350-080 CCIE Data Center Written Exam

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 350-080

Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam
Version: 16.041
QUESTION 1
In a configuration with redundant supervisors, how many IP addresses are required to configure
full remote access via management 0?
A.
B.
C.
D.
two IP addresses, one for each supervisor

three IP addresses, one virtual IP and one physical IP for each supervisor
one IP address that is shared among supervisors
none--management 0 will use the IP address from the first SVI that is created
Answer: C
QUESTION 2
VLAN configuration using DCNM can be completed by which two supported methods? (Choose
two.)
A. Copy and paste the VLAN, along with its VLAN ID, name, type, admin state, and admin status, from
one device to another.
B. Create a single VLAN or a range of VLANs.
C. A VLAN is created only after choosing File > Deploy to apply changes.
D. After a VLAN is created, it requires the state to be enabled.
E. Modify the existing VLAN by choosing Interface > VLAN > VLAN Settings.
Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
Enabling jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch can be done through which
method?
A.
B.
C.
D.
changing the default policy map from a default MTU of 1500 to 9216
using the command system jumbomtu 9216
using the command interface MTU 9216
configuring the default Ethernet system class to an MTU of 9216 with a new network QoS policy map
Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which two statements about authentication settings for DCNM-LAN are true? (Choose two.)
A. If none of the authentication servers that are configured for the current authentication mode responds
to an authentication request, the DCNM-LAN server falls back to local authentication.
B. DCNM-LAN only supports TACACS+.
C. Each DCNM-LAN server will have the same device credentials.
D. Administering DCNM-LAN authentication settings requires an authentication license.
E. DCNM-LAN server users are local to the DCNM-LAN server.
Answer: AE
QUESTION 5
DCNM is capable of monitoring the network performance of a SAN. What are the three primary
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areas of this operation?

A.
B.
C.
D.
analyze traffic, device management, and network monitoring

DCNM-SAN, DCNM-LAN, and device manager
definition of flows, information collection, and data presentation
SNMP poll data, MIB analysis, and report generation
Answer: C
QUESTION 6
What is required for proper implementation of jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 2000
Series Fabric Extender?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The interface configured as FEX fabric requires the MTU to be set to jumbo.
The service policy must be applied to the system QoS.
The device defaults to jumbo frame support; no changes are required.
The switchport in the FEX interface must be set to MTU 9216.
Answer: B
QUESTION 7
DCNM device discovery is done by connecting to Cisco NX-OS devices and doing which three of
these? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
collecting the running configuration

raising the logging level to meet the minimum requirement
discovering all devices by default
discovering devices using multiple user accounts as long as they are administrator-level accounts
using LLDP to discover network adaptors
Answer: ABE
QUESTION 8
What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface.
It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface.
It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface.
It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings.
Answer: C
QUESTION 9
In a virtual port channel (vPC) configuration, VRRP exhibits which characteristic?
A. VRRP does not work with vPC due to industry standard requirements
B. VRRP works with vPC in traditional active/standby modes
C. VRRP works with vPC in an active/active mode
D. VRRP work with vPC as long as vPC peer-gateway is configured to address non-standard replies
to the physical MAC address
Answer: C
QUESTION 10
On Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches, where are the virtual output queues implemented, and
what is the main purpose of virtual output queues?
A. on all ingress interfaces; to ensure maximum throughput on a per-egress, per-CoS basis
B. on all ingress interfaces; to provide independent congestion management and 16 queues
C. on all egress interfaces; so that a congested egress port does not affect traffic directed to other
egress ports
D. on all egress interfaces; to prevent head-of-line blocking by utilizing multiple virtual output queues
E. on all egress interfaces; to be able to use EEE 802.1p CoS
Answer: A
QUESTION 11
On the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, Control Plane Policing is enforced on which
component?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The supervisor module enforces CoPP before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
The fabric modules enforce CoPP in the fabric before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
The linecards enforce CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
The egress virtual output queue enforces CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU
Answer: C
QUESTION 12
You are troubleshooting a PIM neighbor adjacency that is not coming up. You issued the
command show ip pim neighbor e1/18 and confirmed there is no PIM neighbor on the interface.
What is the problem based on the debug output?
2012 Feb 23 23:00:08.676710 pim: [16132] (default-base) Received
unauthenticated hello-message from 10.1.1.2 on Ethernet1/18, message
discarded
2012 Feb 23 23:00:12.528763 pim: [16132] (default-base) Send Hello with
AH on Ethernet1/18 from 10.1.1.1, holdtimE. 105 secs, dr-priority: 1
A. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has PIM disabled on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18.
B. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has the wrong PIM password configured on its interface connecting to
Ethernet1/18.
C. The local router 10.1.1.1 has the wrong PIM password configured on Ethernet1/18.
D. The peer router 10.1.1.2 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled on its interface connecting
to Ethernet1/18.
E. The local router 10.1.1.1 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled for Ethernet1/18.
Answer: D
QUESTION 13
What is the benefit of using Anycast RP via RFC 4610 for IP multicast RP redundancy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Improves convergence of the multicast network due to enhanced RPF checks

Simplifies the number of control plane protocols over other RP redundancy methods
Eliminates the use of Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) in the topology
Increases the administrative distances in Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) configuration
Answer: B
QUESTION 14
Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 7000 line cards are true? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
M1, M2, and F1 cards are allowed in the same VDC.

M line cards are service-oriented and likely face the access layer and provide Layer 2 connectivity.
F line cards are performance-oriented and likely connect northbound to the core layer for Layer 3 connectivity.
M line cards support Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4 with large forwarding tables and a rich feature set.
The F2 line card must reside in the admin VDC.
Answer: AD
QUESTION 15
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) uses the Authoritative Edge Device (AED) to perform
which tasks?
A. The AED is responsible for sending all unicast traffic in a site, while either node in a site can transmit
multicast and broadcast.
B. The AED is responsible for load balancing all traffic for all VLANs across the transport network.
C. The AED is responsible for handling all unicast, broadcast, and multicast traffic for a given VLAN
within a site.
D. The AED is responsible for MAC address dispute contention for a given VLAN.
Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which three statements about the DHCP snooping feature on Cisco Nexus switches are true?
(Choose three.)
A. DHCP snooping commands are not available until the feature is enabled with the feature dhcp- snooping
command.
B. When you enable the DHCP snooping feature, the switch begins building and maintaining the DHCP
snooping binding database.
C. The switch will not validate DHCP messages received or use the DHCP snooping binding database
to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hosts until DHCP snooping is enabled globally and
for each specific VLAN.
D. Globally disabling DHCP snooping removes all DHCP snooping configuration on the switch.
E. Globally disabling DHCP snooping does not remove any DHCP snooping configuration or the configuration
of other features that are dependent upon the DHCP snooping feature.
Answer: BCE
QUESTION 17
Which three statements describe user authentication in Cisco DCNM-LAN? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco DCNM-LAN server users are local to the Cisco DCNM-LAN server. Creating, changing, and
removing Cisco DCNM-LAN server users has no effect on user accounts on managed devices.
B. A Cisco DCNM-LAN server user that has Administrator privileges can push out changes to managed
devices even if the Cisco NX-OS role that is used on the discovered device has the network operator role.
C. Cisco DCNM-LAN user roles restrict the ability of users to make changes to Cisco DCNM-LAN server
settings. Cisco NX-OS user roles enforce read/write privileges on the discovered devices.
D. Cisco DCNM-LAN allows you to configure unique credentials for each discovered device or use default
credentials when you do not configure unique credentials for a device.
E. Cisco DCNM-LAN can use AAA servers to authenticate users. Only TACACS servers are supported.
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 18
What is the reason why this user is not able to enter configuration commands?
Nexus# conf t
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.
Nexus(config)# interface Loopback10
% Permission denied
Nexus(config)# ?
no Negate a command or set its defaults
username Configure user information.
end Go to exec mode
exit Exit from command interpreter
A. The user did not enter enable prior to going into configuration mode.
B. The software license installed on Nexus is Layer 2 only, which does not allow the creation of
Layer 3 interfaces.
C. The user RBAC role is set to network-operator.
D. The user failed authentication and user access defaulted to read-only mode.
E. The AAA server is currently not responding.
Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Which three statements describe the configuration change management feature in DCNM LAN?
(Choose three.)
A. Switch profiles allow configurations to be synchronized between switches and are supported with
any Cisco NX-OS Software managed device.
B. DCNM LAN can archive configurations from devices even if they are not managed by the DCNM
server, and the administrator can supply the device management IP address and credentials.
C. You can archive a maximum of 50 configuration versions per managed device.
D. Managed devices must be licensed in DCNM LAN before they can be used with configuration change
management.
E. Device-running configuration will be archived only if it differs from the last archived version.
Answer: CDE
QUESTION 20
Which three statements best describe HSRP configuration on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose
three.)
A. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP routers
will forward data traffic. No additional configuration is required.
B. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP routers
will forward data traffic if the peer-gateway feature is enabled.
C. You can configure two overlapping HSRP groups to load share traffic from the connected hosts while
providing the default router redundancy.
D. You can use the show standby command to verify HSRP operation and configuration.
E. If you remove the feature hsrp command, all relevant HSRP configuration information is also removed.
Answer: ACE
QUESTION 21
Which statement describes SNMP functionality in Cisco NX-OS Software?
A. NX-OS Software supports one instance of SNMP globally for all VDCs; however, MIB counters are
collected and reported individually per VDC.
B. SNMP must be enabled with the feature snmp command before any SNMP configuration is possible.
C. SNMP is always enabled by default in NX-OS Software and cannot be disabled.
D. NX-OS Software supports 3DES and AES for SNMPv3 message encryption.
E. SNMP always uses the default VRF on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches.
Answer: D
QUESTION 22
Which statement describes the graceful restart capability in Cisco NX-OS Software?
A. In NX-OS Software, the OSPFv2 graceful restart extension is Cisco proprietary and is only compatible
with other Cisco routers.
B. A graceful restart allows OSPFv2 to remain in the data forwarding path through a process restart.
When OSPFv2 needs to restart, it first sends a type 8 LSA, which includes a grace period that tells
NSF helpers to keep all LSAs that originated from the restarting interface.
C. Graceful restart helps keep an NX-OS system forwarding traffic transparently even if it experiences
a cold reboot.
D. If the restarting OSPFv2 interface does not come back up before the end of the grace period, or if the
network experiences a topology change, the OSPFv2 neighbors tear down adjacency with the restarting
OSPFv2 interface and treat it as a normal OSPFv2 restart.
E. OSPFv3 graceful restart must be disabled before doing an ISSU.
Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which statement describes the XML management interface in Cisco NX-OS Software?
A. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. close-session,
copy-config, delete-config, and edit-config.
B. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. close-session,
copy-config, edit-config, and kill-session.
C. NX-OS Software supports up to a maximum of 16 concurrent XML sessions.
D. Only show commands are supported via the XML management interface in NX-OS Software.
E. The NX-OS implementation of the XML-based NETCONF requires SSH to be used for communication
with the device.
Answer: E
QUESTION 24
Cisco FabricPath uses what as a common bridge ID to connected Spanning Tree Protocol
bridges?
A.
B.
C.
D.
C84C.75FA.6000
0100.5E11.02FD
C84C.76FA.6000
4000.0000.0001
Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which statement describes OTV configuration on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?
A. The OTV control-plane protocol uses the IS-IS protocol to establish adjacencies and exchange MAC
reachability across the overlay network. You must enable IS-IS with the feature isis command before
OTV adjacencies can be established.
B. OTV uses an SSM group range for neighbor discovery and to exchange MAC reachability with other
OTV edge peers.
C. The OTV join interface is a routed uplink interface on the edge device used to physically join the overlay
network.
D. The OTV internal interface encapsulates the site Layer 2 frames in IP unicast or multicast packets that
are then sent to the other sites.
Answer: C
QUESTION 26
How are IP multicast IGMP entries synchronized between vPC peers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
IGMP is not synchronized between vPC peers

Cisco Fabric Service carries IGMP entries across the vPC peer link
IP ARP synchronization under the vPC domain configuration also synchronizes IGMP
IGMP is flooded to the L2 domain, and there is no need to synchronize it between vPC peers
Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which option describes the default roles available to RBAC on Cisco Nexus switches?
A.
B.
C.
D.
admin, operator, network-admin, and network-operator

admin, read-only, network-admin, and network-operator
vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operator
vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operator (for Nexus 7000) and network- admin
and network-operator (for other Nexus switches)
E. admin and read-only
Answer: D
QUESTION 28
What does the command "IP ARP synchronize" do in a vPC configuration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Synchronizes ARP entries between vPC peers every five minutes

Triggers a manual update of ARP entries from the primary peer to the secondary
Enables a bulk loading of ARP entries when a vPC peer is restored
Uses the peer-keepalive link to maintain ARP table consistency
Answer: C
QUESTION 29
Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output?
Nexus# sh ip igmp snooping vlan 120
IGMP Snooping information for vlan 120
IGMP snooping disabled
Optimised Multicast Flood (OMF) disabled
IGMP querier none
Switch-querier enabled, address 1.1.1.1, currently not running IGMPv3
Explicit tracking enabled
IGMPv2 Fast leave disabled
IGMPv1/v2 Report suppression enabled
IGMPv3 Report suppression disabled
Link Local Groups suppression enabled
Router port detection using PIM Hellos, IGMP Queries
Number of router-ports: 0
Number of groups: 0
Active ports:
Po100 Po111
A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been enabled on
the switch with the feature igmp command.
B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the Loopback interface
configured with 1.1.1.1/32 is currently in a down state.
C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI.
D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode.
E. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because VLAN 120 does not exist in the VLAN database.
Answer: D
QUESTION 30
What is the default Time to Live (TTL) valuse in Cisco FabricPath?

A.
B.
C.
D.
128
32
64
Dependent on the number of switch IDs in the topology
Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Assuming the local peer is 10.0.0.1 and the remote peer (configuration not shown) is 10.0.0.2,
which of these is used to configure PIM Anycast-RP on a Nexus 7000 switch?
A. feature pim
!
interface loopback1
ip address 10.0.0.1/32
ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0
ip pim sparse-mode
!
interface loopback2
ip pim sparse-mode
!
ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.1
ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4
B. feature pim
!
interface loopback1
ip pim sparse-mode
!
interface loopback2
ip pim sparse-mode
!
C. interface loopback1
ip pim sparse-mode
!
interface loopback2
ip pim sparse-mode
!
10

D. feature pim
feature msdp
!
interface loopback1
ip pim sparse-mode
!
interface loopback2
ip pim sparse-mode
!
ip msdp originator-id loopback1
ip msdp peer 10.0.0.2 connect-source loopback1
ip msdp description 10.0.0.2 To 7010-2
ip msdp password 10.0.0.2 mypassword
!
Answer: A
QUESTION 32
When using Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV), how do L2 multicast frames traverse the
overlay?
A. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured control-group
multicast address for transport
B. The L2 multicast frames are dropped because multicast cannot be carried across the overlay
C. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured data-group
multicast address for transport
D. The L2 multicast frames are forwarded natively across the overlay based on their multicast IDs
Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which three statements best describe multicast operation on Cisco Nexus switches in a data
center? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco NX-OS Software does not support PIM dense mode.
B. The command ip multicast-routing must be enabled in Cisco NX-OS Software before any multicast
configuration is possible on the switch.
C. PIM CLI configuration and verification commands are not available until you enable the PIM feature
with the feature pim command.
D. Cisco NX-OS Software supports multicast routing per Layer 3 VRF instance.
E. The default PIM operational mode on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch is SSM.
Answer: ACD
11
QUESTION 34
On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, what is the purpose of this command?
switch# config terminal
switch(config)# mac address-table learning-mode conversational vlan 110
switch(config)#
A.
B.
C.
D.
Enable conversational learning on FabricPath vlans 1-10 for F-Series module

Enable FabricPath protocol on VLANs 1?0
No need for this command as conversational learning is enabled by default for all VLANs.
Enable conversational learning on Classical Ethernet VLAN for F-Series module
Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Where is a typical request in the Cisco UCS XML API placed in the data management engine,
and, after the request is confirmed, what is updated?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The request is placed in the transactor queue in FIFO order and the management information tree is updated.
The request is placed in the replicator and persistifier and the store is updated.
The request is placed in the data management engine and the application gateway is updated.
The request is placed in the buffer queue and the commit buffer queue is updated.
Answer: A
QUESTION 36
In the Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco
FabricPath switches compare which three parameters to select the root? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Root priority
System ID
Bridge ID
Switch ID
Port ID
Subswitch ID
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 37
By default, what type of SSH server key is generated by Cisco NX-OS Software?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
DSA key generated with 512 bits

RSA key generated with 768 bits
DSA key generated with 1024 bits
Answer: C
12
QUESTION 38
Refer to the exhibit. Which statements are true about the subswitch ID that is filled in the header?
(Choose three.)
A. FabricPath switches running vPC use this field to identify the specific virtual switch.
B. FabricPath switches running vPC+ use this field to identify the specific vPC+ PortChannel on which
traffic is to be forwarded.
C. The subswitch ID field is locally significant to each vPC+ switch pair.
D. The subswitch ID field must be unique within the FabricPath domain.
E. In the absence of vPC+, this field is set to 0.
Answer: BCE
QUESTION 39
Refer to the exhibit. vPC+ is configured between which switches?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 23

Switch-ID 100 only
Answer: A
QUESTION 40
In a Cisco Nexus 7000 platform configured with GLBP, which GLBP timer can be tuned to
13
prevent unnecessary GLBP state changes during a switchover or ISSU?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
GLBP redirect timer

GLBP forwarder pre-empt delay minimum timer
GLBP hold timer
GLBP pre-empt delay minimum timer
GLBP extended hold timer
GLBP nonstop forwarding timer
Answer: E
QUESTION 41
SNMPv3 authorizes management operations only by configured users and encrypts SNMP
messages. Which authentication protocols does Cisco NX-OS Software use for SNMPv3?
(Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
NMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol

HMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol
Community String Match protocol
NMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol
HMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol
Answer: BE
QUESTION 42
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivity
between separate Layer 2 domains, while keeping these domains independent and preserving
the fault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing benefits of an IP-based interconnection. Which
statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose two.)
A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport.
B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport.
C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register with the
Adjacency Server.
D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as an
Adjacency Server.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 43
Which two statements about VACLs on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches are true? (Choose
two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
A single VACL can be shared across two or more VDCs.

Use of VACLs requires no special license to be installed.
VACLs make use of IP or MAC ACLs.
Only options drop and forward are permitted.
Answer: BC
14
QUESTION 44
Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a Virtual PortChannel (vPC)
is created. During a compatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration information to the
other vPC peer in order to verify that vPC member ports can actually form a PortChannel. Which
statements about a "Virtual PortChannel graceful consistent check" are true? (Choose two.)
A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default.
B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer device are suspended.
C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default, so to enable this feature, use graceful consistency-check
command under VPC domain configuration mode.
D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the secondary peer device
are suspended.
Answer: AB
QUESTION 45
Which attribute is used to pass the user role back to the Nexus when remote AAA is enabled?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cisco AV-pair
TACACS+ or RADIUS ack frame role attribute
DH-CHAP challenge attribute
privilege level attribute
Answer: A
QUESTION 46
Each port that is configured to use LACP has an LACP port priority. Which statements are true
about LACP port priority? (Choose three.)
A. Port priority value can be configured between 1 and 65535.
B. A higher port priority value means a higher priority of LACP.
C. Port priority can be configured so that specific links can be chosen as active links rather than the
hot standby links within the port channel.
D. LACP uses the port priority with the port number to form the port identifier.
E. LACP Port priority default value should always be changed
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 47
What will this command sequence achieve?
Nexus7000# config t
Nexus700(config)# interface ethernet 2/11
Nexus700(config-if)# switchport mode private-vlan host
Nexus700(config-if)# switchport private-vlan host-association 14 50
Nexus700(config-if)# exit
Nexus700(config)#
A. associate interface E2/11 to community VLANs 14 and 50
B. associate interface E2/11 to secondary VLANs 14 and 50
15
C. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 50 and secondary VLAN 14

D. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 14 and secondary VLAN 50
Answer: D
QUESTION 48
Which command will allow you to display the configured QoS group and the ingress buffer
allocated to each QoS group?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
show interface priority-flow-control

show interface queuing
show queuing interface
show policy-map system type queuing
show policy-map interface ethernet <x/y> type queuing
Answer: C
QUESTION 49
With Cisco NX-OS on a Cisco Nexus platform, which command shows memory usage, total
processes, and CPU state?
A.
B.
C.
D.
show memory detailed

show process cpu sorted
show system resources
show hardware capacity
Answer: C
QUESTION 50
What is the difference between the Ethanalyzer and the SPAN feature in Cisco NX-OS?
A. The Ethanalyzer captures control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.
B. The Ethanalyzer captures all traffic including control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures only the
control-plane traffic.
C. The Ethanalyzer captures only data traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.
D. The Ethanalyzer captures only control traffic, while SPAN captures data traffic.
Answer: A
QUESTION 51
Refer to the exhibit. During troubleshooting of Virtual PortChannel (vPC), it is observed that
Virtual PortChannel 2 is in a down state. What's the cause of this issue?
16
A.
B.
C.
D.
Virtual PortChannel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch.
Virtual PortChannel is down because of a VLAN mismatch.
Virtual PortChannel is down because of an MTU mismatch.
Virtual PortChannel is down because of VLAN and MTU mismatch.
Answer: C
QUESTION 52
Virtual PortChannels (vPCs) allow links that are physically connected to two different Cisco
switches to appear to a third downstream device as coming from a single device and as part of a
single port channel. Which of the following are components of a Virtual PortChannel system?
(Choose four)
17
A. Two peer devices: the vPC peers of which one is primary and one is secondary and are part of a
vPC domain.
B. A Layer 3 Gigabit Ethernet link called peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios
C. A redundant 10 Gigabit Ethernet PortChannel called a peer link to carry traffic from one system to
the other when needed
D. vPC member ports forming the PortChannel
E. A dot1q trunk between the vPC peers
F. A management port that can be used as peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios.
Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 53
Which three features are part of Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
VM-aware discovery and path analysis

VSAN zoning
fabric performance monitoring
event lookup
federation and VSAN scoping
Answer: ACE
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/netmgtsw/ps6505/ps9369/qa_c67-642832.pdf (page
4, first question on the page)
QUESTION 54
Refer to the exhibit. Given this FCoE topology, host VFC interface and FC storage are in the
same VSAN (VSAN 10). The VSAN is in the allow list for both ISLs. Both ISLs are up at 4 GB.
Which command can be issued on the N5K command line to confirm that SCSI traffic from the
host to the storage will flow across both links, as opposed to using only one link?
A.
B.
C.
D.
show fspf traffic vsan 10

show vsan 10
show trunk protocol
show fcroute unicast vsan 10
Answer: B
QUESTION 55
What is the correct order for FIP virtual establishment?
A. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command
18
B. FCF discovery, VLAN discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command

C. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC
D. FCF discovery, solicitation and advertisement, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command
Answer: A
QUESTION 56
Which statement about the Adapter FEX feature on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is
true?
A. Adapter FEX is a software feature that can be configured on any CNA as long as the Nexus 5000
is running a version of code that supports Adapter FEX.
B. Adapter FEX can be thought of as a way to divide a single physical link into multiple virtual links
or channels.
C. Packets on each channel are tagged with an 801.Q header that has a specific source VIF.
D. When using a dual-homed NIC on the server, active/standby is not supported. Only active/active
is supported.
Answer: B
QUESTION 57
Which statement describes the below output from an MDS switch?
Flow ID. 44
Initiator VSAN: 200
Initiator WWN: 50:06:04:8a:cc:19:12:db
Target VSAN: 200
Target WWN: 50:06:04:8c:de:ad:be:ef
Target LUN: ALL LUNs
Flow Verification Status:
------------------------Initiator Verification Status: success
Target Verification Status: WWN was not found in name server Initiator
Linecard Status: success
Target Linecard Status: Status not yet checked
Feature Status:
--------------Write-Acceleration enabled
Write-Acceleration Buffers: 1024
Configuration Status: flow verification failed
A.
B.
C.
D.
The zone containing both the initiator and target does not exist
The zone set has not been activated
The target is not logged into the fabric
The pWWN used for the target is invalid
Answer: C
QUESTION 58
Which mechanism do the CNA and the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches use to provide a
19
lossless class of Ethernet traffic?

