(John P. Cullerne, Anton Machacek) The Language of

THE LANGUAGE OF PHYSICS
FOUNDATIONS FOR UNIVERSITY STUDY
SOLUTIONS MANUAL
JOHN P. CULLERNE
HEAD OF PHYSICS, WINCHESTER COLLEGE, WINCHESTER
ANTON MACHACEK
HEAD OF PHYSICS, ROYAL GRAMMAR SCHOOL, HIGH WYCOMBE
J.P. Cullerne & A.C. Machacek
Language of Physics: Solutions Manual
1 Linear Mechanics
Q1
s = 2 + 3t t 2 , and average speed between t = 2 and t = 2 + t is
s s (2 + t ) s (2) t t 2
=
=
= 1 t .
t
t
t
Now for t = 0.1s, 0.01s, 0.001s,
s
ds
ds
= 1.1 , 1.01, 1.001. Of course,
= 3 t 2 so
= 1 at t = 2.
t
dt
dt
Q2
(i) s = 5t 2
(ii) s = 2t
(iii) s = 3t + 1
(iv) s = t (t + 1)
Q3
(i) v
(ii) v
t
a
(iii) v
t
a
t
a
(i)
Constant acceleration.
(ii)
Acceleration is proportional to speed. At rest at t = 0, so v = 0 for all t.
(iii) Acceleration linear in v. a = 0 when v = g/k and this is the terminal speed.
Q4
Let us begin with quite an important result in applied mathematics. The
diagram below shows the projection of the projectile up the inclined plane. The
angle is the angle between the initial velocity and the x-axis and the angle is
the angle the inclined plane makes with the x-axis.
Now let us rotate the axes of the problem so that the new x-axis coincides with
the surface of the inclined plane. In this new coordinate system the gravitational
acceleration will be
Page 2

g cos
g =
g sin
x'
Q
y'
Let Q be the point where the projectile lands up the slope. So OQ is the range.
The vector u in the primed coordinate system is:
u cos( )
.
u =
u sin( )
So, in the primed coordinate system:
y ' = u sin( )t
1
g cos t 2 ,
2
which allows us to find the time the projectile arrives at Q since this will be
one of the solutions of y = 0:
1
0 = t u sin( ) g cos t ,
2
so,
t = 0 or t =
2u sin( )
.
g cos
The position X of the point Q along the x-axis is just

X = u cos t =
2u 2 cos sin( )
,
g cos
and OQ = Xsec, so
OQ =
2u 2 cos sin( )
.
g cos 2
Page 3
To find the maximum of OQ (which we shall call r) we differentiate this

expression with respect to and find the stationary points. After some
manipulation:
0=
2u 2
(cos(2 ) ) ,
g cos 2
or
2 =
or =
This result means that the maximum range occurs when the direction of the
vector u bisects the angle between the inclined plane and the y axis. It
follows that
2u 2 cos sin
2
2
2u cos sin( )
2
= 2u cos .
=
r=
g cos 2
g cos 2
g cos 2
2
Now,
t=
2u sin( ) 2u cos
=
,
g cos
g cos
hence
r=
g 2
t .
2
Q5
A
u
Time t to go from A to B is just

t' =
d
.
u cos
The vertical component of velocity at A is
v y = u 2 sin 2 2 gh
so another expression for t would be
t' =
2
u 2 sin 2 2 gh ,
g
which means that u and must satisfy:
Page 4
d
2
=
u 2 sin 2 2 gh .
u cos g
Differentiating this expression with respect to and setting
du
= 0 for a
d
minimum, we get:
u=
gd
sec .
2
Introducing this result back into the expression u and must satisfy we get:
u = g ( d + 2h) .
Q6
The acceleration and velocity vectors are as follows:

kg
,
a =
g
v x (t ) u cos kgt
=
v =
v
t
(
)
y
u sin gt
The time of flight, T, is given by twice the time for the vertical component of v
to reach zero; that is,
T=
2u sin
.
g
Using the horizontal velocity in conjunction with this time we get the range R
to be
R=
(v x (T ) + v x (0))
2(u cos ku sin )u sin 2(u x ku z )u z
,
T=
=
g
g
2
and
kg 2
t
2
g
z (t ) = u sin t t 2
2
x(t ) = u cos t
so, the trajectory curve must intercept both the x and z axes twice both x and
z are quadratic in time.
Page 5
Q7
We need to calculate the displacement vectors of the two aircraft at 15:00.
375 km
r2
60o
r1
400 km
This diagram is constructed by looking at the facts of the question. The first
aircraft travels due east at 400 km/h for an hour so its displacement vector is r1
and the second travels 60o east of north at 450 km/h for 50 minutes so r2 is its
displacement vector.
The magnitude of r is then just:
r = 400 2 + 375 2 2 400 375 cos 30 = 202 km.

The bearing is just 90o + , and is given by:
r
r
= 1 .
sin 30 sin
This gives as 68.2o and hence as 158o.

Q8
Page 6
The question is asking for the components of the vector R in some coordinate
system. We will choose the coordinates depicted in the diagram above.
The end of the vector R has coordinates:
x = r cos
y = r (1 + sin )
If the rate at which angle is swept out by r is , then
at

cos +
+
cos(
t
)
v
,
= a
R = r
at
1 + sin(t + )
1 + sin +
v
for r = a and v the uniform speed of the rotating point (v = a). So that R = 0
at t = 0 we must have = /2.
Q9
30o
8 m/s
vR
The speed of the car will of course be the magnitude of vR, which is the
relative horizontal velocity of the rain with respect to the car:
Page 7

vR =
Q10
8
= 13.9 m/s
tan 30
(i) For components that are equal in magnitude then each component has a
length of 10sin(45) = 7.1 m/s.
(ii) When one component has a magnitude twice that of the other we have
5 v2 = 102
v = 4.5 m/s.
Q11
(a) Newtons second law for the 5 blocks would be written:

F = (5m)a a =
F
.
5m
(b) The resultant force on each cube must be
F
F
F
as
.
= ma and a =
5m
5
5
(c) The resultant force F* on the 5th cube due to the 4th cube must accelerate
2m at a, therefore
F 2F
.
F * = 2m.a = 2m
=
5
5m
Now that means that the force on the 4th cube due to the 5th cube is easily
2F
obtained through Newtons 3 rd law as
, which of course is just enough
5
2 F 3F
(just what is
to make the resultant on cubes 1, 2 and 3 equal to F
=
5
5
F
).
needed to accelerate 3 blocks at a =
5m
Q12
Let u be the initial speed of the bullet and v be its final speed. Then v = u + at:
0 = 300 a (0.01),
So, a = 3 104 m/s2. This means that the resistive force has a magnitude of:
F = ma = 20 103 3 104 = 600 N.
Q13
In this sort of problem it is always tempting to mix up acceleration and field

strength, so be very careful. A common mistake is to think that the N/kg of a
field strength is the same thing as the m/s2. To do this is to confuse
gravitational and inertial masses. Lets see how we can avoid this confusion:
When the lift is accelerating upwards there must be a resultant force on the
man to accelerate him upwards. This of course must be provided by the
normal reaction R of the floor of the lift:
F = ma = R W = ma R = ma + W
The reading on the scale is of course just going to have the magnitude of R, so
(a) When the lift is accelerating upwards at 5 m/s the reading on the scales is:
1040 N.
(b) When the lift is accelerating downwards at 5 m/s the reading on the scales
is: 337 N.
Page 8

