All Pat 1

Your IIBF Sample Question Results
Results Summary
Total Marks: 936
1. A public sector bank of is a body corporate created under special statute
True
False
The Correct Answer is :
True
2. A banking company is registered under the Banking Regulation Act
True
False
False
3. Cooperative banks are registered under the Cooperative Societies Act
True
False
True
4. Subsidiaries banks are companies registered under the Companies Act
True
False
False
5. Accepting deposits for safe custody would fall within the definition of banking
True
False
False
6. Reserve Bank was constituted under _______
A. BR Act
B. RBI Act
C. Companies Act
B. RBI Act
7. A Regional Rural Bank is ________________.
A. A body corporate created under a special statute
B. A cooperative society
A. A body corporate created under a special statute
8. Banking companies are licensed by _______ .
A. Reserve Bank
B. Registrar of companies
C. Company Law Board).
B. Registrar of companies
9. Business which a banking company may undertake other than banking is as stipulated by
______________
A. Reserve Bank
B. BR Act
C. RBI Act).
B. BR Act
10. BR Act was enacted for _________ regulating acceptance of deposits from public).
A. Regulating banking companies
B. Creating Reserve Bank
A. Regulating banking companies
11. Central Government can give direction to the Reserve Bank.
True
False
True
12. All business of banks are regulated only by the Reserve Bank.
True
False
False
13. Central Government is the primary regulator of banks.
True
False
False
14. The State Government has no control over cooperative banks.
True
False
False
15. On cancellation of licence of any bank, an appeal lies to Central Government.
True
False
True
16. Cooperative bank operating in different states are regulated by _______
A.State Cooperative Societies Act
B.Multi-Unit Cooperative Societies Act

C.Banking Laws (application to Cooperative Societies Act)
B.Multi-Unit Cooperative Societies Act
17. Government can exempt a bank from provision of BR Act ______
A.On the recommendation of RBI
B.Whenever the government is satisfied
C.If requested by a bank
A.On the recommendation of RBI
18. ________ exercises the central banking function in India,
A.State Bank, Central Bank of India
B.Reserve Bank of India
B.Reserve Bank of India
19. Company matters of a banking company are regulated by ______
A.Reserve Bank
B.Authorities under Companies Act
C.SEBI
B.Authorities under Companies Act
20. Trading in shares and securities by banks is subject to control by ______
A.Controller of Capital Issues
B.SEBI
C.Company Law Board
B.SEBI
21. Section 5(b) of ______ Act gives the definition of the term Banking
A.Contract Act,
B.Negotiable Instruments Act,
C.Banking Regulation Act,
D.Transfer of Property Act.
C.Banking Regulation Act,
22. Principle functions of the Bank are:
A.Dispatch of statements,
B.Adjustment of Interoffice Transactions,
C.Clearing
D.Acceptance of deposits for Lending and investment.
D.Acceptance of deposits for Lending and investment.
23. In a deposit account the principal relation between Bank and Customer is bank
___________ and the Customer ________.
A.Agent, Principal
B.Lessor, Lessee
C.Creditor-Debtor
D.Debtor-Creditor
E.Bailor-Bailee
D.Debtor-Creditor
24. When a Bank lends money the relation between Bank and Customer is Bank
_____________ and Customer ________.
A.Agent, Principal
B.Lessor, Lessee
C.Creditor-Debtor
D.Debtor-Creditor
E.Bailor-Bailee
C.Creditor-Debtor
25. In case of safe custody of articles relation between Bank and Customer is Bank
___________ and Customer _________.
A.Agent, Principal
B.Lessor, Lessee
C.Creditor-Debtor
D.Debtor-Creditor
E.Bailor-Bailee
E.Bailor-Bailee
26. In case of safe deposit licker the relation between Bank and Customer is Bank
_______________ and Customer _________.
A.Agent, Principal
B.Lessor, Lessee
C.Creditor-Debtor
D.Debtor-Creditor
E.Bailor-Bailee
B.Lessor, Lessee
27. An individual can start a bank.
True
False
False
28. A banking company should have the word Banking in its name
True
False
True
29. A company engaged in manufacture of furniture can use the word Bank in its name.
True
False
False
30. Ledger keeper is authorised to disclose the balance of the account of the customer to a
stranger.
True
False
False
31. Line is a/an ________ of the creditor to retain possession.
A.Obligation
B.Right
C.Interest
D.Protection
B.Right
32. Where as general lien gives right to retain goods, Bankers lien has _________ in case of
default.
A.right to create charge
B.right to create mortgage
C.right to sell.
C.right to sell.
33. General lien gives the creditor right to retain ________ which have come in his
possession.
A.all goods
B.some goods
C.specific goods
A.all goods
34. Particular lien gives the creditor right to retain ________ in case the expenses incurred
are not paid.
A.all goods
B.some goods
C.specific goods
C.specific goods
35. Bankers lien is a/an _________.
A.hypothecation
B.mortgage
C.implied pledge
D.pledge
C.implied pledge
36. In case of __________ goods, Bankers lien is not applicable.
A.owners goods
B.stolen goods
C.finished goods
B.stolen goods
37. The right to _______ two accounts is known as set-off.
A.Open
B.Bankers right
C.Combine
C.Combine
38. Right of set-off is not discretionary right with the bank. .
True
False
False
39. With the death of a partner of a partner of a firm having a cash credit account the account
of the firm can continued as thitherto.
True
False
False
40. Transfer of funds from the partnership account to the credit of the account of a partner to
set-off a debit balance, is in order.
True
False
False
41. The right of set-off is __________.
A.Customers right
B.Bankers right
C.Bankers obligation
D.Banks descrition.
D.Banks descrition.
42. Garnishee order is issued by _______.
A.Police officer
B.Revenue authority
C.Inforcement authority
D.Court of Law
D.Court of Law
43. Attachment order is issued by __________.
A.Drawer of a cheque
B.Revenue authority
C.Manager of bank
B.Revenue authority
44. Mandate is _________ .
A.Signed letter to the Bank
B.Order of the court of law
C.Memorandum of understanding
D.Unstamped letter to the Bank
D.Unstamped letter to the Bank
45. Power of attorney is _________.
A.Signed letter to the Bank
B.A promissory note
C.Garnishee order
D.Stamped documents.
D.Stamped documents.
46. Person to whom a power of attorney is given is called _________ and the person who
gives the Power of attorney is called _________.
A.Debtor-Creditor
B.Bailor-Bailee
C.Agent, Principal (donor, donee)
C.Agent, Principal (donor, donee)
47. A letter of mandate is generally issued for a short or temporary period.
True
False
True
48. Mandates are accepted from limited companies and cooperative societies.
True
False
False
49. Special power of attorney gives extensive powers to the agent to perform many acts. .
True
False
False
50. Garnieshee order is issued by the revenue authorities. .
True
False
False
51. Attachment order is issued by the Court of Law.
True
False
False
52. Promissory Notes, Bills of Exchange and cheque are together defined as____________
A.Negotiable instruments
B.Transferred instruments
C.Trust Receipts
D.Documents of Title to goods.
A.Negotiable instruments
53. N.I.are easily ________
A.transferable
B.gifted
C.sold
A.transferable
54. a cheque is drawn on a __________
A.owner of ship
B.an agent of a principal
C.bank
C.bank
55. a cheque is payable on a _________
A.demand
B.after certain days
C.on a fixed future date.
A.demand
56. Two parallel transverse lines across the cheque is called _________
A.endorsement
B.transfer
C.assignment
D.crossing

