deficiency
Hearing defects
Speech defects
Strabismus (squint)
Nystagmus
Spasticity (extrapyramida)
Neuromuscular weakness
Endemic cretinism
Intrauterine death (spontaneous abortion miscarriage)
103. The defluoridation process of drinking water developed by the NEERI is popularly known as:
(PAR/440) (KARN 95) (DELHI 85)
(a) Activated sludge process
(b) Recarbonation process
(c) Nalgonda process
(d) Double pot method
Endemic fluorosis
- Ocurs where drinking water contains fluorine in 3-5mg/l
- Dental fluorosisAt levels above 1.5 mg/2 intake
- Skeletal fluorosisAt levels 3.0 to 6.0 mg/l
Fluorosis can ensue crippling when conc is 10mg/l
InterventionChanging the water sourceWith a lower fluoride content (0.5 to 0.8 mg/l)
- Chemical treatment, Nalgonda Technique for defluoridation of water
- Other measureuse of fluoride toothpaste in areas of endemic fluorosis is not recommended for
children upto 6 years age.
104. Iodized oil used in preventing goitre is:
(a) Croton oil
(b) Castor oil
(c) Almond oil
(d) Poppy-seed oil
105. 1 ml of iodized oil gives protection for about:
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 4 years
(d) 10 years
(PAR/440) (PGI 81, DNB 90)

(PAR/440) (AIIMS 80, PGI 86)
Goitre controlFour essential components of national goitre control programme are iodized salt or oil,
monitoring and man power training mass communication.
1. Iodized salt
- Iodization is not less than 30 ppm at the production point and not less than 15 ppm of iodine at
the consumer level
- Iodized oilIntramuscular injection of iodized oil (mostly poppy seed oil) Dose of 1ml will provide
protection for adults four years
- Iodized oil oralSodium iodate tablets.
2. Iodine monitoringNeonatal hypothyroidism is sensitivity pointer to environmental iodine deficiency
- The WHO regional stategy for the control of IDD has as its principal objective the production of
the prevalance of goitre in areas of endemicity to 10 percent or below by the year 2000
106. All are behaviour sciences except:
(a) Sociology
(b) Anthropology
102 C
103 C
104 D
105 C

(c) Political sciences
106 C
(d) Psychology
90
107. Stastic paraplegia is caused by:

(PAR/441) (KERALA
(a) Sanguinarias
(b) Lathyrus
(c) Strychnine
(d) Organophosphorous compounds
108. The toxin in Khesari daal is known as:
(PAR/441) (UPSC
(a) Beta oxalyl amino alanine
(b) Beta oxalyl amino arginine
(c) Beta oxalyl amino acetate
(d) Beta oxalyl amino transferase
109. BOAA is:
(PAR/441) (AI
(a) Beta oxalyl amino alanine
(b) Beta oxaloacetoacetate
(c) Beta oxalyl amino acetate
(d) Beta oxalyl acetyl acetate
110. Lathyrism is due to:
(PAR/441) (AI 92, UP
(a) A flatoxins
(b) BOAA
(c) Pyruvic acid
(d) Sanguinarine
94)
87)
96)
93)
LathyrismOccurs in two forms

1. Neurolathyrism
2. Osteolathyrism
The toxin present in lathyrus seeds has been identified as beta oxalyl amino alanine (BOAA)
Pulse must be eaten in large ammounts over a period of time for 2 months or more
Disease has
1. Latent stage
2. No stick stage
3. One stick stage
4. Two stick stage
5. Crawler stage
Intervention
Vitamin C prophylaxis daily administration of 500 to 1000 mg of ascorbic acid for a week or so
Baning the crop
Removal of toxinsteeping method
Parboiling
EducationGenetic approach
111. All of the following are used to assess the nutritional status of an individual, except:
(a) Urinary nitrogen excretion (b) Midarm circumference (c) Serum immunoglobulins
Indicators of nutritional status
Phenomenon
Maternal nutrition
Infant and preschool
child nutrition
School child nutrition
(PAR/445) (UP 97)

(d) Serum transferrin
Indicator
birth weight
proportion being breastfed
and proportion on weaning
foods, by age in months,mortality
rates in children aged 1,2,3 and
4 years, with emphasis on 2 years olds
If age known
Height for age
Weight for age
If age unknown
Weight for height
arm circumference
height for age, weight for height
at 7 years or school admision clinical signs
112. To monitor malnutrition in < 5 years age group in a village,village health guide uses:
(PAR/447)(AI/2000)
(a) Midarm circumference
(b) Height for age
(c) Weight for age
(d) Skinfold thickness
113. Test done in milk pasteurization:
(PAR/450) (UP 95)
(a) Phosphatase test
(b) Turbidity test
(c) Nitric acid test
(d) Salwotch test
107 B
108 A
109 A
110 B
111 C
112 A
113 A
91
114. Which one of the following is not used in testing for adequate pasteurization of milk? (PAR/450)(UPSC/02)
(a) Phosphatase test
(b) Coliform count
(c) Standard plate count
(d) Methylene blue reduction test
115. All are indicators for the assessment of the nutritional program except:
(a) Weight and height of the preschool child
(b) Prevalence of low birth weight less than 2.5 kg in community
(c) Nutritional assessment of the preschool child
(d) Prevalence of pregnant mothers having Hb < 11.5 g% in
the 3rd trimester
116. Methylene blue reduction test is done for estimating:
(PAR/450) (KARN 94)
(a) Fat content of milk
(b) Sugar content of milk
(c) Protein content of milk
(d) Bacterial activity in
milk
117. Milk borne disease is:
(PAR/450)(AIIMS 89)
(a) Q fever
(b) Typhoid
(c) Typhus
(d) Relapsing fever
118. True about pasteurisation is:
(PAR-450) (AI/2000)
(a) Reduces bacterial count by 95%(b) Kills all bacteria except thermoduric one
(c) All bacteria are killed
(d) All bacteria and virus
119. Test not done on pasteurised milk:
(PAR/450) (TN/99)
(a) Methylene blue test
(b) Standard plate count
(c) Phosphatase test
(d) Coliform countspores are killed
120. Examples of food-borne disease are A/E:
(PAR/452) (AI 92)
(a) Shigellosis
(b) Giardiasis
(c) Amoebiasis
(d) Hydatidosis
121. Not a food intoxicants is:
(PAR/452) (UP 96)
(a) Lathyrism
(b) Wernieke's encephalopathy
(c) Epidemic dropsy
(d) Veno-occlusive disease
Food-borne intoxication
1. Due to naturally occuring toxins in some food
a. Lathyrism (beta oxalyl amino alanine)
b. Endemic ascites (Pyrolizidine alkaloids)
2. Due to toxin produced by certain bacteria
a. Botulism
b. Staphylococcus poisons
3. Due to toxins produced by some fungi
a. Aflatoxin
b. Ergot
c. Fusarium toxins
4. Food-borne chemical poisoning
a. Heavy metals, e.g. mercury (usually in fish) cadmium (in certain shelfish) and lead in canned
food
b. Oils petroleum derivatives and solvents (e.g. trycresyl phosphate or TCP)
c. Migrant chemicals from package materials
d. Asbestos
e. Pesticides residues (DDT, BHC)
Food-borne infections
Group example illness in each group
1. Bacteria
typhoid fever, paratyphoid fever,

salmonellosis, staphylococcal
intoxication, Cl. perfringens illness,
botulism, B.cereus food poisoning
E. coli diarrhoea, non-cholera vibrio illness V.
parahaemolyticus infection, streptococcal
infection, Shigellosis, brucellosis.
Viral hepatitis, gastroenteritis
Taeniasis, hydatidosis, trichinosis, ascariasis,
amoebiasis, oxyuriasis
2. Viral disease
3. Parasites
114 B
115 D
116 D
117 A
118 B
119 A
120 B
121 B
92
122. Test for detecting argemone oil contamination does not include:
(PAR/452) (AMC/99)
(a) Nitric acid test
(b) Paper chromatography test
(c) Aldehyde test
(d) None
123. Match List I (Disease) with List II (Vector) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
(PAR/452) UPSC/02
List I
List II
A. Scabies
1. Soft tick
B. Fish tapeworm infestation
2. Cyclops
C. Relapsing fever
3. Sarcoptes
D. Kyasanur forest
4. Hard tick
Codes:
(a) A:3, B:2, C:1, D: 4
(b) A:4, B:1, C:2, D: 3 (c) A:3, B:1, C:2, D: 4 (d) A:4, B:2, C:1, D: 3
124. Which is first and commonest clinical manifestation of epidemic dropsy:
(a) Bilateral swelling of legs
(b) Gastrointestinal upsets
(c) Cardiac decompensation
(d) Sarcoid
125. All are food fortification except:
(a) Addition of colour to saccharin
(b) Addition of vitamin A to food stuff
(c) Addition of extranutrients
to food stuff
(d) Iodisation of salt
126. Epidemic dropsy present with A/E:
(PAR/453) (AIIMS 96, AI 98)
(a) Glaucoma
(b) CHF
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) Convulsion
127. Sanguinarine is derived from:
(PAR/453) (AI 97)
(a) Fusorium incamatum
(b) Argemone oil
(c) Jhunjhunia seeds
(d) Khesari dal
128. Earliest manifestation of epidemic dropsy is:
(PAR/453) (UP 94)
(a) B/L swelling of leg
(b) Cardiac failure
(c) GI disturbance
(d) Paralysis
129. All of the following programmes are sponsored by Ministry of Social Welfare except:
(PAR/454) (PGI 79, DNB 91)
(a) Balwadi nutrition programme
(b) Special nutrition programme
(c) Mid-day meal programme
(d) ICDS
130. In formulation mid-day meals for school children, the meal should supply of total energy requirement and the
protein requirement:
(a) 1/3 and 1/2
(b) 1/2 and 1/3
(c) 1/4 and 2/3
(d) 1/4 and 1/3
(PAR/455)
Nutrition programmes in India
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Programme
Ministry
Vitamin A prophylaxis programme

prophylaxis against nutritional anaemia
Iodine deficiency disorder control progrmme
Special nutrition programme
Balwadi nutrition programme
ICDS programme
Midday meal programme
Ministry
Ministry
Ministry
Ministry
Ministry
Ministry
Ministry
of
of
of
of
of
of
of
health and family Welfare

social Welfare
social Welfare
social Welfare
education
131. In ICDS scheme, the calories received by children under 5 years of age are:
(PAR/455) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) 300
(b) 200
(c) 500
(d) 1000
132. Population usually covered by an Anganwadi area is:
(PAR/455)UPSC/03
(a) 1000
(b) 2500
(c) 3000
(d) 5000
133. In an anganwadi, the proteins and calories given to a pregnant lady is:
(a) 300 kcal: 12 gm
(b) 500 kcal: 20 gm
(c) 500 kcal: 15 gm
(d) 500 kg
122 C
123 A
124 A
125 A
126 D
127 B
128 A
129 C
130 A
131 A
132 A
133 B
Social Sciences and Health
10
93
Social Sciences
and Health
1. Water requirement per day per head is:

(a) 150-200 litres
(b) 100 litres
(c) 250 litres
(d) 300-500 litres
2. Society is defined as:
(PAR/461) (AI 88)
(a) A conglomeration of people
(b) A group of people bound by results
(c) An association with regulated
membership
(d) An association patterned on the norms of interaction
3. The behavioural science used extensively in PSM is:
(PAR/461) (AI/2000)
(a) Economics
(b) Anthropology
(c) Politic
(d) Law
4. Acculturation means:
(PAR/462) (PGI 79, UPSC 86)
(a) Culture contact
(b) Study of the various cultures
(c) Cultural history of health and disease
(d) None
of the above
5. Acculturation is:
(PAR/462)(Kerala 97)
(a) Mingling with other culture and accepting good characters
(b) Going abroad
(c) Standardized for
regions (d) None of the above
6. Following are public health approaches except:
(a) Education
(b) Regulatory
(c) Service
(d) Incentive
7. All are true about intelligence quotient except:
(a) Calculated from mental and chronological age
(b) Less than 70 indicates mental retardation
(c) Increases with age
8. As per WHO classification, it is a case of severe mental retardation if the IQ is:
(PAR/469) (UPSC/01)
(a) 50 to 70
(b) 35 to 49
(c) 20 to 34
(d) Below 20
IQ=
Mental age
Chronological age
100
Levels of intelligence
IQ range
Idiot
Imbecile
Moron
Border line
Low normal
Normal
Superior
Very superior
Near genius
0-24
25-49
50-69
70-79
80-89
90-109
110 -119
120-139
140 and over
1 A
2 D
3 B
4 A
5 A
6 B
7 C
8 C
94
9. Nuclear family consists of:

(PAR/473) (TN 91)
(a) Husband, wife and son
(b) Husband, wife and dependent children
(c) Husband and with only father
(d) Father, mother husband and wife
10. The following is true about the term NEW families.
(PAR/473)(AIIMS/02)
(a) It is a variant of the three generation family
(b) It is applied to all nuclear families of less than 10 years
duration (c) It is applied to all the joint family. (d) It is applied to all nuclear families of less than 2 years
duration.
Occupational Classification
1. Professional Occupation
2. Intermediate Occupation
3. Nonmanual skilled Occupation
4. Partly skilled Occupation
5. Unskilled Occupation
11. Which one of the following sets of parameters are taken into account in Kuppuswamys Socio-economic Status
classification?
(PAR/478)(UPSC/01)
(a) Housing, education and occupation
(b) Housing, occupation and income
(c) Education, occupation and
income
(d) Housing and Income
12. All are water-borne diseases except:
(a) Leptosporosis
(b) Fish tapeworm
(c) Schistosomiasis
(d) Brucellosis
Water Borne Disease
1. Those caused by the
A. Viral
B. Leptospiral
C. Protozoal
D. Bacterial
presence of an infective agent:

Viral hepatitis A, hepatitis E, Poliomyelitis, rotavirus diarrhoea in infants.
Weils disease.
Amoebiasis, giardiasis.
Typhoid and paratyphoid fever, bacillary dysentery, Esch. coli, diarrhoea,
cholera
E. Helminthic
Roundworm,threadworm, hydatid diasease
2. Those due to the presence of an aquatic host:
A. Snail
Schistosomiasis
B. Cyclops
Guineaworm, fish, tapeworm
9 B
10 B
11 C
12 D
Environment and Health
11
95
Environment
and Health
1. Consider the following statements regarding slow sand filter:

(PAR/495) (UPSC/01)
I. Water is coagulated before it is admitted to the filter bed
II. The effective diameter of sand particles making up the top layer in the filter bed is 0.15 to 0.35 mm
III. 99.9% bacteriological purity is obtained after filtration
(a) I,II and III
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I and III
2. Following are properties of a slow sand filter except:
(PAR/495) (KARN/01)
(a) Occupies large area
(b) Pre treatment of raw water by coagulation is not required
(c) Purification is
by biological process
(d) Cleaning is by backwashing
Slow sand filter: Elements are Supernatant water
Bed of graded sand
Under drainage system
System of filter control valve
Vital layer (or Schmutzdecke)- slimy layer consisting of threadlike algae, plankton, diatoms and
bacteria. It is heart of the slow sand filter and its formation signifies ripening of filter.
3. A drinking water well must be.... feet away from a source of contamination:
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 75
(d) 100
(e) 150
(PAR/496) (UPSC 85)
Rapid sand filter unit-Consist of

Mixing chamber
Flocculation chamber
Sedimentation tank
Filter with back washing
4. The size of sand particles in rapid filters is:
(PAR/474) (PGI 84)
(a) 0.36-0.45 mm
(b) 0.48-0.59 mm
(c) 0.61-0.79 mm
(d) 0.15-0.35 mm
5. Following statements are true for chlorination except:
(a) Disinfecting action of chlorine is due to hypochlorous acid
(b) pH of water should be acidic
(c) Chlorine
has effect on spores, protozoalcyst, and helminthic ova
(d) Free residual chlorine provides margin of safety
against microbial contamination
6. Which of the following is used to destroy algae in water:
(PAR 497)(JIPMER/2K)
(a) Copper sulphate
(b) Potassium permanganate
(c) Hypochlorite
(d) Bleaching powder
7. Noise pollution presents clinically as all except:
(PAR/498) (DELHI/92)
(a) Increase urinary output
(b) Decrease sexual activity
(c) Deafness
(d) Insomnia
1 C
2 D
3 B
4 B
5 C
6 A
7 D
96
8. For disinfecting large bodies of water,the most efficient and cost-effective method of applying chlorine is:
(a) Bleaching powder
(b) Chloramine
(c) Chlorine gas
(d) Perchloron
9. Which of the following is an important disinfectant on account of effectively destroying gram-positive and gramnegative bacteria, viruses and even spores at low pH levels:
(a) Phenol
(b) Alcohol
(c) Chlorine
(d) Hexachlorophene
10. Following are true regarding chlorination except:
(PAR/498) (AI 93)
(a) Residual chlorine of 0.5 mg/lit
(b) Contact period 30 minute
(c) Water should not be turbid
(d) Chlorine demand should be estimated
11. Which of the following diseases is not susceptible by chlorination:
(PAR/498) (AIIMS 78, PGI 87)
(a) Bacillary dysentery
(b) Typhoid fever
(c) Cholera
(d) Giardiasis
Chlorination Kills bacteria but no effect on viruses(polio and hepatitis) and on spores; protozoal cysts and
helminthic ova
Disinfecting action is mainly due to hypochlorous acid
Principles of chlorination(1) Water should be clear and free from turbidity.
(2) Chlorine demand should be estimated
(3) Contact period to be of 60 minutes
(4) Minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5mg/l for 1hr.
12. The residual chlorine content of drinking water should be:
(PAR/498) (UPSC 86)
(a) 0.5 ppm
(b) 0.6 ppm
(c) 0.8 ppm
(d) 1.2 ppm
13. Contact period for chlorination of water is:
(PAR/498) (PGI 86)
(a) 15 minutes
(b) hour
(c) 1 hour
(d) 2 hours
14. The free chlorine in chlorinated water should be:
(PAR/498) (PGI 84)
(a) 0.2 ppm
(b) 2 ppm
(c) 3 ppm
(d) 5 ppm
15. In orthotoludine tests all are correct except:
(a) Free chlorine is estimated
(b) 0.1 ml of reagent is used for 1ml of water
(c) Yellow colour
(d) Read in 10 seconds
16. Difference in breast milk of a mother delivering preterm baby and mother delivering term baby has less
quantity of:
(PAR/498)(AIIMS 88)
(a) Lactose
(b) Calcium
(c) Calories
(d) Proteins
17. In chlorination all are true except:
(PAR/498) (AI 98, 96)
(a) Chlorine is a stable compound
(b) Available chlorine is 33%
(c) Rapid and brief action
(d) Minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5% mg/1 hour
Household purification of water:
(1) Boiling
(2) Bleaching powder with 33% available chlorine.
(3) Filtration:
- Katadyn filter
- Pasteur filter
- Chamberland filter
- Berkefeld filter
18. Which statement is not true about chlorination of well:
(PAR/498) (AI 92,98)
(a) Chlorine demand has to be estimated
(b) Volume of water has to be determined
(c) Bleaching powder
solution has to be added immediately
(d) A contact period of 1 hour is allowed
19. A chloride level of...........is acceptable by WHO:
(a) 0.1mcg/l
(b) 0.5mg/l
(c) 10mg/l
(d) 200mg/l
8 A
9 A
10 B
11 D
12 A
13 C
14 A
15 A
16 D
17 A
18 C
19 D
97
20. The prescribed chloride content of drinking water should be below:

(a) 100 mg/l
(b) 200 mg/l
(c) 300 mg/l
(d) 500 mg/l
21. Water quality criteria acceptance are:
(a) No coliform organism
(b) 3 consecutive sample of 100 ml does not contain coli
(c) One sample should
not contain 3 coli
(d) In a year not more than 5% of sample should contain coliform
22. Chemical criteria for water quality is A/E:
(PAR/501) (AI 97)
(a) Dissolving O2 is 5 mg/l
(b) Nitrates is 1 mg/l
(c) Nitrates is 1-2 mg/l
(d)Free and saline NH3 is
0.05 mg/l
23. Water is considered potable if there is:
(PAR/502) (PGI 81, AMC 85, 88)
(a) No Esch. coli per 100 ml of water
(b) One Esch. coli per 100 ml water
(c) Ten Esch. coli per 100 ml
water
(d) Esch. coli per 100 ml water
Acceptability Aspects of Drinking Water
Physical- colour
15TCU
Turbid
5 NTU
Tasteless / odourless
InorganicChloride
200mg/l maximum 600 mg/l
Hardness
100-300 mg/l
Ammorics
1.5 mg/l
pH
6.5- 8.5
Nitrate
50 mg/l
H2S
0.05 mg/l
Nitrite
3 mg/l
Total dissolved
1000 mg/l
solids
Fluoride
1.5 mg/l
Microbiological Aspects: Primary indicator coliform-(E. coli) along with faecal streptococci and sulfite
reducing clostridia.
24. WHO standard for safe drinking water is:
(PAR/502) (UP 96)
(a) Less than 3 coliforms/100 ml
(b) 10 coliforms/100 ml
(c) Less than 20 coliforms/100 ml
(d) Less
than 100 coliform/100 ml
25. The following organism because of its easy culture methods is widely used as bacteriological indicator of water
pollution:
(a) Faecal streptococci
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Clostridium perfringens
(d) Salmonella typhi
26. The organism which is NOT an indicator of fecal pollution is
(PAR/503) (UPSC/02)
(a) Staphylococcus
(b) Streptococcus
(c) E. coli
(d) Clostridium perfringens
27. True about purity of deep well water is all except:
(PAR/504) (BIHAR 92, UPSC 93)
(a) Chloride200 mEq/1
(b) Ammonia0.05 mEq/1
(c) Nitrites0.01 mEq/1
(d) Albuminoid ammonia
28. Nitrate level in water would not be more thanmg/l:
(a) 0.5
(b) 1.0
(c) 2.0
(d) 4.0
29. Nitrate level in water would not be more thanmg/l:
(a) 0.5
(b) 1.0
(c) 2.0
(d) 4.0
30. Primary health care as a principle of WHO was founded at:
(PAR/504) (DELHI 85, AMC 87)
(a) Geneva
(b) New York
(c) Alma Ata
(d) Austria
31. Old pollution of water is indicated by:
(PAR/504)(AI 99)
(a) Nitrates
(b) Nitrites
(c) Free and saline NH3
(d) Chlorides
32. UNDP is an international agency which works for:
(PAR/507) (UPSC 96)
(a) Development of children
(b) Development of human and natural resources in a country
(c) Economic development of the country
(d) Research and technological development of the country
20 B
21 A
22 C
23 A
24 A
25 B
26 B
27 C
28 B
29 B
30 C
31 A
32 B
98