Q14
As the balloon is rising at 10 m/s when the sand bag is released, the sand bag
continues to rise a little with decreasing speed until it reaches 0 m/s. It will
then begin to fall accelerating downwards at 10 m/s2. It will of course reach
10 m/s once it returns to the height at which it was initially released.
Therefore the speed when it hits the ground must be given by:
v 2 = u 2 + 2 gh = (10) 2 + 2(10)(600) v = 110 m/s
Assuming no re-bound we have Impulse = 10 kg 110 m/s = 1100 kg m/s.
Q15
As the gun fires the truck (mass M) recoils and because the shell (mass m) is in
a barrel for the first few split seconds of its journey, the recoil motion of the
truck is also imparted to the shell.
For such a problem the first thing to do is to translate the situation into a
vector diagram (see diagrams below). Let the recoil velocity be V and the
final velocity of the shell be v.
Using the conservation of momentum in the horizontal plane gives:
MV mv cos = 0
V
Recoil velocity
Direction of shells initial
velocity
Barrel
Using the vector diagram:

V
sin( )
v
.
sin
Using our first expression in conjunction with this we get:

M (sin cos cos sin ) = m cos sin
M tan cos = (m + M ) sin
m
tan = 1 + tan
M
Q16
We of course have one of the standard triangles:
Page 9
pf = 10m
p = 5 3 m
60o
pi = 5m
So, if
5m
5m
p i = , p f =
0
5 3m
then
0
.
p =
5 3m
If this impulse is applied to a mass of 5m at rest then the resulting motion will
be the velocity vector:
v=
p 0
= .
5m 3
Q17
v
30o
With the balls being smooth, the subsequent motion of the two balls of mass m
must be along the lines joining the centres (dotted lines). Using the expression
of part (a) in 1.2.4 we get:
Page 10
e =1=
v1 v 2
v
2v
=
=
u 2 cos u1 cos u cos 30 u 3
Conservation of momentum in the original direction of u gives:

Mu = 2mv cos 30x = mv 3x
Therefore,
M v
3
3
=
3=
3= .
m u
2
2
Q18
It really pays in questions like this one to resolve everything along appropriate
coordinate axes. The diagram below has the direction YX in the horizontal
and we consider momentum equations in this direction or in the direction
perpendicular to it:
I = mv x cos + mv y +
0=
mv z
2
momentum in YX direction
mv z 3
+ mv x sin
2
momentum YX direction
Also, the fact that the strings are inextensible means that the motions of Y and
Z are restricted:
v y = v x cos
v z = v x cos(60 + )
Z
m
vz
30o
m vy
Y
60
vx
With our restriction on the velocities of Y and Z we immediately see that:

v
I
= 2v x cos + z
m
2
2v z = v x (cos 3 sin )
So,
Page 11
15v z
v
2I
I
= 7v z + z =
vz =
2
2
15m
m
and
2v
3
v z v z = x cos .
2
7
2v z = v x cos 3
Now,
7
v z = v x cos
2
3
v z = v x sin
2
3
. Finally we can put our results for vz and back into
7
our expressions for vx and vy to obtain:
therefore tan =
2 13I
15m
7I
vy =
15m
vx =
Q19
R1
R2
m
The point C is the centre of mass of this system of two masses. Let us stay in
the 1-d line of the line joining the centres of these two masses. The position
vectors as determined with respect to the centre of mass are shown. In terms
of the relative initial speed u and the relative final speed v the initial and final
speeds of the masses are:
M
u
m+M
m
u2 =
u
m+M
M
v1 =
v
m+M
m
v
v2 =
m+M
u1 =
So, the impulse I on the smaller mass is given by

I = mv1 mu1 =
mM
(v u ) ,
m+M
Page 12
but, v = eu , so I =
mM
(1 + e)u .
m+M
Q20
After the first impact

(1 e)u
2
(1 + e)u
v2 =
2
v1 =
For the second impact u 2 =
(1 + e)u
,
2
So, finally
(1 e) (1 + e)
(1 e 2 )
u=
u
2
2
4
(1 + e) (1 + e)
(1 + e) 2
u=
u
=
2
2
4
v 2final =
v3final
Page 13
2 Fields
Q1
For there to be no acceleration, the fields due to the other charges must be equal
and opposite. Let the position of the test charge be x. Let us denote the position
of charge q as a = 0.5m.
q
ax
q
a
q
q
=
= 1+
x = a1 +
2
2
x
Q
x
Q
Q
4 0 x
4 0 (a x )
If the test charge is moved off the x-axis, then the electric field will
subsequently have a component pushing away from the x-axis. Thus if the
charge is positive it will not return to equilibrium, but if it is negative, it will.
However, if it remains on the x-axis, we can calculate the net field at position x
as
E=
Q
4 0 x
q
dE
Q
q
=
, thus
.
2
3
3
dx
2 0 x
4 0 (a x )
2 0 (a x )
Thus in the region 0 < x < a, we see that dE/dx < 0. Now, when the test charge is
at the equilibrium position, E = 0. Given that dE/dx < 0, if we move it to larger
x, E < 0; while if we move it to smaller x, E > 0. This means that a positive test
charge will tend to return to equilibrium if displaced along the x-axis, but a
negative charge will not.
To sum up, positive test charges are in stable equilibrium in the x-direction, but
unstable equilibrium in the y-direction. The converse is true for negative test
charges.
Q2
Firstly, the Earth is not a perfect sphere, so parts of the Earth are further from its
centre, and thus experience a lower gravitational field strength. Given that the
Earth is oblate (equator bulges outwards), we would expect weaker gravitational
field at the equator, and stronger field at the poles. The matter is complicated
because when you measure the weight of a mass on the rotating Earth, you
automatically get the field strength with a component of centripetal acceleration
subtracted from it. Given that you are moving faster as a result of the Earths
rotation when you are on the Equator, this subtraction is greatest on the Equator,
and so we expect the measured value of g to be lowest relative to the true
gravitational value of g at the Equator too.
Scales calibrated in London measure apparent weight W, and give a reading on
the dial in kilograms equal to W / 9.81183Nkg1. Thus we may say that 72.00kg
= W / 9.81183Nkg1. My weight in Madras is given by 9.78281Nkg1 m, where
m is my true mass. Putting these two together gives
9.78281 Nkg 1 m
9.81183
= 72.00kg m = 72.00kg
= 72.21kg .
1
9.78281
9.81183 Nkg
Q3
Let us denote the mass of Sun and Earth by M and m respectively, with R the
distance between them. Let us now say that for each unit of mass, the objects
are given charge q. Thus the charge on the Sun is now Mq, while the charge on
the Earth is mq.
Page 14
GM
, while the
R2
Mq
. Thus the
electrostatic field at the Earth caused by the Sun would be
4 0 R 2
GMm
, while the electrostatic force of
gravitational force of attraction is
R2
Mqmq
. These two are equal when
repulsion is
4 0 R 2
The gravitational field at the Earth caused by the Sun is
GMm q 2 Mm
q2
=
G=
q = 4 0 G = 8.61 10 11 Ckg 1 .
2
2
4 0
4 0 R
R
Accordingly, the charge on the Earth would have to be

mq = 5.981024 kg 8.611011 Ckg1 = 5.151014 C.
Q4
a)
When the particle is on the x-axis, we can write the x-component of the
force as Fx = kx. Accordingly, the force needed to push the particle
away from the origin is Fx, and the work done by this force in moving
the particle to position x=a is given by
a
W = Fx dx = kx dx = 12 ka 2 .
Thus the potential energy function W ( x ) = 12 kx 2 .
b)
If we write r = x 2 + y 2 as the distance from the point to the origin, we

