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FE Practice Es The Fundamentals of Engineering Practice Exam ‘This full. 8-hour Practice Exam is intended to simulate the actual Fundamentals of Engineering Examination. ideally. it should be taken in an 8-hour period, with up to an hour break between the 4-hour morning and 4-hour afternoon sessions. An 8-hour exam is quite exhausting. You proba- bly have not had such an experience. so you may be surprised at the length of the exam and how exhausting it will be. You will gain valuable expericnce by attempting to take this Practice Exam in the allotted time. If you correctly answer over 30% of the problems on this Practice Exam, you should be ready to pass the actual exam. General or Discipline-Specific Afternoon Exam? Before entering the actual exam room for the afternoon session, you must decide if you are going to take the General Examination or a Discipline-Specific Examination (Chemical, Civil, Elect cal, Environmental, industrial. or Mechanical). The 4-hour morning exam is a General Examina- tion required of all test-takers. ur recommendation is that all examinees choose to take the Gen- eral Examination in the afternoon. Because the subjects of the General afternoon exam are the same as those covered in the morning exam (with the exception of three questions on Biology in the afternoon exam), taking the General afternoon exam will allow maximum preparation time for those subjects If you add an additional 8 or 9 subjects required by the afternoon Discipline-Specific exam, your preparation time will be substantially lengthened. It may be wiser to spend more time re- viewing the subjeets of the General Examinations, That being seid, the afternoon problems on the General Examination are more difficult than the morning problems. So, the decision may be prob- lematic for test-takers who feel more comfortable with the Discipline-Specific subjects. Ie is very important that you check with your state board for possible state requirements for registration in particular engineering areas; some states require the afternoon Discipline-Specific exam in the discipline in which registration is sought. Also, your university may prefer that you take the Discipline-Specific exam; it is your decision, and you must choose what is best for you. Calculators The following calculators are currently (2008) the only ones allowed into the exam room. Make sure you have access to one of these, and that you are familiar with ts operation: © Howlett Packard - HP 3: © Casio - FX 1I5MS or FX 115MSPlus (may have SR designation) ‘© Texas Instruments - TI 30X IIS or TI 36X SOLAR Leave No Answers Blank Do not leave any answers blank: guesses are not counted against you. Mark an answer the first time you read the question. Even if you merely read through a question, the accuracy of an edu- cated guess is grcater than an arbitrary guess at later time, You can always erase the answer if ‘you have time to come back to the question. If you know the problem is going to require a sig cant amount of time. make your best guess and move on to the next question, Be sure to circle 281 282 FE Practice the problem number on your answer sheet and your exam booklet, if you intend to come back to the problem iftime permits ‘The process of elimination is often helpful on this exam. It may be easier for you to determine false answers than correct ones. By eliminating even one false ehigice, you have increased your odds of guessing the correet answer by 33%. II"'you can eliminate two false answers, your odds of guessing the correct answer inerease 110" Mark It Up Write as much as you desire on the exam booklet, There is plenty of room for out your thought process. so. if” Scratching.” Write vou review a particular question, you will be reminded of your previous thoughts. Even if you can work the problem in your head, show your work. or make a Quick note of your thoughts. Studies of standardized testing show that those who score the high- est, mark up their exam booklets the most. Pace Yourself Never spend too much time on any one question, Even though you could eventually arrive at the Correct answer, this time may more wisely be spent answering additional questions with which You are more comfortable. Do not miss the chance to solve easier exam problems by getting hung up on the more difficult. There will be those questions that are quite difficult and those that are quite easy. Make sure you do not run out of time before you read every question. Practice pacing yourself by watching the clock ax you solve the problems on the Practice Exam. A simplistic pac- ing strategy would be to allot an average of two minutes per question in the morning (120 ques- tions), and four minutes per question in the aftemoon (60 questions). Cheating Within a given exam room, there are several different versions of exam-question placement. In an effort to prevent cheating, the oxdering of your neighbor's questions are not the same as yours. So. the placement of the