Should the phrase "the Word was God" in John 1:1 be translated, "the

Word was a god?"

Verse in Question: John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was
with God, and the Word was God."
Question:
My name is Bethany, and recently I have been trying to learn Greek. One reason
is to be able to (hopefully) better understand the bible. But also because of what
it says at John 1:1. There it says that the Word was with God and the word was
God. But a friend of mine, who is a devote Christian, pointed out the Greek
there. The spelling for God, in the sentence 'and the word was God' is different
than the spelling of God elsewhere. I looked at this and saw it too. This same
spelling is seen when referring to 'other' gods. My friend and I are wondering if
maybe the translation wasn't done correctly. Maybe it should say 'and the word
was a god' or something of the sort. Please look into this, with an open mind.
Thank you for your help. May God guide you and protect you.
Bethany.
Answer:
In answering your question, let me first note that understanding the Greek text
of the New Testament is extremely important and necessary for a clear
apprehension of what the writers of the New Testament meant as they wrote the
letters and accounts that we now enjoy. One note of caution is needful because
Greek, like every language, has its own nuances and ways of saying things that
can lead to confusion or misunderstanding when looking at it from the perspective
of an English (or foreign) reader. An excellent example of this is the phrase you
asked about in John 1:1.
The Apparent Difference in Spelling
First of all, the same Greek word is used in both occurrences of the word "God"
in John 1:1. This same word is used in many contexts, whether it refers to the
Only True God or whether it is referring to a false god - such as a man-made god
(1 Cor. 8:5) or Satan as the god of this age (2 Cor. 4:4). The apparent
differences in spelling between the word God in the phrase and the Word was
God (theos) and in other places, (even in the previous phrase, and the Word
was with God (theon)) is due to inflection in the Greek language. Each Greek
noun normally has 8 or 9 forms (cases & number) in which it can appear. (See my
page on Inflection and Cases on the Web site). In the first instance in John 1:1
it is the object of preposition and thus is in the accusative case. In the phrase in
question, it is in the nominative case (indicating the subject or predicate
nominative - equal to the subject). But it is the same word for God, and in both
phrases here indicates the One and Only True God. So the apparent difference is
spelling is not because theos is a different word than theon, but is a different
form of the identical word.
The Lack of a Greek Definite Article
Another common confusion in John 1:1 comes from the fact that in Greek there

is no definite article in front of the word God (theos) in the phrase and the
Word was God. The confusion arises from an assumption that if there is no
definite article in the Greek, then it must have an indefinite meaning and thus
should be translated with the indefinite article "a". Based on this understanding,
some argue that this phrase in John 1:1 should be translated "the word was a god,"
rather than "the word was God." It is important at this point to understand that
the Greek language has a definite article (the), but does not have an indefinite
article (a or an). In certain instances, when the Greek omits a definite article,
it may be appropriate to insert an indefinite article for the sake of the English
translation and understanding. But we cannot assume that this is always
appropriate. Greek does not operate in the same way as English does in regard to
the use of the words the and a. In many instances in which English would not
include the word the, the Greek text includes it. (We dont see it in the English
translations because it would sound non-sensible in our language.) (See Note 1,
below.) And in many cases where the Greek omits the definite article, the
English translation requires it to convey the correct meaning of the Greek.
(See Note 2, below.) Therefore it cannot be assumed that if the definite article is
absent, then an indefinite article should be inserted. (For a clear illustration of
this, see an example of the use of the word God and the definite article in John
chapter one.) Furthermore, even though the Greek language does not have an
indefinite article like we think of in English, there is a way in Greek for the
writer to indicate the indefinite idea and thus avoid confusion. This is done in
Greek by using the Greek indefinite pronoun tis.
In John 1:1 there is no definite article in front of the word God in the phrase,
and the Word was God. However, in this instance, it cannot just be assumed
that the word God is meant to be indefinite, and therefore an indefinite article
used in the English translation. Because the first use of the word God in John
1:1 (the Word was with God) clearly refers to the Only True God, the Eternal
Pre-existent Creator, more than likely John would have used a different Greek
construction than he did if he had meant for this next phrase (and the Word was
God) to refer to a lesser god, and did not want us to confuse this with the True
God he had just mentioned. If John meant to avoid confusion, when making such
a definitive statement, he could have done so by using this indefinite pronoun
(tis) as an adjective. This would have made it clear that the Word was a certain
god, but not the one he was just referring to. For examples of this, see the verses
Mark 14:51, Luke 8:27, Luke 1:5, and Luke 11:1 (among many, many other
examples). So, it seems that by the Greek grammatical structure in this statement,
John is indicating that the Word (Jesus Christ - John 1:14) is the same essence
and nature as God the Father.
(For a more thorough explanation of the function and use of the Greek article
(and meaning of its absence), see Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, by Daniel
Wallace. He includes fifty pages - entitled The Article, Part I - which is a more
complete treatment of the subject that many grammar books present and explains
all the general uses of the article. He actually has a Part II which discusses
some special issues with the article. Fifteen pages of this second section apply
directly to understanding this passage in John 1:1. It is highly recommended for
those who really desire an honest and thorough understanding of this passage.)
The Predicate Coming Before the Subject
Also, this phrase in John 1:1 is an example of a predicate nominative coming