D.crossing
57. Crossing is a direction to the ________ bank to pay the cheque to the payee through a
bank.
A.drawer
B.payee
C.paying
D.collecting
C.paying
58. When a cheque is drawn on a bank is called the __________.
A.drawer
B.endorser
C.acceptor
D.drawee
D.drawee
59. The crossing in a crossed cheque can be cancelled by ________.
A.drawer
B.endorser
C.acceptor
D.drawee
A.drawer
60. Acts done honestly is called acts done.
A.without negligence
B.rashly
C.mollified
D.in good faith
D.in good faith
61. Mere signature of the payee on the reverse of the instrument is called ________
endorsement
A.full
B.blank
C.conditional
D.restrictive
B.blank
62. Sans recourse means _______.
A.I am not afraid
B.Do not touch me
C.ask the drawer
D.without liability to me
D.without liability to me
63. A cheque is a Bill of Exchange.
True
False
True
64. Drawee of a cheque is not a banker. .
True
False
False
65. A promissory note can be crossed.
True
False
False
66. A cheque needs acceptance.
True
False
False
67. A holder-in-due accepts N.I. for consideration.
True
False
True
68. Crossing of a cheque can be done by the drawer only.
True
False
False
69. Transferee of a negotiable instrument will not get a better title transferor.
True
False
False
70. A cheque can be issued payable after 3 month from the date of its issuance.
True
False
False
71. A banker on whom a cheque is drawn by customer is ___________.
A.Collecting banker
B.Paying banker
C.Advising banker
D.Confirming banking.
B.Paying banker
72. A banker who collects a cheque for and on behalf of his customer is __________.
A.Collecting banker
B.Paying banker
C.Advising banker
A.Collecting banker
73. Section 131 of N.I. Acts extends protection to the __________.
A.Collecting banker
B.Paying banker
C.Advising banker
A.Collecting banker
74. Section 85 of N.I. Acts extends protection to the __________.
A.Collecting banker
B.Paying banker
C.Advising banker
B.Paying banker
75. When a banker makes payment of a cheque after banking hour he will be held
__________.
A.liable
B.reasonable
C.acceptable
A.liable
76. One of the condition to honour the cheque by the paying banker is that amount in words
and figures should ____________.
A.differ
B.tally
C.be clear
B.tally
77. Where a customer by a letter has advised the bank directing the banker not to honour /
pay a particular cheque such a letter is called _________.
A.letter of authority
B.letter of credit
C.stop payment letter
D.letter of continuity.
C.stop payment letter
78. Where a customer has issued a cheque date of which is yet to come, such a cheque is
called ____.
A.stale cheque
B.post-dated cheque
C.crossed cheque
D.stolen cheque
B.post-dated cheque
79. When a bank pays a cheque according to the apparent tenor, in good faith and without
having reason to doubt the bonafide of the presendor, such payment is ___________.
A.wrong payment
B.late payment
C.future payment
D.payment in due course
D.payment in due course
80. To get the protection under S / 131, a collecting bank has to collect a ______for credit of
is customer
A.stolen cheque
B.stale cheque
C.postdated cheque
D.crossed cheque
D.crossed cheque
81. Payment of cheque must be made by the banker within banking hours.
True
False
True
82. Payment of a postdated cheque by a banker is in order.
True
False
False
83. A bearer cheque is always payable to bearer.
True
False
True
84. Payment of a cheque at a branch other than the branch where it is payable, is in order.
True
False
False
85. Stopped payment cheques should be paid by the banker.
True
False
False
86. If a cheque is stolen in transit and presented at the drawee bank by a holder in due course
case and if the cheques is paid by the bank in due course in a case the drawee bank would be
_______.
A.be held liable
B.would not be held liable
C.would be found guilty
B.would not be held liable
87. where the signature of the drawer of a cheque is not genuine, such a cheque is called
_________.
A.post-dated cheque
B.forged cheque
C.clearing cheque
D.stale cheque
B.forged cheque
88. a forged cheque is a valid cheque.
True
False
False
89. true owner of a cheque will be entitled for payment even when the cheque has been lost
and it has reached the hands of holder in due course.
True
False
False
90. where a person has lost an article and if the article comes in procession of a bonafide
purchaser, the bonafide purchaser will not be entitled to the article.
True
False
True
91. Section 138 states that drawer of a cheque is liable to be punished if the cheque is
bounced for ___________.
A.not crossing
B.alteration in figures
C.being postdated
D.insufficient fund
D.insufficient fund
92. when a drawer draws a cheque without keeping sufficient balance and if the cheque is
dishonoured for insufficient funds, the drawer is punishable with and imprisonment which
may extend to ________ and or a fine.
A.two months
B.four month
C.one year
C.one year
93. Demand deposits are those which can be withdrawn __________.
A.on demand
B.at any future date
C.after one year
D.after 5 years
A.on demand
94. Current deposits are not entitled to ________.
A.Cheque book
B.Statements
C.Customer service
D.interest.
D.interest.
95. In savings deposits interest is paid on _______ balance in the a/c between 10th to last
working day of the month
A.maximum
B.average
C.minimum
D.last balance
C.minimum
96. Introduction in all deposits accounts is _________
A.optional
B.compulsory
C.discretion of the bank
B.compulsory
97. A minor below age of 7 can open an account independently.
True
False
False
98. When a customer dies contractual relationship between the bank and the customer is
terminated.
True
False
True
99. A Will need not be probated by a court.
True
False
False
100. If a customer tenders a cheque for payment when he is drunk bank should not have
witness at the time of signing and the payment.
True
False
False
101. A partner has no implied authority to admit the liability in any suit client filed against the
firm.
True
False
True
102. Public limited company should have a minimum of at least ________ members.
A.50
B.15
C.7
D.without limit.
C.7
103. Government companies are companies where the government holds at least ________
% share of the company.
A.80
B.50
C.75
D.51
D.51
104. Section ______ of the company Act details the borrowing limits of the company.
A.85(A)
B.31
C.293(1)
D.5(b)
C.293(1)
105. The Trustees _________ delegate their powers.
A.can
B.can not
B.can not
106. Execution of a will is entrusted to __________
A.Administrator
B.holding of power of attorney
C.Executor
D.holder in due close.
C.Executor
107. Administrator is a person appointed by __________ to look after the property under
letter of Administrator.
A.the government
B.the Court
C.the bank
D.RBI
B.the Court
108. __________ is a person appointed by the Court to wind up the company.
A.Administrator
B.Executor
C.Registrar
D.liqudator
D.liqudator
109. the person appointed by the court to look after the property under letter of administrator
is executor
True
False
False
110. the person who is entrusted with the work of execution of the will is called executor.
True
False
True
111. Trustees cannot delegate their powers.
True
False
True
112. No loans should be granted to clubs and associations
True
False
True
113. 293 (i)(d) of company Act stipulates the borrowing limit of a limited company.
True
False
True
114. Memorandum of Association stipulates internal rules of a company
True
False
False
115. Article of Association lays down objects of the company.
True
False
True
116. NRNR & FCNR (B) accounts can be kept in the from of _________ deposits
A.Term Deposits
B.Current Deposits
C.Saving Deposits
D.Recurring Deposits
A.Term Deposits
117. Accounts jointly with residents can be opened in the case of __________ accounts.
A.FCNR (B) and NRE
B.NRO and NRNR
B.NRO and NRNR
118. Accounts jointly with residents cannot be opened in the case of __________ accounts.
A.FCNR (B) and NRE
B.NRO and NRNR
A.FCNR (B) and NRE
119. The term Non-resident Indian means an individual being a citizen of India or a person of
Indian origin outside India.
True
False
True
120. FCNR (B) account can be kept in the Current, Saving and Recurring Deposits.
True
False
False
121. Rate of interest payable on NRO, NRE and FCNR Deposits are left to the discretion of
Banks.
True
False
False
122. The banker should not ________ the account of his customer unless there is justifiable
reason for the closure.
A.close
B.open
C.transfer
A.close
123. Passbook is a _______ of transactions between the customer and the bank.
A.basis
B.source
C.record
D.root
C.record
124. When account is following is closed by the bank, proper________ should be given to the
customer
A.thanks letter
B.guarantee
C.notice
D.demand
C.notice
125. Passbook is a copy of the customers account.
True
False
True
126. When a banker closes the account of the customer he is not required to send any notice.
True
False
False
127. When a banker of a partnership account who has got an account with the bank, dies the
bank should close the account.
True
False
True
128. When banker receives intimation of death of the customer, account is allowed to
continue.
True
False
False
129. The present CRR and SLR requirements are ________ , respectively.
A.20% and 40%
B.3% and 25%
C.5% and 30%
B.3% and 25%
130. Present minimum capital adequacy ratio is 9% of
A.Total liabilities
B.Total assets
C.Total risk weighted assets
C.Total risk weighted assets
131. New Prudential Accounting Norms cover
A.interest rates
B.Method of lending
C.Deposits
D.Capital adequacy, income recognition, Assets classification and Provisioning
D.Capital adequacy, income recognition, Assets classification and
Provisioning
132. A borrowal account is designated as non performing asset when the interest and/or
instalment remains unpaid for
A.1 quarter
B.2 quarters
C.3 quarters
D.4 quarters
B.2 quarters
133. RBI ensures that banks operate within set norms by conducting _________ inspections
and _________ monitoring.
A.on-site, off-site
B.field, commodity prices
C.stock, stock market
A.on-site, off-site
134. On-site inspection is followed by
A.supervisory letter
B.renewal of licence
C.fresh audit
A.supervisory letter
135. Quarterly on-site visits are undertaken in respect of
A.all banks
B.urban co-operative banks
C.newly licensed banks during first year
C.newly licensed banks during first year
136. Frequency of First Tranche Returns is
A.monthly
B.monthly / quarterly
C.monthly / quarterly / half-yearly
C.monthly / quarterly / half-yearly
137. Second Tranche of OSMOS returns cover
A.asset quality
B.liquidity and interest rate exposures
C.ownership pattern of deposits
B.liquidity and interest rate exposures
138. Under Section 37 of the Banking Regulation Act, a moratorium order can be issued by the
High Court for a maximum total period of
A.one month
B.six month
C.one year
B.six month
139. When a banking company is placed under moratorium under Section 45 of B.R.Act, the
RBI must prepare a scheme
A.VRS for staff
B.capital buy back
C.reconstruction of the company or amalgamation with any other bank
C.reconstruction of the company or amalgamation with any other
bank
140. An order for winding up a banking company can be issued by
A.the High Court
B.the RBI
C.the Central Government
A.the High Court
141. Principal function of banks are :
A.accepting deposits
B.lending and investing
C.non fund business and remittance services
D.all of above
D.all of above
142. In deposits accounts the main relationship between bank and customer is:
A.creditor bank, debtor customer
B.debtor bank, creditor customer
C.agent - principal
D.servant - owner
E.only a and b
B.debtor bank, creditor customer
143. When a bank lends money to the corporate person the relationship is:
A.borrower and lender
B.creditor debtor
C.debtor - creditor
D.customer and client
B.creditor debtor
144. Bailor bailee relationship is applicable in:
A.cash deposited with cashier by customer
B.safe deposits locker
C.demand draft issued by bank
D.keeping articles in safe custody with bank
E.none of above
D.keeping articles in safe custody with bank
145. what relationship is created when the bank collects a cheque in clearing.
A.holder for value
B.clearing member and principle.
C.agent and principle
D.collecting bank and holder
E.none of above
D.collecting bank and holder
146. when any FDR is lost by a customer of a bank, what document is executed:
A.guarantee bond
B.government bond
C.promissory bond
D.indemnity bond
E.none
D.indemnity bond
147. A credit voucher for Rs.44,444 favouring Tarun was wrongly posted to Varun Bose by the
bank, the relationship established with Varun Bose is of:
A.trustee and beneficiary
B.debtor and guarantor
C.creditor and indemnifier
D.creditor and debtor
E.none
D.creditor and debtor
148. Mr nanhe has a bank account and credited RS 20 lakh in it subsequently he has arrested
on charges of fraud. the police informed the bank for not allowing withdrawals from his
account. Two days later, bank receives a cheque of RS 15000 favoring Nehas creditor. What
should the bank do
A.not to pay cheque
B.return cheque with memo stating A/c holder in jail

