BP Aviation Audit Checklist

S&OR Audit
Aviation Audit Protocol

Conformance to Requirements questions
(Checklist)
GDP 3.7-0001-01, dated 1 July 2012
15 April 2013
Programme: Group Defined Practice
Last Revision Date:

15 April 2013
Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

Conformance to requirements
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Section 3 Safety Management

3.1 Regulatory requirements
1. Has the operator, for the grant of an air operators certificate established a safety
management system appropriate to the size and complexity of the operation, for the
proactive management of safety, that integrates the management of operations and
technical systems with financial and human resource management, and that reflects
quality assurance principles? (Section 3.1)
3.2 OGP requirements
2. Are SMS requirements in place at the time a Contract for Aviation Services, or
effective Call Off Contract, or prior to a One Time flight being conducted? (Section
3.2)
3. Does the contracted operator comply with applicable national safety management
system regulations? (Section 3.2)
4. As a minimum or where national regulations have not yet been mandated for safety
management systems, do the owned or contracted aircraft operators meet the SMS
requirements detailed in table 1 of the GDP? (Section 3.2)
3.3 Safety management system elements
5. Does the contracted operators SMS contain the following required elements and
relationships listed? (Section 3.3.A)
a) Leadership Commitment Active SMS involvement and support from an
informed company leadership.
b) Policy, accountabilities & KPIs A defined HSE policy, based on a Just
culture, defined responsibilities for safety management and Key Performance
Indicators (KPIs).
c) Documented Procedures - Documented, detailed procedures covering all
SMS activities and processes and more broadly documented procedures for
safety critical tasks related to aircraft operations, including flight operations,
aircraft maintenance and ground operations.
d) Personnel & Competence Appointment of key safety personnel, with
defined competence requirements. Sufficient resources to manage and
operate an effective SMS.
e) Safety Communications A range and hierarchy of safety communication
processes to enable an effective, two way flow of safety information
throughout the company.
f) Safety Reporting & Investigation Safety reporting procedures covering
regulatory required reports and lower level incidents and occurrences and an
investigation process to generate and follow to closure, internal
recommendations.
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g) Management of Change A defined procedure to manage the risks

associated with significant change related to aircraft operations, including key
personnel.
h) Hazard/Risk Management See section 3.4 for more detail.
i) Quality Assurance (QA) An internal process focused on providing
confidence that the risk controls specified through regulation, company
operating procedures and the risk management process are effective within
all flight operations, maintenance and ground operations activities. See
Section 3.6 for more details.
j) Senior Management Review A management review process based on a
defined meeting schedule, that gives senior managers visibility of the SMS
activity, in particular safety reporting, hazard management and QA issues.
6. Have the relevant elements been coordinated to ensure actions complement one
another and support the effectiveness of the whole SMS? (Section 3.3.A)
7. Does the contracted operator conduct and communicate regularly scheduled safety
meetings, not less that quarterly? (Section 3.3.B)
8. Does the contracted operator conduct informal post-flight debriefings by
crewmember? (Section 3.3.C)
9. Does the contracted operators SMS apply to flight operations, maintenance and
facilities, as well as any other areas deemed appropriate by the operator? (Section
3.3.D)
3.4 Hazard/risk management process
10. Does the contracted operator maintain hazard/risk management process that
contains the elements identified in section 3.4.A? (Section 3.4.A)
11. Does the Hazard/ Risk management process identify and address both generic,
mission specific and location specific hazards? (Section 3.4.A)
12. Are the hazards recorded in a format that shows the risk assessment score assigned
to each hazard? (Section 3.4.A)
13. Are the hazards recorded in a format that links the hazards to specific (bowtie)
recovery measures? (Section 3.4.A)
14. Are the hazards recorded in a format that provides a document reference for the
control and recovery measures? (Section 3.4.A)
15. Are the hazards recorded in a format that assigns a responsible individual to each
control? (Section 3.4.A)
16. Is the Hazard/Risk Management process demonstrably linked to the operators Safety
Reporting and Investigation process, its Management of Change process, and to the
QA function? (Section 3.4.A)
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17. Is the process subjected to periodic management review? (Section 3.4.A)

18. Has the contracted operator conducted a safety and operational risk assessment
associated with the service to be provided under the contract? (Section 3.4.B)
19. When there is a requirement to land offsite, has the contracted operator conducted a
risk assessment to assure safe operations to, from and within the operating area?
(Section 3.4.C)
20. Does the contracted operator have a written mitigation plan implemented to address
the identified risks? (Section 3.4.D)
21. Does the contracted operators risk assessment include the following? (Section
3.4.E)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
g)
h)
i)
j)
Emergency response planning.

Aircraft performance and equipment fit.
Passenger handling.
Flight following.
Operations and maintenance facilities used in support of the contract.
Spares required for the contracted operation.
Operating environment, hostile versus non-hostile.
Route to be flown from origin to destination.
Note: When portions of a flight already have documented requirements
addressing risk (e.g., origins or destinations with defined approach and
departure procedures) or portions of a flight are common with other flights
(e.g., overwater routes) then generic risk assessments may be applied to
those portions.
Management structure for the contracted operation.
Employee competence and training.
3.5 Incident and accident reporting requirements

22. Does the contracted operator report all of the following, whether or not they occurred
while under contract for aviation services with BP? (Section 3.5.A)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Aircraft accidents.
Injuries.
Serious incidents.
Near misses.
3.6 Quality assurance

23. Does the contracted operator have a documented quality assurance system?
(Section 3.6)
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24. Does the QA system have an internal evaluation/audit programme encompassing all
safety and quality critical activities within flight operations, ground operations and
maintenance. (Section 3.6)
25. Does the QA system include the auditing of processes, procedures, documentation,
training and records. (Section 3.6)
26. Are Audit activities scheduled and conducted at planned intervals that establish
conformity with regulatory and management system requirements? (Section 3.6)
27. Are the results of previous audits, including the implementation and effectiveness of
corrective action, included within the scope of the program? (Section 3.6)
28. Is the internal audit program managed at the local operational level? (Section 3.6)
29. Is the internal audit program subject to periodic management review? (Section 3.6)
30. Are the QA departmental procedures, duties, responsibilities and reporting
relationships described in the Operations Manual, Maintenance manual or a separate
QA manual? (Section 3.6)
3.7 Environmental management
31. Is the contracted operator at all times compliant with local and/or national regulatory
requirements related to Environmental management controls? (Section 3.7)
32. Does the operator have an effective procedure to effectively manage the hazard of
aircraft noise? (Section 3.7)
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Section 4 Aircraft Operations General

4.3 Pilots
4.3.1 Qualifications and experience levels
1. When pilots do not meet the recommended flying experience and qualifications
detailed Appendix 5A, is there a mechanism to obtain a dispensation providing
mitigating factors in place? (Section 4.3.1.A)
2. When dispensation is requested, are full details of an individuals experience and
qualifications under the headings shown in the tables submitted to the Aviation
Advisor for assessment and consideration prior to agreeing or otherwise such a
dispensation? (Section 4.3.1.A)
3. Has the guidance of the Aviation Advisor been sought to ensure the validity of
captaincy under supervision, or P1 U/S as it is sometimes called, to count towards
captaincy time, usually counting as half captaincy time. Before such an arrangement
can be agreed during the progression of a co-pilot towards captaincy? (Section
4.3.1.A)
4. Does the contracted operator use only crewmembers who meet the experience and
qualifications outlined in the OGP AMG, Appendix 5A? (Section 4.3.1.B)
5. If using Appendices 5B and 5C in the OGP AMG, has deviation been obtained using
the deviation process outlined in GDP 0.0-0001? (Section 4.3.1.C)
4.3.2 Alternative to OGP recommended experience levels
6. If an approved operators competency based training management system is used as

an alternative to pilot experience levels how are the following conditions met?
(Section 4.3.2)
a) Establishment of a formal modular competency based progression scheme
based on guidance in Appendix 5B and 5C.
b) Inclusion of ATPL Theory examination and elements for role specific training.
c) Use of an in depth audit of the operators training system that addresses
specified topics.
d) Use of an Aviation Advisor audit plan.
e) Provisions for addressing total time on type for new aircraft, as applicable.
f) Conditions for competency based training management system.
4.3.3 Use of freelance pilots
7. If the freelancers time between engagements exceeds time between required OPCs,
has the training programme applicable to all company pilots been applied? (Section
4.3.3.A)
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8. Has the freelance pilots competence and suitability been formally endorsed by the
senior management of the contracted company? (Section 4.3.3.A)
4.3.4 pilots flying more than one aircraft type
9. Are pilots prohibited from flying more than one type or variant during any duty day?
(Section 4.3.4)
4.3.5 Medicals
10. Do all pilots hold a valid medical certificate? (Section 4.3.5)
11. Does the maximum interval between examinations exceed 12 months? (Section
4.3.5)
4.3.6 Payroll/salary
12. Are Aircrew personnel remunerated on the basis of hours or miles flown? (Section
4.3.6)
4.4 Maintenance personnel
4.4.1 Qualifications
13. Does the contracted operator only use maintenance personnel who meet the
experience and qualifications outlined in the OGP AMG, Appendix 5D1-3, when
contracted for aviation services that are in scope of GDP 3.7-0001? (Section 4.4.1)
4.4.2 Experience levels
14. If the contracted operator employs a mix of licenced and unlicensed or recently
licenced personnel, is the proportion of personnel having Certificate of Release to
Service (CRS) privileges to others, sufficiently high to ensure adequate supervision
of work is provided at all times? (Section 4.4.2.1)
15. Is there a documented maintenance personnel training plan? (Section 4.4.2.2.a)
16. Does the plan include formal training? (basic educational qualifications for entry into
regulator approved maintenance training course(s) in respect of the license
categories desired). (Section 4.4.2.2.a)
17. Is the training provided by an approved training organisation? (Section 4.4.2.2.a)
18. Is there a relevant and adequately supervised On-the-job training program? (Section
4.4.2.2.b)
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4.4.3 Avoidance of fatigue in maintenance personnel

