AIR LAW

REVISION QUESTIONS

REVISION QUESTIONS CHAPTER 7

1.

What is the lCAO document that defines the Procedures for Air Navigation?
a.
b.
c.
d.

2.

Why do PANS OPS require a separate document from the Annexes

a.
b.
c.
d.

3.

Directional Monitoring Equipment

Distance Monitoring Equipment
Digital Measurement Equipment
Distance Measuring Equipment

What does the abbreviation OCH stand for?

a.
b.
c.
d.

5.

The procedures are outside of the scope of the SARPS

The procedures are too complicated for pilots to understand
The document is not only relevant to air crew
The Annexes are too big to contain all the extra information

What does the abbreviation DME stand for?

a.
b.
c.
d.

4.

The Chicago Convention

Doc 8168
JAR Ops 1
lCAO Annex 6

Obstacle Clearance Height

Observed Clearance Height
Overall Clearance Height
Operational Ceiling Height

What basic assumption is made with regard to the capability of the aeroplane when discussing
departure procedures?
a.
b.
c.
d.

That it can comply with the noise abatement requirements

That the procedure is capable of being flown by the average pilot
That all engines are working
That the initial part of the procedure will be flown with the flaps and lift enhancers
operating

7 - 69

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

REVISION QUESTIONS

AIR LAW

6.

A category A aeroplane is defined as having a maximum climb out turning speed of 120 kt.
What would you expect the maximum turning speed of a category E aeroplane to be?
a.
b.
c.
d.

7.

In designing a departure procedure reference is made to the DER. What is the DER?
a.
b.
c.
d.

8.

Direct
Straight
Turning
Omni-directional

A departure procedure from runway 26L requires the aeroplane to climb straight ahead to 500
ft and then intercept the 350 inbound radial to an en-route VOR beacon, what type of procedure
would this be?
a.
b.
c.
d.

10.

Directional extension required

Drag engagement rate
Departure end of the runway
Distance/Energy ratio

If a departure procedure was based on tracking directly outbound on a radial from a VOR beacon
situated on the aerodrome to a point 12 nm from the end of the runway before turning to join
airways, what type of departure procedure would this be?
a.
b.
c.
d.

9.

Greater than 120 kts

Less than 120 kts
Unlimited
At the pilot's discretion

Direct
Straight
Turning
Omni-directional

If the initial departure track required by a departure procedure requires a tum of more than a
specified angle, a turning area is to be constructed to ensure the aeroplane is safe during the tum.
What is the specified angle above which the tur:ning area is required?
a.
b.
c.
d.

5 deg
15 deg
45 deg
90 deg

7 -70

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR LAW

11.

If an engine fails at VI, what is the pilot required to do?

a.
b.
c.
d.

12.

295ft (90m)
495 ft (150m)
394 ft (120m)
969ft (300m)

Where details of an omni-directional departure procedure are published, how are the restrictions
specified?
a.
b.
c.
d.

16.

Where no specific track guidance is required

In mountainous terrain
At aerodromes with no ATC facilities
Take offs from aerodromes on the coast where the take off path is all over the sea

An omni-directional departure procedure requires the aircraft to be flown straight ahead and
climb before turning. To what height is the climb required before turning?
a.
b.
c.
d.

15.

The Commander
The Authority of the state of registration
The Authority of the State of the Operator
The Operator

What determines when an omni-directional departure procedure should be established?

a.
b.
c.
d.

14.

Ignore it
Abort the take off
Continue the departure in accordance with the contingency procedure
Carry out a circling approach and land at the aerodrome from which you have just taken
off

Who is responsible for deciding the contingency procedure in the event of an engine failure?
a.
b.
c.
d.

13.

REVISION QUESTIONS

As sectors to be avoided or minimum climb gradient/minimum altitude sectors

As geographic radar vectoring sectors with the minimum safety altitude specified
As VOR radials and DME ranges delineating the restricted zones
As notified danger areas

If you have a sophisticated EFIS coupled flight management system linked to an auto pilot, can
you pre-set the system to fly a laid down departure procedure?
a.
b.
c.
d.

No, the specified procedure must be flown manually

Yes, providing you monitor the system
Yes, but only in VMC
Yes, but only in CAT HIe operations

7 - 71

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

REVISION QUESTIONS

AIR LAW

17.

