Different Lies

FACT#6:
6- The Bible says that GOD Almighty can not be tempted by satan or anyone (James 1:13-15)! Yet,
Jesus got tempted and he coveted, and he was between GOD AND SATAN FOR 40 DAYS AND 40 NIGHTS.
Jesus could not be the Creator of the Universe. He was too mortal and too human and too weak to be
one. He was dependent upon GOD Almighty, and not independent. In fact, if Jesus JUMPED FROM THE
TEMPLE as satan was tempting him, he would not have been able to fight gravity to save himself from a
bone-crushing and painful death.
That's how weak Christ was. So to all of the polytheist trinitarian pagans out there, I sincerely invite
you to dump this pagan and false belief of yours and to embrace Islam.
3- Jesus came from Heaven, how come he coveting what's on earth?!

Jesus Christ is no more than a creation of GOD Almighty, and a Prophet of GOD Almighty who
was created from His Word. And if satan was able to play with his head for 40 days and 40 nights,
2,000 years ago in a world that is nothing to our world today, then would it take him 40 years and 40
more decades to overcome satan's temptation, today?
Remember that the Bible says that Jesus "suffered" (Hebrews 2:17-18) from satan's temptation so bad
that GOD Almighty had to send down the "Angels to attend him" (Mark 1:12-13), because he was
spiritually weak. And as I mentioned above, the NT further says that everyone, including Christ, who
gets tempted has "evil desires" and was "dragged/let by satan" because of them (Luke 4:5-6, James
1:13-15) in him. So clearly, Christ's temptation wasn't a walk in the park. It was serious.
If people who were infested with lice and bad body odors tempted him for 40 days and 40 nights, then I
wonder what the real heavenily models and temptations of today would do to his head.
Furthermore, Jesus Christ said:
Matthew 24:36 Jesus said "No one knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven, nor the
Son, but only the Father."
Mark 10:18 Jesus said "And Jesus said to him, 'Why do you call me good? No one is good but God alone.'"
4- Jesus couldn't even meet his own standards!

And by the way, since Christians claim that Christ was SINLESS and PERFECT, then explain to me the
difference between temptation and coveting based on the information that I gave above. The New
Testament says that if you're tempted, you have "evil desires" in you:
James 1
13When tempted, no one should say, "God is tempting me." For God cannot be tempted by evil, nor
does he tempt anyone;

14but each one is tempted when, by his own evil desire (so Jesus had evil desires when he was
tempted!!), he is dragged away and enticed.
15Then, after desire has conceived, it gives birth to sin; and sin, when it is full -grown, gives birth to
death.
OPEN CHALLENGE TO ALL CHRISTIANS:

In light of the verses that I gave above, again, what is the difference between coveting and
temptation? If Jesus coveted, then Jesus broke one of the pillars of the Jewish Law's Morality, and
hence, he's not perfect nor sinless, especially when he himself said that if your eye sins then pluck it
out, and if your hand sins, then cut it. If he can't even meet his own standards, and he got very weak
and coveted what satan tempted him to have for 40 days and 40 nights, then what exactly is his
perfection?
What is this perfection when he was between satan and GOD for 40 days and 40 nights?
How can Christ be perfect if he was tempted anyway?
And how can Christ be sinless when he coveted anyway?
5- Jesus prayed like Muslims:

Further proofs about Jesus was completely helpless and weak, and 100% dependent on GOD Almighty is
the fact that he constantly prayed to GOD Almighty and seeked refuge with HIM from all evil:
"Going a little farther, he fell with his face to the ground and prayed....(From the NIV Bible, Matthew
16:39)"
Luke 22
39 Jesus went out as usual to the Mount of Olives, and his disciples followed him.
40 On reaching the place, he said to them, "Pray that you will not fall into temptation."
41 He withdrew about a stone's throw beyond them, knelt down and prayed,
Luke 11
2 He said to them, "When you pray, say: " 'Father, hallowed be your name, your kingdom come.
3 Give us each day our daily bread.
4 Forgive us our sins, for we also forgive everyone who sins against us. And lead us not into
temptation.' "
5 Then he said to them, "Suppose one of you has a friend, and he goes to him at midnight and says,
'Friend, lend me three loaves of bread,
Luke 22
45 When he rose from prayer and went back to the disciples, he found them asleep, exhausted from
sorrow.
46 "Why are you sleeping?" he asked them. "Get up and pray so that you will not fall into temptation."
Mark 14
37 Then he returned to his disciples and found them sleeping. "Simon," he said to Peter, "are you
asleep? Could you not keep watch for one hour?
38 Watch and pray so that you will not fall into temptation. The spirit is willing, but the body is
weak."
39 Once more he went away and prayed the same thing.
6- Christ, the Muslim, was victorious over satan's temptation!

The religion of Islam started from Adam and ended with Muhammad, peace be upon all of the Prophets
and Messengers of GOD Almighty. Indeed, Prophet Jesus, peace be upon him, didn't follow satan. He
defeated the temptation. But still, his so-called "perfection" (which no one is according to Islam, by
the way) was certainly disproved. This is no more than a lie that was invented by the polytheist
trinitarian pagans.
Therefore, Jesus' victory over satan proves Islam's position about him being a True Prophet of GOD
Almighty, and that he is not the Creator of the Universe. He is no more than a mere creation, because
the very fact that he was tempted proves that he wasn't GOD, for no one can tempt GOD Almighty:
James 1:13 When tempted, no one should say, "God is tempting me."For God cannot be tempted by
evil, nor does he tempt anyone;
Yet, Jesus was tempted for 40 days and 40 nights, and he suffered, and he had evil desires in him, and
he got spiritually very weak that Angels had to come down to spiritually attend him, and he also
coveted as we saw above. Yet, the Bible considers coveting a moral sin, as we also saw above.
Does John 1:1 prove Trinity?

Let us look at John 1:1-7,14-17:
John 1
The Word Became Flesh
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word
was God Divine (theos also means Divine).
2 He was with God in the beginning.
3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been
made.
4 In him was life, and that life was the light of men.
5 The light shines in the darkness, but the darkness has not understood it.
6 There came a man who was sent from God; his name was John.
7 He came as a witness to testify concerning that light, so that through him all men
might believe.
..........
14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his
glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and
truth.
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, "This was he of whom I said,
'He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.' "
16 From the fullness of his grace we have all received one blessing after another.
17 For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.
Islam's Answer:
1-
Prophet Jesus (Isa), peace be upon him, like Adam, peace be upon him, was
created from the Word of GOD Almighty.
2-
Jesus was not the entire Word of GOD Almighty. He rather was a Word from the
Word; meaning that he was created from the Word of GOD Almighty.
Please visit:
1. GOD Almighty is Greater than Jesus.
2. No one is "Good", including Jesus. Only GOD Almighty is Good.
3. Jesus said he doesn't know when the Hour will come. Only GOD
Almighty Knows.
4. Jesus said that OUR God is One GOD.
5. Jesus also said "My GOD and your GOD".
6. Jesus bowed his face down to the ground to GOD Almighty.
7. Jesus was tempted by satan for 40 days and 40 nights, while GOD
Almighty "can not be tempted!".
8. Jesus is only the heir of GOD Almighty on planet earth; not on the
entire Universe.
9. Answering Trinity section with detailed articles.

10.And on and on and on from quotes of Jesus that prove that he is only a
Creation and a Servant of GOD Almighty.
Further from Muslim-SA:

1.2.2.6 John 1:1
Another verse quoted in defense of the "Trinity" is the verse of John 1:1 :
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was
God."
When I first learned of this verse it appeared to me that I had finally found my elusive
goal. However, after substantial research into Christian theological literature, I would
later come to learn that this verse too can not be interpreted to justify a "triune" God.
My own experience has shown that this verse is the one most popularly quoted by
most Christians in defense of the Trinity. For this reason I shall spend a little more
time in it's analysis than in the analysis of the other verses.
First of all, it is quite obvious from simply reading the above verse that even in the
very best case, this verse speaks only of a "Duality" not a "Trinity." Even the most
resolute conservative Christian will never claim to find in this verse any mention
whatsoever of a "merging" of a Holy Ghost with God and "the Word." So even if we
were to accept this verse at face value and just have faith, even then, we find ourselves
commanded to believe in a "Duality" and not a "Trinity." But let us see if this verse
does in fact even command us to believe in a "Duality." To do this we need to notice
the following points:
1) Mistranslation of the text:
In the "original" Greek manuscripts (Did the disciple John speak Greek?), "The Word"
is only described as being "ton theos"(divine/a god) and not as being "ho theos"
(The Divine/The God). A more faithful and correct translation of this verse would thus
read: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was
divine" (If you read the New World Translation of the Bible you will find exactly this
wording).
Similarly, in "The New Testament, An American Translation" this verse is honestly
presented as
"In the beginning the Word existed. The Word was with God, and the Word was
divine."
The New Testament, An American Translation, Edgar Goodspeed and J. M. Powis
Smith, The University of Chicago Press, p. 173
And again in the dictionary of the Bible, under the heading of "God" we read
"Jn 1:1 should rigorously be translated 'the word was with the God [=the Father],
and the word was a divine being.'"
The Dictionary of the Bible by John McKenzie, Collier Books, p. 317
In yet another Bible we read:
"The Logos (word) existed in the very beginning, and the Logos was with God, the
Logos was divine"
The Holy Bible, Containing the Old and New Testaments, by Dr. James Moffatt
Please also see "The Authentic New Testament" by Hugh J. Schonfield and many
others.
If we look at a different verse, 2 Corinthians 4:4, we find the exact same word (ho
theos) that was used in John 1:1 to describe God Almighty is now used to describe the
devil, however, now the system of translation has been changed:
"the god of this world (the Devil) hath blinded the minds of them which believe not."
According to the system of the previous verse and the English language, the
translation of the description of the Devil should also have been written as "The God"
with a capital "G." If Paul was inspired to use the exact same words to describe the
Devil, then why should we change it? Why is "The God" translated as simply "the
god" when referring to the devil, while "divine" is translated as the
almighty "God" when referring to "The Word"? Are we now starting to get a glimpse
of how the "translation" of the Bible took place?
Well, what is the difference between saying "the word was God," and between
saying "the word was a god (divine)"? Are they not the same? Far from it! Let us read
the bible:
"I have said, Ye (the Jews) are gods; and all of you are children of the most High"
Psalms 82:6:
"And the LORD said unto Moses, See, I have made you a god to Pharaoh"
Exodus 7:1
"the god of this world (the Devil) hath blinded the minds of them which believe not."
2 Corinthians 4:4
What does all of this mean? Let me explain.
In the West, it is common when one wishes to praise someone to say "You are a
prince," or "You are an angel" ..etc. When someone says this do they mean that that
person is the son of the King of England, or a divine spiritual being? There is a very
slight grammatical difference between saying "You are a prince" and between saying
"You are THE prince," however, the difference in meaning is quite dramatic.
Further, it is necessary when translating a verse to also take into account the meaning
as understood by the people of that age who spoke that language. One of the biggest
problems with the Bible as it stands today is that it forces us to look at ancient Hebrew
and Aramaic scriptures through Greek and Latin glasses as seen by people who are
neither Jews, Greeks, nor Romans. All of the so called "original" manuscripts of the
NT available today are written in Greek or Latin. The Jews had no trouble reading
such verses as Psalms 82:6, and Exodus 7:1, while still affirming that there is only one
God in existence and vehemently denying the divinity of all but God Almighty. It is
the continuous filtration of these manuscripts through different languages and cultures
as well as the Roman Catholic church's extensive efforts to completely destroy all of
the original Hebrew Gospels (see last quarter of this chapter) which has led to this
misunderstanding of the verses.
The Americans have a saying: "Hit the road men." It means "It is time for you to
leave." However, if a non-American were to receive this command without any
explanation then it is quite possible that we would find him beating the road with a
stick. Did he understand the words? Yes! Did he understand the meaning? No!
In the Christian church we would be hard pressed to find a single priest or nun who
does not address their followers as "my children." They would say: "Come here my
children", or "Be wary of evil my children" ... etc. What do they mean?
A fact that many people do not realize is that around 200AD spoken Hebrew had
virtually disappeared from everyday use as a spoken language. It was not until the
1880s that a conscious effort was made by Eliezer Ben-Yehudah to revive the dead
language. Only about a third of current spoken Hebrew and basic grammatical
structures come from biblical and Mishnaic sources. The rest was introduced in the
revival and includes elements of other languages and cultures including the Greek and
Arabic languages.
Even worse than these two examples are cases when translation into a different
languages can result in a reversal of the meaning. For example, in the West, when
someone loves something they say "It warmed my heart." In the Middle East, the
same expression of joy would be conveyed with the words: "It froze my heart." If an
Mideasterner were to greet a Westerner with the words: "It froze my heart to see
you," then obviously this statement would not be greeted with a whole lot of
enthusiasm from that Westerner, and vice versa. This is indeed one of the major
reasons why the Muslims have been so much more successful in the preservation of
their holy text than the Christians or the Jews; because the language of the Qur'an has
remained from the time of Muhammad (pbuh) to the present day a living language,
the book itself has always been in the hands of the people (and not the "elite"), and the
text of the book remains in the original language of Muhammad (pbuh). For this
reason, a translator must not and should not "translate" in a vacuum while
disregarding the culture and traditions of the people who wrote these words. As we
have just seen, it was indeed quite common among the Jews to use the word "god"
(divine) to convey a sense of supreme power or authority to human beings. This
system, however, was never popularly adopted by them to mean that these individuals
were in any way omnipotent, superhuman, or equal to the Almighty.
2) Basic message of John:
Now that we have seen the correct translation of the verse of John 1:1, let us go a little
further in our study of the intended meaning of this verse. This verse was taken from
the "Gospel of John." The very best person to ask to explain what is meant by a given
statement is the author of that statement himself. So let us ask "John" what is his
mental picture of God and Jesus (pbuh) which he wishes to convey to us:
"Verily, verily, I say unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord; neither he that
is sent greater than he that sent him."
John 13:16.
So the author of John tells us that God is greater than Jesus. If the author of this
Gospel did indeed wish us to understand that Jesus and God are "one and the same,"
then can someone be greater than himself? Similarly,
"Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come [again] unto you. If ye
loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is
greater than I."
John 14:28.
Can someone "go" to himself? Can someone be "greater" than himself?
"These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour
is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee:"
John 17:1.
If John meant to tell us that "Jesus and God are one and the same" then shall we
understand from this verse that God is saying to Himself "Self, glorify me so that I
may glorify myself"? Does this sound like this is the message of John?
"While I (Jesus) was with them in the world, I kept them in thy (God's) name: those
that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that
the scripture might be fulfilled."
John 17:12.
If the author of John wanted us to believe that Jesus and God are one person then are
we to understand from this verse that God is saying to Himself "Self, while I was in
the world I kept them in your name, self. Those who I gave to myself I have kept ..."?
Is this what the author intended us to understand from his writings?
"Father, I will that they also, whom thou hast given me, be with me where I am; that
they may behold my glory, which thou hast given me: for thou lovedst me before the
foundation of the world."
John 17:24.
Similarly, did the author intend us to interpret this as "Self, I will that they also whom
I have given myself be with me where I am; that they my behold my glory which I
have given myself, for I loved myself before the foundation of the world"?
So, we begin to see that in order to understand the writings of a given author, it is
necessary to not take a single quotation from him in a vacuum and then interpret his
whole message based upon that one sentence (and a badly mistranslated version of
that sentence at that).
3) Who wrote the "Gospel of John"?:
The "Gospel of John" is popularly believed by the majority of regular church-goers to
be the work of the apostle John the son of Zebedee. However, when consulting
Christianity's more learned scholars of Church history, we find that this is far from the
case. These scholars draw our attention to the fact that internal evidence provides
serious doubt as to whether the apostle John the son of Zebedee wrote this Gospel
himself. In the dictionary of the Bible by John Mckenzie we read
"A. Feuillet notes that authorship here may be taken loosely."
Such claims are based on such verses as 21:24:
"This is the disciple which testifieth of these things, and wrote these things: and we
know that his testimony is true."?
Did the apostle John write this about himself? Also see 21:20, 13:23, 19:26, 20:2,
21:7, and 21:20-23. The "disciple who Jesus loved" according to the Church is John
himself, but the author of this gospel speaks of him as a different person.
Further, The Gospel of John was written at or near Ephesus between the years 110 and
115 (some say 95-100) of the Christian era by this, or these, unknown author(s).
According to R. H. Charles, Alfred Loisy, Robert Eisler, and other scholars of
Christian history, John of Zebedee was beheaded by Agrippa I in the year 44 CE, long
before the fourth Gospel was written. Did the Holy Ghost "inspire" the apostle John's
ghost to write this gospel sixty years after he was killed? . In other words, what we
have here is a gospel which is popularly believed to have been written by the apostle
John, but which in fact was not written by him. In fact no one really knows for
certain who wrote this gospel.
"Since the beginning of the period of modern critical study, however, there has been
much controversy about [the Gospel of John's] authorship, place of origin,
theological affiliations and background, and historical value"
The Interpreter's Dictionary of the Bible, Volume 2, Abingdon Press, p. 932
4) Who "inspired" the author of this gospel to write this verse?:
The words of John 1:1 are acknowledged by most reputable Christian scholar of the
Bible as the words of another Jew, Philo of Alexandria (20BC-50AD), who claimed
no divine inspiration for them and who wrote them decades before the "gospel of
John" was ever conceived. Groliers encyclopedia has the following to say under the
heading "Logos"("the word"):
"Heraclitus was the earliest Greek thinker to make logos a central concept ......In the
New Testament, the Gospel According to Saint John gives a central place to logos; the
biblical author describes the Logos as God, the Creative Word, who took on flesh in
the man Jesus Christ. Many have traced John's conception to Greek origins--perhaps
through the intermediacy of eclectic texts like the writings of Philo of Alexandria."
T. W. Doane says:
"The works of Plato were extensively studied by the Church Fathers, one of whom
joyfully recognizes in the great teacher, the schoolmaster who, in the fullness of time,
was destined to educate the heathen for Christ, as Moses did the Jews. The celebrated
passage : "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word
Was God" is a fragment of some Pagan treatise on the Platonic philosophy, evidently
written by Irenaeus. It is quoted by Amelius, a Pagan philosopher as strictly
applicable to the Logos, or Mercury, the Word, apparently as an honorable testimony
borne to the Pagan deity by a barbarian........We see then that the title "Word" or
"Logos," being applied to Jesus, is another piece of Pagan amalgamation with
Christianity. It did not receive its authorized Christian form until the middle of the
second century after Christ. The ancient pagan Romans worshipped a Trinity. An
oracle is said to have declared that there was 'First God, then the Word, and with
them the Spirit'. Here we see the distinctly enumerated, God, the Logos, and the Holy
Spirit or Holy Ghost, in ancient Rome, where the most celebrated temple of this
capital - that of Jupiter Capitolinus - was dedicated to three deities, which three
deities were honored with joint worship."
From Bible Myths and their parallels in other religions, pp. 375-376.
6) What was "The Word"?
"O people of the book! commit no excesses in your religion: nor say of Allah aught
but the truth. Christ Jesus the son of Mary was (no more than) a messenger of
Allah, and His Word, which he bestowed upon Mary, and a spirit preceding from
him so believe in Allah and his messengers. Say not "Three," desist! It will be
better for you, for Allah is one God. Glory be to him. Far exalted is he above having
a son. To him belong all things in the heavens and the earth. And enough is Allah
as a disposer of affairs."
The noble Qur'an, Al-Nissa(4):171

In the Qur'an we are told that when God Almighty wills something he merely says to
it "Be" and it is.
"Verily! Our (Allah's) Word unto a thing when We intend it, is only that We say unto it
"Be!" - and it is"
The noble Qur'an, Al-Nahil(16):40 (please also read chapter 14)
This is the Islamic viewpoint of "The Word." "The Word" is literally God's utterance
"Be." This is held out by the Bible where thirteen verses later in John 1:14 we read:
"And the Word was made flesh".
In the Qur'an, we read:
"The similitude of Jesus before Allah is as that of Adam; He created him from dust,
then said to him: 'Be.' And he was."
The noble Qur'an, Aal-Umran(3):59.
Regarding what is meant by Allah by "a spirit preceding from him" I shall simply let
Allah Himself explain:
"And [remember] when Allah said to the angles: 'I shall create a human (Adam) from
sounding clay, from altered mud. So when I have fashioned him and have breathed
into him of my spirit, then fall down in prostration before him'"
The noble Qur'an, Al-Hijr(15):29
Muslim-SA@acsu.buffalo.edu
Last modified: Sun Nov 17 01:47:14 EST 1996
An addition, in the above article,
from our Greek brother and author

on this site, brother Noor Adeen:
(Emphesis below is mine)
Date:
Tue, 30 Oct 2007 20:48:12 -0800
From:
"Noor Adeen" <adeenenator@gmail.com>
To:
"Osama Abdallah" <quransearchcom@yahoo.com>
Subject: Re: Greeks will never live under islam again!
HTML Attachment [ Scan and Save to Computer ]
A'salaamu'Alaikum dear brother Osama,
.........
The verse (John 1:1) in its original Greek Contex is written as this:
(at) (first) (is/was) (the) (reason/intellect) (and)
(the) (reason/intellect) (is/was) (towards/facing/with)
(the) (god) (and) (god) (is/was) (the)
(reason/intellect)
so once we translate the whole verse we're basically seeing:
At first is/was the reason/intellect and the reason/intellect is/was
towards/facing/with God (ton theon) and god is the reason/intellect.
The problem with that verse in Greek is that we see theos being written as
just theos (god/diety) and not as o theos or ton theon, which are proper ways
of saying God (or the god = al ilah = Allah). So the part which is written
solely on its own as "theos", could be implying just any random diety, of
course with ton theon written before in the sentence we automatically
assume that we're still talking about the same God. Over all though, logos
does not mean word in ancient Greek, and the translation of logos to word is
a corrupt modern translation of the meaning for word. Funny thing is the
Greek word forDictionary is Lexilogio, which is a combination of two
words Lexi (word) and logio (logos = reason/intellect) so you can't say that
lexilogio means wordword it means word-intellect, and the purpose of a
dictionary is for the knowledge of words. The ironic thing is though, St John
of Damascus who apparently had a high position during one of the Khalifa's
reign during 747(?) is that he translated the Arabic word for Word from
Quran's verses as 3:45 and 4:171 as Logos into the Greek. Strangely enough
though, he was a scholar of Christianity whose opinion of Islam was that
Islam was a heretic form of Christianity and as we all know that's incorrect
and not what the Quran refers to its self, for it does not call its self
Christianity. He was probably the earliest critic of Islam, of course who
knows how this man was allowed to function as he did while working for
the Khalif.
I hope you find this information useful and I hope all is well insha'Allah
yalla salaam
Noor Adeen
The "Son of God" Title in the 1 John 2:22:

The sections of this article are:
1- The Christians' claim about Jesus being "Son of God" in 1 John 2:22.
2- Is Islam the Anti-Christ?
3- "Son of God" in ancient times meant no more than a righteous Servant and Chosen
one of GOD Almighty.
4- Conclusion.
1-
The Christians' claim about Jesus being

"Son of God" in 1 John 2:22:
Christians often quote the following verse to Muslims:
1 John 2:22
Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that
denieth the Father and the Son.
Let us look at the verse in its complete context:
1 John 2
18 Dear children, this is the last hour; and as you have heard that the antichrist is
coming, even now many antichrists have come. This is how we know it is the
last hour.
19 They went out from us, but they did not really belong to us. For if they had
belonged to us, they would have remained with us; but their going showed that
none of them belonged to us.
20 But you have an anointing from the Holy One, and all of you know the truth.
21 I do not write to you because you do not know the truth, but because you do
know it and because no lie comes from the truth.
22 Who is the liar? It is whoever denies that Jesus is the Christ. Such a person is
the antichristdenying the Father and the Son.
23 No one who denies the Son has the Father; whoever acknowledges the Son
has the Father also.
The following points are important:
1-
Here we clearly see that denying Jesus Christ is going against GOD Almighty (1
John 2:23). This is what the antichrist here means. We also see in 1 John
2:18 how "antichrist" is a term that is loosely used for any one who is considered false
in his faith. So the word is very loose, and doesn't hold weight when trying to prove
that Islam is the antichrist.
2-
Also, "Son" here means Jesus Christ. "Son" in the Bible means "Servant". Jesus
throughout the Old Testament is referred to as "the Servant". See the article
below. Islam also came to make this point very clear. A "Son" is no more than
a "Servant raised to honor":
"And they say: "(God) Most Gracious has begotten offspring." Glory to
Him! they are (but) servants raised to honour. (The Noble Quran, 21:26)"
"And behold! God will say: "O Jesus the son of Mary! Didst thou say unto
men, worship me and my mother as gods in derogation of God'?" He will say:
"Glory to Thee! never could I say what I had no right (to say). Had I said such a
thing, thou wouldst indeed have known it. Thou knowest what is in my heart,
Thou I know not what is in Thine. For Thou knowest in full all that is
hidden. (The Noble Quran, 5:116)"
3-
Also, "denying the Father and the Son" in 1 John 2:22 clearly means that the one
who denies Jesus to be the Messiah (Christ), then he is also denying GOD Almighty,
since Jesus was sent by GOD Almighty (1 John 2:23).
In regards to Jesus, peace be upon him, being the Christ, we Muslims believe that he
is 100% the Christ! Christ is derived from the Greek word, Christos. Christos means
the "anointed one". The Arabic word Masaha also means to rub or anoint. This is
where Maseeh, in Arabic comes from. It's the title for Jesus Christ. In Hebrew, he is
also the Messiah. And is so in English too. So, Christ and Messiah are both the same
word, and Jesus Christ in Islam is also the Messiah. This is also where the
mistranslation of "Son of God" comes, as shown in the links and 8-minute video
below:
"When the angels said, Ò Mary, ALLAH gives thee glad tidings of a son
through a word from HIM; his name shall be the Messiah, Jesus, son of
Mary, honoured in this world and in the next, and of those who are granted
nearness to God; (The Noble Quran, 3:45)"
"And for their saying, `We did slay the Messiah, Jesus, son of Mary, the
Messenger of ALLAH;' whereas they slew him not, nor did they bring about his
death upon the cross, but he was made to appear to them like one crucified; and
those who differ therein are certainly in a state of doubt about it; they have no
certain knowledge thereof, but only pursue a conjecture; and they did not arrive
at a certainty concerning it. (The Noble Quran, 4:157)"
"O People of the Book ! exceed not the limits in your religion, and say not of
ALLAH anything but the truth. Verily, the Messiah, Jesus, son of Mary, was
only a Messenger of ALLAH, and a fulfillment of HIS word which HE has sent
down to Mary, and a mercy from HIM. So believe in ALLAH and HIS
Messengers, and say not, `They are three.' Desist, it will be better for you.
Verily, ALLAH is the only One God. Holy is HE, far above having a son. To
HIM belongs whatever is in the heavens and whatever is in the earth. And
sufficient is ALLAH as a guardian. (The Noble Quran, 4:171)"
"Surely, the Messiah disdains not to be a servant of ALLAH, nor do the
angels who are near to Him, and whoso disdains to worship HIM and is proud,
HE will gather them all to Himself. (The Noble Quran, 4:172)"
"They indeed have disbelieved who say, `Surely ALLAH - He is the Messiah,
son of Mary.' Say, `Who then has any power against ALLAH, if HE desired to
destroy the Messiah, son of Mary, and his mother and all those that are in
the earth ?' And to ALLAH belongs the Kingdom of the heavens and the earth
and what is between them. HE creates what HE pleases and ALLAH has power
over all things. (The Noble Quran, 5:17)"
"Indeed, they are disbelievers who say, ÀLLAH, HE is the Messiah, son of
Mary,' whereas the Messiah himself said, Ò Children of Israel, worship
ALLAH Who is my Lord and your Lord.' Surely, whoso associates partners with
ALLAH, him has ALLAH forbidden Heaven, and the Fire will be his resort.
And the wrongdoers shall have no helpers. (The Noble Quran, 5:72)"
"The Messiah, son of Mary, was only a Messenger; surely Messengers like
unto him had passed away before him. And his mother was a truthful woman.
They both used to eat food. See how WE explain the Signs for their good, and
see how they are turned away. (The Noble Quran, 5:75)"
"And the Jews say, Èzra is the son of ALLAH,' and the Christians say, `the
Messiah is the son of ALLAH;' that is what they say with their mouths. They
only imitate the saying of those who disbelieved before them. ALLAH's curse
be on them ! How they are turned away. (The Noble Quran, 9:30)"
"They have taken their priest and their monks for lords besides ALLAH. And so
have they taken the Messiah, son of Mary. And they were not commanded but
to worship the One God. There is no God but HE. Holy is HE far above what
they associate with Him! (The Noble Quran, 9:31)"
2-
Is Islam the Anti-Christ?
Far be it be from Islam!

