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FREE MOCK TEST AIIMS NOV 2015

by admin on 25 Oct, 2015 - Comments Off on Free Mock Test AIIMS Nov 2015

Hello Dharma Raj S,You have completed Mock Test AIIMS Nov 2015.
You scored 45 correct out of 90 questions.
You have collected 146 points.
Your answers are shown below:
1. Which of the following is not used in the treatment of Trigeminal Neuralgia:
Radiofrequency thermocoagulation
Percutaneous ganglion neurolysis
Electrocoagulation of trigeminal nucleus
Cryotherapy of peripheral nerves
Electrocoagulation of the gasserian ganglion is a known procedure for the treatment of TN. However, damage to the trigeminal nucleus would
cause widespread sensory deficits in the head and face region. Hence this is definitely not recommended.
2. 3M Lava uses which technique for crown fabrication:
CAD-CAM based
Sintered
Castable
Shrink-Free base
3M ESPE Lava Crowns and Bridges are Lava Zirconia-based restorations overlaid with an approved veneering ceramic. The zirconia copings
and frameworks provide the strength while the veneering material provides the esthetics. The system is used for crowns, implant abutments,
and bridges with a span of up to 48 mm in length.
Using the speed and precision of CAD/CAM technology, it creates all-ceramic crown and bridge substructures with zirconia, an extremely
strong, stable and fracture-resistant ceramic material.

3. Not true regarding occlusal rest seats:

Maintains established occlusal relationships by preventing settling of the denture
Provides only occlusal support

Provides only occlusal support

The angle formed by the occlusal rest and the vertical minor connector from which it originates should be more than 90
Base of the seat should be at least 2. 5 mm for both molars and premolars.
The angle formed by the occlusal rest and the verticalminor connector from which it originatesshould be less than 90. Onlyin this way can
the occlusal forces be directedalong the long axis of the abutment tooth. Anangle greater than 90 fails to transmit occlusalforces along the
supporting vertical axis of theabutment tooth. This also permits slippage of the
prosthesis away from the abutment, which canresult in orthodontic-like forces being applied toan inclined plane on the abutment, with
possibletooth movement
The occlusal rest should provide only occlusalsupport. Stabilization against horizontal movement ofthe prosthesis must be provided by other
componentsof the partial denture rather than by any locking effect

4. ETT used for cleft palate patients is:

Combitube
Coles tubes
Nasotracheal intubation
RAE tubes
South facing Ring, Adair and Elwyn(RAE) tubes are the preferred tubes for intubation in a cleft patient. North facing tubes are used in lower lip
surgery.
Coles tubes are used in children

5. The access cavity for mandibular 1st premolar is typically:

Round
Oval
Triangular
Trapezoidal
Anteriors: triangular
Premolars: oval
Molars: quadrilateral

6. Which of the following is a continuous laser used for cavity preparation:

CO2
Nd:YAG
Excimer
Argon

7. Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except:

Inhibits Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Decreases intracellular cAMP level

Decreases intracellular cAMP level

Increases the transport of glucose into the cells
Increasing acetyl-coA carboxylase activity
Insulin acvtivates pyruvate dehydrogenase (only in adipose tissue,not in liver) which catalyses pyruvate into acetyl CoA.

8. The terminal end of retentive arm of extracoronal retainer is placed at:

Junction of middle and gingival third
Middle third
Occlusal third
Gingival third

Components of extracoronal retainers:

Rest
Function : Support
Location: Occlusal, lingual, incisal
Minor connector
Function : Stabilization;
Location : Proximal surfaces extending from a prepared marginal ridge to the junction of the middle and gingival one third of abutment crown
Clasp armsStabilization (reciprocation), Location:One third of crown
Retention, Location:Gingival one third of crown in measured undercut.

9. All of the following statements regarding ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid (EDTA) are true except:
It is also an excellent irrigation solution
The decalcifying process induced by EDTA is self-limiting
It is a chelating agent with the capability to remove the mineralized portion of the smear layer
Normally it is used in a concentration of 17%
EDTA has a limited value as irrigation solution. The decalcifying process induced by EDTA is self-limiting and stops as soon as the chelator is
used up.
10. Channel teeth were proposed by:
Avery brothers
Myerson
Victor Sears
Alfred Gysi
Myerson: Tru-cusp teeth
Avery brothers: Scissors bite teeth

Victor Sears: Channel teeth

Alfred Gysi: Trubyte
Swenson: non lock teeth
Nelson: Chopping blocks

11. Which of the following is not derived from the neural crest:
Neurons of the parasympathetic system
Majority of the connective tissue of face
Schwann cells
Neurohypophysis
Neurohypophysis is derived from the Neural tube ectoderm and not from the neural crest.
12. Which of the following lesions does not have remarkably increased vascularity?
Hemorrhaghic bone cyst
Sturge Weber syndrome
Aneurysmal bone cyst
Giant cell granuloma
The definite diagnosis of traumatic cyst is invariably achieved at surgery when an empty bone cavity without epithelial lining is observed,
leaving very little except normal bone and occasional fibrous tissue curetted from the cavity wall for the histopathologist. Sometimes, the
cavity contains a straw-coloured fluid of bright color
13. Most radiosensitive phase of cell cycle:
G1
G2
G2M
S
Most radiosensitive phase is junction of G2M phase.
Susceptibility of various phases of cell cycle to radiation:
G2M> G2 M> G1 > Early S> Late S
MK 2008