see that F = kr, and is pointed back towards the origin. Thus the integral
in part (a) can be re-run in the r-direction to give a potential energy for
any point in space of W (r ) = 12 kr 2 = 12 k (x 2 + y 2 ) .
c)
If the line joining the point to the origin makes angle with the x-axis,
then the x-component of the force is Fx = F cos = kr x/r = kx,
while the y-component of the force is Fy = F sin = kr y/r = ky.
Thus as a vector
x
F = k .
y
d)
1
W
=
k x 2 + y 2 = kx
x 2
x
W
1
2
2
(
) = ky
=
2k x + y
y
y
Thus Fx =
W
W
and Fy =
as we should expect.
y
x
Page 15
Q5
9y
9y
= 6 x
6x
x
z
z
9x
9x
= 2 z
, so the total force would be F = mg = m 2 z
.
gy =
y
z
z
9 xy
9 xy
2y + 2
= 2 y + 2
gz =
z
z
z
Q6
a)
= 65 y 2 z
b)
= 54 xy 3 z
c)
Not possible.
d)
Not possible.
e)
gx =
Q7
a)
b)
c)
d)
3
2
(x
+ y2 + z2
h
= 0.06 , this means that for every metre you travel East, you rise by
x
0.06m.
h
= 0.02 , this means that for every metre you travel North, you fall by
y
0.02m.
If the surface were curved, at least one of the gradients calculated in parts
(a) or (b) would be dependent upon position (i.e. they would be functions
of x or y).
0.06
. In
The gradient is steepest in the direction of the vector =
0.02
this direction, you go 0.02m North for every 0.06m travelled East, and
accordingly your bearing is given by tan1(0.06/0.02) = tan1 3 =
108.4.
If you wish to check, suppose you travel a distance s in a on a bearing .

This means that you move s sin East, and s cos North. Your new
height will be different to your old one by h = 0.06s sin 0.02s cos .
We now choose the value of to maximise the value of h for a given,
fixed, value of s.
(h )
The maximum value of h occurs
= 0.06 s cos + 0.02 s sin .
when this partial derivative is zero, so 0.06 cos + 0.02 sin = 0, hence
tan = 3 as before.
e)
0.06
, and
The maximum gradient is given by the magnitude of =
0.02
is thus equal to 0.06 2 + ( 0.02) = 0.0632K We can check this by

feeding the bearing calculated in part (d) into the formula for h. =
108.4, so h = 0.0632s. The gradient equals h/s = 0.0632 as before.
2
Page 16
f)
You need to walk perpendicular to the direction calculated in part (d)

that is along a bearing of 18.4or 198.4. This is the direction in which h
= 0, as can be checked using the equation for Dh given in part (d).
g)
Using the formula, the height of (100,200) is 102m, while (300,800) has a
height of 102m. Thus there is no change of height.
Using our answers to (a) and (b), we have walked 200m East, and thus
expect to rise 0.06200 = 12m. We have also walked 600m North, and
thus expect to rise 0.02600 = 12m. When these are combined, we see
that we have neither risen nor fallen.
Q8
x

a&b) Any positive scalar multiple of r = y points in the same direction as r.
z

This vector has length x 2 + y 2 + z 2 , and so to make a vector which has
unit length but points in the same direction as r, we divide r by
x2 + y2 + z2 .
c)
x2 + y2 + z2 ,
Using our information from part (a), where r =
x
GM
GM
GM 1
g = 2 r = 2 y = 3
r
r
r r
z
x

GM
y = 2
x + y2 + z2
z

32
x

y.
z

To find the potential function, we integrate the x-component of g with

respect to x, and put a minus sign in front:
=
=
(x
GMx
+ y2 + z
GM
2
2x +y +z
2
2 32
2 32
dx =
( )
d x2 =
GM
2 x2 + y2 + z2
GM
(x
+ y2 + z2
12
32
2 x dx
+ C ( y, z )
where the arbitrary constant can not be a function of x, but could be a

function of y or z. We get identical answers (except for the arbitrary
constants) by integrating the y-component of g with respect to y, or by
integrating the z-component of g with respect to z, so this must be an
acceptable solution for the potential. We usually take the convention of
setting the arbitrary constant to zero so that the potential is zero at infinite
distance from the mass M.
Q9 a)
Integrating the x-component of E with respect to x gives Axy + C(y,z).

Integrating the y-component of E with respect to y gives Axy + C(x,z).
There is no choice of the arbitrary constants which allows these to
formulae to be consistent. Therefore E can not be written as the gradient
of a scalar function in this case.
b)
We are going to use our first method of evaluating path integrals, as in

part (a) of Workshop 2.6. If we take our path of integration as a circle in
the xy plane of radius r, centred on the origin in the clockwise direction,
then we find that at all points on the circle, E points in the opposite
Page 17

direction
to
our

path.
The
magnitude
of
is
given by
E = E x2 + E y2 = A 2 y 2 + A 2 x 2 = Ar , and is the same for all points along

the circular path. The line integral is therefore equal to E length of
path = 2r E = 2Ar2, where the minus sign comes from the fact that
our path is in the opposite direction to E, and thus cos = 1, with
defined as in Workshop 2.6.
Q10 E =
Q11
Q
4 0 r 2
6 10 6 C
= 5991 NC 1
2
12
1
4 8.854 10 Fm (3m )
8.854 10 12 Fm 1 1m 2
, so
Using equation (2.27) we require 1F =
d
8.854 10 12 Fm 1 1m 2
= 8.854 10 12 m . This is clearly impossible,
1F
but if the area of the plates could be made bigger, then an insulating layer
made one molecule thick by an electrochemical process at the interface
between the plates might be possible. That said, using certain kinds of
dielectric (insulating) materials between the plate can reduce the area
needed because of their ability to polarize. A discussion of polarizability
is beyond this text...
d=
Q12
Normally, using an inverse square law, we would expect that as our

distance to the Earths centre has halved, the gravitational field should
have quadrupled to 39.2 Nkg1. However, only the mass of the Earth
closer to the centre than our position will cause field lines at our position
so only this mass should be counted. Assuming the Earth to have uniform
density (which it doesnt), the mass contained within radius r of material
will be proportional to its volume and hence to r3. Thus when you are half
way to the Earths centre, a sphere drawn through your position, centred
on the Earths centre will include 0.53 = 0.125 of the Earths mass. We
reduce our estimate for the Earths field strength accordingly, and get a
final answer of 4.9Nkg1, exactly half that measured at the surface.
Q13
Suppose the distance of the object from the centre is r. As shown in Q12,
the gravitational field at this point is given by gE r/RE where gE is
9.8Nkg1 and RE is the radius of the Earth. The object is therefore subject
to a force equal to mgE r/RE directed towards the centre of the Earth, and
experiences an acceleration of gE r/RE. Given that this is proportional to r,
we have the conditions for simple harmonic motion (see section 4.1.1 for
a
workshop
on
this
topic),
with
angular
frequency
3
1
= g E RE = 1.237 10 rad s . The time period is 2/ = 5077s or
1hr 24 mins 38s. The time for a journey from the U.K. to Australia is
therefore half of this, namely about 42 minutes.
Q14
Let the distance of the object from the centre of the straight tunnel be d,
and the distance of this centre from the Earths centre be L. The direct
distance of our object to the Earths centre is given by Pythagoras
Accordingly, the local value of the
theorem as r = d 2 + L2 .
gravitational field will be given by g = gE r/RE, and the force on the object
will be mgE r/RE However, this force does not act in the direction of the
tunnel, and only the component of the force which is parallel to the tunnel
Page 18
can affect the motion along it. The true gravitational field makes angle
= cos1 (d/r) to the direction of the tunnel pointing inwards and thus the
component of the force acting along the tunnel is given by mgE r/RE d/r
= mgE d/RE. Once more, we have an acceleration directed towards the
tunnels centre of magnitude gE d/RE, and so we have simple harmonic
motion
as
before,
with
the
same
time
period
3
1
= g E RE = 1.237 10 rad s .
d
r
L
Q15 Iron has a greater magnetic permeability than air, and so field lines will
preferentially run in iron instead of air. This enables the pole pieces to funnel
the field lines together before they reach the gap. Thus the field in the gap is
stronger than it would be without the pole pieces, but is concentrated in a
smaller area. Given that irons saturation magnetization is such that an iron bar
can not be magnetized to produce much more than 1T (unaided), the use of pole
pieces enables permanent magnets with fields in excess of this to be made.
Q16 First, please note that the surface is a spherical shell, not a sphere. Let us take
our surface of integration as any spherical surface inside the shell, centred on
the centre of the shell. The total charge enclosed by this surface is zero (since
there is no charge inside the shell), and therefore E dS = 0 over this surface.
S
By symmetry, E must be the same at all points on the surface, and must either
be directed inwards or outwards. The only way the integral can be true is if E =
0 at all points on the surface, and hence within the shell. If the very centre of
the Earth were hollow, there would be no mass in this hollow, and so we must
Page 19