19. Have the following been applied to all engineering staff?
a) Total work periods do not exceed 12 hours in a 24 hour period? (Section
4.4.3.1)
b) If necessary, does the Head of Maintenance approve work period extensions
on a case-by-case basis? (Section 4.4.3.1)
c) If night maintenance is necessary, is the bulk of work completed by the shifts
on duty up to midnight, with the residue completed by a swing shift covering
the period from approximately 2300 to 0700 hours? (Section 4.4.3.2)
d) Is each work shift followed by a minimum 8 hour rest period? (Section 4.4.3.3)
e) If working a working a 24-hour split shift on line operations, is at least 6 hours
rest provided excluding travel? (Section 4.4.3.3)
f) Is entitlement for days off a minimum of 7 per month of which at least 4 in a
minimum of 2-day periods? (Section 4.4.3.3)
g) When the location or climate is arduous has this been increased to minimize
fatigue? (Section 4.4.3.3)
h) Has the time on site, time off site routine been set up to ensure that
maintenance personnel working under these conditions do not stay in the field
for prolonged periods in locations such as seismic camps, where it is not
feasible to provide other than the bare accommodation necessities? (Section
4.4.3.4)
4.5 Maintenance requirements
4.5.1 Quality assurance and quality control
20. Are aircraft operated on a BP contract maintained in accordance with a maintenance
program approved by the national legislative authority? (Section 4.5.1.A)
21. If an aircraft has been repaired following an accident, has it been repaired or
overhauled to Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEM) specifications? (Section
4.5.1.B)
4.5.2 Requirement for duplicate inspections/required inspection items (RII)
22. Does the contracted operator have a duplicate inspections/Required Inspection Items
(RII) programme applicable to all aircraft? (Section 4.5.2.B)
23. Does the operator contract require duplicate inspections? (Section 4.5.2.B)
24. When away from main operating &/or maintenance bases are pilots utilized for RII?
If yes, is this procedure documented in the MPM? (Section 4.5.2.B)
25. Does the contracted operator utilize pilots to perform inspection duties? (Section
4.5.2.B)
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4.5.3 Aircraft Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

Do flight crews and maintenance personnel have an aircraft Minimum Equipment List
(MEL) or Minimum Departure Standard (MDS) for the appropriate aircraft type
available for reference? (Section 4.5.3)
26. Has the MEL been approved by the local airworthiness authority? (Section 4.5.3)
4.6 Drugs and alcohol policy
27. Does the contracted operator and sub-contractors have a formally documented policy
on the use/abuse of alcohol, medical drugs and narcotic? (Section 4.6)
28. Does the contracted operator give guidance to staff on which commonly available
medical drugs, prescribed or otherwise, may impair an individuals ability to perform
in the cockpit or workplace? (Section 4.6)
29. Does the contracted operator comply with National legislation/ guidelines regarding
drugs and alcohol? (Section 4.6)
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Section 5 Helicopter Operations

5.1 Helicopter standards
1. Has the BP Entity in consultation with the EAA assessed the aircraft equipment fit
listed in OGP AMG appendix 7 and 10, and any other equipment required for the
operational area of the aircraft to produce an aircraft specification for the contract?
(Section 5.1.1.A)
2. Has this assessment been approved by the SAA? (Section 5.1.1.B)
3. Are the contracted operators aircraft equipped with the M and R, minimum and
recommended equipment as noted in the AMG Appendix 7? (Section 5.1.1.C)
4. Has, new technology that provides an equivalent capability and functionality, for a
particular system, been approved for use following a risk assessment? (Section
5.1.1.D)
5. Are piston-powered aircraft prohibited from carrying passengers? (Section 5.1.2)
6. Are Multi-engine helicopters capable of sustaining a 1% net climb gradient at or
above the lowest safe altitude with One Engine Inoperative (OEI) being used?
(Section 5.1.3.A)
7. Has the BP entity contracted for twin-engine turbine powered helicopters that are
equipped and currently certified to operate in instrument meteorological conditions?
(Section 5.1.3.B)
8. Has the BP entity contracted for two pilots who are current and certified to operate
the helicopter in instrument meteorological conditions? (Section 5.1.3.C)
9. Are all of the following prohibited under the GDP 3.7-0001:
a) Multi-engine helicopters without single-engine climb performance. (Section
5.1.4.A)
b) Single-engine helicopters. (Section 5.1.4.B)
c) Single pilot operated helicopters. (Section 5.1.4.C)
10. Has a Risk Assessment been completed to determine if exposure suits are to be
worn if the sea temperature is less than 10C? (Section 5.1.5)
5.2 Helicopter performance classes
11. If the contracted operator is using Performance Class 2 helicopters, has the
operation demonstrated, either separately, or as part of its Safety Case that the
probability of power unit failure during the exposure time at take-off and landing from
elevated helidecks is no greater than 5x10-8 per take-off or landing? (Section 5.2)
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5.3 Fuel planning

12. For IFR operations, does the contracted operator plan a fuel reserve to be sufficient
for the leg to the destination, plus the leg to an alternate plus 10% trip fuel plus 30
minutes with an allowance for start-up and taxi? (Section 5.3.1)
13. Is this fuel computation, to the alternate, calculated at the low altitude cruise fuel
consumption? (Section 5.3.1)
14. For VFR operations, does the contracted operator plan a fuel sufficient for the
proposed route plus 30 minutes at the cruising speed consumption with an allowance
made for start-up and taxi? (Section 5.3.2)
5.4 Use of offshore alternates
15. Has the BP entity conducted a Risk Assessment for Use of offshore alternates and
put in place mitigations to identified risks? (Section 5.4.A.1 and 5.4.A.2)
16. Has this Risk Assessment and mitigation plan been agreed by the EAA? (Section
5.4.B)
17. Are the following conditions met regarding the use of offshore alternates? (Section
5.4.B)
a) An offshore alternate shall be used only after a Point of No Return (PNR).
Prior to PNR, onshore alternates shall be used.
b) One engine inoperative landing capability shall be attainable at the alternate.
c) Deck availability shall be guaranteed. The dimensions, configuration and
obstacle clearance of individual helidecks or other sites shall be assessed in
order to establish operational suitability for use as an alternate by each
helicopter type proposed to be used.
d) Weather minima shall be established taking accuracy and reliability of
meteorological information into account.
e) The helicopter Minimum Equipment List shall reflect essential requirements
for this type of operation.
f) An offshore alternate shall not be selected unless the operator has published
a procedure in the Operations Manual approved or accepted by the regulatory
Authority.
5.6 Flight and duty time
18. Unless more stringent limits are imposed by regulatory authorities, are the limits
listed in the guide applied for both flight and duty time? (Section 5.6.1)
19. Do the pilotss flight and duty time, including time that might be flown in support of
other companies/customers exceed? (Section 5.6.3)
a) 10 hours daily flight time constitutes a flight period.
b) 60 hours in any 7 consecutive day period.
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c) 120 hours in any 28 consecutive day period.

d) 1,200 hours in any 365 consecutive day period.
20. Does the contracted operator schedule rotating crews to duty upon their arrival to the
base of operation after prolonged travel flights? (Section 5.6.5)
21. After a prolonged travel flight as a minimum are the requirements of paragraph 5.6.4
met? (Section 5.6.5)
5.7 Offshore helicopter life jackets and aircraft homing devices
22. Are constant wear life jackets worn for all offshore operations? (Section 5.7.A)
23. Do flight crew constant wear life jackets have homing devices with voice capability
and GPS? (Section 5.7.B)
5.8 Rotors running refueling/helicopter rapid refueling
24. For Rotors Running Refueling (RRRF) has the contracted operator conducted a risk
assessment and completed risk mitigations for the following? (Section 5.8.B)
a) Need for RRRF.
b) Procedures to be used.
c) Emergency planning.
25. When rotors running refuelling is authorised for both on and offshore operations, are,
local management made aware of the additional risks involved and seek the OGP
Members Aviation Advisor advice, giving sufficient notice for comment or to render
practical assistance? (Section 5.8.B)
26. If it is an operational requirement to carry out rotors running refuelling does the
operator ensure that there are written procedures and stipulate that all staff involved
have formal training? (Section 5.8.B)
5.11 Specialist roles
27. Are only approved helicopter types, operated by Contractors approved by the OGP
Members Aviation Advisor, used in support of seismic operations? (Section 5.11.1)
28. Are winching operations, including training, only undertaken when judged
operationally essential, and then strictly in accordance with specified procedures?
(Section 5.11.2)
29. Are twin-engine helicopters always used for winch operations? (Section 5.11.2)
30. Is Out of Ground Effect (OGE) hover capability used at all stages of the operation
other than for actual lifesaving use? (Section 5.11.2)
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31. Are Marine support operations e.g. ship pilot transfer conducted in accordance with
the recommendation of the International Chamber of Shipping Guide? (Section
5.11.2)
32. Is training for winch operations always conducted with full single-engine hover
capabilities at the operator-designated heights ASL/ AGL? (Section 5.11.2)
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Section 6 Fixed Wing Operations public transport and aerial work

