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PART III.

CRIMINALISTICS
I. POLICE PHOTOGRAPHY
1. The wavelength of electromagnetic energy in reference to visible light is:
a. 001 to 100
b. 300 to 400
c. 400 to 700
d. 700 to 1000
2. Literally, photography is defined as drawing with what particular
element?
a. light
b. camera
c. film
d. developer
3. it refers to a lens that is characterized as by the thicker center and thinner
sides.
a. Positive lens
b. Negative lens
c. Concave lens
d. Convex lens
4. It is the film with the widest range of sensibility to the various energies of
the electromagnetic spectrum.
a. Infra-red
b. X-ray
c. Orthochromatic
d. Panchromatic
5. The first use of photography in police work is in what particular field?
a. Crime prevention
b. Identification files
c. Surveillance work
d. Crime scene investigation

6. The chemical processing step wherein the latent image recorded on the
paper or film becomes visible.
a. Fixer
b. Bleacher
c. Stop bath
d. Developer
7. Refers to the process of taking pictures with the use of microscope.
a. Microphotography
b. Photomicrography
c. Macrophotography
d. Photomacrography
8. The primary controlling factor of the sharpness of the image refers to:
a. Hyper-focal distance
b. Focal distance
c. Focusing
d. Focal length
9. Infrared radiation is also referred to as:
a. Laser light
b. Coherent light
c. Black light
d. Heat rays
10. The emulsion speed rating of films expressed in logarithmic values
refers to:
a. ISO rating
b. ASA rating
c. DIN rating
d. BSI rating

11. Which among the following is not a primary color of light?


a. Red
d. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Green
12. It is a microscopically small photograph.
a. Microphotograph
b. Photomicrograph
c. Photomacrograph
d. Macrophotograph
13. The normal developing time of a paper or film.
a. 1 to minutes
b. 5 to 10 minutes
c. 20 to 30 minutes
d. 30 to 60 minutes
14. In enlarging a photograph what would be the ideal paper for printing?
a. Chloride paper
b. Bromide paper
c. Contact paper
d. Chloro-bromide paper
15. This refers to the absence of all colors.
a. white
b. Red
c. Blue
d. Black
16. Refers to the most difficult lens defect.
a. Astigmatism
b. Coma
c. distortion
d. chromatic aberration

17. It is used to allow light to enter through the lens for a predetermined
time interval.
a. View finder
b. Shutter
c. Light tight box
d. Holder of sensitized material
18. Its primary use in photography is focus the light from the subject.
a. Light tight box
b. Shutter
c. Lens
d. View finder
19. It refers to the nearest distance at which a lens is focused with a given
particular diagram opening.
a. Depth of field
b. Hyper-focal distance
c. Focal distance
d. Scale bed
20. It is the distance measured from the nearest to the farthest object.
a. Depth of field
b. Hyper-focal distance
c. Scale bed
c. Focal distance
21. Mechanism that is used to measure the angle of convergence of light
coming from a subject as seen from two apertures.
a. Focusing scale
b. Scale bed
c. View finder
d. Range finder

22. It is a magnified picture of a small object produced by connecting the


lens of a camera with the ocular of a compound microscope.
a. Microphotograph
b. Photomicrograph
c. Photomacrograph
d. Macrophotogaph
23. Attributed as the person who first discovered first true photography.
a. William Henry Fox Talbot
b. Thomas Wedgewood
c. Louis Jacques Mande Dagurre
d. Joseph Nicephore Niepce
24. Basic film exposure with an ASA rating of 100 at bright sunlight with
normal subject.
a. 1/30 f-8
b. 1/125 f-11
c. 1/60 f-4
d. 1/250 f 2-8
25. In police photography, to obtain a general view of the scene we use a
camera at what particular level?
a. Elevated
b. Eye level
c. Bird's eye view
d. Worm's eye view
26. A lighting condition under sunlight wherein subject in open space casts
a transparent shadow.
a. Hazy
b. Cloudy Dull
c. Cloudy bright
d. Bright

27. To view watermarks in disputed documents, what particular method of


photography is utilized?
a. Bounce light
b. Side light
c. Transmitted light
d. Reflected light
28. Its primary function is to prevent the contamination of two chemical
solutions in chemical processing in photography.
a. Development
b. Stop-bath
c. Fixation
d. Bleaching
29. Which among the following comprises the essential parts of a camera?
a. Body, Lens, Shutter, Holder of sensitized materials, View finder
b. Light tight box, Shutter, holder of sensitized material, View finder,
Lens aperture
c. Body, Lens, Range finder, holder of sensitized material, Shutter
d. Light tight box, Shutter, range finder, Lens, holder of sensitized
material
30. A lens with a focal length of less than the diagonal of its negative
material.
a. Wide angle lens
b. Normal lens
c. Long lens
d. Telephoto lens
31. Refers to the product of illumination and time.
a. Exposure
b. Development
c. Sensitized material
d. Photograph