expect
g dS = 0 on any spherical surface within this cavity, and thus g = 0 at

S
all points within the cavity. This can be proved in a much more messy manner
by showing that the gravitational attractions in all directions cancel out.
Q17 Firstly, we set up a spherical surface centred on the centre of the sphere with
radius r, where r < R. Given that the charge per volume of the material is
uniform, the share of the volume enclosed by our surface is r 3 R 3 , and thus the
charge enclosed is Qr 3 R 3 .
Accordingly, on our surface we have
Qr 3
S E dS = R 3 , and given the symmetry of the situation, we can say that E will
be directed either inwards or outwards and will have the same magnitude at all
Qr 3
points on our surface (which has area S = 4r2). Therefore 4r 2 E = 3 and
R
Qr
. Please note that this formula only applies when r < R. Once r > R,
E=
4R 3
Q
then the normal Coulomb formula E =
applies. Given that a positive test
4r 2
charge would be pushed outwards by this field, it is clear that E acts outwards at
all points.
The potential function can then be written as
Qr
, so
= E =
r
4R 3
Qr 2
+ C , where C is the arbitrary constant of integration. While we can
8R 3
3Q
choose C to be any value, it is usually taken as C = +
so that the function
8R
is continuous across r=R if we take the potential outside the material to be
Q
in order that the potential falls to zero as we travel to infinity and
=
4R
away from the influence of the charge.
Page 20
3 Rotation
Q1
One astronomical unit (nominally, the distance from the Sun to the Earth) is
about 1.5 1011 m.
The circumference of a circle with an arc length of 1 AU subtended by 1 second
or arc is: 360 o 60'60' '1.5 1011 m or 1.9 1017 m.
The radius of such a circle is then:
1.9 1017
= 3.0 1016 m (this is in fact called
2
a parsec of parallax-second).
Q2
The circumference of a wheel of 40 cm radius is: 2 0.4 m. As we can see,

the answer to the question will now entirely depend on how well we know the
measurement. Let us imagine we know (as the text suggests), d, the 140 km
very well indeed (140.00000000000000 km). The number of revolutions n is
given by:
1
n=
d
d r
=
1 .
r
2 ( r r ) 2r
The second expression may be expanded using a Taylor expansion:
(1 + x) 1 = 1 x + x 2 x 3 + x 4 ....,1 < x < 1

(1 x) 1 = 1 + x x 2 + x 3 x 4 ....,1 < x < 1
By putting
r
r
= x we have:
n=
d
dr
,
m
2r 2r 2
if we neglect terms second order in
r
r
as they will be very small.
If we insist on knowing the revolutions to within one revolution then:

dr
~1
2r 2
so,
r ~ 7 10-6 m or less.
Q3&4 The diagram below shows a wheel rotating at the instant the point A is in
contact with the ground. The velocities of various points are shown for this
instant in time. With no slip, the point A is instantaneously at rest with respect
with the ground and the lines AP, AQ and AP instantaneously rotate about A
with an angular speed. Therefore the speed of the gum on the rim with
respect to the axle is just
v = r = 30 m/s.
In the coordinate system shown, the coordinates of points on the rim are
related by the following algebraic expression:
x 2 + ( y R) 2 = R 2
Page 21

y-axis
2v
v
vP
P
P
vP'
y
x
x-axis
From the diagram we see that the lengths AP and AP are just
AP = AP = x 2 + y 2 = 2 yR
Therefore the speed with respect to the ground (magnitudes of vP and vP) is
just:
2y
;
R
v( y ) = 2 yR = v
that is, the instantaneous speed of points on the wheel is a function of the height
of the points above the ground.
Q5
r
y
O
x
C
0.05
The position is momentarily at: 0.00 , and at this point the velocity in m/s is:
0.03
Page 22
0.05 0 0.05 0.0

v = 0.00 = 0 0.00 = 0.5
0.03 10 0.03 0.0

After 5 s the vector will have rotated a further 50 radians or
50
= 7.96
2
revolutions.
Q6
w
u
O
x
The angular velocity vector may be represented in terms of its orientation in our
coordinate system. If the angles made with the x, y and z axes by the vector
are respectively , and , then may be written as:
cos
= cos ,
cos
where is the magnitude of the angular velocity. The velocity of the point due
to this pure rotation is then just
z cos y cos
cos x

v = r = cos y = x cos z cos ,
y cos x cos
cos z
u

that is, if the velocity v were a consequence of a pure rotation, the
w

components of the vector v above would equal to u, v and w respectively.
Notice that
ux + vy + wz = 0 ,
Page 23
for all t if the velocity were a consequence of a pure rotation.

Q7
To differentiate (3.11) we need to replace all t with (t), so that is the first
derivative of (t) with respect to time:
sin
x
d
y = cos
dt
0
cos
sin
0 x' cos

0 y ' + sin
0 z ' 0
sin
cos
0
0 x& '

0 y& ' .
1 z& '
Differentiating this expression with respect to t a second time leads to 5 terms:
x
sin
d2
&
=
y
cos
dt 2
0
z
cos

+ sin
0

sin
+ cos
0
cos
sin
0
sin
cos
0
cos
sin
0
0 x'

0 y '
0 z '
0 x' sin

0 y ' + cos
0 z ' 0
0 x& ' cos

0 y& ' + sin
0 z& ' 0
x'

and collecting these terms in y ' ,
z'

sin
& cos
0
sin
cos
cos
sin
0
0 x'
cos

2
0 y ' + sin
0
0
0 z '
cos 0 x& '

sin 0 y& '
0
0 z& '
sin
cos
0
0 x& '

0 y& '
0 z& '
0 &x&'

0 &y&'
1 &z&'
&x&'
x& '

y& ' and &y&' we get:
&z&'
z& '

cos
sin
sin
2 cos
0
cos
sin
0
sin
cos
0
0 x'

0 y '
0 z '
0 &x&'

0 &y&'
1 &z&'
x'

d
d
The first of the terms in y ' is recognisable as r r, where r is the rate
dt
dt
z'

of change of angular velocity represented as a vector of magnitude & and
direction along the axis of rotation, which in this case is along the z-axis:
Page 24

sin
& cos
0
cos
sin
0 x'
y x y z

d
0 y ' = & x = 0 0 & = r r
dt
0 x y z
0 z '
x'
x

The second term in y ' is immediately recognisable as 2 y = 2r , but as
z'
z

we see in Q9 this is just:
( r) = 2r,
r in these expressions represents the displacement vector in the primed

coordinates rotated into the un-primed coordinates.
x& '