14. Throbbing pain from the pulp is carried by:

B fibres
A delta fibres
C fibres
A fibres
Throbbing pain from the pulp is carried by: C fibres
Sharp lancinating pain from the pulp is carried by: A delta fibres
Ref Rittu Duggal Q22

15. Microabrasion involves the use of :

Hydrochloric acid
Sulphuric acid
Phosphoric acid
Acetic acid
Microabrasion
Involves surface dissolution of the enamel by hydrochloric acid along with the abrasiveness of the pumice toremove superficial stains or
defects
In newer products
-HCl used is 11% conc. (initially 18% was used)
Pumice has been replaced by silicon carbide (abrasiveness of paste has been increased while acid conc. hasbeen decreased)
Stains & discolorations are removed by physical removal of tooth structure. There is no bleaching actioninvolvement
Done only when depth of defect is 0.2 0.3 mm or less. For deeper lesions, bleaching or tooth colored restorationsare indicated.

16. All of the following Health related millennium development goals in India are true except:
Hault and begin to reverse the spread of tuberculosis by 2015
Hault and begin to reverse the spread of HIV/ AIDS by 2015
Reduce maternal mortality ratio by 3/4 between 1990 to 2015
Reduce under -5 mortality rate by 2/3 between 1990-2015
Question was not answered
MK 2012; Q119
Targets as set byHealth related millennium development goals for India do not mention Hault and begin to reverse the spread of
tuberculosis by 2015 direct.
Health related millennium development goals for India :
Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
Reduce child mortality
Improve maternal health
Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other diseases
Ensure environmental sustainibility
Develop Global partnership for development

17. A 90 degree turn of expansion screw leads to opening of the screw by:
0.9 mm
0.20 mm
0.10 mm
0.36 mm
A normal Jack screw has a pitch of 0.18 m. This meas that a 90 degree turn will lead to a movement of 0.18 mm of the screw.
18. A child presents with raised ICT. On CT scan, a lesion is seen around foramen of Monroe and multiple paraventricular calcific foci.
What is the most probable diagnosis:
Ependymoma
Gangliglioma
Central neurocytoma
Subependymal Giant cell astrocytoma

Question was not answered

AA nOV 2011 Q49.
Both central neurocytoma and subependymal giant cell astrocytoma lesions can be found at the foramen of Monroe. Both can cause
obstruction atforamen of Monroe leading to ventricular enlargement and raised ICT. But it is the presence ofmultiple periventricular calcific
foci which suggests a diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis withsubependymal giant cell astrocytoma.
Other findings in tuberous sclerosis:
Calcified subependymal nodules
Cortical/subcortical tubers
White matter lesion along lines of neuronal migration

19. Chediak- Higashi syndrome is inherited as :

X-linked dominant trait
X-linked recessive
Autosomal recessive
Autosomal dominant
ChdiakHigashi syndrome is a rare autosomal recessive disorder that arises from a mutation of a lysosomal trafficking regulator protein,
which leads to a decrease in phagocytosis. The decrease in phagocytosis results in recurrent pyogenic infections, partial albinism and
peripheral neuropathy.
20. Which of the following is Phase II reaction :
Reduction
Hydrolysis
Conjugation
Oxidation
Phase II reactions :
Conjugation
Acetylation
Methylation
Ribonucleoside synthesis

21. How does root caries appear in cross section?

U shaped
Rhomboidal
V shaped
Inverted V shaped
Prabhakar/59 Q5
Root caries: u shaped
Pit and fissure caries: Inverted V shaped
Smooth surface caries: triangular/ cone shaped

22. A male patient is observed to be HBsAg antigen positive, HBeAg antigen negetive and anti-HBe antibody positive. HBV DNA copies
are observed to be 100,000/nl while SGOT and SGPT are elevated to 6 times the upper limit of normal value. What is the likely
diagnosis:
Wild HBs Ag

Wild HBs Ag
HBV precore mutant
HBV surface mutant
Inactive HBV carrier
Evidence of chronic active hepatitis B (suggested by elevated liver enzymes) in a patients with detectable HBV DNA but negative HBeAg
suggests a diagnosis of HBV precore mutant.
For detailed explanation ref to Mudit Khanna AIPG 2010; Q152