Hardness of water is due to calcium bicarbonate magnesium
Temporary hardness - calcium sulphate, magnesium
- Permanent hardness is due to sulphate, chlorides and nitrates
Classification of Hardness
One mEq/L of hardness= 50 mg CaCO3
- Soft water
Less than 1mEq /l
- Moderately hard
1-3
- Hard water
3-6
- Very hard water
>6
33. Presumptive count includes:

(PAR/507) (PGI 81, UPSC 91, 92)
(a) No E. coli
(b) Coliform but not only E. coli
(c) Gram-negative bacilli
(d) Any bacteria
34. Organism not indicative of faecal pollution is:
(a) E. coli
(b) Streptococcus
(c) Cl. perfringens
(d) Staphylococcus
35. Sodium permutit is used for:
(a) Disinfection of water
(b) Sterilisation of water
(c) Removal of hardness of water
(d) Testing residual
chlorine
36. A water sample is said to be moderately hard when hardness-producing ion is about:
(PAR/508)
(a) 50 ppm
(b) 50-150 ppm
(c) 150-300 ppm
(d) 300 ppm
(AIIMS 83)
37. Permanent hardness of water is not due to:
(a) Calcium bicarbonate
(b) Calcium sulphate
(c) Magnesium sulphate
(d) Nitrates
38. Temporary and permanent hardness of water is removed by:
(a) Boiling
(b) Addition of lime
(c) Permutit method
(d) All
39. The cause of discomfort in an overcrowded, poorly ventilated room are all except:
(PAR/511) (UPSC 93)
(a) Increase in temperature
(b) Increase in humidity
(c) Increase in CO2
(d) Decrease in air change
40. Corrected effective temperature is labelled as comfortable if it is (in degree F):
(PAR/512) (UPSC 96)
(a) Between 70 and 76
(b) Between 77 and 80
(c) Between 81 and 82
(d) Above 83
Comfort zones
1. Pleasant and cool
2. Comfortable and cool
3. Comfortable
4. Hot and uncomfortable
5. Extermely hot
6. Intolerably hot
Correct effective temperature deg F

69
69-76
77-80
81-82
83+
86+
Predicted four-hour sweat rate (P4SR)
1-3 litres
3-4.5 litres
4.5 + litres
1. Comfort zone
2. Just tolerable
3. Intolerable
41. The acceptable level for physical comfort is:

(a) Ambient temperature of 30F
(b) Corrected effective temperature up to 80F
up to 120F
(d) Ambient temperature of 40F

(c) Effective temperature
Indices of thermal comfort1. Air temp

2. Air temp and humidity
3. Cooling Power -(Air temp. humidity and air movement)measured by katathermometer
4. Effective Temp -30C
5. Corrected effective temp (Air temp+velocity+humidity+mean radiant heat)
At present effective Temp and CET are widely used as indices of thermol comfort.
MCARDLES maximum allowable sweat rate -Predicted four hrs sweat P4 SR value of 3 as
upper limit
33 B
34 D
35 C
36 B
37 A
38 C
39 C
40 B
41 B

42. Not a primary air pollutant:
(a) Smoke and dust
(b) SO2
99
(PAR/513) (PGI 96)

(c) NO2
(d) Ozone
Monitoring of Air Pollution- Best Indicators of air pollution are

(a) Sulphur dioxide
(b) Smoke (or soiling index)
(C) Suspended Particles. Others are
- Coefficient of Haze(amount of smoke)
- Air pollution index (value 12-50)
43. Indicators of air pollution are all except:
(a) Soiling index (b) Concentration of SO2
(c) Concentration of formaldehyde (d) Soot, dust and suspended
particles
44. Soiling index is an indicator of:
(PAR/514) (PGI 81, AIIMS 92)
(a) Water pollution
(b) Air pollution
(c) Sand pollution
(d) Excreta pollution
45. The best indicator(s) for monitoring of air pollution is/are:
(PAR/514)(UPSC/02)
(a) Sulphur dioxide and suspended particles
(b) Sulphur dioxide (c) Oxides of nitrogen and polyaromatic
hydrocarbons
(d) Carbon monoxide
46. The following are indicators of the general level of air pollution except:
(PAR/514) (AI 90, UP 97)
(a) Sulfur dioxide concentration
(b) Soiling index
(c) Formaldehyde concentration
(d) Total suspended particles
47. Quality standards proposed by the Indian Central Pollution Control Board are based on limits of concentrations
of:
(PAR/ 514) (UPSC/01)
(a) Suspended particulate matter and sulphur dioxide
(b) Suspended particulate matter, sulphur dioxide
and oxides of nitrogen
(c) Suspended particulate matter, sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and oxidants
(d) Suspended particulate matter, suphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and carbon monoxide
48. Air pollution may cause:
(a) Dermatitis
(b) Carcinoma bronchus
(c) Bronchiectasis
(d) Pneumonia
49. To facilitate cross ventilation in educational institutions, the recommended combined space for doors and
windows as a percentage of floor space is:
(PAR/516) (UPSC/03)
(a) 10%
(b) 15% (c) 25%
(d) 35%
50. Recommended reflection factors include each of the following, except:
(PAR/517) (AIIMS 81, AMC 83)
(a) Ceiling 80%
(b) Roofs 40%
(c) Walls 50 to 60%
(d) Furniture 30 to 40%
Lighting
Basic minimum
Stair way
Corridor
15-20 foot candles

5 Foot candles
100 Foot candles
Reflection factor
Ceiling and Roof

Walls
Furniture
Floor
80 %
50-60 %
30 - 40 %
15 - 20 %
51. For satisfactory vision the minimum illumination accepted is:

(PAR/518) (AIIMS 80, AMC 84)
(a) 15 to 200 foot-candles
(b) 30 to 40 foot-candles
(c) 40 to 50 foot-candles
(d) 70 to 90 foot-candles
52. It is recommended that in living rooms, the daylight factor should be at least....:
(a) 1%
(b) 2%
(c) 3%
(d) 4%
(e) 8%
(PAR/518) (PGI 80, AMC 88)
53. All of the following true for occupational lead poisoning except:
(PAR/518) ( AIIMS/02)
(a) Inhalation is the most common mode of absorption
(b) Lead in blood and urine provide quantitative
indicators of exposure (c) Average blood level is more important than number of subjects with blood levels above
threshold (d) Basophilic stippling is a sensitive parameter of hematological response
42 C
43 C
44 B
45 A
46 C
47 C
48 B
49 A
50 B
51 A
52 E
53 C
100

Recommended illumination
Visual task
Illumination (lux)
Casual reading
Very severe tasks
General office work
Watch making
Fine assembly
100
1300-2000
400
2000-3000
900
54. Upper limit of tolerance of noise day:

(a) 10 dB
(b) 85 dB
(c) 90 dB

(d) 100 dB
NOISE Loudness- Normal consversation 60-65 db

whisper
20-30 db
Traffic
80-85 db
Recommended Maximum tolerable - 85 db
Auditory fatigue - 90 db 4000 Hz
Temporary hearing loss- 4000-6000 Hz
Permanent hearing loss -100 db repeated
Rupture of Tympanic membrane > 160 db
55. Exposure to noises above causes permanent hearing loss:
(a) 90 dB
(b) 100 dB
(c) 125 dB
(d) 160 dB
56. Auditory fatigue occurs at.........Hz:
(PAR/520) (AIIMS 80, DNB 91)
(a) 2000
(b) 3000
(c) 4000
(d) 8000
57. A rupture of ear drum may actually occur at a decibel level above:
(a) 40
(b) 80
(c) 120
(d) 160
58. Kata thermometer is used to measure:
(a) Maximum temperature
(b) Minimum temperature
(c) Radiant heat
(d) Cooling power of air
59. Overcrowding is:
(PAR/528) (UP 96)
(a) 90-100 Sq++ for 1 person
(b) 2 rooms for 3 persons
(c) 110 Sq++ for 3 person
(d)70-90 Sq ++ One
person
Floorspace
110 Sq. ft. or more
90-100 Sq.ft.
70-90 Sq.ft.
50-70 Sq.ft.
under 50 Sq.ft.
Accepted standard
2 person
1 person
1 person
1/2 person
nil
60. Red cross was founded by:

(PAR/529) (TN
(a) Hippocrates
(b) Henry Durant
(c) Galen
(d) Madam Curie
61. In slaughter houses, best to dispose refuses is:
(PAR/530) (UPSC 83, AMC
(a) Incineration
(b) Selling
(c) Composting
(d) Dumping
62. Controlled tipping is a method of disposal of:
(PAR/530) (AIIMS
(a) Sewage
(b) Human excreta
(c) Sullage
(d) Refuse
63. The disposal of night soil and refuge is by:
(PAR/531) (UPSC 87, AMC
(a) Chemical sterilization
(b) Burning
(c) Composting
54 B
55 D
56 C
57 D
58 D
59 C
60 B
61 A
62 D
63 C
90)
87)
93)
98)
101
Methods of disposal
The principal methods of refuse disposal are a. Dumping
b. Controlled tipping and sanitary land-fill
c. Incineration
d. Composting 1. Banglore method (Anaerobic)
2. Mechanical method (Aerobic)
e. Manure pits
f. Burial
64. Soakage pit is used for hygenic disposal of:
(a) Garbage
(b) Rubbish
(c) Sewage
(d) Sullage
65. Barrier sanitation implies:
(PAR/532) (AI 93)
(a) Sagregation of faeces
(b) Personal hygiene
(c) Elimination of flies
(d) Water purification
66. Sanitation barrier is:
(PAR/532) (AI 99)
(a) Segregation of faeces
(b) Control of flies
(c) Excreta disposal
(d) Proper water supply
67. Pit latrine has depth of..........feet:
(PAR/533) (UPSC 87, AMC 97
(a) 2-4
(b) 4-6
(c) 6-10
(d) 10-12
68. Which is the latrine of choice for camps:
(a) Aqua privy
(b) Trench hole
(c) Pit-latrine
(d) Chemical
Methods of excreta disposal
Unsewered areas
1. Service type- night soil
2. Non service type (sanitary latrines)
a. Bore hole latrine
b. Dug well pit latrine
c. Water-seal type of latrines
3. Latrines suitable for camps and temporary use
a. Shallow trench latrine
b. Deep trench latrine
c. Pit latrine
d . Bore hole latrine
Sewered areas
1. Water carriage system and sewage treatment
a. Primary treatmentscreening, removal of grit, plain sedementation
b. Secondary treatmenttrickling filters, activated sludge process
c. Other methodsSea outfall, river outfall, sewage farming, oxidation ponds
69. Accepted depth of water in water-seal latrine should not be more than........cm.(PAR/534) (AIIMS 79, AMC 92)
(a) 2.5
(b) 4.0
(c) 5.0
(d) 7.5
70. Which of the following is not a sanitary latrine?
(a) Aqua privy
(b) Bore hole
(c) RCA type
(d) Service latrine
71. Septic tank decomposition is by:
(a) Anaerobic
(b) Aerobic
(c) Both
(d) None
Septic tankThe minimum capicity of a septic tank should be at least 500 gallons
LengthLength is usually twice the breadth
DepthLiquid depth is only 1.2m
Air spaceThere should be minimum space of 30 cm
Septic tank are designed in this coutry allows a retention period of 24 hrs.
64 C
65 A
66 A
67 D
68 D
69 D
70 A
71 A
102
72. Anaerobic digestion of sludge is seen in:

(PAR/535) (UP 94)
(a) Aqua privy
(b) Effluent
(c) Septic tank
73. A common calculation used in assessing the effect of wastes on the quality of the water being tested is:
(PAR/538) (PGI 79, UPSC 83)
(a) Eutrophication
(b) Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD)
(c) Both
(d) Neither
74. Strength of sewage is expressed in terms of:
(a) Biological oxygen demand
(b) Chemical oxygen demand
(c) Suspended solids
(d) E. coli count
75. Oxidation pond is used in-----treatment:
(a) Sewage
(b) Effluent
(c) Night soil
(d) Sullage
76. Oxygen demand calculated in water is for evaluating its:
(PAR/538) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) Biological value (BOD)
(b) Organic nature
(c) Stand by time
(d) E. coli ratio
77. Biological oxygen demand denotes contamination with:
(a) Bacteria (Coliforms)
(b) Organic matter
(c) Nitrates

(d) Algae
Strength of sewage -Measured by

1. Biochemical Oxygen Demand(BOD) Amount of oxygen absorbed in
generally 5 days at a specified temp. generally 20 C for the aerobic destruction or use of organic
matter by living organism. BOD values range from about 1mg per lit for natural waters to about
300 mg/l for untreated domestic sewage. If the BOD is 300 mg/l and above, sewage is said
to be strong, if it is 100mg/l it is said to be weak.
2. Chemical oxygen demand
3. Suspended solids - Indicator of strength of sewage. The amount of suspended solids in domestic
sewage may vary from100-500 p.p.m, if amount is 500mg/l the sewage is said to be strong and if
it is 100mg/l the sewage is said to be weak.
78. The heart of the activated sludge process is:
(a) Primary sedimentation tank
(b) Sludge digester
(c) Aeration tank
(d) Final setting tank
79. Trickling filter is used in:
(PAR/539)(UP/2000) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Primary treatment of sewage
(b) Secondary treatment of sewage
(c) Sewage effluent treatment
(d) Sewage farming treatment
80. True about septic tank is:
(PAR/539) (AI 92)
(a) Disinfacts should be used periodically (b) Anaerobic digestion takes place inside and aerobic digestion takes
place out side (c) Minimum capacity of the tank is 100 gallons (d) A retention period of 24 hour is insufficient
81. Aerobic digestion of sludge takes place in:
(UPSC/2K) (PAR16th/539)
(a) Trickling filter
(b) Broad irrigation
(c) Activated sludge
(d) Septic tank
82. An inexpensive and efficient method of sewage disposal for a small community is:
(PAR/540) (UPSC 96)
(a) River outfall
(b) Oxidation pond
(c) Trickling filter
(d) Activated sludge
Oxidation Pond
Shallow pool of 1 to 1.5m depth with algae and certain types of bacteria which feed on
decaying organic matter and sun light.
83. For proper functioning, an oxidation pond requires:
(a) Algae, sunlight and ferns
(b) Algae, scavenging bacteria and sunlight
and sunlight
(d) Algae, human pathogenic bacteria and sunlight
(PAR/540) (UPSC 98)

(c) Algae, saprophytic bacteria
Disposal of effluenta. Disposal by dilution

72 C
73 B
74 A
75 A
76 B
77 B
78 C
79 B
80 B
81 C
82 B
83 C
103
An effluent of sewage treatment plant should not have more than 30mg/l of suspended solids
and the five days BOD including the suspended matter should not exceed 20mg/l water into which
the effluent passed would provide an 8:1 dilution
b. Disposal on land
84. Which one of the following rickettsial diseases is transmitted by louse?
(PAR/542t) (UPSC 95)
(a) Murine typhus
(b) Rocky mountain spotted fever
(c) Q-fever
(d) Epidemic typhus
85. Hard tick transmits:
(PAR/542t) (AIIMS 91)
(a) Oroyo fever
(b) Oriental sore
(c) Leishmanials
(d) Tick typhus
86. Diseases transmitted by sandfly are all except:
(PAR/542t) (JIPMER 93)
(a) Relapsing fever
(b) Kala azar
(c) Oriental sore
(d) Oraya fever
Arthropod-borne disease
Arthropod
Disease transmitted
1. Mosquito
2. Tsetse fly
3. Sandfly
4. Housefly
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Reduviid bug
Louse
Blackfly
Rat flea
Itch-mite
Hard tick
Malaria, filaria, viral encephalitis (e.g. Japanese encephalitis),

viral fevers (e.g. dengue, West Nile, viral haemorrhagic fevers
(e.g. yellow fever, dengue haemorrhagic fever).
Sleeping sickness
Kalaazar, oriental sore, sandfly fever, oraya fever
Typhoid and parathyphoid fever, diarrhoea, dyssentery, cholera,
gastro-enteristis, amoebiasis, helminthic infestations, poliomyelitis,
conjunctivitis, trachoma, anthrax, yaws, etc.
Chagas disease
Epidemic typhus, relapsing fever, trench fever, pediculosis
Onchocerciasis
Bubonic plague, endemic typhus, chiggerosis, hymenolepis diminuta
Scabies
Tick typhus, viral encephalitis, viral fevers, viral haemorrhagic fever,
(e.g. Kyasanur forest disease), tularemia, tick paralysis, human babesiosis.
87. Trench fever is transmitted by:

(PAR/542t) (PGI 86)
(a) Flea
(b) Louse
(c) Tick mosquito
88. The vector of Kyasanur Forest disease is:
(PAR/542) (AI 91)
(a) Anopheles mosquito
(b) Culex mosquito
(c) Flea
(d) Tick
89. Which of the following is not an arthropod-borne infection in India:
(a) Japanese B encephalitis
(b) KDF
(c) Dengue
(d) Tanapox virus
90. Following is not a mosquito-borne disease:
(a) Filariasis
(b) Trypanosomiasis
(c) Dengue
(d) Yellow fever
91. Rat flea transmits all the following except:
(PAR/542) (AI 95)
(a) Plague
(b) Salmonellosis
(c) H. dimunita
(d) Murine typhus
92. The maximum permissible level of occupational exposure to radiation is.....per year:
(PAR/543)
(a 5 rem
(b) 2 rem
(c) 10 rem
(d) 50 rem
93. All of the following are true about anopheles type of mosquito except:
(a) Eggs are boat shaped and provided with lateral floats
(b) Larvae rest parallel to water surface
(c) Larvae have siphon tube
(d) Pupae have broad and short siphon tube
(e) Wings of adults are spotted
94. Nuisance mosquito is:
(PAR/545) (AIIMS 80, AMC 84)
(a) Anopheles
(b) Culex
(c) Ades
(d) Tsetse fly
84 D
85 D
86 A
87 B
88 D
89 D
90 B
91 B
92 A
93 C
94 B
104
95. True about mosquito:

(a) Culex may spread malaria
(b) Aedes usual vector for encephalitis
for plasmodium
(d) B. malayi chiefly carried by mansonoidy
96. Which of the following is the true vector of malaria in urban areas:
(a) Anopheles fluvitalis
(b) Anopheles stephensi
(c) Anopheles sundaicus
97. Culex mosquito can transmit:
(a) Malaria
(b) Kala azar
(c) Dengue fever
98. Disease spread by mosquito are:
(a) Malaria
(b) Toxoplasmosis
(c) Histoplasma
(d) Sleeping sickness
(PAR/545) (AI 93)

(c) Male mosquito reservoir
(PAR/545) (PGI/2000)
(d) Culex
(e) Aedes
(PAR/546) (PGI 90)
(PAR/546) (PGI 91)
Mosquito-borne diseases in India

Type of mosquito
Disease
Culex
Bancroftian filariasis Japanese encephalitis

West Nile fever, viral arthritis (epidemic/
polyarthritis)
Yellow fever (not in India)
Dengue
Dengue haemorrhagic fever
Chikungunya fever
Chikungunya haemorrhagic fever
Rift valley fever
Filaria (not in India)
Malaria
Filaria (not in India)
Malayan (burgian) filariasis
Chikungunya fever
Aedes
Anopheles
Mansonoides
MOSQUITO CONTROL MEASURES