The term in y& ' also has the property of a vector cross product:
z& '

sin
2 cos
0
cos
sin
0
0 x& '
x y z
y&

d
0 y& ' = 2 x& = 2 0 0 = 2 r r
dt
0
0 z& '
x& y& z&
dr
r here represents the velocity vector in the primed coordinates
dt
rotated into the un-primed coordinates.
Where
&x&'

The final term in &y&' is obviously the acceleration vector in the primed
&z&'

coordinates as seen from the un-primed coordinates:
cos
sin
0
sin
cos
0
0 &x&'

d2
0 &y&' = r2 r
dt
1 &z&'
Our 5 terms can therefore be summarised symbolically as follows:

d2
da
d
d
v = r2 r + r r + 2 r r + ( r).
dt
dt
dt
dt
Q8
(i)
The point on the millstone is stationary with respect to the millstone and there is
no angular acceleration so the acceleration expression collapses to:
da
v = ( r) = 2r,
dt
Page 25
da
v = 82 0.6 = 35 m/s2 and the direction
dt
is towards the centre of the millstone.
as is r. So, the magnitude of

(ii)
If there is an angular deceleration the acceleration expression collapses to:

da
d
v = r r + ( r).
dt
dt
These two components are perpendicular to each other.
dr
dt
r
2r
dr
r
dt
The resultant acceleration will have a magnitude:

a = (8 2 0.6) 2 + (0.2 0.6) 2 = 38 m/s2,
0 .2 0 .6
o
with a direction that makes an angle tan 1
= 18 with the radius
64
0
.
6
vector r.
Q9
Using the expressions for vector triple products,

da
v = ( r) = ( r) 2r = 2r as and r are perpendicular.
dt
Q10
d2
da
d
d
d
d
v = r2 r + r r + 2 r r + ( r). If a v = 0 and r = 0,
dt
dt
dt
dt
dt
dt
then
0=
d r2
d
r + 2 r r + ( r).
2
dt
dt
Now,
da
d
d
d
r = r r + r r r = a r r,
dt
dt
dt
dt
so,
Page 26
0=
da
d
d r2
d r2
r
+
2
(
r
r
)+
r
)
=
r + 2 a r ( r).
2
2
dt
dt
dt
dt
With
da
r = v x , r = r x and = z we have:
dt
d r2
r = 2r y 2r x ;
2
dt
that is, a combination of a centripetal acceleration and a Coriolis effect.

Q11&12 The force keeping the satellite in circular orbit is provided by the
gravitational interaction:
m 2 r =
GmM
,
r2
where m and M are respectively the mass of the satellite and the mass of the
planet, and is angular frequency of the orbit. This of course leads to:
3
4 2
2
r = GM T =
r2 .
2
T
GM
r
r = R + r
So,
T=
2
G 43 R 3
(R + r )
3
2
r 2
1 + ,
R
G 43
where is the density of the planet material. The expression in the bracket can
be expanded using a Taylor expansion:
1
(1 + x) 2 = 1 + 12 x 18 x 2 + 383 x 3 ...., 1 < x 1 ,
and with x = r/R << 1 we see that:

T=
3
;
G
that is, to a good approximation, T for this low orbit satellite is only a function
of the density of the material that the planet is made of.
Page 27
Q13
R2
R1
m1
m2
If we choose our origin of coordinates to be C the centre of mass, then
m1 R 1 + m2 R 2 = 0 .
This of course means that:
m1 2 R1 =
Gm1 m2
( R1 + R2 ) 2
m 2 2 R2 =
Gm1 m2
( R1 + R2 ) 2
Adding these two expressions together we get:
2 ( R1 + R2 ) =
G (m1 + m2 )
.
( R1 + R2 ) 2
So,
T2 =
4 2
a3 ,
G (m1 + m2 )
where a = (R1 + R2).

Q14 Now V is the orbital speed, which is essentially made up of a radial bit and a
tangential bit. The vector V would be:
V = r&x '+ ry ' ,
where x ' and y ' are unit vectors in the rotating coordinate system attached to
the planet. The square modulus of this vector is:
V 2 = r& 2 + r 2 2 .
Using the expressions for r and h given in the text of the question we find:
h
p
(e sin ) = e sin
2
p
(1 + e cos )
h
r = (1 + e cos )
p
r& =
Therefore we can write V2 as:

V2 =
h2 2
h2
2
e
sin
+
(1 + e cos ) 2
2
2
p
p
This expression may be factorised a number of different ways depending on the

value one ascribes to e. If e is less that 1 we would try:
Page 28

V2 =
2p
h2 2
h2
2
2
2
+
+
+
=
(1 e 2 ) +
sin
1
2
cos
cos
e
e
e
2
2
r
p
p
Giving:
V2 =
h2
p
2 1
r a .
For e greater than 1:
h2 2
h2
2
2
2
V = 2 e sin + 1 + 2e cos + e cos = 2
p
p
2
2p
2
(e 1) + r
Giving:
V2 =
h2
p
2 1
r + a
For e = 1 the expression for V2 collapses to:
h2
p
V2 =
2
r .

Finally,
h2
h2
G (m1 + m2 ) =
.
p=
G (m1 + m2 )
p
Q15 Keplers 3rd law and the results of the last exercise give us:
T2 =
4 2 3
a
GM
and
2 1
V 2 = GM .
r a
The mass of the satellite compared to that of the Sun means that the (m1 + m2)
that would appear if their masses were comparable is replaced by M. A boost is
applied momentarily so that it may be treated as an impulse. Differentiating the
V2 expression we get:
a
a
2
2VV = GM 2 r + 2 ~ GM 2 .
a
a
r
as the boost is very short and in that time r ~ 0.

Differentiating the Kepler law gives:
2TT =
4 2 2
3a a .
GM
Combining these two differentials with the 3rd law:

4
8
6 2
3T 3 VV
GM 3
.
TT = 2 2 VVT 3 2 T =
2
G M
4
(2GM ) 3
Page 29
4 Oscillations & Waves

Q1
= 2f = 8 rad/s. Given that we start with the displacement equal to the

amplitude, we should use a cosine wave. y = 4cm cos (8t), where we assume
that t is in seconds.
Q2
= 2f = 20 rad/s. The amplitude is 5cm, so our equation will take the form y
= 5cm cos (20t+). Using the initial condition y = 3cm, we have 0.6 = cos
and so = 0.927 rad. We choose the negative value of to ensure that y gets
bigger as t increases from zero. Our solution is therefore y = 5cm cos (20t
0.927). Please note that it is essential that we work in radians throughout else
our angular frequency will need to be different (if it were in degrees/s) and the
calculus we are about to do later in the chapter wouldnt work.
Q3
If we write our oscillation as y = 3 cos t + 4 sin t = A cos(t + ) , then it

follows that y = 3 cos t + 4 sin t = A cos t cos A sin t sin , and so A cos
= 3 and A sin = 4. From this we can tell that = tan1(1.3333) = 0.927
rad or 2.214 rad, and we choose the smaller so that cos is positive, while sin
2
2
is negative. Meanwhile ( A cos ) + ( A sin ) = A 2 = 25 , so A = 5.
Q4
The particle describes a figure of eight motion as in the diagram below.
Q5
Firstly, we remember that = 2f, and k = 2/. Therefore
Q6
= 2f = 27 = 43.98 rad/s, and k = 2/ = 3.142 m1.
2f
= f = c .
2
Given the
parameters, we want a peak at x=0 when t=0, so we choose a cosine wave.
y = 3cm cos(43.98t 3.142x), where we assume that t is in seconds, and x in
metres.
Q7
The only thing we need to change is the sign of the co-efficient of x.

y = 3cm cos(43.98t + 3.142x)
Q8
Adding the results of Q6 and Q7, we get
Page 30
y = A cos(t kx ) + A cos(t + kx )
= A cos t cos kx + A sin t sin kx + A cos t cos kx A sin t sin kx
= 2 A cos t cos kx
= 6cm cos(43.98t )cos(3.142 x )
The nodes occur whenever cos(3.142x) = 0, namely at x = 0.5m, 1.5m, 2.5m...