32. Chemical used in developing to prevent fogs.


a. Potassium Bromide
b. Sodium Sulfite
c. Sodium Carbonate
d. Boric Acid
33. A homogenous mixture which absorbs and transmits differentially light
rays passing through it.
a. Stop bath
b. Fixer
c. Filter
d. Dektol
34. Commonly used hardening agent in an acid fixing solution.
a. Hypo or silver halide
b. Potassium Alum
c. Sodium Sulfate
d. Acetic Acid
35. chemical used as an accelerator in a developer solution.
a. Hydroquinone
b. Sodium sulfite
c. Sodium carbonate
d. Potassium bromide
II. Forensic Chemistry and Toxicology
1. Which among the following is not an accurate test for the presence of
alcohol in the human body.
a. Saliva test
b. Harger breath test
c. Fecal test
d. Drug test

2. The application of chemical principles in the examination of evidence.


a. Forensic
b. Criminalistics
c. Instrumentation
d. Forensic Chemistry
3. a disturbance produced by poison on that part with which the poison came
into contact.
a. Acute
b. Local
c. Remote
d. Combined
4. According to the method of isolation, volatile poisons may be isolated by
means of what process?
a. Extraction
b. Dilution
c. Distillation
d. Dialysis
5. the process in reproducing a physical evidence by plaster moulds.
a. Casting
b. Cementing
c. Moulage
d. Pickling
6. to positively determine the presence of blood in stained material, what test
is used?
a. Takayama Test
b. Phenolphtalien test
c. Barberio's test
d. Florence test

7. This test is used to detect the presence of semen particularly in stained


clothing.
a. Microscopic test
b. Barberios's test
c. Florence test
d. Ultra-violet test
8. The best method in comparative cell analysis.
a. Chemical examination
b. Density gradient test
c. Ultra-violet light examination
d. Microscopic test
9. To know whether a paper is not easily torn, what test is utilized?
a. Accelerated aging test
b. Bursting strength test
c. Opacity examination
d. Microscopic examination
10. A gas with a rotten egg odor usually made by decaying body.
a. Chloride
b. Ammonia
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Hydrogen sulfide
11. Referred to as the circulating tissue of the body.
a. Semen
b. Blood
c. Cells
d. Muscles

12. A man of average built would normally have how many quarts of
blood?
a. 6 quarts
b. 7 quarts
c. 8 quarts
d. 9 quarts
13. It is a stray yellow colored liquid, and comprises about 54% of the
blood.
a. Platelets
b. Fibrin
c. Leucosytes
d. Plasma
14. It is the oxygen carrier of the blood.
a. Plasma
b. Hemoglobin
c. Erythrocytes
d. Fibrin
15. Reliable and easy way to test blood even when it is decomposed and
stained with contamination.
a. Benzidine test
b. Van Deen's test
c. Phenolphthalein test
d. Precipitin test
16. Stage of blood examination wherein the actual proof that subject is
definitely blood.
a. Preliminary test
b. Confirmatory test
c. Precipitin test
d. Blood typing and grouping

17. Test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not.


a. Preliminary test
b. Confirmatory test
c. Precipitin test
d. Blood typing and grouping
18. Positive result in the preliminary examination for semen in Barbiero's
test.
a. Picric acid
b. Spermine picrate
c. Napthol diazonium
d. Anthraquinous chloride
19. Coffee when given to drunk persons is what kind of antidote?
a. Cathartic
b. Chemical
c. Physiological
d. Demulcent
20. animal fiber may be best described by:
a. It is composed of protein
b. Gives yellow fluorescence under u.v. Light
c. It burns fat
d. It has acid like odor when burned
21. Kind of ink is wherein the use of chemical bleaches is ineffective.
a. Carbon
b. Logwood
c. Nigrosine
d. Gallotanic
22. Refers to any agent which neutralizes poison and its effects.
a. Emetics
b. Antidotes
c. Alkaloids
d. Tetanics