A.
B.
C.
D.
LLDP
LACP
PFC
FIP
Answer: C
QUESTION 59
What mode is required on a Cisco Nexus 7000 32-port 10-GB module port group to allow equal
access to the 10-GB port controller?
A.
B.
C.
D.
dedicated
assigned
shared
community
Answer: C
QUESTION 60
When building a NIC team (virtual port channel) between a host and a pair of Cisco Nexus 5000
Series Switches that will carry FCoE traffic, what is the maximum number of physical links that
can exist in the team?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
4
5
16
Answer: B
QUESTION 61
Which statement is true about The QoS Class Fibre Channel?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cannot be disabled
Cannot have the CoS changed
Can have "Packet Drop" enabled
Is multicast optimized
Can have the MTU changed
Answer: A
QUESTION 62
Lossless Ethernet for FCoE is achieved through the use of which features? (Choose two.)
A. Priority flow control
B. Buffer-to-buffer credits
20
C. TCP retransmission
D. Ethernet checksum
E. QoS policies
Answer: AE
QUESTION 63
Which command is used to determine if a host has logged in to the Fibre Channel fabric?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
show flogi database

show system fc login
show npv flogi-table
show npv fcns database
show interface vfc X flogi
show interface flogi
Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Traffic drop for FCoE is experienced across a Nexus 5548 switch. What is a possible cause?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Server's CNA does not support DCBX and PFC TLV was not negotiated.
A "no-drop" class has not been configured for FCoE.
The system is running with the default QOS policies.
The link is oversubscribed.
Answer: A
QUESTION 65
When using a Cisco Nexus 5500 and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, how can a port channel
interface be configured?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Layer 3 interface in VDC 1 only

Layer 3 interface
Layer 3 interface in non-admin VDC only
Layer 3 interface in admin VDC only
Answer: B
QUESTION 66
When configuring unified ports on a 5548 switch, which port ordering must be respected?
(Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the first port in the module.
Ethernet ports must be configured from the last port in the module.
Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the last port in the module.
Ethernet ports must be configured from the first port in the module.
Answer: CD
21
QUESTION 67
What is one requirement for running FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switches?
A.
B.
C.
D.
You must run NX-OS version 4.2 to run FabricPath

LAN_TRANSPORT_SERVICES_PKG license needs to be installed to run FabricPath
You must have an F Series module
ISSU needs to be disabled to run FabricPath
Answer: C
QUESTION 68
Which Ethernet field is used to differentiate between the FCoE frame and the FIP frame?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ethernet FCS
Source address
Destination address
EtherType
Protocol type
Answer: D
QUESTION 69
What are the two parallel SCSI specifications? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Up to 25 m bus length
Only one device per SCSI bus
Up to 16 devices per SCSI bus
Half-duplex operation
Full-duplex operation
Answer: AC
QUESTION 70
Which statement describes multihop FCoE function when an FCoE switch receives an FCoE
frame from the directly connected FCoE host?
A. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another switch over its VE port.
B. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the
fabric over its Fibre Channel uplink port.
C. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the
Fibre Channel target over its Fibre Channel port.
D. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another FCoE device over its VN port.
Answer: A
QUESTION 71
A Host connected to an NPV switch is not able to see the storage connected to the core switch.
22
Given the output of the show command below, what is the reason of this issue?
switch# show npv status
npiv is enabled
External Interfaces:
===============
InterfacE. fc1/1, VSAN: 1, FCID. 0x000000, StatE. Other Number of
External Interfaces: 4
A.
B.
C.
D.
NPV is not enabled on the core switch?

The interface connected to the Core switch is in admin down state
The local host interface belongs to the wrong VSAN?
The local host interface is not able to login
Answer: B
QUESTION 72
Which three are valid methods to monitor and trend SAN port channels with DCNM? (Choose
three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
use summary view in the device manager

from the DCNM-SAN client, view ISLs in real time from the Performance drop-down list
for each port channel, select Monitor Continually
configure traps for each port channel to utilize RMON
set up flows with the DCNM-SAN client and use the Performance Manager web client for performance
collections
Answer: ABE
QUESTION 73
When configuring vPC-HM CDP with multiple links to the same switch, are port-channels
required?
A. Each link between the upstream switch and the VEM is an individual subgroup.
B. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel- group
<number> mode active.
C. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel- group
<number> mode passive.
23
D. With vPC-HM CDP, the user can pin traffic from a specific VM to a specific uplink.
E. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel- group
<number> mode on.
Answer: E
QUESTION 74
A VSM is actually a virtual machine that requires how many vNICs for functioning?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
0
1
2
3
4
Answer: D
QUESTION 75
How many VSM modes are there in a Cisco Nexus 1000V environment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
0
1
2
3
4
5
Answer: D
QUESTION 76
Cisco IOS NetFlow gathers data that can be used in which three of these? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
accounting
authentication
authorization
network monitoring
network planning
Answer: ADE
QUESTION 77
Which port channel command is recommended for N1KV on Cisco UCS?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
channel-group auto mode on

channel-group auto mode active
channel-group auto mode on sub-group cdp
channel-group auto mode on sub-group manual
channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning
24
Answer: E
QUESTION 78
vPath is a critical component in the VNS architecture. Which two are functions of vPath? (Choose
two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
intelligent traffic steering to the VSG

offloading the processing from the VSG to the VEM
intelligent traffic steering to the VNMC
offloading the processing from the VSG to the flow manager
deep packet inspection
Answer: AB
QUESTION 79
What two facts does the output signify? (Choose two.)
n1kv-l3(config)# show lacp offload status
Current Status : Enabled
Running Config Status : Enabled
Saved Config Status : Disabled
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
LACP is enabled on the Nexus 1000v.

LACP will be offloaded to the upstream switch.
LACP will be negotiated to the VM.
LACP is negotiated by the VSM.
LACP is negotiated by the VEM in all instances.
Answer: AE
QUESTION 80
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are virtual machine access switches that are an
intelligent software switch implementation for VMware vSphere environments running the Cisco
NX-OS Software operating system. Together with the VMware ESX hypervisor, the Nexus 1000V
supports Cisco VN-Link server virtualization technology, which provides mobile virtual machine
security and network policy for VMware View components, including the DHCP snooping feature.
DHCP snooping is disabled on the Nexus 1000V by default. When the DHCP snooping feature is
enabled on the Nexus 1000V, what are the default trust settings for the vEthernet and uplink
ports?
A.
B.
C.
D.
All vEthernet ports are trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted.
All vEthernet ports are not trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted.
All vEthernet ports are trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted.
All vEthernet ports are not trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted.
Answer: D
QUESTION 81
When using VSD, traffic flow goes from the virtual machine to which of these?
25
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Upstream switch
Virtual Supervisor Module
VMware distributed switch
VMware vSwitch
Service virtual machine
Answer: E
QUESTION 82
Given the following configuration, what command can be used to determine the physical path that
traffic will be sent out upon?
Port-profile type Ethernet name vm-data
Switchport mode trunk
Switchport trunk allowed vlan 200-210
Channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning
State enabled
Vmware port-group
No shut
Port-profile type vethernet name vlan-200
Switchport mode access
Switchport vlan 200
State enabled
Vmware port-group
No shut
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
module vem X execute vemcmd show trunk

show module 3 internal pinning
module vem X execute vemcmd show port
show module vem mapping
show interface vethX pinning
Answer: C
QUESTION 83
What are the four vPath packet flow steps? (Choose four.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
perform flow lookups

intercept packets on service enabled ports
run packets through the vPath flow manager
classify the packets
flow manager emits an action for the packets
enforce the action determined by the flow manager
Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 84
Refer to the exhibit. Your company requires a Cisco UCS configuration that will, at a minimum,
allow the configuration in the provided exhibit. Which Cisco UCS components will meet the
26
requirement? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Cisco UCS 6148, Cisco UCS 6248UP, or the Cisco UCS 6296UP fabric interconnects
Cisco UCS 2104XP Fabric Extender
Cisco UCS 2204XP or 2208XP Fabric Extenders
Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface Card
Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280
Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1240 with a port expander
Answer: AEF
QUESTION 85
A Cisco switch has this configuration for a port channel connecting to an ESXi using dual NICs
and is intended for use with an N1Kv.
Interface fastethernet 1/10
Switchport trunk allowed vlan all
Channel-group 10 mode on
No shut
Interface fastethernet 1/11
Switchport trunk allowed vlan all
Channel-group 10 mode on
No shut
Interface port-channel10
Switchport allowed vlan all
No shut
Which Port Channel configuration must be used on the Nexus 1000v port-profile?
27
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
MAC pinning
Cisco Discovery Protocol pinning
Mode On
Mode Active
No port channel configuration
Answer: C
QUESTION 86
Refer to the exhibit. According to the equipment tab in Cisco UCS Manager, which is true?
A. A is an uplink port, B is a fabric port, C is a server port, D is a backplane port, E is a DCE interface,
and F is a vNIC
B. A is an uplink port, B is a server port, C is a fabric port, D is a backplane port, E is a DCE interface,
and F is a vNIC
C. A is an uplink port, B is a fabric port, C is a backplane port, D is a server port, E is a DCE interface,
and F is a vNIC
D. A is an uplink port, B is a server port, C is a fabric port, D is a DCE interface, E is a backplane port,
and F is a vNIC
E. A is an fabric port, B is a downlink port, C is an uplink port, D is a server port, E is a VIC interface,
and F is a vNIC
Answer: B
QUESTION 87
Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco UCS domain is operating in switching mode. A network
administrator notices that no traffic is traversing the uplinks on Fabric Interconnect B (Path C).
Which actions might be used to change this behavior?
28
A. Fix the port channel configuration between Fabric Interconnect B and Nexus 5548 B as the port
channel IDs do not match.
B. Modify the bridge priority on the fabric interconnects so that one of the Nexus 5548s will always be
the root bridge.
C. Modify the bridge priority on the Nexus 5548s so that one of them will always be the root bridge.
D. Modify the port priorities on the fabric interconnect uplinks (Paths B and C) so that they are a higher
priority than ports Eth1/4 and Eth1/9 (Path D).
E. This is an invalid configuration as Cisco UCS fabric interconnects cannot be directly connected.
Answer: C
QUESTION 88
Which of the following Cisco Nexus features is best managed with DCNM-LAN?
A.
B.
C.
D.
VSS
Domain parameters
Virtual switches
AAA
Answer: C
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit. On which of the interfaces can VLANs be configured or modified within this
Cisco UCS domain?
29
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
VLANs can be configured or modified on all ports.

A, D, E, and F. Ports B and C are automatically configured by the fabric interconnect.
A, E, and F. Ports B, C, and D are automatically configured by the fabric interconnect.
A and F only. No other ports may have their VLAN configurations modified manually.
A only. VLANs are configured on uplinks and are automatically available on any other port with no
configuration necessary.
F. F only. VLANs are only modified in the service profile.
Answer: D
QUESTION 90
Your company wants Server 1/eth0 (vNIC 1) configured so that it always uses Fabric Interconnect
A Port Channel 1 (Po1) when it communicates with anything outside of the Cisco UCS domain.
However, if vNIC 1 fails over to Fabric Interconnect B using fabric failover, then vNIC 1 can use
any uplink port on Fabric Interconnect B. Which statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode.

A pin group must be configured on the server tab in Cisco UCS Manager.
In the service profile for Server 1, vNIC 1 must be explicitly assigned to a pin group.
Server 1 cannot be configured to meet the requirement. A server can only be manually pinned to
a single physical interface and not a port channel because of the LACP load-balancing algorithm.
E. Server 1 cannot be configured to meet the requirement. A server is either manually pinned to an
uplink on both fabric interconnects or the server is automatically pinned, but not both.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 91
30
Refer to the exhibit. Your company would like to deploy this topology design. Which statement
applies?
A. The configuration cannot be implemented since all fabric interconnects are members of the same
VLANs, and communication will not work properly for the Backup and Mgmt networks.
B. The configuration cannot be implemented because only one disjointed layer 2 network is supporteD.
either Backup Net or Mgmt Net, but not both.
C. The Production Network and Backup Net topologies can be implemented.
D. The Production Network and Management Net topologies can be implemented.
E. The topology design can be implemented fully in Cisco UCS version 2.0 or later.
Answer: C
QUESTION 92
What interface is created when an FC Port Channel is created on a Cisco Unified Computing
System?
A.
B.
C.
D.
An interface 'san-port-channel' in NXOS

An interface 'port-channel' in NXOS
An interface 'port-channel' with 'mode fc' configured
An interface 'fc-port-channel' in NXOS
Answer: A
QUESTION 93
Refer to the exhibit. You create a service profile within ORG C with two vNICs. Each vNIC is
31
assigned to the MAC pool named "vmware". Which two possible MAC addresses could be
assigned to the vNICs? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
00:25:B5:FF:00:01
00:25:B5:EE:00:01
00:25:B5:DD:00:01
00:25:B5:BB:00:01
00:25:B5:AA:00:01
Answer: AD
QUESTION 94
From the Cisco UCS CLI, how do you verify which uplink ports a blade server is using for its
network connectivity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
UCS-A# show pinning border-interfaces

UCS-B# show service-profile circuit
UCS-B(nxos)# show pinning server-interfaces
You must statically configure which uplink the blades should use, or you will not have connectivity.
Answer: C
QUESTION 95
Server load balancing (SLB) is the process of deciding to which server a load-balancing device
should send a client request for service. Which predictors are supported on ACE in order to select
the best server to fulfill a client request? (Choose three.)
A. Hash address: Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source or destination IP
address, or both
32
B. Hash URL: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the requested URL
C. Hash MAC. Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source or destination MAC
address, or both
D. Hash header: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the HTTP header name
E. Hash IP: Selects the server using a hash value based on the IP address
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 96
Application Control Engine (ACE) can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring
health probes (which are sometimes referred to as keepalives). A probe can be one of many
types. Which are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
HTTP
Java scripting
TCL scripting
RADIUS
TACACS
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 97
When testing ICMP access to a functional load-balancing ACE VIP, it fails. What is the reason of
this problem? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
The interface is shut down

An access list is denying ICMP
Routing is not configured properly
vip icmp-reply is inactive
Answer: BD
QUESTION 98
Which GSS "source access list" is used to allow access to GSS by clients when GSS is being
used as the DNS?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Client IP
Proxy IP
Client and proxy IP
Neither client nor proxy IP
Answer: A
QUESTION 99
In the event of a GSS failure in a GSS cluster, which is true?
A. The current connections are rerouted via the backup GSS
B. Secondary GSS cannot be used to configure the GSS cluster
C. All remaining GSSs in the cluster continue responding to any new queries
33
D. All records in the GSS database are flushed and reconstructed again using a new master GSS
Answer: C
QUESTION 100
A Cisco Application Control Engine Appliance (ACE) non-admin context does not support "sticky"
configuration. What is the reason for this issue?
A.
B.
C.
D.
ACE sticky license is not installed

ACE stickiness is not supported in a non-admin context
ACE stickiness resources are not defined in an admin context
Stickiness is configured properly in the CCIE virtual context
Answer: C
QUESTION 101
Which is true when describing a connection replication in Cisco ACE?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is not supported for SSL connections.

It is not supported for non-SSL connections.
It can only be configured manually.
It has a maximum limit of 50,000 replicated connections.
Answer: A
QUESTION 102
Which of the following are supported in Cisco Global Site Selector? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Full DNS functionality as a replacement of a DNS

Responds to a DNS query with A-record
Forwards queries to a name server
Multiple A-records
DHCP functionality for the local hosts
Answer: BCD
QUESTION 103
KAL-AP on the Cisco ACE allows communication with Cisco ACE Global Site Selector, to report
virtual IP and real server availability. Which statement is true about KAL-AP?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is a Cisco propriety keepalive.

It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP entries.
It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP keepalives.
It is used for both Cisco and non-cisco load balancers
Answer: A
QUESTION 104
34
What is the purpose of this command in a Cisco Application Control Engine? switch/Admin# show
np 1 me-stats "-F0 v"
A.
B.
C.
D.
It displays the status of the internal SSL proxy structure associated with a vserver.
It displays the crypto-related statistics for a single NP.
It is the same output of a "show stats crypto" client/server.
It shows details on HTTP session entries.
Answer: A
QUESTION 105
Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data center
environments and supports standard monitoring and event notification systems, providing data to
standard enterprise-management tools.
Which two of these list the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-only
interfaces? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLI

SNMP, SMASH CLP, and CIM-XML
UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmt
SoL and NX-OS
debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI
Answer: AB
QUESTION 106
A virtual port channel (vPC) allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco
Nexus devices to appear as a single port channel to a third device. Which are the mandatory
steps for configuring vPC? (Choose six.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
Enable feature vPC

Define domains
Establish peer keepalive connectivity
Create a peer link
Configure the peer link as a trunk port
Create port channels and vPCs
Define port channel load-balancing method
Make sure configurations are consistent
Answer: ABCDFH
QUESTION 107
When creating a role in a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, rules are used to define the type of
operations that a role will allow the user to perform. Which two of these parameters cannot be
applied as a rule? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
port-profile
command
access-list
feature-group
35
E. OID
Answer: AC
QUESTION 108
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicastcapable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user and where the entire OTV
configuration is applied. Which statements are true about OTV overlay interface? (Choose two.)
A. When an OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the
frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.
B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends
it to the join interface toward the routed domain.
C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the
frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.
D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends
it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.
Answer: AB
QUESTION 109
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is seeing N7K-1 having issues with VLAN 11, and
interface VLAN 11 is resetting, causing frequent HSRP state changes. Which two actions would
reduce HSRP state changes? (Choose two.)
A. On N7K-1, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message
hold time.
B. On N7K-2, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message
hold time.
C. On N7K-1, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-1 from taking over
as the HSRP active router.
D. On N7K-2, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-2 from taking over
36
as the HSRP active router.

E. On N7K-2, increase the HSRP priority to 150.
F. On N7K-2, decrease the HSRP priority to 50.
Answer: CE
QUESTION 110
Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) join interface is used to source the OTV encapsulated
traffic and send it to the Layer 3 domain of the data center network. Which statements are true
about OTV join interface? (Choose three.)
A. Join interface is a Layer 3 entity, and with the Cisco NX-OS release 6.0, it can only be defined as a
physical interface, physical subinterface, Layer 3 port channel, or Layer 3 port channel subinterface.
B. A single join interface can be defined and associated with a given OTV overlay.
C. Multiple overlays can also share the same join interface.
D. Join interface can be a loopback interface.
E. The join interface is a Layer 3 entity that can be defined as a physical interface but not as a logical one.
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 111
Cisco NX-OS Software supports SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3. Both SNMPv1 and
SNMPv2c use a community-based form of security. SNMPv3 provides secure access to devices
by a combination of authenticating and encrypting frames over the network. Which security
features are provided in Cisco NX-OS SNMPv3? (Choose three.)
A. encryption--scrambles the packet contents to prevent them from being seen by unauthorized sources
B. password--a password (community string) sent in clear text between a manager and agent for added
protection
C. authentication--determines that the message is from a valid source
D. message integrity--ensures that a packet has not been tampered with while it was in transit
E. user--to determine if user authentication is used instead of community strings
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 112
The hardware and software configurations for vPC+ are similar to that of traditional vPC. What
are the differences in the configuration of vPC+? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.

Virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under FabricPath domain.
On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links.
The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port (switchport mode fabricpath).
FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 113
Smart Call Home provides an email-based notification for critical system policies. A range of
37
message formats are available for compatibility with pager services, standard email, or XMLbased automated parsing applications. Destination profiles are used by Smart Call Home when
sending notifications. Which of these are predefined destination profiles supported by Cisco NXOS Software? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
short-text-destination
prerecorded audio alerts
CiscoTAC-1
dial911
full-text-destination
Answer: ACE
QUESTION 114
After configuring FabricPath, the following appears in the syslog:
%STP-2-L2GW_BACKBONE_BLOCK: L2 Gateway Backbone port inconsistency
blocking port port- channel100 on VLAN0010.
What is the cause of this message?
A.
B.
C.
D.
STP must be disabled; message indicates that STP is enabled.

STP is misconfigured; root guard must be disabled.
An inferior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.
A superior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.
Answer: D
QUESTION 115
Which description is correct for a private VLAN community port with respect to Layer 2
communications?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It communicates with all other community ports in the private VLAN domain.
It communicates with only isolated ports in the private VLAN domain.
It communicates only with other community ports in the same community and associated promiscuous ports.
It communicates only with associated promiscuous and isolated ports.
Answer: C
QUESTION 116
On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for
the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath IS-IS will automatically select root switches for each
multidestination tree. One of the parameters used to select the root is system ID. Which
statements are true about system ID? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
System ID is a unique 12-bit SID.