The amplitude of the oscillation is given by everything that multiplies the cos
(43.98t), namely 6cm cos 3.142x.
Q9
Complex amplitude after superposition (summing)
T = Ae i + A + Ae i = A + A e i + e i = A + 2 A cos , where we use the result

from part (p) of Workshop 4.2.
Modulus square amplitude = TT * = ( A + 2 A cos )
Full constructive interference occurs when cos = 1, so = 0, 2, 4...

Full destructive interference occurs when cos = 0.5, so = 2/3, 4/3, 8/3,
10/3...
Q10 We use the standard result that the sum of the series
1 a p
. A proof of this in the case of an infinite
1 a
series is given as part (g) of Workshop 6.5.3, and the proof is readily adaptable
to the finite series here.
1 + a + a + a + L + a p 1 =
2
The complex amplitude for the waves when they all meet is given by
1 e iN
, where we use the
1 e i
p =0
geometric series formula with a = ei. The modulus square amplitude is given
by
N 1
T = Ae ip = A 1 + e i + e 2i + L + e i ( N 1) = A
2 1
iN
e iN
1 e iN 1 e iN
2 2e
2 2 2 cos N
2 sin ( 2 N )
=
=
=
A
A
A
2 2 cos
sin 2 ( 12 )
1 e i 1 e i
2 e i e i
where we use the trignometrical result that 1 cos 2 = 2 sin2 .
TT * = A 2
It is immediately apparent that we shall have full destructive interference

whenever sin (N/2) = 0, providing sin(/2)0. Thus full destructive
interference occurs when = 2/N, 4/N, 6/N... but not including = 2, 4,
6...
For the constructive interference, we need to be a bit more sneaky. When = 0,
all the waves are in step with no phase difference, so there must be constructive
interference. The same is expected whenever = 2, 4, 6... since this is in
practice indistinguishable from the =0 case. We just need to check this from
our formula. When is small, we may approximate sin , and so
1
sin 2 ( 12 N )
2 ( 2 N )
A
= A 2 N 2 . Thus the intensity when we have
2
2 1
1
sin ( 2 )
(2 )
constructive interference is A2N2.
2
TT * = A 2
Q11 N=3:
Page 31
N=5:
N=10
Page 32
When N=10 000, we expect bright constructive interference when = 0, 2,

4..., and almost total destructive interference at all other places.
Q12 The frequencies listed will be the fundamental notes for each string, and as
such, the string will be half the wavelength of the sound involved. Thus the
wavelength for all the waves considered here will be twice the string length
namely 1.00m. With the wavelength known, we have
c = f =
, so f 2 2 =
and =
. The densities can then be
f 2 2
calculated as in the table. Please note that densities have been given in grams
per metre to make the numbers nicer.
String
Frequency
(Hz)
Density (g/m)
196
1.30
293
0.58
440
0.26
660
0.11
If the tensions in the strings were different, the excess tension in the higher
strings would cause a torsion which would tend to twist and warp the violins
neck to one side.
Q13 For a transverse wave on a string, T = c2, as in section 4.8. Therefore
Z c =
T
T
c= .
2
c
c
Q14 P = 12 ZA 2 2 =
=
T 2
2
A (ck ) = 12 Tck 2 A 2
c
Z
. As the question says, the tensions in the two strings must
c T Z
T
be equal. It is also true that when a wave moves from one medium to another,
its frequency can not change, since the boundary can not make more waves each
second than it is provided with. Given that and T are the same on either side
of the boundary, it follows that k and Z must be in proportion, and thus the ratio
of the impedances is the same as the ratio of the wave numbers.
Q15 k =
1
2
Q16 Using equation (4.37), the power incident on the join is Pi = 12 Z L Ai2 2 , while
the power transmitted is Pt = 12 Z R At2 2 . It follows that the fraction of incident
power transmitted is
2
Pt Z R At2 Z R At
4Z L Z R
Z 2Z L
= R
=
, where we have used
=
=
2
Pi Z L Ai
Z L Ai
ZL ZL + ZR
(Z L + Z R )2
equation (4.48) for the ratio of the amplitudes. Similarly
2
Pr Z L Ar2 Ar Z L Z R
=
= =
Pi Z L Ai2 Ai Z L + Z R
that Pr + Pt = Pi, and so...
. For energy to be conserved, we require
Page 33
Pt + Pr 4Z L Z R + (Z L Z R )
4Z L Z R + Z L2 + Z R2 2Z L Z R Z L2 + Z R2 + 2Z L Z R
=
=
=
=1
Pi
(Z L + Z R )2
(Z L + Z R )2
(Z L + Z R )2
2
as it should be.
Q17 Using the definition of the scalar product and its form in Cartesian co-ordinates
(as shown in Workshop 2.3), we have
E
= E cos(t k r ) = E cos(t k x x k y y k z z )
x x
x
dE cos(t k x x k y y k z z ) (t k x x k y y k z z )
=
d (t k x x k y y k z z )
x
= E sin (t k x x k y y k z z ) ( k x ) = Ek x sin (t k x x k y y k z z )
Q18 a)
I=
P
3.9 10 26 W
=
A 4 1.50 1011 m
b)
I=
P
3.9 10 26 W
=
= 64.1MWm 2
2
8
A 4(6.96 10 m )
= 1380Wm 2
Page 34
5 Circuits
Q1
Using the suggestions in the hints at the bottom of the page

a)
Number of free electrons per metre of wire

= Number of free electrons per m3 volume of 1m of wire = n A
b)
The number of electrons which occupy length u of wire

= Number of electrons per metre of wire u = n A u.
c)
Total charge on these electrons = no. of electrons charge on 1 electron

= n A u q = quAn.
Q2
Note that area of 1.5mm2 is the same as 1.5106 m2.

u=
Q3
A = 0.02mm2 = 2108 m2.

u=
Q4
I
13A
=
= 5.42 10 4 ms 1
19
6
3
2
29
qAn 1.6 10 C 1.5 10 m 1.0 10 m
I
0.01A
=
= 3.13 10 4 ms 1 .
19
qAn 1.6 10 C 2 10 8 m 2 1.0 10 20 m 3
Charge carried per second = 30mC. Charge on one Cu2+ ion is 21.61019C
So number of ions leaving anode each second =
0.03C
= 9.38 1016 .
19
3.2 10 C
Number of electrons leaving anode is twice this.

