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Exam Review
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Hepatitis A virus is highly susceptible for any one of the following except
a) Low pH
b) High temperature
c) Routine disinfectants
d) Super-chlorination
Review:SPM-Communicable disease7.
8.
Sclerotic bodies measuring 3-15m in size, multiseptate, chestnut brown colour are
characteristic of
a) Histoplasmosis
b) Rhinosporidiosis
c) Phaeohypomycosis
d) Chromoblastomycosis
Review:Microbiology-Mycology-
9.
A drug addict was caught hold of by narcotic drug addiction department. He was found
to have jet black tongue and teeth. Likely drug addiction is of
a) Diazepam
b) (Cannabis) Charas
c) Cocaine
d) Heroin
Review:PHARMACOLOGY--
10. Hemoglobin with zeta 2 and gamma 2 chains are seen in which of the following
a) Gower 1 Hb
b) Gower II Hb
c) Port land Hb
d) HbF
Review:MEDICINE-11. True statement about Vitambin K is
a) Vit K is found in plants
b) Vit K2 is synthesized by intestinal bacteria
c) Vit K1 is water soluble
d) Vit K2 it the most potent form
Review:Biochemistry-Vitamins12. Fracture blisters commonly appear on how many days
a) 1-3 days
b) 3-5 days
c) 5-7 days
d) 5-9 days
Review:Orthopaedics-Fractures and Dislocations-*Fracture blisters arose within 20-48 hours
of acute injury in most instances. *The timing of surgical intervention affectes the occurrence
of fracture blisters. *Fracture blisters are due to elevation of the superficial layers of skin by
edema and can sometimes be prevented by firm bandaging
13. The commonest side effect of pyrazinamide is
a) Jaundice
b) Polyneuritis
c) Diplopia
d) Vertigo
Review:Dermatology-14. The mechanism of action of enteropathogenic E-coli is
a) Adherence to enterocytes
b) Stimulates adenyl cyclase
c) Produces secretory diarrhoea
d) None of the above
Review:Microbiology-Gram- bact15. Which of the following anesthetic have half life more than 2 hrs?
a) Bupivacaine
b) Lignocaine
c) Mepivacaine
d) Etidocaine
Review:Anaesthesia-Local,Spinal etc16. Which is true of spring ligament
a) Seen in the spine
b) Synonymous with plantar calcaneonavicular ligament
c) Seen in knee point
d) Seen in hip point
Review:Anatomy-LL17. All are used for cervical ripening, except
a) Ergometrine
b) Oxytocin
c) Stripping of membranes
d) Prostaglandins
Review:OBG-Induction of Labour & Trial of Labour18. Candidiasis is frequently associated with all except
a) Diabetes
b) IUCD user
c) Immunodeficiency
d) Pregnancy
Review:Microbiology-Mycology19. Treatment of choice in a patient of acute pulmonary embolism with right ventricular
hypokinesia and compromised cardiac output but normal blood pressure is
a) Thrombolytic agent
b) Low molecular weight heparin
c) Warfarin
d) IV filters
Review:PHARMACOLOGY-20. A 29 year old male was talking oral hypogycemic drugs and he never had ketonuria in his
life. His grandfather had diabetes and his father, who is the only son of his grandfather,
did not have the disease. The type of diabetes mellitus (DM) the person can never have is
a) Pancreatic DM
b) Maturity onset diabetes of the young
c) Type I DM
d) Type II DM
Review:Medicine-21. Mastoid tip appears at the age of:
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years
Review:ENT-Ear-Mastoid tip appears at the age of 2 yrs, hence postaural incision to open
mastoid before this age needs to be modified to avoid injury to facial nerve.
22. Which of the following is not compatable with a diagnosis of juvenile myelomonocytic
leukemia:
a) Basophils 10-19% of WBC's in peripheral blood
b) Blasts10-19% of WBC's in peripheral blood
c) Increasing spleen size unresponsive to therapy
d) Persistent thrombocytosis (>1000x109/L
Review:Medicine-Hematological Malignancies23. In a country, socio economic progress is best indicated by
a) Gross net production
b) IMR
c) Annual per capital income of the family
d) Death rate
Review:SPM-Concepts of Health & Disease24. If the incidence of the disease in females is 3 time as in males, but the prevalence is equal
in males and females, what is the inference
a) Less duration of the disease in males
b) Mortality more in females
c) Mortality is less in males
d) None of the above
Review:SPM-Epidemiology, screening for disease25. Most common site of Medulloblastoma is
a) Medulla
b) Pons
c) Vermis
d) Hippocampus
Review:-Head Injury26. Scab or crust of abrasion appears brown:
a) Between 12-24 hours
b) Between 2-3 days
c) Between 4-5 days
d) Between 5-7 days
Review:FM-27. The type of wound caused by sickle is
a) Stab wound
b) Incised wound
c) Lacerated wound
d) A&B
Review:FM-Injuries & Wounds28. Hypersensitive pneumonitis is of which type?