23. Reducing occlusal interferences (selective grinding) should usually be done:

After a fixed bridge but before a partial denture is delivered to a patient
After a partial denture but before a fixed bridge is delivered to a patient
Before constructing a fixed bridge or a partial denture for a patient
After a fixed bridge or a partial denture Is delivered to a patient
Selective grinding is done before constructing a fixed bridge or a partial denture for a patient. This is done to prevent duplicating the deflective
occlusal contacts in the final restoration.
24. Which of the following side chain is least polar :
Carboxyl
Phosphate
Amino
Methyl
Question was not answered
Methyl is a non polar side chain. e.g. alanine
Carboxyl group: Acidic side chain. e.g. aspartic acid and glutamic acid
Amino: basic side chain. e.g. histidine, lysine, arginine

25. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or postural position, the contact of teethis:
Not present
Slight
Premature
Maximum
Physiologic rest position results when the mandible and all of its supporting muscles are in their resting posture (there is a relative muscular
equilibrium).
The term used to describe this absence of contact is freeway space or interocclusal distance.
It usually averages between 2-6 mm.
This position is a muscle-guided* position. It is the beginning and end point of most mandibular movements.

26. Not true regarding incidence rates:

Denominator is the total population at risk
It is dependent on the duration of the illness
Usually used to define acute illnesses
Attack rate is defined when population is exposed to risk factors for a limited period of time
Question was not answered
Incidence rates are independent of the duration of the illness. also remember secondary attack rate is the proportion of the exposed
population developing the disease within the incubation period of the disease.

27. Incision for drainage (I & D) in an area of acute infection should only be performed after:
The patients fever has cleared up
Localization of the infection
A culture for antibiotic sensitivity has been performed
A sinus tract is formed
Physiologically, it is at this time that nature has constructed a barrier around the abscess, walling it off from the circulation and making it
possible to palpate the presence of purulent material within the abscess cavity (known as fluctuance).
Prior to actual abscess formation, however, the infection is capable of producing a cellulitis in the soft tissues of the region involved. The
palpable tissues take on a condition known as induration (they appear hard, dense, and brawny). Treatment during this period should be
directed towards localizing the infection.
National boards

28. Fluid of choice in a patient with burns is:

Albumin
Normal SAline
Ringers Lactate
5% dextrose
Ringers lactate is the most physiologic solution with osmolality close to plasma. It is the fluid of choice in burns patient, It is also indicated for
correction of acidosis
Fluid of choice in hypovolemic shock is normal saline and Ringers lactate. Selection of intravenous solution for initial treatment of
hypovolemic shock:
Fluids to be avoided:5% dextrose, all isolyte fluids.
Most effective agents:Colloids, albumin, blood products.
Most preferred fluids:Isotonic saline, Ringers lactate.

29. Progressive malocclusion is:

Class II
Class I
Class III
Class I + Class III
A Class III malocclusion is rare as compared to other type of malocclusions, with an incidence of possibly less than 5 percent.
It is usually a progressive type of malocclusion, which makes it difficult for the clinician to predict the future growth of such patients both in
magnitude and direction.
AIPG 2013

30. Sensorimotor stage of cognitive development is characterized by:

Animism
Conservation
Symbolic play
Egocentricism
In sensorimotor stage, the child begins to interact with environment and plays with toys while sitting on the dental chair.
Animism and constructivism are seen in preoperational stage.

31. Glomerular filtration is a major mechanism in the excretion of:

Protein bound drugs
Lipid soluble drugs
Organic acid
Ionic drugs
Renal excretion of drugs :
Glomerular filtration : ionic drugs
Tubular Secretion : Protein bound drugs and organic acids like penicillin, Salicylates, Probenecid, Thiazides

32. What is the approximate composition of a typical gypsum bonded investment?

50% silica, 45% gypsum, 5% modifiers
65% silica, 30% alfa hemihydrate, 5% modifiers
30% silica, 65% gypsum, 5% modifiers
35% silica, 60% alfa hemihydrate, 5% modifiers
Silica is the refractory and aids in thermal expansion of the investment> Hence it is the principal component of an investment.
33. Under the latest National tuberclosis control program (RNTCP 2010), which of the following is the protocol for treatment of cases
with relapse of disease:
2 HRE + 7 HR
2 months HRZES + 1 HRZE + 5HRE
Daily INH for 9 months
2 months HRZE + 4 HR
Question was not answered
Daily INH for 9 months: for prophylaxis
2 months HRZE + 4 HR: New cases (Category 1)
2 months HRZES + 1 HRZE + 5HRE : Previously treated cases ; relapse and treatment default (Category 2)
2 HRE + 7 HR: Special case, intolerance to Pyrazinamide

34. Lice are not the vectors of;

Epidemic typhus
Relapsing fever
Q fever
Trench fever
Q fever is an airborne disease.
Lice are vectors for:
Epidemic typhus: R. prowazekii
Relapsing fever: Borrelia recurrentis (Ticks are also a vector)
Trench fever: Rochalemia quintana
Dermatitis
Pediculosis