1. ANTI-LARVAL MEASURES
(A) Enviornmental Control
(B) Chemical ControlMineral oil paris green and synthetic insecticides
(C) Biological ControlBy gambusis affinis and lebister reticulatus which feed on mosquitolarvae
2. ANTI-ADULT MEASURES
(A) Residual sprays
(B) Space sprays
(C) Genetic control
3. PROTECTION AGAINST MOSQUITO BITES:
(A) Mosquito Net
(B) Screening
(C) Repellents
Residual Sprays
Toxicants suitable against malaria vectors as residual spray applications
Toxicant
Dosage in g/m2
Average duration of effectiveness
(months)
DDT
1 to 2
6 to 12
Lindane
0.5
3
OMS-33
2
3
Malathion
2
3
95 D
96 B
97 D
98 A
105
Space sprays
1. Pyrethrum extract: Pyrethrum is sprayed at a dosage of 1 oz of the spray solution per 1,000 C ft
of space. Windows are kept closed for half an hour
2. Residual insecticides: The most extensively used insecticides are malathion and fenitrothion for
ULV fogging.
Genetic Control: Control of mosquitoes by genetic method such as sterile male technique, cytoplasmic
chromosomal translocation.
99. Which is not transmitted by culex:
(PAR/546) (AI 92)
(a) Dengue
(b) Filaria
(c) Viral arthritis
(d) West Nile fever
100. Aedes is vector for all except:
(PAR/546) (AI 90)
(a) Dengue
(b) Yellow fever
(c) Japanese B encephalitis
(d) Encephalitis
(e) Hemorrhagic fever
101. Which of the following diseases is found in India:
(a) West nile fever
(b) Murray valley encephalitis
(c) Yellow fever
(d) Colorado tick fever
102. Diethyltoluamide is an effective:
(PAR/547) (PGI 79, AIIMS 86)
(a) Larvicidal
(b) Agent against pupae of anopheles
(c) Repellent
(d) Space spray
(e) None of the
above
103. Genetic control of mosquito can be done by:
(a) Nuclear distortion
(b) Gene mutation
(c) Cytoplasmic incompatibility
(d) Chromosomal aberration
104. Aedes transmits all except:
(a) Dengue
(b) Yellow fever
(c) Japanese encephalitis
(d) Chikkungunya fever
105. Match List I (Vectors) with List II (Diseases transmitted) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
(PAR/550-551)(UPSC/01)
List I
List II
1. Culex mosquito
i. Relapsing fever
2. Sand fly
ii. Yellow fever
3. Aedes mosuito
iii. Chagas disease
4. Head louse
iv. Japanese encephalitis
v. Kala azar
Codes:
(a) 1 (iii), 2 (i), 3 (ii), 4 (iv)
(b) 1 (iv), 2 (i), 3 (iii), 4 (v)
(c) 1 (ii), 2 (v), 3 (iii), 4 (i)
(d) 1 (iv), 2(v), 3 (ii), 4 (i)
106. The average life of a cyclops is about:
(PAR/556) (PGI 79, BIHAR 89)
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 4 months
107. Dose of DDT for effective control of mosquitoes is:
(PAR/556) (AP 85)
(a) 1 to 2 g/m2
(b) 1 to 2 mg/m2
(c) 2-4 mg/m2
(d) 2-4 g/m2
108. Drinking water is best made free of cyclops by:
(PAR/556) (AI 88)
(a) Filtration
(b) Boiling
(c) Chlorination
109. A-3-year male child is brought to the PHC with a history of itchy papular rash in the axilla, groin and prepuce.
The following management is advised except:
(PAR/556) (AI 88)
(a) The child should be given bath and 3 applications of benzyl benzoate
(b) Parenteral antibiotics should
be given
(c) Other family members to be treated simultaneously
(d) Bed linen to be boiled in water
110. Percentage of para-para-isomer in DDT is:
(a) 20-30%
(b) 40-50%
(c) 60-70%
(d) 70-80%
111. A satisfactory method of controlling guinea worm disease is:
(PAR/556) (AI 89)
(a) Chlorination of water at 1 ppm
(b) Use of lime at a dose of 1 gram/gallon of water
(c) Use of abate
at a concentration of 1 mgm/10 litre of water
(d) Use of gambusia fish
112. DDT acts by:
(PAR/557) (UPSC 88)
(a) Contact poison
(b) Repellent
(c) Stomach poison
113. Which of the following is an organochlorine compound:
(PAR/557t) (AIIMS 78, DNB 90)
(a) Gardone
(b) Dicapthon
(c) Kepone
(d) Propoxur
99 A
112 A
100 C
113 C
101 A
102 C
103 C
104 C
105 D
106 C
107 A
108 A
109 B
110 D
111 D
106

Insecticide
Contact
Stomach Poisons
Fumigants
Natural
Synthetic
Sodium Fluoride
Paris green
Hydrogen cyanide
Methyle bromide
Sulphur dioxide
Carbon disulphate
Pyrethrum
Rotenone
Derris
Nicotine
A- Organo-chlorine
compounds
DDT
Methoxychior
HCH(BHC)
Lindane
Chlordane
Heptachlor
Dieldrin
Aldrin
Toxaphene
Keppone
Mirex
B- Organo-phosphorus
Insecticides
Chlorthion
Diazinon
Dioxathion
Demethoate
E P N
Malathion(OMS-1)
Fenthion(OMS-2)
Methyle parathion
Parathion
Ronnel
Trichlorfon
Dichlorvos
Abate(OMS-786)
Naled
Gardona
Chlorpyrifos
Fenitrothion(OMS-43)
Dicapthon(OMS-214)
Repellants
Meta-diethyltoluamide
Benzyl benzoate
Indalone
C-Carbamates
Carbaryl
Dimetilan
Pyrolan
propoxur (OMS-33)
Synthetic - Pyrethroids
Resmethrin
Bioresmethrin
Pothrin
114. The following are organophosphorus insecticides except:

(a) Fenthion
(b) Parathion
(c) Chlorpyriphos
(d) Pyrethrum
115. Which is an insecticide of vegetable origin?
(a) Abate
(b) BHC
(c) Propoxur
(d) Pyrethrum
116. Which of the following is contact organophosphorus:
(a) BHC
(b) Abate
(c) Pyrethrum
(d) Paris green
117. All are organophosphorus compounds except:
(a) Malathion
(b) Propoxur
(c) Abdate
(d) Fenethion
118. Residual effect of malathion is for:
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(d) 12 months

(PAR/557) (JIPMER 81, AP 90)
(PAR/557) (UP 96)
Malathion
Malathion has the least toxicity of all organophosphorous compounds. Malathion is used in doses
of 100-200 mg sqaure foot,every three months
Pyrethrum has no residual action
It is extracted from the flowers of chrysanthemum
Pyrethrum and DDT
The standard reference aerosol recommended by the WHO consists of Pyrethrum extract 1.6 % and
DDT technical 3% to be dispersed at the rate of 10 gm per 1,000 cu space in the treatment of
aircraft.
114 D
115 D
116 B
117 B
118 A
107
Paris green
Paris green contains over 50% of arsenious oxide used in control of anopheline larvae by spraying as
2 percent dust over breeding places once week
119. Which one of the following insecticides is commonly used for ultra low-volume fogging ?(PAR/558) (UPSC 98)
(a) Abate
(b) DDT
(c) Paris green
(d) Malathion
120. Abate is:
(a) Cyanide cpd
(b) Organophosphorus cpd
(c) Organochlorine cpd
121. Effect of Pyrethrum on mosquitoes is described as
(PAR/558)(UPSC/02)
(A) Residual
(b) repellent
(c) Known down
(d) Contact
122. Least toxic organophosphorus compound is:
(a) Paris green
(b) Malathion
(c) Parathion
(d) DDT
123. Paris green is larvicidal for:
(a)Anopheles
(b) Culex
(c) Aedes
124. The essential ingredient in the space sprays for vector control is:
(a) Malathion
(b) Phenothion
(c) Pyrethrum
(d) BHC
125. The following are found resistant to DDT except:
(a) Phlebotomus
(b) Culex fatigans
(c) Anopheles stephensi
119 D
120 B
121 D
122 B
123 A
124 C
125 A

(PAR/558) (KARN 95)
(PAR/559) (AIIMS 79, AMC 92)
(d) Musca domestic
108
12
Occupational Health
1. The size of respirable dust is:

(a) 5-10 microgram
(b) 15 microgram
(c) 20 microgram
2. Pneumoconiosis is caused by all except:
(d) Tobacco
(a) Silica
(b) Coal dust
(c) SO2
(PAR/575) (AI 93)

(d) 5-15 microgram
Pneumoconiosis: Caused by dust size 0.5-3 micron after a variable time.

Inorganic dusts
a. Silica
Silicosis (X-ray snow storm appearance)
b. Coal dust
Anthracosis (simple or progressive fibrosis)
c. Iron
Siderosis
d. Asbestos
Asbestosis (sputum has asbestos bodies X-ray ground glass appearance)
Vegetable dusts
Tobacco
Tobacosis
Cotton dust Byssinosis
Grain dust Farmer's lung (micropolyspora faeni)
Cane fibre Bagassosis (fungi thermoactinomyces sacchari)
3 Inhalation of cotton dust causes:
(PAR/576t) (JIPMER 88)
(a) Byssinosis
(b) Bagassosis
(c) Anthracosis
(d) Mould lung
4. The inhaled size of respiratory dust is:
(PAR/576) (AI 93)
(a)1-5 micron
(b) 10 micron
(c) 10-15 micron
(d) 15-20 micron
5. Minimum duration of developing coal minor pneumocosis:
(PAR/576) (AI 98)
(a) 2-4 years
(b) 4-6 years
(c) 8-10 years
(d) More than 10 years
6. Match list I (X-Ray / Agent) with list II (Disease and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists
(PAR/576)(UPSC/03)
List I
List II
(X.Ray / Agent)
(Disease)
A. Ground Glass Appearance
1. Farmers Lung
B. Progressive Massive Fibrosis
2. Cancer Bladder
C. Mouldy Hay-dust
3. Asbestosis
D. Aniline Dyes
4. Lung Cancer
5. Anthracosis
Codes:
(a) A:3, B:5, C:1, D:2
(b) A:2, B:1, C:5, D:4 (c) A:3, B:1, C:5, D:2 (d) A:2, B:5, C:1, D:4
7. The pneumoconiosis which predisposes to pulmonary tuberculosis is:
(a) Asbestosis
(b) Silicosis
(c) Bagassosis
1 A
2 D
3 A
4 A
5 D
6 A
7 B
Occupational Health
109
8. Asbestosis causes all except:

(a) Mesothelioma
(b) Calcified pleural plaque
(c) Pnemoconiosis
(d) Farmer's lung
9. Which type of worker is commonly affected in byssinosis:
(PAR/577) (AIIMS 91, UP 96, AI 91)
(a) Weavers
(b) Dyers
(c) Spinners
(d) Growers
10. Bagassosis can be prevented by spraying bagasse with:
(a) 10% acetic acid
(b) 5% acetic acid
(c) 1% propionic acid
(d) 2% propionic acid
11. Bagassosis is due to inhalation of:
(a) Cotton dust
(b) Sugarcane dust
(c) Silica dust
(d) Coal dust
12. All of the following feature are suggestive of asbestosis except:
(a) Occurs within five years of exposer
(b) The disease progress even after removal of contract
(c) Can lead to pleural mesothelioma (d) Sputum contains asbestos bodies
13. With reference to lead poisoning match list I (Agent) with list II(Amount) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the list:
(PAR/578)(UPSC/02)
List I
List II
A. Coproporphyrin in urine
1. > 70 mcg/100 ml.
B. Aminolevulinic acid in urine
2. >5 mg/l
C. Lead in urine
3. >150 mcg /l
D. Lead in blood
4. >0.8 mg/l
Codes:
(a) A:1, B:2, C:4, D:3
(b) A:3, B:4, C:2, D:1
(c) A:1, B:4, C:2, D:3 (d) A:3, B:2, C:4, D:1
14. Clinical features of lead poisoning include:
(PAR/578)(UPSC/2001)
(a) Wrist drop and delirium
(b) Wrist drop and abdominal colic
(c) Delirium and insomnia
(d) Insomnia
and abdominal colic
15. A useful screening test for lead poisoning is:
(a) Amino levulenic acid in urine
(b) Lead in urine
(c) Coproporphyrin in urine
(d) Basophilic stippling
in RBC
16. All of the following are true for occupational lead poisoning except:
(PAR/578)(AIIMS/02)
(a) Inhalation is the most common mode of absorption
(b) Lead in blood and urine provide quantitative
indicators of exposure (c) Average blood level is more important than number of subjects with blood levels
abovethreshold (d) Basophilic stippling is a sensitive parameter of hematological response
LEAD POISONING
Clinical feature loss of appetite, intestinal colic, persistent headache, weakness, constipation, joint and
muscle pain, blue line on gums, anemia.
Laboratory test
a. Coproporphrin in urine
b. Aminolevulinic acid is urine ALAU if >5mg/l
c. Lead in urine and blood of over 0.8 mg/l in urine and a blood level 70 g /100ml is associated with
clinical symptoms
- PREVENTIVE MEASURE
- Lead conc. in the working atmp.should be kept below 2.0 mg per 10 cu meter
Management
The use of d-penicillamine has been reported to be effective. Like Ca-EDTA.
17. A man working in Dye industry the man should watch for:
(PAR/579) (UP 95)
(a) Kidney bladder disease
(b) Pulmonary disease
(c) Hepatic disease
(d) Eye disease
18. Beta naphthylaminas are associated with cancer of:
(PAR/579) (AIIMS 81, AMC 92)
(a) Stomach
(b) Liver
(c) Bladder
(d) Mouth
19. The highest accident rate is seen in:
(a) Docks
(b) Mines
(c) Railways
(d) Factories
8 D
9 C
10 D
11 B
12 A
13 D
14 B
15 C
16 C
17 A
18 C
19 B
110
20. Sickness absenteeism is a useful index in industry to assess:

(a) State of health of workers
(b) Worker management relationship
(c) Working environment
(d) Sincerity of the workers
21. All are standard laid by factories Act (1976) except:
(PAR/ 584) (UP 96)
(a) Minimum 500 cubic feet space per worker (b) Maximum working hour per week-60 (c) Periodic occupation
health survey
(d) Prohibition of employment of children below 14
22. In ESI programme central, state govt. employee contribute to the fund, Employers contribution is:
(a) 5.57%
(b) 4.75%
(c) 3.75%
(d) 2.75%
23. Minimum floor area for a worker in Indian Factories Act is:
(PAR/585) (UPSC 82, 83, AMC 85)
(a) 350 cuft
(b) 400 cuft
(c) 500 cuft
(d) 1000 cuft
The Factories Act, 1948
Space for each workers 500 cu ft.
Safety officers for 1,000 workers
Welfare officers for 500 or more worker
Creche for more than 30 women
Working hrs48 hr/wk not exceeding 9hr/day
Leave with wagesAdult -1 day /20 days of work
Children 1 day /15 days of work
Occupational and safety health survey.
24. Provisions of 1875 ESI Act will not apply to:
(a) Sugar factories
(b) Cinema theatre
(c) Hotels
(d) Newspaper establishments
25. The maximum permitted hours of work/week person under Factories Act is:
(a) 42
(b) 48
(c) 56
(d) 60
26. Not included in ESI is:
(PAR/585) (AI/2000)
(a) Educational institute (b) Factories with 10-19 persons with power (c) Factories with no power and greater
than 20 persons (d) Newspaper establishments
27 Benefits under the Employees State Insurance Scheme include all the following, except: (PAR/585)(UPSC/2001)
(a) Dependents benefit
(b) Funeral benefit
(c) Dearness allowance
(d) Rehabilitation allowance
28. The minimum air space per worker prescribed by Indian factory (Amendment) Act, 1987 is:
(PAR/585) (UPSC/02)
(a) 200cu ft.
(b) 300 cu ft.
(c) 500 cu ft
(d) 700 cu ft
BENEFITS TO EMPLOYEES IN ESI ACT 1948
1. Sickness benefit
2. Medical benefit
3. Disablement benefit
4. Maternity benefitconfinement - 12 wk, miscarriage - 6 wk
5. Rehabilitation allowance
6. Dependants benefit- pension at the rate 40% more than standard not exceeding Rs.1000
Sickness benefit
1. Tuberculosis
2. Mental diseases(Psychoses)
3. Leprosy
4. Immature cataract with vision 6/60 or less in the affected eye.
5. Detachment of retina
6. Dislocation and prolapse of inter vertebral disc
7. Intracranial space occupying lesion
8. Chronic cor pulmonale with congestive heart failure
9. More than 50% burns with infections
10. Hemiparasis of more than eight weeks duration
20 A
21 B
22 B
23 C
24 A
25 B
26 A
27 C
28 C
Occupational Health
111
29. The ESI provides for:

(a) Medical benefit
(b) Sickness benefit
(c) Maternity benefit (d) Funeral benefit (e) All of the above
30. In ESI scheme, extended medical benefit is given when a patient has:
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Chronic CHF
(c) Filariasis
(d) Syphilis
31. Duration of maternal benefit under ESI Act is:
(a) 4 weeks
(b) 8 weeks
(c) 12 weeks
(d) 24 weeks
32. Under ESI scheme, sickness benefits is given for:
(PAR/587) (AI 99)
(a) 30 days
(b) 46 days
(c) 56 days
(d) 86 days
29 E
30 B
31 C
32 C
112
Preventing and Social Medicine Buster
13
Mental Health
1. Which one of the following is an example of minor mental illness?

(PAR/598)(UPSC/2001)
(a) Schizophrenia
(b) Paranoia
(c) Manic depressive illness
(d) Psychoneurosis
2. The incidence of mental illness is the maximum if the casual factors affect a particular period of life. The
vulnerable period is:
(PAR/ 599) (UPSC 98)
(a) Perinatal period
(b) First five years of life
(c) School age
(d) Adolescence
Types of Metal Illness
Major
Minor
Neurosis or psychoneurosis
Personality and character disorders
Schizophrenia
Manic depressive pyschoses
Paranoia
Some dominant, recessive and sex linked diseases

Autosomal dominant traits
Achondroplasia
ABO blood group system
Brachydactyly
Huntington's chorea
Hyperlipoproteinemia I, II, III, IV
Marfan's syndrome
Neurofibromatosis
Polydactyly spherocytosis, hereditary
Polyposis coli, Familial
Polycystic kidney
Retinoblastoma
Autosomal recessive traits
Agammaglobulinemia, Swiss type
Albinism
Alkaptonuria
Cystic fibrosis
Fibrocystic disease of pancreas
Galactosemia
Haemoglobinopathies
Maple syrup urine disease
Megha colon (Hirschsprungs disease)
Phenylketonuria
Tay-Sach's disease
1 B
2 B
Mental Health
Recessive sex linked traits
Dominant X-linked traits
Agammaglobulinemia, Burtons type

Colour blindness
Duchenne type of muscular dystrophy
G6PD deficiency
Haemophilia type A and B
Hydrocephalus
Retinitis pigmentosa
Blood group Xg
Familial hypophosphatemia
Vitamin D resistant rickets
113
114
14
Health Information and

Basic Medical Statistics
1. Basic events recorded by vital statistics:

(a) Death
(b) Births
(c) Divorces
2. Sample registration system is done in once in:
(PAR/605) (PGI 95)
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 5 years
3. The cause of deaths in a village is assessed by:
(PAR/605) (AI 93)
(a Sample registration system
(b) Mortality investigation
(c) Model registration system
(d) Census
4. In India death is to be registered within...........days:
(a) 3
(b) 7
(c) 14
(d) 11
5. Sample registration system (SRS) was started to acquire information on which of the following:
(a) Birth and death rates for the states and the country
(b) Migration statistics
(PAR/605) (UPSC 91)
(c) Morbidity rates of various
(d) Death rates from rural areas
6. Population count is taken on:
(PAR/605) (PGI 89)
(a) 1st January
(b) 1st March
(c) 1st July
(d) 1st August
7. Census in India is done:
(PAR/605) (JIPMER 81, UPSC 85
(a) Every year
(b) Every 5 years
(c) Every 10 years
(d) As and when noted
8. The birth and death rates are registered according to National and States Survey done by 6 months is called:
(PAR//605) (AIIMS 96, AI 98)
(a) Sample registration system
(b) Epidemiological surveillance
(c) Social security scheme
(d) Demographic survey
9. The sample registration system (SRS) was started to get information on:
(PAR/605) (AI 88)
(a) Death rates from rural areas of the country
(b) Morbidity rates of various diseases for the states and the
country
(c) Birth and death rates for the states and the country
(d) Migration statistics from the country
10. The cause of death in a village is assessed by:
(PAR/605) (AI 93)
(a) Model registration system
(b) Sample registration system
(c) Mortality investigation
(d) Census
calculation
11. Under Registration Act 1969 birth is to be registered within:
(PAR/605) (AI 94)
(a) 7 days after birth
(b) 14 days after birth
(c) 14 days of birth
(d) 21 days of birth
12. Birth must be registered within:
(a) 14 days
(b) 7 days
(c) 9 days
(d) 6 days and 7 nights
13. Under the birth and death registration Act of 1969 by govt of India it is customary to register all deaths
within:
(a) 3 days
(b) 5 days
(c) 7 days
(d) 9 days
14. Census is done in India every __________years:
(PAR/ 605) (ORISSA/01)
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20
15. All of the following diagrams can be drawn from quantitative data, except:
(PAR/609)(UPSC 2001)
(a) Frequency curve
(b) Scatter diagram
(c) Flow diagram
(d) Histogram
1 B
14 B
2 A
15 C
3 A
4 B
5 A
6 C
7 C
8 A
9 C
10 B
11 C
12 A
13 C
Health Information and Basic Medical Statistics
115
16. Consider the following measures:

( PAR/609)(UPSC/01)
(I) Prospective genetic counselling (II) Prevention of consanguinous marriages
(III) Avoidance of teratogenic drugs (IV) Avoiding late marriage
The measures which fit in with the primary level prevention of genetic disorders include:
(a) I and IV only
(b) II and IV only
(c) I,II and IV
(d) I,II and III
17. In a community the correlation between infant mortality rate and socioeconomic status is:
(a) r = +1 (strong positive correlation)
(b) r = 1 (strong negative correlation) (PAR/617) (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(c) r = 0.8 (moderately negative correlation)
(d) r = 2.2 ( strong positive correlation)
18. Best graph for demonstration of relationship between ages and weight:
(PAR/-609) (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Bar Diagram
(b) Histogram
(c) Scatter
(d) Primordial protection
19. Age and Sex distribution is best represented by:
(PAR/609) (DNB 2001)
(a) Histogram
(b) Pie chart
(c) Bar diagram
(d) Sketch of photos
20. Quantitative data can be best represented by:
(PAR/610) (PGI 80, AMC 83, 87)
(a) Pie chart
(b) Pictogram
(c) Histogram
(d) Bar diagram
21. Percentage of data can be shown in:
(PAR/610) (PGI 79, DELHI 87)
(a) Graph presentation
(b) Pie chart
(c) Bar diagram
(d) Histogram
Methods of presenting statistical data:
1. Bar charts
2. HistogramFor frequency distribution
3. Line diagramShow the trend of events with passage of time
4. Pie chartsShow areas of segments of circle when percentage is available
5. Pictogram
22. The average birth weights in a hospital are to be demonstrated by statistical representation. This is best done
by:
(PAR/610)(AIIMS/95)
(a) Histogram
(b) Bar diagram
(c) Pie chart
(d) Frequency chart
23. In a random sample taken for a population the median is higher:
(PAR/611) (AI 97)
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 67
(d) 100
Scatter Diagram- Represents the relation between to variables by dots along a straight line. When
there is clustering along.
The straight line it depicts the linear relationship between the variables.
Statistical Averages
Arithmetic meanCalculated by adding the values and dividing the sum by the number of values.
It is the most useful of the statistical averages.
MedianIt is more representative than the mean but does not depend upon the total number of items.
Data is first to be arranged in ascending or descending order and average is taken of two middle values.
ModeMost commonly recurring value in any observation is made.
24. Determination of which statistical parameter requires quantities to be arranged in an ascending or descending
order is:
(a) Mean
(b) Median
(c) Mode
(d) SD
(PAR/611) (AIIMS )
25. In a population of 100 females in the age group 15-45 the mean systolic BP was found to be 120. In a normal
curve distribution. The number of people who would be havenge a BP above 120 would be:
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 75
(d) 100
26. The two important values necessary for describing the frequency distribution of a series of observations are:
(PAR/611)(UPSC/2001)
(a) Mean and standard deviation
(b) Mean and range
(c) Median and range
(d) Median and standard
deviation
27. Arrangement of values in a serial order is to determine:
(a) Mean
(b) Mode
(c) Median
(d) Range
16 C
17 C
18 A
19 A
20 C
21 B
22 A
23 B
24 B
25 B
26 A
27 C
116
28. A scatter diagram shows:

(PAR/611) (AI 90)
(a) Trends of events with the passage of time
(b) Relationship between two variables
(c) Proportion of an
event
(d) Positive relationship between two variables
29. Relationship between two variables can be presented by:
(PAR/611) (AI 92, 95)
(a) Pie diagram
(b) Scatter diagram
(c) Bar diagram
(d) Histogram
30. In 11 babies born in hospitals 5 below 2.5 kg, above 2.5 kg are 5. The value of 2.5 is: (PAR 611) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Median average
(b) Mode average
(c) Geometrical mean
(d) Arithmetric average
31. Calculate the median of these ten values:
(1.9, 1.9, 1.9, 1.9, 2.2, 2.3, 2.4, 2.4, 2.4, 2.4)
(a) 1.9
(b) 2.1
(c) 2.25
(d) 2.4
32- A number of cases of malaria are collected over 10 years with extreme variation in data best to calculate average
is:
(PAR/611)((AIIMS/02)
(a) Arithmetic mean
(b) Mode
(c) Geometric mean
(d) Median
33. In a population study for malaria over the past few years, the number of case reported were 20, 5000, 100, 80,
60, 70, 40, 60, 80. The average is best represented by:
(a) Arithmetic mean
(b) Median
(c) Geometric mean
(d) Mode
34. Malaria incidence in a village in the year 2000 is 430,500,410,160,270,210,300,350,4000,430,480,540. Which of
the following is the best indicator for assessment of malaria incidence in that village by the epidemiologist?
(a) Arithmetic mean
(b) Geometric mean
(c) Median
(d) Mode
35. The two important values necessary for describing the frequency distribution for a series of observations are:
(a) Mean and standard deviation
(b) Mean and range (c) Median and range
(PAR/611) (UPSC/01)
(d) Median and standard deviation
36. 10 babies are born in a hospital on same day. All weight 2.8 kg each; calculate the standard deviation:
(a) Zero
(b) One
(c) Minus one
(d) 0.28
(PAR/612)(AI/2001)
37. In statistics, spread of dispersion is described by:
(PGI 87)(AI/2001)
(a) Median
(b) Mode
(c) Standard deviation
(d) Mean
38. Calculate the mode of 70, 71, 72, 70, 70:
(PAR/612) (PGI 79, AMC 85, 88)
(a) 70
(b) 71
(c) 71.5
(d) 72
39. In a study for cholera. The incubation periods obtained were:2,5,8,10,25,10 and 30.The median is calculated to
be:
(a) 50
(b) 22.5
(c) 10
(d) 5
40. Measure of dispersion is:
(a) Mean
(b) Mode
(d) Median
41. Among the measures of dispersion which is the most frequently used:
(PAR/612) (KERALA 94
(a) Range
(b) Mean
(c) Median
(d) Standard deviation
42. In a statistical analysis what is used to mention the dispersion of data:
(PAR/612) (PGI 81, AMC 87, 92)
(a) Mode
(b) Range
(c) Standard error of mean
(d) Geometric
43. What is the mode in Statistics:
(PAR/612) (AI 88, AIIMS 86)
(a) Value of middle observation
(b) Arithmetic average
(c) Most commonly occurring value
(d) Difference between the highest and lowest value
44. In a statistical analysis what is used to mention the dispersion of data:
(PAR/612) (PGI 81, AMC 87, 92)
(a) Mode
(b) Range
(c) Standard error of mean
(d) Geometric
45. What is the mode in Statistics:
(PAR/612) (AI 88, AIIMS 86)
(a) Value of middle observation
(c) Most commonly occurring value
(d) Difference between the highest and lowest value
46. Most commonly used to detect variability:
(a) Standard deviation
(b) Mean
(c) Mode
(d) Range
47. Square root of deviation called:
(PAR/612) (AI 97)
(a) Standard deviation
(b) Standard error
(c) Mean deviation
(d) Range
48. Birth weight of babies born are 2.8 kg. The standard deviation would be:
(PAR/ 612) (AIIMS 97)
(a) 0
(b) 0.28
(c) 1.0
(d) 2.8
49. In normal distribution curve, sampling values following:
(a) Mean= Median
(b) Mean= S.D.
(c) Mean= Variant
(d) Mean= 2 median
28 B
41 D
29 B
42 B
30 A
43 C
31 C
44 B
32 B
45 C
33 B
46 A
34 C
47 A
35 A
48 A
36 A
49 A
37 C
38 A
39 C
40 C
117
50. Which is false about normal distribution curve:

(PAR/613) (AI/2000)
(a) In a normal curve 95% of values is within 1 SD
(b) Mean, mode and median coincide
(c) Median is
midvalue
(d) Mode is commonest occurring value
51. Shape of a normal curve is:
(PAR/613) (ASSAM 95)
(a) Symmetrical
(b) Curvilinear
(c) Linear
(d) Parabolic
52. The area under a normal distribution curve for S.D. of 2 is:
(PAR/613) (AI 93)
(a) 68%
(b) 95%
(c) 97.5%
(d) 100%
53. In a standard normal curve the area between one standard deviation on either side will be:
(a) 68%
(b) 85%
(c) 99.7%
54. Normal distribution curve depends on:
(PAR/613) (AI 90)
(a) Mean and sample (b) Mean and median (c) Median and standard deviation (d) Mean and standard deviation
55. True about Normal distribution curve is:
(a) Mean zero, stand deviation 1
(b) Mean one, stand deviation zero
(c) Left skew deviation
(d) Rt.skew
deviation
56. In skewed distribution central tendency is most disturbed:
(PAR/613) (UP 94)
(a) Mode
(b) Median
(d) 97.5% limit
STANDARD NORMAL CURVE - A Perfectly symmetrical smooth bell shaped curve whose mean
is zero and standard deviation is 1. In this curve all three values of mean, mode and median
57. Which is false about normal distribution curve:
(PAR/613) (AI/2000)
(a) In a normal curve 95% of values is within 1 SD
(b) Mean, mode and median coincide
(c) Median is
midvalue
(d) Mode is commonest occurring value
58. A normal distribution curve is determined by:
(PAR/613) (AI 90)
(a) Mean and sample size
(b) Range and sample size
(c) Mean and standard deviation
(d) Mean and
range
59. Right sided skewed deviation causes:
(PAR/613)(II-NMS) (AI 98)
(a) Median is more than mean
(b) S.D. more than variance
(c) Tail to the left
(d) Not affected at all
60. In a normal distribution curve, the true statement is:
(a) Mean = SD
(b) Median = SD
(c) Mean = 2 Median
(d) Mean = Mode
61. If the mean is 230 and the standard error is 10, the 95% confidence limits would be:
(PAR/614) (AI 89)
(a) 210 to 250
(b) 220 to 240
(c) 225-235
(d) 230 + or -2/10
62. Significant P value is:
(a) 0.005
(b) 0.05
(c) 0.01
(d) 0.1
63. The number of degree of freedom in a table of (4 4) is:
(PAR/614) (AI 95)
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 16
64. Confidence limits are:
(PAR/614t) (AI 97)
(a) Mean + Standard error
(b) Median standard error
(c) Mean + Range
(d) Mean standard deviations
65. Standard error is a measure of:
(a) Instrumental error
(b) Sampling error
(c) Observer error
(d) Conceptual error
66. In a village study it divides in 5 lines and then atrandoms choose some group. The type of study is:
(PAR/614) (AIIMS 96, AI 98)
(a) Simple stratified
(b) Simple random
(c) Cluster sampling
(d) Systemic random
67. Sum of all squares of deviation from the mean is called:
(a) Mean
(b) Mode
(c) Variance
(d) Std. error
68. Simple randomization is:
(a) Every person has an equal and known chance of selection
(b) Less number of samples are obtained
(c) Also called as systematic randomisation
(d) Groups are not equally distributed.
69. Limits of confidence of a hypothesis is determined by:
(PAR/614)(AIIMS 98)
(a) Power factor
(b) Level of significance
(c) 1-power factor
(d) 1-level of significance
70. In simple random sampling:
(a) Each person has a known and equal chance of being selected
(b) No consecutive members are selected
(c) Error most frequent
(d) Adjacent samples should not be chosen
50 A
63 C
51 A
64 A
52 B
65 B
53 A
66 B
54 D
67 C
55 A
68 C
56 A
69 B
57 A
70 A
58 C
59 C
60 D
61 A
62 B
118
71. The cluster sampling technique used for evaluating Universal Immunisation Programme coverage is:
(a) 30 clusters of 5 children
(b) 20 clusters of 5 children
(c) 30 clusters of 10 children
(d) 30 clusters of 7 children
72. Which is true of cluster sampling:
(a) Every month case is chosen for study
(b) A natural group is taken as sampling unit
(c) Stratification
of population
(d) Involves use of random numbers
73. 95% confidence limit of a population study denotes:
(PAR/614)(AIIMS 99)
(a) 95% values are within the confidence limit
(b) 1.96 times (+/-) of standard error of means
(c) Mean
is more than median
(d) Population under study is small
74. In a community of 3000 people, 80% are Hindus, 10% Muslims, 5% Sikh, 4% Christians and 1% Jains. To select
a sample of 300 people to analyse food habits, ideal sample would be:
(PAR/614) (MANIPAL/98)
(a) Sample random
(b) Stratified random
(c) Systematic random
(d) Inverse sampling
75. Mean of 25 variables is 2, Std. deviation is 2, Std. error of mean is:
(PAR /615) (AIIMS 92)
(a) 0.4
(b) 1.0
(c) 2.0
(d) 10
76. Square root of pq/n indicates:
(PAR/615) (AI 93)
(a) Standard error of means
(b) Standard error of difference in means
(c) Standard error of proportions
(d) Standard error of difference in proportions
77. Cholesterol values are obtained in group of people after giving some drug. This is a type of:
(a) Paired t test
(b) Unpaired t-test (c) Fiescher's test
(d) Chi square test (PAR/615) (ALL INDIA/02)
78. Calculate the standard error for a population size of 25 persons suffering from fever of history of 8 days and with
standard deviation 2:
(PAR/615)(AIIMS/2K)
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.5
(d) 1.6
79. In a population of 100 females the mean hemoglobin concentration was 10 and the standard deviation was I.
The standard error is:
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.1
(c) 0.001
(d) 10
80. In a group of 100 children, the weight of a child is 15 kg. The standard error is 1.5 kg. Which one of the following
is true:
(a) 95% of all children weight between 12 and 18 kg
(b) 95% of all children weight between 13.5 and
16.5 kg
(c) 99% of all children weight between 12 and 18 kg
(d) 99% of all children weight between
13.5 and 16.5 kg
81. The following statistic is used to measure the linear association between two characteristics in the same
individuals:
(a) Coefficient of variation
(b) Coefficient of correlation
(c) Chi-square
(d) Standard error
82. Which of the following tests of significance can be used to compare unrelated variables when values are all binary:
(PAR/616) (PGI/2000)
(a) t-test
(b) Chi-square test
(c) Proportion test
(d) Correlation test
(e) Regression test
Statistical Test of Significance:
1 - Standard error of difference between two means
- With independent samples-Unpaired T test
- With same samples- T test
2 - Standard error of difference between two proportions
- With expected values <5Chi-square test
- With expected values >5Fishers test
3 - Standard error difference between three or more means or proportions
- ANOVA (Analysis of variance)
83. True about Chi-square test:
(a) Expected values
(b) Mutually exclusive
(c) Mutually non-exclusive
84. In a Chi-square test degree of freedom 1, X2 = 6.7 P value will be more than:
(a) 0.50
(b) 0.05
(c) 0.01
(d) 0.001
71 D
84 C
72 D
73 A
74 B
75 A
76 C
77 A
78 A
79 B
(PAR/ 616) (Rajasthan/98)

(d) Indicates median
80 A
81 B
82 A
83 B
119
85. Regarding paired t-test true is:

(a) Hypertension in a person before and after treatment can be studied
(b) Continuous variable in a single
sample
(c) Different variable in a single simple
86. Fixed virus of rabies has following features except:
(a) Short incubation period
(b) Neurotropic
(c) Used for preparation of rabies vaccine
(d) Pathogenic
87. Complete correlation between height and weight is best given by:
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) +1
(d) Infinity
88. Which of the following is a pre-requisite for the Chi-square test to compare:
(PAR/616)(AIIMS/2K)
(a) Both samples should be mutually exclusive
(b) Both samples need not be mutually exclusive
(c) Normal
distribution
89. The chi-square test is used to measure the degree of:
(PAR/616) (AI/03)
(a) Causal relationship between exposure and effect (b) Association between two variables
(c) Correlation between two variables
(d) Agreement between two observations
90. In a drug trial one group showed 40% response and the group with the test drug showed 60% response. The two
results can be statistically compared for significance by:
(a) Chi-square test
(b) Paired t-test
(c) t-test with different measure
(d) Fleischer test
91. An Investigator was to study the association between maternal in take of iron supplements (yes or no) and birth
weights (in gms) of newborn babies. He collects relevant data from 100 pregnant woman and their newborns. what
statistical test of investigator in this situation?
(PAR/616)(AIIMS/02)
(a) Chi-square test (b) Unpaired or independent t-test
(c) Analysis of variance (d) Paired t-test
92. BP samples from two community are best compared by:
(PAR/ 616)(AI/2001)
(a) Paired t-test
(b) Students test
(c) Chi-square test
(d) Cohort study
93. Coefficient of variation between height and weight is 2.6, it signifies that:
(PAR/617)(AI/2001)
(a) Relationship is present between two (b) There is no relation b/w the two (c) Coefficient has been calculated
in wrong way
85 A
86 B
87 C
88 C
89 B
90 A
91 B
92 A
93 C
120
15
Communication for
Health Education
1. The type of discussion where a group of 6-8 qualified experts discuss a topic in front of an audience is called:
(a) Group discussion
(b) Symposium
(c) Workshop
(d) Panel discussion
2. Which of the following is not a 2-way communication:
(PAR/619) (AI 88)
(a) Lectures
(b) Group discussion
(c) Panel discussion
(d) Symposium
3. To increase awareness of rural population towards small family norm, the best method is:
(PAR/619) (AIIMS 85, ESI 80, 88, 90)
(a) Film show
(b) Charts exhibits, etc.
(c) Role playing
(d) Television
4. Which of the following is Socratic method of teaching?
(PAR/620)(UPSC/2K)
(a) Lecture
(b) Film
(c) Exhibition
(d) Panel discussion
5. Health education is:
(PAR/621)(AI 96)
(b) Health distortion
(c) Through public health
(d) Does not prevent
to cancer
6. Health education of community the most important step is:
(PAR/622) (AI 96, 98)
(a) Contact to Doctors (b) Community discussion (c) Announces to community by loudspeaker (d) Knowing
of local needs
7. Following are used in planning of health education except:
(PAR/623) (AI 93)
(a) Cover felt needs
(b) Using simple words
(c) Catchy slogans
(d) Ensuring participation
8. WHO constitution was made in:
(PAR/624) (PGI 79, ESI 89, 90)
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1952
(d) 1956
Ways of Health Education
Two-way
1. Group discussion
2. Panel discussion
3. Symposium
One way
Lectures
Role playing
Demonstration
9. Not a feature of mass media education is:

(625) (AI 96)
(a) Easy understanding
(b) Rapid and controlled
(c) Wide approachable
(d) Deals with local problem
of community
10. Assertion A): Audio-visual (A-V) aids should always be used when giving health education. Reason (R): A-V aids
help to develop a continuity of thought:
(PAR/626) (AI 90)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are but R is not the correct
explanation A
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) A is false, R is true
11. Consider the following statements: Symposium method of health education is characterised by: i. Series of
speeches on selected topic; ii. Presentation of different aspets of a topic by 3 or 4 experts; iii. Discussion among
the symposium members; iv. The Chairperson making a comprehensive summary at the end of the session. Which
of the above statements are correct ?
(PAR/628) (UPSC/01)
(a) ii and iii
(b) i,iii and iv
(c) i,ii and iv
(d) i,ii and iii
1 D
2 A
3 C
4 D
5 A
6 D
7 C
8 A
9 D
10 A
11 C
Communication for Health Education
121
12. In health education programme, a group of 10 people are speaking on a topic of common interest called as:
(a) Workshop
(b) Panel discussion
(c) Group discussion
(d) Symposium
(PAR/628) (UP 93)
13. The following statements are true for group discussion, except:
(PAR/628) (AI 91)
(a) It is a two-way communication
(b) An effective group is composed of 6-20 people
(c) The leader initiates
and guides the discussion
(d) Each member prepares a topic for a speech
14. Not a feature of mass media education:
(PAR/629) (AI 98, 96)
(a) Deals with local problem of community
(b) Easily understandable
(c) Wide approachable
(d) Rapid
and controlled
15. Examples of Two-way communication are A/E:
(PAR/629) (UP/97)
(a) Life expectancy at birth to be 64 years (b) Preschool child mortality (1-5 years) to be 5 (c) Infant mortality
rate 60/1000 live births
(d) Family size to be 2.3
12 C
13 D
14 A
15 B
122
16
Health Planning and

Management
1. Time taken for any project is estimated by:

(a) Work sampling
(b) Input-output analysis
(c) Network analysis
(d) System analysis
2. In the critical path method of network analysis, the critical path is the:
(PAR/634) (UPSC 98)
(a) Shortest
(b) Longest
(c) Cheapest
(d) Costliest
3. Finding the most cost-effective way doing a project:
(PAR/634) (DNB 2001)
(a) Network analysis
(b) System analysis
(c) Cost analysis
(d) Field analysis
4. The government of India has announced the National Health Policy in which year?
(PAR635) (KARN 94)
(a) 1951
(b) 1977
(c) 1982
(d) 1991
5. All of the following are the targets laid down in the National Health Policy except:
(PAR/635)(AI 88)
(a) Life expectancy at birth to be 64 years (b) Preschool child mortality (1-5 years) to be 5 (c) Infant mortality
rate 60/1000 live births
(d) Family size to be 2.3
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Quantitative methods in management of health services

Cost benefit analysis -Where benefits are analysed in monetary terms
Cost accounting
Input-output analysis
Cost-effective analysis- Where benefit is expressed as result achieved
Model
System analysis
Network analysis byA. PERT (Programme Evaluation and Review Technique)
B. Critical path method (CPM)-Longest path of network
6. Currently health sector looks after all except:

(a) Health education
(b) Prevention of communicable diseases
(c) Water supply and sanitation
(d) Family
planning
7. National health policy is concerned with:
(PAR/635) (AI 95)
(a) Immunization
(b) Health education
(c) Water supply
8. Consider the following goals:
(PAR/635) (UPSC/01)
i. Birth rate 21 per 1000 population ii. Death rate 9 per 1000 population iii. IMR 40 per 1000 live births
iv. Couple protection rate 50%. The goals set by National Health Policy to be achieved by AD 2005 include
(a) i and ii only
(b) iii and iv only
(c) i,ii and iv
(d) i,iii and iv
9. The Bhore committee recommended setting up health centres for a population of:
(PAR/636) (TN 89)
(a) 20,000
(b) 30,000
(c) 40,000
(d) 75,000
10. The Bhore committee was set up in:
(PAR/636) (AP 94)
(a) 1943
(b) 1946
(c) 1947
(d) 1952
1 C
2 B
3 C
4 C
5 B
6 A
7 D
8 A
9 C
10 A
Health Planning and Management
123
11. PHC was introduced as a result of...report:

(a) Bhore committee
(b) Kartar Singh
(c) Mudaliar
(d) Planning commission
12. All are true about Mudaliar committee except:
(PAR/636) (AI 91)
(a) To improve the quality of health care
(b) Strengthening of district hospital
(c) Consolidation of advances
made in the first two five-year plan
(d) Each primary centre covers a population 80,000
13. The following were recommended by the Mudaliar Committee except:
(PAR/636) (AI 91)
(a) Strengthening of the district hospital with specialist services
(b) Each primary health centre to serve 8000
population
(c) Constitution of All India Health Services
(d) Integration of medical and health services
14. Match List I (Health Planning Committees) with List II (Main Recommendations / Important Results) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
(PAR/636) (UPSC/02)
List I
List II
A: Shrivastava Committee
1. Malaria workers to look after FP work also.
B: Chadah Committee
2. Integration of services from the highest to the lowest level.
C: Kartar Singh Committee
3. Led to creation of health guides.
D: Jungal Wallah Committee
4. Led to creation of multipurpose worker.
(a) A3, B4, C1, D2
(b) A3, B1, C4, D2
(c) A 2, B1, C4, D3
(d) A 2, B4, C1, D3
15. Recommendation of Shrivastava committee was:
(PAR/637) (PGI 95)
(a) Abolition of private practice
(b) Creation of multipurpose health workers
(c) Creation of PHC (d) All of
the above
16. Panchayat Raj means:
(PAR/641) (TN 95)
(a) Community health care centre
(b) Local health care centre
(c) Primary health care
(d) Local self
rule government
17. The community development programme is meant:
(a) To bring about a special and economic change in village life through the effort of the villagers themselves
(b) To arrange welfare programmes for women and children
(c) To improve agriculture product through better
manure and seeds
(d) To plan development programme in a village high population of 60 and 80 thousand
11 A
12 D
13 B
14 A
15 B
16 D
17 A
17
Health Care of the

Community
1. Primary health care includes all of the following except:

(a) Immunization services
(b) Family planning services
regarding water disinfection
(c) Specialized services

(d) Health education
Elements of primary health care

1. Education concerning prevailing health problems and methods of preventing and
controlling them
2. Promotion of food supply and proper nutrition
3. An adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation
4. Maternal and child health care, including family planning
5. Immunization against major infectious disease
6. Prevention and control of locally endemic disease and injuries; and
7. Provision of essential drugs.
2. Primary health care includes all except:
(PAR/650) (AI/2000)
(a) Intersectoral coordination
(b) Appropriate technology
(c) Services by medical doctors
(d) Community participation
3. The following are the main features of primary health care except:
(PAR/650) (AI 90)
(a) Essential health care
(b) Universal accessibility
(c) Acceptability
(d) Physician mediated
4. Elements of primary health care include all of the following except:
(PAR/650) (AI/03)
(a) Adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation (b) Providing essential drugs (c) Sound referral system.
5. According to Alma Ata declaration, primary health care means:
(PAR/650) (UPSC/01)
(a) First contact care given by general physician
(b) Basic health services provided by PHC
(c) Universally accessible, acceptable and affordable health care
(d) Basic health care provided by
NGOs
6. Which of the following is not a target for 2000 AD:
(PAR/651) (UP 96)
(a) Family size 3.2
(b) Death rate 9
(c) Birth rate 2.1
(d) NRR 1
7. From which of the following is highest percentage of iron absorbed:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) Spinach
(b) Soyabean
(c) Mutton
(d) Egg
8. Annual growth rate target for 2000 AD:
(PAR/651) (AI 92)
(a) 0.5%
(b) 1%
(c) 1.2%
(d) 1.6%
9. Correct in health for all in 2000 AD are A/E:
(a) Family size is 4.3
(b) CPR is 60
(c) Perinatal mortality rate 30-35
(d) NRR is 1.0
1 C
2 C
3 D
4 C
5 C
6 A
7 C
8 C
9 A
Health Care of the Community
125
National Health Policy 2000

1. Reduction of infant mortality from the level of 125 (1978) to below 60.
2. To raise the expectation of life at birth from the level of the 52 years to 64.
3. To reduce the crude death rate from the level of 14 per 1000 population to 9 per 1000.
4. To reduce the crude birth rate from the level of 33 per 1000 population to 21.
5. To achieve a Net Reproduction Rate of one.
6. To provide potable water to the entire rural population.
10. Goals for 2000 AD are all except:
(a) Perinatal mortality rate 30-35
(b) Crude death rate-9
(c) Crude birth rate-21
(d) Family size 4.3
11. Net reproduction rate by 2000 AD:
(PAR/652)
(a) 1.0 to 1.2
(b) 1.5 to 2
(c) 2.5 to 3
(d) 3 to 5
12. The suggested norm of Doctor to Population is:
(PAR655) (PAR/616)
(a) 1 per 3500
(b) 1 per 3000
(c) 1 per 4000
(d) 1 per 4500
Category of personnel
Norms suggested
1. Doctors
2. Nurses
3. Health worker
female and male
1 per 3,500 population

1 per 5,000 population in plain
area and 3000 population in
tribal and hilly areas.
One for each village
1 per 5,000 population in plain
area and 3000 population in
tribal and hilly areas.
Provide supportive supervision to 6 health workers
(male and female)
4. Trained dai
5. Health assistant
(male and female)
6. Health assistant
(male and female)
7. Pharmacists
13. Primary health care is a concept by:

(PAR/656) (DELHI 85, UPSC 93)
(a) UNICEF and accepted by all countries
(b) WHO and accepted by India
(c) India and accepted by all
countries
(d) World Health bodies and accepted by common wealth countries
Function of the PHC:
1. Medical care
2. MCH including family planning
3. Safe water supply and basic sanitation
4. Prevention and control of locally endemic disease
5. Collection and reporting of vital statistics
6. Education about health
7. National health programmeas relevant
8. Referral services
9. Training of health guides, health workers, local dais and health assistants
10. Basic laboratory services
14. The crude birth rate is to be brought down to...by 2000AD:
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 25
15. A female multipurpose worker does not do:
(a) Distribute condoms
(b) Malaria surveillance
(c) Birth death statistics
of mothers
10 D
11 A
12 A
13 B
14 B
15 B
(PAR/657) (AI 89)

(PAR/659) (AI 89)
(d) Immunisation
126
16. One subcentre should be for....Population:

(PAR/657) (PAR/618) (UP 95)
(a) 3,000
(b) 4,000
(c) 5,000
(d) 10,000
17. The growth monitoring of a child at Anganwadi is meant for:
(PAR/657) (KARN 95)
(a) Detection of healthy babies
(b) Diagnosis of growth retardation
(c) Providing appropriate nutritional
supplement
(d) Estimation of nutritional problem
18. A trained dai caters for a population of:
(PAR/657) (AIIMS 87) (PGI 83)
(a) 1000
(b) 2000
(c) 3000
(d) 4000
19. The community health guide performs all the following duties except:
(PAR/657) (AI 90)
(a) Collects blood slides from fever cases
(b) Provides ORS packets
(c) Treats minor ailments
(d) Immunized children
20. About Anganwadi workers not true is:
(PAR/657) (AI 92)
(a) Training for 4 months
(b) Looks after 1000 households
(c) Paid-200-250 Rs. per month
(d) Checkup health and woman 15-45 years of age
21. Subcentre in a hilly area caters to population of:
(PAR/657)(AI/2001)
(a) 1000
(b) 2000
(c) 3000
(d) 5000
22. Female health workers do all thing except:
(PAR/657) (AI 93)
(a) Registers births and deaths
(b) Malaria survey
(c) Registers pregnant female
(d) Distribute
contraceptive
23. Which of the following sets of village level workers bridge the gap between the government agencies and the people
in health care delivery ?
(PAR/657) (UPSC 98)
(a) Male health workers, female health workers (b) Village health guides, trained dais (c) Male health supervisor,
female health supervisor
(d) Anganwadi workers, village agricultural workers
24. Anganwadi workers are under:
(PAR/657) (PGI 80, AMC 90, 92)
(a) Ministry of health and family welfare
(b) Ministry of labour
(c) ICDS scheme
(d) PHC
25. Which is not a duty of traditional birth attendants:
(a) Aseptic delivery
(b) Health education
(c) Injection of tetanus toxoid
(d) Registration of births
26. A female multipurpose worker should be able to detect all of the following except:
(a) Anemia
(b) Renal disease
(c) Hydramnios
(d) Malpresentation
27. All are gross root level workers except:
(PAR/657)(AI 98)
(a) Anganwadi workers
(b) Traditional birth attendants
(c) Village health guides
(d) Health assistants
28. National health policy, hilly and tribal area, subcentre for population:
(a) 3000
(b) 2000
(c) 5000
(d) 7000
29. Health guide is at level of:
(PAR/657) (AI/2000)
(a) Village
(b) Subcentre
(c) PHC
(d) CHC
30. Functions of Dai are all except:
(a) TT injection
(b) Delivery
(d) Registration
31. In Hilly area, PHC control to population of:
(PAR/658) (AI 99)
(a) 10,000
(b) 20,000
(c) 30,000
(d) 40,000
32. All of the following are function of a primary health center, except:
(PAR/658) (UPSC/01)
(a) Reporting of births and deaths (b) Providing supplementary nutrition to children under 5 year of age (c) Training
local DAISand Health Guides
33. A Community Health Centre:
(PAR/658) (AI 89)
(a) Is controlled by the Panchayat (b) Covers a population of 1.20 lakhs (c) Has specialists on ophthalmology
and orthopaedics
(d) Is responsible for training of community health volunteers
34. Community Health Centre:
(PAR/658) (AI 91)
(a) Covers a population of approx. one lac
(b) Has 60 beds and specialists in medicine, surgery, obst. gyane
and pediatrics
(c) Has X-ray and laboratory facilities
(d) Acts as a referral hospital for the community
development block
35. PHC can be differentiated from dispensory by:
(PAR/658) (AI 99)
(a) Located in rural area (b) Headed by medical officer (c) Provides integrated health services (d) Provides
essential care
16 C
29 A
17 C
30 A
18 A
31 B
19 A
32 B
20 B
33 B
21 C
34 D
22 B
35 C
23 A
24 C
25 C
26 B
27 D
28 A
127
36. Under the MCH programme, the female multipurpose worker perform, the following duties except:
(PAR/659) (AI 89)
(a) Makes at least 3 antenatal visits
(b) Distributes tablets of iron and vitamin B12
(c) Gives two doses/
booster of Tetanus toxoid
(d) Makes at least one postnatal visit
37. All of the following are duties of a female multipurpose worker except:
(PAR/659) (AI 88)
(a) Registration of all pregnant women in her area
(b) Distribution of conventional contraceptives
(c) Active surveillance for malaria
(d) Maintain birth and death registers
38. Activities of TB Association of India include:
(PAR/663) (PGI 80, AIIMS 85)
(a) Organising a TB seal campaign every year to raise funds
(b) Training of doctors health visitors and social
workers
(c) Promotion of health education
39. One of the following is not a voluntary Health Agency:
(PAR/663)(KERALA 2K)
(a) Family Planning Association of India
(b) Indian Council for child welfare
(c) Ford Foundation
(d) Rockfeller Foundation
The National Socio-Demographic Goals for 2010 are as follows:
1. Address the unmets needs for basic reproductive and child health services, supplies and
infrastructure.
2. Make school education upto age 14 free and compulsory, and reduce drops-outs at primary and
secondary school levels to below 20% for both boys and girls.
3. Reduce infant mortality rate to below 30% 1000 live births.
4. Reduce maternal mortality ratio to below 100% 100,000 live births.
5. Achieve universal immunization of children against of vaccine preventable disease.
6. Promote delayed marriage for girls, not earlier than age 18 and preferably after 20 years of age.
7. Achieve 80 percent institutional deliveries and 100 percent deliveries by trained person.
8. Achieve universal access to information/counselling and services for fertility regulation and
contraception with a wide basket of choices.
9. Achieve 100 percent registration of births, death marriage and pregnancy.
10. Contain the spread of Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) and promote greater
integration between the management of reproductive tract infection (RTI) and sexually transmitted
infection (STI) and the National (AIDS) Control Organization.
11. Prevent and control communication diseases.
12. Integrate Indian Systems of Medicine (ISM) in the provision of reproductive and child health
services and in reaching out to household.
13. Promote vigorously the small family norm to achieve replacement levels of TFR.
14. Bring out convergence in implementation of related social sector programmes so that family welfare
becomes a people centred programme.
36 C
37 C
38 D
39 C
128
18
International
Health
1. The WHO was set up in:

(a) 1929
(b) 1946
(c) 1948
(d) 1952
2. Alma Ata a conference was held in:
(a) 1978
(b) 1956
(c) 1977
(d) 1948
3. World Health Organisation day is:
(a) 7th April
(b) 21st May
(c) 2nd August
(d) 31st December
4. Intermediate health agencies excluding WHO are:
(a) UNICEF
(b) FOA
(c) UNESCO
(d) ILO
5. United Nations General Assembly established UNICEF in the year:
(a) 1946
(b) 1952
(c) 1958
(d) 1960
6. The headquarters of UNICEF is in:
(a) Paris
(b) Geneva
(c) Rome
(d) New York
7. The UNICEF was established in:
(a) 1929
(b) 1946
(c) 1948
(d) 1952
8. Headquarters of FAO is at:
(a) New York
(b) Geneva
(c) Rome
(d) San Francisco
1 C
2 C
3 A
4 A
5 A
6 D
7 C
8 C
(PAR/666) (AIIMS 81,PGI 84)

(PAR/666) (UPSC 85,86)
(PAR/668) (AMC 84, AIIMS 82)
(PAR/668)(UPSC/03)
(PAR/669) (UPSC 87)
(PAR/669) (AMC 84, 85, 89)
Self Assessment
19
129
Self Assessment
1. Spermicides act by:

(UP/2000) (NMS/227) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Activating acrosomal enzyme (b) Inhibiting glucose transport (c) Disrupting cell membrane (d) Inhibiting
enzymes
2. All are examples of nominal scale except:
(AI 96)
(a) Age
(b) Sex
(c) Iris colour
(d) Socio-economic status
3. Prevalence of undernutrition in preschool children is:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) 0.1%
(b) 1.8%
(c) 5%
(d) 15%
4. To launch programme in a community what is best:
(AIIMS/99) (AI/2000)
(a) Discuss the problem at state level and give it to VHGs
(b) Create demands for programme
(c) Discuss
the problem with community and increase their participation
(d) Give the details to village head
5. In a community one of the indicators of health is life expectancy at:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) Birth
(b) 5 yr
(c) 15 yr
(d) 30 yr
6. The following study method yields relative risk:
(70T) (AI 90)
(a) Case control
(b) Double blind
(c) Cohort
(d) Case cohort
7. Head circumference of a child has 15th percentile, it signifies that:
(AIIMS/99)
(a) 15% of children have more circumference
(b) 15% of children have less circumference
(c) He has 15%
of (N) circumference (d) 15% of children have equal circumference
8. Random sampling is done in a population, what is the probability of candidates of population to be included in
sample:
(AIIMS/99)
(a) Not same and known
(b) Not same and not known
(c) Same and known
(d) Same and not known
9. Breakpoint chlorination means:
(AIIMS 88)
(a) Appearance of free chlorine in water
(b) Appearance of residual chlorine in water
(c) Point at which
organic products are not oxidise
(d) Twice the requisitive amount of chlorine
10. Increasing the size of sample means:
(AIIMS/99)
(a) Chance of accepting nullypothesis increase
(b) Chances of standard errors increases
(c) Sample approximates to population
(d) There is skew deviation in the curve
11. Antisera are prepared from:
(AIIMS 89)
(a) Guinea pig
(b) Rabbit
(c) Rat
(d) Horse
12. Incorrect about community development centre is:
(AIIMS 89)
(a) Based in a community block
(b) 60 beds
(c) Anaesthetist is posted
(d) Panchayat controls it
13. Most difficult disease to prevent is:
(AIIMS 89)
(a) Air-borne disease (b) Person to person contact (c) Water-borne disease (d) Sexually transmitted disease
(e) Minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5% mg/1 hour
14. Reverse cold chain is:
(AI/2000)
(a) To check potency of vaccine
(b) To carry stool of polio patient
(c) To carry expired vaccine
(d) To
carry the vaccine from periphery to centre
1 C
14 A
2 C
3 B
4 C
5 A
6 C
7 B
8 C
9 A
10 C
11 D
12 D
13 A
130
15. Size of respirable particles is:

(AIIMS 89)
(a) <5
(b) 5-10
(c) 10-15
16. t-testtrue is A/E:
(GAN/694) (AI/2000)
(a) Difference of standard error of mean is estimated
(b) A reference table is needed
(c) Degree of freedom
is calculated
(d) Comparison is done b/w two normally distributed data
17. When frequency is given as mild, moderate and severe, method used is:
(AIIMS 94)
(a) Nominal
(b) Ratio
(c) Ordi
(d) Interval
18. The primary aim of the Applied Nutrition Programme in India is:
(AI 89)
(a) Supply of protective foods of cost of vulnerable groups
(b) Supply of protective foods at Subsidised rated
to vulnerable groups
(c) Supply of food through voluntary agencies
(d) Stimulation of production and
consumption of protective foods by education
19. The mean BP of a group of persons was determined and after an interventional trial, the mean BP estimated
again. The test to be applied to determine the significance of intervention is:
(AIIMS 95)
(a) Chi-square test
(b) Paired t-test
(c) Correlation coefficient
(d) Mean deviation
20. Most common occupational disease in developing countries is:
(KERALA 96)
(a) Pneumoconiosis
(b) Asbestosis
(c) Lung cancer
(d) Byssinosis
(e) Occupational poisoning
21. The WHO announced immunisation is a primary responsibility of:
(KERALA 96)
(a) States
(b) International community
(c) Voluntary agencies
(d) An individual
22. Colostrum contains more of .....than milk:
(AP 96)
(a) Ca
(b) Mg
(c) Fe
(d) Cu
23. The one which is a proved teratogen in experimental animals:
(AP 96)
(a) Propranol
(b) Propylthiouracil
(c) Caffeine
(d) Vitamin D
24. Condom provides protection against AIDS because of:
(UPSC 97)
(a) Spermicidal action
(b) Agglutination of spermatozoa
(c) Inhibition of sperm action
(d) None of the
above
25. Hardy-Weinberg law relates to:
(UPSC 97)
(a) Societal bonds
(b) Demography
(c) Epidemiology
(d) Population genetics
26. The most commonly abused drug causing addiction among Indians is:
(UPSC 97)
(a) Amphetamine
(b) Cocaine
(c) Cannabis
(d) LSD
27. Human Development Index includes:
(UPSC 97)
(a) Life expectancy, gross national product and per capita income
(b) Education, social status and life expectancy
(c) Per capita income, education and life expectancy
(d) Per capita income, education and life expectancy
(e) Education, life expectancy and purchasing power
28. Trachoma is least common in:
(AMU 95)
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Orissa
(d) Uttar Pradesh
29. MPW can diagnose all except:
(AIIMS 92)
(a) Pyelonephritis
(b) Transverse lie
(c) Abortion
(d) Decrease Ht
30. The cancerogenic chemical that has a very long latent period is:
(KARN 95)
(a) Benzopyrine
(b) Vinyl chloride
(c) Asbestos
(d) Estrogens
31. In a patient with AIDS, you do not give:
(AIIMS 92)
(a) BCG
(b) DPT
(c) OPV
(d) Measless
32. Not an organomicropollutant:
(AIIMS 92)
(a) Chlorine solvents
(b) Q. PO43 compounds
(c) Free NH3
(d) Nitrites
33. Which agent has its life cycle in definitive host:
(AIIMS 92)
(a) Brugia malayi
(b) Dracunculiasis medinensis
(c) Ascaris
(d) Strongyloids sterocoralis
34. Basic Need Programme includes all except:
(AIIMS 93)
(a) Water supply
(b) Doctor and nurses ratio
(c) Sanitation
(d) Education
35. The electrostatic precipitator are used in the prevention of:
(KARN 95)
(a) Radiation risks
(b) Air pollution emissions
(c) Mosquito nuisance
(d) Diffuse vibrations
36. The criterion for an infant to be at risk to undernourishment is:
(KARN 95)
(a) Birth weight of 3 kg
(b) Birth weight of 2.8 kg
(c) Birth weight of 2.5 kg
15 A
28 A
16 C
29 A
17 D
30 A
18 D
31 A
19 B
32 A
20 E
33 B
21 A
34 B
22 E
35 B
23 B
36 C
24 D
25 D
26 D
27 E
Self Assessment
131
37. Wrong about Mother and Child Health Programme is:

(AIIMS 94)
(a) 100% immunization against six diseases by 2000 A.D.
(b) Useful for children up to 12 years of age
(c) To decrease acute respiratory infections
(d) To prevent against chronic diseases
38. Disease eradicated by 2000 A.D.:
(AIIMS 94)
(a) Filaria
(b) Malaria
(c) Tetanus neonatorum
(d) Typhoid
39. For studying the relation of hypertension as etiological agent of cardiovascular disease, study used is:
(a) Cohort
(b) Longitudinal
(c) Cross-section
(d) Random sampling
(AIIMS 94)
40. Low birth weight in hospital statistics is best shown by:
(AIIMS 95)
(a) Histogram
(b) Bar diagram
(c) Pie chart
(d) Frequency polygon
41. Smoking and lung cancer relationship in a case control study is determined by:
(AIIMS 95)
(a) Odds ratio
(b) Relative risk
(c) Attributable risk
(d) Risk reduction
42. Best case finding method in TB in a community is:
(AIIMS 95)
(a) Sputum smear
(b) CXR
(c) Sputum culture
(d) Mantoux test
43. Residual chlorine is detected by:
(AIIMS 95)
(a) OT test
(b) Horrocks apparatus
(c) Chorimetry
(d) Chromatography
44. SC vaccine is:
(AIIMS 95)
(a) Measles
(b) BCG
(c) DPT
(d) Polio
45. Japanese emigrated to USA leading to increased incidence of CHD shows:
(AIIMS 95)
(a) Adaptation of US lifestyle the risk
(b) Adaptation of US lifestyle the risk
(c) Genetic predisposition
(d) No relationship
46. Denominator in birth rate is:
(AIIMS 95)
(a) Mid year population
(b) Death rate
(c) Women of child bearing age
(d) Random population
47. Failure of contraceptive is determined by:
(AIIMS 95)
(a) Pregnancy per 100 woman year
(b) Live birth/100 woman year
(c) Successful preg/100 woman year
48. Most common chemical in foams is:
(AIIMS 95)
(a) Nonaxyol
(b) Norestrol
(c) Progesterone
(d) Ethinstrol
49. All are indicators of faecal pollution except:
(AIIMS 95)
(a) CI. botulinum
(b) E. coli
(c) CI. welchii
(d) Str. faecalis
50. PQLI includes all except:
(AI/2000)
(a) Life expectancy at age 1
(b) Literacy
(c) Gross domestic product
(d) IMR
51. Validity of screening test is determined by:
(AIIMS 95)
(a) Predictive values of positive and negative tests
(b) Sensitivity and specificity
(c) Accuracy
(d) Replicitivity
52. If leprosy occurs in a virgin population incorrect is:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) Children are involved
(b) Mainly tuberculoid type
(c) Spreads to every household
(d) Rapid spread
53. True about Mantoux test is:
(AI/2000)
(a) +ve test indicates both past and present infection
(b) Indicates susceptibility
(c) Active TB is +nt
(d) Immunized person
54. At 28 weeks gestation, weight of the fetus is:
(ASSAM 95)
(a) 500 g
(b) 1000 g
(c) 1500 g
(d) 2000 g
55. Which of the following is an organophosphate?
(ASSAM 95)
(a) DDT
(b) Aldrin
(c) Dieldrin
(d) Malathion
56. Which of the following organisms is not affected by normal chlorination:
(ASSAM 95)
(a) E. histolytica trophozoite
(b) Cysts of E. histolytica
(c) Giardia
(d) Shigella
57. The Malaria Eradication Programme of Govt. of India using insecticides aims to reduce the lifespan of mosquitoes
to less than:
(DELHI 96)
(a) 1 day
(b) 3 days
(c) 6 days
(d) 10 days
58. Infectious period for diphtheria is:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) 7 days before infection and 7 days after infection
(b) 7 days after infection
(c) 2 weeks after infection
(d) 14-28 days from onset of disease
37 A
50 C
38 C
51 B
39 B
52 C
40 A
53 A
41 A
54 B
42 A
55 D
43 A
56 B
44 A
57 D
45 A
58 D
46 A
47 A
48 A
49 A
132
59. In child-woman ratio, the denominator is:

(AI 96)
(a) Mid year population of all women
(b) Mid year population of women in 15-44 age group
(c) Mid year
population of married women in 15-44 age group
(d) Total number of live births
60. Relative risk is:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) Risk among exposed/risk among non-exposed
(b) Risk among exposed/risk in total population
(c) Risk
among exposed/risk in new exposed
61. Under National TB Programme, PH-I refers to:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) Subcentre
(b) PHC
(c) Special facility in hospital set up
(d) Community block
62. Mean + 1.96 S.D. includes following % of values in a distribution:
(AI 96)
(a) 68%
(b) 99.5%
(c) 88.7%
(d) 95%
63. While launching a community programme, best method of action is:
(AI 96)
(a) Publicity drive
(b) Talk to community leaders
(c) Involvement of voluntary agencies
(d) Organize
lectures
64. In taking median value of a given data, it is assumed that:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) Median value lies at mid-point in all class interval
(b) All class intervals are of equal distribution
(c) Distribution of values in a given class interval is uniform
(d) Median value is the most frequently occurring
value
65. Regarding soyabean, incorrect is:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) 40% proteins
(b) 25% fats with 3% minerals
(c) Lysine is limiting AA
(d) High quality proteins
66. Regarding meningococcal A vaccine, incorrect is:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) Can be used during epidemics
(b) Can be used in children below 2 years
(c) Booster every 3 yrs
(d) Effective in adults
67. While analysing a data, allocation into similar groups is done to ensure:
(AI 96)
(a) Comparability
(b) Accuracy
(c) Validity
(d) Sensitivity
68. All of following are examples of random sampling methods except:
(AI 96)
(a) Stratified sampling
(b) Quota
(c) Systematic sampling
(d) Simple random sampling
69. The gap between primary and secondary case is known as:
(AI/2000)
(a) Generation time
(b) Serial interval
(c) Lead time
(d) Extrinsic incubation period
70. Transovarian transmission of infection occurs in:
(UPSC 96)
(a) Fleas
(b) Ticks
(c) Mosquitoes
(d) Sandfly
71. If sample size is bigger in random sampling, which of the following is true:
(AIIMS/99)
(a) It approaches maximum samples
(b) Reduces non-sampling errors
(c) Increases the precision of the
result
(d) Decreases standard error
72. Sensitivity is:
(AIIMS 86, 90, 91)
(a) True positive/true positive + false negative
(b) True positive/false positive + true negative
(c) True
negative/true negative + false positive
(d) True negative/false negative+true positive
73. The amount of good quality bleaching powder required for chlorinating ground well measuring 4 metres diameter
and depth of water column 6 metres to get 1PPM of residual chlorine when the Horroks test give definite blue
colour in the 3rd cup onward is:
(UPSC 96)
(a) 993.8 gram
(b) 99.38 gram
(c) 9.938 gram
(d) 0.9938 gram
74. Growth rate of 1.5-2% is:
(AI 95)
(a) Slow
(b) Moderate
(c) Very rapid
(d) Explosive
75. Best method of estimation of incidence of dental caries in masses is:
(JIPMER 95)
(a) Oral hygiene
(b) Tooth decay
(c) Caries nucleus
(d) Halitosis
76. Which of the following is a voluntary organization:
(JIPMER 95)
(a) TB Association of India
(b) Directorate of Health Services
(c) Indian Medical Council
(d) Indian
Council of Medical Research
77. Best preventive measure against tetanus neonatorum:
(JIPMER 95)
(a) Active immunization of mother
(b) Passive immunization of child
(c) Active immunization of child
(d) Passive immunization of mother
78. Vitamin C content of seed increases by:
(JIPMER 95)
(a) Germination
(b) Incubation
(c) Boiling in warm water
(d) Fermentation
59 B
72 A
60 A
73 A
61 B
74 C
62 D
75 B
63 B
76 A
64 A
77 A
65 C
78 A
66 B
67 A
68 B
69 B
70 B
71 A
Self Assessment
133
79. Isolation is not needed for measles due to:

(JIPMER 95)
(a) There are healthy carriers
(b) Carriers are convalescents
(c) The infectivity in diseased is low
(d) There are incubatory carriers
80. The best method of assessing the preventive measures in control of TB:
(JIPMER 95)
(a) Presence of carriers
(b) Presence of diseased persons
(c) Presence of infection
(d) Presence of suspect
cases
81. The infective agent of malarial parasite is:
(KARN 94)
(a) Gametocyte
(b) Schizonts
(c) Irophozoites
(d) Sporozoites
82. The machanism of multiplication of plague bacilli in rat flea is called:
(KARN 94)
(a) Propagative
(b) Cyclopropagative
(c) Cyclodevelopmental
(d) Only passive transmission
83. A baby fed on cows milk only, is likely to develop:
(KARN 94)
(a) Beri Beri
(b) Rickets
(c) Night blindness
(d) Scurvy
84. The risk of pregnancy in IUCD acceptors is highest in:
(KARN 94)
(a) 1st year
(b) 2nd year
(c) 3rd year
(d) 4th year
85. The most cost effective family planning method is:
(KARN 94)
(a) Vasectomy
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Copper T
(d) Oral pills
86. True regarding Chi-square Test is:
(AIIMS/99)
(a) Null hypothesis is equal
(b) Doesn't test the significance
(c) Measures the significance of difference
between two proportion
(d) Tests correlation and regression
87. Who can wear red cross emblem:
(KERALA 94)
(a) Civilian doctors
(b) Doctors in army medical service
(c) Government doctors
(d) Super specialists
88. A patient of tuberculosis was put on ATT for 5 months. Sputum examination is positive for AFB. The likely cause
is:
(a) Drug resistant
(b) Drug default
(c) Relapse of disease
(d) Treatment failure
89. Screening test is not useful when:
(KERALA 94)
(a) Incidence of the disease is high in the community (b) Incidence is low in the community (c) Early detection
leads to favourable outcome
(d) The disease has a lead time
90. A woman diagnosed as an older cause of pulmonary, tuberculosis in breastfeeding 2 months of old child, she is
advised the following except:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) Stop breastfeeding
(b) Chemoprophylaxis of child
(c) Continue chemotherapy
(d) Dispose of the
sputum every day
91. A type II urban family welfare centre caters to population of:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) 5,000-10,000
(b) 10,000-25,000
(c) 25,000-50,000
(d) 50,000 and above
92. The commonest cause of visual impairment and blindness is:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) Trachoma
(b) Malnutrition
(c) Glaucoma
(d) Cataract
93. The role of the community health guide in National Malaria Control Program is to:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) Act as a passive agency
(b) Provide only chloroquine to all fever cases
(c) Act as an active surveillance
worker
(d) Only report fever cases
94. The community health guide recognizes malnutrition in children using:
(AI/2000) (AIIMS 86)
(a) Weight
(b) Height
(c) Mid arm circumference
(d) Skin fold thickness
95. If a new drug is invented which prevents the mortality from a disease but does not affect a cure then which of
the following is true:
(KERALA 94)
(a) Incidence will increase
(b) Incidence will decrease
(c) Prevalence will decrease
(d) Prevalence will
increase
96. Iodine deficiency disorder have been reported from all union territories except:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) Delhi
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Mizoram
(d) Goa, Daman, Diu
97. In a country, socioeconomic progress is best indicated by:
(JIPMER 81, DELHI 85)
(a) Gross net production
(b) IMR
(c) Annual per capita income of the family
(d) Death rate
98. A prevalence rate for leprosy of 11-20/1000 population is in:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu + AP + Orissa
(c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra
99. The manner in which a disease behaves in a community is determined by:
(AIIMS 80, AMU 86)
(a) Infectiousness of disease
(b) Density of aggregation of population
(c) Standard of hygiene
(d) Size
of reservoir of infection
79 D
92 D
80 C
93 C
81 D
94 C
82 A
95 D
83 D
96 D
84 A
97 C
85 A
98 B
86 C
99 E
87 B
88 D
89 B
90 A
91 C
134
100. Recommended adult prophylaxis for meningococcal infections is:

(AIIMS 86)
(a) Rifampicin-600 mg twice daily for 2 days
(b) Amoxycillin-4 g daily for 6 days
(c) Oral penicillin-125
mg daily for 5 days
(d) Chloramphenicol-2 g daily for 2 days
101. True about folic acid and vitamin B12 is all, except:
(AIIMS/99)
(a) Both are required for DNA synthesis
(b) Recommended daily allowances for Folic acid is 1000 mg
(c) Vegetarians have vitamin B12 deficit
(d) Deficiency of both causes megaloblastic anaemia
102. Diazo reaction is useful for the diagnosis of:
(ANA-277) (AIIMS 85)
(a) Typhoid fever between 5th to 14th days (b) Cholera (c) Typhoid fever in the 4th week (d) Meningococcal
meningitis
103. True about propagated epidemics except:
(AIIMS 98)
(a) Due to person to person transmission
(b) Speed of spread depends upon herd immunity
(c) No secondary
peaks
(d) More the attack rate more peoples are affected
104. Serial interval is:
(AIIMS/99)
(a) Gap between primary and secondary cases
(b) Gap between maximum and minimum incubation period
(c) Difference between sensitivity and specificity
(d) Indicates secondary attack rate
105. Following statement is true regarding antigenic drift in influenza viruses except:
(ANA/471) (AIIMS 94)
(a) It occurs once in 12-20 years (b) It is responsible for major epidemics (c) It is seen in influenza type C viruses
(d) It is due to mutation of selection to the group of viruses existing in community
106. All are true regarding malaria, except:
(AIIMS/99)
(a) Infant parasite rate is a poor indicator of malaria occurrence in a community (b) API is used for operational
approach
(c) Spleen rate is an important indicator of transmission
(d) Usually caused by Plasmodium vivex
107. Free medical service at Government expenditure is called:
(JIPMER 81, UPSC 85, 86)
(a) Socialized medicine
(b) Primary health care
(c) Comprehensive health care
(d) Preventive
medicine
108. In a normal distribution with mean 55 and standard deviation 10, the area to the right of the 55 is:
(a) 0.6
(b) 0.8
(c) 0.3
(d) 0.9
(AIIMS 94)
109. When the variables are non-measurable,which of the following is used to be represented?
(AIIMS 94)
(a) Variation
(b) Ratio
(c) Nominal
(d) Ordinal
110. Which of the following is not a coefficient of primary health care:
(AIIMS 94) (UP/2K)
(a) Adequate nutrition
(b) Adequate housing
(c) Safe water supply
(d) Provision of essential drugs
111. Which of the following is not included in five cleans of Child Survival of Safe Motherhood Program:
(a) Clean cord
(b) Clean tie
(c) Clean room
(d) Clean perinium
(AIIMS 94)
112. Which one of the following is best indicator for health status of community:
(AIIMS 94)
(a) Infant mortality rate
(b) Stillbirth rate
(c) Crude death rate
(d) Birth rate
113. Which of the following indicator takes mortality in account:
(AIIMS 94)
(a) Gross reproduction rate
(b) Net reproduction rate
(c) Total fertility rate
(d) General fertility rate
114. Which one of the following is the principal problem in cohort:
(AIIMS 94)
(a) Selection bias
(b) Lack of follow up
(c) Difficulty coming back to original study
(d) None of the
above
115. Most common cancer reported in India is:
(AIIMS 94)
(a) Ca cervix
(b) Ca lung
(c) Ca breast
(d) Ca oral cavity
116. What percentage of Abate is used in Guinea worm eradication programme:
(AIIMS 94)
(a) 1%
(b) 2%
(c) 4%
(d) 6%
117. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for combined oral pills:
(AIIMS 94)
(a) Diabetes mellitus
(b) Hypertension
(c) Previous history of thromboembolism
(d) Heart disease
118. Which of the following doesnt contain carotenes:
(AIIMS 94) (AI/2000)
(a) Spinach
(b) Pumpkin
(c) Potato
(d) Carrot
119. All are true regarding tetanus immunisation, except:
(AIIMS/99)
(a) Five doses provide life long immunity
(b) Three doses are given in primary immunisation
(c) It prevents
the occurrence of tetanus
(d) It is a killed vaccine
120. Which of the following disease is not liable for extended sickness benefit for 309 days:
(AIIMS 94)
(a) Leprosy
(b) Aplastic anaemia
(c) Immature cataract with vision 6/60 or less
(d) Diabetes
100 A
113 B
101 B
114 B
102 A
115 D
103 C
116 A
104 A
117 C
105 D
118 C
106 A
119 D
107 A
120 D
108 B
109 A
110 B
111 D
112 A
Self Assessment
135
121. A disease showing recurrence every 2-3 years shows:

(AIIMS 91)
(a) Secular trend
(b) Cyclical trend
(c) Seasonal trend
(d) None of above
122. The Applied Nutrition Programme is:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) To promote production of utilization of protective food by education
(b) Food intake
(c) Food
supplementation
(d) Food fortification
123. All of the following contain vitamin A except:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) Coconut oil
(b) Red palm oil
(c) Sesame oil
(d) Safflower oil
124. The WHO recommendation for folate in pregnancy is:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) 500 g
(b) 300 g
(c) 100 g
(d) 50 g
125. One of the following vaccine plays an important role in preventing childhood blindness:
(AIIMS 98)
(a) Diphtheria
(b) BCG
(c) Measles
(d) Rubella
126. Hepatis A virus is destroyed by all except:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) Chlorine 1 ppm
(b) Boiling at 1000 for 6 min
(c) UV rays
(d) Formalin 1:4000
127. Which is true about infectivity in whooping cough:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) Patient is infectious 10 days before and after whoop
(b) Patient is infectious for entire duration of illness
(c) Patient is infectious before onset of whoop
(d) Patient is infectious 10 days before whoop
128. Which is true about infectivity in diphtheria:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) Some patients are infectious for life long
(b) Patients are infectious during 2-4 months of the illness
(c) Nasal carrier are most important
(d) Has a long incubation period
129. The transmission chain in hydatid cyst involves all except:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) Sheep
(b) Dog
(c) Cow
(d) Swine
130. In India, death has to be registered within:
(AI/99)
(a) 3 days
(b) 7 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 14 days
131. Most widely practised method of family planning by eligible couples in India is:
(MANIPAL/98)
(a) IUCD
(b) OC pill
(c) Sterilization
(d) Nirodh
132. Terms mild, moderate and severe are which type of variable:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) Interval
(b) Nominal
(c) Ordinate
(d) Ratio
133. The fact true about surveillance:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) Carried out once
(b) Carried out at repeated intervals
(c) Help in assessment of community health
(d) Helps in modification of factors regarding desease
134. Which is not true of Anopheles mosquito:
(AIIHPH/98)
(a) Eggs laid singly
(b) Eggs are boat shaped
(c) Larvae rest parallel to water surface
(d) Larvae has
siphon tube
135. All are components of PQLI except:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) MMR
(b) IMR
(c) Life expectancy at age one
(d) Literacy
136 Incubation period of amoebiasis is:
(AIIMS 80, DNB 91)
(a) 1-2 weeks
(b) 2-3 weeks
(c) 3-4 weeks
(d) 4-6 weeks
137. Prevalence of blindness in India is:
(AIIMS 91)
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.5
(d) 3.0
138. Wind velocity normally recorded at a height of:
(AIIHPH/98)
(a) 1 mt
(b) 10 mts
(c) 15 mts
(d) 20 mts
139. Following is a contact poison except:
(AIIMS 90)
(a) BHC
(b) Pyrethrum
(c) Abate
(d) Paris green
140. Incidence is 100/year duration of disease 2 years. In a population of 5000 what is the prevalence rate:
(a) 40/1000
(b) 20/1000
(c) 10/1000
(d) 80/1000
(AIIMS 90)
141. All are true about neurolathyrism except:
(AIIMS 90)
(a) More in > 45 years
(b) Toxin is BOAA
(c) Caused by chronic ingestion of Lathyrus sativus
(d) Can be prevented by steeping method
142. All true about screening method except:
(AIIMS 90)
(a) Cheap
(b) Easy to do
(c) Sensitive
(d) Specific
143. Relative risk in a case study is:
(AIIMS 90)
(a) a/a + b c/c + d
(b) a/a + c + b/b + d
(c) a/a + b + a/a + c
(d) a + b + c + b
121 D
134 D
122 A
135 A
123 A
136 C
124 B
137 B
125 C
138 B
126 A
139 D
127 A
140 A
128 C
141 A
129 D
142 D
130 B
143 A
131 B
132 B
133 B
136
144. The disease which is known as Father of public Health is:

(AMU 87)
(a) Smallpox
(b) Rabies
(c) Plague
(d) Cholera
145. True about measles except:
(AIIMS 90)
(a) Incubation period is 4-7 days
(b) Live attenuated vaccine used
(c) SAR is 80%
(d) It is a RNA virus
146. Transplacental immunity is seen in all except:
(AIIMS 90)
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Pertussis
(c) Polio
(d) Measles
147. All are true except one for cohort study:
(AIIMS 90)
(a) Both groups must be disease free
(b) Similar except the factor under study
(c) Both should be equally
susceptible to disease
(d) The disease criteria can be defined later as the study progresses
148. In an epidemic of bacillary dysentery residual chlorine in ppm should be:
(AIIMS 81, UPSC 90)
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.8
(d) 1.0
149. Organizations involved in world disease eradication:
(DELHI 89, UPSC 87)
(a) UNICEF
(b) NASCAR
(c) WREP
(d) FAO
150. Which one of the following sets of components of cigarette smoke is a casual agent of coronary artery
disease?
(UPSC/99)
(a) Tar and nicotine
(b) Nicotine and Carbon monoxide
(c) Carbon monoxide and tar
(d) Tar, nicotine
and carbon monoxide
151. If rubella occurs in 9-10 weeks of pregnancy what is the chance of transmission to the fetus- NH/1126:
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 50%
(JIPMER/99)
152. Preventive diet for hypertension includes all except:
(AIIMS 90)
(a) Cholesterol decreased by 20-30%
(b) <50% calories from fat
(c) Consumption of unsaturated fatty acids
(d) Cholesterol less than 75-100 gm/day
153. Regarding standard mortality rate:
(AIIMS 90)
(a) Is observed deaths, expected deaths 100
(b) Value>100 is favourable
(c) Can be used for age specific
mortality
(d) Any two populations may be compared
154. Most important (operational) index in malaria endemic areas is:
(AIIMS 90)
(a) Spleen rate
(b) API
(c) Falciparum positivity rate
(d) Mosquito density rate
155. True about diphtheria contacts A/E:
(AIIMS 90)
(a) Give 1000 units of antitoxin
(b) Keep isolation
(c) Give 1000 units of antitoxin with active immunization
(d) Keep under observation
156. TAB vaccine is effective for:
(AIIMS 89)
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 9 months
(d) 3 years
157. To feel comfortable and cool in a factory, the corrected effective temperature (in degree Farenheit) should be:
(UPSC/99)
(a) Less than 69
(b) Between 69 and 76
(c) Between 77 and 80
(d) Between 81 and 82
158. Incorrect statement about chlolera-vaccine is:
(AIIMS 89)
(a) 50% effective
(b) Not indicated in epidemics
(c) Not indicated for contacts
(d) Prevents cholera from
occurring
159. In School Health Committee, health examination is done every:
(AIIMS 89)
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 6 years
(e) 4 years
160. The Pearl index indicates the number of accidental pregnancies per:
(UPSC/99)
(a) 1000 population
(b) 100 live births
(c) 100 women in the age group of 15 to 44 years
(d) 100 women
years
161. -globulins do not interact with immunity of:
(AIIMS 89)
(a) Mumps
(b) Measles
(c) Rubella
(d) Oral polio
162. Sperms immobility in cervical fluid is because of:
(a) Vaginal factor
(b) Elevated progesterone levels
(c) Abnormal sperms
163. Control of reservoir for prevention of disease is done with:
(AIIMS 89)
(a) Tetanus
(b) Rabies
(c) Influenza
(d) Diphtheria
164. Mean incubation period of leprosy is calculated from:
(AMC 86,87)
(a) Median
(b) Harmonic mean
(c) Mode
(d) Geometric mean
165. Amenorrhoea and sterility may occur in woman as a result of occupational exposure to:
(a) Zinc
(b) Mercury
(c) Chromium
(d) CO
(e) Lead
(JIPMER 80, AIIMS 83)
144 D
157 B
145 A
158 D
146 B
159 E
147 D
160 D
148 B
161 D
149 A
162 B
150 B
163 B
151 D
164 C
152 C
165 E
153 A
154 B
155 A
156 D
Self Assessment
137
166. Lowest incidence of trachoma is seen in:

(JIPMER 86,UPSC 88)
(a) Punjab
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Orissa
167. Commonly used vaccines include:
(PGI 87)
(a) Human normal immunoglobulin
(b) Antisnake venom
(c) Antirabies vaccine
(d) OPV
168. A total number of.... tablets of iron with folic acid is given a pregnant women by the health worker:
(a) 70
(b) 90
(c) 100
(d) 150
(e) 200
(AIIMS 86)
169. A person is obese if he is overweight by......% above the accepted standards
(AIIMS84)
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 15%
(d) 20%
170. Copper T is ideally inserted at....:
(AIIMS 85)
(a) Just before menstruation
(b) Menstruation
(c) Just after menstruation
(d) On the 14th day
171. Copper T 200 need to be replaced after:
(AI 89)
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years
172. What is the definition of society:
(AI 89)
(a) System of social relationship between individuals (b) Social relationship between families (c) Intervention
of individuals and people
(d) Relationship of individual, family and the country
173. The percentage of women in the reproductive age group is:
(AI 89)
(a) 15%
(b) 22%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%
174. The most effective step in MCH is A/E:
(AMC/99)
(a) Maternal health promotion
(b) Child health promotion
(c) School health promotion
(d) Non-formal
education of the mother
175. Light requirement in which manufacturing company is:
(AMC 85,86)
(a) 2000-3000 Lux
(b) 5000-10000 Lux
(c) 10000-20000 Lux
(d) 50000 Lux
176 The best method of health instruction is:
(AIIMS 84)
(a) Providing reading assignments
(b) Giving lectures
(c) Setting an example
(d) Organising filmshow
177. The best teaching opportunity for a health worker is the community in while:
(AIIMS 84)
(a) Giving health talk at home (b) Demonstrating to a group of mothers (c) Examining mothers and children
(d) Completing the records
178. Which vaccine need not be given to boys:
(PGI 88)
(a) Mumps
(b) German measles
(c) Measles
(d) Smallpox
179. The highest per capital income in India is in:
(PGI 84)
(a) Kerala
(b) Punjab
(c) Haryana
(d) Goa
180. The vitamin that is destroyed when mild is exposed to light:
(KERALA 89)
(a) A
(b) B2
(c) B6
(d) B12
181. The MTP Act was passed in:
(DUT/184) (PGI 83)
(a) 1949
(b) 1962
(c) 1971
(d) 1974
182. A patient with headache, nausea, vomiting, fatigue, jaundice, hepatomegaly and oliguria, may have an occupational disease caused by:
(PGI 80)
(a) H2S
(b) Carbon tetrachloride
(c) Benzol
(d) Mercury
(e) Lead
183. The Family Planning Programme started in:
(AMU/91)
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1952
(d) 1960
184. Low birth-weight babies are at a higher risk of dying in the first week of life due to:
(UPSC/99)
(a) Congenital anomaly, birth injury and infections (b) Birth injury, convulsions and asphyxia (c) Convulsions,
congenital anomaly and hypothermia
(d) Hypothermia, asphyxia and infections
185. As per nutritional surveys, the diet of an average Indian of lower socioeconomic strata is highly deficient in:
(a) Thiamin
(b) Riboflavin
(c) Nicotinic acid
(d) Vitamin C
(UPSC/99)
186. Which one of the following strategies is aimed at AIDS control in India?
(UPSC/99)
(a) Detection and treatment of AIDS cases in the community (b) Detection and isolation of HIV infected persons
in the community
(c) Immunoprophylaxis of the risk groups
(d) Community education towards behavioural
change
187. The most common industrial disease of the employee population is:
(AIIMS 84)
(a) Emphysema
(b) Chronic bronchitis
(c) Occupational dermatosis
(d) Silicosis
166 D
179 C
167 D
180 B
168 C
181 C
169 B
182 B
170 C
183 C
171 C
184 A
172 A
185 A
173 B
186 D
174 C,D 175 A

187 B
176 C
177 B
178 B
138
188. A number of studies have shown that insecticide DDT when ingested by an animal, is more than likely to
concentrate in the:
(PGI/89)
(a) Fatty tissue
(b) Brain
(c) Thyroid
(d) Bones
(e) Blood vessels and kidneys
189. A child is brought to the PHC with scabies which of the following is not advised:
(KARN 93)
(a) Parenteral antibiotics
(b) Treat other members of family
(c) Child given bath and 3 applications of
Benzyl
(d) Bed lines to be boiled
190. The peak period for social attachment in humans is of what age:
(AIIMS 83)
(a) 7 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 18 months
(d) 2 years
(e) 3 years
191. The source of radiation that causes heat cataract is:
(AIIMS 82)
(a) Ultraviolet radiation
(b) Infrared radiation
(c) Ionizing radiation
(d) Radiofrequency waves
192. Elimination of reservoir is possible in:
(TN/92)
(a) Measles
(b) Rabies
(c) Dracunculosis
(d) Polio
193. In an area having annual parasite index of less than 2, the following is to be done:
(JIPMER/97)
(a) Passive surveillance only
(b) 2 rounds of DDT yearly
(c) Entomological surveillance
(d) All postitive
cases blood smear to be done monthly
194. Which one of the following represents filaria endemicity rate?
(UPSC/99)
(b) Filaria disease rate
(c) Mosquito infestation rate
(d) Combination of microfilaria
and disease rate
195. Health for all by 2000 AD is...:
(PGI/89)
(a) Target
(b) Objective
(c) Goal
196. Mini pill contains:
(JIPMER 90)
(a) Only progesterone in small quantity
(b) Progesterone and estrogen in small quantity
(c) Estrogen in
small quantity and progestrone in large quantity
(d) Neither progesterone nor estrogen
197. The MTP Act defines the following:
(JIPMER 90)
(a) Who should do termination of pregnancy
(b) Where it should be done
(c) When it should be done
198. For International quarantine, India is important because of:
(AIIMS 84)
(a) Cholera
(b) Yellow fever
(c) Plague
(d) Relapsing fever
199. The headquarters of UNESCO is in:
(UPSC/99)
(a) Geneva
(b) Paris
(c) New Delhi
(d) New York
200. Most convalescing patients develop specific virusneutralizing antibodies:
(PGI 86)
(a) During 1st week of convalescence
(b) In 2-4 weeks
(c) After first month
(d) Between 6-12 months
(d) Not at all
201. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not required in one of the following:
(KERALA 91)
(a) Cardiac valve replacement
(b) Rheumatic fever
(c) Hip joint replacement
(d) Endocardial pacemakers
202. The most effective vaccine is:
(JIPMER 91)
(a) TT
(b) OPV
(c) BCC
(d) MEASLES
203. A type of tertiary waste water treatment process is:
(UPSC 83)
(a) Reverse osmosis
(b) Sedimentation
(c) Both
(d) Neither
204. Number of doses of tetanus toxoid required to immunise all pregnant women in a population of 1000 with birth
rate of 30/1000 in one year is:
(JIPMER 92)
(a) 40
(b) 60
(c) 270
(d) 300
205. Number of doses of measles vaccine required to immunise the target population in a town of 5000 with a birth
rate of 30/1000 and infant mortality rate of 100/1000 live birth assuming a wastage of 50% is: (JIPMER 92)
(a) 270
(b) 320
(c) 370
(d) 420
206. True statement regarding objectives of Sterilisation Beds Programme is:
(AI 93)
(a) To have 2000 beds by 1987 (b) To provide Rs 1000/- per bed (c) To provide sterilisation facilities to hospitals
where they are not available
(d) Voluntary agencies not included in the provision of facilities
207. The best method of teaching an urban slum about ORS is:
(AI 93)
(a) Lecture
(b) Role play
(c) Demonstration
(d) Flash cards
208. Blood transfusion is least likely to transmit:
(UPSC 86, AIIMS 87)
(a) Toxoplasmosis
(b) Syphilis
(c) Non A non B hepatitis
(d) Malignancy
188 A
201 C
189 A
202 A
190 A
203 A
191 B
204 B
192 B
205 A
193 D
206 C
194 D
207 C
195 C
208 D
196 A
197 D
198 A
199 A
200 B
Self Assessment
139
209. Main drawback of calculating incidence of disease using hospital records is:
(JIPMER 93)
(a) Poor maintenance of records
(b) Subclinical cases not admitted
(c) Admission policy may differ
(d) Denominator not well-defined
210. Beatuex index is for:
(ROTHAK/98)
(a) Aedes Aegyptii
(b) Anopheles
(c) Culex
(d) Hookworm
(e) Mansonoides
211. The total number of micro-organisms contained within of upon the surface of the item prior to it being disinjected
or sterilized is referred to as:
(JIPMER 81, AIIMS 82)
(a) The bioload or bioburden
(b) The microbiologic profile
(c) Both
(d) Neither
212. Ring vaccination in which is:
(DELHI 93)
(a) Given by a ring shaped machine
(b) Given to produced a ring shaped lesion
(c) Given around 100 yards
of case detected
(d) Given around a mile of a case detected
213. Two laboratory technicians from a district hospital were tested Australia antigen positive true about the further
steps is:
(UPSC 93)
(a) Discard all the blood samples collected by them
(b) Do not allow them to work in the laboratory
(c) Retest them for Australia antigen and antigene after sometime
(d) Nothing is required
214. CO2 content of air is measured by:
(AIIMS 79, TN 93)
(a) Pattern Kopfers test
(b) Horrocks test
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
215. MgO2 is added to polio vaccine because of the following:
(UPSC 89, 92)
(a) Potentiates the vaccine
(b) Vaccine can be kept at higher temperatures
(c) Preservative
(d) None
of the above
216. Following are both notifiable disease as well as disease under surveillance:
(DNB 92)
(a) Epidemic typhus
(b) Relapsing fever
(c) Plague
(d) Cholera
217. Government of India launched a National Plan of Action against avoidable Disablement known as IMPACT
India in:
(AIIMS 80, UP 92)
(a) 1980
(b) 1983
(c) 1985
(d) 1987
218. Positive health indicators of nutritional status include except:
(BHU 81, 85)
(a) Anthropometric measurements of preschool children
(b) Height of school children at school entry
(c) Weight of antenatal mothers
(d) Prevalence of low birth weight
219. Social mobility is:
(UPSC 88, ESI 89)
(a) From rural to urban areas for work (b) Industrialization (c) Interaction between cultures (d) Movement
in socioeconomic strates
220. Malnutrition in India is mainly attributed to:
(JIPMER 81, KERALA 90)
(a) Protein deficiency
(b) Vitamin A deficiency
(c) Iron deficiency
(d) All of these
221. Rideal Walker coefficient or carbolic coefficient is used for:
(PGI 87)
(a) Expressing efficiency of carbolic acid
(b) Estimating the amount of carbolic acid required for disinfecting
faeces (c) Determining germicidal efficiency of a disinfectant in comparison to phenol (d) Estimating amount
of pure cresol in a crude phenol sample
222. Best method of contraception in a commercial sex worker:
(JIPMER 98)
(a) IUCD
(b) OCP
(c) Permanent sterilization
(d) Barrier methods
223. Hardly-Weinberg law is related to:
(JIPMER 98)
(a) Population genetics
(b) Health economic
(c) Social medicine
224. World No Tobacco day is:
(KERALA 97)
(a) May 31st
(b) April 5th
(c) December 11th
(d) November 14th
225. Human suffering index in India is:
(KERALA 97)
(a) 67
(b) 50
(c) 80
(d) 70
226. Active and passive immunity is given simultaneously for following except:
(AIIMS 98)
(a) Hepatitis B
(b) Tetanus
(c) Measles
(d) Rabies
227. DMF index relates to well being:
(KERALA 97)
(a) Dental
(b) Mental
(c) Physical
228. No smoking day is observed on:
(KERALA 97)
(a) 7th April
(b) 31st May
(c) 23rd may
(d) Jan 21st
209 D
222 D
210 A
223 A
211 A
224 A
212 C
225 D
213 C
226 C
214 A
227 B
215 B
228 B
216 D
217 B
218 C
219 D
220 D
221 C
140
229. Predictability of Mantoux test-4, Pre-test odds of a child=2. post test odds of Mantoux being positive:
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
(AIIMS 98)
230. All are included in the nominal scale except:
(MP 98)
(a) Colour of eye
(b) Sex
(c) Socioeconomic status
(d) Occupation
231. Lung carcinoma and occupation true is all except:
(AI 98)
(a) Increased risk
(b) Takes long time to develop
(c) It takes less time to develop as compare to general
population
(d) It takes more time to develop as compare to general population
232. All are included in health sector policy in India except:
(AI 98)
(a) Nutritional supplements
(b) Medical education
(c) Family welfare programme
(d) Control of
communicable disease
233. In a case control study of ZARDA PAN associated with increase case of oral cancer, true is:
(AIIMS 97)
(a) Zarda pan associated with increase incidence of oral cancer
(b) Zarda pan causes oral cancer
(c) Oral
cancer is cured if zarda pan is stopped
(d) Association exists between oral carcinoma and zarda pan
234. An ineffective patient does not shed the infectious agent called:
(AIIMS 97)
(a) Subclinical case
(b) Latent infection
(c) Convalescent carriers
(d) Incubatory carriers
235. True about immunization is:
(AI 99)
(a) BCG protects from HIV
(b) Vaccination against diphtheria uses inactivated toxin
(c) Vaccination against
polio uses inactivated toxin
(d) Salk vaccine for polio is a live vaccine
236. In the context of epidemiology, a set of questions is constructed in such a manner that it takes into account all
the important epidemiological factors of a given disease. This is known as:
(UPSC/99)
(a) Health model
(b) Epidemiological triad
(c) Epidemiological surveillance
(d) Mathematical model
237. Retrospective analysis of data is known as:
(AI 99)
(a) Professional screening
(b) Medical audit
(c) Medical evaluation
(d) Performance evaluation
238. A young woman using SAHELI forgot to take the pills for 4 days. What next she should do:
(AIIMS 99)
(a) Take 4 pills simultaneously
(b) Start a new course
(c) Take 2 pills just now and 2 pills after 12 hours
(d) Continue the course and her partner to use condom
239. In a clinical trial for antihypertensive drug, test used to analyse BP taken before and after drug:
(a) Paired t-test
(b) Single t-test
(c) f-test
(d) Chi square test
(AIIMS/2K)
240. First referral units in first district are:
(AIIMS/2K)
(a) 1-3
(b) 4-6
(c) 7-9
(d) 10-12
241. The lack of linolenic acid may cause:
(UPSC/2001)
(a) Loss of appetite
(b) Loss of weight
(c) Oedema
(d) Raised serum cholesterol
242. According to WHO, all of the following diseases require surveillance except:
(UPSC/2001)
(a) Chickenpox
(b) Yellow fever
(c) Malaria
(d) Rabies
243. If in a community a high proportion of newborn babies suffers from methaemoglobinaemia, then which one of
the following inferences would be most relevant?
(UPSC/2001)
(a) The community is exposed to industrial smoke
(b) The local water supply is very rich in nitrites
(c) The babies are suffering from the effects of mercury poisoning
(d) The haemoglobin of the babies blood
is in a very reduced state
244. The air-quality standards proposed by the Indian Central Pollution Control Board are based on limits of
concentrations of:
(PAR/2001)
(a) Suspended particulate matter and sulphur dioxide (b) Suspended particulate matter, sulphur dioxide and oxides
of nitrogen
(c) Suspended particulate matter, sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and oxidants
(d) Suspended
particulate matter, sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and carbon monoxide
245. Beer consumption is associated with:
(AI IHPH 2K)
(a) Carcinoma cervix
(b) Carcinoma liver
(c) Carcinoma rectum
(d) Carcinoma colon
246. Daily per capita water consumption is:
(AI IHPH 2K)
(a) 50-100 litres
(b) 100-150 litres
(c) 150-200 litres
(d) 200-250 litres
247. First 5-year-plan in India started at:
(BURDWAN 2K)
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1953
248. The number of doses of vitamin A to be given to children aged 6 months to 6 years for prophylaxis against vitamin
A deficiency:
(KARNAT 99)
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9
229 B
242 A
230 C
243 B
231 D
244 C
232 A
245 C
233 D
246 C
234 B
247 B
235 B
248 B
236 C
237 A
238 D
239 A
240 A
241 C
Self Assessment
141
249. Screening in children has been proved cost-effective for all of the following conditions, except:
(ORISSA 99)
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Vision impairment
(c) Hypertension
(d) Vitamin A deficiency
250. A non-symmetrical frequency distribution is known as:
(ORISSA 99)
(a) Normal distribution
(b) Skewed distribution
(c) Cumulative frequency distribution
(d) None of the
above
251. An important measure of the communicability of a disease is:
(UPSC/2K)
(a) Case fatality rate
(b) Disease specific mortality rate
(c) Infection rate
(d) Secondary attack rate
252. A total of 3500 patients with thyroid cancer are identified and surveyed by patient interviews with reference to
past exposure to radiation. The study design most appropriately illustrates:
(UPSC/2K)
(a) Case series report
(b) Case control study
(c) Case report
(d) Clinical trial
253. Bias is unlikely to invalidate cohort studies used to assess risk of exposure because:
(UPSC/2K)
(a) Data collection is prospective
(b) Large number of subjects is usually included
(c) Exposure is usually
determined prior to disease occurrence
(d) Actual relative risk can be determined
254. Classification of grades of protein energy malnutrition given by Indian Academy of Paediatrics has
adopted:
(UPSC/2K)
(a) ICMR standards
(b) Standards developed by National Institute of Nutrition, Hyderabad
(c) Local
standards
(d) NCHS standards
255. The peripheral workers in a primary health centre return one day late; after an immunisation session. The
primary health centre is locked. The vaccine carrier still contains a few unopened vials of DPT vaccine and
sufficient ice. The workers are to:
(UPSC/2K)
(a) Return the vaccine vials to the refrigerator in the morning of the next day
(b) Get the health centre opened
the same evening and keep the vaccine vials in the refrigerator
(c) Discard the vaccine vials
(d) Retain
the vaccine in the ice box
256. In a population of 10,000, beta carotene was given to 6000; not given to the remainder. 3 out of the first group
got lung cancer; 2 out of the other 4000 also got lung cancer; conclusion is that:
(AI/2001)
(a) Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to one another
(b) The P value is not significant
(c) The study is not designed properly
(d) Beta carotene is associated with lung cancer
257. Of 11 births, 5 babies weighed over 2.5 kg and 4 weighed less than 2.5 kg. What value does 2.5 represent:
(a) Geometric average
(c) Median average
(d) Mode
(PAR/611)
258. ELISA is performed on a population of low prevalence. What would be the result of performing double screening
ELISA tests?
(AI/2001)
(a) Increased sensitivity and positive predictive value
(b) Increased sensitivity and negative predictive value
(c) Increased specificity and positive predictive value
(d) Increased specificity and negative predictive value
259. A man weighs 68 kg, consumes 325 gm carbohydrate, 65 gm protein, 35 gms fat: applicable statement
is:
(AI/2001)
(a) His total calorie intake is 3000
(b) He has a equal proportion of fat/carbo/protein as with balanced diet
(c) He has a negative nitrogen balance
(d) He is consuming 30% of diet as fat
260. Disease not to be screened for in workers to be employed in a dye industry in Gujarat?
(AI/2001)
(a) Anemia
(b) Bronchial asthma
(c) Bladder cancer
(d) Precancerous skin lesion
261. Value of P indicates:
(GAN/694)
(a) Acceptability of null hypothesis
(b) Rejection of null hypothesis
(c) Probability, that the difference
b/w two means is due to chance variation
262. Current level of sputum positive cases in the community per 1000 cases of pulmonary tuberculosis is:
(a) 20
(b) 50
(c) 60
(d) 110
(PAR/140) (AIIMS 2000)
263. In a correlation test the assiciation followed the equation a+ bx. This equation would most likely show:
(AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) Linear association
(b) Sigmoid association
(c) Parabolic association
(d) No association
264. In a test where cholesterol levels were compared between two groups of obese (n =20) and nonobese (n= 15)
subjects, the test which can best give the statistical significance of cholesterol association is: (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) Chi square test
(b) Paired t test
(c) t test with different measure
(d) Fischers test
265. The denominator for calculation of crude birth rate for population is taken as is found on: (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) 1st March
(b) 1st November
(c) 1st July
(d) 1st January
266. Post exposure prophylaxis is not given for:
(AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) Measles
(b) Pertussis
(c) Rabies
(d) HBV
249 A
262 A
250 B
263 A
251 D
264 B
252 B
265 C
253 C
266 B
254 A
255 D
256 A
257 C
258 C
259 B
260 B
261 C
142
267.
268.
269.
270.
271.
272.
273.
274.