C.honour the cheque
D.get police orders for payment
E.get court orders for payment
C.honour the cheque
149. Account holder X draws a cheque for Rs.5,000 favouring Rajesh (a minor aged 13 years)
or dearer. Rajesh presents the cheque on counter duly signed on the back. What should the
banker do with the Cheque of a minor?
A.refuse, since no contractual capacity
B.pay the cheque after inquiring with X
C.pay to Rajesh without any responsibility of bank
D.ask Rajesh to bring his parents
ESection 26 N.I. Act 1881, does not allow minor to receive payment.
C.pay to Rajesh without any responsibility of bank
150. Cheque drawn for Rajkumar or order is stolen. The thief made endorsement as Rajkumar
on the cheque in his favour. The cheque is presented in clearing and paid by bank. True owner
later on sent legal notice to bank. What is the liability of the bank?
A.the paying bank will get protection under N.I. Act
B.forgery does not give any rights to bank, hence liable
C.under section 85, the paying bank is liable
D.under section 131, the paying bank is liable.
A.the paying bank will get protection under N.I. Act
151. After close of business hours by 1.30 hrs, the account holder himself availed payment. At
4.15 p.m. (after close of 1.45 hrs) income tax attachment order is received by bank. What
would be the liability of paying bank?
A.payment is made in due course and as payment is debitable next day, bank is protected
B.payment is not in due course since paid after reasonable time ( i. e. 1.30 hrs late for
today)
C.attachment order will be effective after banks right of lien over the late payment
D.bank should approach the customer to get the order changed to next day.
B.payment is not in due course since paid after reasonable time ( i.
e. 1.30 hrs late for today)
152. Ritesh issued a cheque at 3:30 p.m. (one hour after close of business hours of the bank)
to Shubha approached to the bank and on request paid the money at 4:00 p.m. as late
payment; Ritesh arrived to the bank and stopped payment of cheque issued to shubha at 4:30
p.m. on the same day. Who is liable for loss?
A.(a) payment after Business Hours is not a payment in due Course hence bank is liable,
Section 10 N.I. Act
B.Payment even though after business hours but within banking hours is protected under
Section 31
C.Payment late for today is protected under Section 85
D.Refused to accept stop payment instructions since late for today.
A.(a) payment after Business Hours is not a payment in due Course
hence bank is liable, Section 10 N.I. Act
153. Section 131 of N.I. Acts gives protection for collection of
A.Bills of Exchange
B.Promissory Note
C.Hundis
D.Cheque
E.All the above
D.Cheque
154. Rajkumar wants a demand draft striking the word Order and writing the word Bearer.
Can bank help him ?
A.Bearer Draft is unlawful under section 31 of RBI
B.Bearer Draft can be issued like a cheque
C.Signature of the payee should be attested on the back of draft by the issuing branch
D.Attestation of the signature of the payee on a separate slip of paper by bank (without
striking out the word Order on draft)
D.Attestation of the signature of the payee on a separate slip of
paper by bank (without striking out the word Order on draft)
155. A draft purchased is reported lost and the purchaser wants to stop the payment of the
draft. Can the Bank do it?
A.Bank cannot stop payment since it is a promissory note
B.Bank can stop payment since covered under negotiable instrument.
C.Bank can ask the purchaser to suffer for negligence and bank cannot help
D.Bank would issue stop payment instructions only after two weeks from date of issue.
A.Bank cannot stop payment since it is a promissory note
156. Discuss the essential conditions for right of set off to the bank.
A.Money transactions
B.Both the accounts in the same name and rights

C.implied agreement to keep the accounts distinct and separate.
D.All of the above
E.None of the above
D.All of the above
157. Objectives of KYC
A.to ensure appropriate customer identification
B.to monitor transactions of suspicious nature
C.to ensure that he / she would not deceive the bank.
D.if loan given it would not be a NPA
E.only (a) & (b)
E.only (a) & (b)
158. Sources of credit informations
A.informations on visit to business premises
B.On interview with borrower and from documents submitted
C.Informations on visit to business premises
D.All of above
E.Only (b) & (c)
D.All of above
159. What qualitative information are available from loan proposals?
A.Personal history of achievements health and interpersonal relationship with family
B.professional skills and qualifications, details of heirs and successors.
C.Track record business reputation , behaviour patterns for managerial skill and bearing
capacity
D.All of above
E.Only (c)
D.All of above
160. Quantitative informations available from loan proposal are:
A.personal assets and liabilities of the borrower
B.details of expenses / and resources for meeting the margin
C.only (a) & (b)
D.None of above
C.only (a) & (b)
161. Demand Deposits are those which can be withdrawn:
A.On Request
B.On Sanction by Manager
C.On Demand
D.On Persuasion
C.On Demand
162. Current accounts Deposits are not entitled to_________
A.Cheque book above 100 to leaves
B.Monthly Statements
C.Cash Payment
D.Interest
E.All of the above
D.Interest
163. in saving account deposits interest is paid on ________ balance in the account between
10th to last day of month.
A.Maximum
B.Average
C.Minimum
D.Last Balance at the end of month
C.Minimum
164. Merchant bankers are:
A.Financial Brokers
B.Financial intermediaries
C.Credit Appraisers
D.Underwriters
E.All of the above
165. Merchant bankers activity relate to:
A.Equity and equity related finance
B.Debt and Debt related finance
C.Fund Business
D.Non-Fund business
E.None of the above
A.Equity and equity related finance
166. Advantages of Lease Financing
A.Alternative use of funds
B.Arrangement for faster and cheaper credit
C.Increased capacity to borrow Lessee
D.Trading on Tax Shield
E.All of above