exam questions in the following Practice Exam (math first, computers see. ond, etc.) may not be the same as on the actual exam. NCEES Handbook {tis extremely important that you become familiar with the NCEES Handbook, since it provides necessary information, equations, tables, Figures. and derivations, The Handbook contains all the information one may need for the General morning, General afternoon, and Discipline-Specifie afternoon exams. So, there may be much information in the Handbook that you will not use as you solve the Practice and actual Exam problems, [tis strongly recommended that you highlight the equations you do use, s0 their location will become impressed on your mind and more easily ound duving the actual exam, Afier you have registered for the FE Exam, a copy of the Hand- book should be sent to you by your state board. Wait to take this Practice Exam until you have a copy of the NCEES Handbook to use for the simulated exam experience Be Prepared Before you begin this Practice Exam, have the calculator you will be using, the NCEES Hand- book. a high-fighter, and soveral pencils with erasers. Set aside cight to nine hours for the two four-hour sessions. and try to simulate the aetual exam experience. With effective preparation ant 4 go00 night’s sleep before the exam, you should be able to pass the Fundamentals of Engineering Exam. FE Practice Exam Fundamentals of Engineering Practice Exam _AM Questions I 1-18 Mathematics 19-26 Computers 27-36 | Economies 37-46 | Fluids | 47-58 | Thermodynamics ' | 59-68 Statics and Dynamics 69-78 Solids 79-90 Electricity and Magnetism 91-98 Material Properties ' 99-106 Probability and Statisties 107-114 Chemistry 115 ~ 120 Ethics PM Questions 1-8 Mathematics 9-17 Economics | 18-23 Thermodynamics and Heat Transfer 24-33 Fluids 34-39 Mechanics 40-42 Biology 43-50 Electricity and Magnetism 51-55 Probability and Statisties 56-60 Engineering Materials FE Practice Exam The Fundamentals of Engineering Exam Morning Session (There is no penalty for a wrong answer so answer every question) Math ce Fluids Solids Statistics 1 ; : @G0® @GO@ + Sess | | bases | Rageg | mggee 4: 809 30 8608 8800 BOOS & 800 28668 de00 | OS83 é 2 2 @B60O 59806 BOOS OOS & @6OO 4 OBOO 8800 16 @@OO 5. BOO 15, BBO 88600 0 88Ge 6 BBO BOO 12, @BOO Thermo 2 OgOo +7 9GQ@ ; 15 BOO 48. 88@@ Electrical 16, ®BOO 9. @8@O 7, @BOO Chemistry 1 BBO@ 30. Bees 30. 9899 17 DOOD i zges | igges | mae Computers BBSOS 2 @8OG | OBO 1. SOOO BCS 4 @QOO 11. 9@OO 2 @BOO 5 BE@o 85. BQO 128069 2, OO ee % BGOR 13 @GO@ 2 Bgee Statics | & OGOO Ue ses | ita | Estes 2 = | 2% 0800 | 50000 | Economics “0 Besse | : a \ d ae 908 6.@@©® | Materials Ethics 33, DOO : 91. BOO 1.809 30 GOOD Dynamics 92, @@OO 16 BEOO 3, ®@O9 3 B@OO 9 @BO@ i BBO@ 32 OBO 1 B00d 21 @BOD 12 BECO 5 8669 OOOO 95, @@OO eees 38860 Soe08 | esos | 38 x. BOOS «OOOO x O80 FE Practice Exam 285 AM QUESTIONS 1. Determine the equation of the line that passes through the point (6, -3) if it is perpendicular to the line y= 2-3. (a) 2: (B) 2ysx-12 12 (D) y=2x-15 2. The equation x? —4xy + y? + 4x —6y +12=0 represents: (A) Circle (B) Ellipse (©) Parabola (D) Hyperbola cos@ , sind sind” c0s8. 3. The expression (28 ) can be written as © D) 0820 ©) Se 4, The sides of a triangle are 4, 5, and 6. The angle opposite the side of length 6 is nearest: (a) 66.9" (B) 741° (©) 82.8° (D) 93.6° One root of i'* is: (A) 0.866+0.5i (B) 1 Or (D) 0.5 + 0.8667 6, The adjoint of the matrix al 7 Al ist “ fez w]e a? 7. The parabola x= 2y? is rotated about the y-axis. The volume between y= Oand y= 2 is: (A) 512215 (B) 12875 (©) 84 (D) 32" 8. If vector field is conservative, which of the following is zero? (A) Curl (B) Gradient (C) Divergence ()Cross product, FE Practice Exam 9 . The differential equation y"+3xy'+ Determine tim" * ssox(=e") (A) @ (B) -2 © (Dy-1 . Evaluate fw dy (A) 30° (B) e? (©) &-1 (D) 1 +07 - Find a unit vector parallel to the line 3y = 4x ~12. cc) 43 3.4 4143) sis} ® (B) F435 (©) Zisg @) A chain saw makes a 10-inch cut in the side of a 24-inch diameter tree. Calculate the angle made by the two radi (@) 131° (B) 49.2" (©) 45.25 (D) 24.6° connecting the ends of the cut. . A line is tangent to a parabila x = 4y* at the point (2, 1), The y-intercept of that line is -7 (B)7 (O32 (12 The ratio is nearest (A) 22441327 (B) 0.64~2.52 (©) 2.24-1,321 (D) 0.644 2,524 =0 is: (A) Linear, homogeneous. constant coefficient. (B) Nonlinear. homogeneous. constant coefficient (C) Linear, nonhomogeneous, variuble coefficient (D) Nonlinear, nonhomogeneous, variable coefficient. FE Praciice Exam 287 Find the y-coordinate of the centroid of the area bounded by x = 'y* the x-axis, and the line (B) 3 (a (Dy 5 The particular solution to the differential equation y'+4y =3e” is we (B) 3e* («© e* (D) 3“ If y'+2ty=0 and y(0) |, then y(1) is: we (8) e* je (D) . Find the nearest decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number 3E8.3E8\,? (A) 1000.3 (B) 1000.24 (C) 1000.2 (D) 1000.15 A spreadsheet contains the following entries: Al 1 AzA24 = Al+1 BL X_ some value B2:B24 = SBSI*BI/A2 B30: = SUM(BI:B24) What value will appear in cell B30? ty Extra @) Extee (© Extra (D) None of these In how many ways can the nested LF states be interpreted? A. B, and C are logical expres- sions and S1 and S2 are simple statements. IF A THEN IF B THEN IF C THEN Si ELSE S2 wl (B) 2 (C3 @) 4 288 FE Practice Exam 22. 