Islam is not the anti-christ. We hear some Christians delcare Islam is the antiChrist. But it isn't.
o 1 John 2:22 Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He
is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.
o The second half of the verse defines CHRIST as the Messiah whos
chosen by GOD.
New Addition:
From http://www.answeringchristianity.com/blog/index.php/topic,1346.msg5127.html#
msg5127:
Quote from: mclinkin94 on Today at 12:44:30 pm
Quote from: Isa27James on Today at 05:45:49 am
ASSALAM ALYKAM
when ever i am in a debate christians always quote me this
1 John 2:18-27
English Standard Version (ESV)
Warning Concerning Antichrists
18 Children, it is the last hour, and as you have heard that
antichrist is coming, so now many antichrists have come.
Therefore we know that it is the last hour. 19 They went out
from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us,
they would have continued with us. But they went out, that
it might become plain that they all are not of us. 20 But you
have been anointed by the Holy One, and you all have
knowledge.[a] 21 I write to you, not because you do not
know the truth, but because you know it, and because no lie
is of the truth. 22 Who is the liar but he who denies that
Jesus is the Christ? This is the antichrist, he who denies the
Father and the Son. 23 No one who denies the Son has the
Father. Whoever confesses the Son has the Father also. 24
Let what you heard from the beginning abide in you. If what
you heard from the beginning abides in you, then you too
will abide in the Son and in the Father. 25 And this is the
promise that he made to us
Does Muhammad (pbuh) deny Jesus being the messiah?

Does the prophet Muhammad deny the existence of God and
God's servant Jesus?
As'salamu Alaikum dear brothers,

Notice here how Messiah was defined by the author of the 1
John book to be "Father and Son". Islam does not deny that
Jesus is the Christ, nor does the Holy Quran deny that the
Jews and Christians were called sons of GOD. The problem
is that, like every exaggerated religion out there, the "Son of
GOD" title became ridiculous over-blown. This is one of the
many things that Islam came to straighten out from the
corruption of the Jews and Christians.
Son of GOD in the Bible means Servant of GOD. This is a
fact that no Jew or Christian could deny. And the Servant is
not just any servant. He is a servant "raised to Honor" as the
Holy Quran puts it. That's what son of GOD means. Taking it
beyond this is bordering polytheism and blasphemy. Please
visit:
http://www.answering-christianity.com/1john2_22.htm
Similarly, in Judaism, Idolatry is considered Spiritual
Adultery against GOD Almighty. Now I want you to think
about this for a second. Are we married to Allah Almighty?
Absolutely not. Yet, it is considered spiritual adultery?
Similarly, if you take this beyond metaphor, and start
speaking nonsense about you are married with GOD Almighty,
then you would be bordering blasphemy.
The liar in the 1 John verses, and I am not saying that they
are divine or original or authentic in anyway, is one who
denies Jesus is the Messiah. We do not deny that Jesus is
the Messiah. Therefore, this title would not apply to us.
But the title is messed up anyway. How could you be a
liar even if you don't believe Jesus was the Messiah??
Again, another metaphor that doesn't mean anything actual.
What is it that you're lying about?? It's like one saying if
you're not hindu, then you're a thief! What kind of a stupid
statement is that??
Again, Islam came to fix this stupidity and put an end to it.
The blasphemies and stupidity stop with Islam! That's the
bottom line, my beloveds.
And last and not least, please visit: http://www.answeringchristianity.com/authors_gospels.htm. In this article, you'll
see that the books of John:
12345-
Were written by unknown people.

Do contain alterations and man-made injections in them.
Were written by an unknown number of men.
Were written in unknown places.
Were written in unknown dates.
Here is an example:
We find even more alarming troubles with the Gospel of

John itself. Since Christians believe that the writer of the
gospel of John is the same one as the one who wrote 1 John,
then it is important to point out the following absurdity in
the authenticity of this gospel from its last and concluding
chapter:
John 21:24-25
24 This is the disciple (WHICH DISCIPLE?? WHAT IS HIS
NAME??) who testifies to these things and who wrote them
down. We know that his testimony is true (HOW DO YOU
KNOW?? DID YOU EVEN MEET HIM IN PERSON??)
25 Jesus did many other things as well. If every one of them
were written down, I suppose that even the whole world
would not have room for the books that would be written.
Many have doubted that John even wrote the entire book:
"Many scholars of the past two centuries have denied that
John wrote this book, partly because of their belief
that the author fabricated many details such as the
miracles and the discourses of Jesus. (The Holman
Illustrated Study Bible, ISBN: 978-1-58640-275-4, Gospel of
John, Page1540)"
For ample more quotes from several other Bible
commentaries, again, please visit: http://www.answeringchristianity.com/authors_gospels.htm.
Now here is some analysis:
"We know that his testimony is true"?!
Wasn't the disciple John the one who supposedly wrote the
gospel of John? How can he say about himself that"we know
that his (the author) testimony is true"?! Isn't this a clear
and indisputable proof that the book was written by an
unknown person?
I hope this helps, insha'Allah.
Osama Abdallah's Post:

And by the way, I know that what I just wrote was actually
all written by mclinkin94, because somebody had just told
me so! I know it. Don't question it! I was just told that the
post wasn't written by me! Even if it has my name on it, and
was written using my account. It doesn't matter. mclinkin94
wrote it. I was just told that. I don't remember if whether I
actually wrote it or not. But I know whoever wrote it, his
testimony is true. Somebody told me so.
Now of course, brother mclinkin94 didn't write my post. But
the point I am making here is that with this statement

uttered by Osama Abdallah, do you see just how stupid and
incompetent, and even a liar (if not mentally retarded),
Osama Abdallah is?? This is all hypothetical of course :).
This kind of lies and retardedness and stupidity exist by
the bulk in the Bible!
Everyone is supposedly inspired by GOD Almighty in the
Bible, and all of their words are Divine Revelations. Yet, we
find fights among the disciples, where Peter and other
disciples were called "clearly in the wrong", and Paul was
called a "false apostle" by several of the disciples and
believers. I've went through this in my debate
at:http://www.answeringchristianity.com/is_the_bible_the_true_word_of_god_june_1
6_2013.wmv.
Take care,
Osama Abdallah
o
o In Islam, Jesus is called Al-Sayyed Al-Maseeh (The Lord the Messiah).
o The Bible also defines FATHER to be The All Knowing GOD when
used for GOD Almighty, and the Chosen Leader with given authority to
him, and High Priest and Rabbi for a human. Christ in Isaiah 9:6 is
called Everlasting Father, and Jewish Rabbis are all Fathers, and
Catholic Priests are also all called Father as well.
o Furthermore, GOD and SON OF GOD titles of today are all translations
based on developed Hebrew and Aramaic terms. The Bible clearly
defines every believer as GOD and SON OF GOD (Psalm 82:6, John
10:34-36).
o Christ in John 10:34-36 reduced his Son of GOD title to be below the
believers God titles.
John 10:34-36
34 Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your Law, I have said you
are gods?
..
36 .Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, I am
Gods Son?
Trinitarians claim that Christ is Yahweh the Son. These verses indeed
refute this falsehood.
o The Bible further defines SON OF GOD to be a RIGHTEOUS

BELIEVER:
Mark 15:39 Truly this man was the SON OF GOD.
Luke 23:47 Truly this was a RIGHEOUS MAN (that is a
CHOSEN BELIEVER AND BELOVED BY GOD).
Also the very fact that most references to the coming Messiah in
the Old Testament call him SERVANT, further proves that Son of
GOD = Beloved Servant of GOD. This also proves that trinity is
false. For example:
Isaiah 11:2-3 "2. The Spirit of the LORD will rest on
him (Jesus)-- the Spirit of wisdom and of understanding,
the Spirit of counsel and of power, the Spirit of knowledge
and of the fear of the LORD (Jesus fearing his GOD)-3. and he will delight in the fear of the LORD. He will
not judge by what he sees with his eyes, or decide by what
he hears with his ears;"
o This is also how the Holy Quran defines SON OF GOD in Noble
Verses 21:26.
o Furthermore, Son of GOD also means being in the IMAGE OF GOD as
a Righteous Believer. The Bible defines being in the "Image of GOD"
means having the Attributes of GOD Almighty that He, the Almighty, Has
put in us, humans: Genesis 1:26-27, Genesis 3:5, Ephesians 4:24, Exodus
7:1, Zechariah 12:8.
o Always remember this: No one was ever called The Seed of GOD.
Ever. GOD has no seed and no offspring.
Despite the fact that the Bible does speak about Seeds of people
and nations. But never once for GOD Almighty.
o And last and not least, the Bible has infinite amounts of Sons of GOD.
The Blessed are the peace makers for they are called Sons of
GOD and all other similar Verses.
The Angels are the Sons of GOD.
All Believers are GODs and Sons of GOD.
SATAN ALSO CALLED GOD: 2 Corinthians 4:4.
3-
"Son of God" in ancient times meant no

more than a righteous Servant and Chosen one
of GOD Almighty:
The following links thoroughly refute the Christians' mistranslation in great details:
"Son of God" in ancient times meant no more than a righteous Servant

and Chosen one of GOD Almighty:
Christians themselves don't even know how to define "Son of God".
They say it means "Yahweh the Son". Yet, Jesus Christ reduced his
title to be even below the average believer's "God" title. Watch the
following 8-minute video to see how Jesus reduced his title "Son of
God" to be even below the average believer's "God" title. Also, the
Bible defines "Son of God" to mean "Righteous Servant of GOD":
Did Jesus claim to be God? (8 minutes)
"God" & "Son of God" titles given to countless believers and

beings.
The Bible directly claims that ANY "Son of GOD" is a "God"!
(Refutation to Jesus' being God meaning that he is GOD Almighty).
"Son of GOD" conflict between the Bible and the Noble Quran.
The definition of "Son of God" in Islam.
Son of GOD: Some Muslims' Misconception.
"Son of Man" does not mean "GOD" or "Son of GOD".
Can we trust the Son of Man?
Does calling Jesus "Son of God" prove that he is GOD?
"Son of God" literally means "Servant of God" in Hebrew. Bible
agrees with Islam, not with pagan trinity and today's wrong and twisted
translations of "Son of God".
Obvious mistranslations of the Hebrew Manuscripts. See proofs of
alterations and deceptions done by the Jews and Christians to disprove
Islam in the Bible.
Rebuttal to Sam Shamoun's "The Incomprehensible Nature of God

and his Son" article. Thoroughly refuting and exposing Sam
Shamoun's trinity-lies and absurdities in Proverbs 30:4 where he tried to
falsely prove trinity through it.
My rebuttal to Sam Shamoun's "How can Jesus be God when the
Hebrew Bible says God is not a man?" article.
Answering Jeremiah 23:5-6: A big blow to Sam Shamoun's trinity
nonsense existing in the Old Testament.
My rebuttal to Sam Shamoun's "Refuting Osama Abdallah on
Jeremiah 23:5-6" article.
What is the best way to convert non-Muslims to Islam?
4-
Conclusion:
Trinity is false. It is a blasphemy. The Bible is mistranslated. Jesus Christ is not the
"Son of God". And again, Christians themselves don't even know how to define "Son
of God". They say it means "Yahweh the Son". Yet, Jesus Christ reduced his title to
be even below the average believer's "God" title. Islam is the Divine Truth of GOD
Almighty.
All Praise and Glory are due to Allah Almighty Alone!
John 8:58's deliberate mistranslation of Jesus saying "I AM"

with new evidence from the Greek language!
1- The text of John 8:58.
(a)- Jesus was the foretold Messiah and the greatest and final Jewish Prophet.
(i)- Jesus also was the heir who will inherit the earth.
2- The Greek text of John 8:58. My detailed analysis.
(a)- Jesus didn't even say it in Greek!
3- Rebuttal from JewsforJudaism.org. Must read!
4- Conclusion.
1-
The text of John 8:58:
Throughout the Bible, Jesus Christ is recorded to have made many claims regarding
how GOD Almighty is Higher and Greater than him. These statements should be
clear enough to demonstrate and prove that Jesus Christ, the Messiah (anointed,
chosen to be the lord/leader/master of the Jews, their final Prophet), is no more than a
creation of GOD Almighty. However, Christians often bring few verses that
supposedly prove otherwise; that Jesus is GOD Almighty Himself. Such verses
are: John 1, John 8:58, Colossians 1:15-16 and perhaps few others. This article will
analyze John 8:58 in great details to find out whether or not their claims are true.
Here is how John 8 reads:

(Pay attention to the red emphasis below)
John 8
1 But Jesus went to the Mount of Olives.
2 At dawn he appeared again in the temple courts, where all the people gathered
around him, and he sat down to teach them.
3 The teachers of the law and the Pharisees brought in a woman caught in
adultery. They made her stand before the group
4 and said to Jesus, "Teacher, this woman was caught in the act of adultery.
5 In the Law Moses commanded us to stone such women. Now what do you
say?"
6 They were using this question as a trap, in order to have a basis for accusing
him. But Jesus bent down and started to write on the ground with his finger.
7 When they kept on questioning him, he straightened up and said to them, "If
any one of you is without sin, let him be the first to throw a stone at her."
8 Again he stooped down and wrote on the ground.
9 At this, those who heard began to go away one at a time, the older ones first,
until only Jesus was left, with the woman still standing there.
10 Jesus straightened up and asked her, "Woman, where are they? Has no one
condemned you?"
11 "No one, sir," she said. "Then neither do I condemn you," Jesus declared.
"Go now and leave your life of sin."
The Validity of Jesus' Testimony
12 When Jesus spoke again to the people, he said, "I am the light of the world.
Whoever follows me will never walk in darkness, but will have the light of
life."
13 The Pharisees challenged him, "Here you are, appearing as your own
witness; your testimony is not valid."
14 Jesus answered, "Even if I testify on my own behalf, my testimony is valid,
for I know where I came from and where I am going. But you have no idea
where I come from or where I am going.
15 You judge by human standards; I pass judgment on no one.
16 But if I do judge, my decisions are right, because I am not alone. I stand with
the Father, who sent me.
17 In your own Law it is written that the testimony of two men is valid.
18 I am one who testifies for myself; my other witness is the Father, who sent
me."
19 Then they asked him, "Where is your father?" "You do not know me or my
Father," Jesus replied. "If you knew me, you would know my Father also."
20 He spoke these words while teaching in the temple area near the place where
the offerings were put. Yet no one seized him, because his time had not yet
come.
21 Once more Jesus said to them, "I am going away, and you will look for me,
and you will die in your sin. Where I go, you cannot come."
22 This made the Jews ask, "Will he kill himself? Is that why he says, 'Where I
go, you cannot come'?"
23 But he continued, "You are from below; I am from above. You are of this
world; I am not of this world.
24 I told you that you would die in your sins; if you do not believe that I am the
one I claim to be, you will indeed die in your sins."
25 "Who are you?" they asked. "Just what I have been claiming all along,"
Jesus replied.
26 "I have much to say in judgment of you. But he who sent me is reliable,
and what I have heard from him I tell the world."
27 They did not understand that he was telling them about his Father.
28 So Jesus said, "When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know
that I am the one I claim to be and that I do nothing on my own but speak just
what the Father has taught me.
29 The one who sent me is with me; he has not left me alone, for I always do
what pleases him."
30 Even as he spoke, many put their faith in him.
The Children of Abraham
31 To the Jews who had believed him, Jesus said, "If you hold to my teaching,
you are really my disciples.
32 Then you will know the truth, and the truth will set you free."
33 They answered him, "We are Abraham's descendants and have never been
slaves of anyone. How can you say that we shall be set free?"
34 Jesus replied, "I tell you the truth, everyone who sins is a slave to sin.
35 Now a slave has no permanent place in the family, but a son belongs to it
forever.
36 So if the Son sets you free, you will be free indeed.
37 I know you are Abraham's descendants. Yet you are ready to kill me,
because you have no room for my word.
38 I am telling you what I have seen in the Father's presence, and you do what
you have heard from your father."
39 "Abraham is our father," they answered. "If you were Abraham's children,"
said Jesus, "then you would do the things Abraham did.
40 As it is, you are determined to kill me, a man who has told you the truth that I
heard from God. Abraham did not do such things.
41 You are doing the things your own father does." "We are not illegitimate
children," they protested. "The only Father we have is God himself."
The Children of the Devil
42 Jesus said to them, "If God were your Father, you would love me, for I came
from God and now am here. I have not come on my own; but he sent me.
43 Why is my language not clear to you? Because you are unable to hear what I
say.
44 You belong to your father, the devil, and you want to carry out your father's
desire. He was a murderer from the beginning, not holding to the truth, for there
is no truth in him. When he lies, he speaks his native language, for he is a liar
and the father of lies.
45 Yet because I tell the truth, you do not believe me!
46 Can any of you prove me guilty of sin? If I am telling the truth, why don't
you believe me?
47 He who belongs to God hears what God says. The reason you do not hear
is that you do not belong to God."
The Claims of Jesus About Himself
48 The Jews answered him, "Aren't we right in saying that you are a Samaritan
and demon-possessed?"
49 "I am not possessed by a demon," said Jesus, "but I honor my Father and you
dishonor me.
50 I am not seeking glory for myself; but there is one who seeks it, and he is the
judge.
51 I tell you the truth, if anyone keeps my word, he will never see death."
52 At this the Jews exclaimed, "Now we know that you are demon-possessed!
Abraham died and so did the prophets, yet you say that if anyone keeps your
word, he will never taste death.
53 Are you greater than our father Abraham? He died, and so did the
prophets. Who do you think you are?"
54 Jesus replied, "If I glorify myself, my glory means nothing. My Father,
whom you claim as your God, is the one who glorifies me.
55 Though you do not know him, I know him. If I said I did not, I would be a
liar like you, but I do know him and keep his word.
56 Your father Abraham rejoiced at the thought of seeing my day; he saw it
and was glad."
57 "You are not yet fifty years old," the Jews said to him, "and you have
seen Abraham!"
58 "I tell you the truth," Jesus answered, "before Abraham was born, I am (I
have seen Abraham before he was even born)!"
Jesus here was abruptly interrupted by the Jews who got

fed up from him. See the next verse below. They
thought that he was insulting their intelligence and their
cherished faith by talking blasphemous garbage (such as
Abraham rejoiced for him (John 8:56) and other things).
It is clear that Jesus was most likely interrupted and
wasn't heard finishing up his sentence. Also, the context
of Jesus' words were about seeing Abraham before he
was even born. This is nothing new in the Bible. In the
Old Testament, we read:
"Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, before
you were born I set you apart; I appointed you as a
prophet to the nations. (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah
1:5)"
Since Jesus was created from the Word of GOD
Almighty, and since also our human-spirits are
also created from the Holy Spirit, and since Jesus was a
Word from the Word of Allah Almighty, then it is quite
possible for him to have known, or seen the records of
the future human-creations that were going to be created
on earth, such as Abraham and others. After all, Allah
Almighty uses Angels, Spirits and other created Beings
of His to create creations under His Command. Things
in the spiritual realm are different. Existence in the
spiritual world, including our spirits, is Eternal. Our
earthly bodies are not Eternal. So, Jesus having a prior
knowledge about Abraham's spirit is nothing unusual
in the spiritual world.
Abraham here was used by Jesus because the
Jews used him as their highest and greatest
Prophetagainst Jesus. So it wasn't Jesus who
brought up Abraham. It was the Jews.
Otherwise, Jesus would not have mentioned
Abraham or any earthly creation. See verse
33 above.
Also, Jesus is the foretold Messiah, the
anointed/selected final and greatest Prophet for
the Jews, who will come and establish peace on
earth and rule the earth in the end. The Old
Testament makes it clear that the Messiah will
inherit and rule the earth [1] [2]. See the
sub-section below for more details.
However, we must always never forget that

the text of the Bible is neither genuine nor
original. The Bible's books and gospels,
according to its own translators and
theologians [2] [3], were
1. Written by mysterious men.
2. Written by an unknown number of
men.
3. Written in unknown places.
4. Written in unknown dates.
Furthermore, if Jesus declared to be the Yahweh
Almighty (I am What I am) in Exodus 3, then he would
not have hid himself and slipped away! Use your
heads, O Christians, and think about this:
1-
Examine what Yahweh Almighty did when He

Declared Himself to be "I am What I am". What did He
do? He Revealed His Majesty, Glory and Power! I
could only imagine Moses could hardly stand on his feet
from the overwhelming fear that he experienced!
2-
Jesus, when he supposedly declared The Ultimate

and Final Statement about himself being the "I am", what
did he do? He hid himself and ran away from the
beating. This is what he did after he willingly decided to
declare his Ultimate and Final Statement about his being
and supposed deity. Do you still fail to see the
overwhelming inconsistency here?
3-
Jesus' supposed statement, "I am", was documented

on paper in Greek. Yahweh Almighty's Statement in
Exodus 3 was in Hebrew. The two languages are not
only far too different from each others, but the two
statements are also not the same.
"I am" is not the same as "I am What I
am".
Ample more indisputable proofs and points on this are
presented below. Also, the Greek main-section
below has tons of indisputable proofs as well.
59 At this, they picked up stones to stone him, but Jesus hid himself,
slipping away from the temple grounds.
There are few important notes to mention here:
1-
In verse 29, Jesus says that he only does what pleases GOD Almighty.
2-
In verses 33, 39, 53 and 57, the Jews declare that they are the descendants of
Abraham.
3-
In verse 37, Jesus confirms that they are Abraham's descendants.
4-
In verse 57, the Jews say that Jesus never saw Abraham.
5-
(Ample proofs from the Greek language, below, are provided for this one) In
verse 58, Jesus DID NOT SAY "I AM". He rather said, "I
HAVE (seen
Abraham before he was even born)".
The following analysis
give further proofs for this:

The context of Jesus' statement is clearly about whether or not he saw
Abraham.
When GOD Almighty revealed Himself to Moses in Exodus 3, and told
him "I am what I am", He, the Almighty, revealed with it His Majesty and
Glory. Jesus, when said "I have", he ran from the rocks that were hurled at him
from the angry crowd.
GOD Almighty in Exodus 3 Spoke to Moses in Hebrew, while Jesus in John
8:58, spoke it in Aramaic, and the original Aramaic is lost. All what he have
today is a Greek translation for the original.
The "I AM" in John 8:58 is a desperate mistranslation, because even if we

take it to be right, it still doesn't say "I am what I am".
If Jesus truly wanted to say "I AM" in reference to Exodus 3, then he
should've said before Adam or humanity I AM WHAT I AM; not Abraham.
6-
It is also highly probable that Jesus was interrupted by the Jews picking up rocks
and hurling them at him, hence, he was only recorded to have said "I HAVE" because
he wasn't able to finish his sentence.
This point, while it may sound very lame and weak, but in reality is quite
possible and sound!
(a)-
Jesus was the foretold Messiah and the

greatest and final Jewish Prophet:
Jesus Christ was the foretold Messiah (anointed, chosen, selected). He was the final
and greatest Prophet to the Jews. That is why he is the Messiah. A Messiah is a
selected King. This means all of the Jews' kings were Messiahs. The Messiah is also
the king who will establish the final peace on earth. He is also the Messiah because
he will inherit the earth after he defeats the anti-Christ. These points are covered with
Biblical references and analysis at:
1. Jesus is only the heir of GOD Almighty on planet earth; not on the entire
Universe.
2. Does the word "Messiah" really mean GOD? or does it even have anything to
do with GOD's Deity?
So most certainly, Jesus being the heir of GOD Almighty doesn't make him GOD
Almighty Himself, nor the son of GOD Almighty. Jesus will only inherit the earth. It
is a symbolic speech that means that he will rule over earth. The earth will still be
under the full authority of GOD Almighty. "Son of GOD" in the original Hebrew
means servant of GOD. This is proven in the following articles:
1. "Son of God" literally means "Servant of God" in Hebrew. Bible agrees

with Islam, not with pagan trinity and today's wrong and twisted translations of
"Son of God".
2. The Bible directly claims that ANY "Son of GOD" is a "God"! (Refutation to
Jesus' being God meaning that he is GOD Almighty).
3. "Son of GOD" conflict between the Bible and the Noble Quran.
4. The definition of "Son of God" in Islam.
5. Son of GOD: Some Muslims' Misconception.
6. "Son of Man" does not mean "GOD" or "Son of GOD".
7. Can we trust the Son of Man?
8. Does calling Jesus "Son of God" prove that he is GOD?
9. Rebuttal to Sam Shamoun's "The Incomprehensible Nature of God and his
Son" article. Thoroughly refuting and exposing Sam Shamoun's trinity-lies and
absurdities in Proverbs 30:4where he tried to falsely prove trinity through it.
2-
The Greek texts of John 8:58:
Let us look at John 8:58 in Greek:

58 ,
.
(eg) was translated as I.