System ID is a 48-bit value composed of the VDC MAC address.
Higher system ID is preferred.
Lower system ID is preferred.
38
Answer: BC
QUESTION 117
Which two are benefits of using remote AAA services for Cisco Nexus products? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
They make it easier to manage user logins and passwords across devices.
They enable automated configuration backup for devices.
They centrally manage user attributes and permissions.
Local console access is never included in AAA and can be used for access when the AAA servers
are down.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 118
What tasks can only be performed in the default or admin VDC?
A.
B.
C.
D.
EPLD upgrade, IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and rolling back a checkpoint
EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and ACL capture enablement
EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration and SNMP configuration
EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and write erase
Answer: B
QUESTION 119
When creating a QoS policy dialog box in Cisco UCSM, which four fields can be modified?
(Choose four.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
name
best-effort
burst
rate
host control
Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 120
Which policy determines what happens to local data and to the BIOS settings on a server during
the discovery process and when the server is disassociated from a service profile?
A.
B.
C.
D.
boot policy and BIOS policy

disk scrub and boot policy
BIOS setting scrub, boot policy, and BIOS policy
disk scrub and BIOS setting scrub
Answer: D
QUESTION 121
Which of these commands will allow you to set end-host mode for SAN connectivity?
39
A. UCS-A # scope fc-uplink

UCS-A /fc-uplink # set mode end-host
UCS-A /fc-uplink* # commit-buffer
B. UCS-A# scope eth-uplink
UCS-A /eth-uplink # set mode end-host
WarninG. When committed, this change will cause the switch to reboot
UCS-A /eth-uplink* # commit-buffer
C. UCS-A# scope fabric-interconnect a
UCS-A /fabric-interconnect # set mode end-host
UCS-A /fabric-interconnect* # commit-buffer
D. UCS-A# scope system
UCS-A /system* # set mode end-host
UCS-A /system* # commit-buffer
Answer: A
QUESTION 122
Which statement about the Layer 3 card on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
BGP support is not provided, but RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF support is provided.
Up to two 4-port cards are supported with up to 160 Gb/s of Layer 3 forwarding capability.
Up to 16 FEX connections are supported.
Port channels cannot be configured as Layer 3 interfaces.
Answer: C
QUESTION 123
Where are Cisco UCS vNICs created?
A.
B.
C.
D.
In the blade BIOS

In the operating system
In the service profile
In the card option ROM
Answer: C
QUESTION 124
Which two statements about end-host mode in SAN connectivity in a Cisco UCS environment are
true? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
End-host mode is synonymous with NPV mode.

In end-host mode, only hard pinning of vHBAs to Fibre Channel uplink ports is allowed.
Making configuration changes between Fibre Channel switching mode and end-host mode is nondisruptive.
End-host mode is the default Fibre Channel switching mode.
Answer: AD
QUESTION 125
40
What is the appliance port used to connect to in a Cisco Unified Computing System?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fibre Channel storage

UCS C-Series servers
NFS storage
UCS chassis
Other fabric interconnect
Answer: C
QUESTION 126
Which are valid statements about Cisco Virtual Interface Card (VIC)? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
The Cisco VIC can create an unlimited number of Virtual NICs.

The number of vNICs on the Cisco VIC that can be created is determined by the number of chassis uplinks.
vNICs are created using software on the host operating system.
The host operating system sees a vNIC as a physical PCIe device.
The host operating system sees a vNIC as a sub-interface of a primary NIC.
The Cisco VIC can create 1024 vNICs.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 127
In a Cisco Unified Computing System, What is the "designated receiver" port in end-host mode
used for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Sending all broadcasts

Receiving all traffic from upstream switches
Receiving broadcast traffic
Negotiating spanning tree with upstream switches
Learning MAC addres?ses from upstream switch?es
Answer: C
QUESTION 128
Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Server
End device
Node
Host
Virtual
Answer: A
QUESTION 129
Given the following output:
san-port-channel 12 is up
41
Hardware is Fibre Channel

Port WWN is 24:0c:00:0d:ec:d3:5c:00
Admin port mode is NP, trunk mode is on
Port mode is NP
Port vsan is 1
Speed is 8 Gbps
Member[1] : fc2/3
Member[2] : fc2/4
What does "Speed is 8 Gbps" indicate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The speed of the slowest interface in the port channel

The combined speed of all interfaces configured in the port channel
The combined speed of all interfaces in the port channel that are up
The speed that can be achieved if all buffers are used
Answer: C
QUESTION 130
Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Trunk
Physical
Uplink
Switch
End host
Answer: C
QUESTION 131
FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to layer 2 network Ethernet environments.
What are the advantages of using FabricPath technology? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning

Loop mitigation with TTL in the frame field
STPl independence
10 Gbps bandwidth
Layer 2 extensions between data centers
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 132
A network administrator has installed an N7K-F248-25XP module into an existing chassis. The
module is powered on, but the interfaces are all in VDC0. What is the reason for this?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The chassis needs an EPLD upgrade to support the new module type.
The default VDC cannot support F2 modules.
The interfaces must be allocated into a VDC for F2 modules only.
The module has failed GOLD diagnostics, and the switch has isolated the ports to protect the integrity
of the system.
42
Answer: C
QUESTION 133
Which two statements about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches
are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bring up protocol automatically detects and overrides any misconfiguration.
B. You can manually configure channel groups, or they can be automatically created.
C. Changes in configuration to the SAN port channel interface must also be made to all members of the
channel group.
D. The port channel protocol uses the exchange fabric parameters command to communicate across peer
ports in an ISL.
E. The port channel protocol ensures that a set of ports is eligible to be part of the same SAN port channel.
Answer: BE
QUESTION 134
Which three capabilities make the Cisco Nexus 7010 switch an effective solution for the data
center core? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
virtualization
unified I/O
support for 48-port Gb/s line card
support for Data Center Service Modules
high performance
high availability
Answer: BEF
QUESTION 135
Which statement about Cisco Unified Fabric switches is correct?
A. The Nexus 5000 family of switches does not support vPC when running in either NPV or FCoE NPV
mode.
B. The MDS 9100 family of switches is an excellent design choice as a Unified Fabric edge switch.
C. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches can support the NPIV mode of operation, but cannot function as a
complete Fibre Channel Forwarder.
D. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches cannot support advanced Cisco Fibre Channel features such as IVR.
E. The MDS family of Cisco Unified Fabric switches supports both the Fibre Channel Forwarder and Fibre
Channel Bridge functions.
Answer: E
QUESTION 136
Which statement about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is
true?
A. A single SAN port channel can have both Fibre Channel and virtual Fibre Channel interfaces.
43
B. SAN port channels can include up to 16 interfaces.

C. SAN port channels distribute traffic across all links in the port channel when source ID and destination
ID load balancing are used.
D. The links in SAN port channels can be connected to different sets of switches.
E. The On mode of operation means ports only operate as part of a SAN port channel or remain inactive.
Answer: E
QUESTION 137
Which capabilities are not supported in DCNM device manager?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
manage SNMPv3 security access to switches

save and copy configuration files and software images
configure VLANs and Ethernet port channels
manage 2148T FEX, 2232PP FEX, and 2248TP FEX
configure FCoE
Answer: C
QUESTION 138
What is the use of NPV in Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Compatibility with third-party Fibre Channel switches

Faster throughput
Reduce domain IDs in a Fibre Channel environment
Support for increased number of VSANs
Support for SAN port channels
Answer: AC
QUESTION 139
If the default VDC is configured to limit resources to a specific module type, what happens when
a module that does not match the resource type is installed?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The module is powered up, and interfaces are in an "admin down" state.
The module is denied power, and a syslog message is generated.
The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC0.
The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC100.
Answer: C
QUESTION 140
What is the mechanism that is used to allocate MAC addresses that are assigned to the VDC for
the system MAC address?
A. NX-OS uses a random MAC address from the IEEE OUI block that is assigned to Cisco.
B. The VDC system MAC is pulled from the active supervisor and concatenated through a hash to ensure
uniqueness.
C. NX-OS uses a value that is based on a range that is assigned to the SPROM of the system backplane.
44
D. The VDC system MAC is based on a range that is allocated to the first line card that is installed in the switch.
Answer: C
QUESTION 141
Which three flow-control port states lead to enabled link flow control? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Enabled

Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Desired
Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Disabled
Receive port: Disabled, Transmit port: Desired
Receive port: Desired, Transmit port: Desired
Answer: ABE
QUESTION 142
You can install Cisco DCNM-LAN on a supported version of which two operating systems?
(Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Microsoft Windows Server

Novell SUSE Linux Enterprise Server
Oracle Enterprise Linux
Red Hat Enterprise Linux
VMware ESX
Answer: AD
QUESTION 143
Cisco DCNM-LAN supports the configuration and monitoring of many Cisco NX-OS features,
including which two of these Ethernet protocols? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
GLBP
HSRP
IRDP
VRRP
Answer: AB
QUESTION 144
The vPC peer-gateway capability allows a vPC switch to act as the active gateway for packets
that are addressed to the router MAC address of the vPC peer. This feature enables local
forwarding of such packets without the need to cross the vPC peer link. Which statements are
true about the vPC peer- gateway? (Choose two.)
A. The vPC peer-gateway feature is enabled by default.
B. The vPC peer-gateway feature can be configured globally under the vPC domain submode.
C. Enabling the peer-gateway feature automatically disables IP redirects on all interface VLANs mapped
over a vPC VLAN to avoid generation of IP redirect messages for packets switched through the peer
gateway router.
45
D. The vPC peer-gateway feature only works with HSRP protocol.

Answer: BC
QUESTION 145
DHCP snooping on Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches acts like a firewall between untrusted
hosts and trusted DHCP servers by doing which of these? (Choose three.)
A. validates DHCP messages received from untrusted sources and filters out invalid response messages
from DHCP servers
B. intercepts all ARP requests and responses on untrusted ports
C. builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database, which contains information about untrusted
hosts with leased IP addresses
D. uses the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hosts
E. limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC address binding table entry
or static IP source entry
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 146
A customer would like to monitor traffic that is being sent to a specific virtual machine named
VM001 using SPAN. The customer has another virtual machine configured as a sniffer host
called VM002. What configuration is required, and what other changes will need to be made?
(Choose two.)
VSM-PRI-188# sh int vethernet 5
Vethernet5 is up
Port description is VM001, Network Adapter 2
HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.001e (bia 0050.56b0.001e) Owner
is VM "VM001", adapter is Network Adapter 2
Active on module 5
VMware DVS port 484
Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10
Port mode is access
VSM-PRI-188# sh int vethernet 6
Vethernet6 is up
Port description is VM002, Network Adapter 1
HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.0020 (bia 0050.56b0.0020) Owner
is VM "VM002", adapter is Network Adapter 1
Active on module 5
VMware DVS port 485
Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10
Port mode is access
A. Monitor session 1 type span
Source interface veth5 both
Destination interface veth6
No shut
B. monitor session 1
source vlan 10
destination interface veth6
no shut
46
C. monitor session 1 type er-span

source interface vlan 10
destination ip 10.1.1.10
no shut
D. VM002 must be removed from the Nk1V
E. Move VM002 to Module 5
F. Restart the VEM on module 5
Answer: AE
QUESTION 147
Given a host with two NICs assigned to a N1k profile, which topologies are suitable for this type
of configuration (Choose three.)
port-profile type Ethernet name VM-Data
vmware port-group
switchport mode trunk
switchport allowed vlan 400-410
channel-group auto mode active
no shut
state enabled
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cisco UCS fabric interconnects

Pair of N5K's in VPC.
Standalone N5K
Pair of N5K's in non-VPC
Cisco Catalyst 6000 Switch in VSS
Answer: BCE
QUESTION 148
Which statements are valid for a local SPAN configuration? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Source and destination interface must be on the same host

Source and destination interfaces can be on different hosts
Destination vEthernet interface can be on a different VLAN than the source
Destination interface can be a physical port
Destination interface cannot be a physical port
Answer: AD
QUESTION 149
What is the use of ERSPAN on N1kv?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Send monitored traffic to a VLAN

Send monitored traffic to a remote VEM over L2
Receive monitored traffic on a vEthernet interface
Send monitored traffic to an IP destination
Answer: D
47
QUESTION 150
Given the following configuration:
port-profile type ethernet DATA-UPLINK
vmware port-group
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-3967,4048-4093
no shutdown
state enabled
port-profile type ethernet MGMT-UPLINK
vmware port-group
switchport trunk allowed vlan 10-12
no shutdown
state enabled
VEMs are seen to be joining and then are lost from the Cisco VSM. How would you resolve this
issue?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Remove second NIC from each port profile

Remove VEM from VSM (no vem X), remove NICs, and reinsert
Ensure that VLANs on uplink profiles are not overlapping
Reinstall VEM
Issue the command "module vem X execute vemcmd set pinning module vsm 1"
Answer: C
QUESTION 151
The network administrator is adding a new N1Kv to the vCenter, however, the administrator does
not see the new switch under the networking tab of vCenter. The administrator issues the
following command on the VSM to troubleshoot:
VSM# show svs connections
connection VC:
ip address: 10.10.10.30
remote port: 80
protocol: vmware-vim https
certificatE. default
datacenter namE. DC1
DVS uuiD. 67 32 30 50 a6 d2 49 64-9e 1c 5f 49 e3 af 55 99 config
status: Disabled
operational status: Disconnected
sync status: version: When attempting to fix the issue, the following error is seen:
VSM-PRI-188# conf
VSM-PRI-188(config)# svs connection VC
VSM-PRI-188(config-svs-conn)# connect
ERROR: [VMWARE-VIM] Extension key was not registered before its use
48
What is the cause of the error?

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Missing control VLAN in VSM configuration

Missing packet VLAN in VSM configuration
VSM has no network connection to vCenter
VSM extension key is not installed on vCenter
vCenter extension key is not installed on VSM
Answer: D
QUESTION 152
Refer to the exhibit. An ESX host is added to a distributed switch but is never seen as a module
in VSM. Given below configuration from VSM, what is the cause of this issue? (Choose two.)
VSM# show svs domain

SVS domain config:
Domain iD. 111
Control vlan: 500
Packet vlan: 501
L2/L3 Control modE. L2
L3 control interfacE. NA
Status: Config push to VC successful.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Missing VLAN 500 on Switch1 trunk to Switch2

Missing VLAN 501 on Switch1 trunk to Switch 2
VLAN 500 is not created on Switch2
Interface VLAN 500 is missing on Switch1
Interface VLAN 501 is missing on Switch1
VLAN 111 is missing on all switches
Answer: AC
49
QUESTION 153
Why is a Cisco UCS B250 server unable to support 16-GB DIMMs?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Dual-rank DIMMs are not supported.

16-GB DIMMs are too slow.
The largest DIMM an Intel 55xx or 56xx CPU can address is 32 GB.
The memory bus would be too long.
The blade would run too hot.
Answer: C
QUESTION 154
On a Cisco UCS B250 M2 server that is fully populated with 1333-MHz memory and an E5640
CPU, what is the fastest speed the memory can run at?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
800 MHz
900 MHz
1066 MHz
1333 MHz
1666 MHz
Answer: C
QUESTION 155
Which two servers support memory extension technology and give list? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
B200
C210
B250
C260
C460
Answer: CD
QUESTION 156
Which two statements about NPIV are true? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
After enabling NPIV, switch interfaces can only be placed into NP, F, or SD modes of operation.
NPV devices log in to NPIV devices.
NPIV requires the Enterprise License Package.
NPIV is supported on the Cisco MDS, N7K, and N5K families of switches.
A director class switch should not be placed into NPIV mode.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 157
On a Cisco UCS B250 server, how many physical DIMM slots make up one logical DIMM?
50
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2
3
4
6
12
Answer: A
QUESTION 158
Which statement about NPIV is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port.
NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis.
NPIV requires a "write erase" and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV mode.
NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches.
NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization.
Answer: A
QUESTION 159
When it comes to creating pooled WWN objects, it is important to understand that a Cisco UCS
WWN pool can include only WWNNs or WWPNs from which value of ranges?
A.
B.
C.
D.
from 10:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 10:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

Answer: B
QUESTION 160
Cisco UCS Manager provides the ability to manage power utilization to the blades. Which two
statements about UCS Manager power policies are true? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Power capping helps mainly in reducing data center footprint.

Power capping helps reduce data center cooling.
A single power cap group policy allows you to set power limits across multiple UCS domains.
You can have multiple power cap groups per UCS domain.
Each blade within a UCS 5108 chassis can belong to a separate power cap group.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 161
Regarding disk scrub, which two of these occur to the data on any local drives upon
disassociation? (Choose two.)
A. If disk scrub is enabled, all BIOS settings for the server are erased.
B. If disk scrub is enabled, all the data access on any local drives is destroyed.
51
C. If disk scrub is enabled, the LSI active RAID is destroyed but data is still preserved.
D. If disk scrub is disabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local storage configuration.
E. If disk scrub is enabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local storage configuration.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 162
In the event of a catastrophic disaster, after which you need to replace the entire UCS blade
system (that is, new fabric interconnects, new IOMs, new chassis, and new blades), what type of
backup would provide the most complete set of information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
logical configuration
all configuration
full state
system configuration
Answer: C
QUESTION 163
Where are SAN Port Channel is created in UCS Manager?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Under the Admin tab on the FI

Under the Server tab in the service profile
Under the SAN tab on each VSAN
Under the Admin tab on the chassis
Under the SAN tab on the Fabric Interconnect
Answer: E
QUESTION 164
In a Cisco Unified Computing System, where are SAN port channels connected to?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switches

Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switches in NPIV mode
To any Fibre Channel switch
Directly to storage arrays
Only to Nexus Switches
Answer: A
QUESTION 165
When will an "all configuration" backup be imported into the Cisco UCS Manager?
A.
B.
C.
D.
During the initial configuration from the console

Once the basic configuration has been applied
To restore the configuration on a secondary fabric interconnect
To upgrade the firmware on a replacement fabric interconnect
Answer: B
52
QUESTION 166
Which statement is true regarding Backup tasks in Cisco UCS?
A.
B.
C.
D.
They are created automatically and stored on the FI

They are created manually and exported to a remote server
They are automatically scheduled to run every 24 hours
They are manually scheduled and stored on the FI
Answer: B
QUESTION 167
What is the use of an "all configuration" backup in Cisco UCS?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to a 6140 and retain the same service profiles
Can only be used on the fabric interconnect on which it was created
Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to 6140 and retain system IP addresses and cluster information
Can be used to match firmware versions between 6120 and 6140 during a migration
Answer: A
QUESTION 168
Which statement is true about "full state backup" in a Cisco Unified Computing System?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
An XML file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster details
A binary file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after initial configuration
A binary file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster details
An XML file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after initial configuration
A text file with the NX-OS running configuration
Answer: C
QUESTION 169
An administrator creates a vNIC and assigns it to Fabric A with the fabric failover feature enabled.
Which statement is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A unique vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A and Fabric B

A vEthernet interface will be created only on Fabric A
A vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A, and move across to Fabric B in the event of failure
Fabric B will learn the vEthernet interface from Fabric A through a GARP
The same vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A and Fabric B
Answer: A
QUESTION 170
An administrator is creating a service profile but receives an error when applying to a blade. The
administrator checks the faults tab of the service profile and finds the following error (Refer to the
exhibit). What is the cause of this error?
53
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
vNIC has a Fibre Channel QoS policy assigned

vHBA is assigned to a "best-effort" QoS policy
vHBA has no QoS policy assigned
vHBA is assigned to an incorrect VSAN
vNIC has been assigned to an FCoE VLAN
Answer: B
QUESTION 171
What would be the cause for the following fault in UCS Manager? "ether VIF x / xxx down,
reason: ENM source pinning failed"
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
The associated VLANs of a vNIC are not found on an uplink.

Overlapping VLAN IDs exist on upstream disjoint networks.
The vNIC was not configured for fabric failover.
The vNIC is pinned to the wrong fabric.
Overlapping VSAN IDs exist on upstream SAN switches.
The vHBA was not configured for failover.
Answer: A
QUESTION 172
Which three statements are possible causes for the "fltAdaptorHostIfLink-down" fault in UCS
Manager? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The fabric interconnect is in the end-host mode, and all uplink ports have failed.
The server port to which the adapter is pinned has failed.
A transient error has caused the link to fail.
The fabric interconnect is in the switch mode, and all uplink ports have failed.
The link for a network-facing host interface is missing.
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 173
Refer to the exhibit. If uplink 1 fails, to which addresses will Fabric Interconnect B transmit a
GARP on Uplink 2?
54
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
AA and BB only
C1 and C2 only
A1, B1, AA, and BB
AA, BB, C1, and C2
No GARPs will be transmitted
Answer: D
QUESTION 174
On a Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS), which two statements regarding Ethanalyzer are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Interface inbound-low handles Rx and Tx of low-priority control packet
B. Interface inbound-lo handles Rx and Tx of high-priority control packet
C. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth3
55
D. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth4

Answer: AC
QUESTION 175
Which statements are true regarding the Cisco UCS fabric failover feature? (Choose three.)
A. FabricSync is used to synchronize MAC addresses to an adjacent fabric interconnect after a server
interface failover.
B. Gratuitous ARPs are sent on fabric interconnect uplinks after a server interface failover.
C. Fabric failover can be used on vNICs and vHBAs.
D. Fabric failover is configured as part of the service profile.
E. Fabric interconnects in end-host mode use fabric failover instead of spanning tree to provide redundancy
on uplink ports.
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 176
Refer to the exhibit. All Ethernet ports are trunked with VLANs 2 thru 10. The Cisco UCS domain
is in end-host mode. Host A transmits a single broadcast frame on VLAN 4. Which statements are
true? (Choose two.)
A. Nexus 5548 A and Nexus 5548 B send a copy of the broadcast frame down all six ports to Fabric
Interconnect A and Fabric Interconnect B.
56
B. The deja vu mechanism on the fabric interconnects prevents the fabric interconnects from receiving
multiple copies of the broadcast frame.
C. All four vNICs receive a single copy of the broadcast frame.
D. All four vNICs receive multiple copies of the broadcast frame on VLAN 4 but no broadcasts on any
other VLAN.
E. The spanning tree process prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple copies of the broadcast frame.
F. The Reverse Path Forwarding mechanism prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple copies of the
broadcast frame.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 177
Refer to the exhibit. Fabric Interconnect A, operating in end-host mode, receives an ingress frame
with source MAC address 0025.b500.0035 on uplink Eth1/19.
Which statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The frame will be accepted. Fabric Interconnect A will update its MAC address table to show that
0025.b500.0035 is dynamically learned on Eth1/19 and no longer dynamically learned on Eth5/1/6.
B. Fabric Interconnect A will transmit a Gratuitous ARP for 0025.b500.0035 since it has moved ports,
and the upstream network needs to be notified of the new location.
C. Fabric Interconnect A will drop the frame.
D. The MAC address table will not be updated as a result of receiving this frame on an uplink.
E. Reverse Path Forwarding will determine whether or not this frame is dropped by Fabric Interconnect A.
F. Deja vu will determine whether or not this frame is dropped by Fabric Interconnect A.
Answer: CD
QUESTION 178
A Cisco UCS fabric interconnect in end-host mode learns MAC addresses on which port types?
(Choose four.)
A. Uplink Ethernet ports or border ports
B. Appliance ports
C. Server ports
57
D.
E.
F.
G.
Fabric ports
Backplane ports
vEth interfaces
A Fabric Interconnect doesn't learn MAC addresses in End Host mode. Pinning is used instead.
Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 179
Drag and Drop Question
Answer:
QUESTION 180
58
Answer:
QUESTION 181
Which option configured on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series data center switches ensures the
confidentiality of server data beginning at the ingress switch port?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Linksec
IPsec
Host vPC+
LACP
MACsec
Answer: E
QUESTION 182
Which two benefits does Cisco VNMC provide? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
template-based policy management

disruptive administration model
transparent operation management through an XML API
Cisco Nexus 5000 integration
Cisco Nexus 7000 integration
Answer: AC
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps11213/index.html (features and capabilities, first two
bullets)
QUESTION 183
Which three characteristics are associated with the aggregation layer of a Cisco Data Center
Unified Fabric network? (Choose three.)
A. routing manipulation and filtering
B. aggregates end users
59
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
provides default gateway redundancy

voice, data, and wireless convergence
QoS - classification and queuing
QoS - policing
no packet manipulation
scalable routing protocols
Answer: BDG
QUESTION 184
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements about the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch are true?
(Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
An emulated switch ID must be unique when the vPC+ feature is used.

