Biopharm PDF

BIOPHARMACEUTICS
1.
In LADMER system, L stands for liberation as the first step which determines the following aspects, except:
a. onset of action
c. rate of absorption
b. type of preparation
d. bioavailability
2.
The ultimate evaluation of dosage forms or delivery system is in:

a. disintegration time
c. clinical effectiveness
b. thickness
d. taste
3.
Factor that contributes to patients difference in drug concentration in the body, except:
a. body weight
c. age
b. obesity
d. climate
4.
A rate limiting factor in the dissolution of drugs is:

a. disintegration of the tablet
b. thickness
c. content uniformity
d. local effect
The effect of reduced particle size of a drug is:

a. increased absorption
b. increased disintegration
c. increased hardness
d. all of them
5.
6.
A cause of patient to patient variability of time course of the drug in the plasma is:
a. disease
c. genetic in origin
b. concomitant drug therapy
d. all of the above
7.
Dissolution rate tests can be used to predict bioavailability if:

a. dissolved drug remains free in the GIT
b. dissolved drug is decomposed in the GIT
c. drug is hydrolyzed in the GIT
d. all of them
8.
Elimination half-life of a drug is the time in hours needed to reduce drug concentration to:
a. half of the parent drug
c. all or taken dose
b. one fourth of the initial dose
d. a & b
9.
Tmax means:
a. time of great solubility of the drug
b. peak height concentration
c. time of peak concentration

d. AUC values
10. To generally increase the solubility of a poorly soluble drug in an aqueous medium, the process is:
a. complexation
c. prepare into a derivative
b. adsorption
d. a & c
11. The ionization constant of a drug is important in bioavailability since it determines the following, except:
a. its aqueous solubility
c. pH of the medium
b. dissolution rate
d. extent of protein binding
12. The difference in bioavailability of a drug product of the same therapeutic agent is due to:
a. difference in formulation ingredients
c. difference in methods of manufacture
b. difference in packaging
d. a & c
13. Which of the crystal forms give the best dissolution rate?
a. meta-stable polymorph
c. stable polymorph
b. amorphous
d. a and b
14. The termination of action of a drug is determined by:

a. excretion of intact active molecule
b. excretion of active molecule
c. tissue redistribution
d. a & c
15. Pharmaceutical equivalents are drug products that contain:

a. identical amounts of active drugs
b. identical amounts of inactive ingredients
c. identical amounts of excipients
d. all of the above
16. The purpose of biotransformation reaction is:

a. deactivate the drug
b. preserve the drug from destruction
c. promote elimination of inactive drug

d. a & c
17. The advantage of sublingual/buccal administration is:
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a. no occurrence of gastrointestinal degradation

b. drug directly in the circulation
c. not pass to the liver
d. a & c
B
18. The integral of the drug level over time from zero to infinity is:
a. biologic half-life
c. bioavailability
b. area under the curve
d. biopharmaceutics
19. The rate and extent at which the drug appears in the bloodstream is known as:
a. biopharmaceutics
c. bioavailability
d. biologic half-life
20. An inactive or much less active substance which is transformed to active drug in the body is:
a. dosage form
c. asp
b. drug product
d. prodrug
21. A site in the biophase to which drug molecules can be found is:
a. fluid compartment
c. receptor
b. unit membrane
d. none of the above
22. A branch of science which deals with physical and chemical properties of drug substance, the dosage form, and
the biological effectiveness of a drug product upon administration is:
a. pharmacology
c. biopharmaceutics
b. pharmacokinetics
d. pharmacy
23. The dose size required maintaining effectiveness or therapeutic concentration according to dosage regimen is:
a. priming dose
c. loading dose
b. maintenance dose
d. any of the above
24. The ability of the substance to exist in different crystalline forms is:
a. amphoterism
c. polymorphism
b. sating in
d. precipitation
25. Differences in bioavailability are most frequently observed with drugs are administered by which of the ff.
routes?
a. subcutaneous
c. oral
b. intravenous
d. sublingual
26. A drug can exert its pharmacologic effect only when it is:
a. protein bound
c. free drug
b. protein unbound
d. b & c
27. Which of the following factors delays transit time?

a. increasing viscosity
c. water
b. liquid diet
d. b & c
28. The principal site of drug metabolism is:

a. kidney
b. muscle tissue
c. gut wall
d. liver
29. The mechanism for drug excretion via the kidney is:
a. facilitated diffusion
c. pinocystosis
b. glomerular filtration
d. ion transport
30. The major plasma protein involved in the distribution of weak acids is:
a. albumin
c. glycine
b. glycoprotein
d. gelatin
31. For faster absorption, what type of diluent or filler is needed if the drug is hydrophobic?
a. hydrophilic
c. amphilic
b. water repellant
d. b & c
32. The route of administration which will be by-pass the GIT degradation and hepatic metabolism is:
a. intravenous injection
c. buccal
b. sublingual
d. b & c
33. A branch of science which deals with the changes of drug concentration and its metabolites in the human or
animal body after administration is:
a. bioavailability
c. biopharmaceutics
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b. pharmacokinetics
d. a & b
34. The first step which determines the onset of action, rate of absorption, availability is:
a. liberation
c. excretion
b. distribution
d. absorption
35. Liberation is a process controlled by:

a. age of the patient
b. characteristic of the drug
c. both a & b
36. Which is the following factors affect the dissolution in the lipid membrane of the lipid soluble unionized fluid
compartment:
a. pH
c. lipid/water partition coefficient
b. pKa
d. all of the above
37. Those multiple source drug products that contains identical amount o the identical active ingredients in identical
dose forms are called:
a. chemical equivalents
d. pharmaceutical alternates
b. biological equivalents
e. therapeutic alternates
c. therapeutic equivalents
38. When considering drug transport, a passive transport process implies that:
a. all of the drug will pass from one compartment to another
b. the process requires energy
c. The net transfer of drug is from an area of high concentration to an area low concentration
d. the net transfer of drug is from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration
39. The prerequisites of the binding of a drug to a receptor are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. chemical reactivity
c. absence of functional group
b. electronic distribution
d. none if the above
40. The following compounds are absorbed via convective transport EXCEPT:
a. ions of opposite charge of pore lining
b. ionized sulfonamides
c. weak organic acids
41. The following mechanism of absorption required the presence of drug in aqueous solution, EXCEPT:
a. passive diffusion
c. facilitated transport
b. convective transport
d. pinocyctosis
42. Reabsorption of the drugs and its metabolite occurs in the

a. kidney
c. both a & b
b. intestines
43. A type of transport whereby drug molecules dissolved in aqueous medium at the absorption site moves along
with the solvent through the pore:
a. active transport
c. convective transpor
b. ion-pair transport
d. facilitated transport
44. When a substance is half-ionized and half-nonionized at a certain pH, its pKa is:
a. greater than pH
c. equal to pH
b. less than the pH
d. negligible as compared to pH
45. The Noyes-Whitney equation determines:

a. particle size measurement
b. actual drug solubility
c. dissolution constant
d. dissolution rate
46. Studies of bioavailability are generally not required when:

a. drug is intended solely for IV use
b. the drug is for local therapeutic use
c. the drug is an oral product not required to be absorbed
d. all of the above
47. Gastric emptying is slowed down by the following except:

a. a vigorous exercise
c. hot meals
b. fatty foods
d. hunger
48. The ratio of the concentration of a drug in two immiscible phases is known as the:
a. concentration ratio
c. partial miscibility
b. miscibility ratio
d. lipid/water partition co-efficient
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49. The metabolism of drugs generally results in:

a. less acidic cpds.
b. more acidic cpds
c. more polar cpds
d. cpds. Having a higher oil/water partition coefficient
50. Drugs that poorly lipid soluble or extensively ionized at the pH of the blood generally
a. penetrate the CNS very slowly and may essentially be eliminated from the body before a significant
concentration in the CNS is reached
b. achieve adequate CNS concentration only if given IV
c. must be metabolized to a more polar form before they can gain
d. access to the CNS
51. Which of the following events modify drug absorption?

a. physiological constituent of digestion
b. drug interaction
c. certain disease state
d. all of the above
52. The following statements are true EXCEPT:

a. amorphous form is more soluble that of the crystalline form
b. the amorphous from has a higher dissolution rate than the crystalline form
c. the crystalline form requires a higher amount of energy to free a molecule of the drug from it than does
the amorphous form
d. the amorphous form requires a higher amount of energy to free a drug molecule from it than does the
crystalline form
53. The displacement of drug from protein binding site causes:

a. decrease in the intensity of pharmacological response
b. decrease in the intensity of side effects
c. toxicity
d. all of the above
54. These are addition compounds of drug and organic solvents:

a. hydrates
c. polymorphous
b. solvates
55. The Vd of drug is related to:

a. the amount f drug in the body
b. the volume of the liver
c. the volume of the heart
56. The major pathway of excretion

a. via the liver
b. via the kidney
d. the volume of the small intestine

e. the volume of the large intestine
c. via the circulation system

d. via the large intestines
57. Which of the following propertied of surfactants tend to increase the rate of dissolution?
a. surface tension lowering effect
b. increased surface tension
c. absence of peptizing action
d. all of the above
58. The rate of diffusion of drug across biological membranes is most commonly:
a. independent on the concentration gradient
b. directly proportional to the concentration gradient
c. dependent on the availability of carrier substrate
d. dependent on the route of administration
59. In general, various oral dosage forms can be ranked in which of the following expected order of availability
(fastest to slowest)
a. aqueous capsule, tablet, powder, coated tablet, suspension
b. capsule, tablet, coated tablet, powder, suspension, aqueous, solution
c. aqueous solution, suspension, powder, capsule, tablet, coated tablet
d. suspension, aqueous solution, powder, capsule, coated tablet, tablet
60. The rectal route of administration may be preferred over the oral route for some drug because:
a. the drug does not have to be absorbed
b. absorption is predictable and complete
c. a portion of the absorbed drug does not pass through the liver before entering the systemic circulation
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d. the dissolution process is involved

A
61. Renal clearance depends on:

a. urinary pH
b. glomerural filtration
c. absorption
d. distribution
62. Application of clinical pharmacokinetics as to management of the individual patient is the:

a. safety
c. therapeutic
b. overdosage
d. a & c
63. The time in hours necessary to reduce the drug concentration in the blood, the plasma, or serum to half its
original concentration after equilibrium is reaced:
a. biological half-life
c. bioavailability
d. a & b
64. The breakdown of ingested foreign compounds to simpler structures:

a. catabolism
c. homeostasis
b. anabolism
65. If the extent and rate of absorption is similar to the standard drug, it has achieved:
a. bioequivalence of a drug
c. pharmaceutical alternative product
b. pharmaceutical equivalence
d. a &b
66. The magnitude of bile production depends on:

a. type of food
c. the enzyme activity
b. the amount of bile emptied
d. all of the above
67. Biotransformation of a drug takes place in the liver in the presence of:
a. energy from the body
c. substance destroyed in the
b. enzymes which act as catalysts
d. a & c
68. Due to their anatomical structure, the organ that is considered as the most important site of drug absorption is:
a. large intestine
c. small intestine
b. stomach
d. mucous membrane of the mouth
69. Biliary excretion principle:

a. through the bile duct into the duodenum
b. major portion of the bile is excreted
c. as metabolite
d. any of the above
70. Factor determining the biological activity of the drug:

a. formulation of the dosage form
c. dose
b. individual
d. all of the above
71. Factor affecting gastric emptying time of a drug:

a. age of the person
c. body posture
b. time of the day
d. all of them
72. The hyphotetical plasma volume in mL of the unmetabolized drug which is cleared in one minute via the kidney:
a. volume of distribution
c. total clearance
b. renal clearance
d. area under the curve
73. The process that determines absolute bioavailability are the first pass effect and:
a. absorption
c. distribution
b. liberation
d. metabolism
74. Factor affecting difference between loading and maintenance dose:

a. half-life of a drug
c. adverse effect
b. effectiveness of the dose
d. b & c
75. A relative bioavailability study is necessary when there is:

a. a change in gelenic of the dru
b. a change in the method of manufacture
c. a change in the means of preservation
d. all of the above
76. In organs and tissues that are well perfused:

a. distribution is lower
b. distribution is faster
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c. distribution rate is negligible

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77. The following pathological state influences the volume of distribution EXCEPT:
a. renal disease
c. cardiac insufficiency
b. hepatic disease
d. vertigo
78. The volume of distribution of a drug is:

a. mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug in body and the concentration of drug in
the blood
b. a measure of an individual's blood volume
c. an expression of total body volume
d. a measure of the individual fluid volume
79. The biologic half-life of many drugs is often prolonged in new born infants because of:
a. a higher decrease of protein binding
b. microsomal enzyme induction
c. more complete absorption of drugs
d. incompletely developed enzyme system
80. Drugs are usually released much more slowly from fat because:
a. fat has relatively limited blood supply
b. drugs are fat bound that plasma bound
c. fat-bound-drugs bind to itself more
d. all of the above
81. Which of the following factos increase the rate if gastric emptying:
a. fats
c.anticholinergic
b. increasing viscosity
82. Possible approaches to measure bioavailability:

a. blood level data
c. clinical data
b. urinary excretion data
d. all of the above
83. The force of attraction which binds drugs to albumin:

a. Van der Waal's
c. hydrogen bond
b. hydrophobic bond
d. all of the above
84. The metabolism and/or the elimination of a drug by gastrointestinal and hepatic drug metabolizing enzyme
which can occur after oral administration of a drug:
a. first pass effect
c. hepatic clearance
b. biliary recycling
d. BUN
85. The administration of the same dose of active ingredient in different Galenic forms:
a. always leads to the same therapeutic effect
b. does not necessarily lead to the same therapeutic effect
c. always lead to different therapeutic effect
86. The theory which states that the cell membrane is made up of a bi-lipid layer and fluid protein molecules
interspersed between the 2 layers of lipid:
a. fluid-mosaic
d. nicholson
b. Monsanto
e. none of the above
c. Davidson
87. Cumulative urinary excretion is often used in the pharmacokinetic and clinical studies in man and animals to
learn about the disposition of the drug and to determine the following:
a. Ka
c. % of drug absorbed
b. fraction of drug absorbed
d. all of the above
88. Is the loss of drug from the central compartment due to transfer into other compartments and/or elimination or
metabolism:
a. dosage regimen
d. creatinine clearance
b. disposition
e. circadian rhythm
c. depot phase
89. An entity which can be described by a definite volume and a concentration of drug contained in that volume:
a. compartment
c. receptor
b. serum level
d. bloodstream
90. A cell or a cell component where the final interaction between drug and receptor takes place:
a. receptor
c. unit membrane
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b. biophase
d. muscle
91. Drugs that are absorbed in the GIT are generally:

a. absorbed into the portal circulation and pass through the liver
before entering the general circulation
b. filtered from the bloody by the kidney, then reabsorbed into the
general circulation
c. not affected by the liver enzymes
d. stored in the liver
92. The speed of blood perfusion in an organ, usually expressed in mL/100 g organ weight/min.
a. accumulation
c. blood flow rate
b. bioavailability
d. absorption
93. Drugs in which the pharmacological action depends directly on the chemical structure of the drug:
a. structure specific drugs
c. drug agonist
b. structure non-specific drugs
94. Phosporous poison reacting with cupric sulfate in the intestines (so as to prevent the absorption of the poison )
is an example of _____antagonism.
a. chemical
c. non-equilibrium
b. competitive
95. The ratio of creatinine excreted in urine to the concentration of creatinine

In plasma:
a. creatinine concentration
c. creatinine clearance
b. creatinine excretion
d. renal clearance
96. If drug A is more lipophilic than drug B, then

a. drug A will be better distributed that drug B
b. drug B will be better distributed that drug A
c. drug agonist
97. Drugs of low solubility may be brought into solution by the use of:
a. solvent
c. surfactants
b. vehicle
d. all of the above
98. The LADME system is employed in:

a. the development of new active compounds
b. the determination of effective dose sizes
c. the adjustment of dosage regimen
d. all of the above
99. A type of antagonism whereby the agonist and the antagonist bind to different receptor and have opposite
pharmacologic actions:
a. partial antagonism
c. non-competitive antagonism
b. non-equilibrium antagonism
d.competitive antagonism
100. A type of antagonism whereby the antagonist formsirreversible receptor binding:

a. partial antagonism
c. non-equilibrium antagonism
b. non-competitive antagonism
d. competitive antagonism
101. Is the hyphotetical volume of distribution in mL of the unmetabolized drug which is cleared per unit time by any
pathway of drug removal:
a. diffusion layer
d. clinical pharmacokinetics
b. diurnal variation
c. clearance
102. Obtained when the drug product is administered at the site where the pharmacological response is desired and
when the drug released from the acts by adsorption to the skin or mucosa or penetrates into the skin or
mucosa, but does not enter the systemic circulation or lymphatic system.
a. systemic effect
c. mean transit time
b. local effect
d. micro constants
103. Tissue distribution of drugs is highly dependent on

a. organ perfusion
c. both a & b
b. type of dosage form
104. Maintenance of a steady state which characterized the interval environment of the healthy organism:
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a. steady state
c. homeostasis
b. depot phase
d. maintenance dose
105. An entity which can be described by a definite volume and a concentration of drug obtained in that volume
a. compartment
c. receptor
b. serum level
d. none of these
106. Membrane potential is due to the:

a. adsorption of protein to the outside of the lipid layer
b. different distribution of ions in the extracellular and intracellular fluid
c. both a & b
d. pH of the medium
107. The cell membrane is capable of forming vesicles which may engulf drug substances outside the cell
membrane to transport the drug (via the engulfed drug) into the compartment:
a. ion-pair
d. pinocytosis
b. passive diffusion
e. active transport
c. convective transport
108. In the diffusion controlled system, the initial rate of dissolution is directly proportional to the:
a. pKa
c. quantity of free acid present
b. pH
d. solubility of the drug in the dissolution medium
109. Refers to a change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic parameters during absorption, distribution,
metabolism, and excretion by over-loading of processes due to increased dose sizes:
a. nonlinear kinetics
d. both a & c
b. linear kinetics
e. both b & c
c. saturation kinetics
110. The concentration of the ionic moiety of weak acids increases with:
a. decreasing pH of aqueous solution
c. increasing pOH of aqueous solution
b. increasing pH of aqueous solution
d. all of the above
111. Which of the following drugs is not listed as a candidate for routine therapeutic drug monitoring programs?
a. theophylline
d. digoxin
b. aminoglycosides
e. penicillin
c. phenytoin
112. The ff. are the mechanism by which drugs containing sorption promoters penetrate the skin
a. decrease viscosity of the medium
b. chelation of intercellular groups
c. widening of either lipid or aqueous phase or both phases found in the intercellular matrix
d. all of the above
113. Type of antagonism which is dependent on concentration (of either agonist antagonist or both) and this
antagonism is reversible:
a. chemical
d. non-equilibrium
b. competitive
e. partial
c. non-competitive
114. Structural nonspecific drugs act by

a. physicochemical processes
b. physical processes
c. biochemical processes
115. The ff. characterize transport of a drug solution across a membrane by passive diffusion except:
a. membrane thickness
c. partition coefficient
b. volume of outside compartment
d. membrane length
116. The physical barrier to transport in the body:

a. carrier molecule
b. inactive complex
c. unit membrane
d. any of the above choices

117. That portion of a prolonged release dosage form which liberates the drug
From the form at a slower rate that its unrestricted absorption rate:
a. depot phase
d. all of the above
b. release phase
e. none of the choices
c. dissolve phase
118. The determination and recording of drug concentrations during the course of therapy in order to adjust, if
necessary, the dosage regimen:
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a. monitoring
b. patient charting
c. metabolizing
d. all of the above
119. The ff. are the characteristics of active transport, except