If same current of 30mA were carried equally by sulphate and copper ions,
number of copper ions leaving anode would be half the value above, while
number of electrons leaving the anode would remain the same.
Q5
Kinetic energy =
1
2
mv 2 = 12 9.1 10 31 kg (5.42 10 4 ms 1 ) = 1.34 10 37 J

2
Potential energy = qV = 1.61019 C 230V = 3.681017 J.

Ratio of potential to kinetic energy = 2.751020 : 1. Assumption justified.
In practice, actual velocities of the electrons are typically much higher than
given in Q2, with many travelling at speeds over 106ms1 (as explained in
section 5.1) and accordingly the kinetic energy of these electrons is greater than
their potential energy. Some electrons move one way, and an almost identical
number move the opposite way, and this is why their velocities virtually cancel
out when the average is calculated. However the electrons remain close to these
phenomenal speeds even when there is zero current thus it is still fair to say
that the increase in the kinetic energy of the electrons as a whole when a current
starts flowing is still negligible in comparison to the potential energy, even
when the calculation is done properly. In fact you can prove that the additional
kinetic energy is equal to the value calculated above where it was assumed that
all of the electrons were moving at the average (or drift) velocity.
Note to tutor: as an extension exercise, you may wish to ask students to derive
an expression for the total kinetic energy of N electrons (each of mass m) whose
velocities are uniformly distributed in three dimensional v-space subject to the
condition that none travel faster than vmax (the speed corresponding to the Fermi
Page 35
2
. Next, you can ask them to
energy), and show that this is equal to 103 Nmv max
show that if a constant velocity u (say, parallel to the positive x-axis) is added to
all of the original velocities, the new total kinetic energy is greater than the
original value by Nmu2.
Q6
Firstly we use Kirchhoffs First Law to write I3 = I1 I2. We can then use our
Second Law equation for the lowest branch to write V = 100 (I1+I2). Adding
three times our top branch equation to two times our middle branch equation
gives 5V = 17 600 (I1+I2). Now eliminating I1+I2 between our two equations,
we get:
5V = 17 600
V
100
11V = 17
V = 1.55
so the voltage is 1.55V as required. Using our branch equations and our
knowledge of V, we find the currents as
3V 1.55V
= 7.27mA
200
4V 1.55V
I2 =
= 8.18mA
300
1.55V
I3 =
= 15.45mA
100
I1 =
and so we realize that currents the top and middle branches travel in the same
direction as the arrows, but that the current in the bottom branch travels in the
opposite direction to the arrow on the diagram.
Q7
We use the loop current method, with IL1 and IL2 defined in the diagram below:
1.0 k
4.5 V
IL1
1.0 k
IL2
4.5 V
IL2
IL1
1.5 V
3.0 V
For the left hand circuit, the simultaneous equations are

4.5 1000 I L1 6000(I L1 I L 2 ) = 0
6000(I L 2 I L1 ) 3000 I L 2 = 0
thus
4.5 = 7000 I L1 6000 I L 2

6000 I L1 = 9000 I L 2
and these equations can be solved to give IL1 = 1.5 mA, IL2 = 1 mA.
The currents in the resistors are therefore
1k: 1.5 mA to the right
6k: 0.5 mA downwards
3k: 1 mA downwards
For the right hand circuit, the simultaneous equations are
Page 36
4.5 1000 I L1 6000(I L1 I L 2 ) 1.5 = 0
thus
1.5 6000(I L 2 I L1 ) 3000 I L 2 3 = 0
3 = 7000 I L1 6000 I L 2
1.5 = 6000 I L1 9000 I L 2
and these equations can be solved to give IL1 = 0.667 mA, IL2 = 0.278 mA.
The currents in the resistors are therefore
1k: 0.667 mA to the right
6k: 0.389 mA downwards
3k: 0.278 mA downwards.
Q8
V 325 cos(100t )
=
A , so the amplitude is 18.1A.
18
R
a)
I=
b)
The velocity is given (as in Q2) by

v=
I
18.1A cos(100t )
=
19
qAn 1.6 10 C 1.5 10 6 m 2 10 29 m 3
= 7.54 10 cos(100t ) ms
4
and so the amplitude is 0.754mms1.

c)
Equation (4.9) tells us that the amplitude of the velocity is equal to A

where is the angular frequency (here 100 rads1) and A is the
amplitude in distance terms. Thus here
A=
Q9
v amplitude
7.54 10 4 ms 1
= 2.40 10 6 m .
1
100 rads
V0 = Vrms 2 = 230 2 V = 325V
Q10 I 0 = I rms 2 = 13 2 A = 18.4A

Q11 P0 = I 0V0 = I rms 2 Vrms 2 = 2 Prms = 2 60W = 120W
Q12 (a)
(b)
(c)
Q13 (a)
(b)
V 2 = V02 cos 2 t
Mean value of cos t equals one half. Accordingly the mean value of V2
is 12 V02 .
1
2
V02 =
1
2
V0
Multiplication gives V0 I 0 e 2it , the real part of which (using the methods
of part (m) of Workshop 4.2) is equal to V0I0 cos 2t. The average value
of this real part is zero.
Using the method suggested:
) (
VI = Re V0 e it Re I 0 e it +i = 12 V0 e it + e it 12 I 0 e it +i + e it i
= 14 V0 I 0 e 2it +i + e 2it i + e i + e i
(c)
Using the approach suggested:
Page 37
VI = 14 V0 I 0 (e 2it +i + e 2it i + e i + e i )
= 14 V0 I 0 (2 cos(2t + ) + 2 cos )
= V0 I 0 (cos(2t + ) + cos )
1
2
Taking a time average, the cosine term containing t + averages to zero,

leaving behind VI = 12 V0 I 0 cos , and as we know from section 5.3.2
1
2 V0 I 0 = Vrms I rms , and so the reasoning is complete.
(d)
Here we go...
VI = V0 cos t I 0 cos(t + )
= V0 I 0 cos t (cos t cos sin t sin )

= V0 I 0 cos t cos t cos V0 I 0 cos t sin t sin
= V0 I 0 cos 2 t cos 12 V0 I 0 sin 2t sin

where we have used the relationship sin 2t = 2 sin t cos t in the final
line. Taking time averages, the cos2 averages to one half, while the
second term averages to zero. This gives VI = 12 V0 I 0 cos as before.
Q14 For current and voltage to be in phase, Z in equation (5.17) must be real. The
denominator is nastier, and thus we would prefer to work with Z1, which also
must be real for the current and voltage to be in phase.
Z 1 =
1 + iCR 2 CL 1 + iCR 2 CL (R iL )
=
(R + iL )(R iL )
R + iL
R 2 RCL + 2 RCL + iCR 2 iL 1 2 CL

R 2 + 2 L2
R + i CR 2 L + 2 CL2
=
R 2 + 2 L2
=
The imaginary part will be zero if

CR 2 + 2 CL2 = L , and so we require that C =
L
.
R + 2 L2
2
Q15 When R is set equal to zero, the impedance becomes

iL
, and therefore we see that this will be undefined (infinite) when
1 2 CL
= 1 LC . With small, non-zero R, we would also expect very large
impedances at this frequency.
Z=
If two resistors are put in parallel, the current will be shared between them in the
inverse ratio of the resistances (the resistor with twice the size carries half the
current). The same is true of impedances in general here our circuit is in
parallel with the detecting electronics.
We choose our inductance L so that Z is quite small for all other values of .
Thus the LCR circuit acts as a more or less perfect conductor for the unwanted
frequencies, effectively short circuiting them, leaving virtually no current to
pass through the rectifier and on to the audio amplifiers. The desired frequency
can not pass through the LCR circuit, succeeds in driving a current through the
rectifier and therefore is detected by the amplifier which is wired in parallel.
Page 38
Q16 Using the reasoning in and by figure 5.10 we require that ILR sin A = CV
where I LR = V
R 2 + 2 L2 , and tan A = L/R as in figure 5.9. It follows from
the geometry of figure 5.9 that sin A = L

write our condition as
R 2 + 2 L2 , and therefore we can
I LR sin A = CV
V
R 2 + 2 L2
= CV
R 2 + 2 L2
L
=C
2
R + 2 L2
as before.
Page 39
6 Thermal Physics
T2
(7 + 273)
= 1
= 71% .
(700 + 273)
T1
Q1
= 1
Q2
T = T1 T2 so T2 = T1 T .
T2
T T T
= 1 1
=
, which means to maximise we need to
T1
T1
T1
maximise T.
= 1
Q3
In this question it is crucial we understand how we obtain the final temperature

of the two blocks in the two cases (a) and (b). Here we assume the steel has a
specific heat capacity of c, mass m, and that the volume of the blocks remains
constant.
(a)
For the simple conduction case we know that the conservation of energy leads
to a final temperature of the two blocks of 50 oC = 323 K. Now, we cannot
calculate the change in entropy directly for an irreversible process (we have heat
passing across a temperature gradient), but we can come up with a process of
infinitesimal reversible heat exchanges that happen over constant temperatures:
Tf
Tf
dQ
dT
323
Entropy decrease of hot block =
= mc
= mc ln
= 0.14mc
T
T
373
Ti
Ti
Tf
Tf
dQ
dT
323
Entropy increase of cold block =
= mc
= mc ln
= 0.17 mc
T
T
273
Ti
Ti
Stotal = Shot + Scold = 0.14mc + 0.17mc = 0.03mc .