23. Which among the following exhibits bluish fluorescence when exposed
to u.v. light?
a. Blood
b. Semen
c. Saliva
d. Urine
24. Oldest known explosive.
a. Black powder
b. smoke powder
c. Dynalite
d. TNT
25. Deals with the study and identification of body fluids.
a. Immunology
b. Serology
c. Posology
d. Pharmacology
26. When gunpowder explodes, this would determine the approximate time
of firing the gun?
a. Soot
b. Nitrates and nitrites
c. Gases
d. Metallic fragments
27. In determining whether the hair is of human or animal origin what
should the chemist examine under the microscope?
a. Parts of the shaft
b. Parts of the tip
c. Parts of the hair
d. Parts of the root

28. A fiber which burns rapidly and the fumes turns blue litmus to red, it is:
a. Cotton
b. Silk
c. Fiber glass
d. Steel wool
29. It is the part of the hair which is referred to as a race determinant?
a. Cortex
b. Cuticle
c. Medulla
d. Shaft
30. A test for fiber used in determining whether it is of human or animal
origin.
a. Ignition test or burning
b. Fluorescence analysis
c. Chemical analysis
d. Microscopic analysis
31. A material which is used to which is used to improve the quality of the
paper.
a. Sizing material
b. Rosin
c. Gelatin
d. Starch
32. by adding Millon's reagent, a pink color would be formed if it is
present.
a. Rosin
b. Starch
c. Casein
d. Gelatin

33. Oldest ink material known to man.


a. Logwood
b. Nigrosine
c. Carbon
d. Gallotanic
34. Only type of ink wherein age may be determined.
a. Logwood
b. Nigrosine
c. Carbon
d. Gallotanic
35. It refers to the obscuring of writing by superimposing ink, pencil or
other marking material.
a. Erasure
b. Obliterated writing
c. Indented writing
d. Contact writing
36. A supercooled liquid which possess high viscosity and rigidity.
a. Lime
b. Soda
c. Glass
d. Gel
37. Major component of a glass.
a. Lime
b. Silica
c. Soda
d. Lime
38. Poisons which produces stupor and less feeling.
a. Neurotics
b. Irritants
c. Depressant
d. Narcotics

39. Highly irritant poison which causes local destruction of tissues and
causes nausea.
a. Corrosives
b. Irritants
c. Tetanics
d. Asthenics
40. An organic bacterial poison.
a. Strychnine
b. Ptomaine
c. Brucine
d. Chloroform
III. FORENSIC MEDICINE
1. A complete, continuous, persistent cessation of respiration, circulation and
almost all brain function of an organism.
a. Somatic death
b. Cellular death
c. Molecular death
d. Apparent death
2. This muscular change upon death lasts about 20 to 30 minutes and is
characterized by the relaxation of the muscles and loss of their natural
tone.
a. Stage of primary flaccidity
b. Post mortem rigidity
c. Cadaveric spasm
d. Secondary flaccidity

3. it is the dissolution of the tissues by the digestive action of its bacterial


and enzyme.
a. Primary flaccidity
b. Post mortem rigidity
c. Cadaveric spasm
d. Putrefaction
4. In cases of suicide, what would be the noticeable muscular change.
a. Cold stiffening
b. Heat stiffenung
c. Instantaneous rigor
d. Putrefaction
5. Period of time wherein there body would be completely skeletonized,
under normal conditions in tropical countries.
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months
6. Conclusive evidence that a person is a male.
a. Presence of testis
b. Presence of androsterone
c. Possession of penis
d. Possession of testosterone
7. Conclusive evidence that the subject person is a female.
a. Possession of vagina
b. Possession of ovaries
c. Possession of estrogen
d. Possession of progesterone
8. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination with either group A or
B what would be the particular blood group of the sample.
a. Group A
b. Group B

c. Group AB
d. Group O
9. Manner of walking of a person which may be natural or secondary.
a. Mannerism
b. Tic
c. Gait
d. Body language
10. A person with big face and prominent cheek bones.
a. Hippocratic facie
b. Mongolian facie
c. Myxedema facie
d. Facies lionine
11. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years
b. 20 years
c. 30 years
d. 40 years
12. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white greasy
substance in the soft fatty tissue after death.
a. Saponification
b. Rigor mortis
c. Mummification
d. Maceration
13. a discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in
the blood vessels of the most dependent portions of the body and starts 20
to 30 minutes after death and is completed by 12 hours.
a. Rigor mortis
b. primary flaccidity
c. Maceration
d. Livor mortis

14. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents after meals.
a. 2 to 3 hours
b. 3 to 4 hours
c. 4 to 5 hours
d. 5 to 6 hours
15. Rate of growth of human hair.
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm. / day
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm. / day
c. 0.6 to 0.7 mm. / day
d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm. / day
16. a person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body temperature is
about:
a. 10 to 15 F
b. 15 to 20 F
c. 20 to 25 F
d. 25 to 30 F
17. Sudden inflammation of the pancreas caused by infections carried in the
blood streams. It may follow obstruction of the pancreatic duct and
subsequent congestion of the gland.
a. Perforated peptic ulcer
b. Generalized peritonitis
c. Acute intestinal obstruction
d. Acute pancreatitis
18. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.
a. Wound
b. Trauma
c. Bruise
d. Scratch

19. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it will
endanger one's life.
a. Non-mortal wound
b. Mortal wound
c. Trauma
d. Coup injury
20. A physical injury which is found at the site and also the opposite site of
the application of force.
a. Extensive injury
b. Coup injury
c. Contre coup injury
d. Coup and contre coup injury
21. A physical injury found at the site of the application of force.
a. Extensive injury
b. Coup injury
c. Contre coup injury
d. Coup and contre coup injury
22. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log and stone.
a. Punctured wound
b. Hack wound
c. Lacerated wound
d. Incised wound
23. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what would be exhibited?
a. Punctured wound
b. Hack wound
c. Lacerated wound
d. Incised wound

24. A butcher knife would produce what particular would if stabbed to a


body?
a. Punctured wound
b. Hack wound
c. Lacerated wound
d. Incised wound
25. a collection of blood underneath the skin.
a. Contusion
b. Bruise
c. Petechiae
d. Hematoma
26. Straining or tearing or tendons, ligaments and muscles causing skin
discoloration and extreme pain.
a. Sprain
b. Contusion
c. Fracture
d. Disclocation
27. it is a fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is evident.
a. Simple
b. Compound
c. Comminuted
d. Dislocation
28. A displacement of the articular surface of the one without external
wounds.
a. Sprain
b. Fracture
c. Hematoma
d. Dislocation

29. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and


blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained that it is a near contact fire
meaning that the distance of the body to the gun is approximately:
a. 6 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches
30. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the body
which produces mechanical disruption of cell structure characterized by
cold stiffening and diminished body temperature.
a. Gangrene
b. Frostbite
c. Trench foot
d. Immersion foot
31. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the breakdown of
sweating mechanism.
a. Heat cramp
b. Heat exhaustion
c. Heat stroke
d. Burning
32. A person who goes to the beach under the scorching sand would be
suffering from what particular burn?
a. Sunburn
b. 1st degree burn
c. 2nd degree burn
d. 3rd degree burn

33. A serious burn involving skin, nerves, muscles and bones, considered as
the most severe burn causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in
the body and massive infection.
a. Sunburn
b. 1st degree burn
c. 2nd degree burn
d. 3rd degree burn
34. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5 minutes would
immediately die, the cause of death would be:
a. Stupor
b. Stroke
c. Asphyxia
d. Exhaustion
35. A whitish foam at the mouth and nostrils due to mucous secretion of the
respiratory track after death.
a. Cutis anserina
b. Washerwoman
c. Champignon d' ocume
d. Cadaveric spasm
36. It is a death that occurs due to illness of the body.
a. Natural death
b. Molecular death
c. Somatic death
d. Apparent death
37. A type of burn produced as a result of the body coming into contact
with a moving object.
a. Thermal burn
b. Friction burn
c. Radiation burn
c. Electrical burn

38. A condition of a woman who have one or more sexual experience but
not had conceived a child.
a. Moral virginity
b. Demi-virginity
c. Physical virginity
d. Virgo- intacta
39. Refers to the action of a bacteria to a dead body.
a. Flaccidity
b. Rigidity
c. Lividity
d. Putrefaction
40. fixed discoloration of the blood clothed inside the blood vessels or has
diffused to different parts of the body.
a. Diffusion lividity
b. Clotting of the blood
c. Rigor mortis
c. Hypostatic lividity
41. Approximate average amount of semen per ejaculation under normal
conditions.
a. 2 to 2.5 cubic centimeters
b. 2.5 to 5 cubic centimeters
c. 5 to 10 cubic centimeters
d. 10 to 15 cubic centimeters
42. DNA, is found in all nucleated cells of the body, it is regarded as the
fingerprint of life. What does it stands for?
a. Deonatural acid
b. Dynamic natural anti-body
c. Deoxyribunucleic acid
d. Deoxyribunucliec acid