6.1 Fixed-wing aircraft standards
1. Has the entity in conjunction with the EAA assessed the aircraft equipment fit listed in
the OMG AMG Appendix 7 and other equipment required for the operational area of
the aircraft to produce an aircraft specification for the contract? (Section 6.1.1.A)
2. Has the assessment been approved by the SAA? (Section 6.1.1.B)
3. If new technology exists that provides an equivalent capability and functionality, for a
particular system, has the new technology been approved for use by the SAA
following a risk assessment? (Section 6.1.1.C)
4. Does the contracted operator utilize multi-engine aircraft that are capable of
sustaining a 1% net climb gradient at or above the lowest safe altitude with One
Engine Inoperative (OEI)? (Section 6.1.3.A)
5. Does the contracted operator utilize twin-engine turbine powered aeroplanes that are
equipped and currently certified to operate in instrument meteorological conditions?
(Section 6.1.3.B)
6. Does the entity contract for two pilots who are current and certified to operate the
aeroplane in instrument meteorological conditions. (Section 6.1.3.C)
7. Are multi engine aeroplanes without single engine performance prohibited? (Section
6.1.4)
8. Are piston powered multi engine aeroplanes prohibited? (Section 6.1.5)
6.2 Airfields
9. Does the contracted operator have a risk assessment in place in consultation with
the BP entity for airfields or field landing strips, other than those certified by the
National Aviation Authority (NAA)? (Section 6.2.B)
10. Does the contracted operator have mitigation measures to address the identified
risks for airfields or field landing strips, other than those certified by the National
Aviation Authority (NAA)? (Section 6.2.C)
6.3 Fuel planning
11. Is the contracted operators IFR fuel planning sufficient for the leg to destination plus
the leg to an alternate, plus 10% of the above as a navigation contingency, plus 45
minutes holding fuel (30 minutes for turbine aircraft) with a contingency allowed for
start-up and taxi? (Section 6.3.1)
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12. Is the contracted operators VFR fuel planning sufficient for the proposed route plus
10% of the route fuel, plus 30 minutes at the cruising speed consumption? (Section
6.3.2)
6.4 Composition of flight crew
13. Are single pilots prohibited on BP flights? (Section 6.4)
6.5 Flying hour limits recommended maximum
14. Does the contracted operator utilize augmented crews on transoceanic or long-range
flights within national regulations? (Section 6.5.B)
15. Unless more stringent flying time, total hours of duty and mandatory rest
requirements are imposed by regulatory authorities, are the limits listed in this guide
applicable to both flight and duty time? (Section 5.6.1)
16. Do pilots flight and duty times exceed? (Section 5.6.3)
Single Pilot
8 hours daily flight time constitutes a flight period.
35 hours in any 7 consecutive day period.
1,000 hours in any 365 consecutive day period.
Dual pilot
10 hours daily flight time constitutes a flight period.
1,200 hours in any 365 consecutive day period.
17. Does the contracted operator schedule rotating crews to duty upon their arrival to the
base of operation after prolonged travel flights? (Section 5.6.5)
18. After a day duty period, does each pilot have a minimum of 12 hours rest? (Section
5.6.6)
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Section 7 Fuel system design and management

7.1 Design, operation & inspection references
1. Does the contracted operator use National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 407
and/or UK CAP 437 for design/inspection/operational considerations and
construction or major rework of existing airbases where no local guidance exists?
(Section 7.1.B.2)
7.2 Design & periodic review
2. Has the Aviation Advisor been incorporated into all preliminary and critical design
processes for BP airbase refuelling system construction or modifications? (Section
7.2)
3. Has the Aviation Advisor or appropriate regulatory authority conducted an annual
safety, technical and quality assurance reviews of all fuel and supporting fire
suppression systems, including those provided by airports or fixed base operators?
(Section 7.2)
4. Has the contracted operator conducted six month safety, technical and quality
assurance reviews of all fuel and supporting fire suppression systems, including
those provided by airports or fixed base operators? Are these reviews documented
and any remedial actions taken? (Section 7.2)
7.3 Variances
5. Are any variances to requirements covered by the deviation process? (Section 7.3)
7.4 Fuel quality control
6. Are All fuel delivery systems fitted with filtration capable of the water blocking (GoNo-Go) type meeting the specifications of API 1583, which locks fuel flow when water
is present? (Section 7.4.1)
7. Are the fuel filter canisters clearly marked with the next date of change or inspection
cycle, and data recorded in an appropriate inspection record? (Section 7.4.1)
8. Are all filters replaced at nominated pressure differentials annotated as
recommended by the manufacturer, but as a minimum annually? (Section 7.4.1)
9. Are all fuel storage supplies, including drums, allowed to settle 1 hour for each 1 foot
of fuel depth after the tanks have been resupplied or barrels moved to vertical, before
samples are taken and fuel is approved for use? (Section 7.4.1)
10. Are sign(s) placed on the tank(s) during settling, indicating the time at which the
tank(s) can be used (settling is complete)? (Section 7.4.1)
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11. Are all steel tanks lined with an approved epoxy liner unless the tanks are
constructed of stainless steel? (Section 7.4.1)
12. Are all fuel supply tanks installed with a slope and have a sump drain at the tank low
point for sampling purposes? (Section 7.4.1)
13. Are all fuel supply tanks equipped with a fuel quantity sight gauge? (Section 7.4.1)
14. Have all personnel involved in fuelling aircraft received formal documented initial and
recurrent training for refuelling aircraft? (Section 7.4.1)
15. Are the below listed fuel samples retained in a clear jar with a screw top, each tested
for water and marked with the sample source until flights are completed for the day?
(Section 7.4.2)
a) Aircraft fuel tank sumps drained and sampled into one container prior to the
first flight of each day ( litre minimum sample size, unless specified
differently by the airframe or water detection device manufacturer).Each fuel
tank sump (2.0 litres).
b) Each fuel filter and monitor (2.0 litres).
c) Each fuel nozzle, prior to first refuelling of the day (2.0 litres).
16. Is fuel going into transport fuel tanks certified and has a water test been completed?
(Section 7.4.2)
17. Is fuel that does not pass the water test or is not certified, rejected for use? (Section
7.4.2)
18. Does the fuel quality control system contain as a minimum guide and a daily log
record the following items (Section 7.4.3)
a) The age and delivery date of storage fuel.
b) Sample and water test results from the fuel tank sumps, all filters and
monitors, and all fuel nozzles.
c) Differential pressure readings.
d) Fuel Filter changes annual as a minimum.
e) Certification of fuel, accompanied by a Certificate of Release. Has the fuel
been sampled, visually inspected for appearance and contaminates,
chemically tested for water and measured for density, before delivery into
storage tanks. Maximum variance of the density compared to the density on
the Certificate of Release not in excess of 0.003?
19. Are the interior of all tanks, tank seals, and pressure relief valves inspected on an
annual basis? (Section 7.4.3)
20. Are all gauges/ pressure relief valves calibrated annually unless the manufacturer
specifies differently? (Section 7.4.3)
21. Has the primary supply tank(s) and several mobile tanks (if used) been tested for
microbe growth as noted below? (Section 7.4.3)
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Microbe growth testing

a) Initial testing to establish normal microbe level: adopt a random routine
testing of a few tanks on a quarterly basis.
b) Long-term testing: once the normal microbe level is established as noted
above, it is recommended that fuel supplies be tested on a six-month interval.
c) Fuel quality indicators: if any contra-indications from tank drains are apparent,
such as dark coloured (brown, black) water, sulphide smells, water and fuel
with a frothy or lacy interface, immediately conduct a test, as these strongly
indicate microbial activity within the recent time span.
22. If the microbe growth test is positive, as use of the affected tank(s) suspended and
the following protocol followed.
Microbe growth treatment

a) Bulk or transport tanks: fuel tank cleaning including disinfecting the tank
surfaces with Chlorex bleach (or equivalent) followed by fresh water rinsing,
inspect and replace all downstream contaminated filter elements.
b) Aircraft tanks and filters: filters replaced and tanks drained and cleaned
following the manufacturer recommendations.
c) Use of microbes treatments: any microbe treatments, such as BioBar or
equivalent being used with caution and the aircraft manufacturer contacted to
determine is use of such treatments are allowed for that model aircrafts fuel.
23. Once the protocol has been followed, is a repeat microbe presence test then
completed?
24. Are the following precautions in place that involve the use and storage of drummed
fuel? (Section 7.4.4)
a) Drums are tight with no broken seals prior to use.
b) Drum stock consumed within 12 months of packaging date.
c) Drums are stored with the bungs horizontally at the 9 and 3 oclock positions,
with the bung end tilted slightly lower than the opposite end (non-opening), to
prevent moisture/rust formation inside the bung end of the barrel.
d) Each drum of fuel sampled and tested with water detector capsules or an
approved paste to confirm no water contamination is present and visually
inspected for proper colour and contaminates.
e) Pumps used for drum refuelling equipped with water blocking filtration
system.
f) Pump standpipes extend no closer than 50mm (2 inches) of the drum bottom.
g) Before fuelling the aircraft, a small amount of fuel pumped into a container to
remove any contaminants from the hose and nozzle.
h) The standard marking for a contaminated drum is an X marked on the bung
end.
7.5 Rapid refuelling (refuelling with engines running)
25. Is there an operational requirement to conduct rapid refuelling? (Section 7.5.1)
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26. Has the contracted operators management approved the specific circumstances in
which rapid refuelling may be conducted? (Section 7.5.1)
27. Does the contracted operators Operations Manual include written procedures to be
followed for the refuelling operation? (Section 7.5.1)
28. Have the aircrew and ground support staff completed the Operators training
programme before refuelling is considered? (Section 7.5.1)
29. In addition to any local regulatory requirements, are the following minimal guidelines
be used for rapid refuelling? (Section 7.5.2)
a) A pilot shall remain at the controls at all times.
b) A minimum of three individuals are required for the refuelling operation, one
for refuelling, one for pump shut-off, and one for fire watch (with appropriate
extinguisher).
c) Passengers are to disembark prior to the refuelling operation commencing.
d) If for safety reasons the Pilot-in-Command decides to refuel with the
passengers on-board the aircraft, are the passengers informed of this
decision and actions to take in the event of a fire?
e) Are all seat belts opened, the main exit door away from the side where
refuelling is occurring be opened, and no smoking allowed?
f) Are all radios and all anti-collision lights, radar, radio altimeter, transponder
and DME equipment be switched OFF?
g) Prior to removing the fuel cap and inserting the fuel nozzle into the aircraft
fuel tank are grounding wires running from the fuel station and from the fuel
hose to the aircraft be connected?
h) Does the Pilot-in-Command verify that all equipment is removed, the fuel cap
has been securely replaced and the aircraft is properly configured for flight
when the fueling procedure is completed?
7.6 Portable offshore fuel transport tanks
30. On portable offshore fuel transport tanks, does the data plate on the transporter tank
state the test pressure requirement? (Section 7.6.1)
31. Is the tank within the 5 year hydrostatic test date? (Section 7.6.1)
32. Is the pressure relief valve tested annually? (Section 7.6.1)
33. Does the 12 month inspection include the following? (Section 7.6.1)
a) Check for build-up of sediment or evidence of microbial growth.
b) If inspection reveals such growth or build-up of sediment exceeding 1/10 of
the area of the tank bottom surface, has cleaning been accomplished?
c) If the tank has an internal epoxy coating, inspect coating for evidence of
chipping, flaking, or other deterioration?
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34. Are jet fuel tanks cleaned with high pressure water or steam only? (Section 7.6.1)
35. Are solvents, chemicals or detergents used to clean tanks? (Section 7.6.1)
36. Are the dates indicating the inspection/test dates stenciled on the tank? (Section
7.6.1)
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Section 8 Training and Experience