23. 24 ‘The Towers of Hanoi puzzle initially consists of two empty pegs and a third peg having N increasing size disks with the smallest on top. The object is to move all the disks from one peg to a specified other without placing a larger disk on top of a smaller disk. The third peg tnay be used as needed as long as the smaller on top of the larger condition is not violated. recursive solution to this problem of moving disks from peg A to B. with C as the extra, is: Move(W.A.B.C) = Move(iV ~ 1A.C.By; Single(A, B); Move(N’ = 1.C.B.A) ‘The number of steps required to solve this puzzle is given by the difference equation: Steps(V) = 2* Steps(N=1) +1 Steps(1) = 1 What closed form expression best describes the number of steps of disk movement? (A) 2-1 (B) N+N-1 (©) 2-1 (D) log N+1 The production of end term grades is essentially a sorting problem. Each instructor enters the ‘course grade into a class file containing a student name and identification number. The files are combined into a single large file and sorted by student number, printed, separated, and mailed, A certain university has 50,000 students each taking 5 courses for @ total of 250,000 (approximately 2") grades. The sorting computer is 500 million clocks per second and re- ‘quires on the average, 5 clocks per instruction, Two sorting.algorithms are proposed, with the following instruction count complexity requirements: K=20N classical sort K~ 100 NIg(N) tree sort where Ig(X) is the base 2 logarithm of X What would be the sorting time for each of these algorithms? (A) Thr=classical, 39s ~tree. (B) 15 min ~ classical. 4.5 s ~ tee. (C) 3.5 hr-classical, 4.5 s — tree. (D) 51Ss~classical. 625 ~ tree, Given the following spreadsheet parameters: R= 380 000 km = Earth-Moon distance: Value in Gell Al r= 1750 km = Moon radius: Value in cell BE 73 x10" mis Velocity of light: Value in CL When the moon is used as a reflector for long distance radio communication, the surface roughness limits the maximum bitrate 10 B = c/2r bits/s = 86 bits/s, At this rate, there are N= Rir bits = 217 bits in transit, These values are to be verified with a spreadsheet evalua- tion. Given the initial entries specified above, what solution will NOT correctly evaluate the biterate and bits in transit? (A) =C1*0.5/B1 evaluates B ee evaluates = AM/B1 evaluates =2*Al(BI*CI) evaluates B (C)= CS1A2*B1) evaluat (D) = AVBSI evaluates = PHSATAATIO*ATSRIY evaluat = CI*C1(BI*C1*2) evaluates B (A) «© ~ Ifthe interest rate is 6%, then the present value of ten yea FE Practice Exam 289 It is desired (o produce an “action packed” screen saver program for a computer that has a 100 million instructions per second CPU. The screen is to be a standard V.G.A. with (640%480 pixels at 60 times per second refresh rate, On the average, how many insteuctions can be used to determine each pixel? (A) 5.4 instruction/pixel (B) 54 instruction/pixet (C) 678 instruction/pixel (D) 2100 instruetion/pixe! We wish to compare the speed of two algorithms for searching an ordered list of NV items. Method A has time requirement proportional to N, Method B has a time requirement equal to 6* In, What is the best spreadsheet program and explanation to verify that both methods require the same execution time if N= 17? Celt | Entry Cell | Entry Al 10 Al 10 2 [=drt a2__[=Ala ‘A3:Al2 | copy A2 ®) Za:At2 | copy Ad BL =6* In(Al) BL =6*In(Al) BR B12 | copy Bi B2:BI2 | copy Bi Nis the B column value where the A col- Wis the A column value where the A and umn value is the closest to 0, B column values are close to being equal. Celt Entry Celt Entry Al 10 Al 10, A2 = Ale A2 =Al+1 ‘3: Al2 | copy A2 ©) Aaraiz [copy Ad Hi ~exp(6* Aly Bi = exp(6” Al) B2: B12 | copy Bl BE: BI2 | copy BL Vis the A column value where the A and Nis the B column value where the A col- B column values are close to being equal, umn value is closest to 0. ‘end payments of $1200 each is ‘most nearly (A) $8800 (B) $10,600 (C) $12,000 (D) $15,800 290 FE Practice Exam 28. $1000 is invested in an account that accrues 4% interest. How many years will it take for the ‘account balance to reach $1600? a) 12 (B) 15 (©) 27 (D) 29 29. If the nominal annual interest rate is 6%. and compounding is monthly. then the effective annual interest rate is nearest (A) 5.84% (B) 6.17% (C) 7.0% () 30.7% 30. The principal amount of a bond is $1000; it matures thirty years from now and pays 5% no- ‘minal annual interest. If the current market yield for similar bonds is 4%, then the market price of the bond is nearest: (A) $2500 (B) $1860 (©) $1750 (D) S117 31. In August, 2000, an account that pays 6% interest was opened with a deposit of $12,000. ‘There was and will be