35. Which of the following does not aid in the establishment of the occlusal vertical dimension:
Assessment of physiologic rest position
Previous photographs
Phonetics
Duration of edentulousness
Factors used for assessment of vertical occlusal dimension:
Mechanical Methods:
Ridge relation: incisive papilla to mandibular incisors distance,
Paralellism of the bases,
Measurement of former dentures
Pre-extraction records:
Profile radiographs
Casts of teeth in occlusion
facial measurements
Physiologic methods:
Physiologic rest position
Phonetics and esthetics
Swallowing threshold
Tactile Sense and patient perceived comfort

36. Which of the following sutures maintains its tensile strength for maximum period:
Polydiaxonone
Dexon
Chromic gut
Vicryl
Polydiaxonone sutures have a life of 210 days after placement. After this they are degraded in tissues by hydrolysis.
37. A child 8 years old suffered traumatic avulsionof the upper central incisor. The child was brought to the clinic within 30 minutes of
injury while the tooth was kept moist in saliva. What should be done:
Clean the tooth, scrape the PDL, soak in doxycycline and replant
Clean socket, replace the tooth and splint
Clean the tooth, obturate with GP, replant and splint
Clean the tooth, soak in Doxycycline for 5 minutes and replant
Clearly the tooth here in question is one with open apex. Since extraoral time is less than 1 hour and tooth was transported in moist condition,
attempt should be made to maintain the vitality of the PDL as well as of pulp. Soaking in doxycycline followed by replanting and splinting
should be done. Patient should be placed on antibiotics and routine radiographs should be taken for signs of root resorption/ healing.
38. BCG vaccine is an example of:
Live atternuated vaccine
Killed vaccine
Toxoids
Multivalent vaccine
Recombinant BCG is multivalent. Classic BCG is not multivalent. Hence best answer here is live attenuated vaccine.

Examples of Live attenuated vaccines:

BCG, Oral typhoid
Oral polio, Yellow fever, Measles, Rubella, Mumps, Chicken Pox, Influenza, Epidemic typhus

39. The depth of initial entry cut while establishing the outline form of a restoration cavity should be:
0.2-0.8 mm pulpal to DEJ
Restricted to enamel whether sound or carious
1-2 mm pulpal to DEJ
At the DEJ
The steps in initial tooth preparation are: (1) developing the outline form and initial depth, (2) establishing primary resistance form, (3)
establishing primary retention form, and (4) providing convenience form.
Establishing the outline form means: (1) placing the preparation margins in the positions they will occupy in the final preparation, except for
finishing enamel walls and margins, and (2) preparing an initial depth of 0.2 to 0.8 mm pulpally of the DEJ position or normal root-surface
position (no deeper initially whether in tooth structure, air, old restorative material, or caries unless the occlusal enamel thickness is minimal
and greater dimension is necessary for strength of the restorative material).

40. Burst type of fracture of mandibular condyle is seen in children due to:
Increased vascularity and thinner cortical plates
Thinner neck of condyle
Increased resilience of the body on mandible
More pronounced articular plates
High intracapsular fracture is particularly liable to lead to ankylosis (Kazanzian, 1966) especially in children. The immature, thinly covered
and highly vascular condyle may tend to burst open, with a resultant hemarthrosis containing multiple comminutedfragments of bone
with a high osteogenic potential. A close contact between the glenoid fossa and the condylar stump encourages ankylosis. Thus intracapsular
fractures lead to most cases of ankylosis than that of the extracapsular ones. A damage to the meniscus may also lead to ankylosis.
41. High-gold noble alloys, which are used in fabricating metal-ceramic restorations:
100% gold, platinum, and palladium
50% gold, platinum, and palladium
98% gold, platinum, and palladium
75% gold, platinum, and palladium
Classification of PFM Alloys
High-gold noble alloys : 98% gold, platinum, and palladium with trace elements.This is the best to use.
Palladium-silver alloys : 50-60% palladium and 30-40% silver (which is not a noble metal and thus oxidizes on casting).
Nickel-chromium alloys : 70-80% nickel and 15% chromium. These base metal alloys readily oxidize and can create porcelain-to-metal
interface problems.
Dental Decks : 2007-06

42. During inspiration when the diaphragm contracts,the intrapleural pressure becomes :
More negative
Less negative
Positive
Equal to the intra-alveolar pressure
The intrapleural pressure is always negative to the atmospheric pressure.
During inspiration it is -6mmHg and during expiration it is -2mmHg.
Intrapleural pressure prevents collapse of lungs.