E.All of above
167. Disadvantage of Leasing
A.Deprivation of asset ownership
B.Deprivation of asset in case of default
C.Attachment on owner going insovent
D.None of the above
E.All of a to c
D.None of the above
168. Advantage of Factoring service to customers
A.Responsibility of collecting sales dues
B.Absolve of sales ledger administration
C.Absolve from Bad debts
D.Quicker payments by clients
E.All of above
E.All of above
169. Limitation of Factoring
A.Over trading
B.Manipulation in invoices
C.Not suitable to SMEs
D.Companies with few Debtors
E.All of the above
E.All of the above
170. Advantages of Factoring as a financial tool / facility
A.Flexible finance through up-front payment
B.Obtaining off-balance sheet finance
C.Payment to suppliers more promptly for higher credit reputation
D.All of the above
E.None of the above
D.All of the above
171. Disadvantages to Credit Card holders
A.Over Spending Debt Trap
B.Frauds due to loss or theft of cards
C.Forged signatures
D.Forged Charge slips
E.All of above
D.Forged Charge slips
172. Line is a/an _______ of the creditor to retain possession.
A.right
B.obligation
C.instrument
D.interest
A.right
173. Particular Lien gives the creditor right to retain ______ increase the expenses incurred
are not last
A.all goods
B.ordered goods
C.some goods / securities
D.specific goods / securities
D.specific goods / securities
174. Bankers Lien is an / a _______
A.bailment of goods
B.implied pledge
C.agreement
D.an stoppage
B.implied pledge
175. Bankers Lien is not applicable in case of ____________
A.Safe Custody
B.Securities left negligently
C.All of above
D.none
C.All of above
176. Right to combine two accounts by banks is called __________
A.Garnishee
B.Lien
C.Set-off
D.Rating
C.Set-off
177. The right of set-off is __________
A.Customers right
B.Bankers right
C.Banks discretion
D.Payees right
C.Banks discretion
178. Garnishee order is issued by __________
A.Police Officer
B.Revenue Officer
C.C.I.D.
D.Courts of Law
D.Courts of Law
179. Attachment order is issued by __________
A.Income Tax Officer
B.Sales Tax Officer
C.(i) and (ii) combined
D.Public Debt Officer
C.(i) and (ii) combined
180. Mandate is a ________ agreement.
A.Stamped
B.Unstamped
C.Memorandum
D.Letter
B.Unstamped
181. Power of attorney can be _______.
A.Universal
B.Limited
C.both (i) & (ii)
D.Calculated
C.both (i) & (ii)
182. Person to whom a power of attorney is given is called ________ And who gives it is
called _______
A.Debtor-Creditor
B.Baior-Bailee
C.Pawner-Pawnee
D.Donor-Donee
D.Donor-Donee
183. Payment in due course means
A.Payment on due date
B.Payment in accordance with apparent tenor
C.Payment in accordance with apparent signature and specimen
D.Payment due to sufficient funds.
B.Payment in accordance with apparent tenor
184. Payment of cheques are governed by sections under N.I.Act
A.Section 10/31/85/126
B.Section 15/16/17/131
C.Section 131/138/147/142
D.None of these
E.All of (i) to (iv)
A.Section 10/31/85/126
185. The liability of drawee of cheque is
A.Sufficient funds
B.Property applicable for payment
C.Required to do so without default
D.All of above
E.None
D.All of above
186. Duties of paying banker of crossed cheques are
A.Crossed cheques
B.Collection on behalf of customers
C.Payment in good faith and without negligence
D.None of above
C.Payment in good faith and without negligence
187. Promissory Notes / Bill of Exchange and Cheque are defined as ___________
A.Trust Receipts
B.Judicial documents
C.Negotiable instruments
D.documents of title to goods
C.Negotiable instruments
188. Cheque is payable on _______
A.Demand
B.Usance
C.Fixed future date
D.After Sight
A.Demand
189. Crossing is a direction to the _______ bank to pay the cheque to the payee through a
bank.
A.Drawer
B.Payee
C.Paying
D.Passing
E.Collecting
C.Paying
190. The crossing in a crossed cheque can be cancelled by _______
A.Drawer
B.Drawee
C.Endorser.
D.Acceptor
E.Bank
A.Drawer
191. Acts done honestly is called acts done ______
A.Without negligence
B.Rashly
C.Mollified
D.In good faith
E.Honourly
D.In good faith
192. Mere signature of the payee on the reserve of the instrument is called ________
endorsement.
A.Full
B.Partia
C.Conditional
D.Restrictive
E.Blank
E.Blank
193. Sans recourse means _________.
A.Without fear
B.Without physical touch
C.Without liability to me
D.Without liability to payee
C.Without liability to me
194. A bank on whom a cheque is drawn by the customer is _______
A.Collecting bank
B.Paying bank
C.Advising bank
D.Issuing bank
E.Confirming
C.Advising bank
195. Section 131 of N.I. Act extends protection to the ________
A.Collecting bank
B.Paying bank
C.Drawee bank
D.Negotiating bank
A.Collecting bank
196. Where a customer, by a letter has advised the bank directing the banker not to honour /
pay particular cheque such letter is called ________
A.Letter of credit
B.Stop-payment letter
C.Mandate
D.Garnishee letter
E.Official letter
B.Stop-payment letter
197. Forged Cheque is __________ cheque.
A.Valid
B.InValid
C.Post-dated
D.Stale cheque
E.(v) Anti-dated
B.InValid
198. Introduction in opening accounts is
A.Optional
B.Compulsory
C.Discretionary
D.Waived from year 2003.
B.Compulsory
199. Minor with self-operation can open account if he / she is above
A.6 year
B.13 year
C.15 year
D.17 year
B.13 year
200. Public Ltd. Company should have minimum shareholders, before opening bank account:
A.50
B.20
C.10
D.7
E.no limit
D.7
201. Government companies are those companies where the government holds at
least_________.
A.51%
B.26%
C.100%
D.No Requirement.
A.51%
202. Delegation of power under Trust is _________.
A.Possible
B.Not possible
C.Beneficiarys permission
D.Charity commissioners permission
B.Not possible
203. Which document stipulates internal rules of company _________ ?
A.Memorandum
B.Resolution
C.Articles
D.Declaration
E.Companies Act, 1956
C.Articles
204. Minors account can be opened in the guardianship of __________.
A.Mother and Father
B.Mother or Father
C.Grandmother
D.Elder brother.
B.Mother or Father
205. Two or more minors desire to open bank a/c in your bank, whether they can open
A.Either or Survivor
B.Jointly
C.Only two can join
D.Cannot open
D.Cannot open
206. Who is considered natural guardians for minors ________?
A.Mother and Father
B.Stepmother and Father
C.Stepfather and Stepmother
D.All of above
A.Mother and Father
207. Who shall be nature guardian in case of married minor girl?
A.Father
B.Mother
C.Father-in-law
D.Mother-in-law
E.Husband.
E.Husband.
208. Sanjay, a minor aged 11 years, desire to open banks Saving Account. His mother is
illiterate and his father has become sanyasi. He has got both grand parents. Who will be his
natural guardian?
A.Father
B.Mother
C.Grandfather
D.Guardian appointed by court
E.Sanjay himself can oprate.
B.Mother
209. In a limited co. certificate of incorporation was obtained through memorandum which
was signed by two persons for all the 7 signatories The signatures were forged. Will the bank
accept memo as genuine for opening bank a/c?
A.Yes
B.No
C.Yes because incorporation certificate is valid
D.No because forged documents can not be accepted
E.Bank will ask its H.O.
C.Yes because incorporation certificate is valid
210. There should be two persons to open a partnership account in a bank which is correct?
A.X aged 25 years Y aged 17 Years
B.X aged 25 years Y aged 21 years
C.X aged 17 years and Y aged 16 years
D.Ku. Shubha aged 30 years and Ku. Rachna aged 16 years ( daughter of Ku. Shubha)
E.X aged 71 years Y aged 57 Years but lunatic
B.X aged 25 years Y aged 21 years
211. HUF account is to be opened in a bank where three major person are there
Shivkumar-Father
Mrs. Ramawati-Shivkumars Mother
Sharat kumar-Son
Who can become Karta of HUF?
A.Shivkumar
B.Sharat Kumar
C.Mrs. Ramawati
D.Both Shivkumar and Ramawati
E.Both Shivkumar and Sharat Kumar
A.Shivkumar
212. One of the directors of a Ltd. Co. expired and cheques signed by him are presented for
payments should the bank pay those cheques?
A.Cannot pay
B.Company on other directors confirmation
C.Can pay as a routine
D.Payments be stopped by co.
C.Can pay as a routine
213. X a partner in the firm XYZ Co. wants to open a bank account in the firms name. Does it
require signatures of
A.All partners
B.Any one
C.Managing partner only
D.Sleeping partner not required
A.All partners
214. Securitisation is the process of acquisition of loans classified as
A.Bad debts
B.Performing debts
C.Non-performing Debt
D.Book debts
C.Non-performing Debt
215. Authorised officer means
A.Chief manager in PSB
B.Chief manager in NABARD
C.Chief manager in a foreign bank
D.Chief manager or equivalent in LIC
A.Chief manager in PSB
216. Bonds or debentures issued by Securitisation company should bear interest not less than
A.Bank rate
B.PLR
C.1.5% over bank rate
D.1.5% over saving rate
C.1.5% over bank rate
217. By which act, any security interest created in favour of secured creditor without
intervention of courts
A.Transfer of Property Act
B.RDDB & FI Act, 1993
C.SRFA &ESI Act, 2002
D.Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
C.SRFA &ESI Act, 2002
218. Secured creditor is liable for penalties for default under
A.SRFA &ESI Act, 2002
B.Companies Act Section 142
C.Recovery of Debts Due Act, 1993
D.Negotiable Instrument act, 1881
A.SRFA &ESI Act, 2002
219. Recovery of loans and advances are possible under SREA &ESI Act, 2002 by
A.Court
B.DRT
C.Summary trial by Banks or FISettlement
D.Settlement
C.Summary trial by Banks or FISettlement
220. Securitisation is the process of
A.Purchasing or acquiring
B.Selling and administering
C.Security documenting acquisitioning
D.Providing security to NPA
A.Purchasing or acquiring
221. Qualified institutional buyer means
A.Institution having paid up capital of Rs 10 crore

