1.

PRINCIPLE(S) Whoever enters into or upon property in the possession of

another with intent to commit an offence or to intimidate, insult or annoy any
person in possession of such property is said to commit criminal trespass.
FACTS: Some boys play cricket every day in a field adjacent to As house. Quite
often, the ball falls into As house; this greatly annoys A who chases them away
whenever they go to recover the ball from As house. While the boys were playing
one day, the cricket ball fell into As house; this time, the boys scaled the wall
thinking that A was away. A caught them and filed a case against them for criminal
trespass.
a) The boys are guilty of criminal trespass because upon entering As property, they caused
annoyance to A.
b) The boys are guilty of criminal trespass because they entered the property of A illegally.
c) The boys are not guilty of criminal trespass because they did not intend to annoy A.
d) Both a and b
2. PRINCIPLE(S)- (I) Whoever having lawfully entered into or upon property in
possession of another, unlawfully remains there with intent thereby to intimidate,
insult or annoy any such person, or with intent to commit an offence, is said to
commit criminal trespass. (II) Under IPC, it is not essential to the offence of
mischief that the offender should intend to cause loss or damage to the owner of
the property injured or destroyed. It is sufficient if he intends to cause, or knows
that he is likely to cause, wrongful loss or damage to any person by injuring any
property.
FACTS: A is a courier guy working at Flipkart. He goes to Bs house to deliver an
order from Flipkart. After delivering the order, instead of leaving A decides to
smoke a cigarette in Bs garden. A suddenly spots a ferocious looking dog in As
garden. A who is immensely scared of dogs starts running and in the process, he
knocks about and breaks some of the flower pots in Bs garden. B files a case
against A for criminal trespass and mischief.
a) A is guilty of criminal trespass.
b) A is guilty of mischief.
c) A is guilty of criminal trespass and mischief.
d) A is guilty of neither criminal trespass nor mischief.
3. PRINCIPLE Under IPC, it is not essential to the offence of mischief that the
offender should intend to cause loss or damage to the owner of the property
injured or destroyed. It is sufficient if he intends to cause, or knows that he is
likely to cause, wrongful loss or damage to any person by injuring any property.
FACTS: A and B are sworn enemies. On hearing that B is away, A breaks into Bs
house one day and paints graffiti on the walls of the house. Later, it is discovered
that the house which A broke into had been sold to C a week before by B. C files a
case against A for mischief.
a) A is guilty of mischief because he intended to cause damage to the property.
b) A is not guilty of mischief because he did not intend to cause loss to C.
c) A is not guilty of mischief because nobody was in actual possession of the house when A
had broken into the house.
d) None of the above.
4. PRINCIPLE(S) (I) Theft is robbery if, in order to the commit theft, the
offender for that end, voluntarily causes or attempts to cause to any person death
or hurt or wrongful restraint.

(II) Extortion is robbery if the offender, at the time of committing the extortion,
is in the presence of the person put in fear, and commits the extortion by putting
that person in fear of instant death, or instant hurt, or of instant wrongful restraint
to that person, or to some other person, and, by so putting in fear, induces the
person so put in fear then and there to deliver up the thing extorted.
FACTS: A has been planning to break into Bs house to steal. With the help of his
accomplice, A calls B one day and tells her that Bs husband has met with an
accident and that she should immediately rush to the hospital. B panics and leaves
her house hurriedly. A then breaks into Bs house and steals jewellery and some
cash.
a) A is guilty of theft.
b) A is guilty of extortion.
c) A is guilty of robbery.
d) A is guilty of theft and extortion.
5. PRINCIPLE- Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of
the possession of any person without that persons consent, moves that property
in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
FACTS: A and B are room-mates. A has been gifted a P.G. Wodehouse novel by his
cousin which B wants to read. He asks A for the book but A refuses flatly. One
night, when A is fast asleep B takes the book from As table and starts reading it
inside the room; B intends to return the book to A in the morning. A wakes up and
finding B with the book, accuses B of theft.
a) B is not guilty of theft because he did not take the book out of the room and therefore, did
not move the book out of As possession.
b) B is not guilty of theft because he did not take the book from A with any dishonest
intention, since he had intended to return the book to A next morning.
c) B is guilty of theft.
d) B is not guilty of theft because he had not moved the property.
6. PRINCIPLE- Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of
the possession of any person without that persons consent, moves that property
in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
FACTS: A & B are room-mates in law school. A & B are also highly competitive and
always try to outdo each other in academics. One day before their law of tort
exam, A hides the book that B is studying from so that B is not able to prepare for
his exam. A hides the book under Bs bed. After hours of searching frantically for
the book, B finds it under his bed. Realizing what had happened, B accuses A of
theft.
a) A is guilty of theft.
b) A is not guilty of theft because A had merely hidden the book from B and there was no
wrongful gain to A.
c) A is not guilty of theft because A had hid the book under Bs bed and A had not kept the
book with himself.
d) A is not guilty of theft because never intended to commit theft. In a competitive
environment such as that of a law school, it is very common for students to hide
books/research material.
7. PRINCIPLE- Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any moveable property out of
the possession of any person without that persons consent, moves that property
in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.

FACTS: A had lent B his Parker pen; B forgot to return the pen to A. One day when
A is in Bs hostel room, he spots a Parker pen kept on Bs table. Assuming that it
is As pen, A takes the pen and leaves Bs room. A later discovers that this was a
different Parker pen, one that belonged to C and A immediately returns the pen to
Bs table. B files a case against A for theft.
a) A is guilty of theft because he had intentionally moved the pen out of the possession of B
and without Bs consent.
b) A is not guilty of theft because he had returned the pen to B as soon as he realized his
mistake.
c) A is not guilty of theft because B is not the rightful owner of the pen.
d) A is not guilty of theft because A had taken the pen with the bona fide belief that it was his
own.
8. The legal test for insanity defense was first recognized in:
a) McNaughtons case
b) Ahluwalias case
c) Jack the Rippers case
d) None of the above
9. The Latin maxim caveat emptor stands for:
a) Let the seller beware
b) Let the buyer beware
c) Not of sound mind
d) Incapable of criminal intention
10. A .. offence means that a police officer has the authority to make an
arrest without a warrant.
a) Compoundable
b) Non-compoundable
c) Cognizable
d) Non-cognizable
11. Under tort law, a claim is barred if there is a third party with superior rights.
This defence is known as:
a) Jus tertii
b) Damnum sine injuria
c) Injuria sine damno
d) None of the above
1. A master is liable for the wrongs committed by his servants. It is called
a. Joint liability
b. Vicarious liability
c. Concurrent liability
d. All the above
2. In law of Torts, always unliquidated damages are awarded. The meaning of
unliquidated is
a. Not ascertainable
b. Approximately arrived at
c. Penal & exemplary
d. Both (a) and (b) above