8.1 Flight crew training
1. Does the contracted operator conduct flight crew training in a Synthetic Training
Device (STD) that replicates the model of aircraft being flown as closely as possible?
(Section 8.1.2)
2. Do the contracted operators pilots flying on a BP contract attend flight simulator
training every 12 months? (Note: This interval may be extended to 14 months to
accommodate scheduling issues). (Section 8.1.2.2)
3. Does the content of the contracted operators Integrated Structured Training program
conform to the requirements of Appendix 5A and 5C? (Section 8.1.2.3)
4. Does the contracted operators Integrated Structured Training program include STD
Training? (Section 8.1.2.3)
5. Does the contracted operators Integrated Structured Training program include a
minimum of 25% in the simulator and 25% in the actual aircraft? (Section 8.1.2.3)
6. Do all contracted pilots receive annual recurrent training to the standards of
appropriate civil aviation authorities, and flight checks at not less than a frequency of
every six months for long-term operations? (Section 8.1.3)
7. Do these checks include an annual instrument rating proficiency check/ renewal
(where applicable), a proficiency check (including emergency drills) and an annual
route check? (Section 8.1.3)
8. Do all crewmembers receive as a minimum a documented Line Check, which
includes an orientation of local procedures/ policies before being scheduled for flight
duties in a new location? (Section 8.1.3)
9. Does the contracted operator have an acceptable crew resource management
(CRM) training programme for all two pilot operations in airplanes? (Section 8.1.4)
10. Does the contracted operator have a Dangerous Goods Awareness training program
for all pilots to ensure that they are aware of the requirements for the carriage of
hazardous materials including relevant legislation, limitations and documentation?
(Section 8.1.5)
11. Does the contracted operator utilize ICUS, PICUS, or P1US, for the gaining of pilot
command time? (Section 8.1.6)
12. Is the ICUS, PICUS, or P1US flight time logged while flying in the Captains
designated position? (i.e. RHS for RW and LHS for FW) (Section 8.1.6)
13. Are pilot training records and the pilots personal log books maintained documenting
each flight performed? (Section 8.1.6)
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14. Does the contracted operator have a written ICUS training program establishing the
syllabus and progression program? (Section 8.1.6)
15. Does the contracted operator have an established, appropriate training program
where there is a requirement to carry out routine (or emergency) flights at night?
(Section 8.1.7)
16. Does the contracted operator only use dual pilot crews and are both pilots qualified
and hold a current instrument rating for the helicopter type being flown? (Section
8.1.7)
17. Does the contracted operator, for night operations, utilize Captains that, in the
addition to the requirements specified in Appendix 5 of this guide, have the following
qualifications? (Section 8.1.7)
a) Minimum of 25 hours of night offshore time.
b) Completed within the last 12 months initial or recurrent offshore night/ IFR/
CRM/ deck landing proficiency training.
18. Does the contracted operator have all pilots maintain night/ instrument recency of 3
offshore approaches and departures, including takeoff and landing, every 90 days?
(Section 8.1.7)
19. Is HUET training conducted to the OPITO standard or equivalent? (Section 8.1.8)
20. Does the contracted operator complete HUET using an underwater escape simulator
for all aircrew and frequent flying offshore passengers at intervals not to exceed 4
years if engaged in floatplane or offshore helicopter operations? (Section 8.1.8)
21. Is this training completed in conjunction with wet dingy drills using emergency
equipment similar to that installed on the aircraft? (Section 8.1.8)
22. Is the training scheduled for a minimum of one day? (Section 8.1.8)
23. Do the HUET training facilities have emergency exit mechanisms representative of
the aircraft flown in offshore or water borne operations? (Section 8.1.8)
24. Where required by the BP, does the HUET also include training in the use of a rebreather self-breathing device or other emergency air devices? (Section 8.1.8)
25. Has a risk assessment been conducted to determine the need for such breathing
devices? (Section 8.1.8)
26. Is there a documented record of the HEUT trained personnel? (Section 8.1.8)
27. Are single pilot operations not permitted? (Section 8.1.9)
28. If external load operations are likely to be required, has this been specified in the
contract? (Section 8.1.10)
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29. Have the pilots nominated for external load work had a competence check formally
signed off by a designated check and training captain? (Section 8.1.10)
30. Do the Pilots have 300 hours of external load experience, or 300 hours of long-lining,
whichever is applicable? (Section 8.1.10)
31. Was a competency recheck completed during Visual Base Check procedures or an
External Load Competence Check (unless at least 10 hours of practical application
has been achieved in the preceding six months)? (Section 8.1.10)
32. Do the contracted operator conducting spraying operations, for example in support of
offshore oil spill response, have a written syllabus for conversion and recurrent
training of aircrew engaged in spraying? (Section 8.1.10)
33. Has spray training and recency requirements been assessed by the BPs Aviation
Advisor? (Section 8.1.10)
34. Have the contracted operators Pilots completed a formal and recorded training
scheme, plus a minimum of 10 hours of winching operations (50 hours where an
exclusive SAR contract exists)? (Section 8.1.10)
35. Does the recurrent winch training include a minimum of three winch rescue
operations every 90 days utilizing a winch operator and the recovery of equipment
such as a cruciform by grappling hook? (Section 8.1.10)
36. Have all contracted winch operators, whether full or part time met the following?
(Section 8.1.10)
a) Is an employee or direct contractor of the helicopter operator?
b) Have completed a formal and recorded training scheme specifically for
winchmen, including the following items?
Basic weight and balance.
Aircraft safety and survival equipment.
Emergency procedures to include winch problems, fouling of the cable,
severing of the cable, use of bolt croppers etc.
Technical details of winch operation.
First-Aid and cold water recovery techniques including cold shock and
hypothermia.
Wet dinghy drill.
Search & Rescue/coastguard local organization.
37. Has the wet and dry winching practical instruction included at least twenty lifts as the
winch operator and twenty lifts as the winchman, and have completed recurrent
training every 90 days to include an aircraft safety and survival check? (Section
81.10)
38. Does the training include over water training for pilots and crewmen to practice the
approach and lower into position in reduced visual reference conditions? (Section
8.1.10)
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39. Does the contracted operator carry out recency checks for all pilots after 28 or more
days absence from flying? (Section 8.1.11)
8.2 Support and technical personnel requirements
40. Do the contracted operators technical and support personnel such as licenced/
unlicenced engineers, loadmasters, and dispatchers, helideck attendants, aerial
observers, cabin crew and radio operators meet the minimum qualification and
experience requirements presented in Appendix 5D1-3? (Section 8.2)
41. Does the aircraft operator provide formal, general and type training for its certifying
maintenance staff to meet the minimum requirements of Section 4.4 and Appendix
5D in countries where this is not required by the national licensing authority to be
licensed or type approved? (Section 8.2.1.1)
42. Does the contracted operator conduct continuation/ recurrent training at a minimum
period of every three-years for maintenance personnel? (Section 8.2.1.2)
43. Does this training include but not be limited to the following? (Section 8.2.1.2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Changes in relevant regulatory requirements.