B.Broker firm or company eligible to qualify
C.Securitisation company
D.Financial institution, bank insurance co. SFC
D.Financial institution, bank insurance co. SFC
222. Bancassurance is nothing but
A.Assurance by the bank that it will not fail.
B.Insurance of entire deposits at banks by insurance company.
C.A packaged financial service offering both banking and insurance products to customers
to meet both insurance and banking needs
C.A packaged financial service offering both banking and insurance
products to customers to meet both insurance and banking needs
223. Advantage to banks under Bancassurance
A.Increased return of fee income from assets
B.Protection of personal life of borrowers to save loans from becoming NPA
C.Marketing and processing capabilities are available extensively.
D.Only (b) and (c)
E.Only (a) and (c)
E.Only (a) and (c)
224. What are the challenges before banks under Bancassurance
A.Extensive training to entire staff at a heavy cost.
B.Development of IT system even in un-profitable
C.Performance recognition and payment on incentives to employees for insurance business
D.Motivate staff to sell insurance products.
E.All of the above
E.All of the above
225. Describe problems and different nature in compensation to employees
A.Cultural conflict and different nature in compensation to employees.
B.Non achieving of targets and no convergence at branch level.
C.Reluctance to one-stop service
D.Possible source of conflict with existing customers
E.All of the above
E.All of the above
226. What you feel could be future of Bancassurance
A.Bank and insurance have strong similarities with bright future
B.Cost of providing services to would reduce, resulting cheap insurance products
C.Wider range of services to client of banks
D.Better consumer protection under Consumer Protection Act
E.All of above
E.All of above
227. Mutual funds are
A.Financial brokers
C.Financial institutions for depositors
D.Financial consultants
228. Out of about 36 mutual funds in India, the major player is
A.Birla mutual fund
B.IDBI mutual fund
C.Tata mutual funds
D.Unit trust if India mutual fund
D.Unit trust if India mutual fund
229. Mutual funds offer advantage of
A.Adequate protection from state agencies
B.Easy liquidity of listed schemes
C.Unlisted open-ended Schemes can be sold back
D.All of (a) to (c)
D.All of (a) to (c)
230. Mutual funds are able to provide higher rate of return to the investors as
A.Doing speculative business in share market
B.Operating costs as percentage of net assets is very low, i.e. 1.26%
C.All of above
D.None of above
C.All of above
231. Which is the most profitable [in terms of net assets] mutual fund in India sponsored by
banks
A.ICICI + SBI + CANBANK
B.BOI + HDFC +Kotak
C.BOB + IDBI + Indbank +PNB
D.All (a) to (c)
A.ICICI + SBI + CANBANK
232. In E-banking customers need not visit the bank, to meet cash requirements of self
through
A.Electronic funds transfer
B.Tele-banking
C.On-line banking
D.Automatic Teller Machine
E.None
D.Automatic Teller Machine
233. Tele-banking service function is available with bank computers, based on
A.Virtual
B.Voice processing
C.Brick and Mortar processing
D.All of above
E.None
B.Voice processing
234. In E-commerce the purchaser shift his / her purchasing from a physical store to
A.Virtual store on Internet
B.Virtual banking on Internet
C.E-money
D.Master Card
E.B2B
A.Virtual store on Internet
235. what goods and services can be marketed through e-commerce?
A.Real products
B.Selling of information
C.Advertising
D.Entertainment
E.All of above
A.Real products
236. Write benefits to consumers of E-commerce
A.Special tailored information
B.Multimedia presentation
C.Ability to place orders easily
D.Rediffmail online services for payment
E.All of above
E.All of above
237. Benefits of e-banking to consumers
A.Anywhere banking
B.Anytime banking
C.Lowers the risk with cash
D.Reduction in cost
E.All of above
E.All of above
238. Home banking services means and includes
A.Cash transactions
B.Non-cash transactions
C.Both Cash and non-cash
D.None
C.Both Cash and non-cash
239. The maximum loan that can be granted to a private retail trader dealing in non-essential
commodities is
A.1 lakh
B.2 lakh
C.3 lakh
D.5 lakh
B.2 lakh
240. Motor vehicle can be financed to the following professionals under Priority Sector
A.Architect
B.Engineer
C.Medical Practitioner
D.none of these
C.Medical Practitioner
241. Mr. Suresh, a Photocopier, requests for a term loan of Rs 10.00 lakh for purchase of 3
photocopying machines costing Rs 12.00 lakh. He will meet loan WC requirements from his
own resources.Manager can sanction the loan under Priority Sector:
A.10 lakh
B.12 lakh
C.Cannot sanction
D.Regional manager can sanction
C.Cannot sanction
242. Mr.Satish runs a travel agency. He dose not know driving. He approaches the bank for
loan of Rs 7.00 lakh for purchase and furnishing of the van for travel and tour operator. Bank
can
A.Refuse the loan
B.sanction
C.Sanction if driving license is obtained
D.refuse since loan is excessive
B.sanction
243. The maximum loan that can be granted under village and cottage industries is Rs
A.50,000
B.65,000
C.25,000
D.no limit
A.50,000
244. Net Working Capital / margin means
A.Money invested by the borrower
B.Bank loan
C.Subsidy from Government
D.All the above
A.Money invested by the borrower
245. The minimum percentage of Priority Sector advances to be maintained by foreign banks
in India
A.40%
B.32%
C.15%
D.no minimum limit
B.32%
246. Which of the following scheme is not covered under weaker section
A.IRDP
B.DRI
C.PMRY
D.consumption loan
C.PMRY
247. Loan for fish rearing is covered under priority sector as advance
A.Direct Agriculture
B.Indirect agriculture
C.Allied to indirect agriculture
D.None
A.Direct Agriculture
248. Training of Rural Youth for Self-Employment [TRYSEM] relates to:
A.Agricultural production
B.Irrigation
C.Small scale industry
D.Self-employment in rural areas
D.Self-employment in rural areas
249. Minor irrigation schemes includes
A.Dig-wells
B.Tube/bore-wells
C.Lift irrigation pumps
D.all of these
D.all of these
250. Tyre re-treading activity and coffee processing shall be treated as an industrial activity
eligible under
A.SSI
B.SSSBE
C.Tiny
D.Service
A.SSI
251. The advanced not faulting under the priority sector is
A.SSI + Retail Trade + Small Business
B.Professional / self-employed + Agriculture
C.Wholesale Traders + Export + Education Loans to Business Management Institutes
D.Funds provided by sponsoring bank to RRBs
D.Funds provided by sponsoring bank to RRBs
252. Indirect agriculture advance means
A.Advances granted to agriculture for motor car to visit city
B.Advances granted to profit motive institutions which help indirectly to agriculture or
farming community
C.Advance granted to commission agents
D.Advances granted to Urban Electricity corpn.
B.Advances granted to profit motive institutions which help
indirectly to agriculture or farming community
253. Cardinal principles of lending are

A.Safety and liquidity
B.Profitability and diversifications of risks
C.Productive purpose and security
D.Only (i) and (iii)
E.All of (i) to (iii)
E.All of (i) to (iii)
254. Liquidity with a banker means
A.Cash on Hand
B.Cash and Bank balances
C.Short term current assets to convert into cash
D.farming community
E.None
D.farming community
255. Customer profitability analysis means
A.Exercise done by bank before to lending for a customer
B.Exercise before opening a new branch
C.Assets the profitability of customers business
D.Only (i) and (iii)
E.none
B.Exercise before opening a new branch
256. Banker can reduce risk in lending to a borrower
A.by obtaining adequate security
B.by ensuring that there will be no problem of liquidity with borrower
C.by ensuring that there will be no the account of lack of liquidity and lack of willingness to
pay on the part of the borrower
C.by ensuring that there will be no the account of lack of liquidity
and lack of willingness to pay on the part of the borrower
257. In bankers parlance, credit risk in lending refers to
A.default of repayment by a borrower
B.default of a bankers in maintaining SLR
C.default of a banker to release credit to a borrower
D.none of above
A.default of repayment by a borrower
258. Net working capital means
A.Current assets Current Liabilities
B.Owned funds goodwill
C.Use of assets + sources of funds
D.None of above
A.Current assets Current Liabilities
259. Major Current assets are
A.Marketable investments and cash/receivable/inventories
B.Inventories + cash + receivables
C.Share in sister concern + unquoted shares + cash
D.All of above
A.Marketable investments and cash/receivable/inventories
260. What are the sources of working capital
A.Trade credits + Unsecured Loans + Deposits
B.Bank borrowings + Advance Payments
C.Net working capital
D.All of above
E.None
D.All of above
261. Working Capital means
A.Requirements for day to day transactions
B.Excess of current assets over current liabilities
C.Fixed assets current assets
D.None of above
A.Requirements for day to day transactions
262. Term loans mean Loans
A.Payable after one year to 10 years
B.repayment is done in installments
C.Term loans are utilized for acquisition of fixed assets
D.All of above
E.Only (i) and (ii)
D.All of above
263. Working Capital needs are estimated by
A.Operating Cycle method
B.Projected Turnover method
C.Cash Budget method
D.Any of above
E.None of above
D.Any of above
264. Difference between Cash Budget and Cash Flow

A.Cash flow deals with cash and non-cash funds
B.Cash Budget deals with Cash Transactions only
C.Cash flow statement are for quarterly or half yearly while cash budget for short periods
D.Cash budget is projection into future while cash flow statement is historical
E.All of above
E.All of above
265. Advantages of Cash Budget could be
A.Borrower plans in advance cash requirements
B.Banker is able to spot to danger signal quickly and corrective measures could be taken
C.Banker can plan his resources to meet credit demands
D.All of above
E.Any of the above
D.All of above
266. In there any exposure ceiling for banks in providing advances / loan to borrowers?
A.15% of capital funds for single borrower and 40% in a borrowers group
B.10% of capital funds for single borrower and 20% in a borrowers group
C.25% of capital funds for single borrower and 50% in a borrowers group for
infrastructural projects.
D.No such ceiling
A.15% of capital funds for single borrower and 40% in a borrowers
group
267. Credit decisions are affected by risks like
A.Credit risk / Market risk / Operational risk
B.Liquidity / interest rate / foreign exchange rate
C.Commodity price / equity price risks
D.None of above
A.Credit risk / Market risk / Operational risk
268. When a Loan will be NPA?
A.interest and / or Loan instalments overdue for more than 90 days
B.A/c is out of order for more than 90 days in case of overdraft / cash credit
C.Bill remain overdue for more than 90 days in BP / BD
D.All of above
E.Only (i) and (iii)
D.All of above
269. Charging of interest at monthly rests would / would not change overdue under NPA.
A.Would make overdue of 90 days form monthly interest debiting
B.Would make overdue 90 days from previous Quarter ending
C.Both of above
D.None of above
B.Would make overdue 90 days from previous Quarter ending
270. Advances granted to units placed under rehabilitation package approved by BIFR / TLI
are treated as
A.NPA
B.Standard assets
C.Additional credit facilities to such unit are to be treated as Non-NPA for two years
approved by BIFR / TLI
D.Additional credit facilities granted by banks under nursing programmed prepared by
banks themselves
A.NPA
271. Working capital gap means
A.Total current assets total current liabilities
B.Total current assets Current Liabilities, other than bank borrowing
C.Total assets total liabilities
B.Total current assets Current Liabilities, other than bank
borrowing
272. Maximum permissible Bank Finance (MPBF) is arrived at by
A.Deducting net working capital from working capital gap
B.Deducting net working capital gap from total assets
C.Deducting NWC from Total Current assets
D.None of above
A.Deducting net working capital from working capital gap
273. Negative Lien means
A.A declaration by a Co. not to encumber assets of the co. without previous consent of
banker
B.A Lien letter executed by the Co. authorising the bank to mark lien on it
C.A trust letter executed by a Co.
D.A declaration that bank cannot provide cash to Co. if demanded