(eimi) was translated as am.
According to Strong's Greek Dictionary, eimi ( or ) means:
"am, have been, it is I, was.
The first person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and
defective verb; I exist (used only when emphatic) -- am, have been, X it is
I, was. See also ei, eien, einai,heis kath
heis, en, esomai, esmen, este, esti, kerdos, isthi, o."
"NASB Word Usage
accompanied* (1), accompany* (2), am (138), amount (1), amounts (1),
appear* (1), asserted* (1), become* (5), been (45), been* (1), being (26),
belong (3), belonged* (1), belonging (1), belonging* (1), belongs (4), bring*
(1), came (1), come (5), consist (1), crave* (1), depends* (1), do (1), done*
(1), exist (3), existed (4), existed* (1), falls (1), found (1), had (8), happen (4),
have (2), have come (1), lived (1), mean (1), mean* (2), means (7), meant (2),
originate (1), owns (1), remain (3), remained (1), rest (1), sided (1), stayed (2),
themselves (1), there (6), turn (1)."
Also, according to Strong's Greek Dictionary, eg () means:
"I, me.
A primary pronoun of the first person I (only expressed when emphatic) -- I,
me. For the other cases and the plural
see eme, emoi, emou, hemas, hemeis, hemin, hemon, etc."
Also, according to Kypros.org's dictionary, eimai (), which is a sister
word of eimi (), means "have". The following examples prove this:
- "have a good head for" reads in Greek as:
, (eimai kalos se, thymamai kala)
- "have one's hands full"
(eimai apascholimenos)
Also, the same dictionary, Kypros.org's dictionary, declares that eimai

() also means "am":
- am
,
eimai, eimai
Also, according to the otenet.gr online dictionary, eimai () also

means "I am":
- = I am indebted
So eimi () and eimai () can

mean have, am, and few other
meaningsdepending on the sentence
and the context.
See the following for more proofs regarding eimi
().
Furthermore, in other verses in the New Testament, the Greek of the latter word was
translated as "have":
1-
John 3:28 /
, ' .
"You yourselves testify that I said, 'I am not the Christ,' but, 'I have been sent
before him.'"
Furthermore, the following ample English translations further confirm this:
1. John 3:28 (New American Standard Bible)
28 "You yourselves are my witnesses that I said, 'I am not the Christ,' but, 'I
have been sent ahead of Him.'

2. John 3:28 (Amplified Bible)
28 You yourselves are my witnesses [you personally bear me out] that I stated, I
am not the Christ (the Anointed One, the Messiah), but I have [only] been sent
before Him [in advance of Him, to be His appointed forerunner, His messenger,
His announcer].
3. John 3:28 (English Standard Version)
28You yourselves bear me witness, that I said, 'I am not the Christ, but I have
been sent before him.'
4. John 3:28 (New King James Version)
28 You yourselves bear me witness, that I said, I am not the Christ, but, I
have been sent before Him.
5. John 3:28 (Young's Literal Translation)
28 ye yourselves do testify to me that I said, I am not the Christ, but, that I am
having been sent before him;
6. John 3:28 (Holman Christian Standard Bible)
28 You yourselves can testify that I said, 'I am not the Messiah, but I've
been sent ahead of Him.'
7. John 3:28 (New International Reader's Version)
28 You yourselves are witnesses that I said, 'I am not the Christ. I was sent
ahead of him.'
8. John 3:28 (Worldwide English (New Testament))
28 You yourselves heard what I said. I am not the Christ but I have been sent
ahead of the Christ.
So what did we learn here?
1-
, while it means "am", but it could also mean "have been, was", or be used in
reference to something that happened in the past (before the present).
2-
As I already demonstrated in the previous main-section, the context of Jesus'

response clearly and indisputably referred to Jesus have already seen
Abraham before the latter was even born.
3-
So even if you still insist on translating it as "I am", you still couldn't deny that in
both John 3:28 and John 8:58, above, the "I am" was 100% referring to the past,
which in English it would be "I have".
4-
In all of this, there is not a shred of evidence that suggests that Jesus was
declaring to be the "I am What I am" of Yahweh Almighty in Exodus 3.
Even Yahweh's Statement in Exodus 3 is not only unique to Him. How
many billions and trillions of times did humans throughout history and their
lives say I am what I am, or I am who I am? How times did people say things
such as: "Accept me for who I am" and other endless similar statements?
5-
It is clear that those who insist on magnifying Jesus to this level (the level of
Exodus 3), have no evidence whatsoever to support their claim, and they are nothing
but desperate blasphemers. They constantly take gigantic leaps in blasphemy to
prove their false religion of "conjecture", christianity, which Allah Almighty Had
summed up this entire false religion into this Word.
Indeed, the false religion of christianity is no more than a conjecture of men!
(a)-
Jesus didn't even say it in Greek!
Let us also not forget a very very important point here, and that is Jesus did not even
speak these words in Greek. He spoke them in Aramaic, and we do not have the
original texts of Jesus' words. According to the Bible's own theologians, the Bible's
books and gospels [2] [3] were:
2. Written by an unknown number of men.

5. Contain "fictions", and the original manuscripts "had been lost", and contain
"fairy tails and fables".
What we have today from Greek is a mere translation to what Jesus Christ had
supposedly said. Translations are not originals. Thus, we don't even know what
Jesus said in Aramaic to begin with. So the bottom line here is this:
1-
The trinitarians have yet to prove that Jesus did say "I am" in Aramaic.
2-
Jesus did refer to himself as the "I AM" of Yahweh Almighty in Exodus 3:14.
Not only that, but as I explained above, it is odd that when Jesus decided to unveil his
real deity, and claimed to be the "I AM", he ran from the group of people who
wanted to beat him up! This all happened right after Jesus supposedly gave his
Ultimate Statement about his real deity! Of course, Jesus never gave such statement
(the I AM in Exodus 3:14). This is only the trinitarians' desperate wishes and
blasphemies. But what matters here is you! Do you see how twisted and
blasphemous the trinitarians' logic is?
3-
Rebuttal from JewsForJudaism.org:

From http://www.jewsforjudaism.com/web/faq/faq128.html:
Question: Is the author of the Gospel of John claiming that Jesus is part of a
tri-unity god when he has Jesus say, "before Abraham came into being, I am"
(John 8:58)?
Answer: John 8:56-58 states: "'Abraham your father rejoiced to see my day;
and he saw it, and was glad.' The Jews therefore said to him: 'You are not yet
fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?' Jesus said to them: 'Truly,
truly, I say to you, before Abraham came into being, I am.'"

Trinitarians argue that the Greek words ego eimi ("I am"), allegedly spoken
by Jesus (John 8:58), indicate that Jesus is God (see also John 8:24, 28).
They arrive at their contention by connecting the phrase "I am" with the
words spoken by God in Exodus 3:14 and often translated: "I AM THAT I
AM . . . . Thus you shall say to the children of Israel: I AM has sent me to
you." However, the literal and proper translation of this verse is: I WILL BE
WHAT I WILL BE. . . . Thus you shall say to the children of Israel: I WILL
BE has sent me to you."
Since the author of the Gospel of John utilized the Greek Septuagint
translation of the Bible in his writings, it cannot be assumed that John's Jesus
is referring to the words in Exodus 3:14. Although Jesus actually spoke in
Hebrew or Aramaic, not Greek, John recorded Jesus' alleged words in
Greek.Ego eimi ("I am"), used by John's Jesus, is not the same as ho
on ("The Being, The One Who Is"), which is used in the Septuagint's
rendering of Exodus 3:14: "And God spoke to Moses, saying, I am THE
BEING; and He said, Thus you shall say to the children of Israel: THE
BEING has sent me to you." Even though ho on appears in the Gospel of
John, it is never used as a title or name or exclusively as a reference to Jesus.
In the Book of Revelation, also credited to John by Christian
commentators, ho on appears five times (Revelation 1:4, 8; 4:8; 11:17; 16:5).
Significantly, in each instance, it is used as a title or designation applied to
God, not Jesus. Thus: "John to the seven churches that are in Asia: Grace to
you and peace, from Him who is [ho on] and who was and who is to come;
and from the seven spirits who are before His throne" (Revelation 1:4). That
this verse refers to God and not Jesus is seen from the following verse,
which continues the greeting by now including Jesus as one of those sending
greetings. Hence, John says, in verses 4 and 5, that greetings are sent by
God, the seven spirits, and Jesus.
In verse 8, John writes: "'I am the Alpha and the Omega,' says the Lord God,
'who is [ho on] and who was and who is to come, the Almighty'"(Revelation
1:8). This verse also speaks of God, not Jesus. In Revelation 4:8, ho on is
applied to "the Lord God, the Almighty," not Jesus, who, as the "Lamb"
referred to in Revelation 5:6-7, comes to God, who is sitting on His throne.
That they are two separate entities is seen from Revelation 5:13: "To the one
sitting on the throne, and to the Lamb, be blessing and honor and glory and
dominion forever and ever." In addition, ho on is applied to the "Lord God,
the Almighty," not Jesus, in Revelation 11:17 and Revelation 16:5. That ho
on in Revelation 16:5 refers to God and not Jesus can be seen from verse 7,
which, referring to the subject of verses 5 and 6, states: "And I heard the
altar saying: 'Yes, Lord God, the Almighty, true and righteous are Your
judgments.'" These are further indications that ho on and ego eimi are not
used as synonymous terms by John. In John 8:56-58, John is expounding his

belief that Jesus had a prehuman existence as an angelic being in heaven.
John's Jesus is proclaiming here that this prehuman existence began before
Abraham was born: "Before Abraham came into being, I am." The fact of the
matter is that the text does not at all indicate how long Jesus supposedly
lived before Abraham. In no honest way can John's statement be taken to
identify Jesus as God.
4-
Conclusion:
Trinity is once again dealt a big blow that exposed its falsehood and blasphemies.
Trinity is no more than a man-made idol-worship of Jesus Christ. It is a blasphemy
and utterly rejected by GOD Almighty in both the Bible and the Glorious Quran. The
following verses clearly demonstrate this:
"They surely disbelieve who say: Lo! Allah is the third of three; when there is no
God save the One God. If they desist not from so saying a painful doom will fall on
those of them who disbelieve. (The Noble Quran, 5:73)"
"Say: He is God, the One and Only; God, the Eternal, Absolute; He begetteth not,
nor is He begotten; And there is none like unto Him. (The Noble Quran, 112:1-4)"
"Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one. (From the NIV Bible,
Deuteronomy 6:4)"
"The most important one," answered Jesus, "is this: 'Hear, O Israel, the Lord our
God, the Lord is one. (From the NIV Bible, Mark 12:29)"
""Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is goodexcept God alone."
(From the NIV Bible, Mark 10:18)"
"God is not a man, that he should lie, nor a son of man, that he should change his
mind. Does he speak and then not act? Does he promise and not fulfill? (From the
NIV Bible, Numbers 23:19)"
Indeed, Jesus Christ, the man, is only a Messenger from Allah Almighty, and he also
was never crucified. Please visit:
1. Jesus was a Word from the Word.
2. The Overwhelming Scientific Miracles in the Holy Quran.
3. What is Islam?
4. The blessed Jesus in Islam.
5. Answering Trinity.
6. Allah is GOD Almighty's Holy Name in the Bible's original Manuscripts that
were discovered - centuries before Islam.
Also, when we read Jesus' words, what find:
3. Jesus said he doesn't know when the Hour will come. Only GOD Almighty
Knows.
7. Jesus was tempted by satan for 40 days and 40 nights, while GOD Almighty
"can not be tempted!".
Universe.
9. And on and on and on from quotes of Jesus that prove that he is only a
May Allah Almighty enable you to see the Light and the Truth of Islam. And may
Allah Almighty send His Peace, Mercy and Blessings upon our beloved and blessed
Prophet, Teacher and Role Model, Muhammad. Ameen.
The lies of Colossians 1:15-16 and 1 Corinthians

8:6 EXPOSED!
1- Colossians 1:15-16 and 1 Corinthians 8:6.
2- Conclusion.
1-
Colossians 1:15-16 and 1 Corinthians 8:6:
Note: Below we will clearly see how, ironically, 1 Corinthians 8:6 exposes the
lie and mistranslation of Colossians 1:15-16.
During my debate with him, I challenged James White to show us where in the
ENTIRE BIBLE was Jesus or the Messiah ever called Yahweh. James White
gave Colossians 1:15-16 andCorinthians 8:6 as a "proof", which we will shortly see
how the latter exposes the former's deliberate mistranslation.
As you slowly and surely discover the lies of trinity and trinitarians, you'll then surely
realize that this is all what the polytheist trinitarian pagans have:
1. Lies.
2. Deliberate Distortions and Mistranslations.
3. Desperation to prove the false trinity, which the word itself, trinity, does not
even exist in the entire Bible!
Before I get into the details of the verses, I just want to say that you know,
Christianity is full of ridiculous mistranslations and absurd contradictions. When one
looks at this verse, he would immediately think that Jesus Christ is the Creator of
the Universe. Yet, when we read Jesus' words, what find:
Knows.

Universe.
9. And on and on and on from quotes of Jesus that prove that he is only a
With this said, let us now look at the verses in question:
Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and
invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by
him and for him.
There are few important points to notice here:
1- Jesus being the "image" of GOD is nothing new nor unique in the Bible. Man
too was created from the Image of GOD Almighty in the Old Testament. And the
"Image" of GOD Almighty is clearly defined also in the Old Testament to be His
Holiness.
Righteousness.
Goodness.
So Jesus Christ being the Image of GOD Almighty does not make him GOD Almighty
Himself. And again, Jesus himself said that no one in the entire Universe can has
a Goodness like that of GOD Almighty, and I (Jesus Christ) included. So Jesus Christ
clearly has only the Likeness of GOD Almighty and not the actual and exact
Attributes of GOD Almighty.
2- Jesus being the "firstborn" of GOD Almighty, again, is nothing new nor unique
in the Bible. Many in the Old Testament were too called "firstborns" of GOD
Almighty:
Exodus 4:22 "Thus saith Jehovah, Israel is my son, even my firstborn."
Jeremiah 31:9 "I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is my firstborn."
Psalm 2:7 "....Jehovah had said onto me (David), thou art my Son; this day
have I begotten thee."
Not only many were called "firstborn" and "Son" of GOD Almighty, but they were
also called GODs:
From http://www.answering-christianity.com/godtitle.htm:
Psalm 82:6 "I said, 'You are "gods"; you are all sons of the Most High.' "
"gods" here in Hebrew is "Elohim", which is plural of "EL". It is the same
exact thing as "EL" used for Jesus in Isaiah 9:6, since "gods" is a combination
of several "EL"s. And as clearly shown here, for someone to be called "god" or
"God" in the Bible it wouldn't make him GOD Almighty Himself, the LORD or
Jehovah. I also want to point out that ANY "Son of GOD" in the Bible is a
"god" or "God" as clearly shown in Psalm 82:6.
So again, Jesus being called GOD Almighty's "firstborn" does not make him GOD
Almighty Himself.
3- "For by him all things were created" If this verse was talking about Jesus Christ,
then this verse is a lie according to Jesus Christ himself in the links I gave above. In
fact, 1 Corinthians 8:6below further proves that this verse could be about Jesus
Christ. If this verse was talking about Yahweh Almighty, whom Jesus was created in
His Image, then we have nothing to disagree on here. The verse is certainly too
ambiguous. It is not crystal clear about Jesus Christ. But be as it may, there are few
important points that we must take into account when evaluating false, mistranslated
and man-made fraudulent verses, mis-interpretations and/or mistranslations like this:
If the verses are referring to only earth and its sky and authorities, then we
have met half-way, because while in Islam, we have no disagreement that Jesus
Christ will eventually rule and dominate the entire planet earth as also
mentioned in the Old Testament, which would then go in perfect harmony with
the "all things (on earth) were created for him", but I still have strong
disagreement with "all things were created BY him" if we were to assume that
the quote is about Jesus and not about Yahweh Almighty.
The Book of Colossians is claimed to have been written by Paul. Paul is
known to be a fraud who admittedly wasn't even sure if the "spirit" that was
inspiring him was the Holy Spirit or not [2] [3].
The Bible's books and gospels, according to its own translators and
theologians, were
1. Do contain alterations, fables and man-made injections in them.
6. Paul never even met Jesus Christ in person while the latter was on earth.
It is falsely claimed that Jesus appeared to Paul while Paul was on his
way to Damascus after the "crucifixion" (Acts 9:2-4. Note: Paul's
name used to be Saul. Yet, Paul admittedly wasn't even sure whether
the Holy Spirit was inspiring him or not).
7. None of the disciples, even in the false writings attributed to them, ever
claimed that their writings were inspired or Divine. Not only that, but
we even ironically see that:
Luke for instance, wrote his "gospel" for the sake of another
person and not GOD Almighty. See below for details.
The disciples even fought with each others [1] [2].
We read about direct invitations to dinner and other occasions
between the disciples in the "books" [1].
According to the commentaries below, all of the books of the
bible were altered and corrupted.
The Bible's own theologians even admit that the bible

contains "fictions", its original manuscripts "had been
lost", and contains "fairy tails and fables".
8. And, it is also an indisputable fact that the Bible:

Is filled with ample contradictions, man's alterations, corruption,
and false scientific absurdities.
Is written in third-party narrations, which is why we find in all of
the gospels' titles "This gospel according to....", and countless
verses that speak about the disciples and about their activities in
third-party narrations [1] [2] [3] [4], which proves that the books
and gospels were certainly not written by them.
This also means that much gossips and exaggerations and
fabrications were made up and inserted into the books and
gospels. So even if, for instance, some people back then
thought that Jesus was crucified, they in reality never
actually saw it. It could very well be that they've only
heard about it from a neighboring town and believed it.
There are certainly in the books and gospels:
Too much gossips.

Too wide of date gaps by the decades [1] [2] [3] [4]
between when the supposed event took place and
when it was actually written, by hand, in the corrupt
gospels.
Too many unknown people wrote the stories.
Too many Prophecies in the Old Testament that
promise that Jesus Christ, the Messiah, will be saved
from the crucifixion.
Too many mistranslations and desperate
misinterpretations in Isaiah 53 and elsewhere.
This also means that the books and gospels were definitely
not inspired by GOD Almighty. Paul, again, even admits
that he had his delusions and doubts.
So now based on what objective grounds should we reject the claim about the Bible's
New Testament's accounts being mostly false and fabricated by men?
4-
It is also quite possible that those who inserted their own corruption in the books
of Colossians and 1 Corinthians misunderstood Jesus Origins. Jesus was CREATED
from the Word. Jesus was a Word from the Word according to both the New
Testament and the Holy Quran. Since GOD Almighty's Word creates all things
through His Dividne Command when He, the Almighty, Says for something: "Be"
and it becomes, then it is quite possible that the corruptors of the Bible thought that
Jesus was the entire Word of GOD Almighty; something that is both wrong and
blasphemous according to Jesus Christ himself as shown in the links above.
1 Corinthians 8:6
6 yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for
whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things
came and through whom we live.
There are few important points to notice here:
1-
Do you see the difference between "from" and "through" for GOD Almighty
and Jesus Christ, respectively?
2-
Clearly, GOD Almighty is the Creator of the Universe and everything, and Jesus
Christ is a CREATION of GOD Almighty whom his followers will receive salvation
through him; through the message that he brought down from GOD Almighty.
3-
Do not be fooled by the Bible's ridiculous symbolic languages. Remember above

how people were called "firstborns", "Sons of GOD", and even "GODs"? This is
certainly no different.
4-
And again, it is also quite possible that those who inserted their own corruption in
the books of Colossians and 1 Corinthians misunderstood Jesus Origins. Jesus was
CREATED from the Word. Jesus was a Word from the Word according to both the
New Testament and the Holy Quran. Since GOD Almighty's Word creates all things
through His Dividne Command when He, the Almighty, Says for something: "Be"
and it becomes, then it is quite possible that the corruptors of the Bible thought that
Jesus was the entire Word of GOD Almighty; something that is both wrong and
blasphemous according to Jesus Christ himself as shown in the links above.
2-
Conclusion:
Trinity is one of history's biggest lies, Jesus was never called Yahweh in the entire
Bible, and the Bible's corrupt books and gospels were:
1. Do contain alterations, fables and man-made injections in them.

Such falsehood can not be from GOD Almighty, nor the Divine Truth and Word of
GOD Almighty. Islam is the Divine Truth of GOD Almighty. I strongly recommend
visiting the following links:
2. What is Islam?
I also want to end this rebuttal with the following verses from the Holy Quran, and the
Bible's Old and New Testaments:
Deuteronomy 6:4)"
Indeed, Jesus Christ, the man, is only a Messenger from Allah Almighty, and he was
never crucified.
Was Jesus Christ, even according to him, really the Lord of the
Sabbath (Saturday)?
1- The importance of the Sabbath.
2- Jesus' explanation and excuses for breaking the Sabbath.
3- Do you honestly see any trinity in any of this??
4- Jesus showed a great deal of ignorance about the story of the man who was put to
death in Numbers 15:32-36.
5- Conclusion.
1-
The importance of the Sabbath:
Trinitarian Christians are too desperate to prove their blaspheme about Jesus being the
Creator of the Universe. All Praise and Glory are due to Allah Almighty Alone and
only Alone, every single lie and deliberate mistranslation of theirs had been
thoroughly refuted at the Answering Trinity section and elsewhere on the net. One of
these desperate and ridiculous lies is the lie of Jesus Christ being the Lord of the
Sabbath supposedly proves that he is GOD Almighty. Let us examine the following
verses and sections to see if this claim really stands up to scrutiny or not.
Exodus 20:8
8 "Remember the Sabbath day by keeping it holy.
9 Six days you shall labor and do all your work,
10 but the seventh day is a Sabbath to the LORD your God. On it you shall not
do any work, neither you, nor your son or daughter, nor your manservant or
maidservant, nor your animals, nor the alien within your gates.
11 For in six days the LORD made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and all that is in
them, but he rested on the seventh day. Therefore the LORD blessed the Sabbath
day and made it holy.
Exodus 31:14-15
14 " 'Observe the Sabbath, because it is holy to you. Anyone who desecrates it must
be put to death; whoever does any work on that day must be cut off from his people.
15 For six days, work is to be done, but the seventh day is a Sabbath of rest, holy to
the LORD. Whoever does any work on the Sabbath day must be put to death.
There ample more verses that I could provide, but these verses should be enough to
demonstrate that the Sabbath (Saturday) is big deal in the Bible's Old Testament, and
the punishment for any work done in it is death.
2-
Jesus' explanation and excuses for breaking

the Sabbath:
Jesus Christ in the Bible's New Testament explained why he broke the Sabbath:
Man is the Lord of the Sabbath:
Mark 2:27-28
27 Then he said to them, "The Sabbath was made for man, not man for the
Sabbath.
28 So the Son of Man is Lord even of the Sabbath."
The Priests desecrated the Sabbath, and therefore, Jesus also could:
Matthew 12:4-6
4 He entered the house of God, and he and his companions ate the consecrated bread
which was not lawful for them to do, but only for the priests.
5 Or haven't you read in the Law that on the Sabbath the priests in the temple
desecrate the day and yet are innocent?
6 I tell you that one greater than the temple is here.
Children could be circumcised on the Sabbath, and thus, Jesus also could break
it:
John 7:23
23 Now if a child can be circumcised on the Sabbath so that the law of Moses may
not be broken, why are you angry with me for healing the whole man on the
Sabbath?
David and his companions also broke the Sabbath:
Luke 6:1-11
1 One Sabbath Jesus was going through the grainfields, and his disciples began to
pick some heads of grain, rub them in their hands and eat the kernels.
2 Some of the Pharisees asked, "Why are you doing what is unlawful on the
Sabbath?"
3 Jesus answered them, "Have you never read what David did when he and his
companions were hungry?
4 He entered the house of God, and taking the consecrated bread, he ate what is
lawful only for priests to eat. And he also gave some to his companions."
5 Then Jesus said to them, "The Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath."
6 On another Sabbath he went into the synagogue and was teaching, and a man was
there whose right hand was shriveled.
7 The Pharisees and the teachers of the law were looking for a reason to accuse Jesus,
so they watched him closely to see if he would heal on the Sabbath.
8 But Jesus knew what they were thinking and said to the man with the shriveled
hand, "Get up and stand in front of everyone." So he got up and stood there.
9 Then Jesus said to them, "I ask you, which is lawful on the Sabbath: to do good
or to do evil, to save life or to destroy it?"
10 He looked around at them all, and then said to the man, "Stretch out your hand."
He did so, and his hand was completely restored.
11But they were furious and began to discuss with one another what they might do to
Jesus.
Mark 2:23-28
23 One Sabbath Jesus was going through the grainfields, and as his disciples walked
along, they began to pick some heads of grain.
24 The Pharisees said to him, "Look, why are they doing what is unlawful on the
Sabbath?"
25 He answered, "Have you never read what David did when he and his
companions were hungry and in need?
26 In the days of Abiathar the high priest, he entered the house of God and ate the
consecrated bread, which is lawful only for priests to eat. And he also gave some to
his companions."
27 Then he said to them, "The Sabbath was made for man, not man for the
Sabbath.
28 So the Son of Man is Lord even of the Sabbath."
So what do we see here:
1-
In these passages, we see Jesus himself explained why he broke the Sabbath. It is
not because he is GOD Almighty. He never claimed it, and it is indeed a lie. It is
rather because the Sabbath was broken before by Moses, David, and a number of
Companions and Priests.
23-
Jesus also said that good had always been allowed to be done in the Sabbath.
Jesus also said that the Sabbath was discontinued and violated a long long time
ago, and that he wasn't the first one to do so.
4-
Jesus also said that man, in general, is the Lord of the Sabbath (Mark 2:27-28,
Luke 6:5).
3-
Do you honestly see any trinity in any of

this??
I must ask you this question: Do you honestly see any thing in here that suggests that
Jesus Christ is GOD Almighty?? Do you now see why Jesus is the Lord of the
Sabbath? It is because man had always been the Lord of the Sabbath. It is not
because Jesus is GOD. This is no more than a desperate lie that was invented by the
polytheist trinitarian pagans like the rest of theirdesperate lies, deliberate
mistranslations, and false conclusions.
When we read Jesus' own words throughout the Bible, we find:
Knows.
Universe.
9. Jesus was CREATED from the Word. Jesus was a Word from the
Word according to both the New Testament and the Holy Quran. Since GOD
Almighty's Word creates all things through His Dividne Command when He,
the Almighty, Says for something: "Be" and it becomes, then it is quite
possible that the corruptors of the Bible thought that Jesus was the entire Word
of GOD Almighty; something that is both wrong and blasphemous according to
Jesus Christ himself as shown in the links above.
10.Jesus being the "image" of GOD is nothing new nor unique in the
Bible. Man too was created from the Image of GOD Almighty in the Old
Testament. And the "Image" of GOD Almighty is clearly defined also in the
Old Testament to be His
o Holiness.
o Righteousness.
o Goodness.
11. The lies of Colossians 1:15-16 and 1 Corinthians 8:6 EXPOSED!
12.And on and on and on from quotes of Jesus that prove that he is only a
13.Isaiah 53, Psalm 91, Psalm 116 and Psalm 118 all declare that Jesus Christ
WILL NOT BE CRUCIFIED!
Trinity is one of history's biggest lies, Jesus was never called Yahweh in the entire
Bible, and the Bible's corrupt books and gospels were:
Such falsehood can not be from GOD Almighty, nor the Divine Truth and Word of
GOD Almighty. Islam is the Divine Truth of GOD Almighty. I strongly recommend
visiting the following links:
2. What is Islam?
Again, the Bible's books and gospels, according to its own translators and theologians,
were

5. Paul never even met Jesus Christ in person while the latter was on earth. It is
falsely claimed that Jesus appeared to Paul while Paul was on his way to
Damascus after the "crucifixion" (Acts 9:2-4. Note: Paul's name used to be
Saul. Yet, Paul admittedly wasn't even sure whether the Holy Spirit was
inspirning him or not).
claimed that their writings were inspired or Divine. Not only that, but we even
ironically see that:
o Luke for instance, wrote his "gospel" for the sake of another person and
not GOD Almighty. See below for details.
o The disciples even fought with each others [1] [2].
o We read about direct invitations to dinner and other occasions between
the disciples in the "books" [1].
o According to the commentaries below, all of the books of the bible were
altered and corrupted.
The Bible's own theologians even admit that the bible contains
"fictions", its original manuscripts "had been lost", and contains
7. And, it is also an indisputable fact that the Bible:

o Is filled with ample contradictions, man's alterations, corruption, and
false scientific absurdities.
o Is written in third-party narrations, which is why we find in all of the
gospels' titles "This gospel according to....", and countless verses that
speak about the disciples and about their activities in third-party

narrations [1] [2] [3] [4], which proves that the books and gospels were
certainly not written by them.
This also means that much gossips and exaggerations and
fabrications were made up and inserted into the books and
gospels. So even if, for instance, some people back then thought
that Jesus was crucified, they in reality never actually saw it. It
could very well be that they've only heard about it from a
neighboring town and believed it. There are certainly in the books
and gospels:
Too much gossips.
Too wide of date gaps by the decades [1] [2] [3] [4]
between when the supposed event took place and when it
was actually written, by hand, in the corrupt gospels.
Too many Prophecies in the Old Testament that promise
that Jesus Christ, the Messiah, will be saved from the
crucifixion.
Too many mistranslations and desperate misinterpretations
in Isaiah 53 and elsewhere.
This also means that the books and gospels were definitely not
inspired by GOD Almighty. Paul, again, even admits that he
had his delusions and doubts.
New Testament's accounts being mostly false and fabricated by men?
4-
Jesus showed a great deal of ignorance

about the story of the man who was put to death
inNumbers 15:32-36:
From www.answeringchristianity.com/abrogation_in_bible.htm:
5- Can the Bible followers work

on Saturday or not?
(Jesus showed a great deal of ignorance about the story of the man
who was put to death in Numbers 15:32-36)
Did Jesus really know the Law of Moses?