Which of the following is not one of the five approach procedure segments?
a.
b.
c.
d.

18.

Each of the approach segments starts and ends at fixes. Is this always true?
a.
b.
c.
d.

19.

The degree of accuracy of the track alignment in the final approach

The degree of accuracy with which the touchdown point can be identified
The method of determination of azimuthal information in the final approach
The method by which the vertical displacement of the aeroplane is determined in the
final approach

A straight in approach is one in which the final approach is aligned with the runway heading.
For a non-precision approach it is permissable for the approach to be offset by up to what angle?
a.
b.
c.
d.

21.

Yes
Yes, but only where a fix is available and within the required tolerance
No, the final approach can begin at the interception of the glide path
No, the procedure may be flown on timings

What is the difference between a precision approach and a non-precision approach?

a.
b.
c.
d.

20.

Initial
Missed Approach
Terminal
Intermediate

30 deg
45 deg
90 deg
180 deg

It is a requirement of any approach procedure that minimum sector altitudes (MSA) are to be

established for each aerodrome. What is the minimum obstacle clearance provided by the MSA?
a.
b.
c.
d.
22.

300m within 25nm

500ft within 10nm
1000ft within 50nm
120m within 40km

On the STAR plate you will be given information to guide you from one fix to the next. What
type of information is supplied?
a.
b.
c.
d.

True heading
Mag heading
True track
Mag track

7 -72

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

REVISION QUESTIONS

AIR LAW
23.

In designing an approach procedure, the designer will base the procedure on certain minimum
criteria one of which is aircraft speed. Specifically, what speed is the designer interested in?
a.
b.
c.
d.

24.

How is the speed referred to in Q23 calculated?

a.
b.
c.
d.

25.

27.

1.3 x the stalling speed in the landing configuration

2 x (Vne - V md)
V2 +10 kts
V max drag or the maximum undercarriage down speed, (whichever is less) minus 10 kts

What is the datum against which the obstacle clearance height (OCH) for a precision approach
is referenced?
a.
b.
c.
d.

26.

Normal cruising speed

Average speed with flaps, gear down and lift enhancers extended
Minimum drag speed
Threshold speed

Mean Sea Level

Aerodrome Datum height
Aerodrome elevation
Threshold elevation of the landing runway.

What is the relevance of the OCH for a precision approach?

a.
b.

It is the lowest height at which a missed approach must be initiated

It is the height at which an aircraft correctly positioned on the glide path must obtain the

c.
d.

visual minima to land

It is the MDH if the glide path information is lost
It is the minimum allowance added to the dominant obstacle allowance by the operator
to obtain decision height

What is the datum against which the obstacle clearance height (OCH) for a non-precision
approach is normally referenced?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Mean Sea Level

Aerodrome datum height
Aerodrome elevation
Threshold elevation

7 -73

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR LAW

28.

In Q27 the word 'normally' is used. Under what circumstances would another datum be used for
the reference?
a.
b.
c.
d.

29.

REVISION QUESTIONS

If the aerodrome is below sea level

Runway threshold if that was more than 2m below aerodrome elevation
Runway threshold if that was more than 2m above aerodrome elevation
In Northern Ireland, the Belfast Bay Datum

What is the relevance of the OCH for a non-precision approach visual (circling) manoeuvre?
a.
b.
c.

It is the height at which visual reference must be obtained

It is the height at which a missed approach must be initiated
It is the lowest height to which the aircraft can descend and not infringe the obstacle

d.

It is 250ft above the height of the highest obstacle in the in the approach path

clearance criteria

30.

What constitutes the dominant obstacle for a precision approach?

a.
b.
c.
d.

31.

Is the dominant obstacle for a non-precision approach different from that for a precision
approach, and if so why?
a.
b.
c.
d.

32.

The highest approach, or missed approach, obstacle whichever is higher

The highest obstacle in the final approach segment
The highest obstacle within 10nm
The obstacle upon which the minimum sector altitude is based

No, both approaches have the same dominant obstacle criteria

Yes, for a non-precision approach the dominant obstacle is the highest obstacle in the
final approach segment
Yes, in a non-precision approach the dominant obstacle is called the highest sector
obstacle
No, in both procedure cases the dominant obstacle height defines the lowest safe
approach height

Which of the following correctly defines the Minimum Obstacle Clearance (MOC)?
a.
b.
c.
d.