43. Mean value of weight of a group of 10 boys was found to be 18.2 Kg. Later it was found that weight of one of the boys was wrongly
recorded as 2 Kg that should have been 20 Kg. The true mean weight of the group is:
20 Kg
20.2 Kg
18.2 Kg
16.4 Kg
Question was not answered
Mean (average) is obtained as sum of all values divided by the no. of values.
Mean =x/n
In the above question: mean=18.2Kg and n=10
x=182
Also the weight of one of the boyswas wrongly recorded as 2 Kg that should have been 20 Kg.
Truex= 182+(20-2) = 200
So true mean =x (true) / n = 200/10 = 20

44. What kind of occlusion is expected in a 16 year old boy with healthy dentition:
Unilateral Balanced occlusion
Bilateral Balanced occlusion
Mutually protected
Group function
Mutually protected occlusion:
Also called canine guided occlusion
Seen in young people when the slopes of the canine are intact
Based on the premise that the long root of canine with increased proprioceptors is specially suited to take occlusal loads.
During lateral excursions the log slopes of the canine cusp cause disocclusion of the posterior teeth
With time the slopes of the canine wear down and the occlusion changes from canine guided to group function

45. A 30 years old male presents to the emergency department with symptoms of epigastric pain radiating to back that wakes him up
at night and is relieved by consuming food. He gives history of similar pain in the past which was diagnosed as perforated duodenal
ulcer and treated with omental patch surgery on two occasions. Pain before and after surgery has been controlled with proton pump
inhibitors and analgesics. The likely diagnosis on this occasion is:
Atrophic gastritis
Chronic pancreatitis
Gastric ulcer
Duodenal ulcer
Question was not answered
MK AIPG 2011, Q174
Duodenal ulcer: Epigastric pain relieved by food that awakens the aptient at night(when stomach is empty).
Gastric ulcer: pain is exacerbated by food and usually does not awaken the patient at night.

Pancreatic pain: is not relieved by food and is typically relieved by bending forward and worsened on lying down.

46. Oronasal intubation is not indicated in:

Mandibular fractures
Le Fort II and III fractures
Le Fort 1 fractures
Parietal bone fractures
Nasal intubation is contraindicated in severe fractures of midface, nasal fractures and basilar skull fractures .
AIPG 2014

47. Composite filler particles function to do all of the following except:

Increase the tensile strength and compressive strength
Increase the coefficient of thermal expansion
Improve the wear resistance
Reduce the polymerization shrinkage
Fillers reduce the coefficient of thermal expansion.
As the overall filler content increases, the physical, chemical, and mechanical properties generally improve. Obviously, there is a limit to the
amount of filler that can be added to a resin because as the filler level is increased, the fluidity decreases.
Restorative composites have a high filler content while flowable composites have a low filler content.
Dental Decks : 2007-06

48. Oslers disease is another name for:

Polycythemia vera
Central giant cell granuloma
Keratosis follicularis
Peripheral giant cell granuloma
Oslers disease is another name for:Polycythemia vera (primary polycythemia)
49. If a primary lateral incisor is missing in the mouth, then it is likely that:
Permanent lateral incisor will develop later
Permanent lateral incisor will also be missing
Permanent canine will be missing
There will be crowding in the arch due to space loss
Maxillary lateral incisor is the most commonly missing tooth in the oral cavity after the third molars. As a rule if a deciduous tooth is missing,
its permanent counterpart will also be missing.

50. Robinsons classification of ameloblastoma does not include:

Clinically persistent
Non-functional
Multicentric
Anatomically benign
Robinson Definition:Ameloblastoma is a tumor usually unicentric, nonfunctional, intermittent in growth, anatomically benign and clinically

persistent.
51. Chronic pulpal involvement in a deciduous molar is first manifested as:
Internal resorption
Radiolucency in furcation area
Widening of PDL in apical 1/3rd
Radiolucency at apex of root
Furcation involvement in deciduous teeth following puplpal involvement is common because:
a) Furcation is placed quite coronally in deciduous teeth
b) There are numerous accessory canals in the deciduous teeth which connect the pulp chamber to the
furcation area.
AIPG 2011

52. In a particular trial, the association of lung cancer with smoking is found to be 40% in one sample and 60% in another. What is the
best test to compare the results:
ANOVA test
Paired t test
Fischer test
Chi square test
Chi- square test :
Is a non parametric test of significance.
Is used to compare proportions in 2 or more groups.
Is used to test significance of association between 2 or more qualitative characteristics.
Is used for non-normal distributions.
Application of Chi- square test:
Test of proportions
Test of association
Test of goodness of fit
In the given question, since 2 proportions are to be compared best test will be Chi- square test.

53. Hemosiderin particles are seen histologically in case of:

Peripheral giant cell granuloma
Pregnancy tumor
Papilloma
Fibroma
Microscopic features of giant cell granuloma.
Cellular fibroblastic stroma that shows multinucleated giant cells. Giant cells often aggregate in and around foci of hemorrhage or are seen in
vascular spaces.
The stroma shows spindle-shaped to oval-appearing fibroblasts with mitotic figures.
The overall mitosis is relatively less as compared to the mitosis seen in giant cell tumor. Within the background tissue, the stromal
inflammatory cells that include lymphocytes and plasma cells are present.
Also the cyst formation and reactive bone may be present that may show osteoblastic rimming.