:
a. against a concentration gradient
d. all of the above
b. follows saturation kinetics
c. carrier mediated
120. When active transport system become saturated, the rate process will be
a. zero order
c. first order
b. pseudo-zero order
d. pseudo-first order
121. A drug which possesses little or does not possess intrinsic activity:
a. agonist
d. toxins
b. antagonist
c. non specific drugs
122. Plasma protein binding is of significant influence in the distribution equilibrium

a. the drug is polar
c. the drug is oil soluble
b. the drug is nonpolar
d. all of the above
123. A type of absorption mechanism which requires the expenditure of ATP

a. convective transport
c. ion-pair transport
b. pinocytosis
d. active transport
124. The biosynthesis of more complex compounds

a. catabolism
c. homeostasis
b. anabolism
125. The value of particle size reduction to enhance drug absorption is limited to the situation in which the:
a. absorption process occurs by active transport
b. absorption process is rate limited by the dissolution of the drug in the GI
c. drug is very soluble
d. drug is very potent
126. Gastric emptying is slowed by all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. vigorous exercise
d. hunger
b. fatty food
e. emotional stress
c. hot meals
127. Membranes are responsible for which of the following processes
a. uptake of liquid material
c. extrusion of waste materials
b. uptake of solid material
d. all of the above
128. A theory which states that effectiveness lasts as long as the receptor is occupied
a. hypothesis of Paton
c. hypothesis of Ariens & Stephenson
b. lock & key hypothesis
d. hypothesis of clark
129. The systematized dosage schedule for therapy

a. dose size
c. dosage form
b. loading dose
d. dosage regimen
130. Example of sorption promoters:

a. surfactants
b. chelating agents
c. viscosity-decreasing agents/thinners
d. all of the above
131. This pharmacokinetic parameter is representative of the amount of drug absorbed:

a. T1/2
d. Kel
b. T90
e. Vd
c. AUC
132. A term defined as the combination of a drug molecule with a receptor

a. antagonism
c. affinity
b. intrinsic activity
133. The primary proof of a drug's availability is:

a. clinical efficacy
b. production of high blood levels
c. production of high urine levels
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d. appearance of metabolites in urine

e. appearance of metabolites in blood
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BIOPHARMACEUTICS
134. These are formed when a substance is capable of forming channels or cages which can take in another
substance into the intraspace of the structure:
a. salting in
b. salting out
c. clathrate
d. solid-in-solid solution complex

135. The final elimination from the body's systemic circulation via the kidney into the urine via bile, and saliva into
intestines and into feces, via sweat, via skin, via milk:
a. metabolism
c. absorption
b. distribution
d. excretion
136. Lipid/water partition coefficient permits:

b. active transport
c. passive transport
d. ion-pair transport
137. Salts of electrolytes:

a. higher solubility
b. more rapid dissolution rate
c. both
138. Reasons for chemical variations:

a. change the structure of the active compound in order to increase pharmacologic response
b. maintain the basic structure but change solubility by the formation of either salts, esters, ethers, or
complexes
c. both a & b
139. Factors affecting biological performance of drugs:

a. viscosity
d. adsorption
b. polymorphism
e. all of the above
c. solubilizing agents
140. Is the phenomenon observed if the rate of absorption is slower than the rate of elimination, or one of the
distribution rate is slower than the rate elimination:
a. feathering
d. dose dumping
b. flip-flop model
c. residual
141. Mechanism of absorption of drugs in order of their importance:

a. active transport-passive diffusion-convective transport
b. passive diffusion-convective transport-active transport
c. convective transport-active transport-passive diffusion
142. The distribution of law of true partition coefficient is exact only for ideal solution under the following conditions:
a. when the two liquid phases are completely immiscible
b. when the solute neither associates nor dissociate in either phase
c. when the solute concentration is relatively low
d. all of the above
143. A change of pH in the aqueous phase alters the_______ of electrolytes

a. degree of ionization
c. degree of acidification
b. degree of dissociation
d. degree of purification
144. Sodium pump is a special type of:

b. active transport
c. passive transport
d. ion-pair transport
145. The capacity of the body to eliminate the drug after it has reached the general circulation is reflected by:
a. total clearance
c. AUV
d. volume of distribution
146. A dosage form for which the drug release characteristics of time course and/or drug release location are chosen
to accomplish therapeutic or convenience objectives:
a. modified release dosage forms
c. conventional dosage forms
b. sustained release dosage forms
d. all of the above
147. Factors affecting pharmacokinetic variability:

a. dosage form
c. particle size
b. viscosity
d. all of the above
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148. Biliary recycling is influenced by:

a. rate of excretion of drug into the bile
b. rate of loss of drug with feces
c. type of food intake
d. all of the above
149. What is the specific organ of the animal used for In vivo test of active transport mechanism?
a. duodenum
c. ileum
b. ascending colon
d. transverse colon
150. The ratio of the drug concentration in the lipid phase over the concentration of the drug in the aqueous phase is
equal to the:
a. APC
b. TPC
151. The sum of all the chemical reactions for biotransformation of endogenous and exogenous substances which
take place in the living cell:
a. excretion
c. elimination
b. absorption
d. metabolism
152. If the drug permeates through the capillary walls and enter the blood stream:
a. adsorption
d. sorption
b. permeation
e. all of the above
c. absorption
153. Facilitated transport is similar to active transport in that it:

a. is carrier mediated
b. utilizes ATP
e. all of the above
c. is against a concentration gradient
154. The lipid phase which is usually employed in the determination of apparent partition coefficient:
a. water
c. cotton seed oil
b. corn oil
d. octanol
155. A property of drug which has an affinity and generates an impulse with a receptor:
a. antagonism
c. affinity
156. Highly lipid soluble drugs are predominantly distributed in:

a. nervous tissues
c. fluid compartments
b. blood
d. all of the above
157. The term "prodrug" refers to:

a. a chemical substance that is part of the synthesis of another drug
b. compound that liberates an active drug in the body
c. compound which nay be therapeutically active but still under clinical trials
d. drug that is classified as being "probably effective"
158. The value of particle size reduction to enhance drug absorption is limited to those situations in which the:
a. absorption process occurs by active transport
b. absorption process is rate limited by dissolution of drugs in GI fluids
c. drug is very soluble
d. drug is very potent
159. A pre-requisite of drug absorption is that the drug be in aqueous solution except in the absorption mechanism
of:
b. ion-pair transport
d. pinocyctosis
160. A theory which states the effectiveness does not depend on the actual occupation of receptor by the drug, but
upon obtaining the proper stimulus.
a. hypothesis of Paton
c. hypothesis of clark
b. hyphotesis of Ariens and Stephenson
d. lock & key Stephenson
161. Equation followed by passive diffusion:

a. Noyes-Whitney
b. Van Slyke
c. Fick's Law
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d. Henderson-Hasselbalch
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BIOPHARMACEUTICS
162. The relative amount of drug from an administered dosage form which enters the systemic circulation and the
rate at which the drug appears in blood streams
a. accumulation
b. bioavailability
c. blood flow rate

d. absorption
163. To produce its characteristic pharmacologic action(s), a drug must always:

a. reach high blood levels
b. be absorbed from the gastrointestinal tact
c. achieve adequate concentration at its site (s) of action
d. be excreted unchanged in the urine
164. A term defined as the combination of a drug molecule with a receptor:

a. antoganism
c. affinity
165. Dose dumping is defined as:

a. an intended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic circulation
b. an intended sudden release of large amount of drugs into systemic circulation
c. slow release of the drug into systemic circulation
d. slow absorption of the drug into the systemic circulation
166. Antagonist has a high affinity but low intrinsic activity.