43. A powerful tool in identification which points to the source of


biological evidence by matching it with samples from the victims,
suspects and their relatives.
a. DNA profiling
b. Serology
c. Instrumentation
d. Forensics
44. Body fluids routinely tested because they are good sources of cells.
a. Saliva and tears
b. Semen and saliva
c. Urine and semen
d. Semen and blood
45. Human beings tissue attached to the body which may undergo DNA
testing.
a. Hair
b. Bone
c. Skin
d. Fingernails
46. British geneticist who pioneered DNA testing and fingerprinting.
a. Henry Van Dyke
b. William Neal Reynolds
c. Lowell C. Van Berkom
d. Alec Jeffries
47. In crimes which took place twenty years ago, what sample should be
obtained for DNA testing?
a. Fingernails
b. Hair
c. Skeleton
d. Teeth
48. Approximate time for the completion of one case for DNA testing.
a. Minimum of 2 weeks

b. Minimum of 4 weeks
c. Minimum of six weeks
d. Minimum of eight weeks
49. The basic building blocks of DNA are as follows ACGT, A stands for
what?
a. Adenine
b. Adenide
c. Adenum
d. Adenoid
50. It is inherited from the mother found in the mitochondria which is in the
cell body.
a. Nuclear DNA
b. Helix
c. Mitochondrial DNA
d. Nucleus DNA
IV. DACTYLOSCOPY
1. The technique utilized in fingerprinting.
a. Poroscopy
b. Palmistry
c. Dactyloscopy
d. Podoscopy
2. Fingerprints left at the crime scene which may be an impression or
imprint.
a. Latent print
b. Pattern
c. Loop
d. Arch

3. Father of fingerprints who developed fingerprint classification whi9ch


was later adopted in Scotland Yard, London.
a. Dr. Henry P. de Forest
b. Juan Vecetich
c. Sir Edward Richard Henry
d. Alphonse Bertillon
4. A fingerprint pattern in which the down ward slant or ridges from the little
finger toward the thumb.
a. Ulnar loop
b. Radial loop
c. Arch
d. Whorl
5. Which among the following is not considered as a basic fingerprint
pattern?
a. Loop
b. Arch
c. Whorl
d. Accidental
6. Refers to a fingerprint pattern in which the ridges form a sequence of
spiral around core axes.
a. Whorl
b. Central pocket loop
c. Double loop
d. Accidental
7. Basis of fingerprint identification.
a. Pores
b. Ridges
c. friction ridges
d. Latent print

8. Term applied to a study of the characteristics formed by the sides of


papillary ridges as means of identification.
a. Podoscopy
b. Poroscopy
c. Edgeoscopy
d. Dactyloscopy
9. During what part of a person's life does his papillary ridges are formed?
a. 3rd month of fetal life
b. 6th month of infancy
c. At birth
d. 3 months after birth
10. Center of the fingerprint pattern which may resemble a loop, spiral or
rod.
a. Delta
b. Core
c. Ridge
d. Whorl
11. Minimum identical characteristic detail to justify the identity between
two points.
a. Nine
b. Twelve
c. Fifteen
d. Eighteen
12. Renowned for his enthropometric measurement and served as first chief
of identification.
a. Sir Francis Galton
b. Alphonse Bertillon
c. Gilbert Thompson
d. Samuel Clemens

13. Known for his rule which states that No two individuals in the world
are exactly the same size and that human skeleton does not change after
20 years.
a. Darwin
b. Mendel
c. Galton
d. Bertillon
14. The easiest means of discovering latent fingerprint, is to view the area.
a. Obliquely
b. About half an inch distance
c. Directly
d. About one inch distance
15. Fingerprint pattern in which two or different type of pattern are
represented.
a. Accidental loop
b. Central pocket loop
c. Double loop
d. Whorl
16. A distinct fingerprint pattern with two separate loop, and its respective
shoulder and details.
a. Double loop
b. Accidental loop
c. Central pocket loop
d. Whorl
17. a fingerprint pattern with a single loop but has two deltas.
a. Accidental loop
b. Double loop
c. Whorl
d. Central pocket loop

18. Of the foregoing, what pattern bears a downward slant of ridge from the
thumb toward the little finger.
a. Tented Arch
b. Radial loop
c. Ulnar loop
d. Loop
19. A fingerprint pattern which one or more ridges enter on either side of
the impression by a recurve, and terminate on the same side where the
ridge has entered.
a. Tented arch
b. Radial loop
c. Ulnar loop
d. Loop
20. A pattern which is triangular shaped and formed by the bifurcation of a
ridge at the outer portion of the pattern.
a. Latent prints
b. Ridge
c. Core
d. Delta
21. Refers to the study of sweat gland openings found on papillary ridges as
a means of identification.
a. Poroscopy
b. Edeoscopy
c. Podoscopy
d. dactyloscopy
22. A ridge which forks out into two ridges.
a. Delta
b. Bifurcation
c. Core
d. Pores