54. Which of the following anticoagulants prevent clotting of blood in the normal vascular system :
Plasminogen
Heparin

Heparin
Antithrombin III
Fibrinogen
AT -III is one of the most powerful circulating anticoagulants in the bloodthat prevents clotting into the normal vascular system.
55. Second generation apex locators work on the principle of:
Electrical conductance
Circuit breaker
Electrical resistance
Electrical impedance
First-Generation :Resistance-based Apex Locator
Second-Generation :Impedance-based Apex Locator
Third-Generation :Frequency-Dependent Apex Locator
Fourth-Generation :Capacitance and Resistance-based Apex Locator
Fifth generation :Measures the capacitance and resistance of the circuit separately.
Sixth generation :Adaptive Apex Locator

56. Pore Volume in zone 3 of incipient caries is:

5-25%
More than 25%
2-4%
1%
Pore Volume in various zones of incipient caries:
Zone 1 :1%
Zone 2 : 2-3%
Zone 3 :5-25%
Zone 4 : Les than 5%

57. All of the following are advantages of using a cast chromium-cobalt alloy for removable partial dentures except:
High flexibility
High strength
Low specific gravity
Corrosion resistance
Chromium-cobalt alloys are quite inflexible. They have essentially no ductility or malleability after they are cast.
The popularity of chromium-cobalt alloys for fabrication of cast frameworks for removable partial dentures has been attributed to their low
density (weight), high modulus of elasticity (stiffness), low material cost and resistance to corrosion.
58. Most common organism causing meningitis in adults is:
S. pneumonia
N. meningitides
H. influenzae
E. coli

Earlierial H.Influenze has been a leading cause of bacterial meningitis in infants and young children. Now the latest is :
Less than 1 month : E. coli
1 month to 18 years :N. meningitides
Above 20 years : S. pneumoniae

59. False regarding Brachial plexus block:

Needle is inserted lateral to subclavian vessels in supraclavicular block
Chances of pneumothorax are maximum with supraclavicular approach
Infraclavicular approach is most commonly used
Musculocutaneous nerve is spared in axillary approach for brachial plexus block
Question was not answered
Infraclavicular approach is not routinely practised. Axillary and supraclavicular approaches are more often used.
Ulnar nerve is not anesthetized in Interscalene approach.Musculocutaneous and intercostobrachial nerves are spared in axillary approach, so
arm surgery cannot performed until these 2 nerves are seperately blocked.

60. Which of the following is not true about screening:

Used for only detection of disease
Case finding is done in patients seeking healthcare for other reasons
A screening test mush have high acceptability, repeatibility and validity
The time saved by early detection of disease is called the Lead time
Screening is used not just for early detection , it has many other uses:
Case detection
Control of disease
Research purpose
Educational opportunities

61. Test of choice for Reversible Myocardial Ischemia:

Thallium scan
Coronary angiography
MUGA scan
Resting ECHO
Nuclear cardiac imaging using radiotracers like thallium is the first line technique forReversible Myocardial Ischemia.
MK 2009

62. Walls of CT scanner room are coated with:

Iron
Lead
Glass
Tungsten
Lead is the most common agent used in modern construction to offer radiation shielding.
Other agents that have been used:
Concrete or brick blocks
Barium plaster

Barium plaster
MK 2010

63. Deficiency of which of the following vitamin is most commonly seen in short bowel syndrome with ileal resection:
Folic Acid
Vit B12
Vit K
Vit B1
Vitamin deficiencyseen in short bowel syndrome with ileal resection:
Vit B12 since it is only absorbed in the terminal ileum.
Fat soluble vit deficiencies may also occur due to fat malabsorption.
Vitamin deficiencyseen in short bowel syndrome with jejunal resection:
Deficiency of fat soluble vit (A,D,E,K)
Vit A,D > Vit E > Vit K

64. Parasympathetic nerve supply to salivary glands is by:

VII and X cranial nerves
VII and IX cranial nerves
IX and X cranial nerves
V and X cranial nerves
IX nerve: parotid gland
VII nerve: submandibular gland

65. ESWL is most effective for treatment of which type of renal stones:
Cystiene
Uric acid
Calcium oxalate monohydrate
Brushite
Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy(ESWL) is a non-invasive treatment of kidney stones (urinary calculosis) and biliary calculi.
Softer stones are easy to break with ESWL. They include:
Calcium oxalate dehydrate
Uric acid
Aptite
Struvite
Hard stones:
Calcium oxalate dehydrate
Brushite
Cystine

66. Vasopressor of choice in pregnancy is:

Phenyephrine
Methoxamine

Methoxamine
Mephentermine
Ephedrine
Ephedrine does not compromise fetal blood circulation due to prominent beta 2 action. It is the agent of choice in pregnancy.
67. A resident doctor sustained a needle prick injury while sampling blood of patient who is HIV positive. A decision is taken to offer his
postexposure prophylaxis. Which of the following would be the best recommendation:
Zidovudine + Stavudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks
Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Nevirapine for 4 weeks
Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Indinavir for 4 weeks
Zidovudine + Lamivudine for 4 weeks
According to guidelines for postexposure prophylaxis:
Two nucleoside inhibitors + Protease inhibitor for 4 weeks,
So, the best recommendation for prophylaxis will be :Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Indinavir for 4 weeks