A.A declaration by a Co. not to encumber assets of the co. without
previous consent of banker
274. Charge created on LIC policy is
A.Lien
B.Set-off
C.Hypothecation
D.Pledge
E.Assignment
E.Assignment
275. Under Law of Limitation the liability of a guarantor is
A.3 years date of document
B.3 years from date of advance
C.3 years from date of invocation
D.12 years
E.30 years
C.3 years from date of invocation
276. A guarantor is liable only when
A.The principle debtor has defaulted to pay
B.The creditor has exhausted his remedy against the principal debtor
C.The guarantor is called upon to pay on default by the principal debtor
D.After the expiry of limitation period of guarantee
E.None of above
C.The guarantor is called upon to pay on default by the principal
debtor
277. A computer network mainly used to share
A.Data
B.Software
C.Hardware
D.All of above
E.None of these
D.All of above
278. Terminals connected to server is known as
A.Client
B.Nodes
C.a & b
D.CPU
E.None of these
C.a & b
279. For uninterrupted power supply in branch computerisation following device is used
A.Online UPS
B.Offline UPS
C.Convertor
D.Generator
E.None of these
A.Online UPS
280. Proper functioning of computerised system is ensured by
A.Generation of audit trails
B.Exceptional transaction
C.Tallying of cash book
D.All of the above
E.None of these
D.All of the above
281. In multi-user computer networking
A.Computer are based on centralized processing concept
B.Various terminals are attached to main computer
C.All data and information is kept on main computer
D.Large number of users can be connected to central computer
E.All of above
E.All of above
282. In star topology
A.Each node is joined to the central node by separate link
B.Devices are connected in close loop
C.Information is passed from one node to the other in series
D.Devices on the network are connected to a single continuous
E.All of above
283. In bus topology
E.All of above

284. In ring topology
D.B & c
E.All of above
285. In Core Banking system
A.Branches are connected to a central host
B.Branch automation modules and delivery channels are incorporated
C.Transactions are done centrally and online
D.All of above
E.None of these
D.All of above
286. Benefits in core Banking is
A.Reliable centralised data recovery
B.Data warehousing and data mining technologies
C.Integrated customer centric services
D.Core infrastructure can used for future expansion
E.All of above
E.All of above
287. ATMs provide
A.round the clock service
B.privacy in transaction
C.anywhere banking facility
D.quick and efficient service
E.all of above
E.all of above
288. From the bank point of view the advantage of ATMs are
A.alternative to expand banking hours
B.cash handling and cash transportation is avoided
C.alternative to new branches
D.all of the above
E.none of these
D.all of the above
289. PIN is
A.randomly generated sequence of digits
B.postal index number
C.stored in magnetic strip of the card
D.a & c
E.none of these
D.a & c
290. Security features available with smart cards are
A.multiple pins
B.retinal pattern verification
C.dynamic signature verification
D.vein recognition
E.all of above
E.all of above
291. The advantages of the processor smart cards are
A.security
B.reliability
C.longer life
D.all of the above
E.none of these
D.all of the above
292. Electronic purse may have following number of storage space
A.only one
B.two
C.several
D.no storage space
E.none of these
C.several
293. Cheque truncation can be done by
A.using MICR data
B.sending cheque by speed post
C.using image processing
D.a & c
E.none of these
D.a & c
294. The credit card offers
A.revolving credit for certain period

B.pay off the entire amount of card usage
C.on-line recover of amount of card usage
D.all of above
E.none of these
295. the debit card offers
B.pay of the entire amount of card usage
C.online recover of amount of card usage
D.all of above
E.none of these
296. The Charge card offers
D.all of above
E.(e) none of these
297. MODEM does the following:
A.modulates digital signals into analog
B.demodulates analog signals into digital
C.converts data into image
D.both a & b
E.none of these
D.both a & b
298. A twisted pair cable consists of
A.two insulated copper wire
B.an inner copper conductor held in position by circular spacers
C.single copper wire
D.all of these
E.none of these
299. A coaxial cable consists of
C.single copper wire
D.all of these
E.none of these
300. In optical fiber data is transmitted through
A.a very thin glass or plastic fibers with a beam of light
B.satellite
C.laser beam driven by a high speed high current driver
D.both a & c
E.none of these
D.both a & c
301. In microwave systems
A.radio waves are modulates to carry information
B.wave beams are sent from one antenna to another
C.along the route, the received data is amplified and retransmitted
D.microwave signals may be passed on to the satellite
E.all of above
D.microwave signals may be passed on to the satellite
302. Message switcher is used to
A.store and forward data to large number of terminals over a single communication channel
B.send more than one signal simultaneously over a single communication channel
C.intercept and handle communication activities for the host computer
D.all of above
E.none of above
A.store and forward data to large number of terminals over a single
communication channel
303. Multiplexer is used to
D.all of above
E.none of above
B.send more than one signal simultaneously over a single
communication channel
304. Front End Processor (FEP) is used to