3. The Law of Torts has largely developed through

a. Judicial decisions
b. Customs
c. Legislations
d. None of the above
4. ______are words which appear innocent, but contain a latent meaning which is
defamatory
a. Libel
b. Slander
c. Innuendoes
d. None of the above
5. In an action for negligence, the plaintiff has to prove:
a. Existence of a duty
b. Breach of duty by defendant
c. Legal injury because of breach
d. All of the above
6. If a newspaper published a defamatory article written by `X, who can be sued?
a. Publisher of that newspaper
b. Printer of that newspaper
c. Mr. X only
d. Mr. X, Printer, Publisher and Editor
7. ______ is an act which is twisted, crooked, which is not straight and lawful
a. Tort
b. Crime
c. Wrong
d. None of the above
8. In criminal law intention is an essential constituent of offence. In Law of Torts
a. Intention is relevant
b. Intention is irrelevant
c. Intention is relevant only in some torts
d. None of the above
9. Defamation infringes a persons right to
a. Reputation
b. Pride
c. Privilege
d. Status
10. The act of unlawfully entering into anothers property
a. Breach of property
b. Trespass
c. Triplication
d. Trover
11. The law of torts deals with

a. Injuries to person or property caused by failure to take reasonable care

b. Money transactions
c. Partnerships
d. Industrial production
12. Assertion (A) None should make unnatural use of his land.
Reason (R) It may prove fatal for the public at large.
a. Both A and R are true
b. Both A and R are false
c. A is true R is false
d. R is true A is false.
13. Assertion (A) When right of a private individual has been infringed by other individual, it
is called tort.
Reason (R) When right of public at large has been infringed it is called crime.
a. Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
c. Both A and R are false
d. A is true R is false
14. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. ubi Jus ibi Where there is a right there is damage
b. res ipsa loquitur things speak for themselves
c. damnum sine injuria damage without injury
d. injuria sine damnum injury without damage
15. Slander is a ______
a. a crime
b. a tort
c. a breach of contract
d. a breach of trust
Directions: Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual
situation Apply the principle to the facts and select the most appropriate answer
among the four alternatives given.
1. PRINCIPLE(S) Where a plaintiff was in possession of the goods at the time of the
conversion, the defendant cannot set up a plea that a third party has superior title.
FACTS: B stole a gold watch from A. C then stole the watch from B and sold it. B sues C for
conversion.
a) C can be held liable for conversion.
b) B cannot sue C because B is in wrongful possession of the gold watch.
c) Only A can sue C for conversion.
d) None of the above
2. PRINCIPLE- A damage or injury though caused by a tortious act of the defendant will not
qualify for award of damages if it is too remote.
FACTS: Aman was boiling milk in his apartment; since he was very tired, he fell asleep
without realizing that the stove was still on. Sometime later, the fire alarm got triggered off in
the building. As the people residing in the building rushed out panicking, Bharats dog (which
had fractured his leg a few days before and could not run), got badly hurt in the stampede.
Can Bharat sue Aman for the injury to his dog?

a) Yes, it was Amans negligence which was directly responsible for the injury to Bharats
dog.
b) No, Aman had a duty of care only towards Bharat and not towards Bharats dog.
c) No, the injury to Bharats dog was too remote a consequence of Amans act.
d) None of the above.
3. PRINCIPLE- Harm suffered voluntarily does not constitute a legal injury and is not
actionable.
FACTS: Kiren joined a swimming club close to his house. The terms of membership contained
the follwing clauses:
(1) Swim at your own risk.
(2) The management would not be responsible for any accident or injury to the
members.While Kiren was attempting a dive, the diving board broke due to poor maintenance
of the pool and Kiren hurt himself badly.
Can Kiren sue the club for the injury suffered by him?
a) No, according to clause (1), Kiren had voluntarily consented to the risk involved.
b) Yes, clause (1) would not apply in case of negligence on the part of the management.
c) No, clause (2) gives blanket immunity to the management and would apply even in case of
negligence.
d) None of the above.
4. PRINCIPLE(S) (I) Any gesture calculated to excite in the party threatened a reasonable
apprehension that the party threatening intends immediately to offer violence constitutes an
assault; there must, in all cases, be the means of carrying the threat into effect.
(II) A battery is the intentional and direct application of any physical force to the person of
another.
FACTS: B entered As room while A was asleep. B moved stealthily towards A with an iron rod
in hand and struck A on the head. On feeling the blow, A woke up and cried out in pain.
Which of the following statements are true of the given situation?
a) There was only assault
b) There was only battery
c) There was both assault and battery
d) There was neither assault nor battery
Q1. PRINCIPLE:Every person has the right to defend his or another persons body or
property, if there is a reasonable apprehension of danger to such body or property.
FACTS: Leela is a well-known lawyer and a feminist. She usually works till late, and one day,
when she was leaving her chamber for home, two men started following her and harassing
her. She raised a hue and cry, and her colleague, Ram, who happened to be passing by, heard
her. Ram started calling out names to the other men and they got into a fight. Ram, being
strong, soon had them begging for forgiveness. As they were trying to flee, Ram picked up a
brick, lying nearby, and hit one of the men on their head. As a result, the man died.
Leela decided to advocate Rams case since she owed him her life. She pleaded the ground of
right of private defence for him, requesting the Court to acquit Ram and absolve him of all
charges. What should the Courts decision be?
(a) Ram should be acquitted since he was trying to protect himself
(b) The Court should not press charges on Ram, since he was trying to save Leela, and the
Right of Private Defence extends to protecting others