In the Old Testament, we read:
"32Once, while the Israelites were traveling through the
desert, a man was caught gathering firewood on the
Sabbath. 33He was taken to Moses, Aaron, and the rest of the
community. 34But no one knew what to do with him, so he
was not allowed to leave. 35Then the LORD said to Moses,
" Tell the people to take that man outside the camp
and stone him to death!" 36So he was killed, just as the
LORD had commanded Moses." (CEV Bible, Numbers 15:3236)
"14-15Keep the Sabbath holy. You have six days to do your
work, but the Sabbath is mine, and it must remain a day of
rest. If you work on the Sabbath, you will no longer be part
of my people, and you will be put to death." (CEV
Bible, Exodus 31:14-15)

"8Remember that the Sabbath Day belongs to me. 9You have
six days when you can do your work, 10but the seventh day of
each week belongs to me, your God. No one is to work on
that day--not you, your children, your slaves, your animals,
or the foreigners who live in your towns." (CEV
Bible, Exodus 20:8-10)
In the New Testament, we read:
"9Jesus left and went into one of the Jewish meeting places,
10where there was a man whose hand was crippled. Some
Pharisees wanted to accuse Jesus of doing something wrong,
and they asked him, "Is it right to heal someone on the
Sabbath?" 11Jesus answered, "If you had a sheep that fell into
a ditch on the Sabbath, wouldn't you lift it out? 12People are
worth much more than sheep, and so it is right to do good on
the Sabbath." 13Then Jesus told the man, "Hold out your
hand." The man did, and it became as healthy as the other
one." (CEV Bible, Matthew 12:9-13)
"23One Sabbath Jesus and his disciples were walking
through some wheat fields. His disciples were picking
grains of wheat as they went along. 24Some Pharisees asked
Jesus, "Why are your disciples picking grain on the Sabbath?
They are not supposed to do that!" 25Jesus answered, "Haven't
you read what David did when he and his followers were
hungry and in need? 26It was during the time of Abiathar the
high priest. David went into the house of God and ate the
sacred loaves of bread that only priests are allowed to eat. He
also gave some to his followers." 27Jesus finished by saying,
"People were not made for the good of the Sabbath. The
Sabbath was made for the good of people. 28So the Son of
Man is Lord over the Sabbath."" (CEV Bible, Mark 2:23-28)
We see how in Numbers 15, the man lost his life for gathering
firewood on Saturday, perhaps because the weather was either very
cold or the man needed to cook food with it. From the context of
the verse, we clearly see that the man's work was a necessity. Yet,
We see Jesus saying that "it's right to do good on the Sabbath"? I
totally understand Jesus' example of the sheep falling into the well
on Saturday. In emergency cases, whether it be the house catching
fire, or the enemies attacking, or a sheep drowning in a well, it
becomes necessary and permissible to break the Sabbath. But to do
general work on the Sabbath is clearly forbidden in the Mosaic Law,

and a man lost his life for it! Yet, we see Jesus showing ignorance
about this. We also see his disciples picking up grains of wheat
and his excuse for them was that David and his followers did
similar things? Again, Jesus showed a great deal of
ignoranceabout the man in the Old Testament who lost his life for
merely collecting firewood on the Sabbath.
Also, Jesus statement: "The Sabbath was made for the good of
people" also shows a great deal of ignorance about the story of the
man who was put to death, because in the case of the man, the
Sabbath wasn't any good for him. It brought death upon him for
simply collecting necessary firewood!
Now, was it really Jesus Christ who was ignorant, or was it
the writers who wrote this on the mouth of Jesus and his disciples
who fabricated all of this on their own?
More verses about the New Testament abrogating the

Old Testament regarding the Sabbath:
No:
"Ye shall keep the sabbath therefore; for it is holy unto you:
every one that defileth it shall surely be put to death: for
whosoever doeth any work therein, that soul shall be cut off
from among his people. (Exodus 31:14)"
"Six days may work be done; but in the seventh is the sabbath
of rest, holy to the LORD: whosoever doeth any work in the
sabbath day, he shall surely be put to death. (Exodus
31:15)"
"Six days shall work be done, but on the seventh day there
shall be to you an holy day, a sabbath of rest to the
LORD:whosoever doeth work therein shall be put to
death. (Exodus 35:2)"
Yes:
"And it was the sabbath day when Jesus made the clay, and
opened his eyes. (John 9:14)"

John 7:22-24
22 Moses therefore gave unto you circumcision; (not because
it is of Moses, but of the fathers;) and ye on the sabbath day
circumcise a man.
23 If a man on the sabbath day receive circumcision, that the
law of Moses should not be broken; are ye angry at me,
because I have made a man every whit whole on the
sabbath day?
24 Judge not according to the appearance, but judge righteous
judgment.
Mark 6:1-3
1 And he went out from thence, and came into his own
country; and his disciples follow him.
2 And when the sabbath day was come, he began to teach
in the synagogue: and many hearing him were astonished,
saying, From whence hath this man these things? and what
wisdom is this which is given unto him, that even such mighty
works are wrought by his hands?
3 Is not this the carpenter, the son of Mary, the brother of
James, and Joses, and of Juda, and Simon? and are not his
sisters here with us? And they were offended at him.
For more verses and analysis, please visit: Was Jesus Christ, even
according to him, really the Lord of the Sabbath (Saturday)?
5-
Conclusion:
It is clear that Jesus being the Lord of the Sabbath doesn't prove that he is GOD
Almighty. The polytheist trinitarian pagans and infidels are too desperate to prove
Jesus is GOD Almighty. This false desperation is clear blaspheme. Jesus was no
GOD, and man had always been the Lord of the Sabbath according to Jesus Christ
himself.
In the end, I'd like to end this article with the following verses from the Holy Quran,
and the Bible's Old and New Testaments:
Deuteronomy 6:4)"
Indeed, Jesus Christ, the man, is only a Messenger from Allah Almighty, and he
was never crucified.
The Crucifixion and Resurrection were never prophesied in the

Bible's Old Testament:
1- Ample Prophesies in the Old Testament about the Messiah getting saved from
crucifixion.
(a)- Psalm 91 is not just limited to the foot striking the rock!
(b)- The Crucifixion is Symbolic in the New Testament.
(c)- Indisputable errors and contradictions in the Crucifixion and Resurrection
Accounts!
2- Isaiah 53 and its mistranslations.
(a)- Isaiah 53's symbolic speeches - Detailed analysis on every verse.
(b)- Isaiah 53:12.
3- The crucifixion would've broken at least one bone and refuted John 19:30-40!
4- Islam denies the crucifixion and much of the Bible agrees.
- Jesus was never "disfigured" to a point "beyond human likeness"!
5- GOD Almighty Changed His Mind a lot throughout the Bible.
6- The Jews' view on Isaiah 53.
7- Conclusion. (Must read!!)
8- Rebuttals.
(a)- Detailed rebuttal on Isaiah 53.
(b)- Rebuttal from the New Testament.
1-
Ample Prophesies in the Old Testament

about the Messiah getting saved from
crucifixion:
You would expect that major events such as the crucifixion and the resurrection of
Christ, that make up the entire case for Christianity, to be at least prophesied in the
Bible's Old Testament clearly, without any ambiguity, and without any deliberate
mistranslations and lies. But the Truth and the sad reality for the believers in the
crucifixion, who are too also desperate to prove trinity even though the word itself,
"trinity", doesn't even exist in the entire Bible, is that these major events, the
crucifixion and the resurrection, were never mentioned in the entire Old Testament.
The following Biblical verses that further refute the crucifixion and resurrection lies:
Being lifted and saved:
Luke 4:10-12
10 For the Scriptures say, He will order his angels to protect and guard you.
11 And they will hold you up with their hands so you wont even hurt your foot
on a stone.
12 Jesus responded, The Scriptures also say, You must not test the Lord your
God.
Matthew 4:5-10
5 Then the devil took him to the holy city, Jerusalem, to the highest point of the
Temple,
6 and said, If you are the Son of God, jump off! For the Scriptures say, He will
order his angels to protect you. And they will hold you up with their hands so you
wont even hurt your foot on a stone.
7 Jesus responded, The Scriptures also say, You must not test the Lord your
God.
8 Next the devil took him to the peak of a very high mountain and showed him all the
kingdoms of the world and their glory.
9 I will give it all to you, he said, if you will kneel down and worship me.
10 Get out of here, Satan, Jesus told him. For the Scriptures say, You must
worship the Lord your God and serve only him.
Please visit: Psalm 91 clearly confirms that Jesus never got crucified.
There are few points to notice in these verses:
1-
Notice how satan referred to Psalm 91 regarding the protection of Jesus.
2-
Notice how Jesus confirmed that Psalm 91 was indeed speaking about him by
saying "the Scriptures also say..." (Luke 4:12 and Matthew 4:7).
3-
As we will see in the sections below, Psalm 91 is not just concerned with
preventing Christ or the Messiah from striking his feet against the ground. This is the
least point the chapter is concerned with. The chapter concentrated heavily on:
(see the following sub-section's points)
(a)-
Psalm 91 is not just limited to the foot

striking the rock!
The following table contains all of Psalm 91 and detailed analysis about its key
verses. Notice how the New Testament in Luke 4:10-11 and Matthew 4:5-6 and in
many other places completely misquoted and misunderstood Psalm 91. Psalm 91 and
its verses are not just concerned about Jesus' striking of his feet against a rock (Psalm
91:12). That is a lie and a clear fabrication! [1] [2] This piece is very minor in the
chapter, because the chapter is more focused on:
GOD Almighty will hear his cries (Psalm 91:15) and will save him (Psalm
91:3).
GOD Almighty will cover him with His Protection ( Psalm 91:4).
Christ will then not have any fear in him ( Psalm 91:5).
Christ will then observe with his own eyes the punishment of the
crucified ones (Psalm 91:8).
No harm (this includes crucifixion!) or disaster will even come near
Christ (Psalm 91:10....this even contradicts him getting beaten up before
crucifixion).
GOD Almighty will send down the Angels to protect him and lift
him (Psalm 91:11-12, 14, Isaiah 52:13). Not even his foot will strike the
ground from his enemies pushing, grappling and punishment.
Christ's call will be HEARD, and he will be delivered and
honored (Psalm 91:15, Isaiah 52:13). No way would these verses be valid if
Christ got crucified.
His life will be prolonged (extended) and he will live to even see his
offspring (Isaiah 53:10 and Psalm 91:16, which by the way contradict Jesus
never got married and had children. In Islam's Noble Quran's 13:38, however,
it is quite possible that Jesus Christ had wives and children).
His life will overpower death (Isaiah 53:12).
"Death" in Isaiah 53:9 is proven to be symbolic using the Hebrew
Lexicon and several English translations, and it never meant a literal death.
Important Note: Psalm 91 is speaking as a number of Prophecies
that WILL take place. Notice how the verses are speak of future events
that WILL TAKE PLACE. Never once throughout the entire New Testament
were the Angels sent to save Jesus from striking his foot against a rock. This,
again, clearly proves that the NT is indeed false and corrupt.
Here is Psalm 91 that Luke 4:10-11 and Matthew 4:56 link to Jesus:
(Pay attention to the red text below, especially in Psalm 91:1112, 15 and the others)
Psalm 91
1 He who dwells in the shelter of the Most High will rest in the
shadow of the Almighty. [a]
2 I will say [b] of the LORD, "He is my refuge and my fortress,
my God, in whom I trust."
3 Surely he will save you from the fowler's snare and from the
deadly pestilence.
4 He will cover you with his feathers, and under his wings you
will find refuge; his faithfulness will be your shield and

rampart.
5 You will not fear the terror of night, nor the arrow that flies
by day,
6 nor the pestilence that stalks in the darkness, nor the plague
that destroys at midday.
7 A thousand may fall at your side, ten thousand at your right
hand, but it will not come near you.
8 You will only observe with your eyes and see the
punishment of the wicked.
(According to the Noble Quran and the original
writings of the Disciples of Jesus, Jesus was not
crucified, and he watched the crucifixion of the
doomed person.
Also, according to the Apocalypse of Peter that
was discovered in Egypt, Jesus sat on the tree and
watched the crucified one getting crucified. Peter
witnessed this and wrote the Apocalypse. Not only
that, but while Christians insist that the book is a
Gnostic one, but according to Wikipedia.org,"It is
unclear whether this text advocates
an adoptionist (Jesus was Divine)
or docetist (Jesus' body and crucifixion were an
illusion) christology".
So there is no proof that the book is Gnostic.)
9 If you make the Most High your dwelling even the LORD,
who is my refuge10 then no harm will befall you, no disaster will come near
your tent.
11 For he will command his angels concerning you to guard
you in all your ways;
12 they will lift you up in their hands, so that you will not
strike your foot against a stone.
(If Jesus died on the cross and got buried, then his feet would've
struck the ground and the stones on it from bringing him
down,throwing him on the floor and burying him).

13 You will tread upon the lion and the cobra; you will trample
the great lion and the serpent.
14 "Because he loves me," says the LORD, "I will rescue
him; I will protect him, for he acknowledges my name.
15 He will call upon me, and I will answer him; I will be with
him in trouble, I will deliver him and honor him.
16 With long life will I satisfy him and show him my
salvation."
Footnotes:
a. Psalm 91:1 Hebrew Shaddai
b. Psalm 91:2 Or He says
There is no question!
There is no question that the emphasized parts above, especially
in Psalm 91:11-12, 15 and others, clearly and indisputably agree
with the Noble Quran and Isaiah 52:13! Jesus was neither
crucified nor resurrected, and he was protected and lifted by
GOD Almighty. Also, the New Testament, again, confirms
that Psalm 91 is referring to Jesus Christ.
GOD Almighty will hear his cries (Psalm 91:15) and
will save him (Psalm 91:3).
GOD Almighty will cover him with His Protection
(Psalm 91:4).
Christ will then not have any fear in him (Psalm
91:5).
Christ will then observe with his own eyes the
punishment of the crucified ones (Psalm 91:8).
No harm (this includes crucifixion!) or disaster
will even come near Christ (Psalm 91:10....this even

contradicts him getting beaten up before crucifixion).
GOD Almighty will send down the Angels to protect
him and lift him (Psalm 91:11-12, 14, Isaiah 52:13). Not
even his foot will strike the ground from his enemies
pushing, grappling and punishment.
Christ's call will be HEARD, and he will
be delivered and honored (Psalm 91:15, Isaiah
52:13). No way would these verses be valid if Christ
got crucified.
His life will be prolonged (extended) and he will live
to even see his offspring (Isaiah 53:10 and Psalm 91:16,
which by the way contradict Jesus never got married and
had children. In Islam's Noble Quran's 13:38, however,
it is quite possible that Jesus Christ had wives and
children).
His life will overpower death (Isaiah 53:12).
"Death" in Isaiah 53:9 is proven to be
symbolic using the Hebrew Lexicon and several English
translations, and it never meant a literal death.
Important Note: Psalm 91 is speaking as a number
of Prophecies that WILL take place. Notice how the
verses are speak of future events that WILL TAKE
PLACE. Never once throughout the entire New
Testament were the Angels sent to save Jesus from
striking his foot against a rock. This, again, clearly
proves that the NT is indeed false and corrupt.
Lifting up those who bow down:

Psalm 145:14
The LORD upholds all those who fall and lifts up all who are bowed down.
Psalm 146:8
the LORD gives sight to the blind, the LORD lifts up those who are bowed down,
the LORD loves the righteous.
Isaiah 52:13
13 See, my servant will act wisely ; he will be raised and lifted up and highly
exalted.
Please visit: Jesus bowed down to GOD Almighty begging Him to save him from
the crucifixion.
GOD Almighty Saving His annointed King and saving those who take refuge in
Him:
Psalm 20:6
6 Now I know that the Lord saves his anointed king. He answers him from his
holy heaven. The power of God's right hand saves the king.
Psalm 17:7
Show the wonder of your great love, you who save by your right hand those who
take refuge in you from their foes.
Psalm 18:3
I call to the LORD, who is worthy of praise, and I am saved from my enemies.
Psalm 9:13
O LORD, see how my enemies persecute me! Have mercy and lift me up from the
gates of death,
Psalm 30:1
[ A psalm. A song. For the dedication of the temple. Of David. ] I will exalt you, O
LORD, for you lifted me out of the depths and did not let my enemies gloat over me.
Note: The Psalms of David, while they are narrated by him, but they do contain many
prophecies about the coming of Jesus Christ or the Messiah. The New Testament had
made many references to many of the Psalms verses and linked them to Jesus Christ.
It is also interesting to know that King David was never killed by his enemies.
Therefore, the speech in Psalm 9:13 and Psalm 30:1 refer to a live man and not a man
who died. Notice how David said:
1- "I will exalt you, O LORD, for you lifted me out of the depths and did not let my
enemies gloat over me."
2- "Have mercy and lift me up from the gates of death".

The two quotes indicate that David cried out to GOD Almighty for help, and GOD
Almighty lifted him from the enemies' defeat and death. In other words, David
was victorious and was never killed or put to death by them. Remember that King
David was never killed by his enemies. He was lifted up by GOD Almighty and was
made victorious over them.
Therefore, it is also safe to say that GOD Almighty's Commands about "saving" and "
sending down the Angels to lift up" Christ from his enemies, in Psalm 91 and the rest
of the Psalm verses above, also undoubtebly prove that Jesus Christ indeed never got
crucified and was indeed saved from crucifixion and death.
(a)-
Isaiah 53's symbolic speeches:

(Most of the following points were taken from brother Musa's
rebuttal; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him)
1-
Isaiah 53:3 says that "Jesus" is despised by all men. In Luke

10:1, Jesus has at least 70 followers, and in other verses we're told
that he fed and healed thousands (John 6:9-11, Luke 17:11-
19 and other verses).
2-
In Isaiah 53:5 it says he was wounded for our transgressions.

Now right away one might assume this is the death of
Jesus. However it says he was WOUNDED not killed. But let
us go with killed for your arguments sake. This is not what this
verse is saying. It is saying that they made a mistake so he is
paying for it. They plotted or accused against him. This is
exactly what happened. And again, the verse says wounded,
which further proves that Christ was never killed.
3-
Isaiah 53:7 states that "he did not open his mouth". There are
two possible interpretations and answers to this:
1. Jesus never literally spoke a single word during the
crucifixion trial. This is obviously wrong because Jesus
spoke during his trial with both Pontius Pilot and the
Jews. And we all know Jesus' famous and final cry to
GOD Almighty when he said: "Eloi Eloi lama
sabachtani!", which translates: "My GOD my GOD, why
have you forsaken me?" (Matthew 27:46) So wrong. He
did open his mouth.
2. Jesus did not object to GOD Almighty's Will. This is also
wrong, because again, Jesus cried during the
crucifixion "My GOD my GOD why have you forsaken
me?", and he also prayed ENDLESSLY to GOD Almighty
on the night of the crucifixion to not get crucified!
(Matthew 16:39, Matthew 26:36-44, Luke 6:12) He even
bowed down his face to Allah Almighty in worship
endless times begging Him for a change in Decision. So
yes, Jesus did object.
4-
Isaiah 53:8's English translation falsely states "he will be cut

off from the land of the living". See below in my rebutttals
section where I've proven from the NIV Bible's commentary itself
that the Hebrew word says
"He will
be thrown in jail."
5-
Isaiah 53:9 says that he made his grave with the wicked and
the rich. According to http://scripturetext.com/isaiah/53-9.htm:
"in his death" is a translation to the Hebrew Mawth. This word is
symbolic as further confirmed in the Hebrew lexicon:
"in his death
maveth (maw'-veth)
death (natural or violent); concretely, the dead, their place
or state (hades); figuratively, pestilence, ruin -- (be)
dead(-ly), death, die(-d)."
(http://scripturetext.com/isaiah/53-9.htm)
So in his death here is symbolically referring to his
execution trial and not necessarily his physical and
literal death. This is further proven in Young's Literal
Translation of the verse:
He was assigned a grave with the wicked, and with the
rich in his death [Here is how the literal translation says:
"And it appointeth with the wicked his grave, And with
the rich [are] his high places"....This is verified at this link:
(Young's Literal Translation)], though he had done no
violence, nor was any deceit in his mouth.
Other translations read:

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah
53:9;&version=51;
Isaiah 53:9 (New Living Translation)
9 He had done no wrong and had never deceived anyone.
But he was buried like a criminal; he was put in a rich
mans grave.
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah
53:9;&version=46;
Isaiah 53:9 (Contemporary English Version)
9 He wasn't dishonest or violent, but he was buried in a
tomb of cruel and rich people.
There are also two errors in the fulfillment of this Prophecy:
1. Jesus was never buried (Matthew 27:59-66, Matthew 28)!
He was temporarily placed in a tomb and then his body
disappeared after that. But he never ONCE was buried
under ground as our dead get buried.
2. Jesus, who was never buried from the first place, was also
NEVER BURIED with the wicked and the rich. His tomb
was placed in an isolated area as recorded in the gospels.
Again, verse 9 says that he was to be buried with both the wicked
and the rich. Jesus was buried alone.
6-
In Isaiah 53:10-11, GOD Almighty will prolong Jesus' life

and Jesus will live to even see his offspring (his children)! And
Christ will see the Light and be satisfied after the suffering of his
soul. The suffering of his soul here is referring to the
overwhelming fear that Jesus had and the countless cries and
Prayers that he made to Allah Almighty to save him. Psalm
91further speaks clearly on this. Also, Jesus' life was never made
long or extended. He only lived for 33 years, so we're told in the
gospels, and he certainly never married any woman nor had any
child from any woman. Yet, Isaiah 53:10 clearly says that he will
live and he will have and see his children.
7-
In Isaiah 53:12, we are told that Jesus' life or soul will be

poured unto death. To me, given the Islamic position about Christ
never got crucified, and given the symbolic speech in Isaiah 53
chapter that most of it conflicts with what really took place with
Christ in the gospels, and given the fact that many early writings
in Palestine and elsewhere stated clearly that Jesus never got
crucified such as in the Apocalypse of Peter and other ancient
texts, then my interpretation of this verse about Jesus' life being
poured unto death means to me that Jesus' life will overpower
death! This is indisputably proven in Psalm 91 where it states
that not only Jesus will not get crucified, but GOD Almighty will
also hear his cries and will send down the Angels to PROTECT
HIM and SAVE HIM. And Psalm 91 also says that Christ will
call upon GOD Almighty and GOD Almighty will HEAR him
andHONOR him. Christ would not have been honored if he
have died the humiliating death of the cross. And certainly, he
would not have been "saved" either by the Angels.
Given all of this, let us now look at the Chapter of Isaiah 53 in the Bible:
1
Who has believed our message and to whom has the arm of the LORD been
revealed?
2
He grew up before him like a tender shoot, and like a root out of dry ground.
He had no beauty or majesty to attract us to him, nothing in his appearance that
we should desire him.
3
He was despised and rejected by men, a man of sorrows, and familiar with
suffering. Like one from whom men hide their faces he was despised, and we
esteemed him not.
4
Surely he took up our infirmities and carried our sorrows, yet we considered
him stricken by God, smitten by him, and afflicted.
5
But he was pierced wounded (KJV) for our transgressions, he
was crushed bruised (KJV) for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us
peace was upon him, and by his wounds we are healed.
6
We all, like sheep, have gone astray, each of us has turned to his own way; and
the LORD has laid on him the iniquity of us all.
7
He was oppressed and afflicted, yet he did not open his mouth; he was led like
a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is silent, so he did
not open his mouth.
8
By oppression and judgment he was taken away. And who can speak of his
descendants? For he was cut off from the land of the living (This is a lie!
The Hebrew says he will be thrown in jail according to the NIV Bible's
commentary. Read the Rebuttals section below for ample details); for the
transgression of my people he was stricken.
9
He was assigned a grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his
death [Here is how the literal translation says: "And it appointeth with the
wicked his grave, And with the rich [are] his high places"....This is verified at
this link: (Young's Literal Translation)], though he had done no violence, nor
was any deceit in his mouth.
Isaiah 53:9 says that he made his grave with the wicked
and the rich. According
to http://scripturetext.com/isaiah/53-9.htm:
"in his death" is a translation to the Hebrew Mawth. The
word is symbolic one as further confirmed in the Hebrew
lexicon:
"in his death
maveth (maw'-veth)
death (natural or violent); concretely, the dead, their
place or state (hades); figuratively, pestilence, ruin
-- (be) dead(-ly), death, die(-d)."
(http://scripturetext.com/isaiah/53-9.htm)
So in his death here is symbolically referring to his
execution trial and not necessarily his physical
and literal death. This is further proven
in Young's Literal Translation of the verse:
He was assigned a grave with the wicked, and
with the rich in his death [Here is how the literal
translation says: "And it appointeth with the wicked
his grave, And with the rich [are] his high
places"....This is verified at this link: (Young's
Literal Translation)], though he had done no
violence, nor was any deceit in his mouth.
Other translations read:
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?
search=isaiah 53:9;&version=51;
Isaiah 53:9 (New Living Translation)
9 He had done no wrong and had never deceived
anyone. But he was buried like a criminal; he was
put in a rich mans grave.
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?
search=isaiah 53:9;&version=46;
Isaiah 53:9 (Contemporary English Version)
9 He wasn't dishonest or violent, but he was
buried in a tomb of cruel and rich people.
10
Yet it was the LORD's will to crush him and cause him to suffer, and though the
LORD makes his life a guilt offering, he will see his offspring and
prolong his days, and the will of the LORD will prosper in his hand.
According to Christianity, Jesus Christ was single and
never married nor did he have children. This verse clearly
refutes Christianity, because the Servant here will live to
see his biological children ("his offspring") along with his
days being prolonged (made longer). Christ died at the
young age of 33 according to Christianity, which is also
against this verse. Christs' years are short in Christianity,
while in Isaiah 53:10, the servant's years are very long and
extended along with him living them with his biological
children.
11
After the suffering of his soul, he will see the light and be satisfied; by his
knowledge my righteous servant will justify many, and he will bear their
iniquities.
12
Therefore I will give him a portion among the great, and he will divide the
spoils with the strong, because he poured out his life unto death [It doesn't at
all mean that he will die. The literal translation says: "Because that he
exposed to death his soul"....This is verified again at this link: (Young's
Literal Translation).......Both Islam and Isaiah 52:13 claim that Jesus never
got crucified. See below.], and was numbered with the transgressors. For he
bore the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.
(b)-
Isaiah 53:12:
The mistranslated verse states:

Isaiah 5:12 "....because he poured out his life unto death, and was numbered with the
transgressors....."
This verse doesn't clearly state that the predicted servant will actually die. It could be
easily read as he will defeat, overpower and/or escape death. Also, when we study
carefully the poetical literature of Isaiah 53, and study carefully the claims made
above, we see that "him pouring his life unto death" means that the goodness that he
will bring from GOD Almighty will be the light that will bring his people from
darkness (death) into light (goodness). He will defeat death (darkness). Isaiah 5:12
does not state that he will die. It clearly states that he will shadow or overwhelm
death by his life.
If I, for instance, pour my cup of cranberry juice on the white carpet, then I would
create a big red spot on the carpet. I wouldn't be changing the juice into carpet, or the
carpet into juice. No, I would simply defeat the whiteness of the carpet by the color
of the juice. That's what pouring the juice on the carpet means.
Same thing applies with the servant pouring his life unto death. GOD Almighty
considers evil doing and not believing in Him as equal to death.
Important Note: In many Verses in the Bible, we see that GOD Almighty used in
Hebrew, Sheol, the word for "hell" as the same Hebrew word for "death". That is why
the Christian Jehovah Witnesses don't believe in "Hell Fire" as punishment for the
unbelievers. They believe that "Hell" is actual "Death". So to put it in other words,
Isaiah 53:12 could also mean that the Servant (Jesus) will over shadow or cover "hell
(death)" with "life (good)". So whoever believes in that Servant from the People of
Israel will be saved from hell or death.
Have Isaiah 53:12 clearly said "and he will die for people's sins and resurrect after 3
days", then we would have nothing to argue about. So Jesus pouring his life (good)
unto death (bad), means that whomever believes in his message from the People of
Israel will defeat bad (darkness) and will be saved, and will have Jesus' life
(goodness). This perfectly matches what Islam claims about our beloved Prophet
Jesus peace be upon him.
Please visit:
The blessed Jesus in Islam.
Muhammad was prophesized in the Bible.
The Suffering Servant of Isaiah 53. By Abdullah Smith.
- Part II.
- Part III.
Does Isaiah 53 say that the Servant will be crucified? By Ozzycda.
- His article is also on my site in case his blog is down.
Psalm 91 clearly confirms that Jesus never got crucified.
Psalm 116, 117 and 118 indesputably prove that Jesus Christ never got
crucified.
Psalm 22 and 88 also confirm Islam's claim about Jesus never got
crucified.
3-
The crucifixion would've broken at least

one bone, refuting John 19:30-40!
If we were to take the Bible literally, then we will see clear contradictions in the
crucifixion story. Let us look at what the Bible says about piercing Jesus:
John 19:30-40:
30
When he had received the drink, Jesus said, "It is finished." With that, he
bowed his head and gave up his spirit.
31
Now it was the day of Preparation, and the next day was to be a special
Sabbath. Because the Jews did not want the bodies left on the crosses during
the Sabbath, they asked Pilate to have the legs broken and the bodies taken
down.
32
The soldiers therefore came and broke the legs of the first man who had been
crucified with Jesus, and then those of the other.
33
But when they came to Jesus and found that he was already dead, they did not
break his legs.
34
Instead, one of the soldiers pierced Jesus' side with a spear, bringing a sudden
flow of blood and water.
35
The man who saw it has given testimony, and his testimony is true. He knows
that he tells the truth, and he testifies so that you also may believe.
36
These things happened so that the scripture would be fulfilled: "Not one of his
bones will be broken,"
The Verses that reference the

Bones:
"A righteous man may have many troubles, but the
LORD delivers him from them all; he protects all his
bones, not one of them will be broken. (From the
NIV Bible, Psalm 34:19-20)"
As these verses don't even seem to be talking about
the Messiah or any crucifixion, but assuming that
they did, notice how Psalm 34:20 says that GOD
Almighty will protect "all his bones". So, not even an
inch from his bones will be damaged according to the
Scriptures - again assuming that the verses are even
talking about the Messiah!! This is exactly what the
Noble Quran and Isaiah 52:13 say!
Also, notice how Psalm 34:19 says that the LORD
delivers him from "ALL OF THE troubles, which
clearly goes against the crucifixion lie. But anyway
despite the John 19:36 verse, I still proved, by Allah
Almighty's Mercy, Grace and Will, that the Psalm verses
actually further proved the Noble Quran's claims along

withIsaiah 52:13, and Jesus' Disciples' and the Early
Christians original writings that were found in Palestine
and Egypt about Jesus never got crucified! See
below...
Also, please visit: Chapter Psalm 91 clearly and
indisputably confirms that Jesus never got

crucified!
Psalm 116, 117 and 118 indesputably prove that
Jesus Christ never got crucified.
Psalm 22 and 88 confirm Islam's claim about Jesus
never got crucified.
A serious forgery in Luke 24:44-48 about Jesus'
"resurrection on the third day" claiming that it was
foretold in the OT when it wasn't!
Forgery of Matthew 23.
37
and, as another scripture says, "They will look on the one they have pierced."
38
Later, Joseph of Arimathea asked Pilate for the body of Jesus. Now Joseph was
a disciple of Jesus, but secretly because he feared the Jews. With Pilate's
permission, he came and took the body away.
39
He was accompanied by Nicodemus, the man who earlier had visited Jesus at
night. Nicodemus brought a mixture of myrrh and aloes, about seventy-five
pounds.
40
Taking Jesus' body, the two of them wrapped it, with the spices, in strips of
linen. This was in accordance with Jewish burial customs.
First of all, notice the man-made third party narration in the book of John. The NIV
Bible's Historians and Theologians are not even sure who wrote the books of John, 1
John, 2 John and 3 John. The original authors are mysterious.
In the above verses, the mysterious author or authors suggest that Jesus' bones were
reserved because the soldiers did not break his knees, hence this fulfills the Scriptures'
prophecy that GOD will protect his body that not even a single bone would break.
Also see detailed refutations to Exodus 12:46, Numbers 9:12, Zechariah
12:10 and Psalm 34:20 that supposedly suggest that GOD Almighty was
going to get pierced on the cross.
Hebrews 5:7-8 clearly and irrefutably claim that Jesus was saved from the
cross; confirming Islam's claims.
None of Jesus' disciples witnessed the crucifixion. They "all fled" and
"deserted" Jesus. This further confirms Islam's claims.
Chapter Psalm 91 clearly and indisputably confirms that Jesus never
got crucified!
Psalm 116, 117 and 118 indesputably prove that Jesus Christ never got
crucified.
Psalm 22 and 88 confirm Islam's claim about Jesus never got crucified.
A serious forgery in Luke 24:44-48 about Jesus' "resurrection on the third
day" claiming that it was foretold in the OT when it wasn't!
Forgery of Matthew 23.
Contradictions in the resurrection story in the Bible.
Let us look at the obvious contradiction in the above verses:
Taken from the above verses: "These things happened so that the scripture would be
fulfilled: 'Not one of his bones will be broken,' and, as another scripture says, 'They
will look on the one they have pierced.' (From the NIV Bible, John 19:36-37)"
"A righteous man may have many troubles, but the LORD delivers him from them
all; he protects all his bones, not one of them will be broken. (From the NIV
Bible, Psalm 34:19-20)"
Again, as these verses don't even seem to be talking about the Messiah or any
crucifixion, but assuming that it did, notice how Psalm 34:20 says that GOD Almighty
will protect "all his bones". So, not even an inch from his bones will be damaged
according to the Scriptures - again assuming that the verses are even talking about the
Messiah!!
As you might know, the crucifixion back then was done by nailing to the cross the
hands and the ankles or the feet. If GOD Almighty was going to protect Jesus' body
that not even a single bone will be broken, then how would the crucifixion and the
death of Jesus be possible then?!
My question to all Christians is: How in the world is it possible for the feet to get
nailed on the cross without any penetration to the bones by the nails, hence breaking
part of the feet's bones?!
And for the parts of the Bible that suggest that Jesus actually died (which clearly
contradict the Verses that I presented above), please visit What parts of the Bible do
Muslims believe are closest to the Truth?
I clearly see the Noble Quran's Claim about Jesus

being saved from crucifixion being confirmed in
Psalm 34:20!
Would Jesus have at least cracked a bone?

When one's hand and feet are nailed to a cross and then he is left on the cross to die
slowly and painfully, would his body's weight at least:
1-
Not break a single bone from either one of his hands or one of his feet?
2-
Would he not at least crack a bone?
A crack is a break! And since we have 28 bones in each foot [1], and 27 bones in each
hand [2], and some of them are very tiny and slim, then I find it quite impossible that
at least not a single tiny one of them would break if the entire body's weight was
resting on them. But anyway, regardless, Psalm 91 which Luke 4:10-11 and Matthew
4:5-6 link Jesus Christ to it, clearly declares that Christ won't get crucified.
Sources:
1- "There are 26 bones in the human foot (28 if you include the sesamoid bones at the
base of the big toe). These are: the Talus, which connects to the tibia at the ankle;
the Calcaneus, which forms the heel; the Navicular, Cuboid, and
three Cuneiforms (Medial, Intermediate, and Lateral), which form the middle of the
foot; the five Metatarsals, which radiate out to the toes; and 14Phalanges (2-3-3-33), which form the toes." (Source)
2- "27 and no muscle except for
The intrinsic muscle groups are the thenar and hypothenar muscles (thenar referring to
the thumb, hypothenar to the small finger), the interosseus muscles (between the
metacarpal bones, four dorsally and three volarly) and the lumbrical muscles. These
muscles arise from the deep flexor (and are special because they have no bony origin)
and insert on the dorsal extensor hood mechanism." (Source)
4-
Islam denies the crucifixion and much of

the Bible agrees:
Both Muslims and Christians believe that the grave of Jesus today is empty. It doesn't
have his body in it, because both believe that he was raised to Heaven. The difference
between Muslims and Christians in this issue is that Muslims believe that Jesus never
died on the cross but was raised to GOD Almighty. Christians believe that Jesus died
on the cross, was buried in the grave(obviously his foot would've struck at least one
stone!), and was resurrected to GOD Almighty.
Both the crucifixion and resurrection, as we've seen above, are not supported nor were
ever foretold in the Bible's Old Testament, especially for the resurrection! I mean,
Christians could doctor and twist verses and translations in the OT to support the
crucifixion, but with absolute certainty, there is not a single verse in the entire OT that
even talks about the resurrection. Please visit:
A serious forgery in Luke 24:44-48 about Jesus' "resurrection on the third
day" claiming that it was foretold in the OT when it wasn't!
Forgery of Matthew 23. By Abdullah Smith.
The Resurrection hoax. By Abdullah Smith.
Contradictions in the resurrection story in the Bible.
In Isaiah 53, all it says is that he will get pierced which again it never mentioned the
cross nor did it ever mention any sort of resurrection, not just in this chapter, but also
throughout the Old Testament. If this servant is indeed Jesus peace be upon him, then
him being pierced and never dying seems to perfectly support the Islamic teaching
about Prophet Jesus peace be upon him NEVER died on the cross for anyone's sins.
Let us look at the following Noble Verse from the Noble Quran (The Muslims Holy
Scripture):
"That they rejected Faith; That they uttered against Mary A grave false charge; That
they said (in boast): 'We killed Christ Jesus The son of Mary, The Messenger of
Allah.' But they killed him not, Nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to
them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but
only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not. Nay, Allah raised him
up Unto Himself; and Allah Is Exalted in Power, Wise. And there is none of the
people of the book (Jews and Christians) But must believe in him (Jesus) Before his
death; And on the Day of Judgment He (Jesus) will be a witness Against them. (The
Noble Quran, 4:156-159)"
Now compare the Noble Verses to Isaiah 52:13 "...he will be raised and lifted
up....". Notice that Isaiah 52:13 did not say "....he will be RESURRECTED and
lifted up...." Not even once, did the Old Testament predict for the foretold Servant to
be raised to GOD Almighty after death. There absolutely no mention of any sort of
resurrection in the Bible's Old Testament what so ever.
Here are the English translations of Isaiah 52:13 that say exactly "raised and lifted
up" or something very similar: [1] [2] [3] [4] [5] [6] [7] [8] [9] [10] [11] [12] [13] [14]
[15] [16].
The verses from the Noble Quran and Isaiah 52 are perfectly supported and confirmed
at:
Psalm 91 clearly confirms that Jesus never got crucified.
Psalm 116, 117 and 118 indesputably prove that Jesus Christ never got crucified.
Also, please visit: Does the Noble Quran in Verse 19:33 confirm Jesus' crucifixion?
Furthermore, there are early writings that were found in Palestine that say that there is
another who was called Jesus BarAbaa (son of his father since his father wasn't
known) got crucified in the place of our Jesus Christ, whom people also called "Jesus
BarAbaa".
Please visit: The disciples' original writings that were found in Palestine declare
that Jesus never got crucified.
Again, I clearly see the Noble Quran's Claim about

Jesus being saved from crucifixion being confirmed in
Psalm 34:20!
Jesus was never "disfigured" to a point

"beyond human likeness"!
Let us look at the following verse:
Isaiah 52:14 "Just as there were many who were appalled at him - his appearance
was so disfigured beyond that of any man and his form marred beyond human
likeness-"
It appears that this verse further proves Islam's claims about Jesus, peace be upon him,
never got crucified on the cross, because according to today's corrupt New Testament,
Jesus never got disfigured to a point where no one could recognize his face; not from
crucifixion, nor from the beating that he supposedly received before the crucifixion.
To see the several "canons" or NTs of the "Bible", please visit:
The different "Canons" of the Bible!

Since the Bible was not documented until 150 to 300 years after Jesus peace be upon
him, and during his ministry, nothing was ever documented on paper regarding his
deity, we Muslims believe that a great deal of corruption had entered the Bible. The
following reasons will clarify the Muslims' position:
1- As I mentioned above, the Old Testament doesn't in predict the resurrection of
Jesus, nor it ever considered him as GOD. Please read The "God" title in Isaiah 9:6
was given to others before and after Jesus.
2- The early Christians rejected Trinity and never believed in it.
3- The disciples of Jesus (John, Mark, Luke, etc...) didn't write the Gospels that were
named after them in the New Testament. I quoted from the NIV Bible the Christian
Theologians themselves regarding the history of the NT.
4- We believe that few centuries after Jesus peace be upon him the Church tampered
with the Bible and invented the Trinity belief.
5- We only believe in Jesus' personal quotes as closest to the truth.
6- Jesus himself in the New Testament taught what Islam teaches; the Oneness of
GOD Almighty and doing Righteousness.
7- Jesus according to Islam never got killed on the cross. Allah Almighty saved
him. As I mentioned in point #5, we only believe in Jesus' quotes as closest to the
Truth in the New Testament. Islam's claims regarding Allah Almighty saving Jesus
seem to fit with Jesus peace be upon him asking Allah Almighty to save him from
crucifiction (Matthew 26:39).
5-
GOD Almighty Changed His Mind a lot

throughout the Bible:
Even though we do not have a single proof about the Old Testament prophesying
about the Messiah's crucifixion, but in this section, we will go ahead and accept this
man-made fabrication. We are still left with ample verses, in the Bible, about GOD
Almighty Changing His Mind a lot that clearly support that GOD Almighty Had all
the reasons to save Jesus from the pain and humiliation of the crucifixion:
GOD Almighty Changing His Emotions:

Ample verses from the book of Isaiah.
GOD Almighty Changing His Mind:

Hosea 11:8
How can I give you up, Ephraim? How can I hand you over, Israel? How can I treat
you like Admah? How can I make you like Zeboiim? My heart is changed within
me; all my compassion is aroused.
Amos 7:3
So the LORD relented. "This will not happen," the LORD said.
Jeremiah 18:8
and if that nation I warned repents of its evil, then I will relent and not inflict on it
the disaster I had planned.
Exodus 32:14
Then the LORD relented and did not bring on his people the disaster he had
threatened.
Jonah 3:9-10
Who can tell, God may turn and revoke His sentence against us, and turn away
from His fierce anger so that we perish not. And God saw their works, that they turned
from their evil way;and God revoked His evil that He had said that He would do to
them and He did not do it.
Joel 2:13-14
Rend your hearts and not your garments and return to the Lord, your God, for He is
gracious and merciful, slow to anger, and abounding in loving-kindness; and He
revokes His sentence of evil. Who knows but what He will turn, revoke your
sentence, and leave a blessing behind Him, even a cereal or meal offering and a drink
offering for the Lord, your God?
1 Chronicles 21:15
And God sent an angel to destroy Jerusalem. But as the angel was doing so, the
LORD saw it and was grieved because of the calamity and said to the angel who was
destroying the people,"Enough! Withdraw your hand." The angel of the LORD
was then standing at the threshing floor of Araunah the Jebusite.
Exodus 32:14
and Jehovah repenteth of the evil which He hath spoken of doing to His people.
Genesis 6:6
and Jehovah repenteth that He hath made man in the earth, and He grieveth
Himself -- unto His heart.
Judges 2:18
And when Jehovah raised up to them judges -- then was Jehovah with the judge, and
saved them out of the hand of their enemies all the days of the judge; for it repenteth
Jehovah, because of their groaning from the presence of their oppressors, and of
those thrusting them away.
2 Samuel 24:16
and the messenger putteth forth his hand to Jerusalem to destroy it, and Jehovah
repenteth concerning the evil, and saith to the messenger who is destroying among
the people, Ènough, now, cease thy hand;' and the messenger of Jehovah was near the
threshing-floor of Araunah the Jebusite.
Jeremiah 26:19
Put him at all to death did Hezekiah king of Judah, and all Judah? Did he not fear
Jehovah? yea, he appeaseth the face of Jehovah, and Jehovah repenteth concerning
the evil that He spake against them; and we are doing great evil against our souls.
For more verses, please visit: Abrogations in the Bible.
My Challenge to Christians:
Since the early Christians' and the Disciples' original writings all claim that Jesus
never got crucified, then why couldn't Jehovah Almighty have said something similar
to this:
"...And Jehovah repented from the evil of crucifying the

Messiah...."
Why couldn't this be possible when GOD Almighty saw that the Jews were total
losers and that no Prophet was ever fruitful with them? They were even notorious in
slaying Prophets:
"O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, thou that killest the prophets, and stonest them which
are sent unto thee, how often would I have gathered thy children together, even as a
hen gathereth her chickens under her wings, and ye would not! (From the KJV Bible,
Matthew 23:37)"
"We gave Moses the Book and followed him up with a succession of apostles; We
gave Jesus the son of Mary Clear (Signs) and strengthened him with the holy spirit. Is
it that whenever there comes to you an apostle with what ye yourselves desire not, ye
are puffed up with pride?- Some ye called impostors, and others ye slay! (The
Noble Quran, 2:87)"
"And remember ye said: "O Moses! we cannot endure one kind of food (always); so
beseech thy Lord for us to produce for us of what the earth groweth, -its pot-herbs,
and cucumbers, Its garlic, lentils, and onions." He said: "Will ye exchange the better
for the worse? Go ye down to any town, and ye shall find what ye want!" They were
covered with humiliation and misery; they drew on themselves the wrath of God. This
because they went on rejecting the Signs of God and slaying His Messengers
without just cause. This because they rebelled and went on transgressing. (The
Noble Quran, 2:61)"
"As to those who deny the Signs of God and in defiance of right, slay the prophets,
and slay those who teach just dealing with mankind, announce to them a grievous
penalty. (The Noble Quran, 3:21)"
"God hath heard the taunt of those who say: "Truly, God is indigent and we are
rich!"- We shall certainly record their word and (their act) of slaying the prophets
in defiance of right, and We shall say: "Taste ye the penalty of the Scorching
Fire! (The Noble Quran, 3:181)"
Show one logical reason that would disprove my challenge here! Didn't Jehovah
Almighty already "repent" many times in the past from Divine Decisions that He has
already taken as we clearly saw above?
6-
The Jews' view on Isaiah 53:
Please visit: The Jews' understanding of Isaiah 53.
7-
Conclusion:
It is quite clear from all of the verses and points above that:
1-
We do not have a single clear-cut statement from the entire Old Testament that
says that:
Jesus will get crucified.
Jesus will resurrect from death.
2-
We have many verses from both the Old and New Testaments that declare
that Jesus Christ will be saved and lifted by the Angels from any and all harm that
his foes will try to throw at him.
With this said, I ask my respected Jewish and Christian readers to reconsider your
beliefs. I ask you to give Islam a serious and honest research and thought. I strongly
recommend starting with the following links:
2. What is Islam?
I want to end this article with the following verses from the Holy Quran, and the
Deuteronomy 6:4)"
never crucified.
8-
Rebuttals:
The following interactions present detailed analysis on some of the main points of this
article:
(a)-
Detailed rebuttal on Isaiah 53:
The following is an interaction about Isaiah 53 between me and a person by the name
of Nakdimon:
He wrote:
1 - Isaiah 53:3 says that "Jesus" is despised by all men. In Luke 10:1, Jesus has
at least 70 followers, and in other verses we're told that he fed and healed
thousands (John 6:9-11, Luke 17:11-19 and other verses).
First of all, Isaiah is describing the status of the servant in his suffering. In the case of
Yeshua that would be during his trial and his death.
My response:
Right from the start you've presented your case with erroneous assumptions without
proving them. Before I start thoroughly refuting your points, I must make this
important point:
In the New Testament, Psalm 91 is directly linked to Jesus Christ, in the New
Testament, by Jesus Christ himself, while Isaiah 53 isn't linked to Jesus by anyone.
Psalm 91 said many Prophecies, and they are listed above in this article. Satan, in the
New Testament, even tried to use Psalm 91 to tempt Jesus into testing GOD Almighty
to try to kill himself by throwing himself off of the canyon or mountain to see if GOD
Almighty will be True to His Word and Promise and send down the Angels to lift
Jesus up from death and harm as precisely mentioned in Psalm 91. Psalm 91
further declares that Christ will call upon GOD Almighty for help to protect him from
death, and GOD Almighty will honor him and protect him from death.
By the way, Psalm 91 says that GOD Almighty will not even let Jesus strike his foot
against a rock from harm. This is a symbolic speech that means that GOD Almighty
will not let Jesus get hurt at all. Satan tried to fool Jesus by trying to have Jesus test
GOD Almighty or force GOD Almighty into executing this Promise by trying to jump
off the mountain to see if GOD Almighty will truly send down the Angels to lift Jesus
up or not.
Now certainly, the Prophecy wasn't speaking about Jesus jumping off of a mountain.
It was again a symbolic speech that meant that GOD Almighty will protect Jesus
from death all the way.
Was Psalm 91 for a limited time only?