D.all of above
E.none of above
C.intercept and handle communication activities for the host
computer
305. A simple transmission is capable of
A.transmitting data only in one direction
B.data movement in both the direction but only one direction at a time
C.providing simultaneous two way communication
D.data communication only
E.none of these
306. A full-duplex transmission is capable of
B.data movement in both the direction but only one direction at a time
D.data communication only
E.none of these
307. The Committee which has recommended for establishment of Data Warehouse is known
as
A.Vasudevan Committee
B.Rangarajan Committee
C.Saraf Committee
D.Shere Committee
E.None of these
A.Vasudevan Committee
308. Data mining techniques can be applied in
A.Predicting future trends based on applied in
B.Credit Risk analysis
C.Analysing demographic information about customers
D.All of the above
E.None of these
D.All of the above
309. Communication technology
A.facilitate the processing of data
B.helps in transmission of data
C.enables decision support system
D.is a tool for data mining
E.All of the above
B.helps in transmission of data
310. Which of the following is the gateway in India for EDI services worldwide
A.Satyam online
B.BSNL
C.MTNL
D.VSNL
E.None of these
D.VSNL
311. The Universal set of standards for EDI is known as
A.EDIFACT
B.EDI
C.ISO
D.BIS
E.None of these
A.EDIFACT
312. Banks can use a corporate website for
A.dissemination of information
B.financial advice
C.accounts service
D.Selling products
E.None of these
E.None of these
313. Computer-based information systems offer
A.data consistency
B.data redundancy
C.flexibility and ease for modification
D.All of the above
E.None of these
D.All of the above
314. Decision support system (DSS) uses
A.query language
B.adhoc report generator
C.statistical analyzer
D.graphics
E.All of above
E.All of above
315. Impact of IT on banks can be
A.change in organisational structure
B.change in organisational orientation
C.change in service delivery channel
D.change in customer aspiration
E.All of above
E.All of above
316. Information technology has resulted in
A.improved efficiency
B.innovative products
C.effective delivery system
D.enhanced productivity
E.all of the above
E.all of the above
317. A typical computerized environment constitutes three interdependent but separate
components.
A.Software, hardware and data
B.Hardware, software and UPS
C.Software, modem and Networking
D.Software, peopleware and data
E.None of these
A.Software, hardware and data
318. The risks broadly lead to:
A.Incorrect decision-making leading to setback to business
B.Interruption in activities due to loss of data, hardware, software peopleware
C.Violation of privacy
D.Direction financial loss due to computer funds
E.All of these
E.All of these
319. The objective of computer auditing is:
A.Assets safeguarding
B.Preserving data integrity
C.Achieving system efficiency
D.All of above
E.None of these
D.All of above
320. The consequences of error in computerized systems are more serious than in manual
systems because
A.Computer systems process more data
B.Errors in computer systems are generated at high speed, and the cost to correct may be
high
C.User of computer systems perceive the computer output to be always correct
D.All of above
E.a and c
D.All of above
321. Compared to a manual system, in a computer system:
A.The methodologies for implementing controls change
B.Basic control objectives are more difficult to achieve
C.Control objectives are more difficult to achieve
D.All of above
E.a and b
D.All of above
322. Segregation of duties in computerized environments is necessary because:
A.It increases employees efficiency
B.Unlimited access to various can be avoided
C.It generates employment
D.All of above
E.b and c
D.All of above
323. Risk prone component(s) in computerised systems
A.Error and omission in data and software
B.Unauthorised disclosure of confidential information
C.Computer abuse and mis-utilisation of banks assets
D.Frauds
E.All of above
E.All of above
324. Effective control mechanism(s) in computerised environment
A.Preventive
B.Detective
C.Corrective
D.All of above
E.a and c
D.All of above
325. Scope of System Audit is to
A.Review of operations to establish compliance
B.Review of the adequacy of producers and controls
C.Integrity review focused at fraud detection / prevention of IT system
D.All of above
E.None of these
D.All of above
326. Audit trail is
A.A chronological record of all events occurring in a system
B.Report submitted by auditors
C.A collection of record generated by Database Administrator
D.All of above
E.None of these
A.A chronological record of all events occurring in a system
327. Market is a geographical place where goods can be bought or sold
True
False
False
328. Marketing is not relevant to a temple.
True
False
False
329. Marketing is concerned with selling.
True
False
True
330. Marketing implies meeting needs ___________
A.Competition
B.Profitably
C.Opportunities
B.Profitably
331. The business become customer and market driven due to increased ______.
A.Competition
B.Profitably
C.Opportunities
A.Competition
332. Marketing identifies ____________ in customer requirements.
A.Competition
B.Opportunities
C.Profitably
B.Opportunities
333. The following dose not represent a market situation
A.a bank run dispensary located in its staff quarters
B.a fund raising charity show for the members of an NGO
C.a meditation camp of a religious organisation conducted or its members
D.a stall distribution kada prasad in a gurudwara
D.a stall distribution kada prasad in a gurudwara
334. The markets are grouped into different types based on the geographical area, location of
market place, product, nature of transaction, and volume of transaction.In the above
statement the following is not correct
A.nature of transaction
B.geographical area
C.location of marketplace
D.volume of transaction
C.location of marketplace
335. The following offering is not a service
A.Fixed deposit receipt
B.Postage stamp
C.Insurance Policy
D.Gift coupon of a chain store
D.Gift coupon of a chain store
336. The act of obtaining a desired object from someone by offering something in return is
called as a __________.
A.Transaction
B.Exchange
C.Relationship
D.Value
B.Exchange
337. Economists use the term ________ to refer to a collection of buyers and sellers who
transact in a particular product class
A.Customer
B.Market
C.Exchange
D.Experience
B.Market
338. Match with following 1-Market
A.Many Sellers Few Buyers
B.House to house vegetable
C.National Stock Exchange
D.Railway
339. Match with following 2-Service
B.Chandni Chowk
D.Railway
D.Railway
340. Match with following 3-Need
A.Thirst
B.Chandni Chowk
C.Hike in crude prices
D.Railway
A.Thirst
341. Match with following 3-Market Condition
B.Chandni Chowk
D.Railway
342. The identification and satisfaction of _________ _______ from the basis of marketing.
A.
B.
C.consumers requirements
C.consumers requirements
343. Marketing is concerned with the creation and maintenance of mutually satisfying
_________.
A.
B.exchange
B.exchange
344. Wants for specific products backed by an ability and __________ to buy them result in a
demand
A.wiliness
B.
C.
A.wiliness
345. The focus of modern marketing is on __________ ________ ___________
A.customer relationship management
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.customer relationship management
346. One view on classification of goods and services is that there is no such thing as service
industries and that everybody is in __________
A.
B.
C.service
D.
E.
C.service
347. Service have special characteristics namely,__________ , which affect their marketing
process.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A.
348. Marketing activities can be performed not only by sellers but also by potential buyers
True
False
True
349. Marketing comprises only actual buyers and not the potential buyers.
True
False
False
350. Financial services are simpler hence they have different and simpler characteristics than
other services
True
False
False
351. marketing mix for services is easier to formulate than that for physical.
True
False
False
352. Out of the items mentioned below ____________ is not product.
A.Pilgrimage tour to Badrinath
B.Green Mumbai call
C.Crescent Apartment Housing Society
D.Discourse for public by Shri Suhanshu Maharaj at Cross Maidan, Mumbai
C.Crescent Apartment Housing Society
353. Match with options 1-Pepsi included in a Combo at McDonalds
A.Brand Name
B.Associated features
C.Brand Name
D.Associated features
354. Match with options 2-Dry fruits in a glass bowl in Diwali Gift Pack
A.The core
C.Package and label
A.The core
355. Match with options 3-A Taj meal on jet Airways flight loan
A.The core
C.Package and label
356. Match with options 4-ALLBANK in housing loan offering of Allahabad Bank
A.Brand Name
C.Package and label
A.Brand Name
357. In banking services bank guarantee is at a _________Product
level in customer value hierarchy
A.
B.basic
C.
D.
E.
B.basic
358. External Commercial Borrowing is
A.Consumer Product
B.Industrial Product
C.Non-durable Goods
D.Durable Goods
E.Material Supplies
359. Writing paper bought by your bank is
A.Consumer Product
C.Non-durable Goods
D.Durable Goods
E.Material Supplies
E.Material Supplies
360. Petrol bought for your car is
A.Consumer Product
C.Non-durable Goods
D.Durable Goods
E.Material Supplies
A.Consumer Product
361. Compact Disks (CDs) are
A.Consumer Product
C.Non-durable Goods
D.Durable Goods
E.Material Supplies
C.Non-durable Goods
362. A bank offer under mentioned products, out of which _______ does not belong to the
product line(s) of others
A.Regular Saving Account
B.Premium Saving Account with overdraft line
C.Demand Draft
D.Credit Card
E.Bankers Cheque
D.Credit Card
363. A product has a life cycle comprising _________ (number of stages)
A.
B.
C.Four
C.Four
364. The concept of product life cycle is not of much concern to marketers but to engineers or
product developers. (Please state True and False)
True
False
False
365. The sales of a new product in the introduction stage do not depend on _________ out of
the following
A.Product Brand Name
B.Product Features
C.Product Price
D.Sellers Brand
A.Product Brand Name
366. In the maturity stage the product has established itself hence there is no need for any
further marketing efforts. (Please state True or False)
True
False
False
367. Match the items 1-Low Sales, Maeginal
A.Maturity
B.Decline
C.Growth
D.Introduction
A.Maturity
368. Match the items 2-Fast Growth, Rising Profits
A.Maturity
B.Decline
C.Growth
D.Introduction
C.Growth
369. Match the items 3-Falling Sales, Low Margins
A.Maturity
B.Decline
C.Growth
D.Introduction
B.Decline
370. Out of the items mentioned below, ___________ is not a product
A.Lecture by Shri Sudhanshu Maharaj
B.Simla
C.Ballet performance by Hema Malini
D.Visit to Banks London Office
D.Visit to Banks London Office
371. A product ___________ is a group of related products that function in a similar manner,
are sold to the same customer groups, and marketed through the same type of outlets
A.group
B.line
C.category
D.market
B.line
372. Goods that are typically bought by a consumer based on a comparison of suitability,
quality,price, and style are called __________ goods
A.industrial
B.speciality
C.shopping
D.convenience
C.shopping
373. Out of the following, ________ is not one of the three levels of a products
A.core
B.augmented
C.actual
D.fragmented
D.fragmented
374. A bank has a special product for senior citizens which provides cheque book on savings
account with customers name on cheque book, free of cost debit card with overdraft facility of
Rs 20,000 a special pouch for holding pass book, cheque book and debit card, facility for
withdrawal and deposits at any branch of the bank, free of cost remittances to any branch of
the bank free of cost remittances to any branch of another bank covered under RTGS facility.
Which of the following is the core product in this offering?
A.overdraft
B.debit card
C.remittances
D.savings account
D.savings account
375. Industrial goods are classified based on the manner in which the purchasing agent shops
for and buys the goods
True
False
False
376. The characteristic of service that it cannot be stored for future use is known as
intangibility
True
False
False
377. Product line consistency refers to the number of versions offered of each product line
True
False
False
378. Marketers are now developing offering that give total customer experience so that their
offering are differentiated from the competition
True
False
True
379. A brand name should suggest something about the products benefits and qualities
True
False
True
380. Product Personality is
A.Core benefit
B.Expected product
C.The core
D.Product items
C.The core
381. Product Level is
A.Core benefit
B.Expected product
C.The core
D.Product items
A.Core benefit
382. Product Line is
A.Core benefit
B.Expected product
C.The core
D.Product items
D.Product items
383. Product Life Cycle is
A.Decline
B.Brand
C.The core
D.Product items
A.Decline
384. Assets are
A.Decline
B.Brand
C.The core
D.Product items
B.Brand
385. Out of the following, ___________ is not an objective of pricing.
A.Profit
B.Stabilising demand and sales of the product
C.Improvement in product quality
D.Expansion of business
D.Expansion of business
386. of the following pricing methods, _________ is not based on competitors pricing
A.English Auction
B.Sealed-Bid Auction
C.Going-rate Pricing
D.Group Pricing
D.Group Pricing
387. Of the following pricing strategies, __________ is not ideal for new products
A.Market-skimming
B.Discriminatory pricing
C.Market-penetration
D.Promotional pricing
B.Discriminatory pricing
388. Price for any product is a constant
True
False
False
389. One of the objectives of pricing is getting cash inflows at the required time
True
False
True
390. Perceived value pricing takes the buyers perception into account
True
False
True
391. A _________ discount is offered by the seller to intermediary who performs functions
like selling, storing and record keeping
A.quantity
B.trade
C.cash
D.seasonal
B.trade
392. In market skimming pricing strategy:
A.initially price is lower and then it is increased
B.initial price is high and is maintained high
C.initial price is low and is maintained low
D.initially price is higher and then it is reduced
D.initially price is higher and then it is reduced
393. Bank of Kuber is offering 1% interest rate on fixed deposits to senior citizens of 60 years
and above It is practicing ___________.
A.promotional pricing
B.psychological pricing
C.segmental pricing
D.product mix pricing
C.segmental pricing
394. With _________ pricing, the products are priced below list price ( or even below cost)
for a temporary period to create period to create buying urgency.
A.reference
B.by-product
C.market penetration
D.promotional
D.promotional
395. Of the following pricing methods, ________ is not cost based method
A.value pricing
B.target-return pricing
C.mark-up pricing
D.marginal cost Pricing
A.value pricing
396. Trade discount is also called a functional discount
True
False
True
397. An aspect of psychological pricing is reference prices prices that buyers carry in their
minds and refer to a when looking at a give product
True
False
True
398. A firm should set a single price for a product and keep it constant as it moves through its
life cycle.:True
False
False
399. For segmented pricing to be effective, members of the segment paying the lower price
should be able to resell the product to the segment paying the higher price.
True
False
False
400. With product form segmented pricing different variants of the products are priced
differently but not according to their costs
True
False
True
401. Factor influencing price is
A.Two part pricing
B.Cash rebates
C.Market penetration pricing
D.Usage characteristics of product
E.Target return pricing
402. Pricing method is
A.Two part pricing
B.Cash rebates
403. Pricing strategy for new product is
A.Two part pricing
B.Cash rebates
404. Promotional pricing is
A.Two part pricing
B.Cash rebates
B.Cash rebates
405. Product mix pricing is
A.Two part pricing
B.Cash rebates
A.Two part pricing
406. Marketing channel refers to _________
A.a physical channel for movement of goods in them from the seller to buyer
B.a set of firms who handle the physical movement of goods from one point to another
C.different departments of the producer firm which are associated in ensuring delivery of
goods to the buyer
D.a set of independent organisations involved in the process of making a product or service
available for use or consumption
D.a set of independent organisations involved in the process of
making a product or service available for use or consumption
407. The functions of distribution channel do not include ___________.
A.gathering and providing market information
B.marketing research
C.assisting the consumer in understanding and using the goods
D.promoting the sale of goods
B.marketing research
408. Of the following characteristic _______ is found only in some service like banking and
not found in case of many services.
A.inseparability
B.variability
C.client relationship
D.perishability
C.client relationship
409. The maximum number of entities at any of the levels in a distribution channel is called
the length of the channel
True
False
False
410. In selection of the marketing channel, the product characteristics are relevant and
market characteristic are of no consequence
True
False
False
411. Banking is a service industry however, as it is experience oriented the layout of the
branch along with the interior dcor make an impact on the customer
True
False
True
412. Distribution channels carry out the following functions except _______
A.Physical distribution
B.Fixing the price
C.Matching the offer
D.Risk taking
B.Fixing the price
413. A direct marketing channel is also called as _________ level channel
A.three
B.two
C.one
D.zero
D.zero
414. Computerised banking services have helped in working around the following
characteristic _______.
A.perishability and client relationship
B.inseparability and client relationship
C.variability and perishability
D.inseparability and intangibility
D.inseparability and intangibility
415. Of the following intermediaries, ________ are not found working for bank
A.direct sales agents
B.wholesellers
C.Automobile dealers
D.merchant establishments
B.wholesellers
416. The following is not among the tasks performed under physical distribution
_____________.
A.storage of goods
B.taking orders
C.forecasting demand for product
D.servicing of the product
D.servicing of the product
417. For industrial products direct-marketing channel is better suited.
True
False
True
418. The location of the bank branches should be convenient for maintaining management
control due to risky nature of banking business irrespective of the customer convenience
True
False
False
419. The branch network of a bank is affected by RBIs policy among other factors.
True
False
True
420. Physical distribution function of marketing distribution channel does not have an effect
on service
True
False
False
421. The two main modes of transport for goods in India are rail and road
True
False
True
422. Distribution Channel
A.Direct Channel
B.Levels
C.Length of Marketing Channel
D.Two or Three Level Channel
E.Storage Warehouses Equipped to Despatch Goods Quickly on receipt of Orders
B.Levels
423. Number of Levels
A.Direct Channel
B.Levels
424. Perishable Products
A.Direct Channel
B.Levels
A.Direct Channel
425. Strong Competition
A.Direct Channel
B.Levels
426. Distribution Centers
A.Direct Channel
B.Levels
E.Storage Warehouses Equipped to Despatch Goods Quickly on
receipt of Orders
427. The tools for communications with the customer are __________.
A.Promotion mix
B.Product and price
C.(i) and (ii)
D.(i) and other three elements of marketing mix
D.(i) and other three elements of marketing mix
428. Promotion seeks to influence the buyer in decision making through ________.
A.Persuasion
B.Compulsion
C.Reminding
D.(i),(iii) information and reinforcement
D.(i),(iii) information and reinforcement
429. Promotion is an exercise of maintaining contact with the consumer at different levels so
as to_________
A.enhance customer relationship
B.Iure the customer in to buying the products
C.prevent customer from being critical of the firm
D.none of the above
A.enhance customer relationship
430. Promotion mix of a firm includes public relations.
True
False
True
431. In integrated marketing communications, the elements of promotion mix are blended
True
False
True
432. Buyers behaviour stage is not relevant for determining the promotion mix
True
False
False
433. An advertisement is not for __________.
A.suggesting new uses of a product