The dominant obstacle allowance

The difference between the dominant obstacle height and the minimum decision height
The fixed allowance added to the dominant obstacle height to give MDH
250 feet (75m) except in mountainous areas where it may contain an additional
allowance for the local terrain

7 -74

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR LAW

33.

Is Moe provided over the entire base width of the cross sectional area of the approach segments?
a.
b.

c.
d.
34.

The fix tolerance area

The intersection area
The maximum accuracy area
The RNP fix accuracy area

Which of the following do you think is most likely to lead to the greatest inaccuracy in obtaining
a fix during an instrument approach?
a.
b.
c.
d.

37.

Initial approach Fix (IAF)

Missed Approach Fix (MAF)
Final Approach Fix (F AF)
Turning Point (TP)

In Nav General you have come across 'cocked hats'. In plotting fixes for use in instrument
approaches, the designer also takes into account the accuracy of the fixing aid( s). What is the
name given to the area in which an intersection fix may lie?
a.
b.
c.
d.

36.

Yes
No
Yes, but only the intermediate and final approach segments
No, only the width of the primary area

Which of the following is not a fix or point used in an instrument approach?

a.
b.
c.
d.

35.

REVISION QUESTIONS

Aircraft speed
Aircraft altitude
Aircraft distance from the facility
Proximity of high ground

Which of these facilities is the most accurate at providing track information?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Secondary Surveillance Radar

ILS localiser
VOR beacon
NDB beacon

7 -75

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR LAW
38.

Why does the accuracy ofa radar fix depend upon the speed of the aeroplane?
a.
b.
c.
d.

39.

1 nm at 1000ft
350m at 1000ft
Not very good because of the frequency
Very good laterally but poor longitudinally

Why are there errors in fixing when on top of a beacon?

a.
b.
c.
d.

42.

Surveillance radar at 60nm

Terminal area radar at 20 nm
Surveillance radar at 40nm
Terminal area radar at 40 nm

As part of an ILS system, position fixes are introduced by the use of75Mhz or' Z' beacons. You
may hear the term 'fan' marker used. These define the outer and middle marker positions at
approx. 5.5 and 0.5nm from touchdown. What is the typical accuracy of a fix from such a
beacon??
a.
b.
c.
d.

41.

Because of the Doppler effect

Because the aspect of the target to the radar head is speed related
Because a slow target will be lost in ground clutter
Because the target position is only updated once every rotation of the radar, a fast contact
will move further than a slow one during the rotation, and the last fix will therefore be
more inaccurate for a fast target.

In some cases radar vectoring is used to guide the aeroplane onto the approach procedure. In
such cases surveillance radar or terminal area is used. Fix tolerances are also applied radar fixes
and these are related distance from the radar transmitter. Which is the most accurate?
a.
b.
c.
d.

40.

REVISION QUESTIONS

Because of the speed the aeroplane is moving

Because the aircraft system cannot cope with instantaneous change of bearing
Because of the cone of ambiguity over the aerial system of a beacon
Because the aircraft aerials are usually on top of the aeroplane and shielded from the
transmissions from the beacon

Comparing VOR with NDB, which gives the best fix when 'on top' the beacon?
a.
b.
c.
d.

The VOR because it uses VHF

The NDB because the aerial is a simple dipole
It depends upon the type of aircraft
Not a lot in it really, although the cone of ambiguity is tighter for the NDB

7 -76

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR LAW

43.

What is the maximum distance that the Final Approach Fix (F AF) can be located from the
runway threshold?
a.
b.
c.
d.

44.

At the initial fix

At the arrival fix
The start of the arrival route
The end of the arrival route

For a precision procedure, what is the maximum interception angle from the initial approach
segment to the IF?
a.
b.
c.
d.

48.

Initial segment
Arrival segment
Arrival route
En-route segment

Where does the initial approach segment of an instrument approach start?

a.
b.
c.
d.

47.

6.50% or 3.8 (400ft/ml)

6.00% or 3.5 (350ft/ml)
5.00% or 3.0 (300ft/ml)
4.50% or 2.5 (250ft/ml)

The en-route phase of a flight usually involves flight along airways. An instrument procedure
normally starts at the initial approach fix (IAF). What is the name of the segment between the
recommended point of leaving the airway and IAF?
a.
b.
c.
d.

46.

5nm
10nm
15nm
20nm

What is the optimum descent gradient in the final approach segment of an instrument approach?
a.
b.
c.
d.

45.

REVISION QUESTIONS

45
60
90
120

What is the purpose of the intermediate approach segment?

a.
b.
c.
d.

To provide a buffer between the Arrival segment and the Final approach segment
To provide airspace for the aircraft to reduce height and speed
To provide airspace for the aircraft to reduce speed and change configuration
To allow plenty of space for lining up on the final approach path

7 -77

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR LAW

49.

Is the final approach always made to a runway?

a.
b.
c.
d.

50.

The point of interception of the localiser with the applicable DHIA

Not more than 1.5nm from the threshold of the runway
The position related to a time interval after passing the IAF
A specified distance from the FAF

For a non-precision procedure, at what point must the missed approach procedure be
immediately initiated?
a.
b.
c.
d.

54.

A Missed Approach Procedure begins at the Missed Approach Point

On an ILS the missed approach procedure begins at DH/A
The missed approach point may be defined as a fix or time and distance from a fix
On an ILS no glide path approach the missed approach point is the middle marker

The missed approach point can be defined by which of the following?

a.
b.
c.
d.

53.

Initial missed approach, intermediate missed approach, final missed approach

Initial missed approach, Secondary missed approach, final missed approach
Overshoot, climb, return to the IF
Decision, manoeuvre, procedure

Which of the following is correct?

a.
b.
c.
d.

52.

Yes
No
Yes, providing the approach is a non-precision approach
No, a non precision approach can be made to an aerodrome

Which of the following correctly identifies the phases of a missed approach?

a.
b.
c.
d.

51.

REVISION QUESTIONS

At MDH/A if the visual reference has not been obtained

At the missed approach point ifvisual reference has not been obtained
If aircraft is below 1000ft and the RVR is reported to be below minima
At any point visual contact with the runway is lost

In the event of a missed approach prior to the missed approach point which of the following is
the correct course of action?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Fly to the MAPt at the DH/A or MDH/A before initiating the procedure
If above DHIA or MDHIA continue to descend until reaching the MAPt
Climb immediately to the height/altitude specified in the procedure flying via the MAPt
Maintain height and fly to the MAPt and begin the procedure from there

7 -78

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR LAW

55.

Why are there no turns prescribed in the initial missed approach segment?
a.
b.
c.
d.

56.

b.
c.
d.

b.
c.
d.

The visual phase to be flown in specified sectors at a lower altitude than the overall area
obstacle clearance height
Different types of approach to be flown leading to the visual phase
Use of the instrument DR/A in the visual phase
A right hand circuit to be flown

Apart from obstacle clearance, what is the OCR for the visual manoeuvre is based on?
a.
b.
c.
d.

59.

In the event of a missed approach it will allow the pilot to circle the aerodrome and
regain the instrument runway threshold
It is another name for a visual circuit at an aerodrome of which the A TZ is class A
It allows an back-beam ILS to be flown to the downwind end of the runway and then
land on the upwind end
It is a visual phase after an instrument approach to allow a landing on a runway not
suitable for a straight in approach

The VM(C) Area is sectored. What does this allow?

a.

58.

Climbing turns are not recommended

The aircraft may be so low that a wing may hit the ground in a tum
The pilot will be too busy changing configuration to be able to cope with a tum as well
The initial track will be roughly along the runway so that is a safe direction and no turns
are needed

What is a Visual Manoeuvre (Circling)?

a.

57.

REVISION QUESTIONS

Aircraft category; minimum visibility

Aircraft speed and weight
MOC in the final approach phase
Cloud ceiling and visibility

A basic assumption is made concerning visual manoeuvring. What is it?

a.
b.
c.
d.

That the aeroplane can remain in VMC throughout the visual phase
The missed approach procedure for th~ instrument phase of the approach is good at all
times during the visual phase
That the pilot will remain in visual contact with the threshold of the landing runway
throughout
That the OCR for the visual phase must be higher than the DR for the instrument phase

7 -79

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR LAW

60.

If the aeroplane has a Flight Management System fitted and it is decided to use it during a
precision approach, what must also be done?
a.
b.
c.
d.

61.

1 minute
1Y2 minutes
2 minutes
2 Y2 minutes

Where would you normally leave a holding pattern?

a.
b.
c.
d.

65.

Different handling characteristics of aeroplanes

Skill levels of pilots
The orientation of the holding direction
To allow 3 aeroplanes to join the hold at the same time

In still air, what is the outbound leg time for holding at 10 OOOft?
a.
b.
c.
d.

64.

No the patterns are symmetrical

Yes, the holding side is now the buffer side
Yes the entry procedures are reversed (procedure 1 is now Offset etc .. )
Yes, a right hand holding pattern is called a procedure tum

There are three types of entry procedure into the holding pattern. What do these procedures cater
for?
a.
b.
c.
d.

63.

The procedure must be monitored on the basic display normally associated with the
procedure
The DH must be increased by a factor specified by the operator
The RVR is reported at all times
The missed approach procedure must be initiated if the FMS fails

Is there any difference in a holding pattern where the holding tum is left instead of right?
a.
b.
c.
d.

62.

REVISION QUESTIONS

On the outbound leg

On the inbound leg
At the holding point
Overhead the fixing facility

How far does the buffer area extend beyond the boundary of the holding area?
a.
b.
c.
d.

10 km
9.3 nm
3 nm
5 nm

7 - 80

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR LAW

66.

Why is a lowest holding altitude (LHA) specified?

a.
b.
c.
d.

67.

At the fix
Abeam the fix
When the outbound tum is complete
Over or abeam the fix, which ever occurs later

What are the two main objectives of altimeter setting?

a.
b.
c.
d.

70.

Parallel
Offset
Direct
Don't know (this option does not exist!)

At what point would you normally start the timing for the holding pattern in Q67?
a.
b.
c.
d.

69.

So that obstacle clearance can be achieved

So that as many aeroplanes as possible can use the holding facility
So that an airway can exist under the holding pattern
So that the lowest level in the holding pattern is above the initial level for any arrival or
departure procedure

A holding pattern is set up on the WOT beacon. The holding direction is 180 and the holding
tum is right at the facility. The minimum holding level is FL160. You are tracking towards the
beacon heading 355 T. The variation is 7 East and the drift 5 starboard. What type of entry
procedure will you employ?
a.
b.
c.
d.

68.

REVISION QUESTIONS

To read height and barometric pressure

QNH to be set in the vicinity of the aerodrome and QFE en route
To provide adequate terrain clearance and vertical separation
To provide altimeter reference to MSL above the transition altitude and to aerodrome
level below.

Which of the following correctly defines altitude?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Vertical position with reference to MSL

Vertical position with reference to aerddrome elevation
Vertical position with reference to touchdown
Vertical position with reference to the standard pressure level

7 - 81

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR LAW

71.

Which of the following correctly defines height?

a.
b.
c.
d.

72.

The first flight level above the transition level

The level defined with reference to a QNH of 1013.25mb
The atmospheric pressure level of 1013 .25mb
Where QNH = QNE

What is the relationship between IFR and VFR flight levels?

a.
b.
c.
d.

76.

Below sea level!

660 ft above mean sea level
660 ft above the transition level
660 ft below the transition altitude

Which of the following is the location of FLO?

a.
b.
c.
d.

75.

Vertical position with reference to MSL

Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation
Vertical position with reference to touchdown
Vertical position with reference to the standard pressure level

If the QNH is 991 Mb where is FLO? (Assume 1 Mb = 30 ft)

a.
b.
c.
d.

74.

Vertical position with reference to MSL

Vertical position with reference to aerodrome elevation
Vertical position with reference to touchdown
Vertical position with reference to the standard pressure level

Which of the following correctly defines flight level?

a.
b.
c.
d.

73.

REVISION QUESTIONS

VFR levels are odd levels and IFR are even levels
IFR levels are flown on mag tracks from 000 to 179 and VFR levels from 180 to 359
VFR levels may be flown in VMC or IMC, but IFR levels must only be flown in IMC
For a given mag track, the VFR level is the IFR level plus 500' ifbelow FL290

At what point in a flight is the QNH communicated to the pilot by ATC?

a.
b.
c.
d.

On engine start
In the taxi clearance
In the ATC clearance
With the take-off clearance

7 - 82

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR LAW

77.

If you are flying outside an aerodrome traffic zone, what are you required to set on your altimeter
sub scale?
a.
b.
c.
d.

78.

b.
c.
d.

You only need the departure aerodrome and destination aerodrome QNHs and then
interpolate the difference whilst en route
Ask the met man to forecast the QNH for the route before you take off
Ask the FIS controller for local aerodrome QNHs
Set 1013 mb and add the root mean squared difference between the departure and
destination aerodrome QNHs and 1013, convert the difference to altitude at the rate of
1mb = 27ft and then add this to the safety altitude to give you the lowest safe en route
altitude

You are approaching an aerodrome to land and call the approach controller at 10nm from the
edge of the ATZ. Your flight conditions are VMC and you are flying VFR. When would you
expect to be advised to set the aerodrome QNH?
a.
b.
c.
d.

80.

Regional QFF
The lowest forecast pressure setting with respect to MSL for the area in which you are
flying
The local QNH obtained from FIS or the nearest aerodrome
The QFE for the highest aerodrome in the vicinity

If you are flying en route below the transition level but are well briefed with regard to safety
altitude, from where would you get altimeter setting information whilst airborne?

a.

79.

REVISION QUESTIONS

On initial contact the app controller will pass QNH and tell you what altitude to fly at
On clearance to enter the traffic pattern established for a visual join to land
When descending below the transition altitude
On handover from approach to tower

You are carrying out an instrument approach to land at Birmingham International. You are IMC
at FL 70. The radar controller tells you set the Birmingham QNH 1007 and descend to and
maintain 4500 ft. On the approach plate it tells you that the transition level is FL50. What do
you do?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Set 1007 immediately and advise leaving 7000 ft for 4500 ft

Leave 1013 set until at FL50 then set 1007 and descend to 4500 ft
Tell the radar controller that you cannot accept his clearance as you are above the
transition level.
Assume that the radar controller knows what he is doing but make sure that you report
the matter when you land

7 - 83

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

REVISION QUESTIONS

AIR LAW

81.

You test your altimeter with aerodrome QNH set. What would a serviceable altimeter read?
a.
b.
c.
d.

82.

The height of the aeroplane above the datum

The elevation of the position of the aeroplane plus the height of the altimeter static vent
The altitude of the aeroplane above the datum
The height of the aeroplane above mean sea level corrected for temperature error and
with reference to a set point on the surface of the aerodrome

In selecting a flight level for a flight, which of the following should be taken into consideration?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Adequate terrain clearance is ensured

ATC requirements (Danger Areas, restricted airspace etc .. ) are complied with
Minimum traffic separation is ensured
Adequate separation from VFR traffic is ensured (differential flight levels applied)
The appropriate flight level in accordance with the table of flight levels

The level chosen complies with the table of cruising levels

a.
b.
c.
d.
83.

Why are parallel runway operations used?

a.
b.
c.
d.

84.

To make the most use of the runways available

To increase an aerodromes IFR traffic capacity in IMC
To cut down queues at the holding points and make slot times more attainable
To increases separation between aeroplanes making instrument approaches

Where is it feasible to use parallel runway approach operations?

a.
b.
c.
d.

85.

1,2 and 5
All the above
1,2,3 and 5
1,3,4 and 5

Where both the parallel runways have ILS or MLS systems installed
Where the runways are separated by not less than 760 metres
Where one runway is used for take-offs and the other for landings
Where the angle of divergence from the, parallel is not more than 15 deg

There are 2 basic modes of parallel runway approach operations: Mode 1 and Mode 2. What is
the difference between these modes of operation?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Mode 1 is visual approaches only and mode 2 is a mixture of visual and instrument
approaches
Mode 1 requires ILS Cat III criteria whereas mode 2 is either Cat I or Cat II
Mode 2 requires radar separation to be applied between aircraft using adjacent ILS
systems
Mode 1 permits straight in approaches whereas mode 2 doesn't.

7 - 84

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR lAW
86.

Is it feasible to use one runway for take-offs and the other for landings?
a.
b.
c.
d.

87.

All of it
% of it
Half of it ( Y4 either side of the extended centreline)
Only the inner half

When would a radar approach controller intervene to manoeuvre an aircraft in a parallel approach
situation?
a.
b.
c.
d.

90.

The No Obstruction Zone

The Normal Operating Zone
The Normal Operations Zone
The Not Over Zero weight area

Where independent parallel approach operations are in operation, how much of the NOZ is used?
a.
b.
c.
d.

89.

Yes, providing the departure procedures do not interfere with the missed approach
procedure for the instrument approach runway
No, because there must be a dedicated direction of tum for the missed approach
procedure and this would preclude departures in that direction
Yes, it is known as Mode 4 segregated parallel operations
Yes, providing all the departures are 'straight departures' (ie initial departure track
within15 deg of runway heading)

What does NOZ stand for?

a.
b.
c.
d.

88.

REVISION QUESTIONS

During Mode 2 (dependant parallel approach) operations only

During independent parallel approaches (Mode 1) when the NTZ is penetrated by
another aircraft
When radar separation is lost during penetration of the NTZ
When 1000 ft separation cannot be maintained between approaching aircraft

Where independent parallel approach operations are established, where does the NTZ start?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Where adjacent aeroplanes are established on the ILS centreline

The Final Approach Fix (F AF)
Where normal radar separation can no longer be applied
The point where 1000 ft separation is lost

7 - 85

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

REVISION QUESTIONS

AIR LAW
91.

Which of the following are correct for parallel approach operations?

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Straight in approaches only

All approaches to be radar monitored
Maximum centreline (localiser) interception angle to be 30 deg
No reduction of 1000 ft separation unless both aircraft are established on the ILS
localiser
Diverging tracks to be established for missed approach procedures
a.
b.
c.
d.

92.

When are SSR transponders to be operated?

a.
b.
c.
d.

93.

Standby
A/1234 + C
A17000 + C
A/2000 + C

Your aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference (hi jacking). Without upsetting the man with
the gun, what would you squawk?
a.
b.
c.
d.

95.

Only on controlled flights

When in receipt of a radar service ie Radar advisory or Radar control
On all commercial flights
When required by A TC

You are entering a FIR where SSR is used from an area where SSR is not used. What would you
squawk?
a.
b.
c.
d.

94.

All the above

1,3,4 and 5
2,3,4 and 5
3,4 and 5

A17700 + C
A17600 + C
A17500 + C
Either A17700 or A17500 depending uP9n the situation

What are you required to do if you become aware that your transponder has failed?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Switch the set off

Try recycling the transponder and set 7777 to maximise the response
Tell ATC
Just forget it, the controller will soon notice

7 - 86

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR LAW
96.

Which of the following is an invalid squawk?

a.
b.
c.
d.

97.

Advisory, Counselling and Arbitration Service

Anti-Collision Action System
Automatic Collision Avoidance System
Airborne Collision Avoidance System

How often are ranges to be passed during an SRA terminating at 2 nm from touchdown?
a.
b.
c.
d.

100.

Squawk 'standby'; then change the code; then squawk 'normal'.

Squawk 'off'; then change the code; then squawk 'normal'.
Only change one digit at a time
It doesn't matter because there is a delay built into the ground station

What does the abbreviation ACAS mean?

a.
b.
c.
d.

99.

Al7777 + C
A/5678 + C
A/2000 +C
AlOOOO + C

On a single SSR control box/selector system (ie no changeover switch), what is the correct
procedure for changing squawk?
a.
b.
c.
d.

98.

REVISION QUESTIONS

Every mile
Every half mile
As required
Every mile until 4 nm from touchdown then every half mile after that

Precision Approach Radar (PAR) may be used to provide distance and centre line information
(PAR in azimuth only). What type of an approach is this?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Precision Instrument approach

SRA
Non-precision instrument approach
Radar vectored approach

7 - 87

Oxford Aviation Services Limited

AIR LAW

REVISION QUESTIONS

ANSWERS TO REVISION QUESTIONS FOR CHAPTER 7

26

51

76

27

52

77

28

53

78

29

54

79

30

55

80

31

56

81

32

57

82

33

58

83

34

59

84

10

35

60

85

11

36

61

86

12

37

62

87

13

38

63

88

14

39

64

89

15

40

65

90

16

41

66

91

17

42

67

92

18

43

68

93

19

44

69

94

20

45

70

95

21

46

71

96

22

47

72

97

23

48

73

98

24

49

74

99

25

50

75

100

7 - 88

Oxford Aviation Services Limited