Switches with FabricPath and vPC+ consume two switch IDs.
Emulated switch IDs must be numbered from 1 to 99.
Each switch ID must be unique in the FabricPath topology.
Switch IDs must be configured manually.
Answer: BDE
QUESTION 185
Which statement best describes ACL configuration using configuration session mode on Cisco
Nexus switches?
A. The verify command will validate commands entered for syntax errors.
B. The save command will save the commands entered to the startup configuration.
C. The network administrator can perform a dry-run ACL configuration by verifying the configuration
against the hardware and software resources available before applying it.
D. Configuration sessions can be saved and resumed at any time, even after upgrading NX-OS Software
on the switch with ISSU.
E. Configuration sessions are global for all VDCs on the Nexus 7000.
60
Answer: C
QUESTION 186
Which two statements about QoS options in a Cisco UCS environment are true? (Choose two.)
A. The QoS policy assigns a system class to the outgoing traffic for a vNIC or vHBA.
B. Flow-control policies determine whether the uplink Ethernet ports in a Cisco UCS environment send
and receive IEEE 802.3x pause frames when the send buffer for a port fills.
C. If no system class is configured as CoS 0, the Fibre Channel system class is used.
D. The user can configure QoS for these system classes: platinum, gold, silver, best effort, Fibre Channel.
E. When configuring a system class, the type of adapter in a server may limit the maximum MTU supported.
Answer: AE
QUESTION 187
Which two security features are only supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?
(Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
IP source guard
traffic storm control
CoPP
DHCP snooping
Dynamic ARP Inspection
NAC
Answer: BF
QUESTION 188
What is required for Cisco UCS C-Series rack server integration with Cisco UCS Manager?
(Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cisco UCS Manager 1.3(xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2248 FEXes
Cisco UCS Manager 2.0(2xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2232 FEXes
Two Cisco UCS 6100 Series or 6200 Series fabric interconnects
Two RJ45 Ethernet cables
The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode
Answer: BCD
QUESTION 189
Which statement is correct about the number of available QoS system classes in FCoE?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
It's hard-set and cannot be disabled

It's configurable, with an upper limit of 16
It's hard-set but cannot disable best-effort and Fibre Channel
It's hard-set but can disable all but one class
It's configurable with an upper limit of eight
61
Answer: C
QUESTION 190
On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series router, which statement about HSRP and VRRP is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
When VDCs are in use, only VRRP is supported.

HSRP and VRRP both use the same multicast IP address with different port numbers.
HSRP has shorter default hold and hello times.
The VRRP group IP address can be the same as the router-specific IP address.
Answer: D
QUESTION 191
Which two Fibre Channel features are not supported in Cisco Nexus 5500 and Nexus 5000
platforms? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
port security
fabric binding
IVR
port tracking
FICON
Answer: CE
QUESTION 192
Which two Nexus 7000 licenses are required to manage FabricPath from Cisco Data Center
Network Manager (DCNM)? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Nexus 7000 Enhanced Layer 2 License

Nexus 7000 Scalable Feature License
Cisco DCNM for SAN Advanced Edition for Nexus 7000
Cisco DCNM for Nexus 7000
Nexus 7000 Transport Services License
Nexus 7000 LAN Enterprise License
Answer: CD
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/netmgtsw/ps6505/ps9369/product_bulletin_c25631923.html
QUESTION 193
Which two features require configuration on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series data center switch to
combat ARP cache poisoning attacks? (Choose two.)
A. DAI
B. ARP Guard
C. MAC ACL
62
D. DHCP Snooping
E. TrustSec
F. Port Security
Answer: AD
QUESTION 194
Which statement describes the FIP function of the FCoE Initiation Protocol?
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with the first switch in the path.
It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with any switch across multiple Ethernet segments.
It is not used to build the FCoE links.
It is used to ensure lossless transport.
Answer: B
QUESTION 195
On a Nexus 5000 Series Switch, when a VFC is not online, what are the causes? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
LLDP transmit and receive are disabled

The initiator server has no connectivity to the target storage
FIP negotiation timing
Peer does not support LLDP
VSAN trunk protocol has been enabled
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 196
How many concurrent GUI logins are possible per user account on Cisco UCS Manager?
A.
B.
C.
D.
128
96
64
32
Answer: D
QUESTION 197
ACE can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring health probes (sometimes
referred to as keepalives). There are several types of probes. Which three options are valid ACE
probes? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
TCP
ICMP
HTTP
IPsec
Answer: ABC
63
QUESTION 198
Which option is a benefit of virtualized Application Networking Manager?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Static workload scaling

Local authorization
High availability
Health monitor probe
Distributed backup
Answer: D
QUESTION 199
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would produce this output?
A.
B.
C.
D.
show stats HTTP

show stats loadbalance
show stats probe type
show parameter map
Answer: B
QUESTION 200
Which option describes how you would guarantee 30 percent of available bandwidth on interface
1/4?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the interface ethernet1/4 command.
Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.
Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the policy-map policy1-egress command.
Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.
Bandwidth guarantees are not permitted on output policies.
Answer: B
QUESTION 201
64
Refer to the exhibit. While attempting to modify a management firmware package, you receive the
error that is shown in the exhibit. Which two statements explain this error? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The management firmware package that is referenced by the service profile has been deleted.
The Cisco UCS Manager version is 2.1 or later.
Cisco Integrated Management Controller firmware should be managed via the host firmware policy.
You cannot modify the management firmware directly when a policy has been assigned.
The user that is logged into Cisco UCS Manager does not have sufficient privileges.
Answer: BC
QUESTION 202
Answer:
65
QUESTION 203
Answer:
QUESTION 204
Refer to the exhibit. When the engineer tried to check CoPP on the switch, the engineer observed
the error that is shown in the exhibit. Which option describes the reason for the displayed output?
66
A.
B.
C.
D.
The Cisco NX-OS version that is running does not support CoPP.
The CoPP feature is not enabled on this switch.
The CoPP CLI is available from the default VDC.
CoPP is enabled by default but not configured.
Answer: C
QUESTION 205
How many ACL capture sessions can be configured on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A. ACL capture is not supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch.
B. Only one ACL capture session can be active at any given time in the system across virtual device
contexts.
C. Only one ACL capture session can be active in each virtual device context.
D. The number of ACL capture sessions depends on the space that is available within the ACL
Ternary Content Addressable Memory.
E. Only one ACL capture session is supported per VLAN.
Answer: B
QUESTION 206
On a Cisco Nexus 7000 device, on which port type can port security be configured?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Access ports
SPAN destination port
trunk ports
public VLAN-enabled ports
Answer: A
QUESTION 207
Which statement is true about DHCP snooping on the Cisco Nexus 7000 platform?
A.
B.
C.
D.
DHCP snooping cannot be enabled globally and on a per-VLAN basis.

By default, DHCP snooping is disabled globally and on all VLANs.
You can enable DHCP snooping on a single VLAN only.
For DHCP snooping to function properly, all DHCP servers must be connected to the device
through untrusted interfaces.
Answer: B
QUESTION 208
Which two statements about VDC configuration and limitations are true? (Choose two.)
67
A.
B.
C.
D.
Standard VDCs cannot share interfaces, VLANs, or VRF tables.

Any user can create VDCs.
Only the network administrator role can use the switchto vdc command.
After a network administrator uses the switchto vdc command, the network administrator
becomes a VDC administrator for the new VDC.
E. There is no CLI command to return to the original VDC.
Answer: AD
QUESTION 209
Refer to the exhibit. You configured a port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch as a trunk port. Which
VLANs are allowed on the trunk port based on the port configuration in the exhibit?
A. No VLANs are allowed by default. Use the switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-4094 command to
allow all VLANs.
B. Only Native VLAN 1 will be allowed.
C. VLANs 1 to 3967, and 4048 to 4094 are allowed.
D. VLANs 1 to 3900, and 4048 to 4094 are allowed.
E. VLANs 1 to 4094 are allowed.
Answer: C
QUESTION 210
Which three prerequisites must be met before configuring FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000
switch? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Ensure that the Enhanced Layer 2 license is installed on the switch.

The FabricPath feature set must be installed on the default and non-default VDCs.
Spanning tree must be disabled on the switch.
Ensure that you are working on the F Series module.
Ensure that you are working on the M Series module.
The FabricPath feature set must be installed only on the default VDC.
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 211
Which two types of multicast trees are supported by Cisco NX-OS? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
private trees
shared trees
unicast trees
anycast trees
unidirectional trees
bidirectional trees
68
Answer: BF
QUESTION 212
Refer to the exhibit. The engineer needs to check if keepalive messages between two servers in
the address range 9.9.9.0/24 arrive from the device that is directly connected via the trunk
interface. Which two configurations should be applied on the switch port to achieve displayed
output? (Choose two.)
A. ip access-list LO_FILTER
statistics per-entry
10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any
20 permit ip any any
B. ip access-list LO_FILTER
10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any
20 permit ip any any
C. ip access-list LO_FILTER
10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any
20 deny ip any any
D. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Nexus5K(config-if)# ip access-group LO-FILTER in
E. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Nexus5K(config-if)# ip port access-list LO-FILTER in
F. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Nexus5K(config-if)# ip port access-group LO-FILTER out
Answer: AE
QUESTION 213
Which two statements about Fibre Channel Class 2 are true? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fibre Channel Class 2 provides a connection-oriented class of service.

The F_BSY frame is part of Class 2.
Class 2 acknowledges frame delivery.
BB_Credits do not exist in Class 2.
Dedicated bandwidth is allocated when using Class 2.
Answer: BC
QUESTION 214
Which two options describe the results of a switch sending an RCF SW_ILS frame to neighbor
switches? (Choose two.)
69
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
All traffic in all VSANs is suspended.

Zone merging is reinitiated.
The principal switch remains the same.
New Fibre Channel domains can be allocated.
The switch name is changed.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 215
Which statement about ESS SW_ILS frames is true?
A. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the management server of a requesting switch to the
Management Server of a responding switch.
B. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the name server of a requesting switch to the Name
Server of a responding switch.
C. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the domain controller of a requesting switch to the
Domain Controller of a responding switch.
D. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the alias server of a requesting switch to the Alias
E. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the time server of a requesting switch to the Time
Answer: C
QUESTION 216
Which three parameters are carried by an iSCSI TCP session? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
control messages
SCSI commands
parameters that specify redundant paths
iSCSI PDUs
primitive signals
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 217
Which two statements about Fibre Channel over IP are true? (Choose two.)
A. FCIP links consist of a maximum of one TCP connection between two FCIP link endpoints.
B. Each FCIP link carries encapsulated FCoE frames.
C. The FCIP link is established between two peers, and the VE Port initialization behavior is identical
to a normal E Port.
D. The FCIP profile contains information about the local IP address and TCP parameters.
E. The local IP address of the FCIP profile is the IP address of the management interface of the
Cisco MDS switch.
Answer: CD
70
QUESTION 218
Which two statements about Fibre Channel over TCP/IP are true? (Choose two.)
A. A connection request is made to Port 3225 or configured port.
B. A connection request is made to Port 3260 or configured port.
C. Fibre Channel over TCP/IP uses the TCP window management and sliding window for flow
control.
D. A special frame is always used to identify peers.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 219
Refer to the exhibit. How is the VLAN configuration accomplished in the Device Manager?
A.
B.
C.
D.
This configuration is done under the IP selection.

This configuration is done under Interface selection.
This configuration cannot be done in Device Manager.
This configuration is done by clicking the VSAN drop-down list and choosing VLAN All.
Answer: C
QUESTION 220
What is the default FSPF cost of a port channel that consists of four 2-Gb/s links, with one link
down because of an error?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
500
166
250
125
1000
Answer: D
QUESTION 221
Refer to the exhibit. Which two options describe possible causes of the failure shown in the
71
exhibit? (Choose two.)
A. Two switches have the same zone set name, but different zone names and different zone
members.
B. Two switches have the same zone set name and zone name, but different zone members.
C. The zoneset export interface command is used for the wrong interface.
D. The zoneset merge command can only be executed for VSAN 1.
E. The adjacent switch is down at the point of the zone merge.
Answer: AB
QUESTION 222
Given an E3 WAN link, which mode of compression would be the most appropriate choice?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mode high
Mode medium
Mode low
Mode 1
Mode 2
Answer: D
QUESTION 223
Which three options describe information that can be captured with the show iscsi stats iscsi x/y
detail command? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
PDU or frame drop occurrences

speed of the iSCSI interface
data CRC error
buffer credits
TMF-REQ and TMF-RESP
duplex of the iSCSI interface
Answer: ACE
QUESTION 224
Refer to the exhibit. When a CNA host connects to the virtual interface of the switch, what will
happen?
72
A. The switch will not initialize because it is in the wrong mode.

B. The host will negotiate using DCBX and connect properly.
C. The host will negotiate using DCBX and will change parameters as required, but a shut/no shut is
needed on the interface.
D. The host will not connect. The vFC port number does not match the Ethernet interface.
Answer: A
QUESTION 225
Which three options describe the key management control parameters that Cisco Prime DCNM
provides? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
configuration of change control

single shared database for LAN and SAN configuration data
single point for integration with third-party test tools
ability to manage vPCs
autodiscovery of storage controllers
host driver management
support for script automation
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 226
Refer to the exhibit. What action must be taken to make fc1/1 capable of being an ISL port
channel member operating at 4 GB?
73
A. One of the interfaces between fc1/2 and fc1/6 must be placed in out-of-service mode to free up
bandwidth in the port group so that fc1/1 can use that bandwidth.
B. Interface fc1/1 must be placed into dedicated rate mode.
C. The B2B credit value of interface fc1/1 must be raised to a minimum of 100.
D. No action is necessary because shared rate mode ports are fine for ISLs.
E. No action is possible because module 1 is oversubscribed and will only support ISLs if the ports
operate at 2GBs.
Answer: B
QUESTION 227
Which two statements about the FCIP Write Acceleration feature are true? (Choose two.)
A. WAN throughput is maximized by minimizing the impact of WAN latency for write operations.
B. The Write Acceleration feature does not have to be enabled on both sides of the FCIP link.
C. The FCIP Write Acceleration feature can only be used with multilink port channels if they are
constructed with port channel protocol.
D. The Write Acceleration feature cannot be used across FSPF equal cost paths in FCIP
deployments.
E. The Write Acceleration feature works by immediately returning the SCSI status on the initiator
side of the FCIP link.
Answer: AD
QUESTION 228
Which statement best describes the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series?
A. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 switching, advanced networking functions, and
a common network management model in a virtualized server environment.
B. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 3 switching, advanced networking functions, and
a common network management model in a virtualized server environment.
C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching, advanced networking
functions, and a common network management model in a virtualized server environment.
D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching but does not provide
advanced networking functions or a common network management model in a virtualized server
environment.
Answer: A
QUESTION 229
Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are correct? (Choose two.)
A. When VSM interfaces are created for a virtual machine, the VMware vSwitch port-group
configuration is used initially, which requires the creation of a port-group name for these
interfaces and an appropriate VLAN. The simplest configuration is to create a single port group
(for example, VSM-Interfaces), that includes all the interfaces that use this port group and the
same VLAN.
B. The mgmt0 interface on the VSM does not necessarily require its own VLAN. In fact, you can use
the same VLAN to which the VMware vCenter Server belongs. The VSM management VLAN is
really no different from any other virtual machine data VLAN. Alternatively, network administrators
74
can designate a special VLAN for network device management.

C. Always deploy the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM in pairs, with one VSM that is defined as the
primary module and the other that is defined as the secondary module on two separate hosts.
D. The service console is a critical interface that resides on every logical server.
Answer: BC
QUESTION 230
Which two methods can be used to install the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM on an ESXi host?
(Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Installation using VMware Update Manager

Iinstallation via the esxupdate/esxcli command with a tar.gz file
Installation via the esxupdate/esxcli command with a .vib file
Copying VEM executable files to ESXi host /bin
Installation from the VSM using the vem install host command
Installation from the VSM using FTP and the vem auto-install command
Answer: AC
QUESTION 231
Which two methods can be used in communications between the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM and
the VSM? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
routed TCP traffic using HTTPS

routed UDP traffic using port 4785
routed UDP traffic using port 7845
Layer 2 direct traffic using MAC addresses
Layer 2 broadcast traffic
routed TCP traffic using port 4785
routed TCP traffic using port 7845
Answer: BD
QUESTION 232
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is setting up the VSM and VEM in Layer 3 mode. The
administrator adds a host to the distributed switch in VMware, but does not see the module join
the VSM. Given the configuration in the exhibit, which three configuration items must be included
in the configuration? (Choose three.)
75
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Capability I3control.

The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VSM l3control.
The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to System VLAN 1400.
The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VLAN 1400 in the allowed trunk.
The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Capability l3control.
The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Mode Trunk. G. The vEthernet Port Profile
parameter must be set to VEM l3control.
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 233
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is setting up the VSM and VEM in Layer 3 mode. The
administrator adds a host to the distributed switch in VMware, but does not see the module join
the VSM. Given the configuration in the exhibit, which configuration needs to be included?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1

B. vrf context control
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1
C. vrf context management
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1
D. ip route vrf management 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1
Answer: A
QUESTION 234
Where can port profiles be created for the Cisco Nexus 1000V?
A. on the VSM only
B. on vCenter only
76
C. on VSM and vCenter

D. on VSM and VEM
E. on VSM, VEM, and vCenter
Answer: A
QUESTION 235
Where can port profiles be applied to a virtual machine?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
on the VSM only

on vCenter only
on VSM and vCenter
on VSM and VEM
on VSM, VEM, and vCenter
Answer: B
QUESTION 236
The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implementation has two main components. Which two
components together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
virtual supervisor module

virtual Ethernet module
virtual machine NICs
virtual machine kernel NICs
Answer: AB
QUESTION 237
Refer to the exhibit. A port profile is created in the VSM, but it is not seen in vCenter and cannot
be assigned to a virtual machine. Given the configuration in the exhibit, which VSM command will
resolve this issue?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
vmware port-group
vmware port-active
profile-active
port-group active
shutdown / no shutdown
Answer: A
QUESTION 238
Which two statements about dynamic port binding are true? (Choose two.)
77
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The port is connected when the VM is powered on and disconnected when the VM is powered off.
The port is created when the VM is powered on and destroyed when the VM is powered off.
The max-port limits are enforced.
The max-port limits are not enforced.
The port is always connected.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 239
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is adding a new Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch to
vCenter, but does not see the new switch under the vCenter networking tab. The administrator
issues the command that is shown in the exhibit on VSM to troubleshoot this problem. When the
administrator attempts to fix the issue, the error that is shown in the exhibit is seen. Which option
describes the most correct cause of this error?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
There is a missing control VLAN in the VSM configuration.

There is a missing packet VLAN in the VSM configuration.
VSM has no network connection to vCenter.
The VSM extension key is not installed on vCenter.
The vCenter extension key is not installed on VSM.
Answer: D
QUESTION 240
Refer to the exhibit. Which option is valid for connecting the fabric interconnect to the I/O
module?
78
A.
B.
C.
D.
A, B, C, and D are valid.

A and B are valid.
A, B, and D are valid.
Only A is valid.
Answer: B
QUESTION 241
Which two server models support single-wire management for Cisco UCS C-Series integration
with Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cisco UCS C200 M2 server

Answer: CD
QUESTION 242
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that the Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects are equipped
with 16 port expansion modules. What is the impact of the last command in the exhibit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Fabric interconnect B will reboot.

The expansion module on fabric interconnect B will reload.
The command will generate an error.
Both fabric A and B expansion modules will reload.
The expansion module on fabric interconnect B will reload according to the maintenance policy
that is set by Cisco UCS Manager.
79
Answer: C
QUESTION 243
You have configured a Cisco UCS C460 M2 Rack-Mount Server with two VIC 1225 adapters for
single-wire management with Cisco UCS Manager. Which statement correctly describes the
operation of these adapters?
A.
B.
C.
D.
One VIC is designated to carry management, and the other VIC is designated to carry data traffic.
Both VICs will be used for management and data traffic.
One VIC will carry management, and both VICs will carry data traffic.
The Cisco UCS C460 M2 does not support two VIC 1225 adapters simultaneously.
Answer: C
QUESTION 244
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes the output that is shown in bold in the exhibit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
This output represents a standby VIF.

This output indicates that fabric failover has been enabled on vNIC 3.
This output represents a reserved system VIF.
This output represents an unpinned interface.
Answer: A
QUESTION 245
Which two FEX connection modes are correct? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
hard-pinning mode
soft-pinning mode
port channel mode
physical-pinning mode
vlan pinning mode
Answer: AC
80
QUESTION 246
Which four port types are included in the VLAN port count? (Choose four.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
border uplink Ethernet ports

border uplink EtherChannel member ports
FCoE ports in a SAN cloud
static and dynamic vNICs created through service profiles
VLANs
VSANs
Private VSANs
Private VLANs
Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 247
What is the default MTU for Fibre Channel on Cisco UCS Manager?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2112
2240
2000
9216
Answer: B
QUESTION 248
Refer to the exhibit. How many additional chassis equipped with Cisco UCS 2204XP I/O Modules
could be connected at maximum bandwidth without exceeding the existing port licenses?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1
2
3
4
5
Answer: B
QUESTION 249
Which two items have an impact on the maximum number of virtual interfaces that can be created
on a virtual interface card? (Choose two.)
81
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
number of blades in the chassis

number of acknowledged links between the Fabric Interconnect and the I/O module
number of connected uplinks
number of Fabric Interconnect port ASICs used by uplinks
number of Fabric Interconnects
number of VIC
Answer: BD
QUESTION 250
Which feature must be enabled on the upstream Fibre Channel switch if the fabric interconnect is
configured in end-host mode?
A.
B.
C.
D.
NPV
NPIV
Zoning
Smart Zoning
Answer: B
QUESTION 251
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the output and diagram are true? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
FI-A is configured in FC switch mode.

VSAN trunking is enabled on FI-A.
The native VSAN should be VSAN 1.
Cisco UCS will allow all VSANs by default when FC trunking is enabled.
82
E. FI-A requires VSAN pruning.