Energy lost by hot block = 50mc
Energy gained by cold block = 50mc.
(b)
Now, if we have a reversible heat engine between the two blocks (at
temperatures TH and TC) then the total change in entropy around a cycle must be
zero and so:
o
o
T
dQ o dQ
dT
dT
+
= mc
+ mc
ln o
0=
T TC T
T
T
TH
TH
TH
TC
To
= ln o
TC
which
means
that:
To = TH TC , where To is the final temperature of the two blocks. This is the
geometrical mean of the temperatures of the hot and cold blocks. The rest of the
problem will be solved by applying the procedure above but with this
geometrical mean as the final temperature.
Q4
f =e
kT
f = e
kT
f
f + f

~2
~ 1,
T and
f
f
kT
Page 40
For T ~ 300 K, T ~ 10 K ~
Q5
1.38 10 23 300 2
= 1.2 10 19 J
10
H2O molar mass = 18 g

1 kg of H2O is 55.6 mol of H2O 55.6 6.02 1023 = 3.34 1025 particles.
So,
Energy per molecule = 2.26 106 J 3.34 1025 = 6.76 10-20 J.
Q6
p e NkT , where H is the heat of vaporisation for a sample of N molecules of

the substance. This means
ln p = constant
H
H
H
ln p1 ln p2 =
.
+
NkT1 NkT2
NkT
With p1 = 100 kPa, H = 2.26 106 J, N = 3.34 1025, T1 = 373 K and T2 = 358
K, we get p2 = 57.6 kPa.
Q7
Isothermal atmosphere of N2:

p = po e
Mgh
RT
, with M as the molar mass (28 g) and po the pressure at h = 0.
With po = 100 kPa we get h = 4.47 km.

Q8
If we were to gather the tails of all the velocity vectors of all the molecules in a
gas to one point we would get a spiky ball. The spikes are the velocity vectors
and they would have a certain distribution of lengths. The length of each
velocity (spike) is of course a speed u and the distribution of speeds goes as a
Boltzmann factor:
f =e
mu
2 kT
Page 41
However, the volume of a small element * of the spiky ball volume is (see the diagram
above):
V = u 2 sin du d d
so the number of vectors of velocity with lengths between u and u + du is proportional

to:
2
mu
2 kT
u 2 sin du d d ~ u 2 e
mu
2 kT
du.
0 0
The integrals over the angles add up all the vectors of each length over all directions.
So the fraction of molecules which have speed u is proportional to u 2 e
Q9
mu
2 kT
pV = nRT
p = 100 103 Pa, T = 298 K, n = 1 mol, so V = 0.025 m3.
Q10
(10-10)3
Q11
The RMS speed of a nitrogen molecule is easily calculated from the

Kinetic theory by:
u2 =
3RT
, where M is the molar mass of nitrogen.
M
VRMS
d
The diagram above shows a molecule sweeping out a tube of influence in 1

second. In the ideal gas theory the molecules themselves do not have
interactions with each other except through collisions, so they can only
influence each other if they collide. If the position of a molecule is the
position of its centre of mass then the diagram above shows that the molecule
in the middle will just collide with others if the centres of the others lie on or
in the tube. The diagram illustrates that the radius of this tube is the diameter
of a molecule so the volume of the tube is just d 2 V RMS = d 2 u 2 . It is now
a simple matter of multiplying this volume by the number density of the gas to
obtain the number of collisions that a molecule is likely to have in 1 second. If
the number density of the gas is then we can define a mean free path as:
For more detail on the bizarre coordinate system see part c of Workshop 7.1.
Page 42
= (length of path in 1 second) (number of collisions in 1 second)

=
u2
d 2 u 2
1
,
d 2
which is the average distance a molecule will move before a collision occurs
with another molecule.
Actually, we have done the analysis without accounting for the relative
velocities of the other molecules. To do this we need to just consider the
vector diagram:
V1 V2
V2
V1
If the vector V1 is the velocity of the molecule under consideration and V2 is

the velocity of another molecule, then V1 V2 is the relative velocity of the
molecule under consideration with respect to the other molecule. Therefore, to
see how this relative velocity modifies our expression for we need to see
what happens if we use the RMS value of this relative velocity rather than the
RMS value
u2 :
(V1 V2)RMS =
2
1
+ V22 2V1 V2
, where the sum is over all the

N
molecules in the gas. The scalar products will not contribute to the sum once
it is performed over all molecules (there will be as many positive terms as
negative). So
(V1 V2)RMS =
= =
d 2
2
2 u 2 , which changes our expression to
Now we are in a position to answer the question. A good estimate of the speed
of a nitrogen molecule at room temperature and pressure would be its RMS
speed:
u2 =
and =
3RT
3 8.31 298
=
= 515 m/s,
M
28 10 3
nN A nN A N A p
=
=
, so
nRT
V
RT
p
Page 43

=
d 2
2
RT
d pN A 2
2
8.31 298
(2 10
10 2
) 100 10 3 N A 2
= 2.3 10-7 m.
Q12
The volume V goes to V/100 adiabatically. The two expressions we need are:
p1V1 = p 2V2
p1V1 p 2V2
=
T1
T2
Putting in what we know:
p1V = p 2
V
p 2 = p1100
100
so,
V
( p 100 ) 100
p1V
=
T1
which means that:
T2
T2 = 100 1 ,
T1
T = T2 T1 = (100 1 1)T1
Work done can be obtained from the first law of thermodynamics:

U = Q + W .
Adiabatic compression means that Q = 0, so U = W = pV.

Throughout the process the pressure and volume are related on the adiabatic
so:
pV = k ,
where k is a constant. This means that we will need to do an integral since as
the volume changes so will the pressure. This means that:
V
100
V
100
U = pdV ' =
U =
V ' 1 100
1
=
'
dV
k
V '
( 1) V
kV 1
kV 1 T
100 1 1) =
(
.
( 1)
( 1)T1
Notice this is positive we have done work on the gas without allowing it to
lose any heat so its temperature, and therefore, internal energy must rise.
Page 44

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THE LANGUAGE OF PHYSICS

FOUNDATIONS FOR UNIVERSITY STUDY

J.P. Cullerne & A.C. Machacek

Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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J.P. Cullerne & A.C. Machacek

Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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J.P. Cullerne & A.C. Machacek

Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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J.P. Cullerne & A.C. Machacek

Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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J.P. Cullerne & A.C. Machacek

Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

J.P. Cullerne & A.C. Machacek

Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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J.P. Cullerne & A.C. Machacek

Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

J.P. Cullerne & A.C. Machacek

Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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J.P. Cullerne & A.C. Machacek

Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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Language of Physics: Solutions Manual

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