a) Type 3 hypersensitivity
b) Type 4 hypersensitivity
c) Allergic reaction
d) Cytotoxic T cell reaction
Review:Pathology-29. All of the following about high tibial osteotomy are true except;
a) It can correct various deformities of>30degrees
b) IgG nephropathy
c) IgA nephropathy
d) IgE nephropathy
Review:Pathology-36. In highly selective vagotomy (HSV)
a) Anterior nerve of Latarajet is preserved
b) Anterior & posterior nerve of Latarajet are preserved
c) Meissner's plexus is spared
d) section of vagus nerve only
Review:SURGERY-37. Causes of Hypocalcaemia include all the following EXCEPT
a) Hypoparathyroidism
b) Bendrofluazide
c) Pseudohypoparthyroidism
d) Acute pancreatitis
Review:Medicine-Nurti, Meta disorder38. The nephrotoxicity of cisplatin is increased by all except
a) Rifampicin
b) Vancomycin
c) Gentamycin
d) Tacrolimus
Review:Pharmacology-39. Double blind study means
a) Observer is blind about the study
b) Person or group being observed are blind about study
c) Both observer and observed group blind
d) Interpreters and analyzers are blind about study
Review:SPM-40. Heart sound heard immediately before the first heart sound when atrial pressure is high
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) Fourth
Review:Physiology-CVS41. The ganglion blocking drugs act by
a) Competing with acetylchoine at neruromuscular junctions
b) Preventing release of acetylcholine
Review:PATHOLOGY-59. A 35-year-old female patient presents with para 3+0 and CIN 3 in one quadrant on PAP
smear. Which of the following is the best management?
a) LEEP
b) Total abdominal hysterectomy
c) Conization
d) Cryotherapy
Review:OBG-60. The first priority in the management of patient with multiple injuries is
a) Control of haemorrhage
b) Air way maintenance
c) Treatment of shock
d) Splinting of fractures
Review:Surgery-Healing & Mana of wound & Accident61. Herberts pits are seen in
a) Spring catarrh
b) Trachoma
c) Psorasis
d) Glaucoma
Review:Opthal-Conjunctiva--Hebert follicles occur over cornea especially in limbal area.
-Herbert pits are the oval circular pitted scars left after healing of herbert follicles in the limbal
area. -Herbert pits are a sign of inactive Trachoma or stage III Trachoma (Mccallan's
classification.)
62. All of the following symptoms are commonly seen in mania except
a) Grandiose delusion
b) Decreased need for sleep
c) Decreased motor activity
d) Elated mood
Review:Psychiatry-General63. Which of the following is useful in the treatment of ichthyosis vulgaris
a) Steroids
b) Urea 10%
c) Neomycin
d) Benzoic acid
Review:Dermatology-64. "Seminal Smell" on culture is produced by
a) Pneumococci
b) Proteus
c) V.Cholerae
d) Yersinia
Review:Microbiology-Gram- bact--Cultures of proteus bacilli have a characteristic putrefactive
odour described as fishy or seminal -Proteus = Pleomophism Proteus vulgaris causes
heterophile agglutination - Weil-Felix reaction Shows swarming growth in culturess.
65. Which of following is not a Schneider's first rank symptom
a) Passivity phenomenon
b) Auditory hallucinations
c) Delusions of self reference
d) Delusional perception
Review:Psychiatry-Schizophrenia66. Medial meniscus is attached at
a) One point
b) Two point
c) Three point
d) None
Review:Anatomy-LL67. Abeta lipoproteinemia is 1st manifested clinically by
a) Hypohydrosis
b) Tremors
c) Steatorrhoea
d) Convulsions
Review:Paediatrics-Fluid and electrolyte imbalances,Gastrointestinal System68. Dermatophytes are fungi infecting
a) Subcutaneous tissue
b) Systemic organs
c) Nails, hair and skin
d) Superficial skin and deep tissue
Review:Microbiology-Mycology69. Hob-nail cells are characteristically seen in
a) Dysgerminoma
b) Arrhenoblastoma
c) Hilus cell tumour
d) Clear cell carcinoma
Review:OBG-70. The least dilatable part of the urethra
a) Prostatic
b) Membranous
c) Spongy
d) All are equally dilatable
Review:-71. Length of external auditory canal is:
a) 20 mm
b) 22 mm
c) 24 mm
d) 15 mm
Review:ENT-Ear-It starts at the external auditory meatus (bottom of concha) and ends at the
tympanic membrane, where a bony structure (bony outer attic wall at tympanic membrane,
where ECA ends) projects, called Scutum, It is almost 'S' shaped curved canal of about 24 mm
length (along its posterior wall). It is directed upwards, backwards and medially in outer part
and downwards, forwards and medially in inner part. Therefore, to see the tympanic membrane,
the pinna has to be pulled upwards and laterally so as to bring the two parts in alignment. It has
two parts, the outer 8 mm cartilaginous part (1/3rd) and inner 16 mm bony part (2/3rd.)