F. Interface fc1/8 on MDS-A should be configured as a TE Port.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 252
You are about to assign a static UUID to a service profile. This particular UUID is also defined
within the range of a UUID pool. The duplicate UUID in the pool has not yet been allocated. What
will be the result of applying the static UUID?
A. Applying the static UUID will fail with an error stating that the UUID exists within a defined
resource pool.
B. Applying the static UUID will succeed with no warnings.
C. Applying the static UUID will succeed and a minor fault will be raised.
D. Applying the static UUID will succeed and an information fault will be raised.
E. Applying the static UUID will fail with an error stating that the UUID is a duplicate UUID.
Answer: B
QUESTION 253
What is the purpose of the management interface monitoring policy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
to monitor the management interface counters for errors and drops

to prevent VM traffic from being black-holed during a cluster switchover
to sync MAC address tables between peer fabric interconnects
to ensure that the management interface of the managing fabric interconnect can reach the
gateway
Answer: D
QUESTION 254
How many traffic monitoring sessions can you create on Cisco UCS Manager?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16
8
24
32
Answer: A
QUESTION 255
Fault suppression allows you to suppress SNMP trap and Call Home notifications during a
planned maintenance period. Which three commands are necessary to activate these
suppression polices in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
default-chassis-all-maint
default-chassis-phys-maint
default-fex-all-maint
default-FI-phys-maint
83
E. default-blade-phys-maint
F. default-vic-phys-maint
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 256
Refer to the exhibit. Assume that there is no disjoint Layer 2 configuration. Based on the output,
what will happen if uplink eth1/7 on FI-A fails?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The host will lose Ethernet uplink connectivity on FI-A.

Fabric failover will force the vNIC that is bound to FI-A to use uplink eth1/7 on FI-B.
Cisco UCS Manager will disable the host vNIC that is connected to FI-A.
Traffic from any hosts using this pin group will use e1/8 on FI-A.
Answer: D
QUESTION 257
A load balancer performs an operation on a predefined parameter, such as the IP address, HTTP
cookie, or URL, when a new connection is made so that another connection with the same
parameter will always reach the same server. Which load-balancing predictor does this statement
describe?
A.
B.
C.
D.
round robin
least-connections
hashing
least-loaded
Answer: C
QUESTION 258
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose two.)
84
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
The domain ID for SAN A is 0x64.

fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as E Ports.
fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as TE Ports.
fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as F Ports.
FC trunking is enabled on the Fabric Interconnect.
The domain ID for SAN A is 0x640.
Answer: AD
QUESTION 259
Which three options are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
HTTP
Telnet
Java scripting
TCL scripting
XML scripting
SSH
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 260
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output, what is the most likely reason for the failure of the
iSCSI boot?
85
A.
B.
C.
D.
There is no gateway configured on the iSCSI vNIC.

The LUN is not masked correctly on the storage array.
CHAP authentication is not configured correctly.
The latency between the imitator and target is too high.
Answer: B
QUESTION 261
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of address-port translation is shown?
A.
B.
C.
D.
server NAT
dual NAT
port redirection
transparent mode
86
Answer: B
QUESTION 262
Which option describes the default predictor on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client
request?
A.
B.
C.
D.
the hash cookie, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on a cookie name
least bandwidth, which selects the server that processed the least amount of network traffic
round robin, which selects the next server in the list of real servers
the hash DNS, which selects the server using a hash value that is based on FQDN
Answer: C
QUESTION 263
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of SSL offload configuration is shown in the output?
A. SSL termination
87
B. SSL initiation
C. end-to-end SSL
D. SSL testing
Answer: B
QUESTION 264
What are the three benefits of SSL offload? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
total offload of encryption from the servers

partial offload of encryption from the servers
Layer 5 to 7 awareness for Layer 7 switching
Layer 5 to 7 awareness for Layer 5 to 7 switching
public certificates required on both load balancer and the real server
public certificate required only on load balancer
Answer: ACF
QUESTION 265
Which protocol message does the Cisco ACE module use to insert or withdraw all RHI routes?
A.
B.
C.
D.
ICMP
SCP
IPv4
SCTP
Answer: B
QUESTION 266
In the basic DNS resolution process, which component receives the query and sends it to the
location that knows the IP address for the destination?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
DNS resolver
D-proxy
root server
intermediate server
authoritative server
Answer: B
QUESTION 267
88
Answer:
QUESTION 268
Answer:
89
QUESTION 269
Answer:
QUESTION 270
90
Answer:
QUESTION 271
Answer:
QUESTION 272
91
Answer:
QUESTION 273
Answer:
92
QUESTION 274
Answer:
QUESTION 275
Answer:
QUESTION 276
93
Answer:
QUESTION 277
Answer:
QUESTION 278
94
Answer:
QUESTION 279
Which three concepts influenced the evolution of data centers? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Consolidation
Expansion
Automation
Virtualization
Commoditization
Economics
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 280
Which three technologies enable lossless Ethernet? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Priority Flow Control

Enhanced Transmission Selection
Ethernet Credits
Congestion Notification
VLAN-Aware Transmission
IP Type of Server Field
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 281
What are two benefits of a FabricPath network? (Choose two.)
A. Simplicity of configuration
95
B.
C.
D.
E.
Automatic OSPF routing

Scalability
Dynamic link selection
Spanning tree loop prioritization.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 282
Refer to the exhibit. Which of these technologies is illustrated by the topology in the exhibit?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
vPC+
standard vPC
enhanced vPC
express vPC
fabric vPC
Answer: C
QUESTION 283
Refer to the exhibit. The interface remains in a down state after entering the command that is
shown in the exhibit. What is the cause of the problem?
96
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The feature interface-vlan command must be configured.

The VDC contains only F1 interfaces.
There are IP address conflicts.
The VDC is "type OTV."
The command copy run start was not entered.
Answer: B
QUESTION 284
NPV and NPIV are features that are used to overcome resource limitations in which Fibre
Channel field?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
FCID
Domain ID
WWPN
LUN ID
VSAN
Answer: B
QUESTION 285
What are the three prerequisites for enabling FCoE on a Cisco Nexus 7000? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
M Series module
F Series module
no-drop QoS policy
NPIV feature
FCoE module license
Fabric Extender configured
Answer: BCE
QUESTION 286
How many virtual interfaces do the Cisco UCS 1280, 1240, and 1225 Virtual Interface Cards
support?
A. 128
B. 64
C. 256
97
D. 1024
E. 100
Answer: C
QUESTION 287
When you connect two Cisco devices through 802.1Q trunks, the devices exchange spanning
tree BPDUs on each VLAN that is allowed on the trunks. Which two statements are correct about
the BPDUs that are sent on the native VLAN of the trunk? (Choose two.)
A. BPDUs are sent to the reserved IEEE 802.1D spanning tree multicast MAC address (01- 80-C200-00-00).
B. BPDUs are sent to the reserved IEEE 802.1q spanning tree multicast MAC address (01- 80-C200-00-00).
C. BPDUs are sent to the reserved SSTP multicast MAC address (01-00-0c-cc-cc-cd).
D. BPDUs are tagged with the VLAN number when they are sent.
E. BPDUs are untagged when they are sent.
Answer: AE
QUESTION 288
Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a vPC is created. During a
compatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration information to the other vPC peer to
verify that vPC member ports can actually form a port channel. Which two statements about
virtual port channel graceful consistency checks are true? (Choose two.)
A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default.
B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer device are
suspended.
C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default. To enable this feature, use the graceful
consistency-check command under the vPC domain configuration mode.
D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the secondary peer
device are suspended.
E. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default.
Answer: AB
QUESTION 289
Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a vPC is created. During a
compatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration information to the other vPC peer to
verify that vPC member ports can actually form a port channel. Which option is considered as a
Type-2 misconfiguration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
port MTU mismatch

native VLAN mismatch
STP interface settings
VLAN mismatch
Answer: D
98
QUESTION 290
Which three statements about Cisco FabricPath are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Only F1 or F2 ports can be used as FabricPath core ports.
B. Only F1 or F2 ports can be used as edge ports to connect a legacy spanning tree domain (to
switch traffic over the FabricPath domain).
C. A FabricPath VLAN can exist on F1 or F2 ports only.
D. Only M1 or M2 ports can be used as FabricPath core ports.
E. Only F2 ports can be used as edge ports to connect a legacy spanning tree domain (to switch
traffic over the FabricPath domain).
F. A FabricPath VLAN can exist on F1 ports only.
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 291
Which PIM mode is supported in Cisco NX-OS?
A.
B.
C.
D.
sparse mode
dense mode
sparse-dense mode
dense-sparse mode
Answer: A
QUESTION 292
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command (or commands) will produce the output that is
shown in the exhibit?
99
A. no feature igmp
B. no feature igmp snooping
C. vlan 201
no ip igmp snooping
D. vlan configuration 201
no ip igmp snooping
E. interface vlan 201
no ip igmp snooping
Answer: D
QUESTION 293
Refer to the exhibit. The following message output was displayed while configuring PIM on Nexus
7000. Which command should be configured on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch to allow the
desired configuration?
A.
B.
C.
D.
feature multicast
feature pim
ip multicast-routing
ip pim routing
Answer: B
QUESTION 294
Which two statements about FCIP Tape Acceleration are true? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
FCIP Tape Acceleration enables time stamp control on an FCIP interface.

The Cisco MDS switch proxies a transfer ready to signal the host to start receiving data.
FCIP Tape Acceleration uses TCP window management and a sliding window for flow control.
FCIP Tape Acceleration reduces each I/O processing time by two RTT.
FCIP Tape Acceleration only supports the read acceleration.
Answer: CD
QUESTION 295
Refer to the exhibit. Given the displays from MDS-1 and MDS-2, which two options describe what
will happen when they attempt a zone merge for VSAN 120? (Choose two.)
100
A. The zone merge will complete with no warnings and each switch will contain three zones.
B. The zone merge will fail because the zone set members are not identical.
C. The zone merge will prompt the administrator to add zones ucs-1 and ucs-2 to the switches
where they are missing.
D. Zone merges are not permitted when running enhanced mode zoning.
E. The zone merge will fail because the active zone set names are not identical.
F. The zone merge will complete, but the administrator will be prompted to choose which zone set to
make active.
Answer: BE
QUESTION 296
Which of the following is an advanced networking function performed by VEM?
101
A.
B.
C.
D.
QOS.
Snooping.
VSAN creation.
VLAN pruning.
Answer: A
QUESTION 297
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose three.)
A. The differentiating characteristic of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series is that it does not run
Spanning Tree Protocol. This characteristic may seem to be a significant departure from other
Ethernet switches, which might potentially cause catastrophic network loops. However, in reality,
the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implements a simple and effective loop- prevention strategy that
does not require Spanning Tree Protocol.
B. Because the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series does not participate in Spanning Tree Protocol, it does
not respond to BPDU packets, nor does it generate them. BPDU packets that are received by
Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are dropped.
C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series uses a simple technique to prevent loops. Like a physical
Ethernet switch, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch performs source and destination MAC
address lookups to make forwarding decisions. The VEM applies loop- prevention logic to every
incoming packet on Ethernet interfaces.
D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series uses a simple technique to prevent loops. Like any logical
Ethernet switch, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch performs source and destination MAC
address lookups to make forwarding decisions. The VEM applies loop- prevention logic to every
incoming packet on Ethernet interfaces.
E. Because the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series participates in Spanning Tree Protocol, it responds to
BPDU packets, and it generate them. BPDU packets that are received by Cisco Nexus 1000V
Series Switches are dropped.
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 298
Which two options correctly display IOM-to-Fabric Interconnect connectivity? (Choose two.)
102
A.
B.
C.
D.
103
Answer: AB
QUESTION 299
What are the two FEX connection modes? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
hard-pinning mode
soft-pinning mode
port channel mode
physical-pinning mode
vlan pinning mode
Answer: AC
QUESTION 300
What is the default burst in a LAN QoS policy?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10240
9216
20480
1548
Answer: A
QUESTION 301
Which two statements about disjoint Layer 2 networks are true? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Ethernet Switching mode must be end-host mode.

Overlapping vlans are supported.
Each vNIC can communicate with all the disjoint Layer 2 networks.
Symmetrical configuration is recommended for high availability.
Default VLAN 1 can be configured explicitly on an Uplink Ethernet Port or Port Channel
Appliance port cannot be configured with the same VLAN as Uplink Ethernet Port or Port
Channel.
Answer: AD
104
QUESTION 302
Answer:
QUESTION 303
Answer:
105
QUESTION 304
Answer:
QUESTION 305
Answer:
106
QUESTION 306
OTV is a MAC-in-IP method that extends Layer 2 connectivity across a transport network
infrastructure. Which three options are high-availability features? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
OTV fast convergence

fast failure detection
added the track-adjacency-nexthop command to enable overlay route tracking
added support for unicast cores using an adjacency server
added support for IPv6 unicast forwarding and multicast flooding across the OTV overlay
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 307
Which three statements about FabricPath are true? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Only FabricPath VLANs can cross a FabricPath domain.

A vPC+ peer link can be formed out of F1 or F2 ports only.
With FabricPath, vPC must be changed to vPC+.
F1 ports must be placed into a separate VDCs.
A vPC+ peer link can be formed out of F2 ports only.
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 308
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of this command on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A. The command enables conversational learning on FabricPath VLANs 1 through 10 for the F
Series module.
B. The command enables the FabricPath protocol on VLANs 1 through 10.
C. There is no need for this command because conversational learning is enabled by default for all
VLANs.
D. The command enables conversational learning on a classic Ethernet VLAN for the F Series
module.
Answer: D
107
QUESTION 309
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements describe the use of the vPC peer link in this
topology? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
The peer link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between SW1 and SW2.
The peer link is used for control plane traffic only.
The peer link provides necessary transport for multicast traffic.
The peer link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.
The peer link does not prevents the loops in the topology.
The peer link always consists of two 10GB ports in a port-channel.
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 310
What is the default vPC peer-keepalive timeout on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5 seconds
256 milliseconds
500 milliseconds
1 second
108
Answer: A
QUESTION 311
On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, ACL capture sessions are supported on which two modules?
(Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
M1 modules
M2 modules
F1 modules
F2 modules
M3 modules
Answer: AB
QUESTION 312
Refer to the exhibit. A new Nexus device, Router-B, was recently added to the network. The
engineer wants to make Router-B the designated IGMP querier for this network. Which two
configurations should be applied to the devices on the network to accomplish this goal? (Choose
two.)
A. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1

Router-B(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.251 255.255.255.0
B. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Router-B(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.249 255.255.255.0
Router-B(config)# feature igmp
C. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Router-B(config-if)# ip igmp version 2
Router-B(config)# feature igmp
D. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
109
Router-B(config-if)# ip igmp querier

Router-B(config)# feature pim
E. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1
Router-B(config-if)# ip pim sparse-mode
Answer: BE
QUESTION 313
Refer to the exhibit. The customer is trying to configure a rendezvous point, but for some reason
it is failing. Which configuration should be applied on both Nexus devices to configure the
rendezvous point?
A. RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10

RT-2(config)#interface lo0
B. RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse
RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-announce lo10 group-list 239.0.0.0/24
RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse
C. RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10
D. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106
E. RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border
RT-2(config)# ip pim send-rp-announce lo10 group-list 239.0.0.0/24
110
F. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106
G. RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border
RT-2(config)# ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10 H.
RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106
RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border
Answer: C
QUESTION 314
Which three configurations for ACL capture are valid? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
on a VLAN interface
in the ingress direction on all interfaces
in the ingress direction only on the M2 module
in the egress direction on all interfaces
in the egress direction on all Layer 3 interfaces
in the ingress direction only on M1 module
Answer: ABE
QUESTION 315
Which of the following is a feature of Fabric Extender?
A. The Fabric Extender provides two user queues for its QoS support, one for all no-drop classes
and one for all drop classes.
B. The class-all-flood and class-ip-multicast class maps are used on the Fabric Extender.
C. The Fabric Extender inherits the CoS configured on the upstream switch.
D. For a Cisco Nexus 2248PQ 10GE Fabric Extender, all fabric interfaces can be bundled into a
single fabric port channel.
Answer: A
QUESTION 316
You have a customer with an MDS fabric that is experiencing a performance problem. You
suspect that the problem is due to a BB credit starvation issue with a host HBA. The customer
has both a DS-PAA-2 and a Fibre Channel Analyzer on location. You want to collect a trace and
look at the R_RDY flows between the MDS and the host. Which of the following actions is the
best way to start troubleshooting this problem?
A. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local brief trace on the MDS and look for missing R_RDYs.
B. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local trace with full detail on the MDS, because the detail is
needed to examine the R_RDY flow.
C. Use the DS-PAA-2 and the MDS span feature to capture a trace and examine the R_RDY flow
between the host and MDS.
D. Use the Finisar and the MDS span feature to capture a trace because the DS-PAA-2 cannot
decode R_RDYs.
E. Break the physical connection between the host and MDS and insert the Fibre Channel Analyzer
inline.
111
Answer: E
QUESTION 317
Basic zoning changes are accomplished through the use of four SW_ILS frames. Which option
identifies these frames in the correct order?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
RCA, UFC, SFC, ACA

ACA, RCA, SFC, UFC
SFC, UFC, ACA, RCA
ACA, SFC, UFC, RCA
UFC, SFC, RCA, ACA
Answer: D
QUESTION 318
Which SCSI action returns a list of logical unit numbers to which additional commands may be
issued?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Read Capacity
Test Unit Read
Report LUNs
Read
Inquiry
Answer: C
QUESTION 319
Which statement about the FCIP Tape Acceleration feature is true?
A. Cisco MDS SAN-OS provides only tape write acceleration.
B. After receiving all the data, the host-side MDS FCIP Tape Acceleration-enabled switch proxies
the successful completion of the SCSI WRITE operation.
C. Cisco SAN-OS provides increased performance of data delivery to the remote FCIP connected
tape drives by using UDP over the WAN.
D. The FCIP Tape Acceleration feature can be used with multilink port channels if the port channels
are constructed with a port channel protocol.
E. WRITE FILEMARKS operations are proxied by the host-side MDS FCIP Tape Accelerationenabled switch.
Answer: B
QUESTION 320
Which statement about the SAN Extension Tuner is true?
A. The SET configuration is persistent across reboots.
B. The virtual N Ports that are created will register the FC4 features that are supported with the
name server.
C. Only SCSI read and write commands are implemented.
D. SET cannot be used if iSCSI is enabled.
112
E. The data pattern that is used for the data that is generated between the virtual N Ports can be an
all-zero pattern or an all-ones pattern. No other data patterns can be used.
Answer: C
QUESTION 321
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most likely reason that VSAN 88 is initializing?
A.
B.
C.
D.
VSAN 88 is not mapped to a FCoE VLAN.

No host has logged into the VSAN.
The VSAN is shut down.
VSAN 88 is not part of the trunk yet.
Answer: B
QUESTION 322
Which two actions must occur to disable the LAN traffic on an FCoE link to a host? (Choose two.)
A. interface Ethernet 1/1
shutdown lan
B. The switch sends a LAN logical link status message to the CNA host.
C. interface vfc11
shutdown lan
D. The switch send a PFC command to the CNA host.
E. interface Ethernet 1/1
vlan 10 disable
Answer: AB
QUESTION 323
What is the main function of the device-alias distribute command?
113
A. This command distributes the device alias configuration on the existing switch to all the other
switches in the Cisco Fabric Services region.
B. This command enables distribution and will send the configuration after a commit is executed.
C. This command changes the distribution mode for device aliases.
D. There is no such command.
Answer: B
QUESTION 324
When a switch that supports enhanced zoning joins a fabric, which SW_ILS command does it use
to determine the enhanced zoning capabilities of the other switches in the fabric?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
MR
ESS
ELP
EFP
none of the above
Answer: B
QUESTION 325
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements about the exhibit output related to Cisco Fabric
Services are true? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The lock can only be released only by the operations manager user on the 10.1.1.11 switch.
The admin user on the 10.1.1.11 switch must clear the lock.
The tacacs+ commit command is the only command that can be used to clear the lock.
Any network-admin user can release the lock with the command clear tacacs+ session.
The operations manager user has started, but not committed, a configuration change for the
feature tacacs+ command.
F. If committed, the changes are automatically saved to the startup configuration on all switches.
Answer: DEF
QUESTION 326
114
Refer to the exhibit. Given the displays from N5K-1 and N5K-2, what is the expected result if the
zone mode enhanced vsan 1 command is issued on N5K-1?
A. The mode change will complete with a warning that the zone database from N5K-1 will be
distributed thoughout the fabric.
B. The mode change will not complete due to the mismatch in the default zone mode.
C. The mode change prompts the administrator to override the default zone mismatch and make
them the same.
D. The mode change completes, and the default zone setting remains unchanged in N5K-1 and
N5K-2.
E. The default zone setting is set to deny in both switches because it is more secure.
Answer: A
QUESTION 327
In DCBX feature negotiation, the switch and CNA exchange capability information and
configuration values. Which three capabilities are supported in Cisco Nexus 5000 Series
Switches? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
PFC
support for logical link up or down
FCoE
multicast
speed
duplex
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 328
Which statement about the iSCSI initiator task tag is true?
115
A.
B.
C.
D.
The initiator assigns a task tag to each task it issues.

The target assigns a task tag on behalf of the initiator.
During the life of the task, this tag does not have to be unique.
SCSI may not use this tag as part of the SCSI task identifier.
Answer: A
QUESTION 329
Which three management tools are available with DCNM-SAN Manager, Device Manager, and
Performance Manager? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Cisco Traffic Analyzer

Cisco Protocol Analyzer
Cisco Port Analyzer Adapter 2
Cisco Prime LMS
Cisco Prime NCS
Cisco Prime NMS
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 330
Refer to the exhibit. Which two options describe information that can be determined from this
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
the uplink interface that is operating as the designated receiver for broadcast traffic
the uplink interface that is operating as the designated sender for broadcast traffic
the switching mode for which the Fabric Interconnect is configured
the uplink interface from which multicast traffic will be sourced
whether the last respond code was accepted or not
Answer: AC
QUESTION 331
Refer to the exhibit. You have associated a newly created service profile to a blade. When you
examine the configured boot order and actual boot order, they do not match. Which two
statements describe reasons for this mismatch? (Choose two.)
116
A. Having a single iSCSI boot target would prevent the profile from associating, and would generate
a configuration error.
B. The server must complete a POST cycle before Cisco UCS Manager will update this information.
C. The blade needs to be reacknowledged.
D. The server is in the process of a firmware upgrade.
E. There may be a configuration error in the service profile.
Answer: BE
QUESTION 332
Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring a UCS C-Series server for SAN boot over FCoE.
The server fails to boot after the HBA option ROM loads.
Which option describes the most likely solution for this problem?
117
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Decrease the vNIC MTU.