no withdrawals or additional deposits until August, 2010, when the first of four equal annual withdrawals are made. In order for the account to be completely emptied, the amount of each of those withdrawals is nearest (A) $3000 (B) $4800 (©) $5900 () $6200 32, An enterprise would cost $23,000 initially, would last for five years, and would produce a net income of $12,000 the first year, $10,000 the second, $8,000 the third, and continue to de- est cline at that rate. If the disgount rate is 12%, then the present value of the enterprise is near~ (A) $7300 (B) $17,000 (C) 833.000 (D) $53.500 33. A loan of $400 was settled five years later for a single payment of $650. The annual interest rate was nearest: (A) 6% (B) 7.5% (C) 10.2% (D) 12.5% 34, What inflation-adjusted interest rate should be used to compute the present value of a series 4% annually? (A) 1.9% of equal annual payments, if the unadjusted interest rate is 6% and inflation is expected 10 be (B) 2% (C) 10% (D) 10% 35, How large an investment must be made to generate a perpetual income of $4000 per month, if the interest rate is 4% per year compounded monthly? (A) 1.180.000 (B) $1,200,000 (C) $1,400.00 (D) St. 0,000 FE Practice Exam ai 36. A capital asset has ai I cost of $83,000, a useful life of seven years and a salvage value of $13.000. The annual straight line depreciation is nearest: (A) S9000 (B) $10,000 (C) S11.900 (D) $13,700 37. A manometer that utilizes a pitot probe measures a pressure of 200 kPa in a pipe transporting, water. Ifthe flow rate Q is desired, what additional information is needed? 1. The temperature of the water (A) [elle and tv I. The statie pressure in the pipe (B) Landi IIL, The diameter of the pipe (C) Mand i IV The density of the water (D) HAL. and tV . Estimate the maximum height that water will rise in a clean glass 0.2-mm-diameter vertical tube. Use o,,,, = 0.07 Nim, (A) 143 mm (B) 286 mm (©) S71 mm (D) 857 mm 39. A rectangular barge is 12 m long. A load having a.m ing it to sink 10 mm, How wide is the barge? (A) 75m (B) 9.2m (C) 104m (D) 1.6m ss of 900 kg is added to the barge caus- 40. The rectangular gate is 3-m wide (ito the paper). The force P needed 10 hold the gate in the po- sition shown is nearest: (A) HTN (B)98 KN (C) 32.7 kN (D) 24.5 kN 41, Select the best reason that accounts for longer flight distance of @ dimpled golf ball compared to that of a smooth golf ball. (A) The shearing stress is smaller on the dimpled ball. (B) The dimpled ball has an effective smaller diameter. (C) The pressure on the front of the dimpled ball is smaller. (D) The separated region on the dimpled ball is smaller. 292 FE Practice Exam 42, A25 10 | seale model of a dum is to be studied prior 10 construction on a river that transports 40 m’/s. What flow rate should the model require? (A) 0.013 ms (B) 0.064 ms. (C) 1.6 mvs (D) ms. 43. A 2amedeep, 10-m-wide river flows with an average velocity of 0.1 m/s. The flow can be classified as (the water's viscosity is 10? N-s/m* or Pa-s): (A) an inviscid flow, (B) a turbulent flow. (C) a laminar Now, (D) a boundary layer flow 44, Air flows through an 8-cm-diameter pipe with an average velocity of 10 m/s, The temperature and pressure are measured to be 20°C and 200 kPa gage, respectively. Estimate the mass. flow rate if Painoshee = 100 kPa and R,, = 0.287 ki/kg-K. (A) 0.24 kgis (B) 0.18 kg/s (©) 0.12 kgs (D) 0.08 kgis 45. The power requirement of an 85%-efficient pump that transports water at 0,04 ms, if it ine creases the pressure by ! MPa, is nearest: (A) 48 kW (B) 14.2 kW (© 34.0kW () 47.1 RW \ 46. The curves for the friction factor in the Moody Diagram become horizontal for sufficiently large Reynolds numbers because (A) Wall roughness elements project through the wall viscous layer, (B) The wall viscous layer completely cavers the roughness elements, (©) Viscous effects dominate the flow. (D) Inertial effects cease to be significant in the flow, 41. Vapor refrigerant enters and liquid retrigerant leaves the coil ‘These coils are the: on the back of a refrigerator. (A) Evaporator (B) Intercooler (©) Reheater (D) Condenser 48. Steam at high temperature and pressure passes through property that remains constant (a) a half-open globe vaive. Select the (B) Temperature (C) Pressure (D) Entropy FE Practice Exam 293 49. Select the primary reason why the Otto cycle is less efficient than a Camot cycle, operating between the same temperature extremes. (A) The temperature after compression is too high. (B) Heat transfer occurs across a large temperature differential (C) Friction exists between the cylinder walls and the piston. (D) The expansion process is eccompanied by losses. ‘Two kilograms of air are contained in a vertical cylinder by a frictionless piston. If 80 kI of heat are added to the air, the temperature rise will be nearest: (a) 56°C (B) 40°C (C) 33°C (D) 28°C 51. A piston compresses air in an insulated cylinder from 100 cm* to 4 cm’. If the original pres- sure and temperature are 100 kPa absolute and 40°C, the final temperature is nearest: fA) 130°C (B) 1000°C (C) 860°C (D) 520°C . 