Organization procedures.
The standard for the products being maintained.
Human factors issues identified from any internal or external analyses of
incidents.
e) Information on relevant airworthiness directives/bulletins or similar documents
issues since the last training session.
44. Have personnel engaged on helideck related duties been provided with training that
includes the provisions of the OPITO Training Guide and the experience as shown in
Appendix 5D1-3? (Section 8.2.2)
45. Have refueling personnel completed a formal training course at an approved/
recommended training facility? (Section 8.2.3)
46. Do controllers undertake formal training in handling and recording radio
transmissions and any actions that may be required for normal and emergency
operations? (Section 8.2.4)
47. Is there a log of air traffic control radio transmissions? (Section 8.2.4)
48. Are the contracted operators radio operators VHF/ HF licensed, where applicable?
(Section 8.2.5)
49. Are all communications and radio logs in the English language? (Section 8.2.5)
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50. When certified weather observers are required for operations under IFR or night
conditions, do the observers attend periodic training to maintain certification in
accordance with local requirements? (Section 8.2.6)
51. Have the contracted operators cabin attendants completed a formal and recorded
course of training which includes coverage of the following items: (Section 8.2.7)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Safety Equipment.
First Aid.
Aircraft knowledge.
Emergency Procedures.
Loading Procedures.
Documentation and the Handling of Dangerous Goods.
52. Is cabin attendant training carried out annually? (Section 8.2.7)

53. Is cabin attendant training recorded formally and a syllabus available for reference?
(Section 8.2.7)
54. Does cabin attendants training include the full range of Emergency & Survival
training as completed by pilots? (Section 8.2.7)
55. Are dispatchers / traffic clerks completely familiar with the operation of aeroplanes or
helicopters? (Section 8.2.8)
56. Do dispatchers/traffic clerks have a good understanding of basic weight and balance
problems and manifest documentation? (Section 8.2.8)
57. Are load masters provided with the same basic training as that of the crew and
given crew status? (Section 8.2.9)
58. Are the load masters trained for load and balance on the aircraft type in use?(Section
8.2.9)
8.3 Training records and programmes
59. Does the aircraft operator maintain comprehensive training documentation including
details of training programmes and frequency and individual records per person?
(Section 8.3)
60. Has the aircraft operator provided the following to the OGP member for long term or
sole use contracts: (Section 8.3)
a) A list of personnel that meet the OGP members requirements?
b) Details of personnel changes with review and acceptance by the OGP
members aviation advisor?
61. Has the training records been reviewed periodically by the OGP members aviation
advisor? (Section 8.3)
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Section 9 Passengers and Freight

9.1 General
1. Does the contracted operator prohibit smoking on on-board all aircraft? (Section
9.1.1)
2. Are personnel not under medical supervision allowed to board an aircraft under the
influence of alcohol or drugs? (Section 9.1.2)
3. Does the contracted operators pilot in command (PIC) verify that fuel and oil
requirements are correct, and weight and centre of gravity limits of the aircraft have
been calculated and within the limits for flight prior to take-off? (Section 9.1.4)
9.2 Cargo
4. Do cargo only contracted operators carry passengers? (Section 9.2)
5. Does the contracted operator verify the contents of each piece of cargo offered for
transport by air? (Section 9.2.1)
6. Is all cargo weighed separately and manifested? (Section 9.2.1)
7. If cargo is permitted on passenger-carrying flights is it either In a designated cargo
compartment and/ or tied down with inspected and tracked cargo restraints?
(Section 9.2.2.A)
8. When cargo is inside the passenger cabin, does the cargo impede access to
emergency exits? (Section 9.2.2.B)
9. In those cases where freight is carried in the passenger compartment, is a risk
assessment completed? (Section 9.2.2.C)
10. In those cases where freight is carried in the passenger compartment, are actions put
in place to mitigate any risk? (Section 9.2.2.C)
11. Is loose paper or mail carried in a weighted bag and not loaded as a loose item?
(Section 9.2.2.D)
12. Does the contracted operator provide pilots with guidance regarding all aspects of
transporting dangerous goods? (Section 9.2.3)
13. Are these instructions contrary to any pertinent regulatory documents? (Section
9.2.3)
14. If hazardous materials are carried, is the Pilot-In-Command provided with a Shippers
Declaration of Dangerous Goods form and comply with the Operators Operations
Manual? (Section 9.2.3)
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9.3 Manifests
15. Is a passenger manifest raised by the contracted operator for each flight and have
the following minimum information recorded? (Section 9.3.1)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Name of each passenger.

Passengers company affiliation.
Passenger weight and that of personal baggage.
Aircraft registration.
Weight of cargo.
16. If additions or deletions occur, is the manifest revised to accurately reflect the names
of the persons on board? (Section 9.3.3)
17. Is this manifest left with or relayed to a responsible party, prior to departure, with
instructions to retain until the trip is completed? (Section 9.3.3)
18. Do designated personnel check the actual passenger names versus the pre-planned
listing of personnel to be transported? (Section 9.3.4)
9.4 Passenger weights
19. Does the contracted operator use actual body weights (including hand carried
baggage) for aeroplanes with a maximum gross take-off weight (MGTOW) less than
5700kg? (Section 9.4.1)
20. Does the contracted operator use actual body weights (including hand carried
baggage) for all helicopters regardless of MGTOW? (Section 9.4.1)
21. Does the contracted operator use actual weights for all checked baggage when
preparing the manifests for all aircraft? (Section 9.4.3)
9.5 Passenger briefings
22. Does the contracted operator properly brief passengers on emergency procedures,
and other safety matters, prior to flight? (Section 9.5.1)
23. Does the contracted operator provide a briefing in the local language as well as
English? (Section 9.5.2)
24. Does the passenger safety briefing include, but not be limited to, the following?
(Section 9.5.3)
a) A general description of the aircraft and the danger areas of jet engines, and
turning propellers on aeroplanes, and the dangers of helicopter main and tail
rotors.
b) Procedures for boarding and exiting the aircraft.
c) Smoking is not permitted around the aircraft/tarmac area, or during flight.
d) Location of non-smoking and fasten seat belt illuminating signs.
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e) Seat belts and shoulder harnesses, including the following:

Location and use of seatbelts.
Inversion of the seatbelt.
25. Does the passenger safety briefing include the location and operation of oxygen
masks as applicable? (Section 9.5.3)
26. Does the passenger safety briefing include means of communication between the
crew and the passengers, and actions in the event of an emergency? (Section 9.5.3)
27. Does the passenger safety briefing include the following? (Section 9.5.3)
a) Location and operation of doors, emergency exits emergency and lifesaving
equipment such as fire extinguishers, first aid kit(s), life vests, life rafts,
survival gear, and emergency radio equipment (ELT and EPIRBs).
b) Brace position for emergency landings.
c) Passengers to remain seated until the crew/ground crew open the doors and
the captain tells them to disembark.
d) Location and review of passenger briefing card. Information contained in the
briefing card shall focus on safety equipment and emergency procedures.
e) Proper stowage of any hand carried items.
f) Use of personal electronic devices (laptops, personal organisers, etc.) and
guidelines for use.
28. Does the briefing include the following additional points for all helicopter passengers?
(Section 9.5.4)
a) Passengers shall not disembark until instructed by the pilot, Helideck Landing
Officer (HLO) (or Helideck Attendant), or other designated personnel.
b) Never approach a helicopter from the rear. Do not proceed any further aft of
the baggage compartment door than is necessary for the retrieval of baggage
or freight.
c) Always approach and leave the helicopter from the side, within view of the
pilot or crewmember.
d) Hand carry hats, glasses, and caps to prevent them from being blown away
by the main rotor wash.
e) Long objects over 1 meter must be carried flat to avoid contacting the main
rotor blade.
f) Under no circumstances will passengers depart or approach a helicopter on
the up-slope (high) side when departing on slope landings.
g) Under no circumstance, depart or approach a helicopter during start-up or
shutdown.
h) Passengers shall be provided hearing protection and be instructed on its use.
i) Only small, soft items such as a paperback book shall be carried inside the
passenger cabin of helicopters; hard-cased items that could be missile
hazards or loose items that could be blown away such as newspapers shall
not be carried.
29. Have the following additional helicopter briefing items for offshore flights been
covered? (Section 9.5.5)
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a) Passengers who have completed helicopter underwater escape training

(HUET) shall sit adjacent to exits and, if possible, assist non-HUET trained
passengers in the event of a ditching.
b) If survival suits are worn, passengers shall have suits FULLY zipped with
hood on (if equipped with integral hood) during take-off and landing over
water, when flying below 500 feet over water, and as advised by the Pilot-InCommand.
c) Passengers shall be advised that in the event of an emergency landing on the
water, the helicopter shall not be evacuated until the rotor has stopped,
unless instructed otherwise by the Pilot in Command.
d) Passengers shall be told not to inflate life vests until they are outside the
helicopter.
e) Passengers shall be familiar with and know the location of emergency
equipment such as life rafts, and know how to jettison the emergency exits,
pop out windows, and deploy the life rafts outside the helicopter.
f) Passengers shall be briefed on the proper use of reference points for
orientation during the event of a rollover ditching.
g) Carriage of loose articles in the aircraft that could present Foreign Object
Damage (FOD) risk or impede egress in the event of ditching (such as
newspapers) shall be discouraged.
h) Passengers shall be briefed on NO STEP areas.
30. For float plane operations does the briefing include the following? (Section 9.5.5)
a) All floatplane occupants shall wear an approved life vest when operating over
water.
b) Passengers shall be briefed on ditching procedures to include use of
emergency exits, use of life vests, location and use of emergency equipment.
9.6 Video briefing
31. If a video briefing is the only form of briefing, is it shown prior to each flight? (Section
9.6)
32. If on long-term operations out of a fixed-base facility, is a video briefing shown to
passengers periodically? (Section 9.6)
9.7 Multi-language operations
33. Does the contracted operator use international symbol graphics or multi-language
briefing cards to convey briefing information to all passengers? (Section 9.7.2)
9.8 Passenger marshalling areas
34. Does the contracted operator have secure waiting areas designated for aircraft
passengers? (Section 9.8.1)
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35. Do these waiting areas have written and graphic material displayed relative to aircraft
safety and localised procedures? (Section 9.8.1)
36. Is there a clearly defined holding area designated for both incoming and outgoing
passengers and freight? (Section 9.8.1)
37. For offshore operations is suitable area identified to provide a safe passenger waiting
area to prevent passenger loitering at the helideck or in the helideck stairwell?
(Section 9.8.2)
38. Is an area also provided for changing into/ from survival suits if worn, in order to
minimise turnaround time? (Section 9.8.2)
9.10 Passenger dress requirements
39. Do passengers wear clothing and footwear, appropriate to the environment,
regardless of the flight duration? (Section 9.10.1)
9.11 Passenger and cargo management on helidecks
40. Do helipad and helideck procedures include the requirement for an inspection of all
equipment and items stored in the vicinity of the helipad or helideck to include
adjacent work areas and in the path of the rotor wash danger area to ensure all items
are secured prior to giving Green Deck clearance for landing? (Section 9.11.B.1)
41. Does the procedure highlight typical hazards to be considered such as crates,
plywood sheets, flat plate containers, heavy mats, metal sheets or any other items
likely to be brought into the rotor wash area during routine or non-routine operations?
(Section 9.11.B.2)
42. Is there a formalized procedure established in writing and followed including
procedures for securing the cargo left on a helideck? Has the Aviation advisor
reviewed the procedure prior to implementation? (Section 9.11.1)
43. Is a Helideck Landing Officer (HLO) used to control passenger movement on
helidecks? (Section 9.11.3)
44. If a pilot control passenger movement on the helideck, is there a second pilot?
(Section 9.11.3)
45. Does the pilot, when offloading or loading passengers with the rotors turning, engage
in essential cockpit duties only? (Section 9.11.3)
46. Are any of the following included in essential cockpit duties? (Section 9.11.3)
a) Manifesting.
b) Weight and balance calculations.
c) Customer paperwork.
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9.12 Passenger seating

