JEE

MAIN

REVIEW

T E S T- 3

PAPER-1
Class: XI (PTP & YS)

Date: 07-08-2016

Time: 3 Hours.

Max. Marks: 360

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1.

The question paper consists of '90' objective type questions. There are '30' questions each in
Physics , Chemistry and Mathematics respectively. Please fill the OMR answer Sheet
accordingly and carefully.

2.

Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

3.

You will be awarded 4 marks for each question, if you have darkened only the bubble corresponding
to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (1)
mark will be awarded.

4.

There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 3 above.

5.

Use Black or Blue Ball Point Pen only for filling particulars.

6.

Use of Calculator, Log Table, Slide Rule and Mobile is not allowed.

7.

Rough work is to be done on the space provided at the bottom and in end of the booklet for this
purpose in the Test Booklet only.

8.

On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

9.

Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

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USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: Al = 27, Mg = 24, Cu = 63.5, Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5, O = 16, H = 1, P = 31, Ag = 108, N = 14,
Li = 7, I = 127, Cr = 52, K=39, S = 32, Na = 23, C = 12, Br = 80, Fe = 56, Ca = 40, Zn = 65.5, Ti = 48,
Ba = 137, U = 238, Co= 59, B =11, F = 19, He = 4, Ne = 20, Ar = 40 , Mo = 96
log102 = 0.3010, log103 = 0.4771, ln 2 = 0.693, ln 1.1 = 0.095, ln 3 = 1.09, e = 1.6 1019, me= 9.1 1031 kg
0 = 8.85 1012 C2/Nm2, Swater = 1 cal/gm C, Lice = 80 cal/gm. , g = 10 m/s2 unless otherwise stated
PHYSICS
Q.1

A moving train is stopped by applying brakes. It stops after travelling 80 m. If the speed of the train is
doubled and retardation remain in the same, it will cover a distance (before steps)(1) Same as earlier
(2) Double the distance covered earlier
(3) Four times the distance covered earlier
(4) Half the distance covered earlier

Q.2

System is shown in figure. All the surfaces are smooth. Rod is moved by external agent with acceleration
9 m/s2 vertically downwards. Force exerted the wedge on floor will be : (here mass of wedge 10kg &
g = 10m/s2)

Q.3

Q.4

(1) 120 N
(2) 200 N
(3) 135/2 N
(4) 260 N
A ball suspended by a thread swings in a vertical plane so that its acceleration magnitudes in extreme and
lowest positions are equal. The threads deflection angle in the extreme position is?
(1) 30
(2) 60
(3) 53
(4) 37
A stone projected at angle 53 attains maximum height 25 m during its motion in air. Then its distance
from the point of projection where it will fall is:
(1) 75 m

(2)

400
m
3

(3) 50 m

(4) 60 m

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Q.5

Two wedges, each of mass m, are placed next to each other on a flat floor. A cube of mass M is
balanced on the wedges as shown below. Assume no friction between the cube and the wedges, but a
coefficient of static friction < 1 between the wedges and the floor. What is the largest M that can be
balanced as shown without motion of the wedges?

M
m
45
(1)
Q.6

Q.7

Q.8

m
2

(2)

m
1

m
45

45
(3)

45
2m
1

A stone is projected with speed 20 m/s at angle 37 with the horizontal and it hits the ground with speed
12 m/s due to air resistance. Assume the effect of air resistance to reduce only horizontal component of
velocity. Then the time of flight will be:
(1) greater than 2.4 sec (2) less than 2.4 sec (3) 2.4 sec
(4) depends on other data
A 50g marble rolls off a table and lands 2m from the base of the table. A 100g marble rolls off the same
table with the same initial speed. It lands at distance
(1) less than 1m
(2) 1m
(3) between 1m and 2m
(4) 2m
When the road is dry and coefficient of friction is , the maximum speed of a car in a circular path is 10
ms1. If the road becomes wet and coefficient of friction become

Q.9

Q.10

(4) All M will balance

, what is the maximum speed

4

permitted?
(1) 5 ms1
(2) 10 ms1
(3) 20 ms1
(4) 4 ms1
Distance between a frog and an insect on a horizontal plane is 10 m. Frog can jump with a maximum
speed of 10 m/s . g = 10 m/s2. Minimum number of jumps required by the frog to catch the insect is:
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 100
(4) 50
A Plane travelling horizontally to the right at 10 m/s flies past a helicopter that is going straight up at
20 m/s. From the helicopter's perspective, the plane's direction and speed are
(1) Right and up, less than 100 m/s.
(2) Right and up, more than 100 m/s.
(3) Right and down, less than 100 m/s.
(4) Right and down, more than 100 m/s.

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Q.11

Suppose that a man jumps off a building 20 m high onto cushions having a total thickness of 2m. If the
cushions are crushed to a thickness of 0.5 m, what is the man's average acceleration as he slows down?

(1) 100 m/s2

Q.12

Q.13

Q.14

(2) 400 m/s2

(3) 50 m/s2

(4) None of these

xy 2
An experiment measures quantities x, y, z and then t is calculated from the data as t = 3 . If percentage
z
errors in x, y and z are respectively 1%, 3 %, 2 %, then maximum percentage error in t is:
(1) 10 %
(2) 4 %
(3) 7 %
(4) 13 %
The time of flight of a projectile is 10 s and horizontal range is 500 m. Maximum height attained by its is:
[ g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 25 m
(2) 50 m
(3) 82 m
(4) 125 m
A particle whose speed is 50 m/s moves along the line from A (2, 1) to B (9, 25). Find its velocity vector
in the form of ai bj .

Q.15

(1) 7i 24j
(2) 8i 24j
(3) 14i 48j
(4) None of these
A particle is projected up the inclined such that its component of velocity along the incline is 10 m/s. Time
of flight is 2 sec and maximum height above the incline is 5 m. Then velocity of projection will be:

Q.16

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 10 2 m/s
(3) 5 5 m/s
(4) none
A man crosses the river perpendicular to river flow in time t seconds and travels an equal distance down
the stream in T seconds. The ratio of man's speed in still water to the speed of river water will be:

t2 T2
(1) 2
t T2

T2 t2
(2) 2 2
T t

t2 T2
(3) 2
t T2

T2 t2
(4) 2 2
T t

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Q.17

Q.18

Q.19

Q.20

A coin placed on a rotating turntable just slips if it is placed at a distance of 16 cm from the centre. If the
angular velocity of the turntable is doubled, it will just slip at a distance (in cm) of
(1) 2 cm
(2) 3 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 5 cm
A body of mass 32 kg is suspended by a spring balance from the roof of a vertically operating lift and
going downward from rest. At the instants the lift has covered 20 m and 50 m, the spring balance
showed 30 kg and 36 kg respectively. The velocity of the lift is:
(1) Decreasing at 20 m and increasing at 50 m
(2) Increasing at 20 m and decreasing t 50 m
(3) Continuously decreasing at a constant rate through the journey
(4) Continuously increasing at constant rate throughout the journey
A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of 5 metre per minute. A man on the south bank of the
river, capable of swimming at 10 metre per minute in still water, wants to swim across the river in the
shortest time. He should swim in a direction.
(1) due north
(2) 30 east of north (3) 30 west of north (4) 60 east of north
The block is projected towards left with a velocity of 10 m/s. Taking left direction as positive, its velocity
versus time graph is (Assume that string is sufficiently long so that hanging block does not strike the
pulley)
10 m/s
1 kg
= 0.5

1kg
v

(1)
Q.21

v
t

v
t

(2)

v
t

(3)

(4)

If the coefficient of friction between A and B is , the maximum horizontal acceleration of the wedge A for
which B will remain at rest with respect to the wedge is:
B
A
a
45

(1) g

(2) g
1

(3)

(4) g
1

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Q.22

In the figure shown, a person wants to raise a block lying on the ground to a height h. In both the cases
if time required is same then in which case he has to exert more force. Assume pulleys and strings light.

[Figure : (i)]
Q.23

[Figure : (ii)]

(1) Figure (i)

(2) Figure (ii)
(3) same in both
(4) Cannot be determined
In the shown arrangement if f1, f2 and T be the frictional forces on 2 kg block, 3 kg block and tension in
the string respectively, then their values are:

1 = 0.1
1N

Q.24

2 = 0.2
2 kg

3 kg

8N

(1) 2 N, 6 N, 3.2 N
(2) 2 N, 6 N, 0 N
(3) 2 N, 6 N, 2 N
(4) data insufficient to calculate the required values
A man of mass m stands on a platform of equal mass m and pulls himself by two ropes passing over
pulleys as shown. If he pulls each rope with a force equal to half the his weight, his upward acceleration
would be :

Platform
(1) g/2

(2) g/4

(3) g

(4) zero

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Q.25

A block of mass 15 kg is resting on a rough inclined plane as shown in figure. The block is tied up by a
horizontal string which has a tension of 50 N. The coefficient of friction between the surfaces of contact
is (g = 10 m/s2)
T
horizontal
45

(1) 1/2
Q

(2) 2/3

(3) 3/4

(4) 1/4

air is the force

of air resistance on the car. Which of the other forces best represent the horizontal force of the road on
the car tires?
A

Fair

FC
FB

FD
FA

(1) FA
Q.27

(2) FB

(3) FC

(4) FD

Car is acceleration with acceleration = 20 m/s2. A box of mass m = 10 kg that is placed inside the car, it
is put in contact with the vertical wall of car as shown. The friction coefficient between the box and the
wall is = 0.6.
= 0.6
10 kg

20 m/s

(1) The acceleration of the box will be 10 m/sec2

(2) The friction force acting on the box will be 100 N
(3) The contact force between the vertical wall and the box will be 100 N
(4) None of these
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Q.28

20
A particle moves also a circle of radius m with tangential acceleration of constant magnitude. If the

speed of the particle is 80 m/s at the end of the second revolution after motion has begun. What will be
the tangential acceleration?
(1) 40 m/s2
(2) 20 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 5 m/s2

Q.29

A body of mass 10 kg lies on a rough horizontal surface. When a horizontal force of F Newton's acts on
it, it gets an acceleration of 5 m/s2. And when the horizontal force is doubled, it gets an acceleration of 18
m/s2. The coefficient of friction between the body and the horizontal surface is:
(1) 0.1
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.6
(4) 0.8

Q.30

A car of mass M is travelling on a horizontal circular path of radius r. At an instant its speed is v and
tangential acceleration is a :
(1) The acceleration of the car is towards the centre of the path

mv 2
(2) The magnitude of the frictional force on the car is greater than
r
(3) The friction coefficient between the ground and the car is less than
1
(4) The friction coefficient between the ground and the car is tan

a
g

v2
rg

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CHEMISTRY
Q.31

Equal weights (1.00g) of iron and sulphur are heated together and react to form FeS. What fraction of
the original weight is left unreacted (Fe = 55.85 g mol-1, S = 32.10 g mol-1)?
(1) 0.225

Q.32

(2) 0.425

(3) 0.875

(4) 0.575

(3) BeCl2

(4) CS2

Identify polar species among the following

(1) XeF2

(2) SF2

Q.33 12 mL of the vapour of a certain organic compound containing only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen is
heated. After being cooled to the original room temperature, its volume becomes 100 mL. Treatment
with aqueous KOH removes CO2, leaving 88 mL of O2. The empirical formula of the vapour is
(1) C3H6O
Q.34

(2) CH2O

(3) C2H4O

(4) C2H4O2

Compare the bond length

(1) CO > CO2 > CO32
(2) axial bond in SF4 > equitorial bond in SF4
(3) axial bond in ClF3 < equitorial bond in ClF3
(4) axial bond in PCl5 < equitorial bond in PCl5

Q.35 The relation between molarity M and molality m is given by ( = density of solution, M1 = molecular
weight of solute)
1000 M

(1) m 1000 M
1

(2) m

1000 M
1000 MM 1

(3) m

1000 MM 1
1000 MM 1

1000 M

(4) m 1000 MM
1

Q.36

Calcualte total number of planes in which maximum number of atoms are present in SF6.
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1

Q.37

In the photoelectric effect, the number of photo-electrons emitted per unit time depends upon the
(1) Energy of incident radiations
(2) Frequency of incident radiations
(3) Intensity of incident radiations
(4) Both frequency and intensity of incident radiation

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Q.38

Which species contains two lone pair of electron at the central atom
(1) XeF6
(2) SF4
(3) I3
(4) I3+

Q.39

The correct Sichrodingers wave equation for an electron with E as total energy and V as potential
energy is
2 2 2 8m
(1) x 2 y 2 z 2 h 2
2

(E V ) 0

8 2 m

(E V ) 0

(3) x 2 y 2 z 2 h 2
Q.40

8m 2

(E V ) 0

(4) PO 34

(3) ClO4

(2) SO2

The set of quantum for the 19th electron in chromium is

(1) n 4, l 0, m 0, s

1
1
or
2
2

(3) n 3, l 2, m 1, s
Q.42

2x

(4) x 2 y 2 z 2 h

(E V ) 0

Which of the following species contains p pbonds :

(1) ClO3

Q.41

2 2 2 8 2
(2) x 2 y 2 z 2 mh 2

1
1
or
2
2

(2) n 3, l 2, m 1, s

1
1
or
2
2

(4) n 4, l 1, m 0, s

1
1
or
2
2

Which of the following pair of species in which Ist having more dipole moment than IInd?

CN
(1)

CH3

CN
,

(2)

Cl
,

CN

NO2
(3) CH3F, CH3Cl
Q.43

NO2

(4) CH2Cl2 , CH3Cl

The angular wave function for an ns orbital

(1) depends on angle
(2) depends on angle
(3) depends both on and
(4) is independent of both and

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Q.44

Q.45

Which of the following doesn't obeys Lewis octet rule?

(1) CO
(2) NO3
(3) O3
Potential energy of Li2+ electron is

3 e2
(1)
4 0 r
Q.46

Q.47

Q.49

3 e2
(2)
4 0 r

Which of the following has higher stability?

(1) H2Se
(2) PH3

19

e2
(4)
4 0 r

(3) H2O

(4) H2S

(2) 16 1010 J

19
(3) 3 2 10 J

(4) 6 4 10 10 J

Which is not correctly matched?

(1) IOF4

Trigonal bipyramidal

(2) IO2 F2

Tshape

(3) XeO64

Square bipyramidal

(4) XeF2

Linear

The r.m.s. velocity of hydrogen is 7 times the r.m.s velocity of nitrogen. If T is the temperature of the
gas
(1) TH 2 TN 2

Q.50

2 e2
(3)
4 0 r 2

The work function of a metal is 4 2 eV. If radiations of 2000 fall on the metal then the kinetic energy of
the fastest photo electron is
(1) 1 6 10

Q.48

(4) NO

(2) TH 2 TN 2

(3) TH 2 TN 2

(4) TH 2 7 TN 2

What is the value of n+l for the last incoming electron of element which has more electronegativity than
chlorine.
(1) 1

Q.51

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in a p orbital is

(1) 1

(2) 3

(3) 2

(4) 6

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Q.52

Which of the following statement is not a postulate of the kinetic theory of gases?
(1) Gases are made up of tiny particles called molecules
(2) All molecules move with the same speed and have random motion
(3) The molecules are perfectly elastic
(4) There exists no forces of attraction and repulsion amongst gaseous molecules

Q.53

The wave motion of an electron in a Bohrs orbit of hydrogen is as shown adjacent. Its energy is
(1) 3.4 eV
(2) + 3.4 eV
(3) 3.02 eV
(4) 1.51 eV

Q.54

The energy of an electron moving in nth Bohrs orbit of an element is given by

En =

13.6 Z 2
eV / atom
n2

The graph of E vs Z2 will be

(1)

Q.55

(2)

(3)

(4)

At which location on the inside surface of the closed container will the number of molecular collisions per
unit area be the greatest? (Ignore effects of gravity.)
(1) Square A (top centre)
(2) Square B (Centre side)
(3) Square C (bottom centre)
(4) The number of collisions is the same at A, B & C

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Q.56

The van der Waals equation of law of corresponding stats for 1 mole of gas is:

P
V
T
,
and

Pc
Vc
Tc

3
(1) 3 1 8

3
(2) 3 1 8

3
(3) 3 1 8

3
(4) 3 1 8

Q.57

The vapour density of a mixture containing NO2 and N2O4 is 38.3 at 27C. The mole of NO2 in 100 gm
mixture is:
(1) 0.437
(2) 0.347
(3) 0.734
(4) Cant be predicted

Q.58

The following equilibrium are given:

N2 + 3H2
2NH3; K1
N2 + O2
2NO; K2
H2 + 1/2O2
H2O; K3
The equilibrium constant of the reaction 2NH3 + 5/2 O2
2NO + 3H2O in terms of K1,
K2 and K3 is
(1) K1 K2/K3
(2) K1 K23/K2
(3) K2 K33/K1
(4) K1 K2 K3

Q.59

For the reaction NH3(g)

3 3 p
(1) 1 4 K
p

1/2

3 3 Kp

(3) 1
4 p

Q.60

1/ 2

1/2 N2(g) + 3/2 H2(g), the degree of dissociation in terms Kp is

3 3 p
(2) 1 4 K
p

1/2

3 3 Kp

(4) 1
4 p

1/ 2

How many elements of second peroid which have more ionization energy than Be.
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 7

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M AT H E M AT I C S
Q.61

If x2 p (x + 1) + c = 0 has roots , then the value of 2 + 2 + (2 + p) is

(1) pc
(2) p2 + pc
(3) p2 pc
(4) pc

Q.62

The value of sin 10 sin 30 sin 50 sin 70 is

(1)

Q.63

1
8

3
8

(2)

(3)

1
16

(4)

3
16

If log21/ 2 a log21/ 4 a log21/ 6 a log21/ 8 a .... upto 20 terms is 840, then a equal to
(1) 2

(2) 1

(3) 4

(4)

Q.64

The least value and the greatest value of 9 cos 2 24 cos 20 are
(1) 35, 13
(2) 37, 13
(3) 37, 35
(4) 35, 35

Q.65

If the (2p)th term of a H.P. is q and the (2q)th term is p, then the (2p + 2q)th term is
pq
(1) 2 (p q )

(2)

2pq
pq

(3)

pq
pq

(4)

pq
pq

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Q.66

If the expression 2x2 + mxy + 3y2 5y 2 can be resolved into two linear factors, then the value of
m is
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

Q.67

If log0.5(2x 1) < log0.25(2x 1), then x lies in the interval

1

(1) , (1, ) (2)

2

1
,
2

1
(3) , 1
2

(4) (1, )

Q.68

The solution of the equation x2 | 2x 3 | 3x + 3 = 0 form

(1) an A.P.
(2) a G.P.
(3) a H.P.
(4) a set of numbers with zero sum

Q.69

If n arithmetic means a1, a2, ......, an are inserted between 50 and 200 and n harmonic means h1, h2, ......
hn are inserted between the same two numbers, then a2 hn1 is equal to
(1) 500

Q.70

(2)

10000
n

(3) 10000

(4)

250
n

The quadratic equation (3 + sin ) x2 + (2 cos )x + 2 sin = 0 has

(1) equal roots for all
(2) real and distinct roots for all
(3) complex root for all
(4) real or distinct roots depending upon

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Q.71

(1) 2

Q.72

1
1
, 1, a2, a3, 4 is equal to
a
a
(3) 4
(4) 5

If a > 0, then the minimum value of sum of numbers

(2) 3

If f() = 5cos + 3 cos + 3, then the range of f() is

3

(1) [ 5, 11]
(2) [ 3, 9]
(3) [ 2, 10]

(4) [ 4, 10]

Q.73

If the difference between the roots of the equation x2 + ax + b = 0 is equal to the difference between the
roots of the equation x2 + bx + a = 0 (a b), then
(1) a + b = 4
(2) a + b = 4
(3) a b = 4
(4) a b = 4

Q.74

The common difference d of an A.P. whose first term is unity and whose second, tenth and thirty-fourth
terms form a G.P. is
(1) d =

Q.75

1
8

(2) d =

1
3

(3) d =

1
5

(4) d =

1
6

If the product of the roots of the equation x2 3ax + 2 e 2 loge a 1 = 0 is 7, then the equation has real
roots for
(1) a = 2
(2) a = 2
(3) a = 2
(4) a = 4

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Q.76

If the roots of the equation x2 + ax + b = 0 are cot 60 and cot 75, then (b a) equals
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

Q.77

The number of solutions of the equation sin 7 = sin + sin 3 in 0 < <
(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

is
2
(4) 4

Q.78

In a ABC, tan A and tan B are the roots of ab (x2 + 1) = c2x, where a, b, c are the sides of the
triangle. Then ABC is
(1) a right-angled triangle
(2) an isosceles triangle
(3) an equilateral triangle
(4) a right-angled isosceles triangle

Q.79

The equation a sin x + cos 2x = 2a 7 has a solution, if

(1) a > 2
(2) a < 2
(3) 2 a 6

(4) a 2 or a 6

The number of solution of the equation tan 3x = sin 6x in 0, ,
6 6
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3

is
2
(4) 1

Q.80

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Q.81

The set of values of a such that x2 2ax + a2 6a < 0 in [1, 2] is

(3) 5

21

(4) 4

(1) 4 15 , 4 15
21, 5

21

(2) 5 21, 4 15
15 , 5

Q.82

The number of values of in [0, 2] that satisfy the equation 3 cos 2 + 13 sin 8 = 0 is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

Q.83

Solution set of the inequality, 2 log2 (x2 + 3x) 0 is

(1) [ 4, 1]
(2) [ 4, 3) (0, 1]

(3) ( , 3) (1, )
(4) (, 4) [1, )

Q.84

If tan ( cos ) = cot ( sin ), 0 < <

(1)

Q.85

1
2

(2)

1
2

(2)

3
4

(3)

The sum to infinite terms of the series

(1) 1

, then the value of sin is

4
4

(4)

1
2 2

3 5
7
9

+ . is
4 36 144 400

(3)

1
2

(4) 2

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Q.86

The solution of the equation logsin xcos x + logcos xsin x = 2 is given by x which is equal to

4
[where n I]

(1) 2n +

(2) n +

(3) n

(4) 2n

Q.87

If 1 , 2, 3, .............n, are in AP., whose common difference is d, then the value of

sin d [sec 1.sec 2 + sec 2.sec 3 + ........... + sec n1.sec n] is equals to
(1) tan n tan 1
(2) tan 1 tan n
(3) cot n cot 1
(4) cot 1 cot n

Q.88

If 3 +

1
1
(3 + d) + 2 (3 + 2d) +...... + upto = 8, then the value of d is
4
4

(1) 9

(2) 5

(3) 1

(4) none of these

Q.89

Number of ordered pairs (x, y) satisfying the equation 4y2 + 2 cos2x = 4y sin2x, where
x, y [0, 2], is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

Q.90

Let Sn =
(1)

1 1 2
1 2 . n
3 . 3 3
. Then Sn is not greater than
3
1 1 2
1 2 . n 3

1
2

(2)

3
2

(3) 2

(4) 1

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