Set the vNIC Class of Service to a nonzero value.
Set the default VLAN to FCOE VLAN.
Set the vHBA Class of Service to 2.
Uncheck the PXE Boot option.
Disable Persistent LUN Binding.
Answer: C
QUESTION 333
Refer to the exhibit. You are connecting a Cisco Nexus 2000 to an existing Cisco UCS Fabric
Interconnect domain for C-Series integration.
Which option describes the next Cisco Nexus 2000 that will be discovered?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
FEX0101
FEX0003
FEX0102
FEX1000
FEX1001
Answer: B
QUESTION 334
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most likely reason for the output that is shown in bold in the
exhibit?
118
A. One or more of the VLANs that are assigned to the vNIC have been deleted from Cisco UCS
Manager.
B. One or more of the VLANs that are assigned to the vNIC are assigned to different disjoint Layer 2
uplinks.
C. There are no Ethernet uplinks that are enabled.
D. The host to which the vNIC belongs is currently powered off.
E. The vNIC is currently active and uses the fabric failover peer vNIC.
Answer: B
QUESTION 335
Refer to the exhibit. What is the most likely reason for the error?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
There are not enough local hard drives to satisfy the local disk configuration policy.
One of the resource pools is depleted (WWN, MAC, UUID).
The destination blade is equipped with an M61KR-B adapter.
The server is not equipped with adequate memory.
A User Ack maintenance policy has been applied.
Answer: C
QUESTION 336
Refer to the exhibit. You are setting up a service profile to iSCSI boot using a Cisco UCS VIC
1240. The service profile returns a configuration error when you attempt to associate it.
What is the problem, based on the exhibit?
119
A.
B.
C.
D.
The iSCSI adapter policy is not set.

iSCSI boot will not work with the default VLAN.
The default VLAN should not be set as native on the overlay vNIC.
The MAC address assignment is invalid.
Answer: D
QUESTION 337
You plan to add a new VLAN to your updating service profile template. Assuming that the default
maintenance policy is configured, which statement about applying this change is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The change will be applied immediately once the blade is rebooted.

The change will be deferred until the user acknowledges.
The change will be applied immediately with no disruption to any bound service profiles.
The change will generate an impact summary message.
The change will require all bound service profiles to be unbound.
Answer: C
QUESTION 338
How are unified port expansion modules for Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects
licensed?
A. All ports are fully licensed by default.
120
B.
C.
D.
E.
The first eight ports on the module are licensed by default.

The expansion modules contribute eight licenses to the global pool by default.
The expansion modules contribute six licenses to the global pool by default.
The first six ports on the module are licensed by default.
Answer: D
QUESTION 339
How many licenses are provided with the purchase of the Cisco UCS 6296 fabric interconnect?
A.
B.
C.
D.
18
16
12
8
Answer: A
QUESTION 340
Refer to the exhibit. In the figure, the load balancer acts a transparent TCP proxy, and
establishes the connection with the client on behalf of the real server.
What is this type of spoofing called?
A.
B.
C.
D.
delayed binding
software-based load balancing
transport proxy
application binding
121
Answer: A
QUESTION 341
Which four options describe benefits of the global load-balancing solution? (Choose four.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
device status within the data center

performance granularity
centralized client access
intelligent traffic management
reacts quickly for availability only
server monitoring statistics
round robin support only for load-balancing
Answer: ABDF
QUESTION 342
Drag and Drop Questions
Answer:
QUESTION 343
Which switch is not a valid Cisco Nexus 7000 Series model?
A. Cisco Nexus 7000 4-slot switch
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 8-slot switch
122
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 9-slot switch

D. Cisco Nexus 7000 10-slot switch
E. Cisco Nexus 7000 18-slot switch
Answer: B
QUESTION 344
What is the benefit of the Priority-Based Flow control feature in Data Center Bridging?
A.
B.
C.
D.
provides the capability to manage a bursty, single traffic source on a multiprotocol link
enables bandwidth management between traffic types for multiprotocol links
addresses the problem of sustained congestion by moving corrective action to the network edge
allows autoexchange of Ethernet parameters between switches and endpoints
Answer: A
QUESTION 345
Your organization is purchasing Cisco devices as well as non-Cisco devices for switching.
Which three statements are correct about connecting Cisco devices to a non-Cisco 802.1Q
cloud? (Choose three.)
A. Because Cisco devices transmit BPDUs to the SSTP multicast MAC address on VLANs other
than the native VLAN of the trunk, non-Cisco devices do not recognize these frames as BPDUs
and flood them on all ports in the corresponding VLAN.
B. Cisco devices connected to the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud receive these flooded BPDUs.
This BPDU reception allows Cisco switches to maintain a per-VLAN spanning tree topology
across a cloud of non-Cisco 802.1Q devices.
C. The non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud that separates the Cisco devices is treated as a single broadcast
segment between all devices connected to the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud through 802.1Q trunks.
D. Because Cisco devices transmit BPDUs using the industry standard IEEE 802.1D spanning tree
multicast MAC address (01-80-C2-00-00-00), the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud will seamlessly
participate in spanning tree protocol.
E. Only layer 3 connections will work between Cisco devices and non-Cisco 802.1 cloud.
F. Additional equipment will be needed to transmit traffic between Cisco devices and non-Cisco
802.1Q cloud direct connectivity is not possible
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 346
Which two options describe devices as they operate in FabricPath topologies? (Choose two.)
A. Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernet devices
(servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that are connected to the FabricPath cloud
(or FabricPath ports).
Edge devices are able to map a MAC address to the destination switch ID.
B. Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices.
Spine devices switch exclusively based on the destination switch ID.
C. Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernet devices
(servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that are connected to the FabricPath cloud
(or FabricPath ports).
123
Edge devices are able to map a source address to the destination switch ID.
D. Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices.
Spine devices switch exclusively based on the source switch ID.
Answer: AB
QUESTION 347
Refer to the exhibit. The network topology that is shown in the exhibit has two aggregation
switches (SW1 and SW2). The access layer switch connects to both aggregation switches.
On SW1 and SW2, ports connecting to the access layer switches are configured as vPC member
ports. SW1 and SW2 are also connected using a port channel that is configured as a vPC peer
link. Which statement describes the use of the vPC peer-keepalive link in this topology?
A. The peer-keepalive link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between Agg1 and Agg2.
B. The peer-keepalive link is used for control plane traffic. The peer link is used for the data plane.
C. The peer-keepalive link is used to resolve dual-active scenarios, where the peer link connectivity
is lost.
D. The peer-keepalive link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.
Answer: C
124
QUESTION 348
Refer to the exhibit. During troubleshooting of vPCs, it is observed that virtual port channel 2 is in
the down state. Based on the show command output, what is a possible cause of this issue?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The virtual port channel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch.
The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN mismatch.
The virtual port channel is down because of an MTU mismatch.
The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN and MTU mismatch.
Answer: C
QUESTION 349
In a FabricPath topology, each device is identified by a switch ID, and all Layer 2 forwarding
125
tables are built based on the reachability of the switch ID.

Which protocol is used to assign the switch ID?
A.
B.
C.
D.
No protocol is used. The switch ID is always assigned manually.

The Dynamic Resource Allocation Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
The Switch ID Assignment Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
The switch ID is assigned based on the system ID of the device.
Answer: B
QUESTION 350
Which three options describe the interface and direction on which ACL capture can be applied on
a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
on a VLAN interface
in the ingress direction on all interfaces
in the ingress direction only on the M2 module
in the egress direction on all interfaces
in the egress direction on all Layer 3 interfaces
in the ingress direction only on M1 module.
Answer: ABE
QUESTION 351
Which three options are valid SPAN sources? (Choose three.)
A. VLANs, because when a VLAN is specified as a SPAN source, all supported interfaces in the
VLAN are SPAN sources
B. fabric port channels connected to the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender
C. Layer 2 subinterfaces
D. satellite ports and host interface port channels on the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender
E. Layer 3 subinterfaces
F. Remote Span Ethernet Ports
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 352
Which four statements about SNMP implementation on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch are
true? (Choose four.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per virtual device context.
By default, Cisco NX-OS uses the default VDC for SNMP.
SNMP supports multiple MIB module instances and maps them to logical network entities.
SNMP is VRF aware. You can configure SNMP to use a particular VRF to reach the SNMP
notification host receiver.
E. Only SNMP version 3 is supported on NX-OS.
F. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per switch.
G. Each VDC can have multiple SNMP sessions configured in it.
126
Answer: ABCD
QUESTION 353
Which three statements about the configuration of vPC+ are true? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
The FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.

The virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under the FabricPath domain.
On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links.
The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port.
The FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.
There has to be atleast 4 virtual switches in the FabricPath domain.
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 354
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the interface that is connected to the NPV core switch
is true?
A. The switch that connects to the hosts is identified in the design as an NPV edge switch, and the
port that connects to the core is an NP port.
B. The interface that is connected to the NPV switch will need to be configured as an N-Port.
C. The interface that is connected to the NPV core will become an FP port.
D. The link between the NPV core switch and edge will come up as an E port.
Answer: A
QUESTION 355
When an NP port becomes operational, the NP switch first logs itself into the core switch by
sending a FLOGI request (using the port WWN of the NP port). What will occur next?
A. The switch registers with the fabric name server.
127
B. The switch will perform a PLOGI to the port login server.

C. The switch will register parameters using FDISC.
D. The NPV switch will perform a PLOGI using FDISC to register with the fabric name server.
Answer: A
QUESTION 356
The FCoE VLAN is used to carry FIP and FCoE traffic for the corresponding VSAN.
Which two statements about this mapping are true? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The VLAN-VSAN mapping must be configured consistently in the entire fabric.

This mapping can only carry Fibre Channel control and data traffic.
There must be same VLANs on the A and B SANs.
IP traffic is allowed if the interface is set to Shared.
The VLAN must match the CNA setting.
Answer: AB
QUESTION 357
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes the capability that the FCoE setting allows?
A.
B.
C.
D.
configures the FEX to send FCoE traffic only to this switch

allows mapped VLAN-VSAN traffic to reach the FEX
configures FEX for A-B SAN capabilities
allows interface Ethernet 101/1/1 to exchange DCBX information
Answer: A
QUESTION 358
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that all blades are equipped with Cisco UCS VIC 1280 adapters,
which two statements can be confirmed from the output? (Choose two.)
128
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
The Cisco IOM model is a 2104XP.

Blades 3, 4, 5, and 8 are missing.
Blades 3, 4, 5, and 8 are not associated with a service profile.
Link Group Preference is set to Port Channel.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 359
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the diagram are true? (Choose two.)
129
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cisco UCS Manager is set to FC switching mode.

Cisco UCS Manager is set to FC end-host mode.
The topology is not supported.
The uplinks from each FI can carry multiple VSANs.
The uplinks from each FI can carry a single VSAN only.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 360
Which three statements about Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect fiber channel end-host mode are
true? (Choose three.)
A. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect sends BPDUs northbound.
B. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect never learns northbound dynamic MAC addresses.
C. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect learns dynamic MAC addresses from direct attached storage
fiber channel ports.
D. vNIC fabric failover is never available in end-host mode.
E. Link status changes on uplink ports are propagated to host vNICs.
F. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect learns southbound dynamic MAC addresses.
G. vHBA fabric failover is enabled by default.
Answer: CEF
QUESTION 361
130
What is the maximum combination of static vNICs and vHBAs for Cisco UCS Manager version
2.1 when using ESX 5.1?
A.
B.
C.
D.
18 eNICs and 8 fNICs

Answer: A
QUESTION 362
Which two actions must be done before configuring iSCSI boot for a server? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The storage array must be licensed for iSCSI boot.

The operating system must be iBFT-compatible.
Zoning must be configured.
Boot parameters must be configured in the global group policy.
IP subnet of iSCSI initiator has to be in the same subnet as that of storage array.
Answer: AB
QUESTION 363
Refer to the exhibit. When you assign this disk policy to Server 1/1, it fails.
Which option describes the reason for this failure?
131
A.
B.
C.
D.
The RAID controller does not support single disk configurations.

Only RAID0 and RAID1 are supported.
The server is equipped with a local disk.
Protection is enabled on the existing disk.
Answer: C
QUESTION 364
Refer to the exhibit. Which two things can be determined from the SEL log output? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The server experienced a crash.

The server experienced correctable memory errors.
DIMMs in channel 2 are experiencing memory errors.
Memory errors have crossed two thresholds.
Answer: BE
132
QUESTION 365
Which three predictors are supported on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client request?
(Choose three.)
A. Hash Address, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the source IP
address, the destination IP address, or both
B. Hash URL, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the requested URL
C. Hash MAC, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the source MAC
address, the destination MAC address, or both
D. Hash Header, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the HTTP header
name
E. Highest bandwidth, selects the server that processed the highest amount of network traffic based
on the average bandwidth that the server used over a specified number of samples
F. First Come First Server, always selects the first server in the list of real servers.
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 366
Which three options are valid ACE health probes? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
SIP
ECHO
Finger
IPsec
TFTP
SSH
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 367
A load balancer can be defined as a network device that makes forwarding decisions that are
based on parameters in Layers 4 to 7 of the OSI model. Which three parameters are involved in
forwarding decisions? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
TCP Destination Port

DNS Record
HTTP Session Cookie
SNMP GET
String recognized in the connection data
Uniform Resource Locater
Answer: ACE
QUESTION 368
In one-armed design, which method must be used to achieve symmetric load balancing in ACE?
A. Dual NAT
B. Round Robin
C. Dynamic Routing Protocol
133
D. MAC Probe
Answer: A
QUESTION 369
Which two statements about enhanced zoning are true? (Choose two.)
A. Enhanced zoning is a mode that shows much more detail for the SAN choices when it is viewed
in Fabric Manager.
B. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled per VSAN. It is a chassis-wide setting.
C. Enhanced zoning sets the default zone to the same state in all switches.
D. Enhanced zoning cannot be enabled in an FCoE environment.
E. Enhanced zoning sends ACA to lock the fabric when the administrator starts a zone change.
Answer: CE
QUESTION 370
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the exhibit is true?
A. OTV does not extend STP across sites.

Each site runs its own STP, rather than including all sites in a large STP domain.
This topology also allows the use of different STP modes, such as PVRST+ or MST, in each site.
B. OTV extends STP across sites.
Each site runs its own STP, which includes all sites in a large STP domain.
This topology also allows the use of different STP modes, such as PVRST+ or MST in each site.
C. OTV does not extend STP across sites.
Each site runs multiple STPs that include all sites in a large STP domain.
This topology also allows the use of different STP modes, such as PerPVRST+ or MST, in each
site.
D. OTV extends STP across sites.
Each site runs its own STP, which includes all sites in a large STP domain.
This topology does not allow the use of different STP modes, such as PVRST+ or MST, in each
site.
Answer: A
QUESTION 371
Which three statements about OTV are true? (Choose three.)
134
A. An internal interface is a Layer 2 interface on the edge device that connects to the VLANs that are
to be extended.
These VLANs typically form a Layer 2 domain known as a site and can contain site-based
switches or site-based routers.
The internal interface is a Layer 2 access or trunk interface regardless of whether the internal
interface connects to a switch or a router.
B. An external interface is a Layer 2 interface on the edge device that connects to the VLANs that
are to be extended.
These VLANs typically form a Layer 2 domain known as a site and can contain site-based
switches or site-based routers.
The external interface is a Layer 2 access or trunk interface regardless of whether the external
interface connects to a switch or a router.
C. An overlay interface is a logical multiaccess multicast-capable interface.
The overlay interface encapsulates Layer 2 frames in IP unicast or multicast headers.
D. An overlay interface is a logical multiaccess multicast-capable interface.
The overlay interface encapsulates Layer 3 frames in IP unicast or multicast headers.
E. The join interface is one of the uplink interfaces of the edge device.
The join interface is a point- to-point routed interface.
The edge device joins an overlay network through this interface.
The IP address of this interface is used to advertise reachability of a MAC address that is present
in this site.
F. The join interface is one of the uplink interfaces of the edge device.
The join interface is a point- to-point routed interface.
The edge device joins an overlay VLAN through this interface.
The IP address of this interface is used to advertise reachability of a MAC address that is present
in this VLAN.
Answer: ACE
QUESTION 372
Which three statements about IPv4 ACLs and the IPsec feature are true? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cisco SAN-OS software allows only name-based IPv4 ACLs.

The IPsec feature considers source and destination IPv4 and IPv6 addresses.
IKE traffic (UDP port 500) is encrypted.
The IPsec feature does not support port number ranges.
Inbound and outbound traffic is evaluated against the same outbound IPv4 ACL.
Answer: ADE
QUESTION 373
Drag and drop the DIMM bank color on the left in the correct order of population for a B230 server
on the right.
135
Answer:
QUESTION 374
Drag and drop the call home severity on the left to the correct description on the right.
Answer:
136
QUESTION 375
Drag and drop the actions on the left to the correct order for a step-by-step FCIP link
configuration on the right.
Answer:
137
QUESTION 376
In a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch with both M1 and F1 modules, which two topologies are valid vPC
topologies? (Choose two)
A.
138
B.
C.
139
D.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 377
A vPC allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco Nexus devices to appear
as a single port channel by a third device. Which five options describe mandatory steps to
configure vPC? (Choose five.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
Enable the vPC feature.

Define domains.
Establish peer-keepalive connectivity.
Create a peer link.
Configure a peer link as a trunk port.
Create port channels and vPCs.
Define the port channel load-balancing method.
Copy ALL configurations from Primary Switch to the secondary switch.
Answer: ABCDF
QUESTION 378
FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to Layer 2 network Ethernet environments.
Which thee options describe advantages of using FabricPath technology? (Choose three.)
A. MAC address scalability with conversational learning
B. loop mitigation with TTL in the frame field
C. Spanning Tree Protocol independence
140
D. 10-Gb/s bandwidth
E. Layer 2 extensions between data centers
Answer: ABC
QUESTION 379
In the Cisco Nexus 7000 FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination
tree. Cisco FabricPath IS-IS will automatically select root switches for each multidestination tree.
One of the parameters that is used to select the root is the system ID. Which two statements are
true about the system ID? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
The system ID is a unique 12-bit value.

The system ID is a 48-bit value composed of the VDC MAC address.
A higher system ID is preferred.
A lower system ID is preferred.
Answer: BC
QUESTION 380
After configuring FabricPath, the following message appears in the syslog:
%STP-2-L2GW_BACKBONE_BLOCK: L2 Gateway Backbone port inconsistency
blocking port port-channel100 on VLAN0010.
What is a possible reason for this message?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Spanning tree must be disabled, and the message indicates that STP is enabled.
STP is misconfigured. The root guard must be disabled.
An inferior BPDU was received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.
A superior BPDU was received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.
Answer: D
QUESTION 381
Cisco FabricPath switches support ECMP forwarding for known unicast frames. If the destination
switch ID can be reached through more than one output interface with equal cost, the forwarding
engine uses a hash function to pick one of the interfaces. Which three options are valid for hash
input for unicast frames? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Use only the source parameters (layer-3, layer-4, or mixed).

Use the FabricPath switch ID in the FabricPath header.
Use only the destination parameters (layer-3, layer-4, or mixed).
Use both the source and the destination parameters (layer-3, layer-4, or mixed).
Include only Layer 2 input (source or destination MAC address).
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 382
In a FabricPath network, known unicast traffic is sent with the outer destination address
141
populated with the destination SID, SSID, and local ID. Which statement describes the outer
destination address in the case of unknown unicast?
A. The outer destination address is a reserved multicast MAC address known as MC1
(010F.FFC2.02C0).
B. The outer destination address is a broadcast address (FFFF.FFFF.FFFF).
C. The outer destination address is not required because FabricPath uses the FTag to forward
unknown unicast.
D. The outer destination address is a reserved multicast MAC address known as MC1
(010F.FFC1.01C0).
Answer: D
QUESTION 383
The OTV overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast-capable interface that must be
explicitly defined by the user, and is the location where the entire OTV configuration is applied.
Which two statements about the OTV overlay interface are true? (Choose two.)
A. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data center
site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.
B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends
it to the join interface toward the routed domain.
C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data center
site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.
D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends
it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.
E. The OTV edge device performs the static OTV encapsulation on the Layer 3 packet and sends it
to the join interface toward the switching domain.
Answer: AB
QUESTION 384
Which three statements about ERSPAN are correct? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
All ERSPAN replication is performed in the hardware. The supervisor CPU is not involved.
ERSPAN and ERSPAN ACLs are supported for packets generated by the supervisor.
You can configure a port as both a source and destination port.
ERSPAN is not supported for management ports.
A destination port can be configured in only one ERSPAN session at a time.
Management ports support ERSPAN.
Answer: ADE
QUESTION 385
Which four statements about NetFlow configuration on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch are
true? (Choose four.)
A. You must configure a source interface. If you do not configure a source interface, the exporter will
remain in a disabled state.
B. You must configure a valid record name for every flow monitor.
142
C. If you add a member to a port channel that is already configured for Layer 2 NetFlow, its NetFlow
configuration is removed and the Layer 2 configuration of the port channel is added to it.
D. If you change a Layer 2 interface to a Layer 3 interface, NetFlow configuration on the interface
will automatically switch to Layer 3 mode.
E. Use v9 export to see the full 32-bit SNMP ifIndex values at the NetFlow connector.
F. NetFlow is a licensed feature and is available only in the LAN_ENTERPRISE_SERVICES_PKG
license.
Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 386
Refer to the exhibit. The customer has a one-switch fabric, and is connecting another switch.
From the Fibre Channel Analyzer output in the exhibit, identify who is the principal switch in this
two-switch fabric?
A. The principle switch is the switch that sent the first EFP in the trace.
B. The principle switch is the switch that sent the second EFP in the trace.
C. The EFP frame is not used to determine principal switch selection. Principal switch selection is
decided earlier in the ISL link initialization process.
D. The principle switch cannot be identified from the information given in the exhibit.
Answer: A
QUESTION 387
143
Which three functions are performed by the iSCSI login? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Enable a TCP connection for iSCSI use.

Negotiate redundant path information between the target and the initiator.
Negotiate the session's parameters.
Mark the connection as belonging to an iSCSI session.
Enable a UDP connection for iSCSI use.
Answer: ACD
QUESTION 388
Refer to the exhibit. The servers in this network are connected to an A-B SAN design. What is
required for hosts to support a high-availability Fibre Channel connection to a storage controller?
A. Multipath drivers should be installed on all the servers.