72. Autoimmune destruction of platelet is seen in:
a) SLE
b) Rheumatoid arthritis
c) Reiter disease
d) Polyarteritis nodosa
Review:Medicine-Hematology-SLE is characterized by anti platelet antibody mediated
autoimmune destruction of platelets.
73. In Whipple's operation all are removed except:
a) Portal vein
b) CBD
c) Head of pancreas
d) Duodenum
Review:Surgery-Pancreas74. Increased anion gap is seen in all except
a) RTA
b) Salicylate poisoning
c) Pyloric stenosis
d) Diabetic ketosis
Review:Medicine-Kidney-Causes of high anion gap metabolic acidosis: -Lactic acidosis
-Toxin:- Ethylene glycol, methanol, salicylates -Ketoacidosis: Diabetic, Alcoholic, Starvation
-Renal failure: Acute & chronic -Pyloric stenosis cause vomiting and metabolic alkalosis.
75. One of the following statements on the prevalence of cancer is not true
b) 2 months
c) 4 months
d) 6 months
Review:Pathology-82. Corynebacterium diphtheria all are true except
a) Toxin responible for cutaneous infections
b) Iron in surrounding is essential for growth
c) Phage is essential for toxin production
d) Protein synthesis affected by group A chain
Review:Micro-Bacteriology-Cutaneous infections are commonly caused by non toxigenic
strains of diptheria bacilli.
83. Beta blockers are contra indicated in
a) Hypertension
b) Congestive cardiac failure
c) Anxiety states
d) Hyperthyroidism
Review:Pharmacology-84. Which of the following does not cause cutaneous lesion
a) Porphyria Cutaneous Tarda
b) Acute Intermittent Porphyria
c) Porphyria Variegata
d) Protoporphyria
Review:Dermatology-85. Internal pudendal artery is a branch of
a) Anterior divison of Internal iliac
b) Posterior division of Internal iliac
c) Obturator artery
d) Hypogastric
Review:Anatomy-Abdomen86. In Rheumatic fever, fibrinoid necrosis occurs in
a) Myocardium
b) Collagen
c) Pericardium
d) Endocardium
Review:Pathology-Heart87. In a cross section of thorax at T4, which is found
a) Azygos vein
b) Thoracic duct
c) Superior vena cava
d) Arch of aorta
Review:AnatomyAnatomy-Thorax88. Following are seen in pellagra, except:
a) Diarrhoea
b) Dilated cardiomyopathy
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Dermatitis
Review:Medicine-Nurti, Meta disorder89. Primary objective of use of atropic in anterior uveitis
a) Rest to the ciliary muscle
b) Increase supply of antibody
c) Increase blood flow
d) Prevents posterior synechia formation
Review:OPHTHALMOLOGY--Sreelatha
90. Which of the following is the treatment of choice in pulseless ventricular tachycaria?
a) Propranolol
b) Verapamil
c) Lidocaine
d) Defibrillation synhronized
Review:MEDICINE-91. Beta blockers are contra indicated in
a) Hypertension
b) Congestive cardiac failure
c) Anxiety states
d) Hyperthyroidism
Review:Pharma-CNS-Beta blockers are contraindicated in decompensated heart failure
because beta blockers may worsen the condition by their negative Inotropic effect.
92. Ipratropium bromide is:
a) Antiadrenergeic drug
b) Anticholinergic drug
c) Antiadrenergic drug
d) Antiserotonergic drug
Review:Respiratory-Pulmonology-Ipratropium bromide: -It is an anticholinergic or
parasympatholytic drug (atropine substitute) which acts slectively on bronchial muscle without
altering volume or consistency of respiratory secretions and in contrast to atropine it does not