Directions: The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled the 'Assertion A' and the other
labelled the 'Reason R'.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the assertion A and the Reason R are
individually true and if so,whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to
these items using the codes given below and mark your answer-sheet accordingly.
Codes:
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A
c. A is true and R is false
d. A is false but R is true
A-Glucose is an important component of oral rehydration solution (WHO):
(UPSC/01)
R- Glucose provides caslories for the child rendered weak by diarrhoea:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A-Pulse polio immunization requires all children being administered OPV at the same time
(UPSC/01)
R-It is easier to cover all the children at one point of time:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A-Guinea worm disease has been eradicated from India:
(UPSC/01)
R- Last case of Guinea worm diseae was reported from Rajasthan in July, 1996:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A-Iron-deficiency anaemia is more common in prolonged cows milk fed babies:
(UPSC/01)
R- Cows milk has high phyutates impairing absorption of iron:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A-While breastfeeding her child, a mother requires 150 gm of green leafy vegetables per day:
(UPSC/01)
R-Lactation requires 500 to 1000 calores extra per day as compared to a non-pregnant adult female
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A-Only the male offsprings of the haemophiliac father suffer from the disease:
(UPSC/01)
R-Haemophilia is an X-linked dominant disease:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
A-Urine examination for sugar is not considered an appropriate tool for screening diabetes mellitus (UPSC/01)
R-Urine examination for sugar lacks sensitivity and there will be many false negatives:
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Match List I (diseases) with List II (Toxins) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
(UPSC/01)
List I
List II
1. Epidemic dropsy:
i. Aphlatoxins
2. Neurolathyrism:
ii. Pyrrolizidine alkaloid
3. Hepatic carcinoma: iii. Sanguinarine
4. Endemic ascities
iv. Beta-oxalyl-amino-alanine
(a) 1 (iii), 2(iv), 3(ii), 4(i)

(b) 1(iii), 2(iv), 3(i), 4(ii)
(c) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(ii), 4 (i)
(d) 1(iv), 2(iii), 3(i), 4(ii)
275. In the International Death Certificate one of the following is not true:
(KERALA 2K)
(a) Part I of the certificate deals with the immediate cause only
(b) Part I of the certificate deals with the
immediate cause and also the underlying cause
(c) Part II records significantly associated diseases
(d) The certificate has been recommended by the the WHO for international news
(e) In part I the underlying
cause of death is recorded on line c
276. ROME scheme was introduced consequent to the recommendation of:
(KERALA 2K)
(a) Srivastava Committee
(b) Chadah Committee
(c) Mukherjee Committee
(d) Kartar Singh Committee
(e) 20 Points programme
277. The concurrent list of the constitution of India list the following functions except:
(KARN/01)
(a) Prevention of extension of communicable disease
(b) Administration of hospitals and health services
(c) Collection and compilation of vital statistics
(d) Labour welfare
267 B
268 B
269 A
270 C
271 C
272 C
273 A
274 A
275 A
276 A
277 B
Self Assessment
143
278. A group of people with 60 kg weight having mean intake of protein=40 mg (+ 10%) with normal distribution with
standard deviation. Recommended protein intake for this group is:
(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) 440 mg
(b) 60 mg
(c) 70 mg
(d) 50 mg
279. In a group of 100 people with normal distribution of data, the mean age weight was 70 Kg. The person showing
weight less than 70 kg will be:
(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 75
(d) 100
280. Drug A is effective in 95 % children and adults. Drug B is effective in 47% of children and adult cost of drug A
is twice the cost of B. Dr. Lokesh gives drug A to both, children and adults. Dr.Manoj treated children with drug
A and adults with drug B. If patients are not cured with drug B, Dr. Manoj treated with Drug A. Ignoring the
cost of drug which of the following is false statement:
(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Treatment given by Dr. Manoj is cost effective
(b) Treatment given by Dr. Lokesh is cost effective
(c) Patients of Dr. Manoj have higher chances of being cured earlier
(d) None is correct
281. In a study conducted among ten thousand men, 6000 men were given carotene out of which 60 developed the
disease. Out of remaining 4000, who were not given carotene, 40 men developed the disease. Which of the following
statement is true about the study:
(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Carotene increases chances of carcinoma
(b) Carotene does not increase chances of carcinoma
(d) Carotene decreases chance of carcinoma
(d) Data is insufficient
282. Double ELISA test was performed on a population. This results in:
(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Increased Specificity and Positive Value (PPV)
(b) Increased sensitivity and increased PPV
(c) Increased
and Negative predictive Value (NPV)
(d) Increased specificity and increased NPV
283. Which is not true of annual growth rate in India:
(AIIMS 92)
(a) An annual growth rate of 1.2% is essential by 2000 AD
(b) Current rate is 2.9%
(c) Prior in 1921 growth
rate was low
(d) Net gain in birth over death, lead to increase in the rate
284. The govt. of India has decided to provide potable water to the entire rural population by:
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1995
(d) 2000 AD
(JIPMER 78, ORISSA 91)
285. The most common cause of treatable blindness is:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) Trachoma
(b) Xerophthalmia
(c) Glaucoma
(d) Injuries
286. All are micronutrient except:
(AIIMS 96)
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Iron
(c) Iodine
(d) Vitamin C
287. All are examples of nominal scale except:
(AI 96)
(a) Age
(b) Sex
(c) Iris colour
(d) Socio-economic status
288. Thin film of malarial parasite formed because of:
(UP 197)
(a) To differentiate species
(b) All stages of parasite seen
(c) Chromatin increase in Plasmodium malariae
(d) In P. vivax shows RBC are enlarged
289. "Ring vaccination" which is:
(Delhi/93) (PGI/94)
(a) Given by a ring shaped machine
(b) Given to produced a ring shaped lesion
(c) Given around 100 yards
of a case detected
(d) Given around a mile of a case detected
290. Common cause of IUGR among following:
(DUT/480) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Idiopathic
(b) PIH
(c) Infection
(d) Genetically determined
291. By what % would the dose of antirabies globulin be reduced if it were given subcutaneously at different sites:
(a) 50
(b) 70
(c) 30
(d) 10
(Kerala/98)
292. Skin biopsy in leprosy:
(UP 95)
(a) Periappendegeal lymphocytosis
(b) Perivascular lymphocytosis
(c) Absence of the lepra bacilli
(d) Not diagnostic
293. Feasibility of a programme/project is determined by:
(Kerala/98)
(a) Financial backup
(b) Dedication of the staff
(c) No. of the staff
(d) Interest shown by the general
population
(e) Competence
294. According to WHO the number of drugs with a PHC worker should be at least:
(Delhi/93)
(a) 15-20
(b) 20-25
(c) 25-30
(d) 30-40
295. Richest source of cholesterol is:
(AI 93)
(a) Eggs
(b) Hydrogenated oil
(c) Cheese
(d) Butter
278 C
291 A
279 B
292 A
280 C
293 D
281 B
294 A
282 B
295 A
283 B
284 D
285 B
286 B
287 C
288 B
289 C
290 A
144
296. Objective of Sterilization Beds Programme is:

(AI 93)
(a) To provide sterilization facilities to hospital where they are not available
(b) To provide Rs 1000 per bed
(c) Voluntary agencies not included in the provision of facilities
(d) 2000 beds by 1990
297. The indication of antibiotics in diarrhoea are A/E:
(AI 93)
(a) Bloody diarrhoea
(b) Severe dehydration
(c) Septic focus
(d) Organism with darting motility in stool
298. Nutritional status of children between 0-4 years in a community can be assessed by A/E:
(AI 94)
(a) Mortality in 0-4 years
(b) Birth weight of less than 2.5 gm
(c) Maternal haemoglobin 12 gm/L
(d) Height and weight of all preschool children
299. Chlorine level for destruction of larvae of guinea worm is:
(PAR/) (AIIMS 91)
(a) 0.5 ppm
(b) 12 ppm
(c) 5 ppm
(d) 7 ppm
300. In case control study highly significant statistical occurring of a disease found in coffee takers than non-takers
what is true:
(AIIMS 98)
(a) Coffee drinking causes disease
(b) Prevention of coffee drinking prevents the disease
(c) Coffee drinking
does not cause the disease
(d) It is an evidence of significant association between disease and coffee drinking
301. Most important anthropometric characteristic of nutritional dwarfism is:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) Normal weight for age (b) Normal birth weight with subsequent retardation (c) Normal weight for height
(d) Normal weight for chronological age
302. From which of the following is highest percentage of iron absorbed:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) Spinach
(b) Soyabean
(c) Mutton
(d) Egg
303. Which one of the following is the most common problem associated with the use of condom?
(UPSC/02)
(a) Increased monilial infection of vagina
(b) Premature ejaculation
(c) Contact dermatitis
(d) Retention
of urine
304. In respect of type -I error in the field of medical statistics , which one of the following is not correct?
(a) It is also called alpha error (b) It is often assigned a value of 0.05 in studies
(c) It is equal to 1 minus
the beta error
(d) It is used to determine sample size
(UPSC/02)
305. The decadal exercise of Census Operation is done over a period of time but population count is assumed to be
one existing on:
(UPSC/02)
(a) January Ist
(b) March Ist
(c) April Ist
(d) March 31st
306. Prospective genetic counselling is the application of which level of prevention?
(UPSC/03)
(a) Primordial
(b) Primary
(c) Secondary
(d) Tertiary--Consider the following statements
307. Consider the following statements: Non-parametric tests can be used to compare two populations when:
1. each population is unimodal.
(UPSC/03)
2. both populations have equal numbers.
3. each population is independent.
4. each population is bimodal.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
308. Disease specific human immunoglobulin is not available for:
(UPSC/03)
(a) Tetanus
(b) Gas gangrene
(c) Measles
(d) Hepatitis B
309. The vector of Brugia malayi is:
(UPSC/03)
(a) Aedes
(b) Anopheles
(c) Culex
(d) Mansonia
310. The SAFEstrategy has been developed for the control of:
(AI/03)
(a) Onchocerciasis
(b) Trachoma
(c) Refractive error
(d) Ocular trauma
311. As a part of space-research program, a physiologist was asked to investigate the effect of flight induced stress
on blood pressure. Accordingly, the blood pressure of the cosmonauts were to be measured twice once before the
take off, and once after the space craft entered the designated orbit around the earth. For a proper comparison,
the pre-flight blood pressure should be recorded in:
(AI/03)
(a) The lying position
(b) The sitting position
(c) The standing position (d) Any position, as long as the
post flight recording is made in the same position.
312. The visual acuity used as cut off for differentiating normal from abnormal children in the School Vision
Screening Programme in India is:
(AIIMS/02)
(a) 6/6
(b) 6/9
(c) 6/12
(d) 6/60
296 A
309 B
297 B
310 B
298 C
311 B
299 C
312 B
300 D
301 C
302 C
303 B
304 A
305 A
306 A
307 A
308 B
Self Assessment
145
313. ThePvalue of a randomised controlled trial comparing operation A (new procedure) and operation B (gold
standard) is 0.04. From this, we conclude that:
(a) Type II error is small and we can accept the findings of the study
(b) The probability of false negative
conclusion that operation A is better than operation B, when in the truth it is not, is 4% (c) The power of study
to detect a difference between the operation A and B is 96%
(d) The probability of a false positive conclusion
that the operation A is better than operation B, when in truth it is not is 4%.
314. Thiamine deficiency is known to occur in all of the following except:
(AI/03)
(a) Food faddist
(b) Homocystinemia
(c) Chronic alcoholic
(d) Chronic heart failure patient on diuretics
315. For calculation of sample size for a prevalence study all of the following are necessary except:
(AI/03)
(a) Prevalence of the disease in population (b) Power of study (c) Significance level (d) Desired precision
316. The response which is graded by an observer on an agree or disagree continuum is based on:
(AI/03)
(a) Visual analog scale
(b) Guttman scale
(c) Likert scaleo
(d) Adjectival scale
317. Among the following, the best indicator of health in a community is:
(UPSC/02)
(a) Maternal mortality rate
(b) Infant mortality rate
(c) Life expectancy
(d) Neonatal mortality rate
318. If a biochemical test gives the same reading for a sample on repeated testing. It is inferred that the measurement
is:
(a) Precise
(b) Accurate
(c) Specific
(d) Sensitive
(AIIMS/02)
319. A randomized trial comparing the efficacy of two drugs showed a difference between the two with a p value of
< 0.005. In reality, however the two drugs do not differ. Therefore it is an example of:
(AIIMS/02)
(a) Type I error (alpha error)
(b) Type II error (Beta error)
(c) I-Alpha
(d) I-Beta.
320. Screening is the most commonly used epidemiological tool in school health services. Which level of prevention
does it refer to?
(UPSC/02)
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Primary and secondary
321. The number of patient required in a clinical trial to treat a specify disease increases as:
(AIIMS/02)
(a) The incidence of the disease decreases
(b) The significance level increases.
(c) The size of the expected
treatment effect increased
(d) The drop out rate increases
322. A-46-year old female presented at the eye OPD in a hospital her vision in the right eye was 6/60 and in left eye
3/60. Under the National Programme for Control of blindness, she will be classified as: (PAR/300) (AIIMS 02)
(a) Socially blind
(b) Low vision
(c) Economical blind
(d) Normal vision
323. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of non-communicable disease?
(UPSC/02)
(a) Well-defined etiological agent
(b) Multifactorial causation
(c) Long latent period
(d) Variable onset
324. The best indicator(s) for monitoring of air pollution is/are:
(UPSC/02)
(a) Sulphur dioxide and suspended particles
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Oxides of nitrogen and polyaromatic
hydrocarbons
(d) Carbon monoxide
325. The organism which is not an indicator of fecal pollution is:
(UPSC/02)
(a) Staphylococcus
(b) Streptococcus
(c) E. coli
(d) Clostridium perfringens
326. The pattern of interrelations between in a society is called:
(UPSC/02)
(a) Social stratification
(b) Social structure
(c) Caste system
(d) Herd structure
327. The most effective method for motivating a couple for adopting family planning practices is:
(UPSC/02)
(a) Printed material
(b) Films and televisions
(c) Group discussion
(d) Inter-personal communication
328. Which one of the following is an environmental factor associated with mental illness?
(UPSC/02)
(a) Emotional stress
(b) Frustration
(c) Broken home
(d) Anxiety
329. The most dangerous mode of spread of infection in the hospital environment is by:
(UPSC/03)
(a) Droplets
(b) Droplet nuclei
(b) Infected dust
(d) None
330. Strawberry tongue followed by raspberry tongue is characteristic of:
(OR/341) (AIIMS 81, AP 87)
(a) Mumps
(b) Measles
(c) Scarlet fever
(d) Smallpox
(e) Chickenpox
331. A screening test applied to detect diabetes in population over 40 years of age should satisfy the following criteria,
except for:
(UPSC/02)
(a) Validity
(b) Reproducibility
(c) Feasibility
(d) Ingenuity
332. The objective of National Population Policy, 2000 is to bring the total Fertility Rate(TFR) to 2.1 by the year:
(a) 2005
(b) 2010
(c) 2015
(d) 2020
(UPSC/03)
313 D
326 B
314 B
327 D
315 C
328 C
316 C
329 A
317 B
330 C
318 A
331 B
319 A
332 A
320 A
321 D
322 B
323 A
324 A
325 B
146
National Health Policy2002

Goals to be Achieved by2015
Eradicate Polio and yaws
Eliminate leprosy
Eliminate kala azar
Eliminate lymphatic filariasis
Achieve zero level growth of HIV/AIDS
Reduce mortality by 50% on account of TB
Malaria and other vector and water-borne diseases
Reduce prevalence of blindness to 0.5%
Reduce IMR to 30/100 and MMR to 100/Lakh
Increase utilization of public health facilities
from current level of < 20% to >75%
Establish on integrated system of surveillance
National Health Accounts and Health Statistics
Increase health expenditure by government as
a % of GDP from the existing 0.9 to 2.0%
Increase share of central grants to constitute
at least 25% to total health spending
Increase state sector health spending from
5.5 to 7% of the budget
Further increase to 8% of the budget
2005
2005
2010
2015
2007
2010
2010
2010
2010
2005
2010
2010
2005
2010
333. Normally during a social research survey which one of the following dimensions is not addressed:
(a) Social psychology
(b) Social structure
(c) Social pathology
(d) Social institutions
(UPSC/03)
334. The entire communication process related to a health issue basically intends to change:
(a) Awareness levels
(b) Sensitivity and receptivity thresholds
(c) Behaviour
(d) Practices
(UPSC/03)
335. Number of doses of measles vaccine required to immunise target population in a village with a population in
a village with a population of 5000, where the birth rate is 30/1000 and IMR 100/1000 live births assuming
watage of 50%, is:
(UPSC/03)
(a) 135
(b) 150
(c) 240
(d) 270
336. Prospective genetic counselling is the application of which level of prevention?
(UPSC/03)
(a) Primordial
(b) Primary
(c) Secondary
(d) Tertiary
337. Consider the following statements: Non-parametric tests can be used to compare two populations when: 1. Each
population is unimodal. 2. Both populations have equal numbers. 3. Each population is independent. 4. Each
population is bimodal: Which of these statements are correct?
(UPSC/03)
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
338. Disease specific human immunoglobulin is not available for:
(UPSC/03)
(a) Tetanus
(b) Gas gangrene
(c) Measles
(d) Hepatitis B
339. The vector of Brugia malayi is:
(UPSC/03)
(a) Aedes
(b) Anopheles
(c) Culex
(d) Mansonia
340. The hormonal contraceptive of choice in lactational period in a female is:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) Oestrogens in high doses
(b) Combination pills
(c) Medroxy progesterone acetate
(d) Sequential pills
333 D
334 B
335 D
336 A
337 A
338 B
339 B
340 C

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The reasons you should buy this book

Tips to the Readers

5. Epidemiology of Chronic Non-Communicable Diseases and Conditions ......................................... 59

9. Nutrition and Health ............................................................................................................................... 82

12. Occupational Health ............................................................................................................................. 108

14. Health Information and Basic Medical Statistics .............................................................................. 114

17. Health Care of the Community ........................................................................................................... 124

19. Self Assessment ..................................................................................................................................... 129

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Concepts of Health and Disease

Concepts of Health and

4. Objectives of the health services include each of the following except:

2 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER

Rural birth rate (1998)

Death rate /1000 (1998)

Annual growth rate ,percent (2001)

Infant mortality rate (1999)

Life expectancy at birth (1993)

Female literacy rate (2001)

Mean age at marrige females(1998)

Literacy rate ,percent (2001)

Per capita income (1998-99)

6. In the burden of disease is best represented by:

B. Person type indicators:

Concepts of Health and Disease

HALE(Health-adjusted life expectancy)It is the another name given to disability-adjusted life

4 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER

Concepts of Health and Disease

26. Sentinel surveillance is:

6 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER

Principles of Epidemiology and

1. Modern epidemiology refers to:

Principles of Epidemiology and Epidemiologic Method

Observed deaths 100

11. True about direct standardization is all except:

Population at risk during that period

Total population at risk during same interval

16. True about prevalence are all except:

(PAR/52) (AI 96)

8 Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER

Principles of Epidemiology and Epidemiologic Method

Preventive and Social Medicine BUSTER

42. Weight in kg is:

(b) Discrete variable

(PAR/63) (AI 96)

(c) Confounding variable

Easy rapid and inexpensive

Incidence cant be measured

Principles of Epidemiology and Epidemiologic Method

give incidence rates, relative

Information gained for more than one disease