B. Multipath drivers should be installed on the CNA of S1 and S3.
C. High availability for Fibre Channel is controlled by the storage controller, and there is no need to
add or make changes on the server side.
D. S1 and S3 require that multipath drivers are installed, but S2 does not.
E. Multipath drivers should be installed on all CNAs of all servers.
Answer: A
QUESTION 389
Which protocol is used in the exchange of DCB capabilities?
A. DCBX
B. 802.1Qaz
C. LLDP
144
D. LACP
E. FCoE
Answer: C
QUESTION 390
You find that a vFC interface is down. Although the switch sent a VLAN response, the response
was not received by the CNA, which caused the vFC interface to go down.
Which statement describes the most probable cause of this problem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
DCBX is misconfigured.
CNA does not support FCoE.
CoS settings are mismatched between the switch and the host.
The VLAN ID of the bound interface to the vFC is a non-FCoE VLAN ID.
There is a firmware issue on the FCoE driver.
Answer: D
QUESTION 391
Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are correct? (Choose two.)
A. When VSM interfaces are created for a virtual machine, the VMware vSwitch port-group
configuration is used initially, which requires the creation of a port-group name for these
interfaces and an appropriate VLAN. The simplest configuration is to create a single port group
(for example, VSM-Interfaces), that includes all the interfaces that use this port group and the
same VLAN.
B. The mgmt0 interface on the VSM does not necessarily require its own VLAN. In fact, you can use
the same VLAN to which the VMware vCenter Server belongs. The VSM management VLAN is
really no different from any other virtual machine data VLAN. Alternatively, network administrators
can designate a special VLAN for network device management.
C. Always deploy the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM in pairs, with one VSM that is defined as the
primary module and the other that is defined as the secondary module on two separate hosts.
D. The service console is a critical interface that resides on every logical server.
E. mgmt 0 interface on the VSM always use VLAN 1 for communication with VEM modules.
Answer: BC
QUESTION 392
Which two components together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
virtual supervisor module

virtual Ethernet module
virtual machine NICs
virtual machine kernel NICs
virtual interface card
Answer: AB
QUESTION 393
145
You are integrating a UCS C-Series server with a UCS Fabric Interconnect running version 2.0
software. Which two options describe the hardware that is required for this integration? (Choose
two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
Cisco Nexus 2148T Fabric Extender and Cisco UCS P81E adapter
Cisco Nexus 2248 Fabric Extender and Cisco UCS P81E adapter
Cisco Nexus 2248 Fabric Extender and Cisco UCS M81KR adapter
Cisco Nexus 2232 Fabric Extender and Cisco UCS P81E adapter
Cisco Nexus 2232 Fabric Extender and Cisco N2XX-AIPCI02 adapter
only the Cisco UCS P81E adapter
Cisco Nexus 5548 switch and Cisco UCS VIC 1225 adapter
Answer: BD
QUESTION 394
Refer to the exhibit. Which two options describe information that can be determined from this
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Interface eth1/5 is configured as an uplink.

Jumbo frames have been configured on the best-effort class.
Packets are being dropped on the interface.
PFC is disabled on the system.
The default CoS configuration is being used.
Answer: BE
QUESTION 395
Refer to the components below.
- Cisco UCS 6100 Fabric Interconnect
146
- Cisco Nexus 1000V

- Cisco UCS 5100 Blade Chassis
Which data center design layer contains these components?
A.
B.
C.
D.
the Virtualization layer

the Management layer
the Compute layer
the Services layer
Answer: C
QUESTION 396
Which two options describe virtualized multi-tenancy? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
dedicated infrastructure for each tenant

shares a common infrastructure between tenants
agreement between tenants with rules about sharing DC resources
tenants using virtualization technologies to separate from each other
data centers using virtualization technologies to separate tenants
Answer: BE
QUESTION 397
Which three statements best describe the Cisco Unified Fabric solution for the data center?
(Choose three.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches provide the capability to consolidate LAN and SAN traffic on a
unified fabric over Ethernet.
B. The unified fabric is delivered throug h technologies such as FCoE and DCB.
C. FCoE allows transmission of Fibre Channel traffic over Ethernet by encapsulating native Fibre
Channel frames into GRE and transporting them across the Ethernet network.
D. FCoE allows consolidating Fibre Channel traffic from multiple VSANs into the same Ethernet
VLAN to be transported across the fabric. PFC ensures lossless transport of the FC traffic over
Ethernet.
E. PFC allows user priorities to be defined on a single physical link, each of which can have its own
logical lane that can be paused independently of the others.
Answer: ABE
QUESTION 398
Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches are best positioned at which layer?
A.
B.
C.
D.
access layer, as an end-of -row switch for FCIP and iSCSI aggregation
distribution layer, with multiples of 10 Gb/s ports
access layer, as a top-of - rack switch for server I/O consolidation with FCoE
aggregation layer, supporting virtual security and application services
Answer: C
147
QUESTION 399
Which component of the Cisco Nexus 7010 architecture provides out-of-band management, an
always-on microprocessor for disaster recovery, and remote restart capabilities?
A.
B.
C.
D.
central arbiter
Connectivity Management Processor
supervisor engine
dedicated s ervice modules
Answer: B
QUESTION 400
Which two Cisco devices form the virtual access layer in the Cisco Data Center Architecture?
(Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cisco Nexus 7000

Cisco Nexus 5000
Cisco Nexus 1010
Cisco Nexus 2000
Cisco Nexus 1000V
Answer: CE
QUESTION 401
Which three components does a data center network layer have? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
Cisco GSR
Cisco CRS - 1
Cisco Nexus 7000
Cisco Nexus 1000V
Cisco Nexus 2000
Cisco ASR 9000
Cisco Nexus 5000
Answer: CEG
QUESTION 402
On a 32-port 10 Gigabit Ethernet module, each set of four ports can handle 10 Gb/s of bandwidth.
What can you use the rate-mode parameter for?
A.
B.
C.
D.
to limit the speed on any port

to dedicate all the group bandwidth to the first port
to dedicate all the group bandwidth to the last port
to limit the speed on all ports
Answer: B
QUESTION 403
148
On a Cisco Nexus 7000, a CoPP can be applied separately to each VDC.

A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION 404
The persistent storage service (PSS) is used by which function?
A.
B.
C.
D.
storage of log files across reloads of the system

storage of license files in the backplane EEPROM
storage of the process-specific state for stateful process recovery
storage of core dump files from crashed processes
Answer: C
QUESTION 405
A Cisco Nexus 7000 switch is used with the VRF feature to provide separation between the inside
and outside interfaces of a transparent firewall.
The VRF RED is used for an untrusted network of the virtual data center, and it is connected to
the outside interface of the firewall. The VRF GREEN is used as a trusted network of the virtual
data center and is connected to the inside interface of the firewall. Subnet 10.10.10.0/20 is used
to communicate between two VRFs across the transparent firewall.
The firewall is configured correctly. The network administrator configured the VRFs and IP
addressing correctly, but you are still unable to communicate across the firewall.
What is a likely cause of the problem?
149
A. This topology is incorrect. A transparent firewall cannot be used with VRF.

B. On Cisco Nexus 7000, policy-based routing is required to communicate between two VRFs.
C. The issue is related to software licensing; an Enterprise Services license is required on Cisco
Nexus 7000.
D. The issue is related to the MAC address of the SVI.
E. The issue is related to keepalive, which is not supported on the SVI.
Answer: D
QUESTION 406
What does the previously active supervisor do when "system switchover" is issued?
A.
B.
C.
D.
State is transferred and then becomes ha -standby.

A core dump file is written, state is transferred, and the system resets.
State is transferred; the supervisor reloads and becomes ha -standby.
State is transferred; data plane operations are briefly suspended and then become ha -standby.
Answer: C
QUESTION 407
When a host Cisco Network Assistant is attached to two different Cisco Nexus 5000 Series
Switches is a requirement of the host NIC interfaces when attempting to use FCoE from the host?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
LACP is the only method to enable the host-side NIC teaming for FCoE.
The host/NICs must be capable of supporting link aggregation.
LACP mode ,,vPC is the correct Cisco Network Assistant parameter configuration.
The host-side NIC team name must match what is configured in the vPC peers.
The NIC drivers must be configured for the ,,Cisco vPC option = on
Answer: B
QUESTION 408
Where is FIP negotiated?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
between E Nodes and VF ports

between E Nodes and F Nodes
between VF ports
between VN ports
between VN ports and VF ports and FCFs
Answer: E
QUESTION 409
Drag and drop two configurations that should fail without data loss from the left column into the 2
Devices Lost column on the right.
150
Answer:
QUESTION 410
The Cisco Nexus 1000v Series switches can configure traditional SPAN sessions. Which three
statements about the local SPAN source ports are true(Choose three)?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
It can be port type Ethernet, virtual Ethernet, or port-channel.

It can be configured to monitor the direction of the traffic.
It must be in the same VLAN.
It cannot be on a different host VEM as the destination port.
It cannot be a port profile.
It must be in the same VSAN.
Answer: ABD
QUESTION 411
Which two statements about OTV are true?(Choose two)
A. The authoritative edge device is the active forwarder for multicast and unknown unicast for all
VLANs.
B. The join interface must be a Layer 2 interface.
C. no special license is required for OTV.
D. OTV requires a separate VDC if SVIs for the extended VLANs are to be configured on the same
switch.
E. Only one join interface can be specified per overlay.
F. OTV runs over a distance victor routing protocol.
151
Answer: DE
QUESTION 412
Which three options are types of iSCSI node names? (Choose three)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
extended unique identifier

iSCSI unique identifier
extended qualified name
network address authority
iSCSI qualified name
network qualified name
Answer: ADE
QUESTION 413
Refer to the exhibit. Which two things can be determined from SEL log output? (Choose two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The server experienced a crash.

The server experienced correctable memory errors.
Memory errors have crossed two thresholds.
152
Answer: DE
QUESTION 414
Which Cisco Nexus 1000v Switch CLI command is used to verify the connection between the
Cisco Nexus 1000v Series Switch and VMware?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
show module
show svs domain
show svd domain
show svs connections
show svd console
Answer: D
QUESTION 415
Which three statements about the Cisco Fibre Channel Domain feature are true? (Choose three)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
It is responsible for domain ID distribution.

It is responsible for fabric reconfiguration.
The domains are configured on a switch-wide basis.
It functions as described in the FC-EE standards.
It acts as relay agent for the FC ID allocations that are distributed by the Fibre Channel Time
Server(ff.ff.fb)
F. It is responsible for principal switch selection.
Answer: ABF
QUESTION 416
Which three option are valid ACE health probes? (Choose three)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Finger
ECHO
IPSec
TFTP
SSH
SIP
Answer: ABF
QUESTION 417
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statement are true? (Choose two)
153
A. The ntp commit command is required when making NTP configuration changes.
B. TACACS+ shared-secret configuration entries are not propagated by Cisco Fabric Services.
C. The copy running-configuration startup-configuration fabric command saves the configuration only
on the MDS where it is entered.
D. RADIUS and TACACS+ cannot be enabled for Cisco Fabric Services at the same times.
E. The role commit command is required when making role configuration changes.
Answer: AB
QUESTION 418
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the procedure to verify that the VSM is connected to
vCenter Server is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Install a new extension key and unregister the old extension key.
Unregister the old extension key and install a new extension key
Unregister the extension key.
Install a new extension key.
Issue no connect and connect commands.
Answer: B
QUESTION 419
Which EtherType is used to identify FIP?
A. 0x8905
154
B. 0x8914
C. 0x8906
D. 0x8915
Answer: B
QUESTION 420
Refer to exhibit. Which two statements are true?(Choose two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
VSAN 99 is definitely not configured on the remote switch.

B2B credit must not be 255 on the remote switch for VSAN 99.
Links operating at 2Gbp support only one VSAN.
Domain ID overlap could cause VSAN 99 isolation.
The zone set database for VSAN 99 does not meet merge requirements.
Answer: DE
QUESTION 421
Which two statements about the Fibre Channel over Ethernet Virtual Link Establishment are true?
(Choose two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
FLOGI/FDISC ACCEPT is part of the FCoE protocol.

Fibre Channel commands are part of the FIP protocol.
VLAN discovery is part of FIP protocol.
FCF discovery is part of FCoE protocol.
FLOGI/FDISC is part of the FIP protocol.
Answer: CE
QUESTION 422
Refer to exhibit. ABC Company recently implemented the network load balancing solution across
distributed data centers. It does not work as expected. Which option is possible solution to
address the issue?
155
A.
B.
C.
D.
Enable selective unknown unicast flooding.

Add static ARP entry on Cisco Nexus for both load balancers.
Add a new OTV broadcast group
Use a dedicated VLAN for network load balancer.
Answer: A
QUESTION 423
Which two actions are necessary to configure FCoE on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Switches?(choose
two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The dedicated and shared interfaces are configured.

The system quality of service is disabled.
The module is licensed for Layer 2 and Layer 3.
The Cisco Nexus 7000 has the FCoE feature enabled.
The two required storage virtual contexts are created.
Answer: AD
QUESTION 424
Drag and drop the correct description on the left onto the protocols and features on the right. Not
all options will be used.
Answer:
156
QUESTION 425
Refer to exhibit. Company ABC has implemented a Cisco TrustSec domain with initial Cisco ACS
server and Cisco Nexus 7000 CTS-DC. The company plans to extend the domain by adding an
additional Cisco Nexus 7000 CTS-CORE. Which three minimum configurations are required on
the CTS-CORE to join the domain? (Choose three)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Configure local device ID and password.

Configure RADIUS authentication, authorization, and accounting.
Configure TrustSec Domain
Configure as a "non-seed" device.
Configure interface "cts dot1x".
configure feature dot1x and cts
Answer: AEF
QUESTION 426
Refer to exhibit. Which option describes what happens to a packet with an MTU of 2158 when it
is switched from E1/1 to E1/2?
157
A.
B.
C.
D.
It is punted to the CPU.

It is dropped.
It is fragmented.
It is forwarded with no fragmentation.
Answer: D
QUESTION 427
Refer to exhibit. Which two statements are true?(Choose two)
158
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Four port channels are configured and they all are up.
Two appliance ports are configured.
One port is not configured.
No uplinks ports are configured.
No Server ports are configured.
Answer: CD
QUESTION 428
Which three statements about the virtual service domain on Cisco Nexus 1000v Switch are true?
(Choose Three)
A. Service virtual machine only snoops the data and is used for monitoring purpose.
B. Any traffic coming into the VSD or going out of the VSD must go through the service virtual
machine.
C. A virtual service domain (VSD) allows you to classify and separate traffic for network service.
D. vMotion is supported for the service virtual machine and should not be disabled.
E. A VSD is the collection of interfaces that are guarded by the service virtual machine.
F. The show virtualservice-domainname command displays the configuration for this VSD port
profile.
Answer: BCE
QUESTION 429
Which three statements about the vTracker feature after it is enabled on the Cisco Nexus 1000v
switch are true? (Choose three)
A. The vTracker feature provides information about the virtual machines that are managed by all
Cisco Nexus Switches.
B. The vTracker feature uses the Link Layer Discovery Protocol.
159
C.
D.
E.
F.
All vTracker views are valid for a given time only.

The vTracker feature provides information about the virtual network ebvironment.
The VSM and vCenter must be on same subnet.
The VSM must be connected with the vCenter to collect information.
Answer: BDF
QUESTION 430
Refer to the exhibit. Based on this portion of an MDS iSCSI configuration, which two statements
are true? (Choose two)
A. The fc-lun 0x0000 mapping to iscsi-lun 0x0000 is not permitted.

B. The iSCSI initiator that connects to target name iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 will see two LUNs
numbered as 2 and 4.
C. The iSCSI initiator and the iSCSI target iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 must be in the same zone
before LUNs are available to the host.
D. The iSCSI initiator at name iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t2 has access to only one LUN.
E. The iSCSI initiator that connects to target name iqn.1987-02.com.cisco.t3 will see two LUNs as
numbers 0 and 1.
Answer: DE
QUESTION 431
Dynamic ARP inspection ensures that only valid ARP requests and responses are relayed. Which
three activities does a Cisco NX-OS device perform when DAI is enabled and properly
configured? (Choose three)
A. Intercepts ARP requests and responses only on untrusted ports.
B. Verifies that each of these intercepted packets has a valid IP-to-MAC address binding based only
on DHCP snooping binding database or statically created entries.
C. Intercepts ARP requests and responses on all ports.
D. Pass-through an invalid ARP packets.
E. Drops invalid ARP packets.
F. Verifies that each of these intercepted packets has a valid IP-to-MAC address binding based only
on DHCP snooping binding database.
Answer: ABE
QUESTION 432
Refer to the exhibit, which two statements about spanning tree are true? (Choose two)
160
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
BPDUs from a vPC are processed on this switch

BPDUs are processed and generated by both peer switches.
This switch cannot generate BPDUs for a vPC.
BPDUs are sent to the peer switch for processing.
BPDUs received on this switch are dropped because of Type 2 inconsistency issues.
This switch generates BPDUs for vPC.
Answer: CD
QUESTION 433
In a high availability environment with two Fabric Interconnects, you can run a separate of Cisco
UCS manager on each Fabric Interconnect. The Cisco UCS Manager on the primary Fabric
Interconnect acts the primary management instance, and the Cisco UCS Manager on the other
Fabric Interconnect is the subordinate management instance. Which of the following statements
is true in regards to Fabric Interconnect management instance?
A. The two instances of Cisco UCS Manager across a private network MGMT0 and MGMT1
Ethernet ports on the Fabric Interconnects.
B. The two instances of Cisco UCS Manager across a private network L1 and L2 Ethernet ports on
the Fabric Interconnects.
C. The two instances of Cisco UCS Manager across a management network MGMT0 and MGMT1
Ethernet ports on the Fabric Interconnects.
D. The two instances of Cisco UCS Manager across a management network L1 and L2 Ethernet
ports on the Fabric Interconnects.
161
Answer: B
QUESTION 434
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would produce this output?
A.
B.
C.
D.
show stats probe type

show stats HTTP
show stats load balance
show parameter map
Answer: C
QUESTION 435
Which three statements about Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect fibre channel end-host mode are
true? (Choose three)
A. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect send BPDUs northbound.
B. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect learns southbound dynamic MAC addresses.
C. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect learns dynamic MAC addresses from attached storage fibre
channel ports.
D. The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect never learns northbound dynamic MAC addresses.
E. Link status changes on uplink ports are propagated to host vNICs.
F. vNIC fabric failover is never available in end-host mode.
G. vHBA fabric failover is enabled by default.
Answer: BCE
QUESTION 436
Which command sends a test call Home Invertor message to start the registration process
A. test callhome inventory
B. callhome inventory test
C. test inventory callhome
162
D. callhome test inventory

Answer: D
QUESTION 437
Drag and drop sequence of the steps on left for ISSU software of dual supervisor switches to
achieve a non-disruptive upgrade on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION 438
Which statement about soft pinning is incorrect?
A. If no uplink Ethernet port channel is configured with all VLANs on the vNIC. Cisco UCS Manager
drops the traffic for all of the VLANs on the vNIC.
B. When the VLAN validation fails, a VLAN mismatch fault with a severity of warning appears.
C. It is the default behavior Cisco UCS.
D. Cisco UCS Manager pins the vNIC to an uplink Ethernet port or port channel according to VLAN
membership criteria.
Answer: A
163
QUESTION 439
Which two statements about FabricPath are true? (Choose two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Multi-destination trees are built to create a loop-free topology for unicast traffic.
FabricPath interfaces send and receive Ethernet and FabricPath encapsulated packets.
FabricPath is supported on Cisco Nexus 7000 on all module types.
FabricPath switch should always be the root for a spanning tree network attached to it.
Spanning tree does not run inside a FabricPath network.
Answer: DE
QUESTION 440
Which two statements about basic zoning are true? (Choose two)
A. If a zone is part of multiple zone setsyou create one instance of this zone for both zone sets.
B. To retrieve the results of the activation on a per switch basis. The managing switch provides a
combined status about the activation and identifies the failure switch.
C. Administrators can make simultaneous configuration changes. Upon activation.one administrator
can overwrite another administrator's changes.
D. The default zone policy is defined per switch. To ensure smooth fabric operation, all switches in
the fabric must have the same default zone setting
E. To distribute the zoning database, you must reactivate the same zone set. The reactivation may
affect hardware changes for hard zoning only on the local switch, remote switch, remote switches
are not affected.
Answer: CD
QUESTION 441
Refer to the exhibit. The switch is running Fabricpath, however the CE port e1/9 is not on
spanning tree forwarding. Which option describes the possible cause?
A. Switch 1 is receiving better BPDU on E1/9.

B. Bridge assurance is configured on switch 1 E1/9 but not configured on the facing interface.
164
C. Switch 1 is not configured with FabricPath.

D. Loopguard feature is blocking the port.
Answer: A
QUESTION 442
Which two products provide the ability to create eight VDCs? (Choose two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Cisco Nexus 7000 Supervisor 2 Module

Cisco Nexus 7700 Supervisor 2E Module
Cisco Nexus 7000 Supervisor 2E Module
Answer: DE
QUESTION 443
Refer to the exhibit, which two statements about the HSRPV6 implementation for company ABC
are true? (Choose two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
HSRP version #1 or #2 is supported.

The UDP port is port 2029.
The virtual MAC address range is 0005.73A0.0FFF.
The hop limit is set to 127.
The multicast link-local IP destination address is FF08::66.
Answer: BC
165
QUESTION 444
Which mode must the Cisco MDS VSAN be configured for so that it interoperates correctly with a
Brocade Fibre Channel switch that is configured for interop mode?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
interop mode 2
interop mode 4
interop mode 3
native mode
interop mode 1
Answer: E
QUESTION 445
Refer to the exhibit ABC company has successfully implemented the smart call home. Which
three configuration components for CallHome are mandatory? (Choose three)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
periodic inventory interval

alert group to collect output
destination profile
email server and from email address
contact information
system contact
Answer: DEF
QUESTION 446
On Cisco Nexus 1000v Switch, you can allow the VSM and VEM to communicate over IP for
control and packet traffic. Before you create a port profile for Layer 3 control, which two
statements must be verified? (Choose two)
A. Only one port profile can be configured with the capability Layer 3 control command.
B. All VEMs belong to the same Layer 2 domain.
166
C. The transport mode for the VSM domain should be configured as Layer 3.
D. The port profile must be a trunk port profile.
E. Different hosts should belong to the same VLANs for Layer 3 control.
Answer: AC
QUESTION 447
Refer to the exhibit. Which two reasons explain why vPC peer-switch is not working? (Choose
two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
vPC peers are not the root of spanning tree topology.

The peer keep alive link is down.
Cisco Discovery Protocol is not configured.
The feature is not enabled on the vPC peer.
Loop Guard is disabled.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 448
Which statement about NPV on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true?
A. By default, Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches operate in NPV mode. In this mode, the switch
provides standard Fibre Channel switching.
B. In NPV mode, each switch that joins a SAN is assigned a domain ID. Each SAN (or VSAN)
supports a maximum of 239 domain IDs, so the SAN has a limit of 239 switches.
C. In NPV mode, the edge switch relays all traffic from server-side sports to the core switch. The
core switch provides TE Port functionality to the downstream NPV switch.
D. In NPV mode, the edge switch appears as a Fibre Channel host to the core switch and as a
regular Fibre Channel switch to its connected devices.
Answer: D
QUESTION 449
Drag and drop the vPC feature on the left onto the correct description on the right.
167
Answer:
QUESTION 450
Refer to the exhibit Server 1 and server 2 are on the same VLAN but cannot reach each other.
Which option describes the reason?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Interface VALN (SVI) must be configured for this VLAN.

VLAN is not allowed on the peer link.
VLAN is not on FabricPath mode.
Type2 inconsistency prevents the communication.
Answer: C
168
QUESTION 451
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about these commands is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The outputs of the debug are redirected on a file test on the "log" directory.
The command does not have an effect unless you configure "debug enable"
The outputs of the debug are redirected to the logging buffer.
If you are on a console connection, the outputs are shown after the event occurs.
Answer: A
QUESTION 452
Which two statements about the clear zone database VSAN 2 command when performed on a
Cisco Nexus 5500 switch are true? (choose two)
A. The zone set for VSAN 2 is cleared from all switches in VSAN 2.
B. You must issue the copy running-configuration startup-configuration command to copy the active
zone set full zone set database after this command.
C. The active and full zone set for VSAN2 is deactivated and erased from the local switch.
D. This command is valid only if the feature clear zone is enabled.
E. The full zone set database is cleared for VSAN 2 and the active zone set database for VSAN 2 is
untouched.
Answer: BE
QUESTION 453
Refer to the Exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
169
A. FC Zoning is going to be enabled automatically after the template is created.

B. With the current fabric ID configuration on the vHBA template, cannot see the new VLAN
C. All the required values have been configured in the vHBA template; after the VLAN is created,
you can press OK start using the template.
D. To modify the vHBA from the service profile in the future; you first must unbind the template from
the vHBA fc0 template.
E. VSAN and VLAN ID are assigned according to best practices.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 454
Refer to the Exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. You can enable Multicast Optimized to as many classes as you want as long as enough
unutilized multicast queues are available.
B. Four different MTUs are allowed: 1500.2158, 2240, and 9000.
C. If you save the policy, it gives you an error because you can have the Fibre Channel class and
one more as no drop policy.
To fix it, check all the check boxes under packet Drop except one.
D. Three different MTUs are 1500, 2158, and 9000
E. If you save the policy, it gives you an error because you can have only one class with the no drop
policy.
To fix it, check all the check boxes under Packet Drop because the class Fibre Channel is already
a no-drop class
Answer: DE
QUESTION 455
Refer to the Exhibit. Which statement is true?
170
A. The service profile in organization IS-SecureESX10 is trying to be associated to chassis 1 blade

7.
B. The error is triggered when the service profile pn is being associated.
C. The only way to fix the problem is to delete the service profile and start again with the proper
MAC and WWPN pool association.
D. If you ignore the warning and press Yes, the association fails because no MAC address is
assigned.
Answer: D
QUESTION 456
Which option is the benefit of Cisco ACE solution?
A.
B.
C.
D.
minimum scalability for application delivery

infrastructure simplification
centralized management for all application teams
completely isolated from network thus providing easy management
Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/ace-application-controlengine-module/prod_white_paper0900aecd80458698.html
QUESTION 457
An admin is updating an existing Cisco UCS environment to accommodate a new storage array
that will be directly attached to the Cisco UCS.
Unmanaged servers external to the Cisco UCS fabric interconnects will also access the new
array existing Cisco UCS service profiles will be used to access the new storage array.
Drag and drop the appropriate steps from left into the correct order on the right to migrate the
Cisco UCS to support the new storage array.
171
Answer:
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs-infrastructure-ucsmanager-software/116082-config-ucs-das-00.html
QUESTION 458
Refer to me exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
172
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
VLAN segregation should be configured in Cisco UCS using VLAN Manager.

VLAN segregation should be configured in Cisco UCS using PVLANs.
when I hear segregation I think PVLANS
The Fabric Feature cannot be used in this topology under any circumstances.
Service profiles should contain a single vNIC per fabric, trunking VLAN 100-250.
Not sure about a single vNIC but the other option says two NICS and service profiles use vNICS.
Also you can configure multiple vlans per VNIC and enable fabric failover for the redundancy.
G. service profiles should contain two NICs per fabric, with one trunking VLAN 100-150 and another
trunking VLAN 200-250.
H. VLAN segregation should be configured in Cisco UCS using pin groups.
Answer: BD
QUESTION 459
Drag and drop the correct port security configuration on the left to the correct action on the right.
Answer:
173
QUESTION 460
Which two Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support FCoE? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
2248TP
2232ET-P
2224TP
2232PP
2232TM-E
Answer: DE
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-2000-series-fabricextenders/data_sheet_c78-507093.html
QUESTION 461
Refer to the exhibit. Corporate ABC wants to implement control by allowing authorized virtual
machine MAC addresses to send traffic to the Internet.
The administrator wants to add this MAC ACL on Nexus7k-1 to achieve the task:
[Configuration Output]
Nexus7k-1:
mac access-list mac-acl
permit 0050.561f.73d3 0000.00ff.ffff any
!
interface e1/1
mac access-group mac-acl
However, this action does not work. Which two statements describe the issue? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
The MAC address and mask do not match.

The MAC ACL cannot be applied to egress traffic.
This command is wrong to apply this ACL under interface.
The sequence number is missing from the ACL.
174
E. The MAC ACL is not supported on Cisco nexus 7000 Series.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_macacls.html
B is definitely correct as you can only apply a MAC ACLs to ingress traffic only
You can apply a MAC ACL as a port ACL to Layer 2, Layer 3, and Port-Channels but the
command is as follows:
mac access-list acl-mac-01
permit 00c0.4f00.0000 0000.00ff.ffff any
interface ethernet 2/1
mac port access-group acl-mac-01
QUESTION 462
Refer to the exhibit. Company ABC has implemented a Cisco TrustSec domain with an initial
Cisco ACS server and Cisco Nexus 7000 CTS-DC.The company plans to extend the domain by
adding an additional Cisco Nexus 7000 CTS-CORE. Which three minimum configurations are
required on CTS-CORE to join the domain? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Configure TrustSec domain.

Configure interface "cts dot1x".
Configure local device ID and password.
Configure as a "non-seed" device.
Configure feature dot1x and cts.
Configure RADIUS authentication, authorization, and accounting.
Answer: BCE
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_trustsec.html#wp1200631
QUESTION 463
Which three statements about direct-attached storage are true? (Choose three)
A. The fabric interconnect must be in Fibre Channel switch mode.
B. If you connect to Cisco NX-OS on the fabric interconnect, you can see the flogi by using the show
175
C.
D.
E.
F.
flogi database vsan <vsan ID> Command.

For maintenance of direct attached storage, you must define a maintenance policy.
The fabric interconnect must be end-host mode.
you need not map an FCoE VLAN when creating the storage VSAN.
to configure the zoning, you must create a storage connection policy.
Answer: ABF
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/servers-unified-computing/ucs- infrastructure-ucsmanager-software/116082-config-ucs-das-00.html
QUESTION 464
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Three pin groups are configured: one for the port-channel 10 in fabric interconnect B, one for int
el/32 in fabric interconnect B, and one for int e1/31 in fabric interconnect
B. Changing the target interface for an existing SAN pin group disrupts traffic for all vHBAs that use
that pin group.
The fabric interconnect performs a log in and log out for the Fibre Channel protocols to repin the
traffic.
C. To configure pinning for a server, you must include the SAN pin group in a vNIC policy.
The vNIC policy is then included in the service profile assigned to that server.
All traffic from the vNIC travels through the I/O module to the specified uplink Fibre channel port.
D. In Fibre Channel switch mode, SAN pin groups are irrelevant.
Any existing SAN pin groups are ignored.
E. Edit this to show switch mode
Answer: BD
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-02/b_GUI_Config_Guide/GUI_Config_Guide_chapter19.html
QUESTION 465
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is not true?
176
A.
B.
C.
D.
Chassis 1 in blade 2 has a major fault.

Those service profiles have a user acknowledge maintenance policy configured.
If you check Acknowledge All and click Apply, the blades reload.
Any user can acknowledge the reload
Answer: D
QUESTION 466
Which option is the advantage of Cisco ACE SSL Offload?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Export cipher suite

Decentralized certificate management
SSL encryption only
Front-end SSL
Answer: D
QUESTION 467
Which two options are advantages of deploying Ethernet-based FCoE switches such as the Cisco
Nexus 7000 Series Switches beyond the access layer? (Choose two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
lower overall throughput compared to native Fibre Channel switches

flexibility to support file (NAS) and block (iSCSI and FCoE) storage traffic
High-performance Ethernet-based FCoE switches cannot be used in a dedicated SAN core.
requirement for traffic isolation with dedicated links and storage VDCs is no longer required.
plans that include 40 and 100 Gigabit Ethernet speeds
Answer: BE
Explanation:
The other options right off are not advantages lower over throughput not and advantage, cannot
be used in a dedicated SAN Core, and storage VDCs are required.
QUESTION 468
177
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this command sequence when it is performed on a
Cisco Nexus 5500 chassis is true?
A. All VLANs except the FCoE VLAN are shut down on the interface.
B. You must add the VLAN number to the shutdown command to specify which VLAN is to be shut
down.
C. There is no shutdown lan command.
D. The interface is shut down and all traffic stops.
E. The VLAN for FCoE traffic is shut down and FCoE traffic stops.
Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5500/sw/fcoe/6x/b_5500_FCoE_
Config_6x/b_5500_FCoE_Config_602N11_chapter_010.html
QUESTION 469
Which option lists valid network interfaces for VSM?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Layer 2, Layer 3, and keepalive

control, management, and packet
management, Layer 2, and Layer 3
management, packet, and VSM
Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmwarevsphere/guide_c07-556626.html#_Toc339600382
QUESTION 470
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is not true?
178
A. Network to server unicast traffic is forwarded to the server only if it arrives on the pinned uplink
port.
B. Unknown unicast messages that are received on the uplink interface frame are dropped.
C. Unknown unicast messages that are received on the server interface frame are flooded to all the
up-links and servers ports in the fabric interconnect where the packets are received.
D. Broadcast messages that are received on server interface are flooded to server links and pinned
port.
Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unifiedcomputing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html
QUESTION 471
Which three statements about Cisco Device Manager Device View are true? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
It can be used to configure zones for multiple VSANs

Can be used toconfigure FC timer values on multiple switches simultaneously.
it can be used to configure virtual Fibre Channel interfaces.
it cannot be used to manage CLI security access to the switch.
It cannot be used to configure Fibre Channel over Ethernet features.
It can be used to manage ports, port channels, and trunking.
Answer: ACF
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/4_1/configuration/guides/f
179
m_4_1/fmguide/dm.html
QUESTION 472
Which trancseiver allows 40 GB Ethernet Connectivity by leveraging a single pair of multimode
fibers?
A.
B.
C.
D.
OSFP-40G-SR4
OSFP-H40G-CU
FET-40G
QSFP-40G-SR-BD
Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/transceivermodules/data_sheet_c78-660083.html
QUESTION 473
Which Sticky method is supported by Cisco ACE?
A.
B.
C.
D.
SIP
SSL session ID
scripted
HTTP return code parsing
Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/interfaces_modules/services_modules/ace/vA5_1_0/config
uration/getting/started/guide/ace_module_gsg/sticky.html
QUESTION 474
Which option is an advantage of Cisco ACE virtual IP address tracking?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Troubleshooting is possible between multiple routing domains and multiple service devices.
Tracking is limited to a maximum of 500 tracked instances.
New virtual IP address implementation has multiple network touchpoints.
It can be used during application migration in which virtual IP addresses cannot be changed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/application-networking-services/ace-4710application-control-engine/guide_c07-572616.html
QUESTION 475
Which statement about the converged network adapter is true?
A. The converged network adapter is a multifunction adapter that combines the functions of Ethernet
NICs and Fibre Channel host bus adapters.
B. The converged network adapters are compatible only with Cisco UCS.
C. The converged network adapter is a virtualized multifunction adapter that combines the functions
180
of Ethernet NICs and iSCSI on the same card.

D. The converged network adapter is a multifunction adapter that works with multiple network
speeds and duplex settings, and it supports several storage and network protocols.
Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-5000-seriesswitches/data_sheet_c78-618603.html
QUESTION 476
Refer to the exhibit. Which three levels of protection for the CoPP policy option from the initial
setup utility are valid (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
lenient
major
none
minor
aggressive
moderate
Answer: ACF
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_cppolicing.html
QUESTION 477
Which three CLI configuration commands are for port profile as a private VLAN on Cisco Nexus
1000V Series switch? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Switch (config-port-prof)# switchport private-vlan trunk allowed vlan vlan-range

Switch (Config)# port-profiletypevethernetname
Switch (config-port-prof)# switchport mode private-vlan host promiscuous
Switch (config-port-prof)# switchport Private-vlan mapping primary_Vlan add secondary_vlan
Switch (config-port-prof)# switchport Private-vlan host-association primary-vlan secondary-vlan
Answer: ADE
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_2_1_s_v_1_4/port_pr
ofile/configuration/guide/n1000v_port_profile/n1000v_portprof_6pvlan.html
181
QUESTION 478
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
182
A. All the Fibre channel ports come up as TNP by default.

B. All the Fibre channel ports come up in TE mode by default.
C. All named VSANs in a cisco USC domain are allowed on all Fibre Channel uplink ports on that
fabric interconnect.
D. To enable Fibre Channel switching mode, the fabric interconnect must be reloaded.
Answer: D
QUESTION 479
Drag and drop the mode of operation on left onto the correct definition on right.
Answer:
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-7000-seriesswitches/Data_Sheet_C78-437761.html
QUESTION 480
Which configuration shows the correct method to correct unified ports in a Cisco nexus 5500
switch?
A. nexus5500# configure terminal
nexus5500 (config)# slot 1
nexus5500 (config-slot)# port 32 type fc
nexus5500 (config-slot)# copy running-config startup-config
nexus5500 (config-slot)# reload
B. nexus5500# configure terminal
nexus5500 (config)# port 32 type fc
nexus5500 (config)# copy running-config startup-config
nexus5500 (config)# reload
183
C. nexus5500# configure terminal

nexus5500 (config-slot)# port 32 type fc
D. nexus5500# configure terminal
nexus5500 (config-slot)# port 32 type unified
nexus5500 (config-slot)# copy running-config startup-config
nexus5500 (config-slot)# reload
Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/layer2/513_n1_1/b_Cis
co_n5k_layer2_config_gd_rel_513_N1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_layer2_config_gd_rel_513_N1_1_chapter
_011.html#task_A6C551C739324293B020FD7C35F018D0
QUESTION 481
Which option lists the main components of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch?
A.
B.
C.
D.
the virtual supervisory module and virtual Ethernet module

VMware virtual switch and virtual hosts
the virtual chassis and the virtual line cards
the Cisco Nexus ,1010 and 1,00 Series virtual appliances
Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_0_4_s_v_1_3/getting
_started/configuration/guide/n1000v_gsg/n1000v_gsg_1overview.html
QUESTION 482
Which type of port profile is used to dynamically instantiate vEth interface on the Cisco Nexus
5000 Series switch
A.
B.
C.
D.
profile-veth
vethernet
vethinterface
dynamic-interface
Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/layer2/513_n1_1/b_Cis
co_n5k_layer2_config_gd_rel_513_N1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_layer2_config_gd_rel_513_N1_1_chapter
_010101.html#task_ED8733E87FE84DA9B7D6829049DEC3DF
QUESTION 483
Which three statements about the system port profiles are true? (Choose three)
A. A system port profile cannot be converted to a port profile that is not a system port profile.
B. System VLANs cannot be added to a port profile.
C. In a single ESX host, one VLAN can be a system VLAN on one port but a regular VLAN on
another.
D. A system port profile must be converted to a port profile that is not a system port profile.
184
E. The native VLAN on a system port profile cannot be a system VLAN.

F. A system port profile must be of the Ethernet type because it is used for physical ports.
Answer: ACF
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_2_1_s_v_1_4/port_pr
ofile/configuration/guide/n1000v_port_profile/n1000v_portprof_4system.html#wp xref25626
QUESTION 484
Drag and drop feature on the left onto the appropriate business benefits on the right.
Answer:
QUESTION 485
Which Ether type is used to identify FIP?
A.
B.
C.
D.
0x8914
0x8906
0x8915
0x8905
Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/fcoe/513_n1_1/b_Cisco
_n5k_fcoe_config_gd_re_513_n1_1/b_Cisco_n5k_fcoe_config_gd_re_513_n1_1_chapter_010.ht
ml
QUESTION 486
Which two options are health probes used in Cisco ACE? (Choose two.)
185
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
RADIUS
Layer 3 ping
Round robin
Cookie insert
IP hash
Answer: AB
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/interfaces_modules/services_modules/ace/vA4_2_0/config
uration/slb/guide/slbcfggd/rsfarms.html
QUESTION 487
Which option lists the valid roles for VSM?
A.
B.
C.
D.
primary and secondary

standalone, primary, and secondary
central, primary, and secondary
master and slave
Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_0/high_availibility/con
figuration/guide/n1000v_ha/ha_3system.html
QUESTION 488
Drag and drop the actions in the left column into the right column in the order in which you would
perform those actions in a step-by-step in-service software upgrade process.
Answer:
186
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/6_x/nxos/upgrade/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_7000_Series_NXOS_Software_Upgrade_and_Downgrade_Guide_Release_6-x.html
QUESTION 489
Which three options are key characteristics of the data center core layer in a three-tier
architecture? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
Provides scalability
Used to enforce network security
Performs Qos marking
Provides connectivity to distribution layer
Performs policing
High availability
Answer: ADF
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DC_Infra2_5/DCInfra_1.h
tml
QUESTION 490
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about these commands is true?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The outputs of the debug are redirected on file test on the "log." directory.
The outputs of the debug are redirected to the logging buffer.
The command does not have an effect unless you configure "debug enable".
If you are on a console connection, the outputs are shown after the event occurs.
187
Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/web/techdoc/dc/reference/cli/nxos/commands/fund/debug_logfile.htm l
QUESTION 491
Which two port profiles are used in VSM? (Choose two.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
VEM
VMkernels
Ethernet
vEthernet
vNIC
Answer: CD
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmwarevsphere/guide_c07-704280.html
QUESTION 492
Refer to the exhibit. The administrator has been provided with this topology, but has not been
provided with the IP address of storage switch and has been asked zoning.
Which two CLI commands can be used to determine the management addresses of the storage
switches? (Choose two)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
show npv status

show fcns database
show fcdomain status
show fcdomain domain-list
show fcdomain statistics
show cfs internal ethernet-peer
show cfs peers
188
H. show npv internal info

Answer: GH
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/rel_2_x/sanos/configuration/guide/cfs.html
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/rel_1_x/1_0_2/sanos/configuration/guide/MgngStorDevc.html
QUESTION 493
Which two statements about end-host mode are true? (Choose two.)
A. In end-host mode, if a vNIC is hard pinned to an uplink port and this uplink port goes down, the
system repms the vMIC, and the vNIC go
B. End-host mode allows the fabric in interconnect to act as an end host to the network, representing
all servers (hosts) connected to it through vNICs.
C. End-host mode is the default Ethernet switching mode.
D. In end-host mode, the fabric interconnect runs the 5pann,ng Tree Protocol to avoid loops.
E. In end-host mode, if a vNIC is hard pinned to an uplink port and this uplink port goes down, the
system repins the vNIC but the vNIC remain down until manual intervention.
Answer: BC
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/unifiedcomputing/whitepaper_c11-701962.html
QUESTION 494
The Cisco nexus 1000V Switch uses a multihypervisor licensing approach.
Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
The Essentials edition comes with a 180-day trial for the Advanced edition.
An advanced edition license is required for each CPU socket on each VEM.
The VXLAN gateway is included in the Essential edition license.
The Cisco Nexus 1000 v switch supports Essential and Advanced license editions.
Only the Advance edition license is supported with multihypervisor.
You can migrate the license from a Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch for KVM to a Cisco Nexus 1000V
Switch for VMware.
Answer: BDF
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus1000/sw/4_2_1_s_v_2_2_2/licen
se/b_Cisco_N1KV_Universal_License_Config/b_Cisco_N1KV_License_Config_521SK111_chapt
er_01.html
QUESTION 495
Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
189
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
Zoning is configured on the upstream SAN switch

Storage is attached directly to Cisco UCS.
There are 14 blades active in the system.
The Cisco UCS Manager is in switch mode.
Two separate physical SAN switches are upstream of Cisco UCS.
There are 7 blades active in the system.
The Cisco UCS Manager is in end-host mode.
Zoning is configured on Cisco UCS Manager.
Answer: AFG
QUESTION 496
Which solution is preferred for predictable traffic in a vMware environment running Cisco Nexus
1000v Series switches?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
end-host mode
fabric failover mode
client mode
server mode
standalone mode
Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch-vmwarevsphere/white_paper_c11-558242.html
190

350-080 CCIE Data Center Written Exam

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350-080 CCIE Data Center Written Exam

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two IP addresses, one for each supervisor

areas of this operation?

analyze traffic, device management, and network monitoring

collecting the running configuration

Improves convergence of the multicast network due to enhanced RPF checks

M1, M2, and F1 cards are allowed in the same VDC.

IGMP is not synchronized between vPC peers

admin, operator, network-admin, and network-operator

Synchronizes ARP entries between vPC peers every five minutes

What is the default Time to Live (TTL) valuse in Cisco FabricPath?

ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.2

Enable conversational learning on FabricPath vlans 1-10 for F-Series module

DSA key generated with 512 bits

Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 23

prevent unnecessary GLBP state changes during a switchover or ISSU?

GLBP redirect timer

NMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol

A single VACL can be shared across two or more VDCs.

C. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 50 and secondary VLAN 14

show interface priority-flow-control

show memory detailed

VM-aware discovery and path analysis

show fspf traffic vsan 10

B. FCF discovery, VLAN discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command

lossless class of Ethernet traffic?

show flogi database

Layer 3 interface in VDC 1 only

You must run NX-OS version 4.2 to run FabricPath

NPV is not enabled on the core switch?

use summary view in the device manager

channel-group auto mode on

intelligent traffic steering to the VSG

LACP is enabled on the Nexus 1000v.

module vem X execute vemcmd show trunk

perform flow lookups

requirement? (Choose three.)

VLANs can be configured or modified on all ports.

The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode.

An interface 'san-port-channel' in NXOS

UCS-A# show pinning border-interfaces

The interface is shut down

ACE sticky license is not installed

It is not supported for SSL connections.

Full DNS functionality as a replacement of a DNS

It is a Cisco propriety keepalive.

UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLI

Enable feature vPC

as the HSRP active router.

FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.

STP must be disabled; message indicates that STP is enabled.

System ID is a unique 12-bit SID.

boot policy and BIOS policy

A. UCS-A # scope fc-uplink

In the blade BIOS

End-host mode is synonymous with NPV mode.

Fibre Channel storage

The Cisco VIC can create an unlimited number of Virtual NICs.

Sending all broadcasts

Hardware is Fibre Channel

The speed of the slowest interface in the port channel

FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning

B. SAN port channels can include up to 16 interfaces.