Book 2 Muzammil

Chapter: 11
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
Bioenergetics concerns:
(a)
The initial and final energy states of reaction components
(b)
The mechanism of reaction
(c)
The time needed for chemical change to take place
(d)
All the above
The standard free energy of hydrolysis of ATP to ADP is approximately:

(a) +7.3kcal/mole
(b) 7.3kcal/molc
(c) -7.3kcal/mole
(d) Both a & b
is a quinone derivative with a long, hydrophobic isoprenoid tail:

(a) Plastocyanin
(b) Coenzyme Q
(c) Ferrodoxin
(d) Cytochrome
Before entering Krebs cycle pyruvate is changed to:

(a) Oxaloacetate
(b) PEP
(c) Pyruvate
(d) Acetyl CoA
are cyclic compounds that readily bind metal ions:

(a) Pyrroles
(b) Porphyrins
(c) Benzenes
(d) All the above
Electrical energy passing through a hot plate to produce heat energy

would be a good example of:
7.
8.
(a)
The first law of thermodynamics
(b)
The second law of thermodynamics
(c)
Entropy
(d)
All of the above
The major energy currency of the cell is:

(a) ATP
(b) ADP
(c) AMP
(d) DNA
The breaking of one high-energy bond in ATP releases approximately

kcal of energy:
9.
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 25
The end products of fermentation are and:

(a) Pyruvate & glucose
(b) Pyruvate & lactic acid
(c) Lactic acid & alcohol
(d) Alcohol & glucose
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
The net ATP gain in glycolysis is:

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
The transfer of electrons from one molecule to another is termed:

(a) A redox reaction
(b) An oxidation-reduction reaction
(c) A transfer reaction
(d) Botha&bare correct
Fermentation regenerates ultimately obtain ATP:

(a)
FAD
(c)
ADP
which is needed to drive glycolysis to

(a)
NAD+
(c)
AMP
When an amide group is removed from an amino acid to yield ammonia,

this is termed:
(a) Glycolysis (b) Lipolysis
(c) Amination (d) Deamination
The total number of ATPs produced from the complete aerobic oxidation of one
molecule of glucose is:
(a) 30 (b) 36
(c) 38 (d) 44
The Krebs cycle and glycolysis is regulated by the enzyme:
(a) Glucase
(b) Phosphatase
(c) Phosphofructokinase
(d) Enolase
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, needed for the conversion of Pyruvic acid to

Acetyl CO-A is located in:
Intermembranal space of mitochondria
Matrix of mitochondria
Cytoplasm
Grana of chloroplast
What happens during light reaction?

*
CO2 reacts with H2
Photosynthesis takes place:

(t) Only in green light
*
Only in sunlight
(b) (c) Lysis of water molecule (d)
In visible light obtained from any source
Only in high intensity of light
The prerequisities of Calvins cycle are:

(a) H20, C02, ATP
(b)
(c) C02> ATP, NADPH2
(d)
Synthesis of PGAL CO2 combines with H2O

ATP, H20, NADPH2
NADPH2, H2O,
co2
Chemical which absorbs light energy and changes it to chemical energy is

(a)
Chlorophyll a (b) Chlorophyll b
(a)
Xanthophyll
(d) Carotene
Action spectrum is:

(a)
A graph showing amount of light absorbed
(b)
A graph showing rate of photosynthesis
(c)
A graph showing absorption of light
(d)
A graph showing amount of C02 released
20.
1.
In respiration, pyruvic acid is:
(b)
Formed only when the cell is with mitochondria
(c)
Formed only when oxygen is available
(d)
Formed only when cell is performing aerobic respiration
(e)
Commonly formed as intermediate product of aerobic and anaerobic
respiration
2.
Number of steps involved in release of C02 during Krebs cycle are:
. (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 6 . (d) 12
3.
Mitochondrial criste are sites of:
(a) Krebs cycle
(b) Oxidation reduction reaction
(c) Protein synthesis (d) Lipid synthesis

4.
Number of carhort atoms present in citric acid, oxaloacetic acid pyruvic
acid are respectively:

(a) 6,3 and 3 (b) 6,4 and 3
(c) 5,4 and 3 (d) 6,4 and 2
5.
Removal of hydrogen and C02 from substrate is called:
(a) Oxidation (b) Decarboxylation

(c) Reductive carboxylation (d) Oxidative decarboxylation
6.
End products of aerobic respiration are:
(a) Sugar & Qxygen (b) Water & Energy

(c) Carbon dioxide & Energy (d) Carbon dioxide, water & energy
7.
Formation of lactic acid from pyruvic acid requires:
(a) Reduction (b) Oxidation

(c) Decarboxylation (d) Hydration
8.
When a pair of electron from NADPH2 is transported through respiration
ETS, it results in the formation of:

(a) 5 molecules of ATP
(b) 4 molecules ot ATP
(c) 3 molecules of ATP
(d) 2 molecules of ATP
9.
Which of the following process is used in the conversion of pyruvate to
acetyl CoA:
(a) Oxidative decarboxylation(b) Oxidative dehydrogenation
(c) Oxidation phosphorylation
10.
(d) * Oxidation dehydration
Enzymes taking part in glycolysis are present in:
(a) Vacuole
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Cytoplasm
(d) Both b & c
11.
Aerobic respiration of one glucose produces:
12 NADH + 2FADH2 + 38 ATP
12 NADH + 30 ATP + H20
8 NADH + 2FADH2 + 2ATP
10 NADH2 + 2 FADH2 + 2 ATP + 2 GTP
Chapter: 12
NUTRITION
The digestion of the lipids starts in:
(a) Oral cavity (c) Duodenum
Lingual lipase digests lipids in the:
(a) Oral cavity (c) Stomach
The nutrition of an animal includes:
12.
The process of taking in food
13.
The process of digesting food
14.
The processes of absorbing and storing food
15.
All of the above
Bats, that eat primarily arthropods, are called:

(a) Autotrophs (b) Heterotrophs
(c) Carnivores (d) Insectivores
A vertebrate, such as yourself, can extract approximately
per gram of carbohydrate:
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?

(a) A (b) B |2
(c) D (d) K
W hich of the following spends the most time eating?
(a) Herbivores (b) Carnivores
(c) Suspension feeders
V.. ' i
(d) Discontinuous feeders
li'
Gizzards are found in all of the following except:

(a) Crocodilians
(b) Birds
(c) Some iishes
(d) Mammals
(b) Stomach (d) Jejunum - ~ r(b) Tongue (d) Jejunum

3.
4.
5.
calories
6.
7.
8.
In mammals, HCI is secreted by
(a) Chief (c) Zymogen
9.
. cells:
(b) Parietal (d) HCI
Which of the following is necessary for the emulsification of fats?
(a) Bile
(b) Pancreatic juice
(c) Intestinal juice
(d) All of the above
Structures of the small intestine that aid in the absorption of nutrients include:
(f)
Villi
E. coli (d) Sphincters
10.
11.
"94]
f
(b) Cilia
16.
An example of absorption is the:
(g)
Movement of food by peristalsis
(h)
Active transport of glucose into a villus
(i)
Hydrolysis of a peptide into amino acids
(j)
Release of secretin in the presence of HCl
17.
Which of the following enzymes is correctly matched with its site of
production?
(a) Pepsin - liver
(b) Lipase - stomach
' (c) Amylase - pancreas

18.
(d) Trypsin - salivary glands
The enzyme amylase is produced by which organs?
(a) Liver and duodenum
(b) Duodenum and pancreas
(c) Salivary glands and liver (d) Pancreas and salivary glands
19.
The gall bladder functions to:
(a) Store bile (b) Digest fats

(c) Store urine (d) Release sodium bicarbonate
20.
The emulsification of fats is a result of the release of secretions from the:
(a) Pancreas
(b) Gall bladder
(c) Small intestine

21.
(d) Salivary glands
The presence of large
numbers of mitochondria in the cells lining
the small intestine allows it to:

(a) Release HCl
(b) Produce bile
(c) Absorb glucose
(d) Synthesize vitamins
22.
Eating which of the following would slow the rate of chemical digestion in
the mouth?
(a) Cheese
(b) Ice cream
(c) Potato chips
(d) Bread with butter
23.
Fresh saliva is alkaline with a pH nearly:
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 4.5 (d) 7

24.
Ptyalin is inactivated by a component of gastric juice known as:
(a) Pepsin
(b) Mucus
(c) Rennin
(d) HCl
25.
In the absence of enterokinase, the digestion of
would be
affected in our
intestine:
(a) Amino acid
(c) Starch
26.
(b) Albumin
(d) Maltose
Which one of the followings is not part of the large intestine?
(a) Rectum
(b) Colon
(c) Caecum
(d) Duodenum
27.
Bile salts act as activator of which enzyme?
(a) Pepsinogen(b) Trypsinogen

(c) Lipase
28.
(d) Pancreatic amylase
Bile contribution to digestion is
(a) Nucleic acid metabolism (b) Phagocytosis

/(c) Emulsification of dietary lipids (d) Carbohydrate digestion
29.
The main function of lacteals
in the villi
of human small intestine
is the absorption of:

(k)
Water & Mineral salts (b)
Amino acids & Glucose
Glucose & Vitamins (d)
Fatty acids & Glycerol
The backflow of faecal matter in the large intestine is prevented by the
presence of:
27.
28.
(a) Pyloric sphincter
(c) Ileocolic sphincter
The HC1 in gastric juice converts:
(a) Disaccharide to monosaccharide
(b)
(d)
Anal sphincters
Cardiac sphincter
(b)
Pepsinogen to pepsin
(c) Prorennin to rennin

(d) Polypeptide to peptide
The movements in the gut wall are known as:
(a) Metachronal
(b) Diastole
(c) Systole
(d) Peristalsis
(b)
Surgical removal of gall bladder in human beings would lead to:
(a) Jaundice
(b) Increased acidity in the intestine
(c) Impairment of the digestion of fat (d) None of these

(c)
Enterokinase converts:
(a) Pepsinogen into pepsin
(b) Protein into polypeptide
(c) Trypsinogen into trypsin (d) All of these

(d)
During prolonged fasting, in what sequence are the following organic
compounds used up by the body?

(b)
First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly lipids
(c)
First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins
(d)
First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins
(e)
First proteins next lipids and lastly carbohydrates
(e)
Gastric juice contains:
(a) Pepsin, HC1
(b) Pepsin, Trypsin
(c) Pepsin, Renin
(d) None of these
Chapter: 13
ASEOUSEXCHANGE
Fetal Haemoglobin contains:
(a) 2 a & 2 P chains (c) 2 p & 2 y chains
Haemoglobin A formation starts in
30.
Blood
(l)
Bone marrow,
Heme is prosthetic group for:
Haemoglobin
Cytochromes ^
2 a & 2 y chains
(f)
1 a & 1 y chains
after eight month of pregnancy:

31.
Liver
(f)
Spleen
Myoglobin All the above

1.
2.
3.
(b)
(d)
4.
Ions
Oxidation process Does not produce ATP
C3 Plants None of them
is called photorespiration:
02
Serine
6.
7.
9.
Albumin
Actin
How many haeme group(s) are present in single haemoglobin?
(tf) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4
Approximately one third of the mass of a mammalian red blood cell is:
(a) Water
(b) Haemoglobin
(c) Cytoplasm (d)

Which is not related to photorespiration?
(a) Increases crop yield
(b)
(c) Decreases photosynthetic output (d)

Which type of plants show photorespiration?
(a) CAM plants
(b)
(c) C* Plants (d)

The pathway in which RuBP is converted into
(a) C02 . '
(b)
(c) Glycine
(d)
Most abundant protein in the world is:

(a) Myosin
(b)
(c) Rubisco
(d)
(e)
The glycolate produced in photorespiration diffuses into:
(a) Mitochondria
(b)
(c) Glyoxisomes
. (d)
(f)
The heart of the fish is:
(a) Single circuit
(b)
(c) Triple circuit
(d)
(g)
In frog gaseous exchange occurs through:
(a)
Lungs (b)
32.
Buccal chamber
(d)
Ribosomes
Peroxisomes
Double circuit None of these
Skin
All of these
13.
14.
Respiratory distress syndrome occurs in infants with gestation period less than
months:
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Haemoglobin can absorb maximum oxygen:

(a) In the water
(b)
(c) On the earth
(d)
Maximum amount of O2 absorbed in normal human blood at sea level is:

(a) 20 ml/lOOml of blood
(b) 2 ml/100ml of blood
(c) 0.2 ml/ 100ml of blood
(d) 20 ml/1000ml of blood
Arterial blood contains about

(a). 50%
(b) 54 %
(c) 25%
(d) 75%
of CO: per 100 ml of blood:
_ tuberculosis is a disease of lungs in which inside of lungs is damaged:

Respiratory
(b) Lung
Pulmonary
(d) Mycobacterium
is an allergic reaction to pollen, spores, cold, humidity and pollution

At sea level On the mountains
15.
16.
17.
(a)
(c)
18.
etc
(a)
(c)
Emphysema
Respiratory distress syndrome
Emphysema is the breakdown of:
(a) Bronchi (c) Alveoli
(b)
(d)
Asthma
Cancer
19.
20.
21.
(b) Parabronchi '
(d) Lungs
Haemoglobin in man increases the oxygen carrying capacity of blood to about
time:
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 75 (d) 50
Myoglobin is haemoglobin-like iron containing protein:
(a) Lipid
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Protein
(d) Enzyme
22.
Myoglobin consists of
(a) I (c) 3
Each lung contains about
(a) 100 million (c) 300 million
The diameter of each alveolus is about:
(a) 0.2mm (c) 1mm
polypeptide chain(s):
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
2
4
150 million
33.
million
0.5mm
34.
million
23.
alveoli:
24.
When the blood contains a high percentage of CO2 and a very low percentage of
(m)
the breathing stops and the person becomes unconscious. This condition is
known as:
Suffocation
(b) Asphyxia
Emphysema
(d) Eupnoea
35.
When the oxygen supply to the tissue is inadequate, the condition is:
(a) Dyspnea
(b) Hypoxia
(c) Asphyxia (d) Apnea

36.
The maximum volume of air contained in the lung by a full forced
inhalation is
v
called:
(a) Vital capacity
(b) Tidal volume
(c) Total lung capacity(d) Inspiratory capacity

37.
1 The maximum volume of air that can be released from the lungs by forceful
expiration after deepest inspiration is called the:

(a) Total lung capacity(b) Vital capacity
(c) Tidal volume
38.
(d) Ventilation rate
Inner surface of the bronchi, bronchioles and fallopian tubes are lined by:
(a) Cubical epithelium(b) Columnar epithelium

(c) Squamous epithelium
(d) Ciliated epithelium
39.
Which one of the following statement is not correct regarding trachea?
(n)
It usually lies posterior to the muscular esophagus
(o)
It splits into the right and left bronchi to supply air to the lungs
(p)
Opening to the trachea is covered by epiglottis
(q)
Tracheal rings are C-shaped
40.
Which one of the followings is correct regarding larynx?
It prevents foreign objects from entering the trachea
It houses the vocal cords
It is an organ made of cartilage and connects the pharynx to the trachea
All of these are correct
41.
Bronchi branch into the tubes of smaller diameters (less than 1 mm)
known as:
(a) Microtrachea
(c) Alveoli
(b) Bronchioles
(d) Eustachian tubes
TRANSPORT
Energy is required for:
(a) Simple diffusion (b) -Facilitated diffusion
(c) Osmosis
(d) Active transport
The bulk movement of material into a cell by the formation of a vesicle is called:
(a) Simple diffusion (b) Facilitated diffusion
(c) Endocytosis
(d) Osmosis
If hydrostatic pressure is used to move a molecule through a membrane, this is

termed:
(a) Filtration (b) Osmosis
(c) Active transport
(d) Endocytosis
Substances that resist a change in pH are called:

(a) Electrolytes
(c) Buffers
(b) Bases
(d) Acids
Which factor affects opening and closing of stomata?

(a) Presence of chloroplast
(b) Turgidity of guard cell
(c) Presence of glucose
(d) Size of leaf
Which phenomenon shows the recovery of cell from shrinkage?

(a) Incipient plasmolysis
(c) Deplasmolysis
(b) Plasmolysis
(d) None of these
Which phenomenon involves the clinging together of molecules of same kind in

ascent of sap?
(0 Cohesion
(b) Tension
(c) Adhesion (d) Collision

Which component forces out excess water in the form of droplets?
(a) Stomata
(b) Hydathodes
(c) Lenticels (d) Cuticlc

Who proposed the The pressure flow theory?
(a) Dixon
(b) Munch
(c) Maloon
(d) Kreb
Which phenomenon involves the clinging together of molecules of different kind

in ascent of sap?
(a) Cohesion (b) Tension
(c) Adhesion (d) Collision
Lymphocytes are one of many types of white blood cells produced in the bone
marrow by the process of:
42.
Immunity
(r)
Cell differentiation
/ 1. 2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
9.
L 10. 11 .
Chapter: 14
(b) Hematopoiesis
(d) Botha&c
The cell that has not previously encountered antigen is called:

(a) T-Cell
(b) Memory cell
(c) Stem cell (d) Naive B Cell

It has been estimated that a single plasma cell can secrete more than
molecules of antibody per second:
(a) 2000
(b) 1000
(c) 500 (d) 100

Secreted antibodies are the major
(a) Receptor
(b) Modulator
(c) Effector
molecules of humoral immunity:
(d) Lymph nodes
Thrombus is a solid mass of blood constituents in:

(a) Brain
(b) Blood vessel
(c) Heart
(d) All the above
is the discharge of blood from blood vessels:

(a) Leucaemia (b) Blue babies
(c) Thalassaemia
(d) Haemorrhage
Blood flow in aorta per second:

(a) 400-500mm
(b) 300-400mm
(c) 500-600mm
(d) 450-500mm
Blood How speed in capillaries is leSs than per second: .

(a) 5mm
(b) 1mm
(c) 10mm
(d) 2mm
The reptiles that have completely partitioned ventricle are:

(a) Turtle
(b) Snakes
.(c) Crocodiles(d) Lizards

takes part in the blood clotting process:
(a) Albumin
(b) Keratin
(c) Fibrinogen (d) Immunoglobulins
Blood stains are found at the site of a murder. If I)NA profding technique is to be
used for identifying the criminal, which of the following is ideal for use?
(a) Erythrocytes
(c) Platelets
(b) Leucocytes
(d) Serum
Which one of the following cells is not a phagocytic cell?

(a) Macrophage
(b) Monocyte
(c) Neutrophil (d) Basophil

Which of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac
impulse?
43.
SA node -> AV node -> Bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers
44.
AV node - Bundle of His -> SA node - Purkinje fibers
45.
SA node -> Purkinje fibers -> AV node Bundle of His
46.
Purkinje fibers AV node SA node Bundle of His
The name of the pacemaker of the heart is:

(s)
Lymph node (b) S.A. node
(c) Juxtaglumerular apparatus(d) Semi lunar valve

12.
13.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
22.
23.
24.
21.
Match the types of immunity listed in Column I with the examples listed in
Column II. Choose the answer that gives the correct combination of alphabets of
the two columns:
Column I
Column II
Types of immunity
Example
A. Natural active
P. Immunity developed by heredity
B. Artificial passive
Q. From mother to foetus through placenta
C. Artificial active
R. Injection of antiserum to travellers
D. Natural passive
T. Induced by vaccination
(a) A=T, B=S, C=R, D=P (c) A=S, B=R, C=T, D=Q
(b) A=S, B=T, C=Q, D=R (d) A = P, B = Q, C = R, D=T
25.
In a healthy adult man the normal diastolic pressure is:
47.
80 mm Hg
(b) * 90 mm Hg
(t)
lOOmmHg
(d) 120 mm Hg
The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure in human is:
40 mm Hg
(b) 80 mm Hg
120 mm Hg (d) 200 mm Hg
26.
27.
28.
Which of the following matches correctly?
(g)
Pulmonary artery - Carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs
(h)
Superior vena cava - Receives deoxygenated blood from the lower body and
organs
(i)
Inferior vena cava - Receives deoxygenated blood from the head and body
(j)
Hepatic artery - Carries deoxygenated blood to the gut
(g)
Which of the following sequences is truly a systemic circulation pathway?
(h)
Right ventricle -> Pulmonary aorta -> Tissues -> Pulmonary veins -> Left
auricle
(i)
Left auricle -> Left ventricle -> Aorta Arteries Tissues -> Veins Right atrium
(j)
Left auricle Left ventricle Pulmonary aorta Tissues Right auricle
(b)
Right auricle -> Left ventricle -> Aorta -> Tissues Veins -> Right auricle
(h)
Which one of the following sentences is wrong?
(a)
Small arteries are callcd arterioles
(b)
When arterioles reach the capillaries blood pressure drops
(c)
Blood pressure is lower in the arteries than in the arterioles
(d)
Small arterioles regulate the flow of blood into each capillary
(i)
Compared to blood our lymph has:
(a) More RBCs and less WBCs
(b) No plasma
(a)
Plasma without proteins
(d) More WBCs and no RBCs
(j)
Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in:
21.
Clotting of.blood
(a)
Osmotic balance of body fluids (d) Oxygen transport in the blood
(b) Defence mechanisms of body
Chapter: 15
HOMEOSTASIS
48.
' The chemical compound which prevents the hody of fishes from harmful
effects
of urea is:
(a) Uric acid (b) Trimethylamine oxide
(u)
Hypoxanthine (d) Allantoin
49.
Generally leaves stores excretory material to the concentrations of crystal
formation in:
Cytosol
Vacuole .(c) Nucleus
Space between cell wall and cell membrane
50.
Convulsions, coma and eventually death can occur due to elevated levels
in plasma of:
(k)
Urea
(b)
Uric acid
Amino group (d)
51.
Which is not correct as the major nitrogenous excretory product?
Any of them
(k)
Ammonia
(b) Urea
(k)
Uric acid
(d) Creatinine
(c)
Metabolism of purine base produces significant amount of nitrogenous
waste in
the form of:
(a) Creatinine
(b)
Trimethylamine oxide
(c) Xanthine
(d)
Urea
6. Metabolism of pyrimidine base does not produce nitrogenous waste such as:
(a) Hypoxanthine
(b)
Allantoin
(c) Uric acid
(d)
Urea
7. The basic requirement which plays its role in the maintenance of an organism
and contributes in evolutionary process is:
#
(a) Reproduction
(b)
Homeostasis
(c) Migration
(d)
Natural relation
8. Fluidity of cell membrane is altered by:
(a) High temperature. ^
(b)
Low temperature
(c) High pH
(d)
Low pH
9. In cold climate, cytosol in plant cells is super cooled by accumulating more:
(a) Glucose
(b)
Sucrose
(c) Starch
(d)
Lipids
10. Which is not a poikilotherm?
(a) Invertebrates
(b)
Amphibians
(c) Reptiles
(d)
Birds
11.
(a) Endotherm
(b)
(c) Heterotherm
(d)
12. Non shivering thermogenesis involves:
(a) Thyroid hormone
(b)
13. (c) Muscle contraction
(d)
Ammonotelic animals are
(a) Aquatic
(c) Areal
(b)
(d)
Ectotherm
None of them
Pituitary hormone
All of them
Terrestrial
Arboreal
14. molecules of ammonia are converted to urea cycle: molecules

(a) 3; 1
(b)
(c) 2; 1
(d)
52.
Which of the following is an osnioconformer?
(v)
O- 0 ,
I; 2
An organism that modulates its internal osmolarity to match that of the
external environment
(w)
An organism that exerts very little control over the ion profile within its
extracellular space
(x)
An organism that actively regulates the ion profiles within its extracellular
space
(y)
An organism that maintains its internal osmolarity within a narrow range,
regardless of the external environment

53.
A solute that has little effect on macromolecular function and can
accumulate to high concentration without deleterious effects on cellular

processes is called a(n):
(a) Perturbing solute (b) Compatible solute
Counteracting solute (d) Organic-solute
54.
A bird that drinks seawater must rely on to expel the salt:
(a) A salt gland
(b) A rectal gland
Ammonia excretion
(d) Sweat glands
55.
Which of the following is false?
(l)
Terrestrial arthropods excrete most of their nitrogen as uric acid
(m)
Bony fish excrete most of their nitrogen as ammonia
(n)
Mammals excrete most of their nitrogen as urea
(o)
Reptiles excrete most of their nitrogen as urea
56.
The functional analogue of a kidney in molluscs and annelids is the:
(a) Malpighian tubule (b) Protonephridium

(l)
Metanephridium
(d) Flame cell
57.
What is an advantage of excreting uric acid vs. ammonia?
(l)
Uric acid synthesis requires less energy than ammonia synthesis
(m)
Uric acid is excreted as a fluid, which requires less energy than storage of
ammonia crystals
(n)
fluids
Uric acid is not as toxic as ammonia, and can therefore accumulate in the body
(o)
The low pH of uric acid is more tolerable than the high pH of ammonia
58.
Which of the following is not a role of the kidney?
(a) Maintaining ion balance (b) Controlling blood pressure

(z)
Producing hormones (d) Regulating gamete production
59.
Sebum consists of:
(a) Lactic acid (b) Fatty acids
Both a & b (d) None of these
60.
A large quantity of fluid is filtered every day by the nephrons in the
kidneys, i Only about 1 % of it is excreted as urine. The remaining 99% of the

filtrate:
(a) Is lost as sweat
(b) Is stored in the urinary bladder
Is reabsorbed into the blood (d) Gets collected in the renal pelvis
61.
Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the:
(a) Proximal tubule
(b) Distal tubule
(p)
Collecting duct
(d) Loop ol Henle
62.
Which substance is in higher concentration in blood than in glomerular
filtrate?
(a) Glucose
(m)
63.
(b) Urea
Plasma proteins
facilitates reabsorption of water by the nephron:
(a) Loop of the nephron

(p)
(d) Water
Cortex (d) Pelvis
(b) Medulla
64.
Ability of the kidneys for the production of concentrated urine is
dependent on:
(a) Active transport
(b) Passive transport
(d)
Countercurrent mechanism
65.
Glomerular filtrate passes from glomerular capsule into the:
(a) Loop of the nephron
(d) Diffusion
(b) Proximal convoluted tubule
(e)
Glomerular capsule
(d) Convoluted tubule
66.
If a man takes large amount of protein, he is likely to excrete more
amount of:
(a) Glucose
(b) Urea and uric acid
(b)
Water (d) Salts
67.
Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney
function regulation?
22.
During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of
ADH is suppressed
23.
When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed
24.
Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release
25.
An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II
68.
Which of the following hormones is involved in regulating the water-salt
balance of the blood?

(a) Cortisone (b) Aldosterone
(b)
ADH (d) ANH
69.
Which of the following hormones promotes the excretion of potassium
ions and the reabsorption of sodium ions?

(a) Aldosterone
(c)
(b) Rennin
ADH (d) None of these

mm iinniij^^
105 I
SUPPORT & MOVEMENTS

Amount of lactic acid restored to glycogen during rest is:
(a) l/5th
(b) 4/5 th
(c) VA th
(d) %th
Strengthening of the skeleton is called:

(a) Calcification
(b)
(c) Ossification
'
(d)
l.
2.
Solidification
Deposition
3.
The fins that help in forward movement of fish are:
70.
Pelvic .(b) Pectoral
(aa)
Caudal (d) All of them
Immature fiber producing cells of connective tissue are:
Fibroblasts
Osteoclasts
Non surgical reduction of bone is called:
*
Closed reduction
(q)
Vertical reduction
Exposure of skin to sunlight can cure:

(n)
Osteomalcia
(q)
Osteoporosis
(o)
Osteoblasts
(e)
Tonoplasts
Open reduction
(f)
Horizontal reduction
71.
Rickets
(c)
Osteoarthritis
(a)
(c)
6.
I he fluid filled cavity adapted to reduce friction between moving bones is found
in:
26.
Cartilaginous joint
72.
Fibrous joint (d)
(b)
7.
Synovial joint Pivot joint
8.
9.
10.
Lipid
Arthropods
Mammals
11.
(b)
(d)
The bones at the joint are held together by:
(a) Icndon
(b) Ligament
(c) Fibrous capsule
(d) Any of them
At hinge joint, the end of the muscle attached to immovable bone is called:
(a) Insertion
(b) Belly
(c) Origin
(d) None of them
Which is not a chemical component of procuticle?

(a) Chitin
(b) Polysaccharide
(c) Protein
(d)
Ecdysis occurs in:

(a) Mollusks (c) Protozoa
In ecdysis:
(c)
The old skeleton is split and discarded
(d)
The old skeleton grows in size
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
Abductor
None
Pectoral girdle Sternum
(b) Actin & tropomyosin (d) Tubulin & tropomyosin
Na+ and K+
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
.2+
Ca2+ and Mg
(a) Compact bone
(c) Cartilage
Axial skeleton does not include:
(a) Skull
(c) Ribs
(b)
(d)
Spongy bone
All of them
(b)
(d)
Vertebral column
Pelvic girdle
The joints, which fix teeth in the jaw , are:

(a) Fibrous joints
(b)
(c) Synovial joints
(d)
Elbow joint is an example of:
Cartilaginous joints
Hinge joints
(a) Ball and socket joint

(b)
Pivot joint
(c) Hinge joint
(d)
Gliding joint
ATPase enzyme essential for muscle contraction is found in:
(a) Actinin
(b)
Myosin
(c) Troponin
(d)
Actin
A skeletal muscle which decreases the angle between two bones and bends a joint
is:
(a) Flexor
(b)
(c) Extensor
(d)
Zygomatic bones are found in:

(a) Skull
(b)
(c) Pelvic girdle
(d)
The two protein molecules, closely associated with actin filaments are
The type of muscles present in our:
73.
Thigh are striated and voluntary
74.
Upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape
75.
Heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles
76.
Intestine are striated and involuntary
Motor neurons electrically stimulate nearby muscle Fibers at:

(a) Creatine phosphate
(b) Actin filament
(c) Neuromuscular junction (d) Cross-bridges

Chemical ions responsible for muscle contraction are:
(bb)
The old skeleton is digested and the contents are reused to build a new
skeleton
The new skeleton is formed entirely by new secretion Blood cells are formed
in:
(a) Actin &. myosin
(c) Troponin & tropomyosin
Na+ and Ca
Ca2+ and K+
and
Which one of the followings stands incorrect regarding skeletal muscle?

77.
Responsible for voluntary movement
78.
Contract and expand slowly
79.
Cell fibers have multiple nuclei
80.
Stimulated by central nervous system
25.
Which one of the following membranes secretes a watery fluid that lubricates
and cushions the joint?
(a) Tendons
(c) Ligaments
(b)
(d)
Synovial membrane
Cartilage
26. Which one of the following bones is ; the only movable portion of the skull?
(a) Maxilla
(b)
Mandible
(c) Frontal bone
(d)
Zygomatic bone
27. Which of these is the contractile protein of a muscle?
(a) Tubulin
(b)
Tropomyosin
(c) Myosin
(d)
All of these
28. The expanded portions of the
are calcium storage sites:
(a) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
(b)
Sarcoplasm
(c) Neuromuscular junctions
(d)
Myofibril'
29. Which one of the following pairs is wrong about cardiac muscles?
(a) Location - only in the heart
(b)
Function - Pumping of blood
(c) Gap junctions - No
(d)
Striated - Yes
30. Number of bones in the skull:
(a) 8
(b)
14
W (c) 22
(d)
26
31. Number of bones in human body:
(a) 198
(b)
200
(c) 204
(d)
206
32. Immature bone cells are called:
va> Osteoclasts
(b)
Osteoblasts
(c) Fibroblasts
(d)
Osteocytes
Chapter: 17
CDDRDINATIDN 6 CONTROL
A/"
81.
Catecholamines include:
(a) Dopamine + Epinephrine + Norepinephrine , (b) Dopamine + Serotonin +

Norepinephrine
(cc)
Adrenalin + Epinephrine + Acetylcholine
(dd)
Serotonin + Acetylcholinc + Dopamine
82.
In animal behaviour,is the process by which an animal pretends death in
order to evade unwelcome attention:

(a) Thanatosis (b) Operant learning
Insight learning
83.
Which of the following is called stress hormone?
(a) Cortisol
(d) Latent learning
(b) AC IH
Thyroxin
(d) SIH
84.
Masculinization in females might be accounted for by over-activity of:
(a) The corpus luteum (b) The adrenal cortex

(r)
The thyroid
(d) Her testes
85.
Cortisol allows the body to respond to stress through its effect on:
(a) Intermediary metabolism (b) Inflammatory responses

(p)
None of these (d) Both a & b
86.
The islets of Langerhans make up about of the total cells of pancreas:
(a) 1-2% '
(b) 3-5%
(r)
10-15%
87.
The Olfactory nerve is the 1st cranial nerve that is concerned with the
sense of: (a) Taste
(d) 15-20%
(b) Touch
(f)
Smell (d) Chemicals
88.
The Vagus nerve is the 10th cranial nerve that is concerned with the:
(a) Movement (b) Secretion

(g)
None of these (d) Both a & b
89.
Nerve endings in the bronchial vessels of fishes serve as:
(a) Chemoreceptors
' (b) Mechanoreceptors
(d)
Photoreceptors
90.
Meissners corpuscles are the receptors for:
(a) Taste
(d) Nociceptors
(b) Touch
(ee)
Uric acid
91.
Naked endings of neurons serve as receptor for:
27.
Touch (b) Pressure
(e)
Hot
92.
Encapsulated endings of neurons serve as receptor for:
(a) Pressure
(d) Equilibrium
(d) Cold
(b) Touch
(ff)
Pain (d) All of them
93.
Effectors are stimulated by the impulses traveling on the axon of:
(a) Sensory neuron
(b) Motor neuron
. Associative neuron (d) Any of them
94.
Corpus callosum consists of:
(a) Hippocampus
(b) Cerebrum
Cell bodies
95.
Hormones regulate metabolism by having a direct control of:
(a) Genome
(d) Connective tissue
(b) mRNA
(s)
Fn/ymes
96.
The activity of Islets of Langerhans is influenced by:
(a) STH
(d) Ribosomes
(b) ACTH
(q)
Level of blood glucose
97.
Cortisol increases blood glucose level by the metabolism of:
(a) Carbohydrates
(s)
(b) Proteins
Lipids (d) All of them
(d) All of them
98.
Which is a different learning behaviour?
(a) Operant conditioning
(b) Conditioned reflex type II
(g)
Trial and error learning
(d) Insight learning
99.
The learning behaviour developed by involving the pairing of an
irrelevant stimulus with a primary natural stimulus that elicits an automatic

response is called:
(a) Imprinting
(b) Habituation
(h)
Condition reflex type 1
(d) Conditioned reflex type II
100.
A man is admitted to a hospital. He is suffering from an abnormally low
body temperature, loss of appetite and extreme thirst. His brain scan would
probably s low a tumor in:
(a) Pons
(b) Cerebellum
(e)
Hypothalamus (d) Medulla Oblongata
101.
The cause of cretinism is:
(a) Hypothyroidism
(b) Hypoparathyroidism
tc) Hyperthyroidism (d) " Hypeiparathyroidism

102.
The brainstem is made up of:
28.
Midbrain, pons, cerebellum .
29.
Midbrain, pond, medulla oblongata
30.
Diencephalon, medulla oblongata, cerebellum
31.
Cerebellum, cerebrum, medulla oblongata
103.
The part of the brain where the centre for hunger and thirst is located is:
(a) Cerebrum (b) Hypothalamus

(f)
Cerebellum
104.
Which of the following substances can cure Parkinsons disease?
(a) GABA
(gg)
Dopamine
(d) Medulla Oblongata
(b) Acetylcholine
(d) Glutamic acid
105.
Which of the following is a mineralocorticoid?
(a) Testosterone
(b) Progesterone
Adrenalin
(d) Aldosterone
106.
ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to release a group of hormones
called:
(a) Mineralocorticoid (b) . Glucocorticoid
*
Endorphins
(d) Glucagon
107.
Anabolic steroids are versions of testosterone:
(a) Effective (b) 'Synthetic

(t)
Natural
(d) Ineffective
108.
The hormone known to participate in metabolism of calcium and
phosphorus is:
(a) Mineralocoiiicoids(a) Calcitonin
(r)
Glucagon
(d) Glucocorticoids
109.
In addition to thyroxine (T4), triiodothyronine (T3), thyroid gland
produces:
(a) Thyroid-stimulating hormone
(b) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
(t)
Calcitonin
(d) Gonadotropic hormones
110.
Which one of the followings is responsible for the improvement of
nutrient flow to the neurons and provides electrical insulation?

(a) Neuroglia (b) Motor neuron
(h)
Sensory neuron
(d) Intemeuron
111.
Which one of the followings is correct in regard to the function of
cerebellum?
(i)
Regulate heartbeat
(b) Muscle coordination
(f)
Secretes melatonin
(d) Sense reception
112.
The protein carrier in the membrane, called "sodium-potassium pump1
pumps:
32.
Both Na+ & K+ in ,
(b) Both Na+& K+out
(g)
Na+ in & K+ out
(d) Nafout&K'in
%aiN**Cv
4'
REPRODUCTION
Oxytocin secreted by the posterior pituitary stimulates milk ejection in response
to:
113.
Suckling
(b) Birth
(hh)
Progesterone (d) All the above
Which of the following is/are true?
Although millions of sperm arc released in ejaculation, only one is needed for
fertilization of the ovum
The presence or absence of a hymen is a reliable method to prove virginity
A male who produces non-motile spefm is impotent
The acidity of semen protects the sperm from alkalinity of the vagina
Spermatogenesis involves the development in the seminiferous tubules of mature

sperm from:
*
Sustentacular cclls
(b) Interstitial cells
(u)
Spermatogonia
(d) Granulose cells
If a females oocyte is penetrated by a sperm, then:

(s)
The second meiotic division occurs to produce an ovum
(t)
The oocyte will be shed thru the oviduct, uterus and vagina
(u)
Conception will be delayed several days
(v)
Implantation will indefinitely delayed
The unfertilized egg is believed to be viable for only

(u)
24-72 (b) 24-48
(i)
12-3|6 (d) 12-24
Which of th(a following statements is false for a sperm?

(j)
Consists of a head, middle piece and a tail
(k)
Ha a lot of mitochondria
(l)
Is solely responsible for the sex of a zygote
(m)
Has a great deal of cytoplasm
Which one of the following structures is haploid?

(a) Sustencular cells
(b)
(c) Primary spermatocytes
(d)
Oestrous cycle is the means to ensure:
(a) Implantation
(b)
(c) Zygote formation
(d)
In oestrous cycle, major role is played by:
(a) Oxytocin
(b)
(c) Estrogen
(d)
hour after ovulation:
114.
Spermatogonia
Secondary spermatocytes
Menstruation
Uterus vascularization
Progesterone
Follicle stimulating hormone
Placenta secretes hormone necessary to maintain pregnancy:
(a) Estrogen
(b) Gonadotropins
(ii)
Progesterone (d) Leuteinizing
115.
During delivery in humans, the average loss of blood is about:
(a) 150cm3
(b) 250cm3
350cm3
116.
When will you call the embryos as fetus?
(d) 450cm
(a) After two months (b) After three months

1
(c) After four months
(d) After five months
117.
The appearance of HCG in a women's urine indicates that she:
Has just had the experience of her first sexual intercourse
Is about to become physically and sexually capable of having sex
Is pregnant
Has just ovulated for the first time in her life
118.
Which of the following does not does not cause decrease in progesteron
level?
(a) Degeneration of corpus luteum (b) Ovulation
(v)
Increased level of corticosteroids (d) None of these
119.
The life span of the sperm is:
(a) 2 days
(b) 1-3 days
(w)
1-3 weeks
(d) 7 days
120.
The following statements relate to the hormonal control of the menstrual
cycle:
(v)
The myometrium proliferates under the direct influence of LH and FSH
(w)
Estrogens are synthesized mainly by the cells of the theca interna
(x)
After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is converted into a corpus albicans which
secretes progesterone
(y)
Progesterone promotes full development of the endometrium
121.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(j)
Surgical methods of contraception does not prevent gamete formation
(k)
In E.T techniques, embryos arc always transferred into the uterus
(l)
Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the rural women
(m)
All STDs are not completely curable
122.
The fusion of gametes is called:
(a) Gametotangeny
(b) Syngamy
(n)
Crossing over (d) Genetic recombination
123.
Which of the following is the function of amnion?
(g)
Transfer of nutrients from maternal blood to fetal blood
(h)
Exchange of gases
(i)
The protection of the embryo for its development
(j)
All the above
124.
Which of the following is the function of chorion?
33.
Transfer of nutrients from maternal blood to fetal blood
34.
Exchange of gases
35.
36.
All the above
125.
Which of the following is the function of allantois?
(jj)
Excretion
(kk)
Exchange of gases
(ll)
(mm)
Both a & lb
126.
Regarding the sexual reflexes and fertilization:
Erection is a sympathetic reflex
During ejaculation the sperm are mixed with secretions from the prostate and
seminal vesicles
Fertilization normally occurs in the uterus
Fertilization may occur three or more days alter ovulation
Hormone responsible for ovulation and development of corpus luteuni is:
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
(a) FSH
(b)
LH
(c) LTH
(d)
ICSH
Endometrium is part of:
(a) Urinary bladder
(b)
Uterus
(c) Ureter
(d)
Urethra
Maturation of sperms occurs in:
(a) Vasa deferentia
(b)
Epididymis
(c) Rete testis
(d)
Vasa efferentia
Inability of sperm to fertilize ovum is termed as:
(a) Impotence
(b)
Sterility
(c) Prostatomegaly
(d)
None of the above
In humans at the end of First meiotic dividion, the male germ cells differentiate
into:
(a) Spermatids
(b)
Spermatogonia
(c) Primary spermatocytes
(d)
Secondary spermatocytes
One primary spermatocyte produces four spermatozoa but one primary oocyte
produces:
(a) Four ova
(b)
One ovum
(c) Two ova
(d)
Sixteen ova
The correct sequence of sperniatogenetic stages leading to the formation of
sperms in a mature human testis is:
(w)
Spermatogonia -> Spermatid -> Spermatocyte Sperms
(x)
Spermatocyte -> Spermatogonia -> Spermatid -> Sperms
(y)
Spermatogonia -> Spermatocyte -> Spermatid -> Sperms
(z)
Spermatid -> Spermatocyte -> Spermatogonia -> Sperms
29.
30.
Spermatogenesis
Metamorphosis
Estrogen
LH
Conversion of spermatids into sperms is:
(a) Spermiogenesis
(b)
(c) Gametogenesis
(d)
Corpus luteum develops under the influence of:

(a) Progesterone
(c) FSH
(b)
(d)
32. Correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is:

127.
FSH -> Progesterone -> Estrogen
128.
Estrogen -> FSH Progesterone
129.
FSH -> Estrogen -> Progesterone
130.
Estrogen -> Progesterone -> FSH
GROWTH 8 DEVELOPMENT/
131.
Animals begin their lives with a single diploid cell called:
(a) Zygote
(b) Somatic cell
(c) Germ cell (d) None

132.
The process of ova and sperm formation is called:
(a) Reproduction
(b)
(c) Cleavage (d)

The fusion of sperm and ova is called:
(a) Reproduction
(b)
(c) Cleavage (d)

The series of mitotic divisions is called:
(a) Reproduction
(b)
(c) Cleavage (d)

The migration and
rearrangement of cells
to produce 3 germinal layers is
called:
(a) Gastrulation
(b)
(c) Growth
None
(d)
Organogenesis
Increase in the size of organs to attain maturity is called:

(a) Gastrulation
(c) Growth
(b) Organogenesis
(d) None
Sub-population of cells
are sculpted into specialized organs and tissues, the
piocess is called:
(a) Gastrulation
(c) Growth
(b) Organogenesis
(d) None
Fertilization Gamete Formation

Fertilization Gamete formation
Fertilization Gamete formation

3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
and occur in a sequence:
Irreversible None
Isolecithal
Centerolecithal
The steps involved in the development are
(a) Reversible (b)
(nn)
Both 'a' & b (d)
The egg of hen is
. type:
(a) Telolecithal
(b)
Mesolecithal (d)
The cells that induce the specific embryonic tissue to change their fates and
organize the host and donor tissues into a secondary embryo are called:
(a) Inducer
(b) Organizer
(c) Somites
(d) None of these
The protoplasm is restricted to a very small are called:

(a) Blastopore (b) Blastocyte
(c) Blastula
(d) Blastodisc
10.
In hen the fertilization is:

(a) Internal
(b)
External
(c) Any
(d)
None
The process of keeping the fertilization egg in temperature up to 36-38C is c

silled
(a) Heating
(b)
(c) Incubation (d)
Hatching
Pasteurization
In birds, reptiles and fishes type of cleavage occurs:

(a) Mesoblastic
'
(b) Mcroblastic
(c) Discoidal (d) Both b & c

As a consequence of cleavage
a mulberry like structure is lormed having
many blastomeres is called:

(a) Blastula
(b)
Morulla
(c) Gastrula
(d)
None
After morula, is formed having blastocoel:

(a) Blastula
(b) Morulla
(cj Gastrula
(d) . None
In hen, the egg is laid almost in .

(a) Blastula
(b) Morulla
(c) Gastrula
(d) None
Some cells of hypoblast of
stage:
pellucida migrate downward and form
layer:
(a) Ectoderm (b) Mesoderm
(c) Endoderm (d) None
The continuous movement of cells of epiblast results in
layer
formation:
The rest of the cells of epiblast after forming mesoderm form
The fate of ectoderm is:
(a) Epidermis (b) Nervous System
(c) Sensory organs
Mesoderm later forms
skeleton, heart, Kidneys etc.:
(a) All body muscles (b) Liver

(c) Lungs
(d) None
layer:
Endoderm later forms
liver, lungs and parts alimentary canal:
(a) Brain
(b) Muscles
(c) Glands
(d) Genital organs
The process of progressive deterioration in the morphology and pln*k4a(t of cells

is called:
133.
Regeneration (b) Aging
(oo)
Abnormal development
(d) None of these
12.
13.
'
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
21. 22.
23.
24.
25.
The undifferentiated cells arising from the parenchyma, which are rich in RNA
and form the blastema, which precedes regeneration of planarians are called:
(a) Inducer
(b) Organizer
(c) Somites
(d) Neoblasts
The process of replacement or repair of lost or damaged part is called:

(a) Regeneration
(b) Aging
(c) Abnormal development
(d) None
Development of an organism by abnormal means due to some genetics or

chromosomal changes is called:
(a) Regeneration
(b)
(c) Abnormal development
(d)
is the study of aging:

26.
27.
Aging . None of these
28.
134.
Gerontology
(pp)
None of these
(a)
(c)
Micrology
Geology
Abnormal development is cause by mutation and:
(a) Trauma
(b) Drugs
(c) Viruses
Microcephaly, cleft palate and Downs syndrome is an example to:

(a) Regeneration
(b) Aging
(c) Abnormal Development
(d) None of these
29.
30.
The larval epidermis is formed from:
Clear cytoplasm
135.
Gray cytoplasm
Yellow cytoplasm
136.
Gray equatorial cytoplasm
31.
The meristem present at the bases of internodes in many plants is:
(a) Apical meristem
(b) Intercalary meristem
(c) Lateral meristem (d) Cork cambium

During elongation, the cell volume increases up to 150 times due to the uptake of:
(a) Light
(b) Oxygen
(c, Carbon Dioxide

32.
(d) Water
33.
34.
(b)
(d)
Water All of these
Red light Ultraviolet light
Amphibia
Mammalia
35.
36.
In plants, elongation of cells is favoured by:
(a) Infrared light
(b)
(c) Blue light (d)

Early development of chick is similar to:
(a) Fish
(b)
(c) Reptilia
(d)
Growth rate is influenced by:

(a) Hormones (c) Vitamins
The discoidal cap of the cell above the blastocoel is:
(a) Epidermis (b) Endoderm
(c) Blastoderm(d) Hypoblast
Clear cytoplasm produces:
(a) Gut (b) Neural tube
(c) Muscle cells
(d) Larval epidermis
37.
38.
137.
Negative physiological changes in our body are called:
(qq)
Teratology
(c) Degeneration
(b) Aging
(d) Abnormalities
138.
The normal process of development is disturbed by:
Abnormalities inherited from parents
Abnormalities due to chromosomes or genes
Environmental factors & metabolic defects ( (d) All the above
CHROMOSOMESBDNA
139.
Which of the following is not a type of genetic mutation?
(a) Point
(b) Insertion
(c) Frame shift(d) Malignant

140.
A mutation that occurs in a non-coding region is called:
(a) Silent
(b) Epiboly
(c) Frame shift(d) Malignant

141.
Either an insertion or a deletion of a number of nucleotides is called:
(rr)
Point (b) Insertion
Frame shift . (d) Malignant
142.
The part of chromosome used for DNA Fingerprinting is:
(a) Microsatellite
(b) Minisatellite
(c) Tandem satellite
(d) Macrosatellite
143.
Which of the following enzyme is required
to release the tension
imposed by uncoiling of strands?

*
Endonuclease (b)
DNA ligase
(aa)
DNA gyrase
DNA helicase
144.
Genome is:
(x)
Genes on nuclear DNA
(y)
Nuclear DNA + mitochondrial DNA
(z)
Nuclear DNA + chloroplast DNA
(aa)
Nuclear DNA + Mitochondrial DNA + Chloroplast DNA
(z)
Sickle cell hemoglobin formed due to alter in the:

(a)
(d)
Primary structure
(b)
Secondary structure
(c)
Tertiary structure
(d)
Quaternary structure
8. The overall stability of DNA molecule in the cell medium is provided by:
(a)
Hydrogen bond
(b)
Hydrophilic interaction
(c)
Hyperphobic interaction
(d)
Hypophobic interaction
9. DNA digesting enzyme is:
(a)
DNA ligase
(b)
DNA polymerase
(c)
DNase
fd)
DNA helicase
10. The proportion of DNA and protein in chromosomes is about:
(a)
20:80
(b)
80:20
(c)
40:60
(d)
60:40
11. Sub cellular structures which become visible at the time of cell divisions
(a)
Ribosomes
(b)
Chromosomes
(c)
Nucleoli
(d)
Golgi complex
145.
Condensation of euchromation during cell division facilitates:
(a) DNA replication
(b) Movement of chromosomes
(c) Crossing over between chromatids (d) All of them

146.
In sickle cell hemoglobin molecule, glutamic acid is replaced by:
(a) Valine
(b) Arginine
(c) Ornithine (d) Citrulline

147.
In genetic code, 61 codons code for 20 different types of amino acids. This
is called:
(a) Colinearity (b) Commaless
(c) Degeneracy
(d) Nonambiguity
148.
When DNA replication starts:
(ss)
The hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strands break
(tt)
The phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotides break
(uu)
The bonds between the nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar break
(vv)
The leading strand produces okazaki fragments
149.
The most common amino acids present in histone are:
(a) Arginine & Lysine (b) Lysine & Valine

.(c) Arginine & Valine (d) Glutamic acid & Valine
150.
The transfer of genetic material from one cell to another cell that can
alter the genetic make up of the recipient cell is called:

(a) Mutation (b) Transformation
(c) Transduction
151.
(d) Conjugation
In a nucleotide, the nitrogenous base is attached to the carbon numberof
the pentose sugar:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
152.
The link between two consecutive nucleotides is:
(a) Glycosidic bond
(b) Ester linkage
(c) Phosphodiester bond

153.
(d) Covalent bond
The amount of adenine is equal to:
(a) Guanine
(b) Thymine
(c) Cytosine
(d) Uracil
154.
What about Okazaki fragments is wrong?
They are 100-200 nucleotides long in eukaryotes
They arc the DNA strand
They are formed by.DNA polymerase III
They are formed on leading strand
155.
The length of the Okazaki fragments in prokaryotes is:
100-200 nucleotides (b) 1000-2000 nucleotide!
(bb)
10-200 nucleotides
156.
Function of DNA helicase is:
(bb)
To cut DNA
(aa)
To unwind DNA
'
(d) 10-20 nucleotidcs

(b) To rewind DNA
(d) Attachment of < >MB|
157.
Function of DNA ligase is:
(a) To cut DNA
(b) To rewind DNA
(c) To unwind DNA (d) Attachment of Okazaki fragments

158.
The 711' amino acid of p-chain of haemoglobin is:
(a) Leucine
(b) Proline
(c) Histidine (d) Glutamic acid

159.
Central dogma means:
(ww)
Replication + Transcription
(xx)
Replication + Translation
(yy)
Transcription + Translation
(zz)
Replication + Transcription + Translation
160.
The second step of the central dogma is the transfer of information from:
(a) DNA to RNA
(b) DNA to proteins
(c) RNA to proteins
(d) RNA to DNA
161.
RNA polymerase I synthesizes:
(a) rRNA
'
(c) mRNA
(d) cDNA
162.
(b) tRNA
What is the best evidence that genes encode the amino acid sequence of
proteins?
Proteins are macromolecules
RNA directs amino acid synthesis
The amino acid sequence of polypeptides is changed by gene mutation
mRNA is found in ribosomes
163.
In eukaryotes, the two RNA polymerase binding sites are:
(a) -25 and-10 '
(b) -25 and-70
(c) -35 and-10 (d) -35 and-70

the patients produced urine that contained honiogentisic acid:
(a) Alkaptonuria
(b) Phenylketonuria
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Addisons disease
32. Primase constructs an RNA primer which is a sequence of about

nucleotides:
*
10
(b) 20
RNA
(cc)
100
(d) 1000
31. In
(b)
(d)
Cell cycle Gi phase
G: phase Interphase
Chromosome replication occurs during the _
(a) Gi phase
(b)
(c) S phase
(d)
of mitosis:
G2 phase Interphase
4.
The period from the time a cell is produced until it completes mitosis is called
the:
(a) Mitotic phase
(b)
(c) Cytokinesis phase (d)

Most of the cell cycle is occupied by the:
(a) Gi phase (c) S phase
phase:
5.
7.
8.
A copy of a chromosome produced by replication is called a:
(a) Chromatid (b) Daughter chromosome
(c) Sister chromosome
(d) Both b & c
Chromosomes become visible with the light microscope during
(a) Prophase (b) Metaphase

(c) Anaphase (d) Telophase
Which of the following enzymes plays a central role in the control of the cell
cycle?
(a) cdc2 kinase
(c) Cyclin
(b) MPF
(d) Glucose 6-phosphatase
Kinetochore proteins receive

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Several
fibres from each pole on equatorial plate:
set(s) of microtubules arise from each pair of centrioles:

2
4
(b)
(d)
(a)
(c)
microtubules send signals to equatorial
9. At the end of telophase, the
(a) Polar
(b)
Astral
(c) Tubulin
(d)
Kinetochore
The chromatids are replicated during:
(a) Interphase
(b)
Gi Phase
(c) S Phase
(d)
G2 Phase
Generally, in case of mitosis, is the longest of all:
(a) Prophase
(b)
Metaphase
(c) Anaphase
(d)
Telophase
10.
11.
12.
13.
Replication of DNA All of them
Desynapsis of homologous chromosomes starts at:
(a) Diplotene (b) Diakinesis
(c) Metaphase I
(d) Anaphase I
Cell cycle involves:

(a) Period of cell growth
(c) Cell division
(b)
(d)
Period of divisions of cell cycle is called

(a) G| phase
(b) S phase
(c) G2 phase
(d) M phase
Resting stage is the misleading term used during cell cycle for:
(a) Gi phase
(b) S phase
(c) G2 phase
(d) Interphase
Chromosome condensation during cell cycle occurs in:

(a) G1 phase
(b) G2 phase
(c) S phase
(d) M phase
In humans the minimum times is taken, during the cell cycle, by:
164.
Gi
(b) S phase
(aaa)
G2 phase
(d) M phase
Which is correct for mitosis?
Always takes place in diploid cells
'
Chromosome number remains the same in the daughter cells as that in the
Always takes place in haploid cells
parent cell
cell
14.
15.
16.
17.
Chromosome number is reduced to half in daughter cells to that of the parent
18.
19. Mitosis can take place in:
(a)
Haploid cell
(b)
Diploid cell
(c)
Polyploid cell
(d)
All of them
20. Cell cycle involves:
(a)
Interphase
(b)
Cytokinesis
(c)
Karyokinesis
(d)
All of them
21. The mitotic spindle is composed of:
(a)
Astral microtubules.
(b)
Polar microtubules
(c)
Kinctochore microtubules
(d)
Both b & c
22. The spindle microtubules consist of a protein:
(a)
Actin
(b)
Myosin
(c)
Tubulin
(d)
Myoglobin
23. The chromosomes in the cell become visible during meiosis in:
(a)
Leptotene
(b)
Zygotene
(c)
Pachytene
(d)
Diplotene
Due to nondisjunction of chromosomes during spermatogenesis, sperms carry

both sex chromosomes (22A + XY) and some sperms do not carry any sex
chromosome (22A + ()). If these sperms fertilize normal eggs (22A + X), what
types of genetic disorders appear among the offsprings?
165.
Downs syndrome, and Klinefelters syndrome
166.
Turners syndrome and Klinefelters syndrome
167.
Downs syndrome and Cri-du-chat syndrome
168.
Downs syndrome and Turners syndrome
' A bivalent consists of:

(bbb)
Two chromatids and one .centromere
(ccc)
Four chromatids and two centromeres
(ddd)
Two chromatids and two centromeres
(eee)
Four chromatids and four centromeres
Chromosomes can be counted best at the stage of:
Mctaphase
(b) Late anaphase
Telophase
(d) Late prophase
24.
25.
26.
The stage in which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle
is:
28.
29.
30.
(a) Anaphase
(c) Prophase
(b)
(d)
Metaphase
Telophase
Cell plate grows from:

(a) One wall to another
(c) Walltocentrc
(b)
(d)
Centre to wall
Simultaneously
(a) Ccll plate formation

(c) Mitosis
(b)
(d)
Cytokinesis
Synapsis
Crossing over occurs in:

(a) Pachytene
(c) Lcptotene
(dd)
In the somatic cell cycle:
(b)
(d)
Zygotene
Diplotene
Cytoplasmic division of a cell is called:
(cc)
In G| phase DNA content is double the amount of DNA present in the
original
ccll
(dd)
A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
(ee)
DNA replication takes place in S-phase
(ff)
G z phase follows mitotic phase
(ee)
The major event that occurs during the anaphase of mitosis, which brings
about the equal distribution of chromosomes, is:

(a) Splitting of the centromeres
(b) Splitting of the chromatids
(c) Replication of the genctic material (d) Condensation of the chromatin

27.
169.
Albinos have a genotype of aa, while all other members of population are
either AA or Aa. The offspring of a cross between a heterozygous male and an

albino female would be:
(a) 100% albino
,(b) 100% normal
(c) 50% normal, 50% albino (d) 25% normal, 75% albir.o
170.
In humans, brown eyes are dominant over blue eyes. In the cross of BB X
bb, what percentage of the offsprings will have brown eyes?

(a) 0% (b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%
\
171.
Normal individuals have melanin pigment in their skin, hair and eyes.
Albinos totally lack pigment in their bodies. Albinism is a recessive trait in

humans. Two normal parents have an albino child. What is the probability that
their next child will also be an albino?
(a) 0% (b) 25%
(o) 50%
172.
(d) 75%
An Rh' woman is married to an Rh+ man. The father of woman was also
Rh+. What is the probable risk of erythroblastosis foetalis in their babies?

(a) 0% (b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%
ARIATIQN B GENETICS
(fff)
A sex-linked recessive allele c produces red- blindness. Its normal
dominant allele is C\ A normal woman whose father was red-blind, marries a

red-blind
man. What proportion of their children can have normal colour vision?
(a) 0%
(b)
50%
(c) 75%
(d)
100%
The are like beans in a beanbag:
(a) Allele
(b)
Genes
(c) Traits
(d)
Characters
The basic unit of biological information is:
(a) Gene
(b)
Locus
(c) Chromosome
(d)
Allele
Locus is a:
(a) Part of DNA
(b)
Position of a gene
(c) Partner of a gene
(d)
Complement of a gene
All the alleles found in a breeding population at a give time are

collectively called the:
*
Polygene
(b) Gene pool
(c) Continuously varying trait(d) Multiple alleles

6.
7.
8.
Different alleles of a gene that are both expressed in a heterozygous condition are
called:
173.
Co-dominance (b)
(ggg)
Over dominance
(d)
A man with blood group N has a genotype:
LMLM (b)
LMLN
(d)
Genes for colour blindness, haemophilia and gout are linked to chromosome:
10.
Complete dominance Dominance
11.
LNLN
Both LNLN and LMLN
12.
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
7
12
13.
14.
Drosophila males are:
(a) Homozygous (c) Semizygous
An X:A ratio of
(a) 1
(c) 1 or higher
(a)
(c>
produces males in Drosophila:
(b) 0.5 or lower (d) 2 or higher
23
Heterozygous
Hemizygous
The genic system for the determination of sex is present in:
(a) Ginkgo
(b) Yeast
(c) Drosophila (d) Protenor bug

Each type of cone cell in retina has specific light absorbing protein celled:
(ff)
Albumin
(b) Opsin
(gg)
Haemoglobin (d) Auxin
Suppose that in a sheep, a dominant allele (B) produces black hair and a
recessive allele (b) produces white hair. If you saw a black sheep, you would be
able to identify:
(gg)
Its phenotype for hair colour
(hh)
Its genotype for hair colour
(ii)
The genotypes for both of its parents
(jj)
The phenotypes for both of its parents
For the cross AABBCCDd X AAbbCcDd what is the probability that an offspring
will be AABbCcDdl
(a) 1/16
(b) 1/8
(c) VA (d) 3/8

>
The inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example of:
(a) Pleiotropy (b) Epistasis
(c) Polygenic inheritance
(d) Gene linkage
Red-headed people frequently have freckles. This is best explained by which <>l
the following?
(bb)
The genes for these two traits are linked on the same chromosomc
(cc)
The genes for these two trails are sex linked
(dd)
Non-disjunction occurs frequently with chromosomes bearing thr\r tntti
(ee)
Both parents have red hair and freckles
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
174.
Let A and a represent two alleles for one gene and B and b represent two
alleles for a second gene. If for a particular individual A and B were on one
chromosome and a and b were on a second chromosome then all of the following
are true except:
(hhh)
The two genes are linked
(iii)
The two chromosomes are homologous
(jjj)
All gametes would be either AB or ab
(d) The genotype of this individual is AaBb
175.
The allelic separation belonging to two different traits is explained by:
(a) Law of segregation

(c) Crossing over
176.
(b) Law of independent assortment
(d) Product rule
How many types of genetically different gametes will be formed by a
mouse that is genotypically AaBbCcDd?
(b) 8
(hh)
16
(d) 24
177.
The genes that do not settle peacefully on their loci and keep on hopping
on different loci on the same chromosome or other chromosomes are called:

(kk)
Jumping genes '
(b) Transposons
(ff)
Both a & b (d) None of these
178.
The value of parental combinations of two linked gene AB and ab is 40, 40
and of recombinant genes Ab and aB is 10, 10 respectively. Find recombination

frequency.
26.
27.
28.
(a) 10%
(b)
20%
(c) 40%
(d)
50%
Particulate hereditary factors were named as genes by:
(a) Mendel
(b)
Morgan
(c) Sutton
(d)
Johannsen
Which is a hybrid?
(a) AABB
(b)
aabb
(c) AaBb
(d)
None of them
Which is a monohybrid?
(a) RR
(b)
rr
(c) Rr
(d)
RrYy
(n)
A dihybrid cross is used to study the inheritance of:
(o)
Characters from two parents
(p)
Characters to two offspring
(q)
Two characters in daughter generation
(r)
All of them
(o)
9:3:3:1: is the ratio of:
(k)
Genotype of Fi of monohybrid cross
(l)
Phenotype of Fi of monohybnd cross
(m)
Genotype of F2 of monohybrid cross
(n)
Phenotype of F2 of dihybrid cross
179.
When one allele is functionally hidden in heterozygous condition, the
dominance relationship is called:

(a) Complete dominance
(c) Codominance
180.
(b) Incomplete dominance
(d) Over dominance
The mating of a hybrid organism with one of its parents or with an
organism genetically similar to the parent is called:

(a) Back cross (b) Test cross
(c) Reciprocal cross
181.
(d) Top-cross
A cross, with the phenotype of each sex reversed as compared with the
original cross, to test the role of parental sex on inheritance pattern is called:
(a) Back cross (b) Test cross
(c) Reciprocal cross
(d) Top-cross
pBj ' ML*, , ,
182.
The cross which is used to determine
the genotype of an individual
showing dominant phenotype is called:

(kkk)
Back cross
Reciprocal cross
183.
In animal breeding, a backcross is often called:
Zoo cross
(ii)
Reciprocal cross
(b) Test cross

(d) Top-cross
(b) Test cross

(d) Top-cross
THE STAR MCAT SERIES

Chapter: 23
BIOTECHNOLOGY
1.
Which of the following is a type of vector?
(a) Plasmids
(c) Viruses
(c) Cosmids
(d) All the above
The DNA formed by the process of reverse transcription:

(a) A-DNA
(b) cDNA
(c) B-DNA
(d) Z-DNA
The most common plasmid vector used in genetic engineering is:

2.
(a)
(c)
PBR,2X PBR325
(b)
PBR122
(d)
PBRoo
(b)
Polymerase
(d)
Gyrase
(b)
Cloned plant
(d)
Mutated plant
Eco R| is an:
(a) Ligase
(c) Restriction enzyme
Bt Cotton is
(a) Transgenic plant (c) Hybrid plant
5.
6.
7.
8.
Dolly sheep was genetically similar to:

184.
The mother from which nucleated fertilized egg was taken
185.
The mother from which nuclear DNA of udder cell was taken
186.
The surrogate mother
187.
Both surrogate mother and nuclear donor mother
I he study of all the proteins coded by the genome is called:

(a) Proteome (b) Proteomics
(c) Genome
(d) Protein formation
Sequencing of genomic DNA is included under:

(a) Structural genomics
(b)
(c) Proteomics (d)

Functional genomics Transgenesis
9.
10.
11.
Gene expression, regulation and phenotype production are studied in second
phase of genome analysis called:
(a) Structural genomics
(b) Functional genomics
(c) Proteomics (d) Transmeiosis

In forensic science which of the following is used?
(a) Bacterial cloning (b) DNA foot printing
(c) DNA fingerprinting
(d) DNA cloning
Which ones produce androgenic haploids in anther cultures?

(a) Anther wall
(b) Tapetal layer of anther wall
(c) Connective tissue (d) Young pollen grains
188.
Variations observed during tissue culture of some plants are known as:
(a) Clonal variations (b) Somatic variations
(c) Somaclonal variations

189.
Virus free plants can be obtained through:
(a) Antibiotic treatment

(c) Root tip culture
190.
(d) Tissue culture variations

(b) Bordeaux mixture
(d) Shoot tip culture
To raising of plants from a small tissue in culture is known as:
' (a) Macroproduction (b) Micropropagation

(c) Tissue culture
(d) Mass production
191.
Callus is:
(lll)
Tissue that forms embryo
(mmm) An insoluble carbohydrate .

(nnn)
Unorganized actively dividing mass of cells maintained in culture
(ooo)
Tissue that growth to form embryoid
192.
A totipotent cell means:
An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into a system or entire plant
An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into an organ
An undifferentiated cell capable of developing into complete embryo
Cell which lacks the capability differentiate into an organ or system
Bacterial plasmid contains:
18.
19.
(a) RNA
(c) DNA
Best method to determine paternity is:
(a) Protein analysis
(c) Gene counting
(b)
(d)
RNA + protein
Photosynthetic structures
(b)
(d)
Chromosome counting
DNA finger printing
Haploid plant cultures are got from:

(a) Leaves
(b)
Root tip
(c) Pollen grain
(d)
Buds
(jj)
In callus culture, roots can be induced by the supply of:
(ll)
Auxin and no cytokinin
(mm)
I ligher concentration of auxin and lower concentration of cytokinin
(nn)
Higher concentration of cytokinin and lower concentration of auxin
(oo)
Both auxin and cytokinin in equal proportions
(kk)
Introduction of foreign genes for improving genotype is:
(a) Tissue culture
(b) Immunization
(c) Biotechnology
(d) Genetic engineering
(ll)
Plasmids are vectors for gene cloning because they:
(gg)
Self replicate in bacterial cells
(hh)
Replicate freely outside bacterial cells
(ii)
Can be multiplied in culture
(jj)
Can be multiplied in laboratories using enzymes
(mm)
pBR322 has base pairs:
(p)
322
(b) 3320
(s)
4363
(d) 6343
is the procedure of rapidly multiplying stock plant material to
193.
produce a
large number of progeny plants using modern plant tissue culture methods:
(a) Vegetative propagation
(c) Anther culturing
194.
(d) Meristem culturing
The first restriction enzyme was obtained from:
(a) Hamilton O. Smith

(c) Escherichia coli
195.
(b) Micro-propagation
(b) A bacterium
(d) Fungi
EcoRl cuts double stranded DNA when it has this sequence at the:
(a) Breaking site
(b) Flanking site
(c) Cleavage site
(d) Joining site
196.
Natural extra-chromosomal circular DNA in bacteria are called:
(a) Endonucleases
(c) Plasmids
197.
(b) Restriction enzymes
(d) Phage viruses
Plasmids are self-replicating bodies found in:
(a) Animal cell(b) Plant cell

(c) Bacteria
(d) Virus
198.
Organisms used as biofilters are:
(ppp)
Transgenic plants
Protoplasts
199.
The term, southern blotting' refers to:
Transfer of DNA 'fragments from in vitro cellulose membrane to
(b) Transgenic animals
(d) Transgenic bacteria
electrophoresis gel
*
Attachment of probes to DNA fragments
Transfer of DNA fragments from electrophoresis gel to nitrocellulose sheet
Comparison of DNA fragments from two sources
Chapter: 24
EVOLUTIDN
200.
Ideas concerning the theory of organic evolution were published and
supported ( with convincing evidence by Charles Darwin in:

(a) 1602
(b) 1750
(c) 1859
(d) 1923
201.
One source of evidence for evolution is
. This source is the study of- the
distribution of organisms around the world and helps explain why animals on
different continents are often very different even though their environments are
similar. It also explains why fossils of animals now living in Africa occur in South
America:
(a) Molecular biology (b) Comparative anatomy
(c) Paleontology
202.
(d) Biogeography
Two structures that are similar because of common ancestry are:
. (a) Analogous
(b) Homologous
(c) Comparative
(d) None of the above is corrcct
203.
When two unrelated animals adapt to similar conditions and superficial
structural similarities result,
evolution has occurred:
(a) Parallel
(b) Convergent
(c) Divergent (d) Homologous

204.
Which of the following statement is true about evolution?
(qqq)
Certain phenotypes are more fit in certain environments than others
(rrr)
Natural selection creates new alleles
(sss)
Genotype, not phenotype, influences fitness
(ttt)
Mutations always affect the fitness of an organism
205.
A population of horses is split into two populations by a new riverbed that
forms after flood. After many generations, the river changes course and the
populations mix again. Which of the following indicates that the two populations
have formed two separate species?
The populations refuse to cross the dry riverbed
The populations mix and mate and offsprings are produced although they arc
sterile
Both populations are primary consumers
The horses interbreed but the offsprings are shorter than either of the parents
206.
The first organisms on Earth were thought to be:
Autotrophs
(nn)
Heterotrophs (d) Oxygen producing
207.
Which of the following is not evidence for the role of endosymbiosis in the
(b) Chemosynthetic
origin of eukaryotes?
(uuu)
Chloroplasts have their own DNA
(vvv)
The inner membrane of a chloroplast is similar to prokaryotic membranes
(www) Mitochondria and chloroplast both are surrounded by two membranes

(xxx)
The DNA in the eukaryotic nucleus codes for some enzymes in mitochondria
208.
What is the difference between a threatened species and an endangered
species?
A threatened species means that the population is likely to become
endangered. An endangered species has population numbers so low that it is likely to

become extinct
A threatened species is already extinct. An endangered species means that the
populations numbers have increased greatly over the last 5 years
A threatened species means that the population is likely to become
endangered. An endangered species is already extinct
. A threatened species and an endangered species are the same thing
209.
Which of these programs is used to preserve a species facing extinction?
(a) Edge effects
(bj Sustainable use
(c) Natural resources (d) Captive breeding

210.
Archaeobacteria tolerate temperature up to:
(a) 110C
(b) 120C
(c) 130C
(d) 140C
211.
Eukaryotes are thought to have first appeared about
billion years ago:
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.5

(c) 3.5 (d) 4.5
212.
Darwin suggested that populations of individual species become better
adapted to their local environments through:

(a) Evolution (b) Natural selection
(c) Inherited characters
213.
(d) All the above
Production of more individuals that environment can support leads to a
struggle for existence among individuals of a:

(a) Generation
(b) Species
(c) Population (d) Community

214.
Natiiral selection can amplify or diminish:
Only those variations that are heritable
Only those variations that are not heritable
Both heritable and non-heritable variations
All the above
215.
If all members of a population are homozygous for the same allele, that
allele is said to be
in the gene pool:
(oo)
Dominant
(b) Over dominant
(pp)
Fixed (d) Co dominant
216.
The group of interbreeding individuals belonging to a particular species
and sharing a common geographic area is called:

(kk)
Species
(b) Population
(q)
Individual
(d) None of these
217.
In a population with two alleles for a particular locus, B and b. The allele
frequency of B is 0.7. What would be the frequency of heterozygote if the

population is in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium?
(a) 0.7
(b)
0.42
(b) 0.49
(d)
0.21
The ultimate source of all changes is:
(a) Gene
(b)
Allele
(c) Mutation
(d)
Crossing over
The main reason for the extinction of species is:
(a) Population
(b)
> Over(c) Habitat destruction
(d) '
Parasitism
production
(yyy) The rudimentary structuresof marginal or no use establish the relation of
between organisms:
(a) Comparative taxonomy
(c) Both a & b
(zzz)
(b) Comparative anatomy
(d) No relation
Production of several different species from a common ancestor:
(a) Natural selection (b) Adaptive radiation

(c) Vestigial structures(d) Parallel evolution
(aaaa) _____ appears useless but had an ancestral function:
(a) Natural selection (b) Adaptive radiation

(c) Vestigial structures(d) Migration
(bbbb) Speciation takes place when variation occurs with:
(a) Mood changes
(b). Death of an organism
(c) Changes due to accidents (d) Geographical isolation

(cccc) By studying analogous structures we look for:
Similarities in appearance and function but different in structure
Similarities in appearance bur differences if functions
Similarities in organ structure
Similarities in cell make up
(dddd) Which of these is not a living fossil?

*
Archaeopteryx(d) Duck-billed platypus
(pp)
Lungfish
(d) Frog
(eeee) Which of the following are not examples of analogous structures?

(qq)
Wings of bat and butterfly
(rr)
Wings of bat and forelimb of cattle
(ss)
Thorn and spine
(tt)
Tendril of Lathyrus and tendril of Gloriosa
(ffff)
Which of the following sentences is true about the evolutionary process?
(ll)
There is no real progress in the idea of evolution
(mm)
Humans are unique, a totally new type of organism
(nn)
Progress is nature's religion
(oo)
Evolution of life forms was rapid in the beginning ages
fly M
was a predecessor of Darwins and developed the theory of acquired

characteristics:
(a) Weismann (b) Mendel
(c) Malthus
(d) Lamarck
Links between organisms
that show branching pattern of evolutionary
relationships are shown by:

(a) Living fossils
(b) Comparative embryology
(c) Phylogenetic trees (d) Two fossil layers

Speciation is the evolutionary process by which:
218.
A new gene pool is formed
219.
Evolutionary paths of species converge
220.
Hybrids species form
221.
Shows up differences in physical traits
Population genetics is:

(gggg) The scientific study of gene pool in a biological population
(hhhh) The scientific study of genetic variations in a biological population
(iiii)
The scientific study of gene pool and genetic variations in a biological
population
(jjjj)
The scientific study of evolution in gene pool and genetic variations in a
biological population
What this statement depicts: All species of organisms arise and develop through
the natural selection of small, inherited variations that increase the individuals
ability to compete, survive and reproduce?
Lamarckism
Darwinism
Inheritance of acquired characters
Neo-Darwinism
Which of the following is not a factor that affects the gene frequency in HardyWeinberg theorem?
(a) Mutation (b) Migrations
*
Genetic drift (d) Population density
The change in frequency of the alleles at a locus that occurs by chance is called:
(a) Mutation (b) Migrations
(qq)
Genetic drift (d) Selection
A species in imminent danger of extinction throughout its range is called:

(a) Extinct
(uu)
(b) Threatened
Conserved
(d) Endangered
The oldest homologous structures are:

(a) Floral leaves
(pp)
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
(b) Forelimb of various animals
Vestigial organs
(d) Fossil fishes
34.
35.
36.
37.
Chapter: 25
-ECOSYSTEM
i
222.
Communal life means:
(kkkk) Interaction within individuals (b)
Interaction within species
Interaction within population (d)
Interaction within community
223.
Which of the following is/are example(s) of a scavenger?
Fungi (b)
Vulture
(rr)
Hyena (d)
Both b & c
224.
Examples of parasitism include all of the following except:
(a) Bird & rhinoceros (b) Virus & host cell

(vv)
Tapeworm & man
(d) Flukes & fish
225.
The applications of ecological principles to return a degraded ecosystem
to its natural state is characteristic of:

(a) Bioremediation
(b) Restoration ecology
(qq)
Succession
226.
It is thin layer of earth in which all organisms exist:
(a) Biomc
(d) Conservation ecology

(b) Ozone
(r)
Biosphere
227.
Who first proposed the term Niche in ecology?
(a) Haeckel
(d) Habitat
(b) Joseph Grinnel
(t)
Morgan
(d) Sutton
228.
Ecological niche is the:
(o)
Basic role of organism in the community
(p)
Role of a species that it plays in a community including behaviour & influence
(q)
Ultimate distributional unit within which a species is restrained by the
limitations of its physical structure and its physiology

(r)
All the above
229.
The study of a single population's relationship to its environment is:
(a) Synecology
(b) Autecology
37.
Ecosystem
230.
The sequence of principal stages of nitrogen cycle is:
(h)
Ammonification -* Nitrification -* Assimilation
(i)
Ammonification -* Assimilation - Nitrification
(j)
Assimilation -* Nitrification -* Ammonification
(k)
Nitrification Ammonification Assimilation
231.
(d) Community ecology
carry out the conversion of ammonia to nitrite (NOj)i
(ci)
Nitrosomonas (b) Rhizobium
(a)
Pseudomonas (d) Nitrobadtr
_ carry out the conversion of nitrite (NO2) to nitrates (NO3):

Nitrosomonas (b) Rhizobium
Pseudomonas (d) Nitrobacter
The reduction of nitrate to ammonium in the plant cell is called:
232.
Ammonification
(b) Nitrification
(llll)
Assimilation (d) Denitrification
(a)
(c)
12.
fixed by plants is gross primary production:
233.
Sunlight
Energy
13.
The total amount of.
(a) Mass (c) Biomass
In a pond community, the greatest mass present would consist of:
(a) Algae
234.
Frog
(b) Insects
(d) Fish
A climax community:
*
Is populated mainly so-called pioneer organisms
Is stable within a given climate
Is independent of the environment
Consists of decaying organic matter
14.
15.
16.
In an ecosystem, the greatest amount of stored chemical bond energy is generally
found in:
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
(a) Producer
(b)
Primary consumer
(c) Secondary consumer
(d)
Decomposers
Denitrifying bacteria:
(a) Turn ammonia into NO2
(b)
Turn ammonia into N2
(c) Turn ammonia into NO3
(d)
Turn ammonia into NH4
Environment includes the
under which an organism lives:
(a) Physical conditions
(b)
Biological conditions
(c) ' Physiological conditions
(d)
Both a & b
The major unit of ecology is:
(a) Community
(b)
Ecosystem
(c) Spccies
(d)
Biome
Primary succession on a rock is called:
(a) Xeroserc
(b)
Hydrosere
(c) Derosere
(d)
Mezosere
Succulent plants such as the cacti store surplus water in:
(a) Sclerenchyma tissues
(b)
Collenchyma tissues
(c) Parenchyma tissues
(d)
Inter-cellular spaces
are like crumpled leaves attached at one point:
(a) Foliage lichens
(b)
Crustose lichens
(c) Mosses
(d)
Tortula
Over-grazing may lead to:
(a) Forest
(c) Desert
235.
(b)
(d)
Lithosphere means the
(a) Air
(b) Water
(mmmm)
Soil
236.
More grass
None of these
content of Planet Earth:
(d) Non-living
Hydrosphere means the
content of Planet Earth:
(a) Soil(b) Water
Air
(d) Non-living
237.
The washing away of soil by the flow of water or other moving currents,
sometimes leading to landscape degradation or ecosystem damage is called:

(a) Bioleaching
(b) Soil erosion
None (d) Both
238.
The relationship between two organisms in which one organism takes
benefit from other and the other is neither benefited nor harmed is called:
(a) Commensalism
(b) Mutualism
(ss)
Parasitism
(d) Predation
239.
The regions of the surface and atmosphere of the Earth where living
organisms exist is:

(ww)
Biome (b) Habitat
(rr)
Biosphere
(d) Community
*
240.
The living organism which can prepare their own food are:
(s)
Predators
(b) Parasites
(u)
Producers
(d) Prey
241.
The total amount of fixed by plants is gross primary production:
(s)
Mass (b) Sunlight
38.
Biomass
242.
The sequence of principal stages of nitrogen cycle is:
(l)
Ammonification -* Nitrification - Assimilation
(d) Energy
(m)
Ammonification -* Assimilation -* Nitrification
(n)
' Assimilation -* Nitrification - Ammonification
(o)
Nitrification -* Ammonification - Assimilation
243.
_____ carry out the conversion of ammonia to nitrite (NO:):
(cii)
Nitrvsomonus (b) Rhizobium
(b)
Pseudomonus (d) Nitrobacter
SDME MAJOR ECOSYSTEMS

Largest ecosystem is:
(a) Salt water ocean ecosystem (c) Desert ecosystem
244.
71 % of the earths surface is occupied by:
(nnnn) Desert ecosystems

(oooo) Fresh water ecosystems
(pppp) Forests ecosystems
(qqqq) Salt water oceans & seas ecosystems
245.
1% of the earths surface is occupied by:
Desen ecosystems
Fresh water ecosystems
Forest ecosystems
Salt water ocean & sea ecosystems
246.
Which of these ecosystems has
'
the lowest primary productivity per
square meter?
(a) A salt marsh
(b) An open sea
(c) A coral reef
(d) A grassland
247.
Little light is left to power photosynthesis in an aquatic ecosystem at a
depth of:
(a) 400 feet
(b) 500 feet
(c) 600 feet

248.
(d) 700 feet
Which factors determine quantity and type of life in aquatic ecosystem?
(a) Water & Nutrient (b)

(c) Energy & Nutrient (d)
*
Which is a phytoplankton?
(a) Water Lilly (b)

(c) Hydrilla
*
(d)
Which is a zooplankton?
(a) Aquatic snake
(b)
(c) Small crustacean (d)

*
Rooted plants are found in the lake in:
(a) Littoral zone
(b)
(c) Profundal zone
(d)
2.
Which is not a hydrospheric ecosystem?
(a) Pond ecosystem
(b)
(c) Fresh water ecosystem

Salt water ecosystem Desert ecosystem
Forest ecosystem Grassland ecosystem
(d)
(b)
(d)
Water & Temperature Water & Energy
Typha
Euglena
Turtle
Frog
Limnetic zone All of them
249.
Only phytoplanktons are found in lakes in:
(a) Littoral zone
' (b) Limnetic zone
(rrrr)
Profundal zone
(d) Both a & b
250.
Profundal zone is mostly inhabited by:
(a) Producers (b) Consumers
Decomposers (d) All of them
251.
All of the following are reasonable hypotheses for the high diversity
observed in tropical rain forest except:

*
Habitat heterogeneity
Climatic variability
Niche specialization and resource partitioning
Population interaction and co-evolution
252.
In eutrophication process, there is oxygen depletion in the pond due to:
(tt)
Death of green plants
(uu)
Rapid growth of aerobic bacteria
(vv)
Reduced growth of photosynthetic bacteria
(ww)
Rapid growth of photosynthetic bactera
253.
In a pond undergoing the process of eutrophication, fish and other
animals die because of:

(xx)
Depletion of producers
(yy)
Depletion of oxygen
(zz)
Absence of light in lower layers
(aaa)
Foul smelling gas produced by anaerobic bacteria
254.
Which factor directly contributes in the elimination of most of the animal
life in a pond undergoing the process of eutrophication?

(ss)
Growth of blue green algae
(tt)
Absence of light in lower layers
(uu)
Growth of anaerobic bacteria
(vv)
Low pH
255.
Water of the eutrophicated lake becomes acidic due to:
(t)
Burning of fossil fuel by bacteria
(u)
Decomposition of fossil fuel by bacteria
(v)
Degradation of fossil fuel by bacteria
(w)
All of them
256.
Lithospheric or terrestrial ecosystem receives limited supply of:
(a) Light
(b) Nutrients
(v)
Water (d) All of them
257.
Which becomes
the limiting factor for the distribution of plants in
ecosystem?
(a) Water
(b) Nutrients
(t)
Light (d) Temperature
258.
Which becomes
the limiting factor for the
distribution f
In
land
ecosystem?
(a) Water
39.
(b)
Light (d)
Nutrient*
Tempcralwra
In which areas on land, temperature almost remains uniform, warm throughout

the year:
(a) Tropical zone
259.
(b) Temperate zone
North and South poles(d) None of them
The composition of which of the following component of land ecosystem is more

uniform?
(a) Temperature
(ssss)
Air
(b) Light
(d) Water
Rainfall is almost constant at:
North pole
Equator
Temperate deciduous forests are characterized by:
(xx)
Shedding of leaves in dry condition
(yy)
Sandy soil
(zz)
Puor fertility of land
(aaa)
Absorbing more water from soil in dry conditions
The average annual rainfall of temperate deciduous forest is between:

(a) 750-1500 mm
(bbb)
(b) 250-750 mm
25-50 (d) More than 1500 mm
21.
South pole Both a & b
25.
Maximum water holding capacity is found in:
(ww)
Temperate deciduous forest (b)
(x)
' The grassland ecosystem
(d)
Coniferous alpine & Boreal forest Desert ecosystem

The characteristic features of coniferous alpine forests is:
(w)
The presence of thick canopy
(x)
Presence of rhizome-
(y)
Presence of needle shaped leaves with a covering of waxy cuticle
(z)
Presence of herbs
(u)
The diversity of life is greater in:
40.
Temperate deciduous forest rb) Desert ecosystem
(p)
Tropical rain forest
(ciii)
Grassland ecosystem
27.
(c)
The annual rainfall in tropical and subtropical grass lands reaches up to:
31.
(a) 250 mm
(b)
(c) 1500 mm
(d)
Forbs are:
(a) Plants
(b)
(c) Algae
(d)
Layering is the characteristic feature of:
(a) Temperate deciduous forest
(b)
(c) Grassland ecosystem
(d)
Stratification is the characteristic feature of:
(a) Temperate deciduous forest
(b)
750 mm
2000 mm
Animals
Fungi
Coniferous alpine forest
Desert ecosystem
Coniferous alpine forest
(c) Grassland ecosystem
260.
(d)
Desert ecosystem
Layering and stratification in an ecosystem differ in the respect of having
generally:
(tttt)
Plants of variable lengths of the same family
(uuuu) Plants of variable lengths belonging to different families

(vvvv) A complex of variable plants and animals
(wwww)
261.
An of them
Dominant animal species in grassland ecosystem are:
i (a) Herbivores
(b) Carnivores
Omnivorcs
(d) Detritivores
262.
The most dominant competitor among herbivores in grassland ecosystem
is:
(a) Mosquito (b) Grasshopper
*
Aphid (d) Drosophila
263.
In sub-humid tropical grassland the annual productivity is more than:
(b) 1500gm/m'
37.
38.
39.
(c) 4000 g/m:
(d)
6000 g/m2
The total herbage consumed by herbivores in grassland is about:

(a) 5-10%
(b)
10-20%
(c) 15-25%
(d)
20-30%
The dominant insects in the pools of tundra are:
(a) Grasshoppers
(b)
Drosophila
(c) Mosquitoes
(d)
Jassids
The most fragile of all the biomes is: B
(a) Desert ecosystem
(b)
Grassland ecosystem
(c) Coniferous alpine ecosystem
Tundra ecosystem
The most probable reason for any ecosystem to be more fragile is:
(a) Low temperature

(c) Less availability
' tb)
'.(d)
High temperature
Short growing season
MAN & HIS ENVIRONMENT

1. Man is an eminent creature was recognized by science some:
2;
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
(a) 5000 years ago

(b)
10000 years ago
(c) 15000 years ago
(d)
20000 years ago
Treasure of all resources essential to maintain life on earth is:
(a) Ecosystem
(b)
Biosphere
(c) Biome
(d)
Environment
Which is a renewable resource?
(a) Fossil fuel
(b)
Metals
(c) Non metallic minerals
(d)
Wild life
From sea water, we mostly obtain:
(a) Sodium chloride
(b)
Potassium chloride
(c) Magnesium chloride
(d)
Calcium chloride
The area of the world under cultivation is about:
(a) 30%
(b)
97%
(c) 2%
(d)
11%
The major factor for depleting soil of mineral nutrients is:
(a) Erosion
(b)
Crop production
(c) Leaching
(d)
Poor agricultural practices
W hich species often require bare soil to establish 9
(a) Mosses
(b)
Grasses
(c) Conifers
(d)
Phanerogams
Game animals and plants refer to:
1
(a) Wild life
Jmf k JCTuiijijKr
(b) Animals and plants kept in zoo and garden
(c) Domesticated animals and plants
(d) Any of them
9.
Geothermal energy Wind
10.
Coal
Natural gas Coal
Natural gas
Tides in oceans are produced by the gravitational pull of:
264.
Sun
(b) Moon
(xxxx) Earth (d) Sun and Moon
Which is exhaustible source of energy?

(a) Solar energy
(c) Fossil
(b)
(d)
Which is inexhaustible source of energy?

(a) Biomass
(b)
(c) Oil (d)

Which is not a fossil fuel?
(a) Biomass
(b)
(c) Oil (d)

11.
12.
Chapter: 27
13.
14.
15.
i
16.
17.
The cheapest source of energy is:

(a) Hydroelectric powder
(b)
Tidal power
(c) Winder power
.. (d)
Nuclear energy
Waste gases are produced by:
(a) Nuclear energy
(b)
Tidal power
(c) Hydroelectric power
(d)
Fossil fuels
No investment is made to obtain:
1
(a) Hydroelectric power
(b)
Wind energy
(c) Geothermal energy
(d)
Tidal power
Harmful substances such as boron and oxides of sulphur are released along with
energy in:
(a) Fossil fuels
(b)
(c) Geothermal energy
(d)
The one environmental problem that is the
problems is:
Nuclear energy
Solid wastes
root of all other environmental
(a) Pollution
(b)
Depletion of fossil fuels
(c) Deforestation
(d)
Over population
18. As regards eating habits, early man was:
(a) Herbivorous
(b)
Carnivorous
(c) Omnivorous
(d)
All of them
265.
Which is major factor contributing to loss of biodiversity?
(yyyy) ' Habitat loss & fragmentation
(zzzz) Introduced species
(aaaaa) Over exploitation of Plants and Animals

(bbbbb) Industrial agriculture and forestry
266.
Dependence on same resources of the environment by increasing
members of the population is called:

(a) Population explosion
(b) Population pressure
Both of them (d) None of them
267.
The establishment of new forests where no forests existed previously is
called:
Reforestation
Forestation
River
Forest
(b)
(d)
(b)
(d)
Deforestation
A-forestation
(a)
(c)
The best environment buffer is:
(a) Lake (c) Ocean
22.
50% of the rain water is contributed by:
*
Evaporation of water from oceans
Evaporation of water from rivers
Transpiration from terrestrial plants
Transpiration from aquatic plants ,
Any thing produced by humans which is or may be harmful i<> Hi other living
organisms is called:
(a) Human pollution (b) Community (itMM
(c) Environmental pollution (d) Any ol ih*
23.
Wi MM)
24.
25.
(b)
10-30 kms
(d)
10-50 kms
(b)
Beriberi
(d)
Goiter
(b)
AIDS
(d)
Osteoarthritis
(b)
Scurvy
(d)
Alzheimer
28.
Ozone layer filters most of the:
(a) 10-20 kms (c) 10-40 kms
Which is a congenital disease?
(a) Diphtheria (c) Hemophilia
Which is a heritable disease?
(a) Downs syndrome (c) Cold
Which is a parasitic disease? (a) Malaria (c) Cretinism
Which disease is caused by nutritional deficiency?
(a) Gonorrhea (b) Goiter
268.
Arteriosclerosis
(d) Cholera
\
Which disease is caused by hormonal disorder?
(a) Turners syndrome(b) Tuberculosis
(ccccc) Anemia
(d) Diabetes mellitus
Green house effect and acid rains are global effects of the:
(a) Environment
Weather
(b) Pollution
(d) All the above
Pyrolysis is a decomposition of organic material at elevated temperatures in the

absence of oxygen. This process is the example of:
(a) Destructive distillation
*
Biodegradation
(b) Biodegeneration
(d) None of these
i Ml .
29.
30.
32.
ADDITIONAL TOPIC
XMPORTATMCE OF FUNGI! (MOLDS)
1
USEFUL ASPECTS OF FUNGI
ECOLOGICAL IMPORTANCE OF FUNGI
269.
Fungi have great ecological impact as decomposers and symbionts.
270.
Fungi play vital role in the recycling of inorganic nutrients in the ecosystem.
271.
Mycorrhizal fungi improve the growth of plants with which they are
associated. 95% of all kinds of vascular plants have this association.

272.
Lichens growing on rocks break them, setting stage for other organisms during
the course of ecological succession.
273.
Lichens are very good bioindicators of air quality as they are very sensitive to
pollution.
274.
Some fungi are also used for bioremediation (degrading/removing
environmental poisons/pollutants by organisms).

X
ECONOMIC IMPORTANCE OF FUNGI
FUNGAL SPECIES
SUBSTANCE
USES
Yeast (Saccharomyces
Used in production of bread and liquor
cerevisiae)
Penicillium sp.
Used to give flavour, aroma and
Aspergillus sp.
characteristic colour to some cheese

(ddddd) Used to ferment soya sauce and
soya paste from soya bean
Penicillium notatum
Penicillin
(eeeee)toUsed
obtain citric
acid
Used
treat to
infections
caused
by
bacteria, such as ear infections, syphilis,

Oyster mushroom
Lovastatin
tonsillitis, meningitis, ami pneumonia as

Used
lowering
for blood cholesterol
well asforother
disca*c
Soil fungus
Cyclosporine
Used to prevent tis\ic rejection
Claviceps purpurea
Penicillium sp.
Ergotine
#
.
Used to inhabit luncal
Lichens
'
Used to obtain i.
>
M MU#
H1
|| THE STAR MCAT
SERIES
. ..
>
used in textile industry

Yeasts
275.
Used in genetic & molecular
biology research^ E.g. Pink bread mold

(Neurospora crassa)
Now being investigated for
In 1983, a functional artificial
Yeast (Saccharomyces
276.
(fffff)
cerevisiae)
chromosome was made

(ggggg) In 1996, Genomic sequence was
ECONOMIC LOSSES/DISEASES DUE TO FUNGI

completely studied
DAMAC,E/IHSEASE TO THE PLANTS
Fungi cause many serious plant diseases because they produce several
enzymes that can breakdown cellulose, lignin and even cutin.
Fungi cause extensive damages due to rusts and smut diseases of wheat, com
and rice.
Powdery mildews, ergot of rye, red rot of sugar cane, Potato wilt, cotton roof
cot, apple scab, and brown rot of peaches, plums, apricots and cherries are some other
common plant diseases caused by fungi.
Saprobic fungi cause incalculable damage to food, wood, fiber, and leather by
decomposing them. 15-50% of world's fruit is lost each year due to fungal attack.
. Wood-rotting fungi destroy net only living trees but also structural timber. Bracket/
shelf fungi cause lot of damage to stored cut lumber as well as stands of timber of
living trees.
DAMAGE/DISEASE TO THE ANIMALS
Fungi also cause certain animal diseases. Ringworm and athletes foot are superficial
fungal infections caused by certain imperfect fungi.
Candida albicans - a yeast causes oral and vaginal thrush (candidiasis or candidosis).
Histoplasmosis is a serious infection of lungs caused by inhaling spores of a fungus
which is common in soil contaminated with bird's feces. If infection spreads into
blood stream and then lo other organs (which is very occasional), it can be serious and
even fatal.
Aspergillus fumigatus causes aspergillosis but only in persons with defective immune
system such as AIDS, and may cause death.
Some strains of Aspergillus produce one of the most carcinogenic mycotoxins called
aflatoxins. Milk, eggs and meat may also have small traces of aflatoxins.
Aspergillus contaminates improperly stored grains such as peanuts and com etc.
Ergotism is caused by eating bread made from purple ergot-contaminated rye flour.
The poisonous material in the ergot causes nervous spasm, convulsions, Psychotic
delusion and even gangrene.
Pink yeast (Rhodotorula) grows on shower curtains and other moist surfaces.
I
SOLANACEAE
SPECIES
Potato
Tomato
Brinjal (egg plant)
Mississippi sport
BIOLOGICAL NAME
Solatium tuberosum
Solatium esculentum
Solarium molangena
Capsicum annum
USE(S)
Used as a food especially in Ireland
Home garden vegetable
I sed as a vegetable
Rich source of vitamin A and C and is used
Pepper
Red Pepper
Capsicum frutescens
as condiment
Rich source of vitamin A and C and is used
Ground cherry
Tobacco plant
Death Cherries
Physalis
Nicotiana tabacum
Atropa belladona
as condiment
Produces an edible fruit in a bladder fsac)
Leaves of it arc dined to make tobacco
Produce atropine which is used in
A genus
Datura
medicines
Produce daturine which is used in
Petunia
* .' A Mfc
Cultivated for flowers as ornamental plants
Nicotiana
Cestrum
Solatium
CAESELPIN1ACEAE (CASSIA FAMILY)

BIOLOGICAL NAME
SPECIES
USE(S)
Leaves yield drug 'Sewin' wt laxative
Leaves are used to cure rm^ worm aftd skin diseases
Ringworm Bush
Neutral henna
Henna
Leaves yield drug S< laxative
Nam-nam
Oil extracted from ill externally for skin
Kachnar
Cynometera cauliflora
Bauhinia variegate
Cassia obovata
Cassia senna
Cassia alata
277.
Leaves and flowers buds are used as
vegetables
Amaltas
A genus
Imli
Cassia fistula
Parkinsonia
Tamarindus indica
Bark is used in tanning

Cultivated as ornamental plant
Cultivated as ornamental plant
(hhhhh) Acid fruit of this plant is edible and
278.
is rich in tartaric acid

Longwood
Haematoxylon
(iiiii)
Bark
used
in tanning
Produces
the isdye
Haematoxylin
GRAMINEAE (Most important family from economic point of view)

SPECIES
Wheat
Oats
Corn (maize)
BIOLOGICAL NAME
Triticum vulgare
Avena sativa
Zea mays
USE(S)
Food sources for man
Whiskey is obtained from it
Rice
Barley
Oryza sativa
Hordeum vulgare

*
Rye ,
Secale cereale
*
(bbb)

Broomcorn
Sorghum vulgare
(ccc)
(ccc)

Long fibrous panicle of this plant is
(Jowari)
used for making brooms

(ddd)
Millet
Sugar :ane
Penisetum typhoideum
Saccharum officinarum
Bentgrass
A genus
Perennial grass
Bamboo
Agrostis
Poa
Festuca
Bambusa
The mature seed is similar to oat in
Used
as food for birds and humans also
feed value
(xx)
Used to obtain sugar
Rum is obtained from it
Used in lawns as ornamental
(y)
Used in building materials for the
(yy)
thatched huts
(z)
Used to make boats, carts and pipes
(aa)
Split stems are used woven in mats,
baskets, fans, hats, course umbrella

(bb)
Leaves are given to horses as a cure
Kingdom Animalia
COKLOMATES
The animals with a coelom (body cavity) are called coelomates. E.g. animals from
annelids to chordates.
ACPkLOMATES
The animals without a coclom (body cavity) are called acoeloinates. E.g. Flatworms.
PSEIDOCOKLOMATKS
The animals without a true coelom (body cavity) are called pseudocoelomates. E.g.
Aschelminthes.
Pa ranchyma imeaodarm)
Matodarma!
peritonaum
Gut landodarm)
Maaodarmal
Maaantary
ACOELOMATfc
1
"m*,3CO,)
F*audoco ' (tftdodtrm) __
* 'itLL ' lUii
COELOMATE
PSEUDOCOELOMATE
RADIATA
A morphological condition in which the parts of an animal are arranged concentrically
around an oral-aboral axis and more than one imaginary plane through this axis yields
halves that are mirror images of each other is called radial symmetry.
A symmetry in which only one imaginary plane from the central axis divides the
animals into two equal halves is called bilateral symmetry.
Posterior end
Dorsal'side
Anterior end
Ventral 9de
Plane cf symmetry
Planes of symmetry
BILATERAL SYMMLIKY
Hr m i tmttm
RADIAL SYMMETRY
P1PLOBLAST1C ORGANIZATION
An organism with two germ layers (ectoderm and endoderm) is called diploblastic.
TRIPLOBLASTIC ORGANIZATION
An organism with three germ layers (ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm) is called
triploblastic.
PHYLUM PORIFERA
GENERAL CHARACTERS
279.
Multicellular but no tissue no organ formation
280.
Body with pores (.Ostia and osculum) and canals for the water passage
281.
Mostly marine, all aquatic
282.
Asymmetrical
283.
Outer layer of pinacocytes and is called pinacoderm
284.
Inner layer is of Choanocytes and is called choanodcrm
285.
Intracellular digestion
286.
Respiration and Excretion by diffusion
287.
Nervous system absent
288.
Asexual reproduction by buds and Gcmmules (internal buds)
REGENERATION IN POR1KERA
Sponges have great ability of regeneration. They exhibit somatic embryogenesis, a
special type of regeneration in which there is a complete reorganization of the
structure and function of participating cells or bits of tissues.
Sponges do not have any nervous system or pain receptors, so when they arc pluck
into pieces, they do not feel pain. The isolated bits get free from the influence of
adjoining cells, so they realize their own potential to change in shape or function and
develop into a new organism.
PHYLUM CN1DARIA/COELENTERATA
GENERAL CHARACTERS
Entirely aquatic, mostly marine
Radial symmetry
Diploblastic
Radial symmetry
No coelomic cavity
Two basic types of individuals: Polyps and Medusae
Body layers are epidermis and gastrodermis
Gastrovascular cavity
Sac-like digestive system
Special stinging cells called cnidocytes with stinging organelles called nematocysts
Diffused nervous system
Excretory system absent
Respiratory system absent
Asexual reproduction by budding (in polyps)
Sexual reproduction by gametes (in medusae)

152 |
By: Prof. M. Umair Bhatti
CORA REEFS AS HABITAT FOR SEA ANIMALS

Coral reefs are important habitats. They are thought to support more than 1 million
aquatic species. This includes not only several hundred species of the corals but
thousands of the fishes and invertebrate species such as sponges, crabs, shrimps,
lobsters, sea anemone, worms, sea stars, sea urchins, octopuses, squids and snails.
Marine Demospongiae on Caribbean coral reefs. A, Pseudoceratina crassa is a
colorful sponge grcmtog at moderate depths. B, Ectyoplasia ferox is irregular in
shape and its oscula form small. volcano Uks cones. It is toxic and may cause skin
irritation if touched. C, Monanchora unguifera with cmirr**.#*! brittle star,
Ophiothrix suensoni (phylum Echinodermata, class Ophiuroidea).
It is estimated that nearly one quarter of the worlds marine spct ic* r MNMMHI the
shelter and food provided by the coral reefs. Invertebrates that mfubii ill* COWilflfM
substrate are collectively called cryptofauna. Over 4000 species of 1 fMNjflR
PHYLUM PLATYHELMINTHES
GENERAL CHARACTERS
289.
Triploblastic
290.
Bilateral symmetry
291.
Acoelomates
292.
Dorsoventrally compressed body
293.
Flatworms
294.
Digestive system incomplete (sac-like digestive system)
295.
CNS with a pair of anterior ganglia, longitudinal and transverse nerves present
296.
Simple sense organs
297.
Excretory system called Protonephridium having cells called flame cells
298.
Respiratory system absent
299.
Circulatory system absent
300.
Skeletal system absent
301.
Mostly monoecious
Examples
Taenia solium Fasciola hepatica Dugesia Schistosoma
INFECTIONS IN HIMAN'S 1)1 E TO PLATYHELMINTHES
DISEASE
COMMON CAUSATIVE AGENT SYMPTOMS / EFFECTS
Schistosomiasis
NAME
Snail fever
Several flukes of the
Abdominal pain, cough
genus Schistosoma
diarrhea, extremely high

eosinophil count, fever,
Neurocysticercosis
Taenia solium (Larvae)
fatigue &
fm
Cysts in the parenchyma of

Cysticercosis
brain. It dizziness,
presents with
Taenia solium (Pork Tape the
Headaches,
in
...
worm)
.... . . . . . .
Diphyllobothriasis
blindness and even death

Diphylloboth ri um latum Vitamin B12 deficiency and
(fish tapeworm)
Hydatidosis-
more severe cases dementia,
in severe cases anemia
Echinococcus granulosus Enlarged liver, Abdominal

(dog tapeworm)
Tapeworm Liver fluke Planarian Blood fluke
pain, Hives, Eosinophilia,

Jaundice
SCIENTIFIC NAME
Hook worm (causes Hook worm Ancylostoma duodenale
Contact with juveniles in soil
disease)
Pin worm (causes Pin worm
that burrow into skin

Inhalation of dust with ova and
Etiterobius vermiculari
infection)
by contamination with fingers
Intestinal roundworm (causes
Ascaris lumbricoides
Ingestion of embryonated ova
Ascariasis)
Trichina worm (causes
Trichinella spiralis
in contaminated food
Ingestion of infected muscle
trichinosis)
Whip worm (causes Trichuriasis)Trichuris trichiura
Ingestion of contaminated
food or by unhygienic habits
Filaria (Causes Elephantiasis)
Wuchereria bancrofti
Transmitted by mosquitoes
PHYLUM ASCHELMINTHES
INFECTION IN HUMANS
Hook worm Pin worm Ascaris Filaria
MODE OF INFECTION
PHYLUM ARTHROPODA
GENERAL CHARACTERS
Largest phylum with around 1.1 million species Bilateral symmetry Triploblastic
Coelomates
Segmented body divided into tagmata (head & trunk) or head, thorax and abdomen
Jointed appendages Cuticular exoskeleton
Complex muscular system, striated muscles for rapid movement Complex digestive
system Open circulatory system 4
Respiration by body surface, gills, trachca or book lungs Excretory organs called
Malpighian tubules are present Complex nervous system Well developed sensory
organs Sexes usually separate Fertilization internal Mostly oviparous
Metamorphosis both complete and incomplete Ecdysis/moulting
ECONOMIC IMPORTANCE OF ARTHROPODS AND HARMFUL IMPACTS
ON MAN
BENEFICIAL INSECTS
Honey bee produces honey and beeswax.
Silkworm produces silk.
Lac insects secrete shellac (a resin) in the form of a wax. rnsects are nacessary for
cross-fertilization of many crops.
Insect larvae are source of food for fish.
Many predaceous insects such as tiger beetles, aphid lions, ant lions and lady bird
beetles destroy harmful insects.
HARMFUL INSECTS
302.
Many types of mosquitoes, flies, fleas, lice and bugs transmit disease causing
organisms to man, his domestic animals and crops.

303.
Female mosquitoes of genus Anopheles transmit Plasmodium that causes
malaria in man.
304.
African Tse tse fly transmits Trypanospoma, the cause of African sleeping
sickness and skin diseases.

305.
Common house fly (Musca domestica) caries pathogens to contaminate food
and causes cholera and hepatitis etc.

306.
Mosquitoes also transmit yellow fever and lymphatic filariasis.
307.
Fleas carry plague.
308.
Lices are vector for typhus fever.
309.
A number of insects lay eggs on fruits and other commercial crops such as
sugar cane, maize, cotton and also on vegetables. The larvae of these insects damage
fruits and crops and cause economic loss.
\* sTI T %
Evolution
MERITS AND DEMERITS OF LAMARCKISM
MERITS
310.
It provided a way in which changes in organisms could come about.
311.
It was the first completely comprehensive mechanistic theory.
312.
It was exemplified by many common examples.
DEMERITS
(jjjjj)
Lamarckism has no experimental bases.
(kkkkk) Lamarck suggested the tendency to increase in size while many plants (e.g.
ferns) have shown reduction in size during evolution.

(lllll)
Lamarcks idea that the new organs result from the new needs was wrong.
(mmmmm)
Lamarcks idea that organs develop due to use and degenerate due to
disuse was correct only if it is studied in the light of growth.

(nnnnn) Lamarcks idea of inheritance of acquired characters was also wrong.
MERITS AND DEMERITS OF DARWINISM

DEMERITS
Darwin believed evolution by the accumulation of slow and small variations.
But in many instances the occurrence of such variations when they are not fully
developed are of no use to the individuals in the struggle for existence. For instance,
the eye in the case of animals is useful only in a fully formed condition and surely all
the features of the eye according to Darwin could not have come into existence at one
go. It should have been by accumulation of several mutations. But then each change
by itself is of no advantage.
In many instances the adaptations of individuals seem to be more of a
disadvantage r; ther than any use. For instance the antlers in deer are more obstructive
because of th^ir huge size than, of any use, when the animal has to run to avoid from
predators. In this instance nattiraT selecflbtf indeed should have limited the structures
not to grow beyond a point of usefulness.
The main drawback in Darwins theory is that hq assumed that the organisms
are having favourable and unfavourable variations. The main aspect in the mechanism
of evolution is the origin of variations. Only then one can explain the role of natural
selection. Natural selection according to Darwin is only an arbiter to decide which
variation is favourable or unfavourable. But the crux of evolutionary theory is to
explain how a variation can arise. Further, Darwin also did not distinguish between
heritable and non heritable variations.
Natural selection theory docs not satisfactorily attribute the reasons for the
presence of vestigial organs. For example appendix in human beings. These organs
should have been eliminated by natural selection during the course of evolution.
313.
If all the species were to be evolved by the accumulation of small variations,
there should have been transitional forms in almost all the species. But this is not the
case. Darwin however explained this away by attributing it to the faulty preservation
of fossils. In areas where no interlinking forms were found, Darwin used the term
"missing links". For instance between man and monkey.
314.
Natural selection as believed by Darwin was only a selective force and not a
creative force. Many of the current observations have indeed shown that the
environment not
(ooooo) only chooses favourable variations but also is a causative agent for variations.
315.
It could not tell whether instincts are acquired and modified through natural
selection or not.
316.
Darwin explained the survival of the fittest but not the arrival of the fittest.
317.
Why are the new inherited characteristics not diluted when the organisms
possessing with breed with the others not possessing them. Now we know that
fundamental nature of the genes itself in nol altered or diluted and the genes emerge
unchanged in the successive generations.
UNIT # 1
1.
D
9.
A
17. B
25. A
33. B
UNIT # 2
2.
10.
18.
26.
34.
A
A
D
A
C
3.
11.
19.
27.
35.
C
A
A
C
D
D
fJ-%: c
c
WL M B
1.
A
9.
B
17. B
25. C
33. A
41. C
49. D
UNIT # 3
2.
10.
IK.
26.
34.
42.
50.
A
C
D
D
B
C
A
3.
11.
19.
27.
35.
43.
51.
D
B
A
B
C
D
A
C
A
D
B
C
B
C
ANSWER KEY (MCAT)

D
C
7.
15.
36.
44.
52.
5.
13.
21.
29.
B
C
C
A
D
5.
D
13. B
21. A
29. C
37. D
45. B
W3M A
6.
14.
22.
30.
38.
C
C
A
C
B
7.
15.
23.
31.
D
D
C
B
8.
A
<16. B
24. B
32. A
D
B
D
23.
31.
D
B
B
B
D
D
B
B
D
D
B
D
B
B
B
B
D
D
5.
C
13. C
21. A
29. A
37. A
45. D
53. C
61. C
69. D
77. C
UNIT # 4
6.
14.
22.
30.
38.
46.
54.
62.
70.
78.
1.
9.
17.
25.
33.
41.
2.
10.
18.
26.
34.
42.
B
D
B
B
B
D
B
C
)B
A
D
A
3.
11.
19.
27.
35.
A
C
D
A
A
m
12.
36.
C
D
D
D
B
5.
13.
21.
29.
37.
A
D
A
D
B
6.
14.
22.
30.
38.
C
A
B
D
B
39.
A
A
C
B
A
8.
16.
24.
32.
40.
B
B
C
D
D
UNIT # 5
1.
9.
17.
25.
33.
41.
D
C
B
D
B
D
C
2.
10.
18.
26.
34.
42.
B
A.
A
A
C
A
8.
16.
24.
32.
40.
48.
56.
64.
72.
80.
A
A
B
B
c
C
B
A
A
c
B
D
D
D
UNIT # 6
B
B
B
B
B
D
B
D
B
7.
15.
23.
31.
39.
47.
55.
63.
71.
79.
C
C
c
A
A
C
D
C
B
D
3.
11.
19.
27.
35.
43.
B
A
B
C
D
D
4.
12.
36.
44.
A
D
A
C
C
D
5.
13.
21.
29.
37.
45.
B
D
C
D
B
D
87.
95.
103.
111.
119.
127.
135.
143.
151.
159.
167.
175.
183.
191.
199.
B
D
B
D
B
D
B
D
D
D
D
B
B
D
B
B
B
D
B
D
B
D
D
A
D
C
D
B
A
D
A
B
B
A ,
D
A
D
C
88.
96.
104.
112.
120.
128.
136.
144.
152.
160.
168.
176.
184.
192.
200.
C
D
D
C
B
B
B
D
C
C
C
D
B
B
D
D
D
D
B
D
B
B
D
B
D
D
B
B
B
B
D
D
D
B
B
D
D
D
UNIT # 7
1.
9.
17.
25.
33.
41.
C
D
C
A
B
A
2.
10.
18.
26.
34.
42.
D
B
B
A
C
D
3.
11.
19.
27.
35.
43.
A
A
A
B
D
B
4.
12.
36.
44.
D
D
C
D
A
A
5.
13.
21.
29.
37.
45.
B
D
C
D
C
C
6.
14.
22.
30.
38.
46.
C
A
A
B
C
A
39.
47.
D
D
B
B
A
B
8.
16.
24.
32.
40.
48.
A
B
D
A
D
C
UNIT #8
1.
C
2.
D
10.
17. B
18.
25. C
26.
B
7.
A
C
15. D
C
23. B
UNIT# 10
1.
D
9.
B
17. B
25.
D
UNIT # 9
B
D
A
C
8.
16.
24.
3.
11.
19. i
27.
A
A
C
D Uio. warn n.
18. Hill 19.
26. Mi 27.
B
B
A
A
4.
12.
20.
28.
A
A
D
A
5.
13.
21.
29.
D
C
A
B
6.
14.
22.
30.
'A
C
C
B
7.
15.
23.
31.
ANSWER KEY (NUST)

CHAPTER#!
1.
9.
D
C
2
10.
C
A
17. D
C
25. C
C
33. B
34. B
d ErM b Kl a~ b
3.
11.
c
1)
A
C
5.
13.
C
c
6.
14.
19. B
27. D
35. C
b BcM a
36.
D
B
A
21.
29.
37.
B
c
c
22.
30.
38.
B
D
D
4.
12.
20.
B
C
C
5.
13.
21.
D
1B
A
6.
14.
22.
c ETj Wm b
A I A Bi C
B
CHAPTER # 2
1. C
9. B
17. C
2.
10.
18.
A
A
B
it:
B3
A
C
B
7- !
15. |
23. i
D
B
B
C
8.
16.
24.
32.
B
D
C
B
25. A
26. B
CHAPTER # 3
28.
29.
30.
31. |
1.
A
2.
A
9.
D
10. B
17. B
IS. B
CHAPTER # 4
3.
11.
19.
D
D
D
4.
12.
20.
A
C
A
5.
13.
21.
B
D
C
/
6.
14.
22.
D
A
A
7.
15.
23.
B
C
C
8.
16.
24.
C
c
B
l.
C
2.
9.
D
10.
17. C
18.
25. A
26.
CHAPTER #5
B
B
D
C
3.
11.
19.
27.
B
D
C
D
4.
12.
20.
28.
C
D
D
D
5.
13.
21.
29.
B
B
A
C
6.
14.
22.
30.
C
C
D
A
7.
15.
23.
31.
B
C
B
D
8.
16.
24.
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Book 2 Muzammil

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Chapter: 11

The initial and final energy states of reaction components

The mechanism of reaction

The time needed for chemical change to take place

All the above

The standard free energy of hydrolysis of ATP to ADP is approximately:

(d) Both a & b

is a quinone derivative with a long, hydrophobic isoprenoid tail:

Before entering Krebs cycle pyruvate is changed to:

(d) Acetyl CoA

are cyclic compounds that readily bind metal ions:

(d) All the above

Electrical energy passing through a hot plate to produce heat energy

The first law of thermodynamics

The second law of thermodynamics

All of the above

The major energy currency of the cell is:

The breaking of one high-energy bond in ATP releases approximately

The end products of fermentation are and:

(b) Pyruvate & lactic acid

(c) Lactic acid & alcohol

(d) Alcohol & glucose

The net ATP gain in glycolysis is:

The transfer of electrons from one molecule to another is termed:

(b) An oxidation-reduction reaction

(c) A transfer reaction

(d) Botha&bare correct

Fermentation regenerates ultimately obtain ATP:

which is needed to drive glycolysis to

When an amide group is removed from an amino acid to yield ammonia,

Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, needed for the conversion of Pyruvic acid to

Intermembranal space of mitochondria

What happens during light reaction?

CO2 reacts with H2

Photosynthesis takes place:

(b) (c) Lysis of water molecule (d)

In visible light obtained from any source

Only in high intensity of light

The prerequisities of Calvins cycle are:

(c) C02> ATP, NADPH2

Synthesis of PGAL CO2 combines with H2O

Chemical which absorbs light energy and changes it to chemical energy is

Chlorophyll a (b) Chlorophyll b

Action spectrum is:

A graph showing amount of light absorbed

A graph showing rate of photosynthesis

A graph showing absorption of light

A graph showing amount of C02 released

In respiration, pyruvic acid is:

Formed only when the cell is with mitochondria

Formed only when oxygen is available

Formed only when cell is performing aerobic respiration

Commonly formed as intermediate product of aerobic and anaerobic

Number of steps involved in release of C02 during Krebs cycle are:

Mitochondrial criste are sites of:

(a) Krebs cycle

(b) Oxidation reduction reaction

(c) Protein synthesis (d) Lipid synthesis

Number of carhort atoms present in citric acid, oxaloacetic acid pyruvic

acid are respectively:

Removal of hydrogen and C02 from substrate is called:

(a) Oxidation (b) Decarboxylation

End products of aerobic respiration are:

(a) Sugar & Qxygen (b) Water & Energy