47. Does the contracted operator allow passengers to occupy any aircraft seat where
flight controls are installed? (Section 9.12)
48. If available do helicopter seats have? (Section 9.12)
a) A four-point harness with single release.
b) Head restraint.
9.13 Survival equipment
49. Do all of the contracted aircraft carry safety equipment and survival kits that, as a
minimum, comply with local civil aviation authority or regulation? (Section 9.13.1)
50. Is the capacity of each survival kit proportionate to the number of persons carried in
the aircraft? (Section 9.13.1)
51. Are all aircrew and passengers provided with inflatable life jackets approved for
aircraft use for over water flights? (Section 9.13.5)
52. Do the life jackets have a survivor locator light and each life jacket stowed in a position easily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it is
provided? (Section 9.13.5)
53. Are these jackets fitted with constant wear covers, and worn at all times unless
exposure suits are equipped with integral vests for offshore helicopter flights?
(Section 9.13.5)
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Section 10 Aircraft equipment standards

10.1 Introduction and equipment fit tables
1. Has the equipment specification of all aircraft that are offered for use been examined
in detail to ensure that sufficient equipment is available for the tasks on which the
aircraft shall be used? (Section 10.1.C)
2. Does the aircraft provided for services conform to the matrices for helicopters and
fixed-wing aircraft at Appendix 7? (In this section information shall be provided to
help in addressing what equipment shall be on board contract aircraft.) (Section
10.1)
3. Listed equipment may in some cases be unserviceable and deferred (if allowed in
approved Minimum Equipment Lists (MEL)). In these cases has it been determined
what impact unserviceable equipment will have on contracted operations and has a
limit for being out of service been set if authorized by the MEL? (Section 10.1)
4. Does the contracted operators aircraft have standardised cockpit layouts for the
same types of aircraft? (Section 10.1)
10.2 Minimum aircraft equipment - general
5. Has new technology been approved by the SAA following a risk assessment prior to
use? (Section 10.2.1)
6. Does the contracted operator have an Automatically Deployable Emergency Locator
Transmitter (ADELT) or Crash Position Indicator (CPI) for offshore helicopters
installed? (Section 10.2.2.B)
7. Are ELTs carried on all aircraft? (Section 10.2.2)
8. Are the contracted operators aircraft equipped with Cockpit Voice Recorders
(CVRs)? (Section 10.2.4)
9. Are all of the contracted operators aircraft equipped with Flight Data Recorders
(FDRs)? (Section 10.2.5)
10. Has the EAA been referred, regarding the fitment and use of HISLs in areas of its
benefits are uncertain? (Section 10.2.6.B)
11. Are the contracted operators aircraft equipped with an Enhanced Ground Proximity
Warning System (EGPWS)? (Section 10.2.7.B)
12. Where EGPWS is not available for type and model of aircraft being operated, is basic
GPWS used? (Section 10.2.7.C)
13. Are the contracted operators aircraft equipped with a Traffic Collision Avoidance
System (TCAS)? (Section 10.2.8) (Note: TCAD is not acceptable)
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14. Has an airborne collision avoidance system been considered for fitment to all new
long-term aircraft contracts, particularly in high density areas or where radar
coverage is limited? (Section 10.2.8)
15. Are the contracted operators aircraft equipped with Flight Data Monitoring (FDM)
equipment? (Section 10.2.9.B)
16. Does the FDM equipment installed use on-board aircraft information, relating to the
actual operation, and is the equipment capable of being downloaded?(Section
10.2.9.C)
17. Is the FDM programme integrated as one element of input to the overall safety
management program? (Section 10.2.9.D)
18. Does the FDM programme document the following? (Section 10.2.9.E)
a) Objectives of the system.
b) Include a confidentiality statement, where required.
c) Include a description of the system, including how the data will be managed.
19. Are the contracted operators survival kits suitable for the area of operation and
carried on flights, which are planned to over fly hostile terrain? (Section 10.2.10)
(see appendix 7)
20. Does the contracted operator, whenever possible, carry cargo in a compartment
approved for carriage of cargo, and where available for the aircraft model, is the
cargo compartment equipped with an independent fire and smoke monitoring, and
extinguishing system? (Section 10.2.12)
21. Does the contracted operator only use authorised aviation personnel to secure and
remove cargo and baggage? (Section 10.2.12)
22. Has a Burn Certificate or officially recognized equivalent been presented prior to
contract or after installation of refurbished interior upholstery & internal trim? (Section
10.2.13)
23. Does the contracted operator carry suitable and comprehensive First-Aid kits on all
aircraft? (Section 10.2.14)
10.3 Helicopter equipment
24. Does the contracted operator have all helicopters fitted with a Health and Usage
Monitoring System (HUMS), or a Vibration Health Monitoring (VHM) coupled with an
Engine Usage Monitoring System (UMS), where no HUMS system is available?
(Section 10.3.1.B)
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25. Has the contracted operator established a written list (MEL) of HUMS/ VHM system
components, and identified components that are allowed to be inoperative, and the
associated time period expressed in airframe hours? (Section 10.3.1)
26. Where helicopters are operated in Performance Class 2, with exposure time during
take-off and landing, or in Performance Class 3, does the contracted operator
augment VHM by a propulsion system Usage Monitoring System (UMS), where this
is not already included in HUMS? (Section 10.3.1)
27. Do the contracted operators maintenance logs provide details on inoperative
vibration system components? (Section 10.3.1)
28. Does the contracted operator complete Daily assessments of HUMS/ VHM and UMS
downloads for warnings and trend analysis of the recorded data? (Section 10.3.1)
29. Are the contracted operators inspection programmes written to require verification
that, vibration parameters are within tolerance at the beginning of a flying period, or
appropriate maintenance actions are taken for exceedances before flight? (Section
10.3.1)
30. Do the contracted operators offshore helicopters have externally mounted life rafts
whereby the following are met? (Section 10.3.2.B)
a) Primary deployment is by single action from the normal crew positions.
b) Secondary deployment is from the passenger compartment with the cabin in
an upright attitude.
c) Deployment is possible from outside the helicopter when in either an upright
or inverted attitude.
31. Are all the contracted operators life rafts equipped with an emergency radio/
beacon? (Section 10.3.2.B)
32. Are all the contracted operators life rafts equipped with an approved offshore
survival kit that is attached to the raft with a lanyard? (Section 10.3.2.B)
33. Do the contracted operators helicopters having a seat capacity for 10 or more
passengers have two life rafts; each certified for 50% overload to enable any one life
raft to be used by all occupants? (Section 10.3.2.B)
34. Do the contracted operators helicopters helicopters having a seat capacity for 9 or
less passengers have a minimum of one life raft certified to carry all occupants?
(Section 10.3.2.B)
35. Are all contracted operators offshore helicopters fitted with flotation gear using
Automatic Flotation Deployment System (AFDS)? (Section 10.3.3.B)
36. Are helicopters that are operated over water capable of alighting on the surface of
the water? (Section 10.3.3.B)
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37. Does each seat row have unobstructed access to an emergency exit? (Section
10.3.4.B)
38. Are all apertures in passenger compartments suitable for the purpose of underwater
escape? (Section 10.3.4.B)
39. Are Emergency Exit Marking Systems (ie EXIS or HEEL path lighting) available on
night flights and automatically activated following the flooding of the cabin? (Section
10.3.4.B)
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Section 11 Airbases
11.2 Airbase design reference
1. Have ICAO Annex 14, Volumes I & II been used as the basic reference documents in
all new airbase design considerations, construction or major rework of existing
airbases where no local guidance is available? (Section 11.2)
11.3 Airbase design reviews
2. Has a qualified BP Aviation Advisor participated in all preliminary and critical design
reviews for Company airbase construction or modification? (Section 11.3)
3. Has the airbase in the design phase, been planned to provide a clear area for a safe
approach/departure path into prevailing winds? (Section 11.3)
4. Have all airbases and supporting facilities (fuel systems, hangars, fire suppression,
passenger handling areas, etc, had periodic (minimum of annual) safety, operational
and quality assurance reviews as follows by? (Section 11.3)
a) Appropriate regulatory authority or a qualified Aviation Advisor.
b) The Operator.
5. Are records of such reviews and any remedial actions taken maintained? (Section
11.3)
11.4 Variances
6. Are all variations subject to the deviation process? (Section 11.4)
11.5 Weather monitoring systems
7. Are all airbases equipped with a wind indicating system that is clearly visible to the
pilot and provides an indication of wind speed and direction? (Section 11.5.1)
8. Is the wind indicating system illuminated at airbases where night operations may be
conducted? (Section 11.5.1)
9. Are helidecks equipped with at least one windsock positioned so as to be visible for
take-off and landings and is it located outside the obstacle free zone? (Section
11.5.1)
10. Are airports, airstrips and helidecks equipped with a weather station that has the
following? (Section 11.5.2)
a) A temperature gauge.
b) A barometric gauge.
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c) A means of providing cloud ceiling height and visibility (either with a trained
weather observer or Automated Weather Observation System (AWOS).
d) A means of relaying this information to the helicopter pilot.
11. Do the helideck weather stations also have the following in addition to the items
noted above? (Section 11.5.2)
a) Ability to report sea state which estimated visually or by using wave
measurement equipment.
b) Offshore floating facilities have a means of measuring helideck pitch, roll and
heave.
12. For AWOS only stations, is there backup capability of a trained observer? (Section
11.5.2)
13. For areas where IFR or night operations are conducted, does the weather station
provide all the items above, and in addition, provide the following? (Section 11.5.3)
a) A weather observer certified via training at an approved weather observation
course.
b) Consideration given to providing AWOS with certified weather capabilities.
c) Dew point.
14. Is the weather equipment calibrated annually, or as per manufacturers
recommendations? (Section 11.5.4)
15. Is the weather equipment maintained in accordance with manufacturers instructions?
(Section 11.5.4)
11.6 Airbase rescue equipment
16. Does the crash box, if required by local authority, protect all components from the
elements? (Section 11.6)
17. Has an inspection schedule of the airbase rescue equipment been formulated and
periodic inspections documented? (Section 11.6)
11.7 Airbase fire protection and equipment
18. Do all airbases have a means of extinguishing a fire that is commensurate with the
potential risk? (Section 11.7)
19. Has an inspection schedule of the fire extinguishing equipment been formulated in
accordance with the manufacturers recommendations and/ or local regulations?
(Section 11.7)
20. Have the periodic inspections been documented? (Section 11.7)
21. Do airbases comply with local regulatory requirements? (Section 11.7)
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22. In absence of regulatory requirements, do airbases comply with the following criteria?
(Section 11.7)
a) Are Flammable liquid storage tanks located at least 16 meters from the takeoff and landing area?
b) Are Landing areas sloped to drain flammables and liquids away from
passenger access and egress points?
c) Is smoking prohibited, other than in designated locations?
d) Is at least one portable fire extinguisher as specified in the following table
provided for each landing area, parking area, and fuel storage area, and the
equipment be tagged with the last inspection date?
Minimum Ratings of Portable Fire Extinguishers for Heliports:
Category
H-1
H-2
Helicopter overall length,