68. Best investigation for bone metastasis is:

MRI
X-ray
CT
Bone scan
Bone scan (scintigraphy) is the investigation of choice for bone metastasis.
MK 2012

69. During thermal vitality pulp testing, the minimum temperature to elicit a response from normal or hyperemic pulp is:
50 degree F
100 degree F
200 degree F
150 degree F
During thermal vitality pulp testing, the minimum temperature to elicit a response from normal or hyperemic pulp is:65.5 C (150 F)
Thetemperatureof melting gutta percha usedin pulp testingis approximately 78C.
Ref: Ritu Duggal Q6

70. Calcium channel blocker with maximum vasodilator properties is:

All of them are equipotent
Diltiazem
Verapamil
Nifedipine
Nifedipine (dihydropyridines) are the most potent vasodilators amongst the various calcium channel blockers.

71. Which technique is is most efficient in cutting dentin while root canal preparation:
Twist and pull
Balanced force technique

Balanced force technique

Reaming
Watch winding motion
The balanced force technique is a most efficient way tocut dentin. This technique calls for oscillation of the preparationinstruments right and
left with different arcs in either direction.
To insert an instrument, it is rotated to theright (clockwise) a quarter turn as gentle inward pressure isexerted by the clinicians hand. This
action pulls the instrumentinto the canal and positions the cutting edges equallyinto the surrounding walls.
Next, the instrument is rotated left(counterclockwise) at least one-third of a revolution.Rotationof one or two revolutions is preferred, but it
may be utilizedonly when no curvature or a generalized curvature is present.
Left-hand rotation attempts to unthread the instrument anddrives it from the canal, so the clinician must press inward to
prevent outward movement and to obtain a cutting action.
Balanced force instrumentation is specificallydesigned to operate K-type endodontic instruments

72. Invasive amoebiasis is best diagnosed by:

Counter current immunoelectrophoresis
Compliment fixation test
ELISA
Indirect haemagglutination test
Serologic tests are done for detecting invasive amoebiasis:
Indirect hemagglutination test: most commonly used test; however remains +ve even years after primary disease
ELISA
Also know, PCR is the most sensitive and specific test for identifying E histolytica.

73. Servo system theory of growth was given by:

Scott
Van der klaaw
Petrovic
Limborgh
Theories of growth (including craniofacial growth)
Remodelling theory by Brash
Enlows counterpart principle of growth
Enlows V principle of growth
Sichers theory of sutural growth dominance
Scotts theory of cartilaginous growth dominance
HunterEnlow growth equivalent theory
Functional matrix theory: Melvin Moss
Servosystem theory: Petrovic
Multifactorial theory: van Limborgh

74. Which of the following does not influence the path of placement and removal of a RPD:
Esthetics
Placement of indirect retainers
Location of Guiding planes
Retentive areas

Factors influencing path of placement and removal include guiding planes, retentive areas, interference, and esthetics
75. The filler in alginate gives the mixed material body that allows acceptable handling. Without filler, the mixed material would be
too runny for use. Which of the following is a main component of the alginate powder and functions as the filler:
Calcium sulfate
Diatomaceous earth (silica)
Potassium titanium fluoride
Potassium alginate
Composition of alginate
Constituents :Percentage (Action)
Diatomaceous (Silica) :50% (filler)
Potassium alginate :20% (dissolves in water forming the sol)
Calcium sulfate :16% (reactor)
Zinc oxide :7% (plasticizer)
Potassium fluoride :6% (improves gypsum surface)
Sodium phosphate :1% (retarder)
Dental Decks : 2007-06

76. 10 year old boy with short stature presented with polyuria and polydipsia. Lab values are : pH 7.34, CO2-32mm of Hg, HCO3-16, Na
140, K-4.9, Cl-114, BUN-140 and creatinine -1.8. Likely acid-base picture will be:
Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Non anion gap metabolic acidosis
Anion gap metabolic acidosis
A.A Nov2010 ; Q96
Parameters given for patient:
pH, HCO3, PCO2 decreased

77. Not an initiative in the Global Polio eradication Initiative:

Rehabilitation of Polio afflicted individuals
Monovalent OPV use
Short Interval additional dose stategy for building population immunity
Experimantal environmental coverage
Question was not answered
GPEI operational objectives(2010-2012):
Bivalent OPV which would also complement use of trivalent and monovalent vaccines in selected areas
State/district/block level specific plans for endemica and reestablished transmission areas
Special team and tactics for underserved population
(SIAD) Short Interval additional dose stategy for building population immunity and eterminating outbreaks
Monitoring SIA coverage
Expanded environmental sampling

Expanded environmental sampling

Enhanced AFP surveillance
Enhancing communications /social mobilization in priority areas
Rehabilitation of polio affected individuals.