B.telling about a new uses of a product
C.explaining how a product works
D.building brand preference
C.explaining how a product works
434. Direct marketing does not cover __________
A.online marketing
B.public relations
C.personal selling
D.catalogue marketing
B.public relations
435. Doller Rupee Co-operative Bank with ten branches in Mumbai should not opt for
___________.As medium for its advertisement campaign
A.star plus channel on television
B.Mumbai edition of Mid-Day eveninger
C.Hording at dadar in Mumbai
D.Suburban train in Mumbai
A.star plus channel on television
436. Personal selling is not an ideal medium of communication for _________
A.core banking system
B.internet banking
C.a product in decline stage
D.treasury-based investment product
C.a product in decline stage
437. Public relations element will not include __________.
A.A report on the bank appearing in a periodical
B.a program o f Lata Mangeshkar sponsored by the bank
C.an eye camp for cataract surgery sponsored by the bank
D.a presentation made to the employees of utpadansheel udyog Ltd.
D.a presentation made to the employees of utpadansheel udyog
Ltd.
438. Advertisements are the best medium for personal communication with Customers
True
False
False
439. Personal selling is a useful strategy for sales in case of a decline stage of a product
True
False
False
440. The current view of the salesmen is that they should be concerned more than just
producing sales ,and should be made to produce customer satisfaction
True
False
True
441. Direct marketing has become the fastest growing form of marketing
True
False
True
442. Direct marketing has not proved to be a useful tool for building lasting Customer
relationships
True
False
False
443. Marketing information system is ___________ pertaining to marketing
A.the computer hardware system used for handling database
B.the set of input and output report / statements to collate and purvey
C.the structure of people, equipment and procedures for generating and processing
information
D.the software used for collecting and processing information
C.the structure of people, equipment and procedures for generating
and processing information
444. Marketing information system is concerned with information about ___________.
A.consumers
B.channel intermediaries
C.sales force
D.all of the above
D.all of the above
445. The marketing personnel need information ______________ intervals.
A.at yearly
B.at quarterly
C.at monthly
D.on a continuous basis and regular
E.
D.on a continuous basis and regular
446. Marketing information system is necessary because information is just not available to
the decision makers from any ready source.
True
False
False
447. Marketing research uses the information readily available from the secondary sources
True
False
False
448. Marketing information system help in validating information and sorting out conflicting
information
True
False
True
449. Firm need to collect and analyse the data
A.Projecting their organisation as knowledge oriented
B.enabling the top management to keep control over the sales force
C.taking the required steps for effective marketing of their products
D.for utilising their information technology capabilities
C.taking the required steps for effective marketing of their products
450. An effective MIS fulfils these _________.
A.Analysis of quantitative information
B.Coordination among functional and specialists executives
C.Limited to current scenario
D.Both (i) and (ii) above
D.Both (i) and (ii) above
451. The components of Marketing Information System do not include _________
A.Marketing Intelligence system
B.Internal Records System
C.Information technology System
D.None of the above
C.Information technology System
452. The ultimate user of the Marketing Information System are __________.
A.the customer of the firm
B.the competitor of the firm
C.the decision makers in the firm
D.both (i) and (ii) above
C.the decision makers in the firm
453. Which of the following situation falls under the purview of marketing Research System?
A.Riddhi Vriddhi Bank wants to send Diwali greeting cards to all its fixed deposit account
holders with deposits of Rs. 10,000 or more.
B.Monday Honey Bank wants to have a profile of Kalahandi Disrict to decide about opeing a
new branch there
C.Get Rich Fast Bank wants a comparative business statistics with other 10 peer level
banks in the country
D.Baroda branch of Prosperous Customer Bank is twelve-year-old, and it recorded a
compound annual growth rate of 20% in deposits during the first ten years, which has been
better than the industry average. However, during the last two years the branch has
witnessed a significant decline in its deposits. Managing Director of the Bank desire to know
the causes for ameliorating the situation.
D.Baroda branch of Prosperous Customer Bank is twelve-year-old,
and it recorded a compound annual growth rate of 20% in deposits during the first ten years,
which has been better than the industry average. However, during the last two years the
branch has witnessed a significant decline in its deposits. Managing Director of the Bank
desire to know the causes for ameliorating the situation.
454. Marketing information system in not concerned with the evaluation of information
colleted from either primary source or secondary sources.
True
False
False
455. Promotion mix
A.Public relations
B.A hoarding at the station
C.A press report on centenary of the bank

D.Contests
E.Strong message consistency
A.Public relations
456. Sales promotion
A.Public relations
D.Contests
457. Direct marketing
A.Public relations
D.Contests
458. Public relations
A.Public relations
D.Contests
D.Contests
459. promotion-mix integration
A.Public relations
D.Contests
460. The marketing information requirements of a firm are very limited and for one time
need
True
False
False
461. Marketing information system collects and analyses the information as per the system
initially prescribed and is not concerned with the type of information required by
management
True
False
False
462. Typically, most of the information for the marketing information system is collected from
secondary sources
True
False
True
463. Consumer is of no relevance for the marketing information system, since almost entire
information is collected from independent sources.
True
False
False
464. Marketing Research System
A.Major source published information
B.Database management
C.Data collected specifically
D.Geographic, demographic, psychographic and behavioural data on customers and
prospects
E.Operations research tools
465. Marketing Intelligence System
prospects
466. Marketing Information System

prospects
467. Customer database
prospects
D.Geographic, demographic, psychographic and behavioural data on
customers and prospects
468. Data analysis
prospects

All Pat 1

Încărcat de

Informații document

Titlu original

Drepturi de autor

Formate disponibile

Partajați acest document

Partajați sau inserați document

Opțiuni de partajare

Vi se pare util acest document?

Este necorespunzător acest conținut?

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

All Pat 1

Încărcat de

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

Your IIBF Sample Question Results

B.Multi-Unit Cooperative Societies Act

The Correct Answer is :

The Correct Answer is :

B.return cheque with memo stating A/c holder in jail

B.Both the accounts in the same name and rights

The Correct Answer is :

A.Institution having paid up capital of Rs 10 crore

253. Cardinal principles of lending are

264. Difference between Cash Budget and Cash Flow

The Correct Answer is :

The Correct Answer is :

A.revolving credit for certain period

304. Front End Processor (FEP) is used to

A.suggesting new uses of a product

C.A press report on centenary of the bank

D.Geographic, demographic, psychographic and behavioural data on customers and

S-ar putea să vă placă și