a. chemical antagonism
c. competitive antagonism
b. partial antagonism
d. all of the above
167. A theory which advances the idea that maximum pharmacologic effect can be obtained if all the receptors are
occupied:
a. Hypothesis of Paton
c. Lock & Key Hypothesis
b. Hypothesis of Ariens&Stephnson
d. Hypothesis of Clark
168. Which of the ff. properties of surfactants tend to increase the rate of dissolution:
a. surface tension lowering effect
b. production of micelles with the parent drug
c. absence of peptizing action
d. all of the above
169. Cholekinesis is a process which involves the:

a. formation of bile in the liver
b. formation of bile in the gallbladder
c. emptying of bile from the gallbladder
d. emptying of bile from the liver
170. The pharmacologic action of structurally nonspecific drugs depend directly on:
a. chemical structure
c. presence of a functional group
b. physical properties of the drug
d. a & c
171. A transport of absorption that does not proceed against a concentration gradient:
a. facilitated transport
c. ion-pair transport
b. active transport
172. It deals with physical and chemical properties of the drug substance, the dosage form and drug product upon
administration:
a. biopharmaceutics
c. both a & b
b. pharmacokinetics
173. The following mechanisms of absorption require the presence of drug in aqueous solution except:
d. pinocytosis
174. Gastric emptying is slowed by all of the following except:

a. vigorous exercise
c. hot meals
b. fatty foods
d. hunger
175. A relative bioavailability study is necessary when there is:

a. change in the ionic form of the drug
b. change in the method of manufacture
c. change in the means of preservation
d. all of them
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BIOPHARMACEUTICS
176. The following are the common drug metabolism reactions, except:
a. oxidation
c. reduction
b. carboxylation
d. conjugation
177. The application of pharmacokinetic principles in the safe and effective treatment of individual patients and in the
optimization of drug therapy:
a. clinical pharmacy
c. clinical pharmacokinetics
b. clinical pharmacology
d. clinical biopharmaceutics
178. A drug which possesses affinity and intrinsic activity:

a. agonist
d. toxins
b. antagonist
c. non-specific drugs
179. A phenomenon that occurs when drugs filtered through the glomeruli are reabsorbed from the tubuli into the
systemic circulation:
a. urinary recycling
c. reabsorption
d. a & b
180. Drugs that are absorbed in the GI tract are generally:

a. absorbed into the portal circulation
b. filtered from the blood by the kidney, then reabsorbed into the general circulation
c. not affected by the liver enzymes
d. stored in the live
181. Which body muscle causes more rapid absorption when given intramuscular injection is:
a. deltoid
c. intravenous
b. gluteal
d. a & b
182. In percutaneous administration, absorption of the drug is delayed due to:

a. presence of horny layer of the skin
c. presence of oil in the skin
b. thickness of the skin
d. a & b
183. The volume of distribution of a drug is:

a. mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug
in the body and the concentration of drug in the blood
b. a measure of an individual's blood volume
c. an expression of total body volume
d. a measure of the individual's fluid volume
184. In ophthalmic administration, the permeability of the drug onto the cornea depends on:
a. aqueous solubility of the drug
c. rate of permeability
b. Lipid solubility
d. a & b
185. Compartments of body water includes:

a. vascular fluid
b. extra cellular fluid
c. salivary fluid
d. a & b
186. Types of Carrier mediated transport:

a. active mechanism
b. facilitated diffusion
c. passive mechanism
d. a & b
187. Cmax is the peak drug concentration in the:

a. plasma
b. urine
c. muscle
d. bile
188. Characteristic of aerosol particles to be absorbed is:

a. impact in the alveolar sac
c. dissolves in the stomach fluid
b. dissolves in the lung fluids
d. a&b
189. In general, the form of a drug that can be absorbed faster is:
a. ionized form
c. bound form
b. unionized form
d. a & c
190. When can absorption of a drug be slower than its elimination?

a. when drugs are rapidly metabolized or excreted
b. when drugs are poorly soluble in water
c. when drugs are soluble in fats and oils
d. a & b
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BIOPHARMACEUTICS
191. Absorption is not involve when a drug is administered by which of the following routes:
a. intravenous
c. intraspinal
b. inta-arterial
d. all of the above
192. In organs and tissues that are well perfused:

a. distribution lower
b. distribution is faster
c. distribution rate is negligible
193. Which of the following is the first process to occur before a drug can become available for absorption from
tablet dosage form
a. dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids
b. ionization of the drug
c. dissolution of the drug in the blood
d. disintegration of the tablet
194. Drug products can also be evaluated by comparing curves of serum concentration vs. time (blood level curve).
The most important parameters that can be obtained from such curves are:
a. peak concn., biologic concn. Half-life, elimination rate constant
b. biologic halftime, peak concn, total AUC
c. peak concn, peak time, total AUC
d. average serum concn, AUC, absorption rate constant
195. A disadvantage of inert diluents for powders as a dosage form is:

a. adsorbs onto the active drug substance
b. high cost
c. drugs may not be released immediately
d. a & c
196. A test to evaluate dosage forms is:

a. chemical content
b. content uniformity
c. sensitivity test
d. a & b
197. Two different oral formulation of the same drug having equal areas under their respective serum concentration
time curve:
a. deliver the same total amount of drug to the body and are therefore bioequivalent
b. deliver the same total amount of drug to the body but are not necessarily bioequivalent
c. are bioequivalent by definition
d. are bioequivalent if they meet USP standards
198. The area under the serum concentration time curve represents:
a. biologic half-life of the drug
b. amount of drug that is clear by the kidney
c. amount of drug in the original dosage form
d. amount of drug absorbed
199. The intensity of the pharmacologic action of a drug is most dependent upon the:
a. concentration of the drug at the receptor area
b. onset time of the drug at the receptor area
c. minimum toxic drug concentration (MTC) in the plasma
200. Drug concentration in systemic circulation rises to a peak followed by a steep fall:
a. open one compartment intravenous
b. open one compartment extravascular
c. open two compartment IV
d. open two compartment EV
201. Which of the following refers to the intensity of pharmacologic response?