(c) Ram should be punished for murder

(d) Ram and Leela should be punished for the murder of the deceased
Q2. PRINCIPLE: Every person is entitled to freedom of conscience and to profess,
practice and propagate his religion subject to public order, morality and health.
FACTS: Abbas, of Gwalior, slaughtered a cow, in the name of religion. At that point of time,
there existed an express prohibition on the slaughter of domestic and milch animals. His
neighbors, Ramesh and Alok Nath, who were Hindus, felt that Abbass act hurt their religious
sentiments, and instituted a suit against him. Should Abbas be prosecuted for the slaughter of
the cow?
(a) No, it was part of Abbass religious practices. Hence, he should be acquitted
(b) Yes, Abbas can and should be prosecuted since he hurt the religious sentiments of his
neighbors
(c) Abbas should be prosecuted since his act amounted to cruelty
(d) Abbas can be prosecuted because the State has a right to regulate the freedom of
religion, in the interest of public order
Q.3 Problem: Seetal, a mechanic, goes to the market to purchase some spare parts for a
customer and on the way back, while visiting her friend Aditi, leaves these spare parts in
Aditis house by mistake. Aditi, who needs some of the spare parts, fits those on her own
vehicle. When Seetal finds this out, she asks Aditi to reimburse her for the spare parts used.
(a) Seetal will not succeed, because there is no contract between her and Aditi.
(b) Seetal will not succeed, because it was solely her fault that the spare parts remained at
Aditis place.
(c) Seetal will succeed. Aditis use of the parts that were intended for Seetals customers
result in an implied contract between Aditi and Seetal.
(d) None of these.
Q.4 Problem: Mr. Madhav went to a party alone in his wife Sunandas car. He usually used
his wifes car after office hours and his wife never objected to it. At the party, he got drunk.
Instead of taking the risk of driving the car, he requested his friend Mr. Vivek to drive him
back home in Sunandas car. Mr. Vivek was quite sober since he had moderately consumed
alcohol. On the way, Vivek knocked down a boy and injured his leg. Subsequently, on behalf
of the boy, a claim for compensation was brought against Mrs. Sunanda since the car
belonged to her and it was registered in her name. The insurance company refused to pay
compensation because the police report said that the person driving the car at the time of
accident had consumed alcohol.
(a) Sunanda is liable to pay compensation. Although she did not authorise Mr. Vivek to drive
the car, which caused the accident, it was registered in her name.
(b) Sunanda is not liable to pay compensation because it was the liability of Mr. Madhav who
had permission to drive the car. On the basis of this permission, he had requested Mr. Vivek to
drive the car at the time of the accident.
(c) Mr. Vivek is liable to compensate the boy fully, because he was negligent in driving the
car.
(d) Sunanda, Madhav and Vivek are all jointly liable to compensate the boy.
Q.5 Problem: During a wrestling competition organised in Chanduram Akhada in New Delhi
between X and Y, two famous wrestlers, Y died as a result of an injury sustained during the
bout. X and Y were not enemies of each other, but both of them were ambitious to achieve
the highest title in wrestling, namely, Hind Kesari. There was some competitive spirit
between them. A case is filed against X for causing the death of Y. In the court, the referee
stated that X and Y were wrestling in the usual manner.

(a) X is not guilty of causing Ys death because he did not intend to kill Y and that there is
always some risk involved in wrestling and that Y had voluntarily undertaken that risk.
(b) X is guilty of causing Ys death because he should have wrestled with necessary care and
attention so as to avoid a serious injury to his opponent and thereby endanger his life.
(c) X is guilty because perhaps he wanted to eliminate his rival in the sport of wrestling so
that he could easily get the highest award of Hind Kesari.
(d) X is not guilty because Y might not have taken proper precautions to protect himself
during the wrestling competition.
66.

Which section is criminal Trespass defined in?

(a) Article 441

(b) Article 412
(c) Article 398
(d) None of these
67.

Which Act were the family courts created under?

(a) The family court Act, 1983.

(b) The family court Act, 1984.
(c) The family court Act, 1985.
(d) The family court Act, 1986.
68.

What is the full form of POTA?

(a) Prevention of Tort Act.

(b) Prohibition of Terrorism Act.
(c) Prevention of Terrorism Act.
(d) Prohibition of Tort Act.
69.

Which among these is one of the methods of capital punishment?

(a) Electroculation.
(b) Lethal gas chambers.
(c) Lethal injections
(d) All of the above.
70.

How many approximate fast track courts are there in India?

(a) 1700
(b) 1500
(c) 1140
(d) 5000
71.

Which place in India was the Electronic Voting Machine first used in?

(a) Mumbai

(b) Delhi
(c) Chennai
(d) Goa
72.

Who appoints The Advocate General?

(a) The President.

(b) The Prime minister.
(c) The Governor of the state.
(d) None of these.
73.

A five year plan prepared by the Planning Commission is finally approved by the NDC.
What is the full form of NDC in the statement.

(a) National Development Council.

(b) National Development Committee.
(c) National Development concept.
(d) None of these.
74.

Culpable homicide is defined in which section of the IPC?

(a) Section 299

(b) Section 187
(c) Section 342
(d) Section 82
75.

Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by

(a) Coercion.
(b) Undue influence.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of these.
76.

Which torts among these are included in the category of Trespass to person?

(a) Battery
(b) Assault
(c) false imprisonment.
(d) All of the above.
77.

What is meant by Uberrima fides contracts?

(a) When one part, having no means of ascertaining the facts, is compelled to rely on the
statement of another.
(b) When a change in circumstance render a representation false.

(c) When the consent was caused by fraud.

(d) None of these.
78.

Complete the sentence by filling in the blank In order to prove a tort of nuisance, it
must be shown that the plaintiff suffered .. or .. as a result of the unreasonable
interference to the use or enjoyment of his land.

(a) Damage or the threat of damage.

(b) Acquired or prescroptive right.
(c) Authority or Statutory Authority.
(d) None of these.
79.

An act is considered to be outside the course of employment if

(a) it is an unauthorised act.

(b) it is the guiding principle.
(c) it is the incorrect guiding principle.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
80.

What is meant by Condonation?

(a) The pardoning of an offence.

(b) A challange of interest of anything which is in anothers possession.
(c) A systematic written collection of laws.
(d) None of these
51.

Swati, a mechanic, goes to the market to purchase some spare parts for a customer
and on the way back, while visiting her friend Aditi, leaves these spare parts in Aditis
house by mistake. Aditi, who needs some of the spare parts, fits those on her own vehicle.
When Swati finds this out, she asks Aditi to reimburse her for the spare parts used.