including both rotors
Up to but not including
15.2 meters (50 feet)
From 15.2 meters up to,
but not including 24.4
meters (50 - 80 feet)
Minimum rating
4-A:80-B
10-A:120-B
23. Does the Water/Foam system provide fire protection to the landing/parking area?
(Section 11.7)
24. Are the water/foam systems tested in accordance with NFPA 11 or British Standard
5306 or local national equivalent? (Section 11.7)
25. Are tests completed on an annual basis with samples taken from the foam concentrate, produced (after nozzle finished) foam, and water? (Section 11.7)
26. Are copies of testing results maintained for review? (Section 11.7)
11.8 Non directional beacons
27. Do NDBs have a periodic maintenance programme, which includes annual
calibration for proper output based on the specific Manufacturers published
procedures? (Section 11.8)
28. Do all NDBs, whether onshore or offshore, have aeronautical navigation frequencies
that have been provided by the specific country of operations CAA, or authorized
communications agency? (Section 11.8)
11.9 Heliports and helidecks
29. If no local regulatory guidance exists, has ICAO Annex 14, Volume II, Heliports
been used in all design considerations, construction or major rework of existing
heliports or offshore helidecks? (Section 11.9.1)
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30. Is the heliport or helideck of sufficient size to accommodate the largest helicopter
using the helideck? (Section 11.9.2)
31. Has the D value, where D is the largest overall dimension of the helicopter with the
rotors turning, defined the maximum size of helicopter able to use the helideck?
(Section 11.9.2)
32. Do all new helidecks conform to the standards of ICAO Annex 14, Vol. II, if no local
regulatory guidance exists? (Section 11.9.3)
33. Are the helidecks designed to accommodate the largest helicopter anticipated for use
during the life of the structure? (Section 11.9.3)
34. In heliport/ helideck design, has CAP 437 and the ICAO Heliport Manual been used?
(Section 11.9.3)
35. Do shipboard helidecks such as tankers and seismic vessels conform to the
International Chamber of Shippings (ICS) Guide to Helicopter/Ship Operations?
(Section 11.9.3)
36. Has advice from the ATA and EAA been sought before completing design on
Floating Production, Storage and Offloading (FPSO) helidecks? (Section 11.9.3)
37. Are second helicopter operations to obstructed helidecks daylight only and are such
operations allowed by the Operators Operations Manual? (Section 11.9.3)
38. Is the minimum obstruction clearance during landing or take-off less than the greater
of rd rotor diameter or 4 meters? (Section 11.9.3)
39. Has the Operator and offshore manager discussed the risks involved in second
helicopter operations and applied applicable risk mitigations? (Section 11.9.3)
40. Are any such obstructions located within the area swept by the 8 oclock forward
through to the 4 oclock position of the landing helicopter as viewed from the flight
deck? (Section 11.9.3)
41. Does the local helideck procedures manual or the Operators Operations Manual
have written operational procedures for closing helidecks? (Section 11.9.3)
42. Does the local helideck procedures manual, or the Operators Operations Manual,
have written operational procedures and hazard warning systems for the following
hazards? (Section 11.9.3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
Crane helicopter operational procedures.

Helicopter/ tanker operation.
Helideck/ heliport operational hazard warning(s)/procedure(s).
Perforating operations.
Gas venting.
Hydrogen sulphide gas (if applicable for the area).
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43. Has the operator included in their local procedures manual a section for pilot use that
includes the following as a minimum? (Section 11.9.3)
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
f)
g)
h)
i)
j)
Overhead and side views of the helideck.

Size/weight capability.
Markings.
Lighting (if installed).
Communications.
Weather capabilities.
Obstacles.
Turbulence issues.
Hazards.
Specific operational procedures.
44. Has ICAO Annex 14, Volume II, Heliports, been used in all design considerations,
construction or major rework of existing heliports, where no other local guidance
exists? (Section 11.9.4)
45. Do all heliports have a rejected take-off (RTO) area or Fly away, to allow for
helicopter landing in the event of an aborted take-off or return due to malfunction?
(Section 11.9.4)
46. Is the rejected take-off area, (where possible), of paved or compacted surface, that is
capable of sustaining the weight of the helicopter in the event of a run on landing?
(Section 11.9.4)
11.10 Airports and airstrips
47. Are remote runways/ airstrips long enough to allow the aircraft to reach take-off
decision speed (V1), abort, and remain on the runway? (Section 11.10.1)
48. Is aircraft performance data, published by the aircraft manufacturer, used to
determine length, allowable slope of the airstrip, and other design criteria? (Section
11.10.1)
49. If no performance data exists for the aircraft given the temperature and altitude of the
airstrip, is a different aircraft model with suitable performance criteria selected?
(Section 11.10.1)
50. Is ICAO Annex 14 used to determine other dimensional and obstacle clearance
dimensions, if no other local guidance exists? (Section 11.10.1)
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Section 12 Emergency Response Planning

12.1 Introduction
1. Is an ERP that meets the following in place? (Section 12.1.A)
a) Been developed through the joint efforts of the aviation operator and the BP
entity.
b) Been communicated to all relevant personnel.
c) Stated where the BP entity and the aviation operators responsibilities lie in
terms of the following:
Media response.
Relative handling.
Incident Management Team (IMT).
Business Support Team (BST).
2. Have procedures and risk assessments been established for all operations where
aircraft are expected to operate to or from an unmanned airfield or unmanned
offshore facility? (Section 12.1.B)
12.2 Aircraft in the emergency response role
3. Do the aircraft and crew remain within the prescribed area designated for emergency
response standby to provide a satisfactory response time? (Section 12.2.1)
4. Is there a process for recording any changes in the state of readiness of the aircraft
or supporting emergency response equipment reported to the BP ATA and EAA
immediately? (Section 12.2.1)
5. Have the specific roles and duties of all aircraft utilized in the event of an emergency
been documented in the operation specific ERP? (Section 12.2.2)
6. Are there clearly outlined ERP communication procedures between aviation, marine
vessels and/ or ground resources involved? (Section 12.2.2)
7. Are ERPs regularly reviewed and modified when affected by regulatory or
operational requirement changes? (Section 12.2.2)
8. If late afternoon or night flights are undertaken, have the limitations on Search &
Rescue capabilities by both aircraft and vessels, been taken into account? (Section
12.2.3)
9. Has the BP ATA and EAA been contacted regarding guidelines and suitable aircraft
for night Search & Rescue flights? (Section 12.2.3)
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12.3 Scenario-based drills