23. All except one part of the body has papillary ridges.
a. Soles of the foot
b. Palm
c. Finger
d. Elbow
24. Occupational damage top ridges is usually:
a. Permanent
b. Temporaty
c. Immutable
d. Continuous
25. Refers to points often missed in rolling impression
a. Bifurcation
b. Core
c. Delta
d. Ridge

V. POLYGRAPHY
1. Pioneer who first used the term psychogalvanic skin reflex.
a. Angelo Mosso
b. Veraguth
c. Lombroso
d. Vittorio Benussi
2. Italian scientist who used hydrosphygmograph procedure for accused
persons.
a. Angelo Mosso
b. Veraguth
c. Lombroso
d. Vittorio Benussi

3. A scientist who first incorporated the galvanograph, with measurement,


respiration component and blood pressure.
a. Harold Burtt
b. Hans Gross
c. Loenarde Keeler
d. John Larson
4. Developed the systolic blood pressure method for detecting deception.
a. William Marston
b. Harold Burtt
c. Jon Larson
d. Leonarde Keeler
5. he noted that respiratory and systolic blood pressure changes were
***************** deception.
a. William Marston
b. Harold Burtt
c. Leonard Keeler
d. Jon Larson
6. Type of question in the facts of the case and is answered by NO.
a. Relevant question
b. Irrelevant question
c. General question
d. Immaterial question
7. A question known to the subject and is answerable by YES.
a. Relevant question
b. Irrelevant question
c. General question
d. Immaterial question
8. An act of discovery, indicative of the fact that something is hidden of
obscure.
a. Fear

b. Deception
c. Detection
d. Reaction
9. An inhibition of a previous activity of an effector organ or organism as a
result of stimulation.
a. Response
b. Deception
c. Detection
d. Reaction
10. Refers to an emotional response to a specific danger, which appears to
go beyond a person's defensive power.
a. Response
b. Reaction
c. Stimuli
d. Fear

11. Normal time interval for pre-test interview.


a. 20 to 30 minutes
b. 30 to 60 minutes
c. 60 to 90 minutes
d. 90 to 120 minutes
12. The primary objective of post test interview.
a. To thank the subject
b. To obtain confession
c. To make the subject calm
d. To explain polygraph test procedures
13. Kind of lie wherein a person assumes another identity to deceive others.
a. Black lie
b. White lie

c. Red lie
d. Yellow lie
14. Deviation from normal tracing of the subject in the relevant question.
a. Reaction
b. Normal response
c. Specific response
d. Positive response
15. Chart tracing of subject when irrelevant questions were answered.
a. Reaction
b. Normal response
c. Specific response
d. Positive response
16. This component drives the chart paper under the recording pen
simultaneously at the rate of 6 to 12 inches per minute.
a. Cardiosphygmorgraph
b. Kymograph
c. Galvanograph
d. Pneumograph
17. Part of the galvanograph attached to the left fingers of the subject.
a. Finger electrode plate
b. Diacritic notch
c. Rubber convoluted tube
d. Keymograph
18. This component record changes of the subject's blood pressure and
pulse rate.
a. Cardiosphygmograph
b. Sphygmomanometer
c. Galvanograph
d. Pneumograph
19. It records the subject's skin resistance to a small amount of electricity.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Cardisphygmograph
Sphygmomanometer
Galvanograph
Pneumograph

20. This component records the changes in the breathing of the subject.
a. Cardisphygmograph
b. Sphygmomanometer
c. Galvanograph
d. Pneumograph
21. The purpose of pretest interview.
a. To prepare subject for polygraph test
b. To obtain confession
c. To make the subject calm
d. To explain polygraph test procedures

22. A person who will undergo a polygraph examination must at least have
how many hours of sleep at night prior to the examination.
a. 4 hours
b. 5 hours
c. 6 hours
d. 8 hours
23. The minimum number of test required when the subject indicates
deception.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
24. The number of basic tracings in a modern polygraph.

a.
b.
c.
d.