c
a. max
c. AUC
t
b. max
d. MEC
202. The advantage of solid dosage form for administration is:

a. most stable
c. faster disintegration
b. faster dissolution
d. faster absorption than other forms
203. Which of the following is the first process that must occur before a drug can become available for absorption
from a tablet dosage form?
a. dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids
b. ionization of the drug
c. disintegration of the tablet
d. dissolution of the drug in the blood
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BIOPHARMACEUTICS
204. An important characteristic of a dosage form being manufactured is:

a. aesthetic value
c. fast selling
b. acceptable to the patient
d. b & c
205. The peak of the serum concentration vs. time curve approximates the:
a. point when the maximum pharmacological effect occurs
b. point when absorption and elimination of the drug have equalize
c. maximum concentration of the drug in the urine
d. point when the drug begins to be metabolized
206. The primary proof of drug's availability is the:

a. production of its pharmacologic effect
b. production of high levels in the blood
c. production of high urine levels
d. appearance of metabolite in the blood
207. Suspensions provide better absorption of drugs than:

a. solutions
c. intravenous injections
b. tablets
d. intramuscular preparations
208. An absorption process is not involved when a drug is given by which of the following routes:
a. Oral
d. Rectal
b. IV
e. SubQ
c. IM
209. One of the current major problems in drug therapy is:

a. patient's non-compliance with prescribed regimen
b. wrong environment
c. absence of doctors
d. high incidence of diseases
210. The purpose of biotransformation reaction is:

a. deactivate the drug
c. promote elimination of the inactivated drug
b. preserve the drug from destruction
d. a& c
211.
212. The function of the bile and bile salts is:

a. solubilize the drug molecules after a meal
b. solubilize fatty/oily substances
c. dissolves inorganic salts
d. a & b
213. A condition that may increase the rate of gastric emptying is:
a. depression
c. lying on the left side
b. trauma
d. a & b
214. The purpose of enteric coating the tablet may be:

a. protect the gastric mucosa from irritant drug
b. protect the drug action of gastric fluids
c. protect the drug patient from sensitization
d. a & b
215. In coated tablets, the portion which may interfere with disintegration and dissolution is:
a. drug substance
c. coating
b. inactive substance
d. a & b
216. Factors which may influence the bioavailability of drugs from the GIT, except:
a. age of the patient
b. healthy individual
b. stress being felt
d. if patient is bedridden
217. A factor affecting dissolution rate to correlate with bioavailability is:

a. particle size of the drug
b. patient acceptance
c. presence of surfactant
d. a & b
218. Bioavailability of a drug through dissolution rate tests can be predicted if:
a. dissolved drug remains free in the GIT
b. dissolved drug remains intact in the GIT
Contaminants in a formulation maybe the following except:

a. dust
c. microorganisms
b. drug substance
d. heavy metals from the machine
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BIOPHARMACEUTICS
c. the drug decomposes in the GIT

d. a & b
D
219. The form of drug excreted after administration is as:

a. free drug
c. complex
b. metabolite
d. a & b
220. The rate of diffusion of drugs across biologic membranes is most commonly:
a. independent of the concentration gradient
b. directly proportional to the concentration gradient
c. dependent on the availability of carrier substrate
d. dependent on the route of administration
221. A route of administration giving a fast action is:

a. rectal
c. intravenous
b. oral
d. intramuscular
222. The problem in content uniformity of the drug in a dosage form is:
a. insufficient disintegration
b. insufficient mixing of a small amount of the drug in large batches
c. insufficient amount of the drug in the formulation
d. a & c
223. Differences is bioavailability are most frequently observed with drugs administered by which of the following
routes:
a. SQ
d. IM
b. IV
e. Oral
c. SL
224. The controlled release dosage form is sometimes necessary for action of some drugs for the purpose of:
a. prolonging absorption of the drug itself
b. delay the absorption of the drug
c. for immediate action
d. a & b
225. In all quantitative work for bioavailability, the concentration of the drug is measured in the:
a. blood plasma
c. gastric fluids
b. urine
d. a & b
226. The term systemic circulation refers primarily to:

a. veins
c. hepatic portal vein
b. arteries
d. a & b
227. Comparative bioavailability involves the determination of the relative bioavailability of an active drug in:
a. one formulation
c. one inactive drug present
b. two formulation
d. two excipients present
228. As to the nature of the drug for intravenous injection, the best form of dosage form is:
a. suspension form
c. emulsion form
b. solution form
d. a & c
229. Mechanisms determining the excretion of drugs, except:

a. glomerural filtration
c. tubular reabsorption
b. protein binding
d. tubular secretion
230. From the graph below, which of the ff. statements is correct
Drug A is more potent than Drug B

a. Drug A is less effective than drug C
b. Drug C is more potent than A
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BIOPHARMACEUTICS
c.
Drug B is more potent than A
From nos. 231-235, choose from the ff.

a. Bioequivalent drug products
b. Pharmaceutic equivalents
c. Pharmeceutic alternatives
d. Therapeutic equivalents
B
231. Chemical equivalents.
232. Same therapeutic moiety but different salts, esters or complexes
233. Different active ingredients, same use:
234. Pharmaceutic equivalents having similar rate & extent of absorption
235. Same active drug, same effect & have equal potential for adverse effects
236. The following are high risk potential drugs

a. warfarin
b. digoxin and prednisone
B
C
c. aminophyllin and aspirin

d. all of the above
237. The equilibrium between free and bound drug acts as:
a. an equilibrium system
c. a transport system
b. a buffer system
d. a way for releasing the bound drug
238. The rate of the metabolic processes the drug undergoes depends on
a. absorption in gastric juice
c. presence of another drug
b. drug concentration at a given time
d. food interaction
239. Process of transferring chemical substances from the GI tract through its wall into the blood and lymphatic
stream
a. diffusion
c. absorption
b. adsorption
d. convective transport
240. The ratio of the concentration at equilibrium between a lipid phase (usually n-octanol) and aqueous phase
(usually buffer pH 7.4)
a. bioavailability
c. bioequivalence
b. apparent pertition coefficient
d. half-life
241. In the oral administration of drugs for aged people, the possible consequence/s when the gastric emptying time
is increased is/are
a. reduce mixing of intestinal content
d. a and c
b. delayed transfer to small intestine
e. a and b
c. change in epithelial transfer
242. Arterial blood is:
a. non-oxygenated blood
b. oxygenated blood
c. both
243. Instability which could lead to the rejection of a drug product:

a. extensive chemical degradation of the active drug
b. problem of bioavailability
c. a, b, and c
d. a & c only
244. Measured from the product's data of manufacture until its chemical or biological activity is not less than usually
accepted USP 90% of the labeled potency, provided physical, microbiological therapeutic and toxicological
characteristics have not deleteriously change within this period.
a. labeled claim
c. bioavailability
b. acceptance stability
d. bioequivalence
245. The rate of the metabolic processes the drug undergoes depends on:
a. drug concentration at a given time
c. absorption in gastric juice
b. presence of another drug
d. food interaction
246. Anesthetics are drugs which are stored in which body tissues:
a. albumin
d. muscle
b. adipose
e. neurons
c. globulin
247. The least significant organ for excretion is the ___________.