10. Has a scenario based emergency drill related to the contracted operations, been
conducted within 30 days of a new project start and annually, as a minimum, for ongoing operations? (Section 12.3.1)
11. Did this drill include seasonal extremes? (Section 12.3.1)
12. Did the drill involve the aviation resource and include pilots, support staff, aircraft,
and was integrated with marine or land surface resources? (Section 12.3.1)
13. Has the planning for the safe conduct of drills been documented and discussed with
the aviation participants prior to the conduct of any exercise? (Section 12.3.2)
14. Have any safety restraints as a result of night operations or restrictions due to
weather been documented in this plan? (Section 12.3.2)
15. Have the following areas been taken into account when planning drills? (Section
12.3.2)
a)
b)
c)
d)
Visibility.
Wind speed.
Temperature limits.
Sea states.
16. To validate the integrity of the specific scenario drill, were the exercises varied with
regard to the time of day, and the day of the week? (Section 12.3.2)
17. When applicable to the BP activities, asset or operation, did the drills include afterhours operations and weekends? (Section 12.3.2)
18. At the conclusion of each exercise was the drill critically assessed and all personnel
fully debriefed? (Section 12.3.2)
19. Were all subsequent recommendations documented for follow-up action? (Section
12.3.2)
12.4 Search and Rescue (SAR) services and equipment
20. Is the contracted operator equipped with SAR supportive equipment and backed by
an appropriate level of rescue service that can be directed to the operating area
without delay? (Section 12.4.1.B)
21. Does the contracted operator track BP contracted aircraft by satellite-based flight
following? (Section 12.4.2.A)
22. Does the operator track aircraft from surface to planned altitude, and have the
capability to provide continuous location information regardless of vertical
obstructions? (Section 12.4.2.B)
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23. Are high altitude aircraft operations (generally above 25,000 feet) excluded from the
above requirement? (Section 12.4.2.C)
24. Has the SAA approved any alternatives to satellite-based flight following? If so does
it demonstrate equivalence in performance, capability and the abiity to provide its
known location and emergency warnings? (Section 12.4.2.D)
25. Is the ground monitoring station operated by trained flight followers using a dedicated
screen and/ or flight following logs, while an aircraft is in operation? (Section
12.4.2.F)
26. Do life rafts have a voice capable, GPS-equipped emergency locator transmitter
capable of transmitting on 406 MHz? (Section 12.4.2.B)
27. Is the country of operation registered to provide satellite support of the 406 MHz ELT,
beacons or radios? (Section 12.4.2.B)
28. Are all life rafts equipped with an emergency beacon or radio that is waterproof?
(Section 12.4.2)
29. Are the raft mounted emergency radios/ beacons attached to the raft by a lanyard?
(Section 12.4.2)
30. Do all offshore helicopters have an underwater acoustic beacon (pinger) that transmits when submerged? (Section 12.4.2)
31. Is the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR), equipped with a pinger attached to the CVR?
(Section 12.4.2)
32. Have Portable Search & Rescue Transponders (SART) been considered for inclusion
either in life raft or helicopter cabin? (Section 12.4.2)
33. Are homing (direction finding) receivers available to assist in locating missing aircraft
or personnel transmitting on emergency frequencies? (Section 12.4.2)
34. Have these homing devices been added as a contract specification or included in
Company owned equipment? (Section 12.4.2)
35. Has the role of rescue hoists for Search & Rescue purposes in emergency response
planning (ERP) been carefully evaluated and a Risk Analysis completed by the BP
Health, Safety & Environment (HSE) staff with the assistance of the Aviation
Advisor? (Section 12.4.2)
36. Has consideration been given to the overall ability of the operator to perform
competently and to complete periodic training to support the hoisting role given the
parameters established in the ERP when considering rescue hoisting as a secondary
role for helicopters? (Section 12.4.2)
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37. Does the hoist training programme for over water rescue include training over open
water without visual reference to land? (Section 12.4.2)
38. Is suitable clothing that rescued personnel can change into as soon as practicable
after rescue, such as sweat suits or blankets located in a waterproof container with
other rescue equipment? (Section 12.4.2)
12.5 Survival equipment
39. Do all aircraft carry safety equipment and survival kits that, as a minimum, comply
with local civil aviation authority or regulation? (Section 12.5.1)
40. Are the items contained in survival kits appropriate for the geographical location and
climatic conditions; for example, offshore, arctic, jungle or desert? (Section 12.5.1)
41. Is the capacity of each survival kit proportionate to the number of persons carried in
the aircraft? (Section 12.5.1)
42. Are all life rafts equipped with an emergency radio/ beacon? (Section 12.5.2)
43. Are all life rafts equipped with an approved offshore survival kit and attached to the
raft with a lanyard? (Section 12.5.2)
44. Do helicopters having a seat capacity for 10 or more passengers have two life rafts;
each certified for 50% overload to enable any one life raft to be used by all
occupants? (Section 12.5.2)
45. Do helicopters having a seat capacity for 9 or less passengers have a minimum of
one life raft certified to carry all occupants? (Section 12.5.2)
46. Are life jackets that are manufactured to an aviation authority approved TSO and
certificated for use by the regulatory authority used? (Section 12.5.3)
47. Are permanently buoyant life vests worn or provided to occupants on aircraft flights?
(Section 12.5.3)
48. Do rebreather systems for life vests and/or exposure suits have appropriate approval
for use by the regulatory authority? (Section 12.5.3)
49. Has a training programme been established for the use of rebreather systems?
(Section 12.5.3)
50. Have the manufacturers and regulatory authorities been consulted as necessary for
clarification for exposure suits that do not have integral life vests and may lack
adequate sustained floatation, where a separate life vest may need to be worn
externally? A crotch strap may be necessary for adequate security of these
separately worn vests. (Section 12.5.3)
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51. For operations where the vests are routinely worn, such as offshore helicopters, are
they covered with a durable fabric to reduce damage from constant handling?
(Section 12.5.3)
52. Are life jackets worn for all helicopter and floatplane over-water flights beyond gliding
distance of land? (Section 12.5.3)
53. Do Pilot life vests for offshore helicopters or remote areas contain an emergency
radio? (Section 12.5.3)
54. Are life jackets worn by all occupants for single-engine aeroplanes, and multi-engine
aeroplanes that cannot maintain altitude on one engine, conducting operations over
water beyond gliding distance of land? (Section 12.5.3)
55. Are immersion suits certified for use by the regulatory authority provided to crews
and passengers for helicopter over water operations in cold water hostile
environments? (Section 12.5.4)
56. Have all necessary details and requirements been stipulated by the Company in the
event that local regulatory controls do not address the issue of wearing exposure
suits? (Section 12.5.4)
57. Have these requirements been reviewed and a decision made prior to
commencement of operations? (Section 12.5.4)
58. Has a detailed risk analysis been completed when determining if survival suits should
be worn? (Section 12.5.4)
59. Have the following factors been considered in the analysis for exposure suits?
(Section 12.5.4)
a) The availability and anticipated response time of Search & Rescue resources.
b) Realistic assumptions on search and/or rescue time should include:
Distance offshore.
Worst case visibility conditions.
Accuracy of aircraft navigation equipment.
Worst case sea conditions.
Time to hoist each occupant.
Potential for in sea assistance of occupants.
Dropping of survival equipment. (see also sub-paragraph m below)
Estimated survival time for clothing being worn.
c) Has the worst case scenario in terms of the most unfavourable location of a
ditched aircraft and longest mobilization times for aircraft or vessels been
used when detailing minimum response times.
d) Additional equipment and personnel factors such as, helicopter winching
limitations, rescue helicopter capacity, crew expertise, guaranteed availability,
and all-weather capabilities of the rescue aircraft/vessels need also to be
considered.
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e) Determination by local management that occupants can be rescued within the

prescribed survival time.
f) Compatibility of life vests and rebreathing systems with exposure suits.
60. Have the following practical problems been considered? (Section 12.5.4)
a) In certain areas, prevailing sea currents may result in water temperatures
being sufficiently cold to make use of survival suits prudent. But high ambient
air temperatures, combined with low air circulation within the suit can cause
debilitating fatigue in crew members and discomfort for passengers.
b) In such circumstances, efforts may be better directed at improving rescue
response (vehicles, vessels or aircraft systems), and search capabilities
rather than introducing survival suits.
61. If a linked raft rescue system is used, have the aircraft crew been trained in the
physical deployment of the system over water, at periodic intervals, with annual
recommended? (Section 12.5.5)
62. Is the system deployed from a dual piloted, twin-engine helicopter or suitably
equipped aeroplane and with an individual trained in its deployment in the rear of the
aircraft? (Section 12.5.5)
12.6 Emergency flights
63. Is there a clear set of instructions on arranging and obtaining emergency flights for
technical, political, security or medical reasons, as part of the emergency response
plan for activities conducted in remote areas? (Section 12.6.1)
64. If acceptable aircraft are not available in the country or region of activity, are there
contingency arrangements made in advance with approved Operators specializing in
emergency flights and medical evacuation operations? (Section 12.6.2)
12.7 Overdue aircraft
65. Has BP defined procedures for overdue aircraft? (Section 12.7)
12.8 Accident, incident, hazard and near miss reporting
66. Is information concerning an aircraft involved in an accident, incident or near miss
while under contract to the Company reported immediately to the BP aviation
representative on location? (Section 12.8)
Last Revision Date:

15 April 2013

Page 56 of 56
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S&OR Audit

Aviation Audit Protocol

GDP 3.7-0001-01, dated 1 July 2012

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

Section 3 Safety Management

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

g) Management of Change A defined procedure to manage the risks

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

17. Is the process subjected to periodic management review? (Section 3.4.A)

Emergency response planning.

3.5 Incident and accident reporting requirements

3.6 Quality assurance

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

Section 4 Aircraft Operations General

6. If an approved operators competency based training management system is used as

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

4.4.3 Avoidance of fatigue in maintenance personnel

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

4.5.3 Aircraft Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

Section 5 Helicopter Operations

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

5.3 Fuel planning

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

c) 120 hours in any 28 consecutive day period.

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1

Programme: Group Defined Practice

Last Revision Date:

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1