Some argued that Psalm 91 could've been only till the time before crucifixion, and
that after that, it no longer applies. This is false and is refuted in Psalm 91 itself once
again, because Psalm 91 says clearly that the servant will call upon GOD Almighty in
trouble, and GOD Almighty will save him from death! GOD Almighty will honor
him and protect him, and will not allow for ANY HARM to come near him. The only
time Jesus called upon GOD Almighty to save his life, in the New Testament, was
during the time of crucifixion.
Again, Isaiah 53 is no where linked to Jesus Christ in the New Testament. It is Psalm
91 that is clearly linked. Not only that, but Isaiah 53 has deliberate mistranslations
and misinterpretations in it that we will see below, insha'Allah (if Allah Almighty is
Willing).
He wrote:
He carried the suffering alone, with no one to aid or assist him. Second, Im looking at
the Hebrew of Isaiah 53:3 and I see nothing about the servant being despised by all
men. Can you tell me where the Hebrew word for all is in the text? Seeing you
made the claim that Isaiah 53 is mistranslated, I take it your understanding of the text
must be in accordance with what actually is written in the Hebrew text. As far as Im
concerned, the word all isnt even in the text and therefore point 1 is moot!
My response:
The English translations say "all". And even if we don't put "all" in the translation, it
will still mean that since "some" does not exist in the text. Now, "all" here would
mean most or many. But yet, Jesus was very popular by many, and he supposedly
performed his Miracles in front of thousands of eye witnesses, which would've
exploded his popularity among the people in no time.
So in either case, you are refuted.
He wrote:
2 - In Isaiah 53:5 it says he was wounded for our transgressions. Now right away
one might assume this is the death of Jesus. However it says he was WOUNDED
not killed. But let us go with killed for your arguments sake. This is not what this
verse is saying. It is saying that they made a mistake so he is paying for it. They
plotted or accused against him. This is exactly what happened. And again, the
verse says wounded, which further proves that Christ was never killed
And in typical Muslim fashion you read the verse and dont bother to read on what is
said about the same servant:
Verse 8 says he was cut off from the land of the living,
My response:
Again, as I mentioned above in the article, "wounded" here could easily mean felt
hurt spiritually, and not necessarily got physically hurt. Also, Psalm 91 doesn't
mean that not a scratch will be upon Jesus. GOD Almighty's Protection to Jesus from
both harm and death could easily be referring to serious wounds and not minor ones.
But in either way, "wounded" here could easily refer to a spiritual one, because Jesus
was probably upset because his people were about to be doomed to Hell for
Eternity for rejecting his Message.
Now as to him being cut off from the land of the living, here are what your NIV and
YLT Bibles and many others say:
18
From http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah 53&version=NIV:
By oppression [a] and judgment he was taken away.

And who can speak of his descendants?
For he was cut off from the land of the living;
for the transgression of my people he was stricken. [b]
a. Isaiah 53:8 Or From arrest

b. Isaiah 53:8 Or away. / Yet who of his generation considered / that he was cut off
from the land of the living / for the transgression of my people, / to whom the blow
was due?
2-
From http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah
%2053&version=YLT:
8
By restraint and by judgment he hath been taken, And of his generation who doth
meditate, That he hath been cut off from the land of the living? By the transgression of
My people he is plagued,
It's talking about Jesus' imprisonment!

It seems quite clear to me that this quotation is referring to Jesus' arrest and him being
imprisoned! He was taken away from the people and put into isolation. That's how I
clearly see it. In fact, the NIV Bible in its (a) foot note above, explicitly says "From
arrest". It is clearly and indisputably speaking about Jesus' arrest, which doesn't
really prove anything.
He wrote:
Verse 9 speaks of his grave and his death
My response:
Verse 9 speaks about the servant being assigned a grave, which is true. Jesus today
has a grave and it is empty. Nothing refutes Islam here. As to "his death" my
detailed refutation to this lie is further down.
He wrote:
Verse 10 speaks about giving his soul as an asham (guilt offering)
My response:
You are sadly a victim of the false interpretations and lies that are given to you. Here
is what the NIV Bible comments:
110
From http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah 53&version=NIV:
Yet it was the LORD's will to crush him and cause him to suffer,
and though the LORD makes [c] his life a guilt offering,
he will see his offspring and prolong his days,
and the will of the LORD will prosper in his hand.
c. Isaiah 53:10 Hebrew though you make
The Hebrew doesn't say "the LORD makes". It says "you make"! It is talking about
people and not GOD Almighty.
Furthermore, here is what the YLT Bible says:
2-
From http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah
%2053&version=YLT:
10
And Jehovah hath delighted to bruise him, He hath made him sick, If his soul
doth make an offering for guilt, He seeth seed -- he prolongeth days, And the pleasure
of Jehovah in his hand doth prosper.
Do you see any crucifixion in here? It's talking about Jesus getting bruised by his
enemies (again minor injuries that are not fatal), and that it caused to get sick. And
then it says that if his soul were to be a guilt offering, which proves that it wasn't
make a guilt offering.
Your point is again soundly refuted!
He wrote:
Verse 12 says he bore his soul unto death
But none of this seems to face you, doesnt it? And you dont even realise that you
have shot yourself in the foot. You applied this verse to Yeshua and said that this
proves that he was never killed, but only wounded. Herewith you have undercut
everything you have said in your article regarding Psalm 91. You cant have it both
ways. Either Isaiah 53:5 is about Yeshua and he was wounded, according to your
reading, or Psalm 91 is about Yeshua and he was NOT wounded, also according to
your reading. So, what will it be? As far as Im concerned point 2 is moot!
My response:
He poured his soul unto death means that he overpowered death! He killed death. He
defeated death. Sure, he was saved and lifted by GOD Almighty from the cross. He
was victorious over death.
1-
From http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah 53&version=YLT
12
Therefore I give a portion to him among the many, And with the mighty he
apportioneth spoil, Because that he exposed to death his soul, And with
transgressors he was numbered, And he the sin of many hath borne, And for
transgressors he intercedeth.
Here we see that Jesus faced death. But he never died! Isaiah 53 doesn't claim it at
all, and Psalm 91 clearly declares that Jesus will cry out to GOD Almighty to protect
him from death, and GOD Almighty will save him and honor him!
He wrote:
3 - Isaiah 53:7 states that "he did not open his mouth". There are two possible
interpretations and answers to this:
Jesus never literally spoke a single word during the crucifixion trial. This is
obviously wrong because Jesus spoke during his trial with both Pontius Pilot and
the Jews. And we all know Jesus' famous and final cry to GOD Almighty when
he said: "Eloi Eloi lama sabachtani!", which translates: "My GOD my GOD,
why have you forsaken me?" (Matthew 27:46) So wrong. He did open his mouth.
Jesus did not object to GOD Almighty's Will. This is also wrong, because again,
Jesus cried during the crucifixion "My GOD my GOD why have you forsaken
me?", and he also prayed ENDLESSLY to GOD Almighty on the night of the
crucifixion to not get crucified! (Matthew 16:39, Matthew 26:36-44, Luke 6:12)
He even bowed down his face to Allah Almighty in worship endless times begging
Him for a change in Decision. So yes, Jesus did object.
How about a third: He never objected to his accusers. Which is the exact
understanding that becomes obvious to anyone who has any regard for the context and
even for the verse itself. The verse starts out He was oppressed. He was oppressed
by whom? His accusers. It then goes on to say like a lamb that is led to the
slaughter. He was led to his execution by whom? His accusers. He didnt say a word
of defence himself before them. Point 3 is also moot!
My response:
But Jesus in the New Testament did object to the crucifixion. He did beg GOD
Almighty to save him, and according to Psalm 91, GOD Almighty did save him. But
either way, your point here doesn't disprove anything.
As to him being led like a lamb to the slaughter, sure, they wanted to kill him through
crucifixion, but he was never crucified nor killed:
"That they rejected Faith; That they uttered against Mary A grave false charge; That
they said (in boast): 'We killed Christ Jesus The son of Mary, The Messenger of
Allah.' But they killed him not, Nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to
them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but
only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not. Nay, Allah raised him
up Unto Himself; and Allah Is Exalted in Power, Wise. And there is none of the
people of the book (Jews and Christians) But must believe in him (Jesus) Before his
death; And on the Day of Judgment He (Jesus) will be a witness Against them. (The
Now compare the Noble Verses to Isaiah 52:13 "...he will be raised and lifted
up....". Notice that Isaiah 52:13 did not say "....he will be RESURRECTED and
lifted up...." Not even once, did the Old Testament predict for the foretold Servant to
be raised to GOD Almighty after death. There absolutely no mention of any sort of
resurrection in the Bible's Old Testament what so ever.
And again, Psalm 91 clearly says that GOD Almighty will protect him and save him
from death, and He will honor him.
He wrote:
4 - Isaiah 53:9 says that he made his grave with the wicked and the rich.
According to http://scripturetext.com/isaiah/53-9.htm:
in his death" is also a false translation to the Hebrew Mawth. At the worst, it
should be translated as "in death", making the word a symbolic one as further
confirmed in the Hebrew lexicon:
in his death
maveth (maw'-veth)
death (natural or violent) [notice not "his death". It only says "death"];
concretely, the dead, their place or state (hades); figuratively, pestilence, ruin -(be) dead(-ly), death, die(-d)."
A lot of points here:
FIRST: you look at the definition of the word mawet and then highlight the
figurative sense in your article. But you dont even regard all the other definition
that your source put for you to read.
My response:
This is because no where in the entire Old Testament does it say that the Messiah will
actually die! All you have is figurative expressions about him:
1-
Facing death, or getting exposed to death.
2-
Having a grave assigned to him.
3-
And now, "in death" or "in his death" doesn't at all mean that he will die. Here is
what the NIV Bible says:
From http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=isaiah 53&version=NIV
9
He was assigned a grave with the wicked,

and with the rich in his death,
though he had done no violence,
nor was any deceit in his mouth.
10
Yet it was the LORD's will to crush him [1] and cause him to suffer,
and though the LORD makes [c] his life a guilt offering,
he will see his offspring and prolong his days,
and the will of the LORD will prosper in his hand.
c. Isaiah 53:10 Hebrew though you make

[1]. This note is mine. In the Arabic it says: , which
literally translates as: And despite this, it delighted Allah to crush him with (ample)
grieve!
Here is how I read these verses:

1. The servant was assigned a grave to die in despite the fact that he has done no
violence.
2. The servant will have ample grieve in him due to the doom of his people.
Remember! Psalm 91:8 says that he will see the punishment of the wicked
with his eyes!
3. GOD Almighty will cause him to suffer (through fear and bad experience), but
will not let him die because He, the Almighty, Will prolong his life!
Do you see any proof here that the servant will

actually die??
Especially in light of Psalm 91?
He wrote:
SECOND: is there a particular reason why you have scratched his in the in his
death phrase in your article?
My response:
I only quoted what the lexicon said as you also quoted me above. But in either case, I
have proven that the "death" here is definitely symbolic.
He wrote:
THIRD: all the lexicon says about death being figuratively is that it can ALSO be
understood to be figuratively. But its foremost meaning is literal death.
My response:
False! Death throughout the Bible is many times symbolic. It is so symbolic that you
can't even know for sure, from your Bible, whether Hell is an actual Fire or a place of
complete death and cease of existence. This confusion is caused primarily by the too
much use of symbolic speeches for death, grave and other key words.
To the reader, please visit: Sheol in the Bible: Hell and Death.
Also, according to the Lexicon, maweth meant "high places" in other Biblical verses:
in his death-Hebrew, "deaths." Lowth translates, "His tomb"; bamoth, from a
different root, meaning "high places," and so mounds for sepulture (Eze 43:7).
But all the versions oppose this, and the Hebrew hardly admits it. Rather translate,
"after His death" [Hengstenberg]; as we say, "at His death." The plural, "deaths,"
intensifies the force; as Adam by sin "dying died" (Ge 2:17, Margin); that is,
incurred death, physical and spiritual. So Messiah, His substitute, endured death in
both senses; spiritual, during His temporary abandonment by the Father; physical,
when He gave up the ghost.
because-rather, as the sense demands (so in Job 16:17), "although He had done
no," &c. [Hengstenberg], (1Pe 2:20-22; 1Jo 3:5).
violence-that is, wrong.
Notice that Adam did not literally die. The "death" here is symbolic.
Again, do you see any proof here that the servant will
actually die??
Especially in light of Psalm 91?
Please visit:
Evidence from the Greek NT suggesting that "Jesus Barabbas" not "Jesus of
Nazareth" is the one who got crucified!
Jesus Barabbas and Jesus the Nazorean.
The early Disciples' writings declare that Jesus never got crucified!
He wrote:
FOURTH: Since you insist that mawet has to be figuratively and cannot in any way
shape or form be literally death, can you tell us what the Hebrew word for literal death
is that Isaiah should have used to give us the impression that this is a physical death
and not a mere figurative death?
My response:
I first of all never said that. But to answer your question, it would have to be the same
word but with FAR MORE CLEARER TEXT to back it up! The delimma of your
Bible is that it contains far too many symbolic terms and words that it is virtually
impossible sometimes to know whether it is to be taken literal or symbolically.
Certainly, with all of the points that I mentioned above, I don't see any direct claim
that the servant will actually die!
He wrote:
FIFTH: you then go to translations that arent translations at all. The NLT and the
CEV are NOT translations, but paraphrases. You object to the word mawet being
translated as death, yet you subsequently run to other translations that dont even
translate the word mawet at all!
SIXTH: Even the YLT translates it incorrectly, since the YLT has an improper
understanding of the word at hand. The YLT reads the word bemotaaw to
understood as bamotaaw. But this reading is untenable, since bamot (high places)
are places where idol worship is being practiced. This is NOT what Isaiah is saying
about the servant.
SEVENTH: The word bemotaaw DOES mean in HIS deaths. The suffix -aaw
is third person singular in the masculine form denoting a plurality of possession.
Then you go on to say:
1. Jesus was never buried (Matthew 27:59-66, Matthew 28)! He was temporarily
placed in a tomb and then his body disappeared after that. But he never ONCE
was buried under ground as our dead get buried.
2. Jesus, who was never buried from the first place, was also NEVER BURIED
with the wicked and the rich. His tomb was placed in an isolated area as
recorded in the gospels.
The sheer ignorance you display is astounding. And I read someone praising you for
your scholarship earlier in this thread. Burial in ancient days took place in tombs.
There were two burials: stage one was that the body was placed in a tomb to decay so
that only the bones were left and then stage two would follow, where the bones were
collected out of the tomb and piled up in a small coffin and were buried. So, no,
Yeshua was never buried as our dead get buried, because that was never the method
that people got buried.
As for your second point, since the Hebrew in Isaiah 53 is very poetic, the words of
Isaiah are open to interpretation. The words are just as probable to read, that he was
buried between the wicked, referring to those surrounding graves with their dead. It
can also be referring to his burial by Yosef of Arimathea and all those that were with
him, since the servant is described as the Righteous One that suffers for and bares the
iniquities of the unrighteous multitude. In addition, you dont know that the grave was
in an isolated area since the Gospels dont give us that information. All the Gospels
say is that the grave was new and unused. You are just making this up in order to be
able to raise objections. And with that said, point 4 is moot!
My response:
Your points above are all refuted above, and you're only left with desperation and
confusion. You're trying to force a certain meaning of a word upon a verse, and this
meaning is not supported at all throughout the chapter! Not only that, but the word
itself, muth or mawth, had been used throughout the Bible to mean different things!
In short, you have absolutely no proof whatsoever about the servant will actually
die! On the contrary, we see that GOD Almighty will prolong (extend, make
longer) his life!
Also, as I demonstrated amply and thoroughly above, both Psalm 91 and Isaiah 53 and
52 and other chapters clearly state that the Messiah will be lifted up and honored
and protected from death and harm.
As to the burial, again, you're forcing a certain meaning without giving any regard to
the other meanings of the same word. Yes, Jesus was never actually burried! He was
placed temporarily in a tomb according to your New Testament, which contradicts
Psalm 91 and Isaiah 52, and ironically also Isaiah 53. But regardless, I don't think this
point is that relevant. Defining what burial is, and whether or not placing Jesus in the
tomb is considered burial is irrelevant here. The main point is whether or not he
actually was crucified and whether or not he actually died.
He wrote:
5 - In Isaiah 53:10-11, GOD Almighty will prolong Jesus' life and Jesus will live
to even see his offspring (his children)! And Christ will see the Light and be
satisfied after the suffering of his soul. The suffering of his soul here is referring
to the overwhelming fear that Jesus had and the countless cries and Prayers that
he made to Allah Almighty to save him. Psalm 91 further speaks clearly on this.
Also, Jesus' life was never made long or extended. He only lived for 33 years, so
we're told in the gospels, and he certainly never married any woman nor had any
child from any woman. Yet, Isaiah 53:10 clearly says that he will live and he will
have and see his children.
Here you go again shooting yourself in the other foot. Psalm 91 says that he will not
be harmed, Isaiah 53 says he will be harmed. WHAT WILL IT BE???? And then, if
that wasnt embarrassing enough, you go on to make the following mistakes:
1. You were the one that claim others mistranslate verses. Verse 10 doesnt say that the
servant will see HIS seed (zero) but that he would see seed (zera). It says nothing
about the seed being that of the servant.
2. Just as in other places the word zera can be metaphorical and not referring to
physical offspring of the subject. Such as Psalm 22:31 where YHWH is the subject,
yet no one will say that the seed is His. And in Isaiah 57:4 where falsehood is the
subject, yet no one will say that the seed is the physical product of falsehood.
3. If you had any regard for the context of the verse, you would see that the
prolonging of his days is AFTER HE DIED, which clearly points to a resurrection
from the dead. So this isnt talking about a person that would live happily ever after
and become old. This is talking about a person living after he had died.
So I repeat that your objection point 5 is moot!
My response:
Jesus' suffering was through his grieve with maybe some minor bruises, kicks,
punches and slashes, if any! There is no contradiction here. Psalm 91 clearly
promises that Jesus will cry out to GOD Almighty for help, and GOD Almighty
WILL send down the Angels to protect him from death and harm. "Harm" here
could mean permanent or fatal harming that is too damaging.
Also, the "will" here shows that Psalm 91 is about prophecies that will happen and
will be fulfilled. And according to Islam, yes, Jesus was lifted up and saved as I
demonstrated above.
As to Jesus seeing "seed", whether they are his children or not, the point
about prolonging his life remains, and it proves that he will not die at all.
And as to the prolonging his life is after he dies, this is a perfect example of the type
of hog wash and absurdities that Christians invent and call faith and theology. All of
your points had been based upon speculations and ridiculous absurdities. My
refutations to you, on the other hand, are based on solid proofs that prove that Jesus
was never prophesied to actually die. It just talked about him facing death, but never
actually to die.
He wrote:
6 - In Isaiah 53:12, we are told that Jesus' life or soul will be poured unto death.
To me, given the Islamic position about Christ never got crucified, and given the
symbolic speech in Isaiah 53 chapter that most of it conflicts with what really
took place with Christ in the gospels, and given the fact that many early writings
in Palestine and elsewhere stated clearly that Jesus never got crucified such as in
the Apocalypse of Peter and other ancient texts, then my interpretation of this
verse about Jesus' life being poured unto death means to me that Jesus' life will
overpower death! This is indisputably proven in Psalm 91 where it states that not
only Jesus will not get crucified, but GOD Almighty will also hear his cries and
will send down the Angels to PROTECT HIM and SAVE HIM. And Psalm 91
also says that Christ will call upon GOD Almighty and GOD Almighty will
HEAR him and HONOR him. Christ would not have been honored if he have
died the humiliating death of the cross. And certainly, he would not have been
"saved" either by the Angels.
Oh my, where to start:
1. There was no Palestine in the first century, the land was Israel. Palestine was not
invented until well into the second century.
2. The Apocalypse of Peter is NOT an early authentic text, it is a later apocryphal
book!
3. When properly understood, Isaiah 53 ONLY makes sense when applied to the
description of the Messiah in the Gospels
4. You erroneously start with the a-chronological position that is the lens of the Quran
and then look at what the text of Scripture allows for. It never even occurs to you that
the Quran is a false book to begin with and that you have to look at how IT relates to
the previous revelations and NOT the other way around.
5. Your understanding of the servant overpowering death is a correct one. But not as
you put it. The chapter speaks of the rejection of the servant, his suffering, his death
and his resurrection, which is how he conquers death! But you dont allow that clear
reading because of your illogical position that you have to look at what the Quran
allows for and adjust the reading of the text of Isaiah to that.
6. You still havent shown us why we should even entertain the thought that Psalm 91
is specifically about Yeshua or even generally Messianic at all. I have challenged you
about that reading to prove your point. You havent done so to this day. If Psalm is
really indisputably about the Messiah, please provide the evidence to stop this
despute.
7. You wrote: Christ would not have been honored if he have died the humiliating
death of the cross. And certainly, he would not have been "saved" either by the
Angels. Which is exactly why your reading is flawed. You, again, start with the
illogical position that your reading of Psalm 91 is correct (without ANYTHING that
remotely looks like evidence that it is), and then judge the Gospels claims about the
Messiah based on your flawed understanding of ONE unambiguously non-Messianic
Psalm.
8. As for Christ not being honoured if he died. What greater honour is there to be
falsely accused of wrongdoing, then put to death by your accusers and then
completely vindicated by God through resurrection and exaltation above the heavens?
If you have an answer to that, Im eager to see it.
9. You completely miss the purpose for all this suffering of the servant. The verse
says: because he bared his soul unto death, and was numbered with the
transgressors; yet he bore the sin of many, and made intercession for the
transgressors. Question: What did he intercede for? How did he bare the sins of
many? WHY did he bare the sins of many? Who were the many and the
transgressors? How did he intercede for the transgressors? This verse sums it all up
perfectly: Through the suffering and the death of the Righteous Servant, the sins of
many transgressors will be interceded for. But, of course, you will not allow for this
clear reading, because the Quran doesnt allow you to go there.
Your point 6 is moot!
My response:
1-
The Philistines, and the people of Palestine, existed long before Moses and his
followers ever migrated to Palestine. But this is a seperate topic altogether and is
irrelevant to us here.
2-
I've already proven in the article that the Apocalypse of Peter existed and was very
popular among early Christians.
3-
That's just your opinion and biase.
4-
Another blasphemous and worthless opinion from you.
5-
"Your understanding of the servant overpowering death is a correct one. But not
as you put it." Thank you for openly admitting that my interpretation is correct and is
quite possible! I already demonstrated why my interpretation is the right one above.
But thank you for demonstrating how confusing and ridiculous your Bible's use of the
words.
6 through 9- I already covered all of this in the article above.
But in regards to
Jesus interceding for the transgressors, it could be as little as a simple request or
prayer for them. Did not Jesus, in the New Testament, pray to GOD Almighty and
say: "Father forgive them for they know not"?
As to Jesus bearing the sins of many, it is referring to him being burdened by the
sins and the wickedness of his people. This is why the second half of the sentence
says "and he made intercession for the wicked," because he loved them so much that
he wanted to seek a second chance for them with GOD Almighty. He carried their
sins for them before GOD Almighty to seek intercession for them. This is what the
verse is exactly saying.
Remember that Jesus was sentenced to death! This

is why we see references to death and life in Isaiah 53.
But the main point is that YOU CAN NOT establish that
he actually died!
Please visit:
Evidence from the Greek NT suggesting that "Jesus Barabbas" not "Jesus of
Nazareth" is the one who got crucified!
Jesus Barabbas and Jesus the Nazorean.
The early Disciples' writings declare that Jesus never got crucified!
He wrote:
It then seems to me that Muslims will turn facts into fables to keep the truth claims of
the Quran alive. And they will subsequently turn fables into facts to keep the Quran
from being falsified.
Conclusion: Osama, your article on Isaiah 53 is grossly erroneous, contradictory,
disordered, incoherent, childishly written, poorly edited and a scholarly disaster. In
other words, all that work was a total waste of time. It didnt take any effort from my
part to dismantle your silly accusations of mistranslations. Take it off and give it
another go.
Nakdimon
My response:
I invite you and the reader to visit: The Overwhelming Scientific Miracles of the
Noble Quran to see how our Holy Book is indeed a Divine and True Miracle from
GOD Almighty, and is His True and Living Word. You are terrified from Psalm 91
and the interpretations that I gave above about Isaiah 53. Isaiah 52 also says clearly
that he will be raised and lifted. You know well that if we establish that Psalm 91 is
about Jesus Christ, then this will be the end of Christianity! As I mentioned above:
In the New Testament, Psalm 91 is directly linked to Jesus Christ, in the New
Testament, by Jesus Christ himself, while Isaiah 53 isn't linked to Jesus by anyone.
Psalm 91 said many Prophecies, and they are listed above in this article. Satan, in the
New Testament, even tried to use Psalm 91 to tempt Jesus into testing GOD Almighty
to try to kill himself by throwing himself off of the canyon or mountain to see if GOD
Almighty will be True to His Word and Promise and send down the Angels to lift
Jesus up from death and harm as precisely mentioned in Psalm 91. Psalm 91
further declares that Christ will call upon GOD Almighty for help to protect him from
death, and GOD Almighty will honor him and protect him from death.
By the way, Psalm 91 says that GOD Almighty will not even let Jesus strike his foot
against a rock from harm. This is a symbolic speech that means that GOD Almighty
will not let Jesus get hurt at all. Satan tried to fool Jesus by trying to have Jesus test
GOD Almighty or force GOD Almighty into executing this Promise by trying to jump
off the mountain to see if GOD Almighty will truly send down the Angels to lift Jesus
up or not.
Now certainly, the Prophecy wasn't speaking about Jesus jumping off of a mountain.
It was again a symbolic speech that meant that GOD Almighty will protect Jesus
from death all the way.
Was Psalm 91 for a limited time only?