a. kidneys
c. mammary gland
b. rectum
d. salivary gland
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BIOPHARMACEUTICS
248. The half life of a pharmaceutical product, with a K value at 30 degrees Celsius of 3.66721337 x 10-5 hours is:
a. 18897.18329 hrs.
d. 18997.18439 hrs.
b. 2863.209454 hrs.
c. 3.667 days
249. Passive diffusion involves drug movement from an area of:

a. high concentration to an area of higher concentration
b. high concentration to an area of lower concentration
c. low concentration to an area of higher concentration
d. high concentration to an area of equally high concentration
e. no concentration to an area of higher concentration
250. It is the phenomenon when organic substituted ammonium salts or salts various inorganic acids are added to
mixture of organic non-electrolytes causing the dissolution of the undissolved solutes:
a. chelation
c. salvation
b. clathrate formation
d. salting in
251. To produce its characteristic pharmacologic effect a drug must always:

a. reach high blood levels
b. be absorbed from the GIT
c. achieve adequate concentration at the site of action
d. excreted unchanged in the urine
252. If the particle size decreases:

a. dissolution rate increases
b. surface area increases
c. a & b
d. none
253. The resulting solid when a drug and polymer like PVP or PEG are dissolved in a solvent with the drug, then the
solvent is evaporated/
a. hydrates
c. complex
b. co-precipitates
d. crystals
254. Drug emptied via bile into the small intestine can be reabsorbed from the intestinal lumen into systemic
circulation is the phenomenon of:
a. enterohepatic recirculation
c. a & b
d. none of the choices
255. The ratio of the amount of the drug present in the body over the plasma concentration.
a. intrinsic clearance
c. renal clearance
b. volume of distribution
d. metabolic clearance
256. Which of the following is considered as structurally specific drug?

a. halothane
c. nitrous oxide
b. sulfonamides
d. phenol
257. As soon as drug has passed the epithelium of the gastrointestinal mucosa, it can reach the systemic circulation
by:
a. entering through the villi
c. both
b. entering through the leacteals
d. none
258. The ions of added electrolytes require water for hydration reducing amount of water available for the solution of
the non-electrolyte is the phenomenon of:
a. salting in
c. clathrate formation
b. salting out
d. chelation
259. Drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety, or its precursor but not necessarily in the same
amount or dosage forms or as the same salt ester:
a. pharmaceutical alternate
c. bioequivalent drug products
b. pharmaceutical equivalents
260. Inactive enzymes:

a. zymogens
b. haloenzymes
c. apoenzymes
d. all of the choices sodium
261. Which of the ff. pairs is not correct?

a. sodium carboxymethylcellulose - suspending agent
b. xantham gum - thixotropic suspending agent
c. alcohol - preservative
d. sesame - vechicle for suspension
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BIOPHARMACEUTICS
262. Which of the ff. relationship is not correct?

a. reduce particle size: increase rate of bioavailability
b. increase retention time in the GIT: increase amount of the drug absorbed
c. retard drug dissolution: reduce drug absorption
d. increase solubility: decrease rate of absorption
263. An interaction that occurs through receptor-mediated events, as in atropine blocking the effects of acetylcholine
at muscarinic receptor sites:
a. pharmacologic antagonism
b. dispositional antagonism
c. functional antagonism
d. physiologic antagonism
e. chemical antagonisms
264. Characterizes the clearing of the hypothetical plasma volume of a drug per unit time
a. hepatic clearance
d. intrinsic clearance
b. renal clearance
e. genital clearance
c. total clearance
265. The term that is used to tell the maximum capacity of the kidneys for active secretion
a. minimum transport
d. transport maximum
b. minimal transport
e. maximal transport
c.
266. Drug dosing problems in obese patients are often due to:
a. large deviation of body composition from that of the normal adult
b. the lipid solubility
c. the distribution of the drug between fat tissue and body water
d. all of the above
267. Drugs used in very critical therapeutic situations and which have documented evidence of inequivalency:
a. moderate risk potential
d. low risk potential
b. high risk potential
e. bioequivalence
268. In what part of GIT, no absorption of food takes place but large amount of water are absorbed.
a. rectum
c. small intestine
b. large intestine
d. stomach
269. A second substance tends to accumulate to the surface of a first substances due to intermolecular forces or
attraction is a phenomenon of:
a. chemisorption
c. adsorption
b. absorption
d. all of the above
270. The following are factors affecting GIT absorption, except:

a. pKa value of drug
c. none of the choices
b. pH of drug product
e. both a and b only
271. The protein binding has the following characteristics, expect:

a. selective
c. reversible
b. pharmacologically active
d. specific
272. These are formed if a substance is capable of forming channels, or cages which can take up another substance
into the interspace of the structure:
a. metal complexation
d. clathrate
b. coordination
e. chelate
c. ligand field
273. The drug molecule must fit the receptor like a key and lock
a. occupation theory
c. both
b. rate theory
d. none
274. If the two liquid phases are completely immiscible, this is an assumption for:
a. true system
c. real system
b. ideal system
d. all the above
275. If the drug appears in the feces after oral administration

a. the drug was not completely absorbed in the GIT
b. the drug was not completely dissolved in the GI fluids
c. the drug formed complex with other materials in the GIT
d. metabolites are excreted therefore, will not produce toxic effects on the individual
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BIOPHARMACEUTICS
276. The drug metabolism may take place in:

a. the liver
b. GI content
c. the lungs and kidney

d. all of the above
277. Biliary recycling is influenced by:

a. rate of excretion of the drug into the bile
b. rate of absorption of the drug
c. any of the given choices
d. none of the given choices
278. In drug metabolism, the following is true:
a. drug metabolism is often termed detoxification or detoxication
b. it refers solely to the chemical bio-transformation of a drug by the biological environment
c. both
279. Venous blood is:
a. non- oxygenated blood
b. oxygenated blood
c. all of the choices