3
4
5
6

25. Specification length of rubber convoluted tube.


a. 5 inches
b. 10 inches
c. 15 inches
d. 20 inches
VI. FORENSIC BALLISTIC
1. Caliber in the firearm is measured in the barrel from what particular part?
a. From land to land
b. From land to groove
c. From groove to groove
d. From groove to land
2. The term double action in a firearm means.
a. Cocks and releases the hammer simultaneously
b. Manually cocks the hammer
c. Autoloads before firing
d. Double pressing or trigger
3. Known as the father of ballistics
a. Albert Osborne
b. Col. Calvin H. Goddard
c. Hans Gross
d. Charles Waite
4. Revolver is distinguished form pistol by:
a. Frame
b. Barrel
c. Slide assembly

d. Rotating cylinder
5. Invented the gunpower
a. Chinese
b. James Forsythe
c. Van Amberg
d. Berthold Schwartz
6. A bullet fired from a firearm with an oversized or oily barrel or its lands
have been worn down would produce what kind of markings?
a. Slippage marks
b. Skid marks
c. Rifling marks
d. Shearing marks
7. Danao made firearms or homemade weapons are usually classified as
a. Flare guns
b. Zip guns
c. Marchlock
d. Freakish device
8. Refers to a complete unfired unit of ammunition placed into gun chamber.
a. Cartridge
b. Primer
c. Bullet
d. Shell
9. The measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.
a. Gauge
b. Mean diameter
c. Caliber
d. Riflings
10. This part of the firearm strikes the primer causing the firing of the
cartridge.
a. Hammer

b. Ejector
c. Trigger
d. Firing pin
11. Term used in referring to the tip of a bullet.
a. Breech
b. Ogive
c. Rim
d. Pitch
12. A smooth bore military firearm designed to fire a single projectile.
a. Rifle
b. Musket
c. Shotgun
d. Artillery
13. A bullet covered with a thick coating of copper alloy to prevent leading.
a. Jacketed bullet
b. Metal cased bullet
c. Metal point bullet
d. Plated bullet
14. The tumbling of the bullet in its trajectory and hitting the target
sideways.
a. Key hole shot
b. Ricochet
c. Hang fire
d. Misfire
15. A part of ballistics dealing with firearm identification.
a. Interior
b. Exterior
c. Terminal
d. Forensic
16. Raised portion between the groove found inside the barrel.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Land
Caliber
Gauge
Rifling

17. The unstable rotating motion of the bullet.


a. Yaw
b. Trajectory
c. Velocity
d. Gyroscopic action
18. A lead type bullet is usually fired from what particular firearm?
a. Rifle
b. Revolver
c. Pistol
d. Sub-machine gun
19. It refers to the helical grooves cut in the interior surface of the bore.
a. Rifling
b. Breaching
c. Ogive
d. Swaging
20. A primer with two vents or flash holes.
a. Bordan primer
b. Berdan primer
c. Boxer primer
d. Battery primer
21. Minimum requirement for conclusive conclusions in forensic ballistics.
a. 3 test bullets/shells
b. 4 test bullets/shell
c. 5 test bullets/shells
d. 6 test bullets/shells
22. It refers to the placement of the right and left specimen in side by side

position.
a. Drag marks
b. Positively matched
c. Juxtaposition
d. Pseudomatch
23. Pattern or curved path of the bullet in flight.
a. Range
b. Trajectory
c. Velocity
d. Yaw
24. Bullets containing nitrate compounds which is set on fire when it is
projected.
a. Incendiary bullets
b. Ball bullet
c. Tracer bullet
d. Explosive bullet
25. Refers to the deflection of the bullet from its normal path after striking
a resistant surface.
a. Mushroom
b. Key hole shot
c. Ricochel
d. Misfire
26. The capacity of the bullet to expand on or after impact.
a. Mushroom
b. Keyhole shot
c. Ricochet
d. Schorching
27. Failure of a cartridge to discharge
a. Misfire
b. Hang fire
c. Ricochet

d. Key hole shot


28. It literally means delay in discharge or the cartridge's failure to explode
on time.
a. Misfire
b. Hang fire
c. Ricochet
d. Key hole shot
29. Measuring device used to measure the velocity of projectiles.
a. Caliper
b. Chronograph
c. Test bullet
d. Bullet recovery box
30. The most reliable of all individual characteristics, when fired cartridges
are concerned
a. Extractor marks
b. Ejector marks
c. Chamber marks
d. Breechface marks
VII. QUESTIONED DOCUMENT
1. It is a deviation showing free connecting and terminal strokes made by the
momentum of the hand.
a. Tremor
b. Tremors of fraud
c. Genuine tremor
d. Deterioration
2. It refers to the printing surface of a type block.
a. Character
b. Design
c. Pitch