Some argued that Psalm 91 could've been only till the time before crucifixion, and
that after that, it no longer applies. This is false and is refuted in Psalm 91 itself once
again, because Psalm 91 says clearly that the servant will call upon GOD Almighty in
trouble, and GOD Almighty will save him from death! GOD Almighty will honor
him and protect him, and will not allow for ANY HARM to come near him. The only
time Jesus called upon GOD Almighty to save his life, in the New Testament, was
during the time of crucifixion.
Again, Isaiah 53 is no where linked to Jesus Christ in the New Testament. It is Psalm
91 that is clearly linked. Not only that, but Isaiah 53 has deliberate mistranslations
and misinterpretations in it as I demonstrated above.
(b)-
Rebuttal from the New Testament:
Many Christians have already attempted to directly refute this article by presenting
several verses from the Bible's New Testament that say that Jesus:
1. Was crucified.
2. Died on the cross for our sins.
3. Was raised from the dead.
My response:
My simple answer to them is that they have missed the entire point of this article. If
one could prove with ample and indisputable proofs, from the Bible's Old Testament,
that GOD Almighty regarding the foretold Messiah:
1. Will hear his cries (Psalm 91:15) and will save him (Psalm 91:3).
2. He will cover him with His Protection (Psalm 91:4).
3. Christ will then not have any fear in him (Psalm 91:5).
4. Christ will then observe with his own eyes the punishment of the crucified
ones (Psalm 91:8).
5. No harm (this includes crucifixion!) or disaster will even come near

Christ (Psalm 91:10....this even contradicts him getting beaten up before
crucifixion).
6. GOD Almighty will send down the Angels to protect him and lift him (Psalm
91:11-12, 14, Isaiah 52:13). Not even his foot will strike the ground from his
enemies pushing, grappling and punishment.
7. Christ's call will be HEARD, and he will be delivered and honored (Psalm
91:15, Isaiah 52:13). No way would these verses be valid if Christ got
crucified.
8. His life will be prolonged (extended) and he will live to even see his
offspring (Isaiah 53:10 and Psalm 91:16, which by the way contradict Jesus
never got married and had children. In Islam's Noble Quran's 13:38, however,
it is quite possible that Jesus Christ had wives and children).
9. His life will overpower death (Isaiah 53:12).
10."Death" in Isaiah 53:9 is proven to be symbolic using the Hebrew Lexicon
and several English translations, and it never meant a literal death.
then one is clearly left with overwhelming proofs that prove that most of the New
Testament is false, especially when we know that the Bible's own theologians
admit that its books and gospels had all been:
5. Paul never even met Jesus Christ in person while the latter was on earth. It is
falsely claimed that Jesus appeared to Paul while Paul was on his way to
Damascus after the "crucifixion" (Acts 9:2-4. Note: Paul's name used to be
Saul. Yet, Paul admittedly wasn't even sure whether the Holy Spirit was
inspirning him or not).
claimed that their writings were inspired or Divine. Not only that, but we even
ironically see that:
o Luke for instance, wrote his "gospel" for the sake of another person and
not GOD Almighty. See below for details.
o The disciples even fought with each others [1] [2].
o We read about direct invitations to dinner and other occasions between
the disciples in the "books" [1].
o According to the commentaries below, all of the books of the bible were
altered and corrupted.
The Bible's own theologians even admit that the bible contains
"fictions", its original manuscripts "had been lost", and contains
And, it is also an indisputable fact that the Bible:

1. Is filled with ample contradictions, man's alterations, corruption, and false
scientific absurdities.
2. Is written in third-party narrations, which is why we find in all of the gospels'
titles "This gospel according to....", and countless verses that speak about the
disciples and about their activities in third-party narrations [1] [2] [3] [4],
which proves that the books and gospels were certainly not written by them.
o This also means that much gossips and exaggerations and fabrications
were made up and inserted into the books and gospels. So even if some
people back then thought that Jesus was crucified, they in reality never
actually saw it. It could very well be that they've only heard about it
from a neighboring town and believed it. There are certainly in the
books and gospels:
Too much gossips.
Too wide of date gaps by the decades [1] [2] [3] [4] between when
the supposed event took place and when it was actually written,
by hand, in the corrupt gospels.
Too many Prophecies in the Old Testament that promise that Jesus
Christ, the Messiah, will be saved from the crucifixion.
Too many mistranslations and desperate misinterpretations in
Isaiah 53 and elsewhere.
o This also means that the books and gospels were definitely not inspired
by GOD Almighty. Paul even admits that he had his delusions and
doubts.
New Testament's accounts being mostly false and fabricated by men? And again, as I
mentioned in the conclusion section, I strongly recommend visiting the following
links:
2. What is Islam?
I also want to end this rebuttal with the following verses from the Holy Quran, and the
Deuteronomy 6:4)"
""Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is goodexcept God
alone." (From the NIV Bible, Mark 10:18)"
never crucified.
What is the role of the Holy Spirit in Islam?

Why can't we call it GOD?
1- The Role of the Holy Spirit in Islam.
2- The Role of the Holy Spirit in the Bible.
3- The Holy Spirit is a Creation of GOD Almighty and it is under Him just like
the Angels according to the Noble Quran.
Very important section for
Muslims to read!
4567-
Why can't we call it GOD as trinitarians do?

The Miracle of Adam's creation is far greater than Jesus' creation!
Conclusion.
Rebuttals. See rebuttals to Sam Shamoun's responses.
The Universe or the World that is outside our little world on earth has many unknown
mysteries in it. Even in our world we have a whole life that can not be seen by our
naked eyes, and this world functions probably as we do. The danger in interpreting
things, especially when it comes to GOD Almighty, is that because of our natural
human weakness and unlimited desire to explore and discover the "unknown," we
might fall into the sin and blasphemy of insulting GOD Almighty and associating
partners (creations of His) with Him.
"They ask thee concerning the Spirit (of inspiration). Say: "The Spirit (cometh) by
command of my Lord: of knowledge it is only a little that is communicated to you,
(O men!)" (The Noble Quran, 17:85)"
GOD Almighty is neither a trinity, nor duality, nor plural in

Islam:
"They do blaspheme who say: God is one of three in a Trinity: for there is no god
except One God. If they desist not from their word (of blasphemy), verily a grievous
penalty will befall the blasphemers among them. (The Noble Quran, 5:73)"
"Say: 'O People of the Book (i.e., Jews and Christians)! Come to common terms as
between us and you: That we worship none but Allah; that we associate no partners
with Him; that we erect not, from among ourselves, Lords and patrons other than
Allah.' If then they turn back, say ye: 'Bear witness that we (at least) are Muslims
(bowing to Allah's Will).' (The Noble Quran, 3:64)"
Please visit: What is the Wisdom of Islam?

"Allah" was GOD Almighty's Original Name in the Bible according to the Hebrew
and Aramaic sources.
1- The Role of the Holy Spirit

in Islam:
There are two roles that the Holy Spirit is responsible for according to Islam:
1-
It creates our "spirits." Allah Almighty uses it to blow into our mothers'
wombs our human-spirits. That is why abortion is prohibited in Islam, because the
fetus or foetus does have spirit (life) and it is a human being. It's not just a little piece
of unliving flesh:
"But He fashioned him in due proportion, and breathed into him something of His
Spirit. And He gave you (the faculties of) hearing and sight and feeling (and
understanding): little thanks do ye give! (The Noble Quran, 32:9)"
"When I have fashioned him (in due proportion) and breathed into him of My
Spirit, fall ye down in obeisance unto him. (The Noble Quran, 38:72)"
"When I have fashioned him (in due proportion) and breathed into him of My
Spirit, fall ye down in obeisance unto him. (The Noble Quran, 15:29)"
"And (remember) her who guarded her chastity: We breathed into her of Our
Spirit, and We made her and her son a sign for all peoples. (The Noble Quran,
21:91)"
"And Mary the daughter of 'Imran, who guarded her chastity; and We breathed into
(her body) of Our Spirit; and she testified to the truth of the words of her Lord and
of His Revelations, and was one of the devout (servants). (The Noble Quran, 66:12)"
2-
It is used to provide Divine Guidance to the Believers, those whom Allah
Almighty Loves and Favors. It's not just the Holy Spirit that gives Guidance. Angels
too give it:
"Raised high above ranks (or degrees), (He is) the Lord of the Throne (of
Authority): by His Command doth He send the Spirit (of inspiration) to any of
His servants he pleases, that it may warn (men) of the Day of Mutual Meeting,- (The
Noble Quran, 40:15)"
"Say, the Holy Spirit has brought the Revelation from thy Lord in Truth, in order
to strengthen those who believe, and as a Guide and Glad Tidings to Muslims. (The
Noble Quran, 16:102)"
"Thou wilt not find any people who believe in God and the Last Day, loving those
who resist God and His Apostle, even though they were their fathers or their sons, or
their brothers, or their kindred. For such He has written Faith in their hearts, and
strengthened them with a Spirit from Himself. And He will admit them to Gardens
beneath which Rivers flow, to dwell therein (for ever). God will be well pleased with
them, and they with Him. They are the Party of God. Truly it is the Party of God that
will achieve Felicity. (The Noble Quran, 58:22)"
"Then will God say: "O Jesus the son of Mary! Recount My favour to thee and to thy
mother. Behold! I strengthened thee with the Holy Spirit, so that thou didst speak
to the people in childhood and in maturity. Behold! I taught thee the Book and
Wisdom, the Law and the Gospel and behold! thou makest out of clay, as it were, the
figure of a bird, by My leave, and thou breathest into it and it becometh a bird by My
leave, and thou healest those born blind, and the lepers, by My leave. And behold!
thou bringest forth the dead by My leave. And behold! I did restrain the Children of
Israel from (violence to) thee when thou didst show them the clear Signs, and the
unbelievers among them said: 'This is nothing but evident magic.' (The Noble Quran,
5:110)"
So as you can see, Allah Almighty Created the Holy Spirit for specific functions not
only on this earth, but also perhaps else where in the Universe where we don't know
about. But it is in no way GOD Almighty Himself.
2- The Role of the Holy Spirit

in the Bible:
The Bible is similar to the Noble Quran regarding the role of the Holy Spirit. It never
claimed that the Holy Spirit is GOD Almighty Himself. In section 4 below, you will
see some of the types of the Holy Spirit, or Spirit, that GOD Almighty Created for
Mankind. But for now, let us see what the Bible says about the Holy Spirit:
"When you send your Spirit, they are created, and you renew the face of the
earth. (From the NIV Bible, Psalm 104:30)"
"Where can I go from your Spirit? Where can I flee from your presence? (From the
NIV Bible, Psalm 139:7)"
"Teach me to do your will, for you are my God; may your good Spirit lead me on
level ground. (From the NIV Bible, Psalm 143:10)"
So far, these verses are talking about the Spirit from GOD Almighty. The first verse
above, Psalm 104:30, perfectly agrees with the Noble Verses above about GOD
Almighty Blowing His Spirit into our mothers' wombs when we're fetus.
So does this now mean that the Holy Spirit,

in the Bible, is part of GOD Almighty?
Absolutely not! The Bible is filled with figurative speech. I've written a detailed
article proving this using many examples. The Holy Spirit mentioned above is a
creation from GOD Almighty. It's purpose is to create our spirits as mentioned in
Psalm 104:30. Another purpose for the Holy Spirit is to Guide the Believers:
1 Samuel 18:10 "The next day an evil spirit from God came forcefully upon Saul.
He was prophesying in his house, while David was playing the harp, as he usually did.
Saul had a spear in his hand..." GOD Almighty has an evil spirit? Obviously not,
it's only metaphoric as mentioned above.
1 Samuel 19:9 "But an evil spirit from the LORD came upon Saul as he was sitting
in his house with his spear in his hand. While David was playing the
harp,..." ANOTHER EVIL SPIRIT FROM GOD?!
1 Kings 22:22 " 'By what means?' the LORD asked. " 'I will go out and be a LYING
spirit in the mouths of all his prophets,' he said. " 'You will succeed in enticing him,'
said the LORD. 'Go and do it.'
1 Kings 22:23 "So now the LORD has put a lying spirit in the mouths of all these
prophets of yours. The LORD has decreed disaster for you."
2 Chronicles 18:21 " 'I will go and be a lying spirit in the mouths of all his prophets,'
he said. " 'You will succeed in enticing him,' said the LORD. 'Go and do it.'
Numbers 24:2 "When Balaam looked out and saw Israel encamped tribe by tribe, the
Spirit of God came upon him"
Judges 3:10 "The Spirit of the LORD came upon him, so that he became Israel's
judge and went to war. The LORD gave Cushan-Rishathaim king of Aram into
the hands of Othniel, who overpowered him."
Judges 6:34 "Then the Spirit of the LORD came upon Gideon, and he blew a
trumpet, summoning the Abiezrites to follow him."
Judges 11:29 "Then the Spirit of the LORD came upon Jephthah. He crossed Gilead
and Manasseh, passed through Mizpah of Gilead, and from there he advanced against
the Ammonites."
Judges 14:6 "The Spirit of the LORD came upon him in power so that he tore the
lion apart with his bare hands as he might have torn a young goat. But he told
neither his father nor his mother what he had done."
Judges 14:19 "Then the Spirit of the LORD came upon him in power. He went
down to Ashkelon, struck down thirty of their men, stripped them of their belongings
and gave their clothes to those who had explained the riddle. Burning with anger, he
went up to his father's house."
Judges 15:14 "As he approached Lehi, the Philistines came toward him shouting. The
Spirit of the LORD came upon him in power. The ropes on his arms became like
charred flax, and the bindings dropped from his hands."
1 Samuel 10:6 "The Spirit of the LORD will come upon you in power, and you will
prophesy with them; and you will be changed into a different person."
1 Samuel 10:10 "When they arrived at Gibeah, a procession of prophets met him; the
Spirit of God came upon him in power, and he joined in their prophesying."
1 Samuel 11:6 "When Saul heard their words, the Spirit of God came upon him in
power, and he burned with anger."
1 Samuel 16:13 "So Samuel took the horn of oil and anointed him in the presence of
his brothers, and from that day on the Spirit of the LORD came upon David in
power. Samuel then went to Ramah."
Luke 1:35 "The angel answered, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you (Mary), and
the power of the Most High will overshadow you. So the holy one to be born will be
called the Son of God."
Luke 2:25 "Now there was a man in Jerusalem called Simeon, who was righteous and
devout. He was waiting for the consolation of Israel, and the Holy Spirit was upon
him."
There are, as I mentioned, several types of this Spirit as mentioned in section 4
below.
So if Jesus is GOD because the Holy

Spirit came upon him, then the others
mentioned above should also be GOD
Almighty too.
3- The Holy Spirit is a

Creation of GOD Almighty
and it is under Him just like
the Angels according to the
Noble Quran:
Allah Almighty Said:
"The Day that the Spirit and the Angels will stand forth in ranks, none shall speak
except any who is permitted by (God) Most Gracious, and He will say what is
right. (The Noble Quran, 78:38)"
"A questioner asked about a Penalty to befall- The Unbelievers, the which there is
none to ward off,- (A Penalty) from God, Lord of the Ways of Ascent. The Angels
and the Spirit ascend unto Him in a Day the measure whereof is (as) fifty thousand
years: Therefore do thou hold Patience,- a Patience of beautiful (contentment). (The
"Therein come down the Angels and the Spirit by God's permission, on every
errand: (The Noble Quran, 97:4)"
"Not one of the beings in the heavens and the earth but must come to God) Most
Gracious as a servant. He does take an account of them (all), and hath numbered
them (all) exactly. And everyone of them will come to Him singly on the Day of
Judgment. On those who believe and work deeds of righteousness, will (God) Most
Gracious bestow love. (The Noble Quran, 19:93-96)"
These Noble Verse are the Ultimate knock out to the polytheist trinitarian pagans who
are trying, through their absurd writings, to prove that the Holy Spirit in the Noble
Quran is the other part of Allah Almighty; that he is at least a dual GOD if not a triune
one.
As you clearly see from these Noble Verses and the ones above in the beginning of the
article, trinity and plurality of GOD Almighty is blasphemy! So dear Muslim
brothers and sisters, please be cautious from these satanic deceivers and their new
tricks and desperate false interpretations of the Noble Quran.
4- Why can't we call it GOD

as trinitarians do?
First of all, it is important to know that satan's biggest lie, trinity, is only an
interpretation and a conclusion. There is not a single text in the Bible that says the
Holy Spirit is GOD Almighty, nor does that satanic word, trinity, even exist in the
Bible. People during Constantine's days around year 325, because they were and still
are naturally inclined to idol worship, polytheism and paganism as the Far Eastern
religions are today, they decided to consider Jesus and the Holy Spirit as GOD
Almighty. Satan's deception and evil is overwhelming and powerful. It is no surprise
that people fell for this lie by the billions throughout history, as many more billions
had fell for satan's lies in the Far Eastern pagan religions. Trinity, like I said, doesn't
even exist in the bible. The word doesn't exist anywhere in the book, nor do we have
any text that says Jesus is the Creator of the Universe. The same also goes for the
Holy Spirit.
The reason why Muslims don't call the Holy Spirit as GOD Almighty is because it is
just a creation of GOD Almighty with specific and limited duties as I clearly
demonstrated above from the Noble Quran. Like the Angels and the other Universal
Spirits, the Holy Spirit is unknown to us and we can't fully describe it. But
nonetheless, this doesn't give anyone the right to start getting colorful and smart and
deceive the weak-minded and call it and other creations as GOD Almighty.
I have a long and detailed section that refutes the lie of trinity from the Bible. It's best
if you read it and see the Truth for yourself.
Also, it seems clear that the Bible has several types of Universal Spirits, or Holy
Spirits. For instance, we see a prediction about the "Spirit of Fearing GOD" being
installed in the coming Prophet, Jesus:
Isaiah 11:1-3
1. A shoot will come up from the stump of Jesse; from his roots a Branch will bear
fruit.
2. The Spirit of the LORD will rest on him (Jesus)-- the Spirit of wisdom and of
understanding, the Spirit of counsel and of power, the Spirit of knowledge and of
the fear of the LORD (Jesus fearing his GOD)-3. and he will delight in the fear of the LORD. He will not judge by what he sees with
his eyes, or decide by what he hears with his ears;
As we see in Isaiah 11:1-3, there is:
1- Spirit of Wisdom and Understanding.

2- Spirit of Counsel and of power.
3- Spirit of Knowledge.
4- Spirit of the fear of the LORD.
Also, the verses above say "and he will delight in the fear of the LORD", which
clearly proves that Jesus is under GOD Almighty and can not be equivalent to Him or
part of Him, because GOD Almighty has no fear in Him. He Created fear, or the
Spirit of Fear, and He installs it on whom ever He pleases. But He Himself doesn't
have that Spirit in Him!
The verses above also say "He will not judge by what he sees with his eyes, or decide
by what he hears with his ears;...", which further proves that Jesus is not part of GOD
Almighty, because GOD Almighty Speaks and Hears whatever He Pleases!
The Bible's New Testament also records Jesus saying: ""Why do you call
me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is goodexcept God alone." (From the NIV
Bible, Mark 10:18)"
If Jesus doesn't consider himself as "good", then

how can any sane person put him on the same level
as GOD Almighty?
I have yet to see a good answer to this one by any
polytheist trinitarian.
Also, another important point to notice in Mark 10:18 is the word "alone": ""Why do
you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is goodexcept
God
alone." (From the NIV Bible, Mark 10:18)"

Jesus in this verse is clearly giving exclusivity to GOD Almighty when he said
"alone". If Jesus was truly part of GOD Almighty and/or the trinity lie was true, then
Jesus, to say the least, would not have said that.
My rebuttal to Sam Shamoun's

absurdities regarding Mark 10:18 where
Jesus said he was not "good".
Show me in the Bible where Jesus said he was

not GOD!
I sometimes get asked by trinitarians to show them where Jesus said that he WAS
NOT GOD Almighty in the Bible. Ironically, it is like having this scenario:
Q. Show me where John Doe said that he was not the President of the United States!
Show me the quote now!!
A. He just said he works as a computer programmer you brainless idiot! :-)
Jesus said he was not good. He can't possibly say I am your Creator and by the way I
am not good. The question itself shows the complete ignorance about what's written
in the bible and reveals the total blasphemy and darkness that polytheist trinitarian
pagans are living in.
Jesus is not GOD! The GOD Almighty of the Old Testament BOASTS about
Himself! He countlessly reminds the Jews about Worshiping Him and only Him
because He is the "One who took them out of Egypt", and He's the "One who Saved
them from Pharaoh", etc... Not only that, but He also Punishes to death anyone who
profanes His Holy and Blessed Name.
Jesus can not be this Holy and Mighty and Arrogant and Absolute GOD Almighty
when he, for instance, escaped to Egypt for his life from King Herod! The GOD
Almighty's Divine Characteristics in the Old Testament can not in anyway fit Jesus
who is not "good" and who runs for his life from a creation of GOD Almighty.
For more information, please visit: Jesus had no Divine Will according to the New
Testament. How could he be our Creator?
I have ample detailed refutations to the lie of trinity on my site. You can further see
them to clearly understand that GOD Almighty is an Absolute One and only One and
not a unity or trinity as satan claims.
Also visit:
The early Christians rejected Trinity. Early Christians had major problems and
disagreements about who truly Jesus was and whether or not he got crucified or not.
Early Christians' Doctrines confirm Jesus DID NOT GET crucified. See proofs that
the early Christians' scriptures during the 1st and 2nd centuries claimed that GOD
Almighty Saved Jesus from crucifixion.
The "God" title in the Bible was given to others in the Old and New
Testaments. Answering Isaiah 9:6. The "El" (God) title that was given to Jesus in
the Old Testament, and the "HOTHEOS" (God) title in the New Testament, were
given to others before and after Jesus in the Bible. The only UNIQUE title that exists
in the Bible is "Yahweh", which means "The Eternal".
Emanuel, Emmanuel, Yahshua, Yeshua, Yashua, Immanuel and Imanuel. These were
all "Godly" names given to others before and after Jesus in the Bible. None of them is
unique. Only "Yahweh" was GOD Almighty's Unique Name.
5- The miracle of Adam's

creation is far greater than
Jesus' creation!
It is often said by trinitarians that Jesus' miraculous birth is a clear proof that he is the
Creator of the Universe. I often hear this absurd nonsense and easily refute it by
presenting Adam's creation. Adam was created in a much more complex Miracle than
Jesus. At least Jesus had to be formed as a fetus in a woman's womb. Yes she was
virgin when GOD Almighty caused her to get pregnant, but nonetheless, Jesus had to
be formed as a fetus in a human womb like you and me.
Adam on the other hand and Eve also were created in a much more complex Miracle.
Adam was created vitually out of nothing. Eve, his wife, was created from his rib.
These two Miracles are far greater than Jesus' birth.
So the absurd claim about Jesus' birth proving that he is GOD Almighty is soundly
debunked through simple common sense.
Also please visit: None of Jesus' Miracles were unique either.
6- Conclusion:
In the light of the Quranic Noble Verses and the Biblical verses above, the Holy Spirit
is in no way GOD Almighty Himself. To say the least regarding Islam, the lie of
trinity and/or duality of GOD Almighty in Islam does not exist, and it had
been soundly debunked throughout this article! The Christian missionaries' new lies
and tactics about introducing trinity in Islam's Doctrines has been exposed in this
article through the Will and Wisdom of Allah Almighty. All Praise due to Him.
As I demonstrated above using the Noble Quran, the Holy Spirit is only a Creation
from GOD Almighty, and it has specific duties assigned to it. Also in the Day of
Judgement, the Holy Spirit and the Angels will be standing before GOD Almighty
waiting for His Divine Orders and Commands, which indisputably proves that the
Holy Spirit is below Allah Almighty and is in no way part of Him.
Are these Paul's words or GOD Almighty's

Divine Revelations????
Christian theologians have created the lie and myth about the Bible being GOD
Almighty's Divine Words. Let us see just how true this bogus claim is:
The following verses were sent to me by brother Haytham, may Allah Almighty
always be pleased with him.
2 Timothy 4:9-13
9 Do your best to come to me quickly,
10 for Demas, because he loved this world, has deserted me and has gone to
Thessalonica. Crescens has gone to Galatia, and Titus to Dalmatia.
11 Only Luke is with me. Get Mark and bring him with you, because he is helpful
to me in my ministry.
12 I sent Tychicus to Ephesus.
13 When you come, bring the cloak that I left with Carpus at Troas, and my
scrolls, especially the parchments.
Titus 3:12-14
12 As soon as I send Artemas or Tychicus to you, do your best to come to me at
Nicopolis, because I have decided to winter there.
13 Do everything you can to help Zenas the lawyer and Apollos on their way and see
that they have everything they need.
14 Our people must learn to devote themselves to doing what is good, in order that
they may provide for daily necessities and not live unproductive lives.
He decided to winter there???
Are these Paul's own opinions and commands or

are they truly GOD
Almighty's UNCOMPROMISED Divine
Revelations:
1 Timothy 2:11-15
11 A woman should learn in quietness and full submission.
12 I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man; she must
be silent.
13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve.
14 And Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and
became a sinner.
15 But women[a] will be saved[b] through childbearingif they continue in faith, love
and holiness with propriety.
Muslim brothers and sisters, the next time you run into a rude female missionary who
talks trash about Islam, show her these set of verses and tell her to SHUT UP for she
is not supposed to be teaching or talking TO BEGIN WITH, let alone have an opinion
about Islam or anything else for this matter!!
1 Corinthians 14:34
34 Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them
to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law. And if
they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for
women to speak in the church.
I think the nationally-known Church Minister, Mrs. Joyce Meyer, should resign and
repent according to uncle Paul.
So, were the above truly Paul's opinions or GOD

Almighty's Divine Commands?
If the Bible is truly GOD
Almighty's UNCOMPROMISED Revelations, then why
do we have Paul's personal nonsense in the book???
How can any sane person then say that the Bible is
ALL GOD Almighty's Divine Revelations and is errorfree?
The "God" title in the Bible was given to others:

1- In Isaiah 9:6 and the Old Testament.
2- The "Mighty God" translation.
3- Did Jesus ever claim to be "Mighty God" or "God"?
4- Questions to you.
5- Is Jesus the biological Son of GOD?
6- The "God" title for Jesus and others in the New Testament. Answering verses
such as Luke 8:39 and others.
- So can we trust the current English Translations then?
7- The Gospel of Luke is corrupted anyway according to the Bible's Theologians.
8- What about "The everlasting Father" title for Jesus? Does that prove he is
GOD Almighty? Ezra and King Hezekiah were also called "Father" and
"Everlasting Father".
9- Conclusion.
1- In Isaiah 9:6 and the Old

Testament:
Christians claim that since the predicted Prophet's name (Jesus) will be called "Mighty
God" in Isaiah 9:6-7, then therefore, he must be GOD Almighty Himself.
Let us read the Verses: "For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given, and the
government shall be upon his shoulder; and his name shall be called Wonderful,
Counselor, Mighty God (EL Gibor), The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace. Of
the increase of his government and peace there shall be no end, upon the throne of
David, and upon his kingdom, to order it, and to establish it with justice and
righteousness from hence forth even forever. The zeal of the Lord of hosts will
perform this. (Isaiah 9:6-7)"
It is quite unfortunate that in the old Jewish culture, people used to be named "Godly"
names. This is quite misleading and deceiving to Christians when they try to define
the deity of Jesus.
Psalm 82:6 "I said, 'You are "gods" (Elohim; plural to El); you are all sons of
the Most High.' " "gods" here in Hebrew is "Elohim", which is plural of "EL". It is
the same exact thing as "EL" used for Jesus in Isaiah 9:6, since "gods" is a
combination of several "EL"s. And as clearly shown here, for someone to be called
"god" or "God" in the Bible it wouldn't make him GOD Almighty Himself, the LORD
or Jehovah. I also want to point out that any "Son of GOD" in the Bible is a "god" or
"God".
See also: The definition of "Son of God" in Islam.