100 people attend a meeting in a 10 mx 20 mx3 m room when the air conditioning system fails, Estimate the temperature increase if the system remains off for 15 minutes. Each per- son emits 400 kWvhr of heat and the lights and other equipment add 3000 W of energy. (Use ye = 8.314129 = 0.287 kik K). (ay 8° (B) 8°C (©) 10°C () 18°C 53. Ten kgis of air pass through a turbine with inlet conditions of 140°C and 1 MPa and an outlet pressure of 200 kPa, The maximum power output is nearest: (a) 1522 kW. (B) 1233 kW (©) 964 kW (D) 457 kW 54, Water passes through four primary components as it traverses a cycle in a power plant: a boi~ Jer, a turbine, a condenser, and a pump. Estimate the heat rejected in the condenser if Querge = 60 MIS, Wyine = 20% 10° N-mnis, and W,.,, =100 hp. (A) 174 Mus (B) 115 Mis (©) 52 Mil (D) 40 Mis 55. A Camot engine operates between reservoirs maintained at 10°C and 200°C, If it accepts 50 kJ of heat, the rejected heat is nearest: 29.915 (B) 20.1 ky (©) 12.1 (D) 84 ks ¢ FE Practice Exam 56, A 2.5-cm-thick substance has a thermal resistance of 2.0 hr-m* -°C/kJ. Estimate the heat twansferred in 15 min. through a 3 m by $m wall ifthe inside and outside temperatures are =10°C and 25°C. (A) 90.7 kd (B) 108k (C) 420 KI (D) 860s 201 +90k in the direction of F, 37. The component of F, 01 +10j- 20K is: (A) 140.N (B) 80 N (C)20N (D) ~40N 58. A moment and a force at 4 hold the square in equilibrium. The moment is: T «00° 400N (A)739Nm —— (B) 668 Nm 80m (C)S62Nm. — (D)494Nm 59. [fall angles are equal, the force in member AB is nearest: (A) 100N (BY) ISON (€)200N (DB) 250N 60. The force in member BD is nearest: (A) 670N (B) 608.N (O52N — (D)SI9N 61. The force P needed to just lit the weight is nearest: (A) 1390N (BY 3480.N (©4080 (D) 4870 N FE Practice Exam 295 62. An isosceles triangle with base 10 em and height 6 em sits atop a 10-em by 9-cm rectangle so that the two equal sides are shared. The moment of inertia about the base of the rectangle is, nearest: (A) 7290 em* (B) 6120 cm* (C) 5340 em* (D) 4230 cm* An object has an -celeration of a =18~ m/s" along a siraight line. If it starts from rest how far dogs it travel in 2 seconds? (40m (B) 30m (C)20m (D) 10m aus 64. A golf ball is hit from a high hill in a horizontal direction with a velocity of 40 m/s. How far does it travel horizontally, if the hill is 50 m above the point of impact? (A) 60m (B) 70m. (C) 80m (D) 90m 63, A moment of 10 N-m acts on a frictionless, 8-kg, 10-cm-diameter shaft. If it starts from rest. ils angular velocity after two seconds is nearest: (A) 2000 rads (B) 1500 rad/s (C) 1000 raws (D) $00 rads 66. A 10-ke body travelling at 30 m’ strikes an unstretched spring with spring constant 9000 Xm. The spring's maximum compression is nearest (A) 100 em (B) 80 cm (©) 60m (D) 30cm 67. The system is released from rest. If the mass of each pulley is negligible, the velocity of the 40-kg mass after 2 seconds is nearest Continuous rope (A412 m’s—(B) 6.54 mvs (C)8.01 ms (D)9.23 mvs 80 kg Fricjonless Pulleys a0 kg 68. A 120-cm-diameter tire is rolling with an angular velocity of 600 rpm. The acceleration of the point of contact with the pavement is nearest: (A) 970 nvs* (B) 1620 mis* (C) 2370 mis? (D) 3680 mis? 74, The maximum tensile stress in the FE Practice Exam 69. Hooke's law (a stress-strain relation for a solid) assumes: 1. Anisotropic solid (A) 1,1, and IV IL. A homogeneous solid (B) Hand tt TIL. A linear solid (©) Land Ur IV. That Eis constant (D) U1, and IV 70. A steel bar is snugely positioned between two immovable wallsMIf the temperature of the bar is raised 60°C, the induced stress is nearest: (A) 90 MPa (B) 140 MPa (©) 180 MPa (D) 240 MPa 71, The stress at a point is given as o, = 24 MPa, c, =12 MPa, and r,, =8 MPa. All other stress components are zero. The maximum normal stress is nearest: (A) 28 MPa. (B) 24 MPa (©) 18 MPa. (D) 10 MPa 72. The maximum shear stress for the stress state of Question 71 is nearest: (A) 28 MPa (B) 24 MPa (©) 18 MPa (D) 10 MPa 73. The maximum shear stress on this shaft is nearest: N (A) 1200 kPa (B) 1790 kPa (C)1970 kPa (D) 795 kPa beam is nearest: (A) 200 MPa (B) 150 MPa (C) 100 MPa (D) 88 MPa 79, 30, 81 FE Practice Exam 297 The maximum transverse (vertical) shear stress in the beam of Question 74 is nearest (A) 662 kPa (B) 1.13 MPa (©) 2.25 MPa (D) 4.5 MPa ‘The angle of twist of the aluminum shaft of Question 74 is nearest: (aya (B)3.8° (26° () 1.86 ‘The maximum normal stress in the aluminum shaft of Question 74’is nearest: (A) 60.2 MPa (B) 52.5 MPa (C) 26.2 MPa (D) 21.5 MPa \ 3em-long steel pipe is pinned at both ends. Its inside diameter is 9.2 cm and its outside di- ameter is 10 em, The maximum axial force it can resist without buckling is nearest: (A) 4560 N (B) 127 kN (C) 229 kN (D) 305 kN. Two positive charges, each of value Q=4ze, columbs, are placed atx = +2 mand y= 0. ‘The electric field Eat x= 0 and y= 2is: 2a, +a,) v2a, via, ws eS oa o> ‘An ideal transformer cannot increase which secondary quantity’? (A) Voltage (B) Current (©) Resistance (D) Power A free space capacitor with plate area 0.113 m* and |-cm separation has a stored energy of ‘Simi, The electric field between the capacitor plates is nearest (A) 10° Vim, (B) 10° Vim (C) 10° Vin (D) 10° Vim. A wire along the z-axis camying a current of 10 amps has a magnetic field strength at r= 10 cm of, (A) 50/7 Alm (B) 200 tesla (C) 210% Alm (D) 100 tesla 298 FE Practice Exam 83. The ground fault circuit interrupter (GFC1) is intended to: (A) Trigger if the ground connection becomes energized. (B) Trigger if the nutrat wire suddenly increases in amperage, (C) Trigger if the ground becomes disconnected. (D) Trigger if the current in one wire is greater than the current in the other 84, For the circuit shown, determine the power dissipated by the 1-kO resister. soa ike . soa a ‘ov so 1 ston 200.0 509 a) 8. 10 W (B) 4000 W joasnw Dow 85. A linear system with open circuit voltage of 30 V has its terminal voltage drop to 25 V when 11 $0-02 resistor is placed across the terminals. The power dissipated in the internal resistance is nearest: (A) 18 (B) 15 W \ (Q25W Dosw 86, Determine the Norton equiva- lent for the bridge shown. Wheaistone 7 100 VC 87. A battery of 20 V is applied 10 an inductor of 0.5 H in series with a resistor of 10 k®. The energy stored in the inductor after | s is nearest: (Ad (By 5x10" 5 (©) 10% J (D) 5x10 J FE Practice Exam 88, For the circuit shown, determine the power dissipated in the resistor. —~w— 1H ower 400 cotton 98 vox lek sw “oaw (D)2W 89. A steady-state sinusoidal system at @ = 1000 rad/s is modeled by a complex Thevenin equiv alent with V_ =20~20j and Z, = 40+ 50}. A resistive load R, =10 9 is placed across the terminals resulting in a voltage given by: (A) 4sin 10008 (B) 0.4c0s(10001 — 45°) (C) 4cos( 0008 + 45°) (D) cos 10008 90. The current source in the circuit shown is turned fon at (= 0, The voltage across the capacitor for 120 is: waa vd (A) 15x108V wre (B) 15x10'e™ V (C) 15x10°( eV (D) 15x10"(1-e""™) V 91. For zine diffusing in copper, the value of D; temperature will the diffusivity for zine diffu is 34x10 mis and Q ing in copper attain a value of 10 (A) 865°C (B) 743°C (©) 679°C (D) 592°C 191 ki/mol. At what ome? 92, In terms of the mechanical behavior of polymers. what is the significance of the glass transi- tion tempersiure, T.? (A) At temperatures 7° > Ty. the eros (B) At temperatures 7'> 7,. both the mechanical strength and the clastic modulus of the polymer drop rapidly. (C) At temperatures 7'< T,, both the mechanical strength and the elastic modulus of the polymer drop rapidly. (D) A maximum in the tensile strength occurs at temperature T= Ty linking process ends, 1) FE Practice Exam 93. For a cteep process at constant temperature, a plot of Iné versus Incr yields a straight line. ‘What is the slope of the line, and what does the slope represent? (A) The stress sensitivity ». As 1 increases, the sensitivity of the creep rate to the applied stress increases rapidly. (B) The activation energy for creep, which is related to the temperature dependence of thermally activated atomic motion during creep. (C) The pre-exponential constant A, which can be a function of grain size. (D) The total plastic strain accumulated during the creep process. 94, A magnesium oxide bar, tested in bend fractures, failed at an applied stress of 76 MPa. The critical flaw length in the specimen is 55 microns, What is the fracture toughness, in MPa-m™, of the magnesium oxide? (Assume y = 1.1.) (A) 16 (Bi (42 (D) 14x10" 95. Which of the following describes the nature of the crystalline and glassy states as those con- cepts apply to polymers and ceramics? (A) Glasses have a particular ehemival composition that makedthe material glassy. Ifa mate~ rial is a glass, then a different processing technique cannot conver it into a crystal. (B) Some ceramics and polymers can exist as either crystalline or glassy materials. (©) All glassy materials contain silica or silicates (silica compounds), so only ceramic sili- cates can be glassy. (D) All ceramics are glassy. For polymers, only asphalt can exist as a glass. XN 96, What is the engineering significance of the [ron-Iron Carbide phase diagram? (A) None; the Iron-lron Carbide phase diagram is only of historical significance. (B) Compositions of both plain earbon stecls and some cast iron compositions are repre: sented in the diagram. (C) The tron-Iron Carbide phase diagram depicts a number of stainless steel composi- tions (D) The Iron-fron Carbide phase diagram is the basis of the family of alloys called “In« var” 97. A steel bar has a yield strength of 1175 MPa, a fatigue strength (endurance limit) of 520 MPa, and an ultimate strength of 1420 MPa, It is subjected to a cyclic loading with a mi ‘mum stress of -580 MPa and a maximum stress of 225 MPa, According to the modified Goodman theory: (A) The specimen fails via fatigue. (B) The specimen does not fail v fotigue, (C) The Goodman theory does not apply. (D) The specimen yields rather than failing via fatigue, FE Practice Exam 98. A minimum compressive strength of at least 4500 psi, after 180 days of curing (aging) time, is specified for the concrete used in a bridge project. It is further specified that a water- cement ratio of 0.5, a slump of 3.5 inch, and an air entrainment of 4% be used. To provide a ccuring protocol that will produce the required compression strength, the concrete should first be moist-cured and then cured: (A) Inair after 3 days. (B) Inair after 7 days. (C) Inair after 14 days. (D) A compressive strength of at least 4500 psi cannot be attained. 99. The mean of data is: (A) The first moment of the data (B) The first central moment of the data (C) The second moment of the data (D) The second central moment of the data 100, The coctivient of variation of the 3,4, 5. 6. 10 is nearest: (A) 48% (B) 25% (1% (D) 56% 101. How many subsets (unordered arrangements) can be constructed from 10 objects taken two ata time? (A) 100 (B) 45 (0) 90 (D) 81 102. A device has three components Cl, C2, C3 and the device works as long as at leust one of the components is functiosial, The probabilities of the components being functional are 0.2, 0.8, and 0.7, respectively. Assume independence. What is the probability that the device will work when needed? (4) 0.667 (B) 0.843 (0.892 (D) 0.994 103, Five True-False questions are given to a student. Suppose that the student selects each of the answers by a toss of a coin: Heads = True, Tails = False. What is the probability that the student gets at least one correct answer? (aye \ (B) 78 (C) 31/32 (D) 18/32 104. Let X have the probability density tunetion: epee g(x)" xsl 0 othenvise Find the probability that X will be between 0 and 0.5, (aos (B) 0.125 (©) 0.25 (D) 0.75 301 302 FE Practice Exam 105. Find the probability that a standard normal random variable will have a value greater than 3.02 (A) 0.0443 (B) 0.0987 (©) 0.0064 (D) 0.0013 106. Find the 0.90-quantile of the standard normal distribution (A) 1.64 (B) 1.96 (©) 1.28 (D) 2.32 107. Each solution below has the same volume, Which solution has the lowest pH? Hae H0"= => <_ —_> | oy I (A) © (D) 108. The correct order for the Nomie radius of elements S, F, and O, from smallest to largest is: (A) Fso SiO; = bHCI (A) 2,1) (B) (1,2) (2,2) (D) (2.4) 110. A 1.0 mole sample of Hy gas at STP occupies what volume? IL (B) 2.4L (O)448L (0) 67.2L 111, Which element js tikely to have the lowest ionization energy and the highest melting tem- perature? fA) AL (B) S (Cs (D) Mg FE Practice Exam 303 112. Which is the strongest oxidizing agent? WA (B) Br, (Li ()K 113, Ina I-L sealed vessel. | mole of H;0(g) is decomposed into Hs(y) and Ox(g). At equilib- rium 0.5 mot of Ha(.) are present. Which statement is fals (A) The O.(g) is present at a concentration of 0.25 M at equilibrium. (B) The mole fraction of O.(g) at equilibrium is 0.2. (C) The equilibrium concentration of H,O(g)is 0.5 M. (D) If the reaction is run again under the identical conditions but with a catalyst the equilibrium concentration of be greater than 0.5 M 14, Which statement is false concerning the equili 2AW) ~ BXg) = heat <> 2AB,) Ka 15x10" (A) The correct expression for the Key = (I/(AF[B:]) (B) The equilibrium strongly favors production of AB: (C) The correct expression for the Ke; of the reverse reaction is Kay = (A}'[Bz] (D) Increasing the reaction temperature shifis the equilibrium to the left 115. OF the following, which do the VCEES Model Rules of Professional Conduct prohibit a lie censed engineer from doing? (A) Accepting compensation from three parties for services on a single project, when the cit cumstances are disclosed and agreed to by at least two of them. (B) Acting to secure public welfare when it comes into conflict with the well being of an employer. (C) including all relevant information in professional reports, (D) Preventing the use of their name by a business known to conduct fraudulent business practices. 116. The MCEES Model Rules of Professional Conduct allow a registered engineer to make a po- litical contribution under which of the following conditions? (A) As part of an effort to win the award of a public contract, (B) Only if the contribution is intended to prevent a public contract award from going to a ‘competing engineering firm. (C) Only ifa politician asks the engineer directly for a specific amount of money. {D) If the contribution is not intended to influence the award of a public contract 304 FE Practice Exam 117, As the next to last step in a series of assignments for Company Z, Stacey, a consulting elec- trical engineer, completed and submitted to her client the draft of a report on the predicted electromagnetic emissions of the company’s next-generation flat sereen display. Company 2's chief engineer read the draft and responded by informing Stacey that her report should be rewritten to indicate a significantly lower rate of emissions, thereby allowing the display design to incorporate less expensive shielding. Stacey is troubled by this exchange. She be- Jieves she has four possible alternatives, Which of them do the NCEES Model Rules of Pro- fessional Conduct not allow? (A) Inform Company 2's president in writing of the chief engineer's request and provide the president with a copy of her draft report (B)_ Return to her analysis and recalculate the emissions figure to determine if her caleu- lation was somehow flawed. If she calculates a lower emission rate closer to that de- sired by the chief engineer, include it in her final report. (C) Make the suggested changes in the final report (D) Submit unchanged the draft report as her final report. 118. Langdon, a consulting electrical engineer, is hired by PixDream, @ major motion picture company, to design and oversee the construction of the power distribution system at the company’s new film studio. Once the system is in place, PixDream asks Langdon to accept nine-month contract extension, and to monitor the power system during the filming of Monster Mounrain. He accepts the contract extension. Three weeks into the shoot, with the power system operating well within acceptable parameters, Langdon is asked by PixDream. to give his opinion on a pyrotechnic specialist's plan for detonating a series of explosive charges, The charges are triggered electrically, but their chemistry does not fall within Langdon’s expertise, PikDream is confident Langdon can become familiar enough with the charges to give them a professional and competent opinion, Langdon wants to continue working for PixDream, but is uncomfortable with the idea of giving his professional opin- ion on matters beyond his area of expertise. Of the following, which is Langdon's best op- tion? {A) Since he enjoys the work, Langdon ean lean about a charge’s chemistry and give PixDream his opinion on the pyrotechnic specialist's plan. (B) Langdon can trust that the pyrotechnics specialist is knowledgeable and trustworthy. and give PixDream a favorable assessment of the play. (C) Langdon should contact some of the specialist’s previous clients and base his analy- sis on their degree of satistaction or dissatisfaction with the specialist's work. (D) Langdon should decline to accept the contract extension on grounds that explosives chemistry is beyond both his engineering education and subsequent work experi ence, FE Practice Exam 303 119. Karl, an experienced mechanical engineer, is asked by his supervisor to review an advertis- ing package to be mailed to prospective clients. The package contains material on the firm's past accomplishments, alist of large clients it has served, and the detailed resumes of ‘many of the firm’s senior engineers. including Karl. As he scans his own resume, Karl real- izes that two of the three schools from which he received engineering degrees are incor- rectly listed. After reviewing the resumes of several other engineers with whose academic careers he is familiar, Karl realizes that their resumes also include incorrect alma mater in- formation, When Katl mentions these mistakes to his supervisor, the supervisor tells him that this type of advertising package has for a long time included altered resume informa: tion. especially alma maters, in order to attract new clients, The supervisor assures Karl that the practice is not only a firm tradition, but also effective. A troubled Kael returns to his of fice to examine his options. Of the following, which should he nat choose? (A) Accept the effective tradition and complete his review without noting the false in- formation. (B) Write to his firm's executive officer and exp! Karl's duties as a licensee. jin how the advertisement violates (C) Write to the firm's ombudsman and request that measures be taken to retract and correct the false information. (©) Karl should explain to the supervisor that he cannot complete the assignment 120. When Andrew, an electrical engineer, discovers evidence that leads him to strongly believe his supervising engineer is attempting to injure the reputation of a competing firm, what should Andrew do? (A) Andrew should focus on doing his own work, not on criticizing others. (B) Andrew should inform the NCEES Licensing Board of his evidence and assist it in determining the truth of the matter. (©) Andrew should resign from his job. (D) Andrew should speak to the managing engineer in order o determine the rationale for his actions. 306 FE Practice Exam Afternoon Session (There is no penalty for a wrong answer, So answer every question) | Math Thermo Mechanics | £ @8@O \s @BO@ 1 DOOO- gage | gases | 2 ogee 3 7 36 4 S3e9 8 9G@o 7, 9809 s 800 19, @BOO 38 OOO & @809 20, BBOS 9, 2808 1 BOO 21 @BOO s @660 2 BBOO 3, OBO | Economics Fluids | —_iBiiolo: Materials | 9, @BO9 4 BOOQ_ BOO 36, DBOO 0. POO 3 O@@0Q | 1.8800 57, BBOO 80d =338g | TOPS | 88888 iz ” i 58, 15, BOOO 23 @GOO | 60. D@OO 4 @OOO +B Boo | ugaeg | Bistey 2 2 33 @@OO 43, BOO | 43. @80O | 46, @BOO 17 BBOO | 8 @BOO | #8800 | 1 50, C@@O©O | i

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