d. Type face
3. A type face ordinarily spaced 10 characters to the horizontal inch.
a. Pica
b. Elite
c. Proportional spacing machine
d. Adding machine
4. Any arcade formed in the body of the letters.
a. Staff
b. Slant
c. Diacritics
d. Humps
5. Refers to a ruled or imaginary line upon which the writing rests
a. Base
b. Baseline
c. Foot
d. Staff
6. It represents the backbone or main stroke of letters.
a. Slant
b. Diacritics
c. Staff
d. Foot
7. It is the process of making out what is illegible or what has been effaced.
a. Decipherment
b. Collation
c. Obliteration
d. Comparison
8. an act of setting two or more items to weigh their identifying
characteristics.
a. Comparison
b. Collation

c. Conclusion
d. Examination
9. An examination of documents wherein it is viewed with the source of
illumination behind it and the light passing through the paper.
a. Transmitted light examination
b. Oblique photography examination
c. Infrared examination
d. Ultraviolet examination
10. The art of attempting to interpret the personality oaf a person from his
handwriting
a. Questioned Document Examination
b. Polygraphy
c. Grapology
d. Psychology
11. A document which contains some changes either as an addition or
deletion.
a. Altered documents
b. Disputed document
c. Obliterated document
d. Inserted document
12. Signatures used to acknowledge delivery, purchase of goods and mail.
a. Complete
b. Formal
c. Cursory
d. Careless scribble
13. It refers to the smearing over a writing to make the original
undecipherable.
a. Decipherment
b. Restoration
c. Obliteration
d. Interlineation

14. A class of signature for routinary cocument or day to day


correspondence.
a. Formal
b. Complete
c. Cursory
d. Careless scribble
15. Refers to a class of signature to acknowledge important documents.
a. Complete
b. Cursory
c. Informal
d. Careless scribble
16. A signature written by the forger in his own style of handwriting
without attempting to copy to form of the genuine signature.
a. Traced forgery
b. Disguised forgery
c. Simulated forgery
d. Simple forgery
17. A freehand imitation and regarded as the most skillful type of forgery.
a. Traced forgery
b. disguised forgery
c. Simulated forgery
d. Simple forgery
18. Which among the following is an indication of genuineness of
handwriting?
a. Continuity
b. Smoothness
c. Skillful writing
d. Tremor
19. Combination of the basic design of letters and writing movement as
taught in school.

a. Letter form
b. Line quality
c. Copy book form
d. System of writing
20. Document which is completely written and signed by one person.
a. Genuine document
b. Disputed document
c. Holographic document
d. Authentic document
21. A distinctive design which is translucent impressed on the paper during
manufacture.
a. Water marks
b. Fiber marks
c. Paper design
d. Wire marks
22. In utilizing a streographic photomicrograph, what particular condition is
manifested?
a. Grainy image
b. Two image
c. Overlapping image
d. Three dimensional image
23. An element which is added to complete another letter.
a. Spur
b. Slant
c. Diacritics
d. Arc
24. It is a signature signed at a particular time and place, purpose and
normal writing conditions.
a. Complete signature
b. Standard signature
c. Evidential signature
d. Model signature

25. Periodic increase in pressure, characterized by widening of the ink


stroke.
a. Shading
b. Pen emphasis
c. Pen lift
d. Pen pressure
26. A process by which a canal like outline is produced on a fraudulent
document underneath the genuine and tracing it with the use of a pointed
instrument.
a. Carbon process
b. Indention process
c. Projection process
d. Transmitted light process
27. A type face defect wherein one side is printed heavier than the rest of its
outline.
a. Off its feet
b. Twisted letter
c. Clogged type face
d. Rebound
28. It is the visible effect of bodily movement which is almost unconscious
expression of fixed muscular habits reacting from fixed mental
impressions.
a. Handwriting
b. Writing
c. Typewriting
d. Writing movement
29. A writing instrument that makes detection of hesitation and pen-lifts
difficult.
a. Ball point pen
b. Fountain pen
c. Iron nutgall ink

d. Markers
30. the most reliable letters or letter combination due to lack of movement
control.
a. Pen lift
b. Retouching
c. Patching
d. Retracing
31. The most reliable criterion in judging the authenticity of paper money.
a. Quality of the engraving
b. Color of the seal
c. Wet strength of the paper
d. Watermarks
32. A coin given the appearance of a legal tender but made inferior or
superior intrinsic value to that of the genuine coin.
a. Priceless coin
b. Mutilated coin
c. False coin
d. All of the above
33. An act of diminishing the metal value of a genuine coin.
a. False coin
b. Counterfeit coin
c. Priceless coin
d. Mutilation of coins
34. Developed the system of handwriting classification utilized by most
police departments.
a. Lee and Abbey
b. Rolando Wilson
c. Levine
d. Landsteiner
35. A kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private
parties but notarized by competent officials.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Official document
Public document
Commercial document
Private document

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