"Son of God" means "Servant of God" in Hebrew. Bible agrees with Islam, not
with pagan trinity.
"Allah" was GOD Almighty's Original Name in the Bible according to Hebrew and
Aramaic sources.
Many people in the Jewish old culture were called "God" before Jesus' existence on
earth. The following translations were verified by http://bible.crosswalk.com and
the Jewish Sabbath Temple:
Note: Some of the words have different translations in
the http://bible.crosswalk.com site than in the Jewish Sabbath Temple translation. I
trust the Jewish Sabbath Temple translation, because they speak far better and more
accurate Hebrew than the Bible Crosswalk site who are Christians and are desperate
to prove the trinity dogma even if it means giving inaccurate and wrong/false
translations:
Important Note: The "Yahweh" in many Hebrew names is shortened because it

apparently makes the name much easier to pronounce since it is used often. It is very
similar to our shortened names today such as:
1- Michael shortened for Mike.
2- Samuel shortened for Sam.
1- Jerusalem was called "The LORD our Righteousness". "In those days Judah
will be saved and Jerusalem will live in safety. This is the name by which it will be
called: The LORD Our Righteousness (Yahweh tsidken).' (From the NIV Bible,
Jeremiah 33:16)"
2- Abraham called a mountain "The LORD will Provide" (Yahweh Jireh). "So
Abraham called that place The LORD Will Provide (Yahweh Jireh). And to this day
it is said, "On the mountain of the LORD it will be provided. (From the NIV Bible,
Genesis 22:14)"
3- Ezekiel means "Strong God". It also means "Yahweh is Strong God".
4- Elijah. This name is short for EliJehovah or "Eli Yahweh". Eli means my
GOD, and Yahweh is the name and title of GOD Almighty in the Bible. Does "Eli
Yahweh" or Elijah mean that the person is Jehovah Himself?
5- Israel means "Challenge God", "he struggles with God", or "fight with God". It
also means "Defeat God".
6- Gabriel also means "Strong God".
7- Isaiah or Jesaiah, which is short for "Jesa Yahweh" means "Salvation from
Yahweh". It could also mean "Salvation".
8- Joshua, which is short for "Josh Yahweh" means "Yahweh Saves".
9- Elli, which is a common name for men before and after Jesus, means "God".
Psalm 82:6 "I said, 'You are "gods"; you are all sons of the Most High.'
" "gods" here in Hebrew is"Elohim", which is plural of "EL". It is the same exact
thing as "EL" used for Jesus in Isaiah 9:6, since "gods" is a combination of several
"EL"s. And as clearly shown here, for someone to be called "god" or "God" in the
Bible it wouldn't make him GOD Almighty Himself, the LORD or Jehovah. I also
want to point out that ANY "Son of GOD" in the Bible is a "god" or "God" as
clearly shown in Psalm 82:6.
Note: The trinitarian liars who translate the Bible into English play dirty tricks about
capitalizing and lowering the "g" in "God" to prove their trinity lie, while they fully
know that it is the same word used for ALL!
10- Immanuel, Emanuel, Emmanuel, Immanuel, or Imanuel are the SAME

NAME and are another name for Jesus, means "With us is God". This name is also
common for men before and after Jesus.
11- Elihu means "My God is He".

12- Gedaliah means "Jehovah is Great". Again, Gedaliah is short for "Gedal
Yahweh". Is the person who was called "Jehovah is Great" GOD Almighty
Himself? People before and after Jesus are given this name. See 2 Kings 25:2224.
13- Eliadah or Eliada means "God knows".
14- Eliab means "my God is Father".
15- Elzaphan means "God is Protector"
16- Eliakim means "God raises".
17- Elisha means "God is Salvation".
18- Eleazar means "God has helped"
19- Judah or Yahawdah means "Praised". It generally means "Praised by Yahweh".
20- Hashabiah means "Jehovah has considered".
21- Mattithiah means "Gift of Jehovah".
22- Michael (nick name "Mike") means "who is like God". Yet, non is like Him,
the Almighty. See Exodus 8:10.
23- Jesus, Yahshua, Yeshua or Yashua are the SAME NAME, and mean "Salvation".
It doesn't mean "God Saves" as Christians claim. Jesus (Yeshua) means in Hebrew
"salvation" and not "God saves". Yud Shin Waw Ain - this name doesn't include the
word "God".
Joshua (Yehoshya) - Yod Hey - Waw Shin Ain
Isaya (Yeshayah) - Yod Shin Ain - Yod Hey .
These two names are combination of Yod, Shin, Ain - salvation and Yod, Hey Yahwe.
Yosh Hey (Yah) is common short from Yahwe, for example Alleluia comes from
"Halelu Yah" - "Glorify Yahwe".
I confirmed the correctness of the above translations with the Jewish Sabbath
Temple. See also how the Christian Translators are in error regarding some of
the translations of the "Godly" names that were fixed above.
In the above examples, we clearly see that the old Jewish culture gave "Godly" titles
to people who are not in anyway divine.
Notice that in Isaiah 9:6, it clearly says "and his NAME shall be...." This clearly
proves that "Mighty God" is just a name given to the coming Prophet (Jesus). Since
this is just a name, this also clearly proves other people in the old Jewish culture were
named that name before, even if they're not mentioned in the current Bible.
Have Isaiah 9:6 said "and he will be God Almighty Himself" or "and he will be the
God Almighty" then this would be different, because we now would be talking about
not just a NAME given to someone, but rather GOD Almighty Himself.
Important Note: There is not a single Verse in the New Testament where Jesus was
called directly or named directly "Mighty God" or "God". Notice in Isaiah 9:6 it
clearly says "and his name shall be...." Jesus was called "Son of GOD" as many
others in the Bible were called Sons of GOD as shown below in this article, but he
never even once was addressed as "Mighty God" or "God", nor he ever claimed to be
"Mighty God" or "God".
The Jews believe that Isaiah 9:6 was referring to somebody else, other than Jesus.
The Book of Isaiah which obviously contains Isaiah 9:6 came 700 before the birth of
Jesus. The Jews had absolutely no problem calling somebody who came 700 years
before Jesus "El Gibor (Mighty God)". That person's name is Hezekiah. The Jews
believe that Isaiah 9:6 is referring to Hezekiah and not Jesus, and they did indeed
address Hezekiah as "Mighty God". This proves that many people before Jesus were
named even at birth "El Gibor (Mighty God)", just like people were also named
"Ezekiel (Strong God)", "Elli (God)", "Gabriel (Strong God)", etc...
2- The "Mighty God"

translation:
"Mighty God" in Isaiah 9:6 is "El Gibor". This is not exactly "Mighty God", but
close. "Strong" is more correct (but it is different from strong of "hazak"). Here both
El and Gibor are nouns - this is short full spell is "El Hu Gibor".
Anyway "El Gibor" and "Gabriel" are same thing. They both mean "Strong God".
"Gabriel" is an angel's name in the Bible.
The word "Gibor" in Isaiah 9:6 and the word "Gibor" of Gabriel have exactly the
same root, and they are both the same word. The word itself can also be translated as
"Man of God".
By the way, "EL" can also mean "Judge". So "El Gibor" can also be translated as
"Strong Judge".
The "Mighty God" translation is just one possibility. This type of differences in
translation exists throughout the Hebrew language, where words' meaning change
depending on the sentence. That is why there is no one single solid Bible
Translation!. Theologians have difficulties agreeing on some key issues in
translations. That's why we see so many different Bibles with so many different
translations.
But anyhow, even if "Mighty God" was the right translation, it is still just a NAME
given to Jesus and nothing more. It doesn't in anyway prove that he is the creator of
the Universe. Many people as shown above were given the misleading "Godly" titles
before Jesus.
3- Did Jesus ever claim to be

"Mighty God" or "God"?
From Sheikh Ahmed Deedat's work; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:
Let us look at John 10:30 "I (Jesus) and the Father are One." This verse is severely
misunderstood and is taken out of context, because beginning at verse John 10:23 we
read (in the context of 10:30) about Jesus talking to the Jews. In verse John 10:28-30,
talking about his followers as his sheep, he states: "...Neither shall any man pluck
them out of my hand. My Father who gave them me, is greater than all, and no man is
able to pluck them out of my Father's hand. I and the Father are One."
These verses prove only that Jesus and the Father are one in that no man can pluck the
sheep out of either's hand. It does not at all state that Jesus is God's equal in
everything. In fact the words of Jesus, " My Father, who gave them me is Greater than
ALL...," in John 10:29 completely negates this claim, otherwise we are left with a
contradiction just a sentence apart. All includes everyone even Jesus.
Also let us look at verse John 17:20-22 "That the ALL may be made ONE. Like thou
Father art in me, I in thee, that they may be ONE in us. I in them, they in me, that they
may be perfect in ONE". In this verse, the same word ONE used, the Greek, HEN is
used, not only to describe Jesus and the Father but to describe Jesus, the Father and
eleven of the twelve disciples of Jesus. So here if that implies equality, we have a
unique case of 13 Gods.
Of the verse in question, "I and the Father are One" in (John 10:30), we also need to
take note of the verses following the 30th verse in the text. In those verses, the Jews
accuse Jesus falsely of claiming to be God by these words. He however replies,
proving their accusation wrong by their own text: "The Jews answered him
saying,'For a good work we stone thee not, but for blasphemy, and because that thou
being a man, makest thyself a God '" (John 10:33).
Jesus replies to this accusation saying: "Jesus answered them, 'Is it not written in your
Law, "I said ye are gods. If He can call them gods, unto whom the word of God came,
say ye of him whom the Father hath sanctified and sent into the world, "Thou
blasphemeth," because I said I am the son of God?'" (John 10:34-36).
Let us look at Acts 2:22 "O you men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a
MAN approved of God among you..." Peter in the Book of Acts testifies about
Jesus. Jesus thus even to his disciples, as to early Christians, not poisoned by Pauline
doctrine, was a man, not a God.
From www.jewsforjudaism.org:
Question: In John 10:30 Jesus says, "I and the Father are one [hen]." Doesn't this
show that they are one in essence?
This statement does not suggest either a dual or triune deity. What John's Jesus meant
by the word hen ("one") becomes clear from his prayer concerning the apostles: "That
they may be one [hen], just as we are one [hen]" (John 17:22), which means that they
should be united in agreement with one another as he (Jesus) is always united in
agreement with God, as stated: "I [Jesus] always do the things that are pleasing to
Him [God]" (John 8:29).
There is thus no implication that Jesus and God, or the twelve apostles are to be
considered as of one essence.
Please visit Does calling Jesus "Son of God" prove that he is GOD?
Do People and Angels bowing down to Jesus in Worship really prove that he is
the Creator of the Universe? See how the word "Worship" used for Jesus doesn't
even exist in the original Greek Bibles. The Trinitarian English translations are
nothing but hoaxes and deceptions.
Did Jews continually try to stone Jesus prove that he claimed to be GOD?
Jesus said "I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except
through me." Does that make him GOD?
Jesus claimed that whoever saw him saw the Father. Wouldn't that prove that
Jesus is GOD Himself (i.e., the Creator of the Universe)?
Does Baptizing prove Trinity?
Does GOD's spirit in Jesus prove that Jesus is GOD? Others had it too.
Answering John 1:1
Did Jesus ever claim to be "Mighty God" or "God"? Responding to the "I and the
Father are one. (John 10:30)" claim.
Thomas is misunderstood in verse John 20:28.
Does Jesus saying "I am" prove that he is GOD?
Misunderstanding Jesus' claim about him being the "Alpha and Omega".
4- Questions to you:
From the names above, do you honestly think that "Strong God", "Yahweh is Strong
God", "Yahweh Saves", "God", "Yahweh", "My God is He", "God is Salvation",
"Jehovah is Great" and "Mighty God" have much differences in their meanings?
I mean, why consider Jesus as GOD Himself, which is a great blasphemy, when he
was given a normal "Godly" title that was given to others before him?
If Jesus was named "Jehovah is Great (Gedaliah)" for instance, then we would see
Trinitarian Christians trying their best to prove that he is GOD Almighty Himself.
Why then not consider the people who were named "Gedaliah" before and after Jesus
as GOD Almighty Himself also? Why not consider these people divine as well?
Important Note: So if Jesus was named "Michael or Mike (who is like God)", then
we would see Trinitarian Christians claim that he is GOD Almighty, since Exodus
8:10 clearly states that there is non like GOD, and yet Jesus (Mike) is like GOD which
would without a doubt make him GOD.
This is the type of false interpretations and conclusions that Trinitarian Christians fall
into.
Very Important Note: The reason why the foretold person would be regarded as
"Mighty God" is not because he will be GOD Almighty Himself. His name or title
being "Mighty God" is nothing but a way to show that the person will be very
important and very powerful. He will be like a God on earth because of his Might. I
must emphasize that again, the person's "NAME" will be called "Mighty God". Isaiah
9:6 never said that the person will be GOD Almighty Himself, or GOD Almighty will
be that person. The word "NAME" means that the name will be just a (misleading)
Godly title as many misleading Godly titles were given to others before and after
Jesus peace be upon him in the Bible. I must also emphasize that in the New
Testament, Jesus was not even once called or addressed as "Mighty God" or "God",
nor did he ever claim to be "Mighty God" or "God". So if he were indeed the foretold
person in Isaiah 9:6 (which I personally believe he were), then this means that Jesus
peace be upon him is not GOD Almighty, but a powerful Messenger of GOD
Almighty or someone who has Might that was chosen by GOD Almighty. The Jews
as I mentioned above, believe that the person is Hezekiah and not Jesus. Either way,
the person in Isaiah 9:6 is not GOD Almighty Himself.
5- Is Jesus the biological Son

of GOD?
Trinitarian Christians claim that since Jesus was called "Son of GOD", then this would
make him the Creator of the Universe Himself. This is a great blasphemy, because
this belief holds no concrete ground what so ever!. You do not call someone GOD
Almighty Himself from a conclusion, especially when it easily can be refuted.
Many people before Jesus were called "Sons of GOD" in the Bible. Let us look at few
of them:
1- Exodus 4:22 "Thus saith Jehovah, Israel is my son, even my firstborn." Israel was
GOD's Son before Jesus since Israel is the "first born". Does this make Israel divine?
2- Jeremiah 31:9 "I am a father to Israel, and Ephraim is my firstborn." Ephraim is
another name for Israel.
3- Psalm 2:7 "....Jehovah had said onto me (David), thou art my Son; this day have I
begotten thee." Since GOD Almighty chose David to be His begotten Son, does this
make David divine too?
4- Psalm 82:6 "I said, 'You are "gods"; you are all sons of the Most High.'
" Again, "gods" here in Hebrew is "Elohim", which is plural of "EL". It is the same
exact thing as "EL" used for Jesus in Isaiah 9:6, since "gods" is a combination of
several "EL"s. And as clearly shown here, for someone to be called "god" or "God" in
the Bible it wouldn't make him GOD Almighty Himself, the LORD or Jehovah. I also
The "Son of GOD" title that was given to Jesus wasn't the only title for him. Jesus
was also called "Son of David." Keep in mind that Jesus came at least 1,000 years
after King David. Jesus was also called "Son of Man". See Matthew 1:1, Matthew
9:27, Matthew 12:23, Matthew 15:22, Matthew 20:30-31, Matthew 22:42, and many
other verses.
Is the Man whom Jesus was called his son (possibly David) divine? Is David divine
since Jesus is his Son?
How come Christian Roman Catholics have created the Theological Science of
Maryology, and never created the Theological Science of Davidology? I mean think
about it, if Jesus the "Almighty GOD" was called "Son of David", then shouldn't this
make David a divine person, since he is one from the many billions that GOD created
in this world?
Jesus was called:
Son of GOD
Son of David
Son of Man
Why consider Jesus as the actual biological Son of GOD, when the same expression
was used for King David being Jesus' Father who existed 1,000 years before Jesus?
Why can't "Son of GOD" that was used for Jesus be just an expression just like the
"Godly" titles and "Son of GOD" expressions that were used for others before Jesus as
well as shown above?
6- The "God" title for Jesus

and others in the New
Testament:
As clearly shown in the section "Did Jesus ever claim to be "Mighty God" or
"God"?" above and all of the articles I linked at the bottom of it, Jesus peace be upon
him never claimed to be GOD or anything part of GOD. He never gave the "God"
title to himself.
There are however verses in the New Testament that give Jesus the "God" title such as
the following:
" 'Return home and tell how much God has done for you.' So the man went away and
told all over town how much Jesus had done for him. (From the NIV Bible, Luke
8:39)"
But it is important to know that this "God" title in the New Testament was given to
others beside Jesus as well. It is not the unique "The LORD" or "Jehovah" title that
was given only to the Father, was given to Jesus. No where in the Bible was Jesus
given such title.
Let us look an instance where the "God" title was given to others beside Jesus in the
New Testament:
When I debate with Christians about this "God" expression given to Jesus compared
to other Prophets and people, they claim that the word "God" with a capital "G" refers
to God himself, and the word "god" with small "g" refers to humans. They also claim
that they came to this type of translation from the Greek translation. Some lies and
discrepancies had been inserted into the Bible through capitalizing the letter "G" when
it is supposed to be a small "g" when referring to Jesus:
The following is from the work of Sheikh Ahmed Deedat; may Allah Almighty always
be pleased with him:
Let us look at John 1:1 "In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God,
and the word was God." This is often presented from the Gospel of John to prove that
Jesus was God. There are however several problems with this claim: By this verse it
is assumed that Jesus was the "word" and since the word was God and became flesh,
Jesus is God. The statement that John reproduced in his gospel however was uttered
not by John but by A. Philo of Alexandria, years before Jesus or John were born. It is
therefore completely unlikely that Philo was even remotely referring to Jesus.
There is also another reason for not capitalizing the "G" in John 1:1, considering the
Greek of the above verse which disproves the assertion that Jesus is referred to as God
in the verse. In the verse above, the first time the word God is used, the Greek is
HOTHEOS (the same exact word given to Satan as God in 2 Corinthians 4:4. The
NIV Bible Author wrote "god" for Satan instead of "God"), which means The God.
The second time the word God is used,"....and the word was God," the word for God
is TONTHEOS, which means "a god". Europeans have evolved a system of capital
and small letters non-existent in Greek. The God, HOTHEOS is translated as God
with a capital G, whereas Tontheos, which means A or ANY God is translated with a
small g, god. In this case however, we see the unlawful translators trying to prove
Jesus being God by putting capital G for both whereas it doesn't belong in the case of
the "word".
Here is how 2 Corinthians 4:4 is read in the current English translation of the NIV
Bible:
"The god of this age has blinded the minds of unbelievers, so that they cannot see
the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God. (From the NIV
Bible, 2 Corinthians 4:4)"
It should've been written as "The God of this age....." since the same Greek word was
used for Jesus in describing him for being a "God".
Let us look at Psalm 82:6 "I said, 'You are "gods"; you are all sons of the Most
High.' " "gods" here in Hebrew is "Elohim", which is plural of "EL". It is the same
exact thing as "EL" used for Jesus in Isaiah 9:6, since "gods" is a combination of
several "EL"s. And as clearly shown here, for someone to be called "god" or "God" in
the Bible it wouldn't make him GOD Almighty Himself, the LORD or Jehovah. I also
So can we trust the current English Translations then?

Absolutely not! Given that facts above about verse John 1:1, how can we expect from
an ordinary English speaking Christian who wants to spread his religion with all his
heart honestly and faithfully to understand this lie of capitalizing the small "g" in John
1:1 and other verses, and not capitalizing the "g" in 2 Corinthians 4:4 for Satan for
instance? Must we allow our faith to be all based on what other authors decide to
insert from their own personal views into the Bible?
7- The Gospel of Luke is

corrupted anyway according
to the Bible's Theologians:
Regarding the verse Luke 8:39 above, we can't really trust it's validity anyway,
because the entire gospel of Luke is corrupt according to the Theologians and
Historians of the NIV Bible.
The following was taken from the Just who were the authors of the Bible? article.
The Gospel of Luke:

"The author's name does not appear in the book, but much unmistakable evidence
points to Luke. (From the NIV Bible Commentary, page 1529)"
Again, we don't know for sure whether it was Luke or not who wrote the "Gospel of
Luke" since his name doesn't appear in the Book. The Gospel itself seems to be a
compromising one to the Word of GOD. Let us look at the following:
"Therefore, since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning,
it seemed good also to me to write an orderly account for you, most excellent
Theophilus, (Luke 1:3)"
Few problems with this Gospel from the quote above:

1- The author was not inspired, and knew for sure that he was not inspired by GOD
Almighty to write the Book since he didn't mention about any divine inspiration, and
he said "...since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning..."
Where do we see GOD's inspiration in this?
2- The author wrote it for the purpose of "his most excellent Theophilus." Since when
we compromise GOD Almighty and document His Holy Words for the purpose of
other higher (in rank) human beings?
I say it again, I hope you see the real danger in making these assumptions when you
are willing to DIE for the fact that such Gospel is the actual True Word of GOD
Almighty!
Also, beside, what evidence are they talking about?! The New Testament wasn't even
documented on paper until 150-300 years (depending on what Christian you talk to)
after Jesus. So unless the Book/Gospel was signed by its author, there is no way we
would know for sure that it was indeed his book from the first place, let alone
considering as the True Living Word of GOD.
Further from brother Vipor Poison; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:
Luke 1:3
Therefore, since I myself have carefully investigated everything from the beginning, it
seemed good also to me to write an orderly account for you, most excellent
Theophilus,
The following is from the Catholic Encyclopedia:
http://newadvent.org/cathen/14625b.htm
http://newadvent.org/cathen/14625a.htm
If Theophilus existed in either the 2nd or the 4th centuries then how could the writer
of this gospel be the same Luke who is supposed to be with Jesus in the 1st century.
Maybe he lived to about 200 years.
8- What about "The

everlasting Father" title for
Jesus? Doesn't that prove he
is GOD Almighty?
"Everlasting Father" is different than "Eternal Father". Jesus was never called
"eternal" ever in his life. Plus also, King Hezekiah was also called "Everlasting
Father" by the Jews. Also, Ezra was called "The Father of Judaism" in Yemen by the
Yemenis Jews (Encyclopedia Judaica, Vol. 6, Encyclopedia Judaica Jerusalem, page
1108).
So as we clearly see, it was normal to give Fatherly and GODly names and titles to
people in the Old and New Testament days. Jesus being called "Everlasting Father"
doesn't mean anything more than him being a great person and leader. He was the
Jews' Messiah. But most certainly, the title does not make Jesus in any way the
Creator of the Universe.
Please visit According to Jesus, GOD in the Bible will take His Kingdom from the
Jews and give it to the Muslims.
9- Conclusion:
Christians believe in Jesus as GOD Almighty, yet, he never claimed to be GOD.
There is absolutely no concrete base for Trinity. Just because Jesus was called "Son
of God" and "God", even though he never said he was "God", it doesn't make him
GOD. David was called GOD's BEGOTTEN Son in Psalm 2:7, and Satan was called
"God (same word used for Jesus in Greek)" in 2 Corinthians 4:4. Israel was called
GOD's first born Son in Exodus 4:22. There are many other examples for GOD's
Sons in the Bible.
All what Christians have are conclusions. Conclusions come from theories. Theories
are always venerable for disproof. Have Jesus said "I am your LORD worship me" as
GOD said in the Old Testament, then we would have a solid concrete ground. But as
far as I am concerned, Trinity is very weak and bogus! with all respect due to
Trinitarian Christians. Non of GOD's religions (including the New Testament) taught
Trinity. The word "Trinity" doesn't even exist in the Bible!.
Trinity is a false interpretation that was caused by the unfortunate exaggerating and
misleading "Godly" name that was given to Jesus and to others in the Old Jewish
Culture. The only unique title that GOD Almighty had in the Bible that non was ever
called (including Jesus) was "Yahweh" or "Jehovah".
Bring me one Bible Verse that directly referred to Jesus as "Yahweh" or "Jehovah" and
then I'll consider Trinity to be a valid belief in the Bible.

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FACT#6:

3- Jesus came from Heaven, how come he coveting what's on earth?!

4- Jesus couldn't even meet his own standards!

does he tempt anyone;

OPEN CHALLENGE TO ALL CHRISTIANS:

5- Jesus prayed like Muslims:

6- Christ, the Muslim, was victorious over satan's temptation!

Does John 1:1 prove Trinity?

9. Answering Trinity section with detailed articles.

Further from Muslim-SA:

The noble Qur'an, Al-Nissa(4):171

An addition, in the above article,

from our Greek brother and author

(Emphesis below is mine)

The "Son of God" Title in the 1 John 2:22:

The Christians' claim about Jesus being

Is Islam the Anti-Christ?

Far be it be from Islam!

Does Muhammad (pbuh) deny Jesus being the messiah?

As'salamu Alaikum dear brothers,

Were written by unknown people.

We find even more alarming troubles with the Gospel of

Osama Abdallah's Post:

the point I am making here is that with this statement

o The Bible further defines SON OF GOD to be a RIGHTEOUS

"Son of God" in ancient times meant no

"Son of God" in ancient times meant no more than a righteous Servant

"God" & "Son of God" titles given to countless believers and

Rebuttal to Sam Shamoun's "The Incomprehensible Nature of God

John 8:58's deliberate mistranslation of Jesus saying "I AM"

The text of John 8:58:

Here is how John 8 reads:

Jesus here was abruptly interrupted by the Jews who got

However, we must always never forget that

Examine what Yahweh Almighty did when He

Jesus, when he supposedly declared The Ultimate

Jesus' supposed statement, "I am", was documented

In verse 37, Jesus confirms that they are Abraham's descendants.

Abraham before he was even born)".

The following analysis

give further proofs for this:

The "I AM" in John 8:58 is a desperate mistranslation, because even if we

Jesus was the foretold Messiah and the

1. "Son of God" literally means "Servant of God" in Hebrew. Bible agrees

The Greek texts of John 8:58:

Let us look at John 8:58 in Greek:

(eg) was translated as I.

Also, the same dictionary, Kypros.org's dictionary, declares that eimai

Also, according to the otenet.gr online dictionary, eimai () also

So eimi () and eimai () can

have been sent ahead of Him.'

So what did we learn here?

As I already demonstrated in the previous main-section, the context of Jesus'

Jesus didn't even say it in Greek!

2. Written by an unknown number of men.

Rebuttal from JewsForJudaism.org:

truly, I say to you, before Abraham came into being, I am.'"

used as synonymous terms by John. In John 8:56-58, John is expounding his

The lies of Colossians 1:15-16 and 1 Corinthians

Colossians 1:15-16 and 1 Corinthians 8:6:

5. Jesus also said "My GOD and your GOD".

Attributes of GOD Almighty.

The Bible's own theologians even admit that the bible