78. Which of the following techniques is best for a wide based frenectomy:
None
Z-plasty
V-Y advancement
Diamond excision
Question was not answered
There are three surgical techniques that are used for a frenectomy:
Diamond excision
Z-plasty
These are effective when the mucosal and fibrous tissue band is relatively narrow. These techniques relax the pull of the frenum.
V-Y advancement is often preferred when the frenal attachment has a wide base. This technique is good for lengthening tissue and usually
results in less scarring.
National boards

79. Holoprosencephaly occurs due to defect in neural crest cell migration along the midline from the cranial region into the face thus
leading to loss of midline structures of face. The gene that controls this migration of neural crest cells in the region of the frontonasal
process is:
FGF
SHH
BMP
IHH
Question was not answered
SHH controls the descent of the neural crest cells from the cranial cavity in to the face. the signalling centres lie in the epidermal layer covering
the region of the frontonasal process. other genes controlling patterning of midline structures include SIX3, TGIF and ZIC2.
80. The term ARCON was coined by:
Fish
Bergstrom
Hanau
Gillis

81. Grinspan syndrome is associated with:

Oral, ocular, genital lesions
Hypertension with oral lesions
Pemphigus, CHF, diabetes
Hypertension, diabetes, lichen planus
Grinspan syndrome is a syndrome characterized by presence of the triad: essential hypertension, diabetes mellitus & oral lichen planus.
82. Agranulocytosis is associated more frequenly with which of the following NSAIDs :
indomethacin
Ketorolac
Phenylbutazone

Phenylbutazone
Aspirin
Phenylbutazone causes bone marrow supression.Indomethacin has immunosupressant property.
83. Maximum friction is seen in which orthodontic wire:
Stainless steel
NiTi
titanium
AJ Wilcock
Friction: titanium > NiTi > Stainless Steel/AJ Wilcock
Solder ability: Steel/Co-Cr > NiTi > titanium
titanium is the only truly weldable orthodontic wire. Due to high titanium content, cold welding is also possible between brackets and B
titanium wire which prevents sliding of the archwire.
AIPG 2013

84. The absence of which layer of dentin predisposes it to internal resorption by cells present in the pulp:
Predentin
Mantle dentin
Secondary dentin
Circumpulpal dentin
Immediately adjacent to the odontoblast layer in the pulp, 10-47 m of the dentin matrix remain unmineralized. If this unmineralized layer of
dentin is lost (e.g., due to trauma or infectious process) it predisposes the dentin to internal resorption by odontoclasts.
85. Pain insensitive structure of brain :
Choroid plexus
Dural sheath surrounding vascular sinuses
Falx cerebri
Middle meningeal artery
Pain insensitive structures of brain :
Ventricular ependyma
Choroid plexus
Pial veins
Much of the brain parenchyma

86. Thickness of solution liners is typically:

0.2 to 1 mm
20 to 25 m
2 to 5 m
200 to 1000 m
Thin film liners (1 to 50 m) can besubdivided into solution liners (varnishes, 2 to 5m) andsuspension liners (typically 20 to 25 m).
Thicker liners(200 to 1000 m = 0.2 to 1 mm), selected primarily forpulpal medication and thermal protection, are sometimesidentified as
cement liners.

87. Which of the following is not a criteria for the diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia?
Paroxysmal pain
Pain occurrence unilateral or bilateral

Pain occurrence unilateral or bilateral

Presence of trigger zones
Normal clinical sensory examination
Sweet criteria for the Diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia:
Normal clinical sensory examination
Pain occurrence unilateral
Pain may be provoked by light touch : Presence of trigger zones
Paroxysmal pain
Pain is confined to distribution of the trigeminal nerve

88. Non-septate hyphae with tendency to branch at 90 degree angle is characteristics of :

Aspergillosis
Mucor

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Coccidioides immites
Cryptococcus neoformans
Mucormycosis is a rapidly progressive fungal infection that occurs in patients in an immunocompromised state. It is most commonly seen in
patients with diabetes complicated by ketoacidosis, leukemia, lymphoma, and severe neutropenia.
The fungus is characterized by the presence of large, pauciseptate hyphae that branch at 90 angles within the involved tissue.
The fungus has a propensity towards invasion of blood vessels with infarction of the involved tissue.
In ocular adnexal involvement the infection usually starts in the nose, followed by involvement of the paranasal sinuses and then the orbit. If
left untreated ocular and brain invasion follows, and the patient succumbs in 7 to 10 days.

89. Virus with double stranded RNA molecule is:

Poliovirus
Hepatitis C virus
Rotavirus
Hepatitis E virus
Double stranded RNA viruses: Rotavirus, Reo virus, Orbovirus

90. Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in:

Farbers diseases
Niemann pick diseases
Krabbes diseases
Tay sachs diseases
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