(a) Swati will not succeed, because there is no contract between her and Aditi.
(b) Swati will not succeed, because it was solely her fault that the spare parts remained at
Aditis place.
(c) Swati will succeed. Aditis use of the parts that were intended for Swatis customers result
in an implied
contract between Aditi and Swati.
(d) None of these.
52.Problem: Mr. Sampath went to a party alone in his wife Sunandas car. He usually
used his wifes car after office hours and his wife never objected to it. At the party, he
got drunk. Instead of taking the risk of driving the car, he requested his friend Mr. Vivek
to drive him back home in Sunandas car. Mr. Vivek was quite sober since he
had moderately consumed alcohol. On the way, Vivek knocked down a boy and injured
his leg. Subsequently, on behalf of the boy, a claim for compensation was brought
against Mrs. Sunanda since the car belonged to her and it was registered in her name.
The insurance company refused to pay compensation because the police report said
that the person driving the car at the time of accident had consumed alcohol.

(a) Sunanda is liable to pay compensation. Although she did not authorise Mr. Vivek to drive
the car, which
caused the accident, it was registered in her name.
(b) Sunanda is not liable to pay compensation because it was the liability of Mr. Sampath who
had permission to drive the car. On the basis of this permission, he had requested Mr. Vivek to
drive the car at the time of the accident.
(c) Mr. Vivek is liable to compensate the boy fully, because he was negligent in driving the
car.
(d) Sunanda, Sampath and Vivek are all jointly liable to compensate the boy.
53.Problem: During a wrestling competition organised in Chanduram Akhada in New
Delhi between X and Y, two famous wrestlers, Y died as a result of an injury sustained
during the bout. X and Y were not enemies of each other, but both of them were
ambitious to achieve the highest title in wrestling, namely, Hind Kesari. There was
some competitive spirit between them. A case is filed against X for causing the death
of Y. In the court, the referee stated that X and Y were wrestling in the usual manner.
(a) X is not guilty of causing Ys death because he did not intend to kill Y and that there is
always some risk involved in wrestling and that Y had voluntarily undertaken that risk.
(b) X is guilty of causing Ys death because he should have wrestled with necessary care and
attention so as to avoid a serious injury to his opponent and thereby endanger his life.
(c) X is guilty because perhaps he wanted to eliminate his rival in the sport of wrestling so
that he could easily get the highest award of Hind Kesari.
(d) X is not guilty because Y might not have taken proper precautions to protect himself
during the wrestling competition.
54.Problem: Torina and Perina are adjoining nations. In Torina, just across the
international boundary, a smelting industry is set up. The sulphur fumes discharged by
this industry are seriously polluting air near the town Perto in Perina. Perina complains
to Torina about the discharge of fumes. The dispute between Torina and Perina is
submitted to arbitration for settlement. The following claims are being considered by
the arbitrators. Which one do you think is the most reasonable and fair?
(a) Torina is a sovereign and independent state. It may use its territory in whatsoever manner
it likes.
(b) Torina says Perina will have to suffer from sulphur because it is unavoidable in the
industrial era.
(c) All states must ensure that their territories are used in such a manner as not to cause
injury to the interests of other states. Hence, Perina says that Torina must relocate the
industry.
(d) Perina agrees that Torina may use its territory in whatsoever manner it likes, but insists
that Torina should pay some compensation to Perina for the loss they are continually
suffering.
55.Problem: Nakul owns a very badly maintained 1980 model second hand motorcycle.
He pays absolutely no ttention to it and does not carry out necessary maintenance
work either. One day, while travelling on a gravelly road at a high speed, the tyre of the
motorcycle bursts. The vehicle skids and hits a pedestrian, who fractures her hip. She
sues Nakul.

(a) Naku l is no t liable since the occurrence is an unforeseeable accident.

(b) Nakul is liable because the accident could have been avoided if Nakul had taken care
enough to maintain his motorcycle in a better condition and ridden it at a safe speed.
(c) Nakul is not liable since the pedestrian should have reacted faster and moved out of the
path of the oncoming motorcycle.
(d) Nakul is liable since he was riding a 21year old motorcycle on the road.
56.Problem: Mr. Krishna Prasad borrowed Rs.10 lakh from a bank for his construction
business. He suffered heavy losses in the business and, thus, could not repay the loan
to the bank in the agreed time. The bank is planning to take some action against him.
(a) The bank may file a complaint with the local police claiming that non-payment of loan has
resulted in a loss for the bank and thus the bank is cheated by Mr. Prasad.
(b) The bank may file a case against Mr. Prasad and ask the Court to put him in jail for a few
months for non fulfilment of legal obligations.
(c) The bank may file a civil case against Mr. Prasad and ask the Court to pass a decree in
favour of the bank and enable the bank to recover as much as possible out of personal
properties of Mr. Prasad.
(d) The bank may give a public notice in local newspapers informing the general public that
Mr. Krishna Prasad is Bankrupt and people must avoid commercial transactions with him.
57.Problem: Nilesh was crossing the street. He saw a man was slapping a beggar boy for
having dirtied his car. Nilesh shot that man. Nilesh is
(a) Not protected
(b) Protected
(c) Not protected because Nileshs own body was not involved
(d) Not protected because there was no reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt
being caused by the slapping.
58.Problem: Nitin went for a picnic with his wife. Some rowdy boys started passing lewd
comments at her. Even after repeated requests by Nitin, they continued this behaviour.
Nitin asked his wife to sit in the car. He got into the car and pretended to be driving
away. Suddenly he reversed and hit the boys at the speed of 40 Km/hr. Two boys died
while the rest suffered serious injuries. Nitin is
(a) Not protected
(b) Protected
(c) Not protected because Nitins own body was not involved
(d) Not protected because there was no reasonable apprehension of rape. In law, molestation
is not the same thing as rape.
59.Problem: Mukul and Neeraj were fighting over a girl. Neeraj took out a cycle chain to
hit Mukul. Apprehending grievous hurt, Mukul struck a knife through Neerajs heart.
Mukul is
(a) Protected.
(b) Not protected.

(c) Not protected because the assault was occasioned by Mukuls picking up a fight.
(d) Not protected because there was no reasonable apprehension of grievous hurt.
60.Problem: Mahesh was holding the birthday party of his daughter. Some of his friends
decided to present her with a car. To create an element of surprise, they decided to
kidnap her for a few minutes while the party was in full swing and then get her back in
the new car. They put the plan into action. While they were kidnapping, Manoj got very
alarmed and asked the guards to open fire. The guards killed all the five friends. Manoj
is
(a) Not protected.
(b) Protected because he did not kill, the guards did.
(c) Not protected because Manojs own body was not involved.
(d) Protected because to any ordinary person there would have appeared a reasonable
apprehension of kidnapping.
61.What is meant by Capital Offence?
(a) An offence punishable with death.
(b) An offense of attributing fault.
(c) The quotatin of decided earlier cases.
(d) None of these.
62.What is meant by term Acta exteriora indicant interior secreta?
(a) Acts indicate the intention.
(b) The law of the place where the contract is made.
(c) During litigation let nothing be changed.
(d) None of these.
63.Under which article does the President of India can constitute a Finance Commission,
which is usually for five years?
(a) Article 279
(b) Article 280
(c) Article 281
(d) Article 282
64.Complete the sentence The crime of theft is dealt with in section .. of the IPC.
(a) Article 378
(b) Article 420
(c) Article 276
(d) None of these.
65.Under which article, in order to be elected as the President of India, a person must hold
any office of profit under the Government of India/State government/local government.

(a) Article 50
(b) Article 58
(c) Article 46
(d) Article 32
1. What is the number of Schedules in Constitution of India?
(A)8
(B)10
(C)12
(D)13
2. In which year, The Citizenship Act passed?
(A)1952
(B)1955
(C)1956
(D)1959
3. Which among the following articles of Constitution of India abolishes the untouchablity?
(A)Article 15
(B)Article 16
(C)Article 17
(D)Article 20
4. Which among the following articles speaks about impeachment of the President of India?
(A)Article 60
(B)Article 61
(C)Article 62
(D)Article 63
5. Which among the following articles defines the Anything that can be generally acceptable
as payment for goods and services or settlement of debts is Money. It is the element of
confidence that ..Money Bill?
(A)Article 110
(B)Article 111
(C)Article 112
(D)Article 113
6. The Indian Constitution has adopted Parliamentary System of Constitution from which
among the following countries?
(A)UK
(B)US
(C)Russia
(D)Japan
7. Which among the following is the correct age of retirement of Judge of Supreme Court?
(A)58 years
(B)60 years
(C)62 years

(D)65 years
8. Who appoints ad hoc Judges of the Supreme Court?
(A)President
(B)Vice President
(C)President with advice of Council of Ministers
(D)Chief Justice of the Supreme Court with permission of President
9. Consider the following:
1. Legislative Council
2. Upper House of Parliament
3. Municipal Council
Which among the above are permanent ?
(A)1 Only
(B)1 & 2
(C)2 & 3
(D)1, 2 & 3
10. The Town Planning Committee comes under which among the following parts of
Constitution of India?
(A)Part VII
(B)Part IX
(C)Part IXA
(D)None of them
11. Which among the following body has been set up under the mandate of Constitution of
India?
(A)National Development Council
(B)Planning Commission
(C)Interstate Council
(D)National Advisory Council
12. What is the maximum life of an ordinance promulgated by President of India?
(A)6 months
(B)7.5 months
(C)9 months
(D)12 months
13. Which among the following were inserted in the constitution of India on recommendations
of Swaran Singh Committee?
(A)Fundamental Rights
(B)Directive Principles of State Policy
(C)Fundamental Duties
(D)12th Schedule
14. The Promulgation of an ordinance by a President is done when ___?
(A)President feels that ordinance should be promulgated (on discretion)
(B)When Supreme Court advises the President
(C)When Council of Ministers advises President

(D)When any house of the parliament passes a resolution

15. For which among the following periods, an Attorney General is appointed in India?
(A)2 years
(B)3 years
(C)5 years
(D)Any period which the president feels suitable
1. The term tort derives its genesis from a latin word meaning
a. Twisted
b. Complicated
c. Right
d. wrong
2. The proponent of Pigeon Hole Theory
a. Denning
b. Brown
c. Coke
d. None of the above
3. Which of these remedies are unavailable in Torts
a. Injunction
b. Nominal Damages
c. Imprisonment
d. Exemplary Damages
4. Which of these do not constitute a General defense in Torts
a. Violent non fit injuria
b. Injuria sine damno
c. Vis major
d. All of the above are defences
5. Which of these is a test to determine reasonable foresight in Torts
a. Reasonable man
b. Common man
c. Common Person
d. Judge
6. Battery refers to whereas assault refers to
a. Threat of force and actual use of force
b. Use of force and threat of force
c. Use of threat of force in all circumstances
d. Use of force in all circumstances
7. A cause of action accrues in Torts where there is the breach of a duty
a. Political duty
b. Legal duty
c. Moral duty

d. All of the above

8. Intention is relevant in which of these torts
a. Malicious prosecution
b. Nuisance
c. Negligence
d. All of the above
9. Which of these is not a test to determine the relationship of a master and servant
a. Direction and Control
b. Exclusive Remuneration
c. Contract of master and servant
d. Independent and joint tortfeasors
10. A master is liable for whereas he is not liable for
a. Authorized Act, authorized act done wrongly
b. Unauthorized Act, Unauthorized act done wrongly
c. Authorized Act done wrongly, unauthorized done wrongly
d. None of the above
11. The burden of proof shifts to the defendant in which of these case
a. Damnum Sine Injuria
b. Injuria Sine Damno
c. Res Ipsa Loquitor
12. Which of these is not correctly matched
a. Blasphemy: Speaking Against God
b. Libel: Written Defamation
c. Slander: Spoken Defamation
d. All are correctly matched
13. Which of these is not a defense in Defamation
a. Truth
b. Fair Comment
c. Statements made in Parliament
d. All are defences
14. The Rule of absolute liability was enunciated in India in MC Mehta v. UOI which
pertained to the
a. Bhopal Gas Tragedy case
b. Oleum Gas Leak case
c. Uphaar Cinema Tragedy case
d. Burning of school in Tamil Nadu
15. Which of these situations does not constitute a qualified agency in law
a. Express Agency
b. Necessity
c. Conduct

d. Self assumption by agent

16. Nuisance occurs where
a. The enjoyment of a legal right is interfered with
b. A person is restrained from going anywhere
c. A person fails to perform his/her legal duty
d. None of the above
17. In which of these situations will the State not be afforded the defense of Sovereign
immunity
a. Maintaince of Law and Order
b. Defence functions
c. Consumer liability in PSU manufactured products
d. All of the above
Supreme Court

High Court

1. The Supreme Court is a

federal Court. Its only seat is
located at Delhi. Its bench can
be established at other places
also but so far it has not been
established.

1. There is a provision for a High Court in

each state and each union territory but
two or more states or two or more union
territories or states union territories,
together, may establish a common High
Court.

2. The Judges of the Supreme

Court are appointed by the
President.

2. The judges of the High Court are also

appointed by the President.

3. A person shall have the

following qualification to become eligible for the
appointment as a judge of the
Supreme Court if:

3. A person shall not be eligible to

become a judge of a High Court unless
such a person.

(i) He has been a judge of a

High Court for not less than five
years in succession; or

(i) has been a judicial officer for not less

than 10 years within the territory of India;
or

(ii) He has been an advocate of

a High Court for not less than
10 years in succession; or

(ii) has been an advocate for not less than

10 years in a High Court in India.

(iii) He is a distinguished Jurist

in the opinion of the President.

4. The judges of the High Courts retire

from their office after attaining the age of
62 years.

4. The judges of the Supreme

Court retires from their office
after attaining the age of 65
years.

5. The judges and the Chief Justice of the

High Courts are removed from the office
by the President in the same manner as
adopted in the case of the Supreme Court.

5. The President can remove the

Chief Justice and the other
judges on the basis of
impeachment motion passed in
the Parliament.

6. The salary of the Chief Justice is Rs

30,000 and of the other judges is Rs
26,000 per month.

6. The salary of the Chief Justice

is Rs 33,000 and of the other
judges is Rs 30,000 per month.

7. The judges of the High Courts cannot

plead before any Court during the term of
their office. After retirement, they cannot
plead before any Court below the High
Court. That means they can plead only
before other High Courts and the Supreme
Court.

7. The judges of the Supreme

Court after their retirement and
during their term of office are
not eligible to plead before any
court/authority within the
territory of India.

8. The judges of the High Court may be

promoted as the Judges of the Supreme
Court.

8. The Judges of the Supreme

Court cannot be transferred and
demoted in office.

9. The Supreme Court is not bound to

abide by the deci- 9. The High Courts are
bound to abide by the decisions of sions
of the High Courts.

10. The salary and the allowances of the

Judges of the Su- 10. The salary and other
allowances of the Judges of the preme
Court are charged upon the Consolidated
Fund High Courts are charged upon the
Consolidated Fund of of India.

11. The cases involving the interpretation

of the Constitu- 11. The cases involving
the interpretation of the Constitution are
decided only by the Supreme Court

1. Which writ can be issued by a High Court to direct a public official or the government not to
enforce a law which is unconstitutional?
a) Certiorari b) Prohibition c) Quo Warranto d) Mandamus
2. In which of the following is the residuary powers vested according to our constitution?
a) Union Parliament b) Prime Minister c) President d) Supreme Court
3. The state of Bombay was split into two states Gujarat and Maharashtra in the year
a) 1960 b) 1972 c) 1956 d) 1980
4. The constituent Assembly adopted the design of the National Flag on
a) 22nd July, 1947 b) 26th November, 1949 c) 26th January, 1950 d) 15th August, 1947
5. From which of the following is the word Satyameva Jayate inscribed in our national
emblem taken?
a) Mahabharata b) Mundaka Upanishad c) Kathopanishad d) Ramayana
6. Which article of our constitution forms the core of the Chapter on Fundamental Rights?
a) Article 19 b) Article 18 c) Article 20 d) Article 21
7. How many categories of freedom can an Indian citizen have?
a) 6 b) 8 c) 9 d) 12
8. Which schedule of our constitution deals with the languages approved by the constitution?
a) Fourth Schedule b) Eighth Schedule c) Tenth Schedule d) Fifth Schedule
9. Which schedule of our constitution deals with the Anti-Defection law?
a) Fourth Schedule b) Eighth Schedule c) Tenth Schedule d) Fifth Schedule
10. Who appoints the Secretary General of the Lok Sabha?
a) Speaker b) Prime Minister c) Members of the Lok Sabha d) President
11. For what period can the Vice President hold the office of the President in the event of the
death of the President?
a) Two months b) Six months c) One month d) Three months
12. A person seeking election to the office of Vice President must have completed what age?
a) 35 years b) 30 years c) 25 years d) 18 years
13. Who is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha?
a) President b) Vice President c) Speaker d) None of these
14. Who was the first Chairman of the Planning Commission?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru b) BR Ambedkar c) C Rangarajan d) KC Pant
15. The full status of statehood was conferred upon the Union territories of Manipur and
Tripura in
a) 1956 b) 1960 c) 1985 d) 1972
1. When was the draft Constitution of India prepared by the Drafting Committee
submitted to the President of the Constituent Assembly?
(A) 28th Feb. 1948
(B) 26th Feb. 1948
(C) 21st Feb. 1948
(D) 25th Feb. 1948
2. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?

(A) 25th Nov. 1949

(B) 29th Nov. 1949
(C) 26th Nov. 1949
(D) 27th Nov. 1949
3. How many Princely States existed at the time when the Constituent Assembly
was making the Constitution?
(A) 600
(B) 800
(C) 900
(D) 950
4. When were the election to the Constituent Assembly held?
(A) July 1946
(B) Aug. 1946
(C) Sep. 1946
(D) Oct. 1946
5. How many total members were elected in the Constituent Assembly?
(A) 296
(B) 293
(C) 291
(D) 292
6. In the Parliament of India Upper House in known as?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of States
(D) None of the above
7. In the Parliament, Lower House is called as?
(A) Legislative Assembly
(B) Legislative Council
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha (House of People)
8. In the Constituent Assembly who was the Head of the Union Constitution
Committee?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Subhash Buse
(D) None of the above
9. In the Constituent Assembly which words were associated with the Parliament?
(A) Parliament of the Legislature
(B) Parliament of the Union
(C) Parliament of the Federation
(D) All the above
10. In the Constituent Assembly, which committee recommended that Indian
Constitution adopt Parliamentary Form of Executive?

(A) Drafting Committee

(B) Constitutional Committee
(C) Union Constitution Committee
(D) All the above
Indian Constitution List of Important age limits and time limits for Executive,
Legislature and Judiciary :
1. Minimum age for election to tie post of President/Vice-President/Governor
35 years
2. Minimum age for election as MP (Lok Sabha)/MLA

25 years

3. Minimum age for election as MP (Rajya Sabha)/MLC 30 years

4. Upper age limit for appointment as a judge of Supreme Court, Attorney
General, Comptroller& AUDITOR General, member of Public Service Commission 65 years
5. Upper age limit for appointment as a judge of 62 years
6. High court/ Advocate General/member of State Commission Age between which education
has been made a fundamental right 6 to 14 years
Important Time Limits in Indian Constitution Condition
1. Duration Maximum interval between two sessions of Parliament/State Assembly Six
months
2. Maximum life of Presidential Ordinance Six months
3. Maximum period within which an election is to be held to fill a vacancy created by the
death, resignation or removal or otherwise of a President Six months
3. Maximum duration for which Presidents rule can be imposed in a state
Six months
4. Time after which money bill passed by Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed By Rajya
Sabha when no action is taken by it 14 Days
5. Maximum duration for which a President/Vice-President/Governor may hold office from the
date on which he enters his office 5 years
6. Maximum duration for which a Lok Sabha/State Legislature may function from the date
appointed for its first meeting 5 years
7. Maximum period for which the term of a Lok Sabha/State Legislature be extended while a
Proclamation of Emergency is in operation 6 month
8. Maximum duration for which a member of either House of Parliament may be absent
without permission before his seat is declared is vacant 60 days
9. Maximum period within which a person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be
produced before the nearest magistrate 24 hours
10. Maximum duration for which a Panchayat/Municipality shall function from the date
appointed for first meeting 5 years
11. Maximum duration for which a member of a Public Service Commission may hold his
office subject to his not attaining the age of sixty five years 6 years

12. Maximum duration for which a member of a State Commission may hold his office
subject to his not attaining the age of sixty -two years 6 years
1. The Constitution recognizes that the sovereignty of the Constitution lies in
a. We the people
b. The President of India
c. The Parliament of India
d. The President and the Prime Minister of India
2. The Constitution of India cannot be described as
a. A quasi federal constitution
b. A semi-rigid constitution
c. A partly written partly unwritten constitution
d. a detailed and lengthy constitution
3. The Present Day Constitution has
a. 395 Articles 22 Parts and 12 Schedules
b. 385 Articles 12 Parts and 22 Schedules
c. 392 Articles 12 Parts and 18 Schedules
d. 400 Articles 22 Parts and 24 Schedules
4. The following of these were not adopted from the US Constitution
a. Preamble
b. Fundamental Rights
c. Directive Principles of State Policy
d. Supreme Court
5. Residuary powers in India unlike the United States is vested in
a. Concurrently in the Union and the States
b. Only in the Union
c. Only in the States
d. Neither of the above
6. Which of these is incorrectly matched
a. System of Republic: US and France
b. Separation of Judiciary from other organs: United States
c. Idea of Federation: Govt. of India Act, 1935 and Canada
d. Cabinet System: United States
7. The system of Concurrent List is derived from
a. Canada
b. Australia
c. U.K.
d. Japan/USSR
8. Which does not talk about the Preamble at all
a. Re: Berubari, which held that Preamble is not a part of the Constiution
b. Keshavanand Bharti, the Basic Structure case which recognized preamble to be a
part but not regular part
c. S.R.Bommai, dealt with secularism as a part of the preamble and the constitution
d. All of them dealt with the preamble in the above mentioned manner.
9. The State is prohibited from making a law in derogation of fundamental Rights
by
virtue of
a. Article 12
b. Article 11

c. Article 13
d. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution
10. Which of these is not a fundamental Right
a. Right to Vote
b. Right to Information
c. Right to Property
d. Neither of the above
1. A master is liable for the wrongs committed by his servants. It is called
a. Joint liability
b. Vicarious liability
c. Concurrent liability
d. All the above
2. In law of Torts, always unliquidated damages are awarded. The meaning of unliquidated is
a. Not ascertainable
b. Approximately arrived at
c. Penal & exemplary
d. Both (a) and (b) above
3. The Law of Torts has largely developed through
a. Judicial decisions
b. Customs
c. Legislations
d. None of the above
4. ______are words which appear innocent, but contain a latent meaning which is
defamatory
a. Libel
b. Slander
c. Innuendoes
d. None of the above
5. In an action for negligence, the plaintiff has to prove:
a. Existence of a duty
b. Breach of duty by defendant
c. Legal injury because of breach
d. All of the above
6. If a newspaper published a defamatory article written by `X, who can be sued?
a. Publisher of that newspaper
b. Printer of that newspaper
c. Mr. X only
d. Mr. X, Printer, Publisher and Editor
7. ______ is an act which is twisted, crooked, which is not straight and lawful
a. Tort
b. Crime
c. Wrong
d. None of the above
8. In criminal law intention is an essential constituent of offence. In Law of Torts
a. Intention is relevant
b. Intention is irrelevant

c. Intention is relevant only in some torts

d. None of the above
9. Defamation infringes a persons right to
a. Reputation
b. Pride
c. Privilege
d. Status
10. The act of unlawfully entering into anothers property
a. Breach of property
b. Trespass
c. Triplication
d. Trover
11. The law of torts deals with
a. Injuries to person or property caused by failure to take reasonable care
b. Money transactions
c. Partnerships
d. Industrial production
12.
Assertion (A) None should make unnatural use of his land.
Reason (R) It may prove fatal for the public at large.
a. Both A and R are true
b. Both A and R are false
c. A is true R is false
d. R is true A is false.
13. Assertion (A) When right of a private individual has been infringed by other individual, it is
called tort.
Reason (R) When right of public at large has been infringed it is called crime.
a. Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
c. Both A and R are false
d. A is true R is false
14. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
a. ubi Jus ibi Where there is a right there is damage
b. res ipsa loquitur things speak for themselves
c. damnum sine injuria damage without injury
d. injuria sine damnum injury without damage
15. Slander is a ______
a. a crime
b. a tort
c. a breach of contract
d. a breach of trust
16. Principle: If a professional does nt take care like an ordinary prudent person, he is
guilty of negligence and shall have to pay compensation to those who suffer.
Fact: Kapoor, a businessman appointed a surgeon Dr. K.S. Pratap for completing surgery to
remove deformation in the leg of his son, Amit. During the surgery an attendant nurse left a
small needle inside, which resulted in a serious abyss requiring second operation. After the
second operation, leg was shortened. Has the doctor committed any wrong?

a. No, he has not committed any wrong; it was the nurse who was negligent.
b. No, he has not committed any wrong; as such lapses are common in surgeries.
c. Yes, the doctor is guilty of medical negligence, as there is absence of due care
d. Yes, both the doctor as well as the nurse is liable.
17. Principle: No one is responsible for unforeseen circumstances, but liable for not
taking due care.
Fact: Rahul, aged about 19 years, was playing cricket with his friends in housing
societies lane where they live. While playing he made a good shot, which hit a window of a
new Maruti car and broke the window. Has Rahul to pay for?
a. No, Rahul is not responsible, as it is common for boys to play street cricket.
b. Yes, Rahul is liable, as breaking window is a predictable consequence of playing
cricket on streets.
c. Yes, Rahul is liable, as he hit the shot which broke the window.
d. No, All the boys are liable to pay, not just Rahul.
18. Principle: Servants negligence is masters responsibility.
Fact: In a shopping complex, Amir Ali has dry fruits shop in the basement. The
shopping complex remained closed on Saturday. Abeera Co. manages the complex.
The watchman forgot to close the wheel of reservoir on Friday night and the water
overflowed. No one noticed that incident. The water damaged the fruits in the shop of Amir
Ali. From
whom, if any, Amir Ali may recover his loss?
a. Amir Ali should sue the watchman, as he was directly responsible
b. Amir Ali should sue Abeera & Co. for the watchmans negligence
c. Amir Ali cannot sue anybody, as his shop is in the basement.
d. Nobody is responsible to Amir Ali
19. Principle: Without lawful authority, if a person is restricted from moving in a direction
in which he is entitled to move, it amounts to an offence of wrongful restraint.
Fact: In view of the religious procession scheduled to be taken through the streets of the city,
police erected barricades on the main road to prevent the traffic movement. Consequently,
A who had to reach the airport couldnt reach in time.
a. A can succeed, as the barricades on the road prevented him from moving freely.
b. A cannot succeed as religious processions are always authorized by the Government.
c. A can succeed, as he was not informed about the procession earlier.
d. A cannot succeed, as the barricades were installed under lawful authority
20. Principle: A master is liable for the acts committed by his servant in the course
of employment.
Fact: A instructs his driver B to drive his vehicle from the office back to home. He is also
instructed not to carry any unauthorized person in the car. B one day while driving empty
car back to home picks up his friend, C, who stays close to As house. In the course of
driving the car towards As house, he collides with a vehicle.C is injured in the accident. Is A
liable to compensate to C?
a. A shall be liable, because B was in the course of employment at the time of accident
b. A shall not be liable, B was not in the course of employment when he took C inside the
car.
c. C got into the car at his own risk, and therefore, he cannot sue anybody.
d. A shall not be liable, as he had instructed B not to give lift to unauthorized persons.
21. Principle:
The owner of a land is entitled to the column of air space above the surface ad infinitum. But,
the right is restricted to such height as is necessary for the ordinary use and employment of
his land, and the structure on it.
Fact:

A had constructed a single-storeyed house on a corner site. He had no intention of building an

additional floor. B his neighbour, who ran an internet parlour got a hoarding made, which
protruded over As house at a height of around 6 feet above the terrace. A sues B for
trespass.
a. A will succeed since Bs act amounts to trespass.
b. A will not succeed since he was anyway not planning to build and additional storey.
c. A will not succeed since the hoarding is not obstructing him.
d. A will not succeed since B has a right to erect a hoarding.
22. Principle: It is settled principle that an occupier should not do a dangerous act
without adequate warning if he knows or suspects that a trespasser is present.
Factual Situation: A was cutting a large tree on his land. Some boys were fooling
about nearby. A paid no attention as the boys were clearly trespassers, when the tree fell,
one of the boys was hit by a falling branch and suffered injury.
a. The boy was illegally present and cannot have the protection of law.
b. A was liable as he did not give warning of the danger likely to arise by the felling of
tree although he knew that the boy was present.
c. A is not liable as there is no duty to do good and warning a person who was illegally
on the premises.
d. A was carrying out his lawful profession on his own land and anyone came there, at
his peril. Hence A was not liable.
23. Principle: Damages can be recovered for nervous shock.
Facts: Avinash on April 1 as a joke falsely told Balu that his father met with an accident and
was injured seriously. By reason of this misrepresentation, Balu suffered a violent shock and
his hair turned grey and his life was for some time in great danger. Later, Balu intends to file
suit against Avinsah. Advise
a. Balu can successfully plead the case on grounds of nervous shock
b. Balu cannot be successful in his suit, for he should have known that it is common for
people to play such pranks on April 1
c. Balu cannot be successful, as his nerves are really weak.
d. None of these
24. Principle: The employer is liable to pay compensation for the injuries suffered by his
workers, if the accident has arisen out of and in the course of employment. The liability is
absolute and the employer will not have any defences if the accident results in death or total
disablement.
Facts: Mr. Tharun is working as an unskilled worker in the furniture fabricating industry run
by Mr. Omar in Bangalore. While Mr. Tharun and his co-workers were working on
the preparation of a double decker iron cot, the thick iron sheet fell on the head of Mr. Tharun.
He suffered serious head injuries. He was hospitalized and he died in the hospital. In the
Government Hospital, where Mr. Tharun was admitted, the doctors delayed attending Mr.
Tharun. It was also found out in the course of treatment that Mr. Tharun was drunk at the
time when the accident occurred.
a. The hospital and the Government are liable to pay compensation to the dependents
of Mr. Tharun as there was negligence on the part of the doctors.
b. Mr. Omar is not liable to pay any compensation to the dependents of Mr. Tharun as
he was drunk at the time of the accident.
c. Mr. Omar is liable to pay compensation as per the law to the dependents of Mr.
Tharun.
d. Mr. Omar can argue that the drunken condition of Mr. Tharun is the reason for his
death.
25. PRINCIPLE: A tort-feasor(wrong-doer) is liable if intended consequences of his act are
evidently foreseeable.

FACTS: Marcus threw an ignited missile into a crowded market place. The fiery missile came
down the shed of a vendor of ginger bread who in order to protect himself, caught
it dexterously and threw it away from him. It then fell on the shed of another merchant,
who in order to protect himself passed it on precisely in the same way, till at last it burst
in Brutuss face and put his eye out. Brutus sued Marcus. Decide.
a. Marcus is not liable as he did not foresee the injury suffered by Brutus.
b. Marcus is liable as he intentionally threw the missile into the market place.
c. Marcus is not liable as it was the merchant who ultimately threw the missile on
Brutus.
d. Marcus is not liable as the injury suffered by Brutus is of a remote consequence.