280. Factor/s influencing renal clearance of a drug are/is

a. age
d. a and b
b. sex
e. a, b and c
c. disease
281. Double blind study would mean that:

a. both subject and proctor do not know the controlled population
b. the sample is taken from the population by the proctor
c. both a and b
282. The lesser the gastric emptying time, the faster the gastric emptying rate.
a. true
c. erroneous
b. false
d. not valid
283. The instability which could lead to the rejection of a drug product.
a. problem of bioavailability
b. substantial changes in the appearance of the dosage forms
c. extensive chemical degradation of the active drug
d. all of the above
284. Used in calculating dose size for children based on age:

a. Young
d. a & b
b. Cowling
e. b & c
c. Clark
285. Factors affecting membrane transport, except:

a. pKa
d. presence or absence of a charge
b. diffusivity
e. surfactants
286. Formation of pairs (for highly ionized compounds) with endogenous substrate present at the GIT to form neutral
complexes that are absorbed by passive diffusion
a. pinocytosis
c. ion pair
d. facilitated transport
287. Chemical variation:

a. change the structure of the pharmaceutic ingredient to increase the pharmacologic response
b. change the structure of the active ingredient to increase pharmacologic
c. both a & b
288. Metabolites can have the ff. properties except:

a. produce therapeutic activity
c. can be reactivated
b. cannot produce toxicity
d. can be in its inactive form
289. Which of the ff. correct?

a. reduced binding to protein by the drug molecule will decrease the
therapeutic effect of the drug
b. saturation of binding produces linear pharmacokinetics
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BIOPHARMACEUTICS
c. bound drugs can diffuse into the tissues

d. only the unbound drug may be available for metabolism
D
290. The pharmacokinetic characteristics of a are primarily determined by considering the changes in the blood or
plasma concentration as a function of time. The analysis of the experimental data is done by:
a. feathering
c. methods of residuals
b. exponential stripping
d. all of the above
291. The partition coefficient can be considered as:

a. an index of the relative affinity of a drug for two immiscible solvents
b. an index of comparative solubilities in solvents
c. a parameter of the relative rate of partitioning from one phase into another
d. all of the above
e. only a & b
292. To be able for the DOTS Method to be precise the following pharmacokinetic parameter/s must be known:
a. c max after a single dose
d. a & b
b. time to reach the plateu
e. all of the above
c. ka and ke
293. Phase I drug study poses a problem which should be considered from the following except:
a. safety
c. pharmacodynamics
b. analytic sensitivity
d. pharmacokinetics
294. Chief cells is to pepsin, while parietal cells is to:

a. mucous
d. zymogen
b. serious secretions
e. HCL
c. cholecystikinin
295. Which of the ff. can be considered as less perfused organ?

a. skin
d. b & c
b. fat tissue
e. a & b
c. kidney
296. The bioavailability or bioequivalence problems may depend on the following except:
a. manufacturing method employed
d. complex
b. change in manufacturing practice
e. blood flow
c. environment
297. As the polarity of drug increases due to the presence of hydrophilic functional groups, water solubility:
a. increases
c. no change
b. decreases
d. polarity is not related to
298. All phenomenon characteristics are associated with the process of facilitated diffusion of drugs, except:
a. the drug crosses the membrane against a concentration
b. the process is selective for certain ionic or structural configuration of the drug
c. if two compounds are transported by the same mechanism
d. the transport mechanism becomes saturated at high drug solubility
299. "A group of iron-containing isoenzymes that activate molecular oxygen to form capable of interacting with
organic substrates. The component of microsomal mixed-function oxidase system which this description is
most/closely associated is:
a. cyclooxygenase
c. ATP
b. cytochrome
d. NADPH
300. Alpha-1-glycoprotein binds with:

a. acidic, highly lipophilic drugs
b. acidic, highly lipophobic drugs
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c. basic, highly lipophilic drugs

d. basic, highly lipophobic drugs
200

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BIOPHARMACEUTICS

The ultimate evaluation of dosage forms or delivery system is in:

A rate limiting factor in the dissolution of drugs is:

The effect of reduced particle size of a drug is:

Dissolution rate tests can be used to predict bioavailability if:

c. time of peak concentration

14. The termination of action of a drug is determined by:

15. Pharmaceutical equivalents are drug products that contain:

16. The purpose of biotransformation reaction is:

c. promote elimination of inactive drug

17. The advantage of sublingual/buccal administration is:

a. no occurrence of gastrointestinal degradation

27. Which of the following factors delays transit time?

28. The principal site of drug metabolism is:

35. Liberation is a process controlled by:

42. Reabsorption of the drugs and its metabolite occurs in the

45. The Noyes-Whitney equation determines:

46. Studies of bioavailability are generally not required when:

47. Gastric emptying is slowed down by the following except:

49. The metabolism of drugs generally results in:

51. Which of the following events modify drug absorption?

52. The following statements are true EXCEPT:

53. The displacement of drug from protein binding site causes:

54. These are addition compounds of drug and organic solvents:

55. The Vd of drug is related to:

56. The major pathway of excretion

d. the volume of the small intestine

c. via the circulation system

d. the dissolution process is involved

61. Renal clearance depends on:

62. Application of clinical pharmacokinetics as to management of the individual patient is the:

64. The breakdown of ingested foreign compounds to simpler structures:

66. The magnitude of bile production depends on:

69. Biliary excretion principle:

70. Factor determining the biological activity of the drug:

71. Factor affecting gastric emptying time of a drug:

74. Factor affecting difference between loading and maintenance dose:

75. A relative bioavailability study is necessary when there is:

76. In organs and tissues that are well perfused:

c. distribution rate is negligible

78. The volume of distribution of a drug is:

82. Possible approaches to measure bioavailability:

83. The force of attraction which binds drugs to albumin:

91. Drugs that are absorbed in the GIT are generally:

95. The ratio of creatinine excreted in urine to the concentration of creatinine

96. If drug A is more lipophilic than drug B, then

98. The LADME system is employed in:

100. A type of antagonism whereby the antagonist formsirreversible receptor binding:

103. Tissue distribution of drugs is highly dependent on

106. Membrane potential is due to the:

114. Structural nonspecific drugs act by

116. The physical barrier to transport in the body:

d. any of the above choices

119. The ff. are the characteristics of active transport, except

122. Plasma protein binding is of significant influence in the distribution equilibrium

123. A type of absorption mechanism which requires the expenditure of ATP

124. The biosynthesis of more complex compounds

126. Gastric emptying is slowed by all of the following, EXCEPT:

129. The systematized dosage schedule for therapy

130. Example of sorption promoters:

131. This pharmacokinetic parameter is representative of the amount of drug absorbed:

132. A term defined as the combination of a drug molecule with a receptor

133. The primary proof of a drug's availability is: