TEAM DYNAMICS

Copyright 2008 McGraw-Hill Higher Education

Question 1: D-Teams have which of the following

features?
A: Two or more people
B: Perceive themselves as a social entity
C: Exist to fulfill some purpose.
D: Team members influence each other
E: All of these are features of teams.
Question 2: A-Some ____ are just people
assembled together without any
necessary ________.
A: groups, interdependence
B: production teams, norms
C: teams, cohesiveness
D: task forces, goals
E: teams, norms
Question 3: D-Which of these statements is
TRUE?
A: All groups are teams.
B: Groups are teams with a high level of task
interdependence.
C: Unlike teams, groups are associated with an
organizational objective.
D: Some groups are just people assembled together in
the same physical area.
E: Groups are teams that have no purpose for their
members.
Question 4: A-Which of these statements about
teams is FALSE?
A: All groups are teams.
B: Teams are held together by their interdependence
and need for collaboration to fulfill goals.
C: Team members perceive themselves as a social
entity within the organization.
D: Team members influence each other, although
some members are more influential than others.
E: All teams exist to fulfill some purpose.
Question 5: A-Which of the following statements
about teams and groups is FALSE?
A: Some teams exist without any goal or purpose.
B: A team can have dozens of members.
C: Departments are teams when employees interact
with each other.
D: All members of a work team have influence,
although some may have more influence than
others.
E: A team always requires some form of
communication among its members.
Question 6: C-Employees working in a
department would be considered a team
only when:
A: they operate without any supervisor.
B: everyone in the department has the same set of
skills.
C: they directly interact with each other and
coordinate work activities.
D: they are all located in the same physical area.
E: all of these conditions exist.
Question 7: D-Employees working in a
department would be considered a team
only when:
A: they have the same skills.
B: they report to the same supervisor.
C: they manage their own work activities without a
supervisor.
D: they are encouraged to directly interact and
coordinate work activities with each other.
E: Never, because work teams never include all
employees from the same department.

Copyright 2008 McGraw-Hill Higher Education

D: any temporary team that investigates a particular

problem and typically disbands when the decision
is made.
E: None of these statements describes a task force.
Question 9: E-Royal Dutch/Shell Group formed a
team to improve revenues for its service
stations along major highways in
Malaysia. This team, which included a
service station dealer, a union truck driver
and four or five marketing executives,
disbanded after it had reviewed the
Malaysian service stations and submitted
a business plan. The Malaysian group is
called:
A: a friendship group.
B: a commuter group.
C: an informal group.
D: a community of practice.
E: task force.
Question 10: E--Which of the following is usually
an informal group?
A: Task force
B: Team-oriented department
C: Management team
D: Production team
E: People you regularly meet for lunch.
Question 11: B---_____ is one explanation why
people belong to informal groups.
A: Rewards
B: Social identity theory
C: Stages of team development
D: Social loafing
E: None of these factors explains why people belong
to informal groups.
Question 12: D--According to social identity
theory:
A: teams are never as productive as individuals
working alone.
B: the most effective teams have as many members
as the organization can afford.
C: the team development process occurs more rapidly
for heterogeneous teams than for homogeneous
teams.
D: people are motivated to become members of
groups that are similar to themselves.
E: team members identify with their team only when
they are publicly recognized as members of that
team.
Question 13: D--The motivation to be part of an
informal group is influenced mainly by the
drive to:
A: defend
B: learn
C: acquire
D: bond
E: be fair
Question 14: A--The drive to bond and the
dynamics of social identity theory both
explain why people:
A: join informal groups.
B: tend to ignore team norms whenever possible.
C: have difficulty feeling cohesiveness in teams.
D: engage in social loafing.
E: work better alone than in teams.
Question 15: A--A team that achieves its
organizational goals, satisfies member
needs, and survives in its environment:
A: is an effective team.

Question 8: D-A task force refers to:

A: any informal group that has the same members as
the permanent task-oriented group.
B: any formal group whose members work
permanently and most of their time in that team.
C: any formal group whose members must be able to
perform all tasks on the team.

Copyright 2008 McGraw-Hill Higher Education

B: is called a task force.

C: has not yet reached its highest level of team
development.
D: has a strong communication system but
inappropriate reward system.
E: has too many members for the required task.

Question 16: D--A team is effective when:

A: it is able to maintain the teams survival.
B: members are able to fulfill their needs through
membership in the team.
C: it achieves its goals.
D: it achieves all of these outcomes.
E: it achieves its goals AND maintains the teams
survival.
Question 17: D--Which of the following
organizational environment features
potentially affects team effectiveness?
A: Reward systems
B: Communication systems
C: Organizational leadership
D: Physical space
E: All of these features
Question 18: D--The design and effectiveness of
most teams are affected by:
A: organizational leadership.
B: reward systems.
C: communication systems.
D: organizational structure.
E: All of these environmental conditions.
Question 19: C--Organizational leadership,
organizational structure, and reward
systems are:
A: three of the main sources of team cohesiveness.
B: three team design features.
C: three elements of the organizational and team
environment.
D: three of the main causes of social loafing.
E: three ways to minimize teambuilding.
Question 20: B---_______ shapes employee
perceptions about being together as a
team and influences the teams ability to
accomplish tasks.
A: Task independence
B: A U-shaped production layout
C: An organizational structure with many layers of
management
D: An individual reward system
E: Social loafing
Question 21: D--In U.S. firms, team members
tend to work together more effectively
when:
A: they work in separate areas of the company.
B: they are rewarded for team performance rather
than individual performance.
C: they work in a structure that encourages
communication and coordination through their
supervisor.
D: they are rewarded for both individual and team
performance.
E: they have independent tasks.
Question 22: C--Teams work better when the
organizational structure:
A: organizes teams around specialized skills rather
than work
processes.
B: has many layers of management.
C: encourages interaction with team members rather
than through supervisors.
D: organizes teams around specialized skills, has
many layers of management, AND encourages
interaction with team members.
E: does not exist.
Question 23: A--Which of the following
statements about teams and task
characteristics is FALSE?

Copyright 2008 McGraw-Hill Higher Education

D: People have a greater sense of being on a team

when co-workers are linked through reciprocal than
pooled interdependence.
E: Team members with relatively independent tasks
are less likely to coordinate with each other.
Question 24: A--Production employees working
on an assembly line usually have which of
the following types of task
interdependence?
A: Sequential interdependence
B: Total independence
C: Reciprocal interdependence
D: Pooled interdependence
E: None of these represents the interdependence of
an assembly line.
Question 25: A--Two company divisions produce
completely different products but must
seek funding from head office for capital
expansion. The relationship between
these two divisions would be best
described as:
A: pooled interdependence
B: total independence
C: reciprocal interdependence
D: anticipatory interdependence
E: sequential interdependence
Question 26: C--Pooled interdependence is:
A: essential for team effectiveness.
B: the same as reciprocal interdependence.
C: the weakest form of interdependence other than
complete independence.
D: the best way to avoid social loafing
E: None of these statements represent pooled
interdependence.
Question 27: C--Of what importance is task
interdependence to teams or team
dynamics?
A: Task interdependence is not important for teams or
team dynamics.
B: Low task interdependence motivates employees to
work together as a team.
C: Jobs with high task interdependence are usually
completed more effectively by teams than by
individuals working alone.
D: Low task interdependence is necessary to prevent
the team from breaking apart.
E: High task interdependence weakens team
cohesiveness.
Question 28: E--Employees should almost always
be organized into teams when they have:
A: pooled interdependence.
B: a very high level of heterogeneity.
C: counterproductive norms.
D: high levels of social loafing.
E: reciprocal interdependence.
Question 29: C--ABC Corp. formed a special task
force to identify delivery schedule
problems. The task force originally had
five members, but this increased to
fifteen members after the company
president decided to include three people
from each department rather than just
one. What will likely happen as a result of
this change?
A: Team cohesiveness will increase.
B: Team members will spend less time coordinating
their work.
C: Team members will associate themselves with

A: Teams are generally more effective when each

persons tasks have low interdependence with
tasks performed by other team members.
B: Teams are generally more effective when tasks are
well structured and, therefore, easier to coordinate
with other people.
C: Teams usually work better on complex rather than
simple tasks.

D: cannot have fewer than five members.

E: should be as large as possible, but smaller than the
entire organization.
Question 31: B--Compared with small teams,
large teams usually:
A: are more effective performing services.
B: have more process losses.
C: have team members who feel more involved in the
teams success.
D: have more pooled interdependence.
E: have all of these consequences.
Question 32: B--When forming a team, it is
critical that each team member has:
A: the complete set of skills necessary to perform the
teams task alone.
B: the motivation to work together.
C: valuable skills that other team members do not
know about.
D: no previous experience working with any of the
other members.
E: all of these characteristics.
Question 33: A--A heterogeneous team is better
than a homogeneous team:
A: on complex projects and tasks requiring innovative
solutions.
B: on tasks requiring a high degree of cooperation.
C: in situations where the team must reach the
performing stage of team development quickly.
D: in every organizational activity.
E: never; heterogeneous teams are always less
effective than homogeneous teams.
Question 34: C--Faultlines are more likely to
occur when teams that:
A: have very few members.
B: have developed through to the performing stage.
C: are heterogeneous.
D: are highly interdependent.
E: have none of these features.
Question 35: E--Teams are most effective when
their members:
A: have the same skills and values.
B: collectively possess the required competencies for
the task.
C: are motivated to participate in the team.
D: have all of these features.
E: collectively possess the required competencies for
the task AND are motivated to participate in the
team.
Question 36: E--Compared with heterogeneous
teams, homogeneous teams:
A: become cohesive more easily.
B: proceed through the team development process
more quickly.
C: experience less conflict with each other.
D: experience better interpersonal relations.
E: have all of these characteristics.
Question 37: A--Teams with strong faultlines:

Copyright 2008 McGraw-Hill Higher Education

informal subgroups.
D: Team members will engage in less social loafing.
E: None of these actions would occur.
Question 30: B--In terms of team size, the
general rule is that teams:
A: cannot have more than seven or possibly eight
members.
B: should have the fewest number of people possible
to perform the work.
C: can be large or small without any influence on the
teams effectiveness.
Question 39: C--The first three stages of team
development in sequential order are:
A: storming, norming, performing.
B: adjourning, conforming, performing.
C: forming, storming, norming.
D: forming, norming, performing.
E: forming, conforming, reforming.
Question 40: D--Which of he following is NOT a
stage of team development?
A: performing
B: storming
C: norming
D: conforming
E: forming
Question 41: E--Conforming, performing, and
reforming are all:
A: stages of team development.
B: types of team norms.
C: reasons why teams disband.
D: factors that improve team cohesiveness.
E: none of these statements.
Question 42: E--What generally occurs during the
storming stage of team development?
A: Members learn about each other and evaluate the
benefits and costs of continued membership.
B: Members shift their attention away from task
orientation to a socio-emotional focus as they
realize their relationship is coming to an end.
C: Members have learned to coordinate their actions
and now become more task-oriented.
D: Members develop their first real sense of cohesion
and, through disclosure and feedback, make an
effort to understand and accept each other.
E: Members try to assume specific responsibilities and
influence the teams goals and means of goal
attainment.
Question 43: A--The team development model
does NOT recognize that:
A: some teams remain in a particular stage longer
than others.
B: informal groups do not experience any
development process.
C: teams really never develop past the norming stage.
D: the storming stage is a type of performing.
E: the storming stage follows the forming stage.
Question 44: C--How do norms affect the
behavior of team members?
A: Norms encourage members to try new behaviors
not previously sanctioned by the team.
B: Norms represent the glue or esprit de corps that
holds the team together.
C: Norms help the team regulate and guide the
behaviors of its members.
D: Norms help the team move from the forming to
storming stages of team development.
E: Norms apply to the attitudes and beliefs, not the
behaviors, of team members.

A: experience more dysfunctional conflict within the

team.
B: proceed more quickly through the team
development process.
C: have team members with similar demographic and
professional backgrounds.
D: tend to have very few members on the team.
E: have better interpersonal relations.
Question 38: C--During which stage of team
development does a consensus form
around the teams objectives?
A: performing.
B: reforming.
C: norming.
D: conforming.
E: forming.

Copyright 2008 McGraw-Hill Higher Education

Question 45: A--Which of these statements about

team norms is FALSE?
A: Norms apply only to thoughts or feelings, not
behaviors.
B: Team members often conform to prevailing norms
without direct reinforcement or punishment from
other team members.
C: Some norms develop from a critical event in the
teams history.
D: Team norms are most strongly influenced by events
soon after the team is formed.
E: Some norms develop from the beliefs and values
that members bring to the team.

Copyright 2008 McGraw-Hill Higher Education

Question 46: E--Several customer service teams

in your organization have dysfunctional
norms in which they dont pro-actively ask
clients whether they would like to try
certain new services. If you were given
the opportunity to form a new customer
service team, which of the following would
remove or avoid forming this
dysfunctional norm?
A: Soon after the team members are selected, you
clearly state the norm that team members should
pro-actively ask clients to consider other services.
B: You select employees who do not accept the
dysfunctional norm.
C: You introduce a team-based reward system that
explicitly discourages the dysfunctional norm.
D: If team members are regularly forgetting to ask
clients to consider other services, then you would
explicitly talk to them about the problems and
dangers of this dysfunctional norm.
E: All of these actions would remove or avoid forming
this dysfunctional norm.
Question 47: B--If a dysfunctional norm is very
deeply ingrained, the best strategy is
probably to:
A: tell the group that corporate leaders are willing to
tolerate the dysfunctional norm.
B: disband the group and replace it with people having
more favorable norms.
C: supplement the existing group with one or two
people having more favorable norms.
D: introduce rewards that further support the
dysfunctional norm.
E: do nothing.
Question 48: E--Which of these statements about
team roles is FALSE?
A: Some team roles are formally prescribed with the
job.
B: Team members often negotiate the preferred roles
in the team during the team development process.
C: Some team roles support task completion, whereas
other roles support the teams maintenance.
D: Some team roles are informally fulfilled by various
team members.
E: A team role is almost always assigned to the same
person for the life of the team.
Question 49: E--A characteristic of team roles is
that:
A: they influence the emotions and attitudes, but not
behaviors, of team members.
B: they are always assigned by organizational leaders
to specific people in the team.
C: they usually weaken team cohesiveness.
D: most teams can operate effectively without any
team roles.
E: they either focus the team on its objectives or
maintain good working relations among team
members.
Question 50: D--Coordinator, evaluator, plant, and
completer finisher are:
A: the first four stages of team development.
B: different types of teams.
C: the main ways that teams avoid information
overload.
D: various roles found in teams.
E: four activities used in teambuilding.
Question 51: B--Shaper, specialist, and resource
investigator are:

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Question 52: E---The degree of attraction people

feel toward the team and their motivation
to remain members is called:
A: social loafing.
B: team development.
C: team heterogeneity.
D: task interdependence.
E: team cohesiveness.
Question 53: D--Which of the following has a
curvilinear relationship with team
cohesiveness, that is, the strongest
cohesiveness is neither at very high or
very low levels of this factor?
A: Member similarity
B: Member interaction
C: Team success
D: Difficult entry to the team
E: All of these conditions have a curvilinear
relationship with team cohesiveness.
Question 54: A--Team cohesiveness tends to be
higher:
A: in smaller teams.
B: when entry into the team becomes extremely
difficult and humiliating.
C: when the team has distinct faultlines.
D: when members have limited interaction.
E: when all of these conditions occur
Question 55: B--Team cohesiveness can be
strengthened in each of the following
ways EXCEPT:
A: making the team just large enough to facilitate
goal accomplishment.
B: letting anyone become a team member.
C: creating or sensitizing the team to an external
threat to its existence or goal accomplishment.
D: ensuring that team members have compatible
values and goals.
E: showing members that the team is necessary to
fulfill individual needs.
Question 56: A--Team success, team size, and
member similarity are three:
A: of the main factors influencing team cohesiveness.
B: ways to change team norms.
C: elements of the organizational and team
environment.
D: of the main causes of social loafing.
E: ways to minimize teambuilding.
Question 57: A--As team leader, you discover
that a competitor is about to develop a
similar product that your group is
currently developing. What is most likely
to happen if you tell your team members
about this external threat?
A: The team would become more cohesive.
B: The team would begin to introduce dysfunctional
norms.
C: The team would move quickly to the adjourning
stage of team development.
D: Individual team members would become more
productive through social loafing.
E: All of these will occur.
Question 58: C--Which of the following does NOT
occur as team cohesiveness increases?
A: Team members are more motivated to maintain
their membership in the team.
B: Team members spend more time together.
C: Team members experience more dysfunctional
conflict among themselves.