first in the sentence, before the subject. (Sentences like this one that use a linking
verb require the noun in the predicate part of the sentence to be in the nominative
case. Thus the phrase 'predicate nominative'.) The subject of this clause is the
Word and the predicate is God. In Greek, the word God comes before the
word Word. According to normal Greek usage (Colwell's Rule), the word
God should not have a definite article. Oftentimes, emphasis is shown in Greek
by placing a word out of its normal, expected word order. Special emphasis is
shown when the predicate comes first in the sentence. In other words, contrary to
the thought that since there is no definite article used here it could belittle the
fact of the Word being God, the fact that the word God is used first in the
sentence actually shows some emphasis that this Logos (Word) was in fact God in
its nature. However, since it does not have the definite article, it does indicate
that this Word was not the same person as the Father God, but has the same
essence and nature.
The Context of All of the Apostle Johns Writings
It is also necessary to see this statement in context of the rest of Johns
writings. When comparing this with other statements about who the person and
nature of Jesus Christ really is, it adds to what is already made clear by the Greek
grammar. See for instance: John 8:56-59 (cf. Exo. 3:13-14); 10:28-33; 14:6-11; 1
John 5:20; (also John 8:23; 3:12-13; 5:17-18). These verses also indicate that, in
Johns understanding and thus the Bibles clear statements, Jesus Christ is the
same essence and nature as God the Father, but distinct in their person-hood.
Consulting with Other Well Respected Greek Scholars and Grammarians
For a further explanation and clarification about these items, it is helpful to
consult with many of the well-respected Greek scholars and
expositors. Personally I have never come across any objective, well respected
Greek grammarian that has come up with different conclusions that what has been
presented here. Many of them go into much more detail than I have in these few
short paragraphs. See for instance the writings of Daniel Wallace (Greek
Grammar Beyond the Basics), A.T. Robertson (both his Grammar and Word
Pictures), R.C.H. Lenski (in his commentary on the Gospel of John), Henry
Alford (Greek Testament), J.A. Bengel (Word Studies), Albert Barnes
(Barnes Notes), B.F. Westcott, and F.L. Godet, (and many others).
Final Comment
Bethany, I hope this helps to answer your questions. Obviously you are asking
about a very large topic that can only be touched upon in such a small
answer. My answer here is not meant to argue some theological doctrine, but to
point out how important it is to have a pure heart when seeking God in His
revealed speaking (the Bible) and how much it helps to know the Greek language
in helping to answer some very complicated questions. A little (and incomplete)
knowledge of Greek can do more harm than good when people try to apply it
beyond their scope of knowledge. I beg you to seek the Lord honestly and
continue to love Him with your whole heart. 1 Corinthians 8:1b-3 says,
Knowledge puffs up, but love builds up. And if anyone thinks that he knows

anything, he knows nothing yet as he ought to know. But if anyone loves God,
this one is known by Him. Many questions that are beyond our human
understanding will only be answered when we see Him face to face. But for now,
we continue to love Him and seek Him with our whole heart. The rest is up to
Him. Please let me know if I can be of further help or guidance.
For a more systematic answer to the person of Jesus Christ, being both God
and man,
please see a paper I wrote here: The Unity of the Person of Jesus Christ, the
God-man
For further information (and a somewhat more scholarly approach to this specific
question)
please see James White's answer at: http://www.aomin.org/JOHN1_1.html.

Note 1: A literal translation of the end of John 1:12 in Greek reads: to those
who believe into [the] his name. It makes our English translation sound
awkward or non-sensible to include the definite article 'the before the words his
name, even though it appears in Greek.
Note 2: Literally in Greek, John 1:2 says: He was in beginning with
God. Notice that in Greek there is no definite article before the word
beginning. It makes sense to include the definite article the in our English
translation for the sake of clarity and English idiom. Thus, He was in the
beginning with God.