A:
B:
C:
D:
E:

different types of teams.

roles found in teams
three activities used in teambuilding.
the first three stages of team development.
dysfunctional norms identified in most teams at one
time or another

Copyright 2008 McGraw-Hill Higher Education

D: Team members experience less stress.

E: Team members provide more social support to
each other.

Question 59: E--What is the relationship between

team cohesiveness and team
productivity?
A: Higher team cohesiveness increases productivity.
B: Higher team cohesiveness reduces productivity.
C: Team cohesiveness has no effect on productivity.
D: The effect of cohesiveness on productivity depends
on the groups attitude towards cohesiveness.
E: The effect of team cohesiveness on productivity
depends on whether team norms are consistent
with organizational goals.
Question 60: B--Compared to people in low
cohesion teams, members of high
cohesion teams:
A: are less motivated to maintain their membership.
B: are more likely to resolve conflicts swiftly and
effectively.
C: are less sensitive to each others needs.
D: less likely to share information with each other.
E: tend to experience all of these results.
Question 61: B--Brooks Law says that adding
more people to a late software project
only makes it later. This law is mainly
referring to:
A: team cohesiveness.
B: process losses.
C: team norms.
D: team environment.
E: informal teams.
Question 62: A--According to Brooks Law, adding
more people to a late software project
tends to:
A: further delay the project.
B: increase team cohesiveness.
C: require less effort to maintain team dynamics.
D: speed the team faster through team development.
E: have no effect on team dynamics.
Question 63: C--In team dynamics, process losses
are best described as:
A: productivity losses that occur when team members
need to learn a new task.
B: information lost due to imperfect communication.
C: resources expended towards team development
and maintenance.
D: knowledge lost when a team member leaves the
organization.
E: None of these statements describe process losses.
Question 64: B--Social loafing is more likely to
occur:
A: in smaller rather than larger teams.
B: when the task is boring.
C: in tasks with high interdependence.
D: when employees believe the teams objective is
important.
E: among employees with collectivist rather than
individualistic values.
Question 65: D--Keeping the team size
sufficiently small and designing tasks
such that each team members
performance is measurable are two ways
to:
A: minimize team cohesiveness.
B: add more roles to the team.
C: increase the risk of forming dysfunctional norms.
D: minimize social loafing
E: do all of these things to the team.
Question 66: C--Social loafing can be minimized
by doing which of the following?

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Question 67: A--Which of the following does NOT

minimize social loafing?
A: Form larger work teams.
B: Specialize tasks.
C: Measure individual performance.
D: Make the work more interesting to the social loafer
and other team members.
E: Select team members with a collectivist value
orientation.
Question 68: E--The phenomenon where people
exert less effort when working in groups
than when working alone is called:
A: team cohesiveness.
B: social identity.
C: pooled interdependence.
D: team conformity.
E: social loafing.

A: Adding more people to the team.

B: Creating tasks where each members contribution
is pooled.
C: Monitoring individual performance.
D: Making the work less interesting to the social loafer
and other team members.
E: Selecting team members with a highly
individualistic value orientation.

Copyright 2008 McGraw-Hill Higher Education