Dr-Noor Ul Basars First-Aid Tests with Answers in one File

Index-Check List

Compiled by :- Amlodipine Besylate

1.FIRST AID EMBRYOLOGY AND HISTOLOGY page #1

2.FIRST AID IMMUNOLOGY page #10
3.FIRST AID MICROBIOLOGY TEST page #15
4.FIRST AID REPRODUCTIVE TEST page #24
5.FIRST AID GASTROENTEROLOGY TEST page #27
6.FIRST AID ENDOCRINOLOGY TEST Page #31
7.FIRST AID CARDIOVASCULAR TEST page #36
8.FIRST AID RESPIRATORY SYSTEM page #40
9.FIRST AID RENAL TEST page #43
10.FIRST AID TEST MUSKULOSKELETAL page #48
11.FIRST AID THORAX ANATOMY page #52
12.FIRST AID HAEMATOLOGY page #57
13. FIRST AID CNS page #63
14. FIRST AID PATHOLOGY page #69
15.FIRS AID BIOCHEMISTRY page #77
16. FIRST AID UPPER LIMB ANATOMY page #83
17.PELVIS PERINEUM ANATOMY page #85
18. FIRST AID Head & Neck page #91

1.FIRST AID EMBRYOLOGY AND HISTOLOGY

1. Gametes are descendent of?
2. All primary oocytes are formed in which month of fetal life?
3. Primary oocyte remain dormant in which phase?
4. Secondary oocytes is arrested in which phase?
5. Granulosa cells secrete?
6. Progesterone stimulates the endometrium of the uterus to enter which phase?
7. Primordial germ cells derived from?
8. Which cells supply as the stem cell in male throughout reproductive life?
9. Newly ejavulated sperms are incapable of fertilization until they undergo ?
10. Advanced maternal age is risk factor for ?
11. Normally ----- percent of sperms in an ejaculate are grossly deformed?
12. Genetic disorder characterized by hypogonadism and anosmia?
13. Anovulation is often treated with ?
14. If a girl never begins menstruation the condition is called ?
15. The reaction which occurs when the sperm binds to the zona pellucida of the secondary
oocyte is ?
16. Sperm produces ATP from?
17. Blastomeres are totipotent upto which cell stage?
18. -----refers to a stem cell that can differentiate into ectoderm , mesoderm and endoderm
19. Blastocyst implants which part of uterine wall?

20. Trophoblast differentiate into ??

21. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy?
22. Bilaminar embryonic disk is ?
23. The syncytiotropoblast secretes ??
24. HCG can be assayed on ---- day in maternal urine?
25. Left/ right axis determination begins with the asymmetric activity of ?
26. Mesoderm further give rise into?
27. The intermediate mesoderm forms which system?
28. Sclerotic me of somite forms ?
29. Dura matter is derivative of which germ layer?
30. Adrenal Cortex derivative of which germ cell layer?
31. Chondroma is a tumor arised from remnants of?
32. Placenta attached to the lower part of uterus covering internal os?
33. Classic cause of first trimester bleeding ?
34. Growth hormone of the fetus?
35. Hofbauer cells are macrophage like cells found in?
36. In late pregnancy placental membrane is formed by? *** ( imp)
37. The near term fetus excrete about ------ of urinue daily?
38. Potter syndrome lead to which amniotic fluid condition?
39. Name the fetal albumin produced by fetal hepatocytes ??
40. Mucus connective tissue of umbelical cord is also called ?
41. A light gray shines sac indicates?
42. Vasculogenesis occurs first within extra embryonic visceral mesoderm around yolk sac on
day?
43. Hematopoiesis is taken over by liver at which week?
44. Hemoglobin a2r2 is called ?
45. Hydroxy urea promotes which hemoglobin?
46. Highly oxygenated blood in fetal circulation is carried by which vessel?
47. Ligamentum venosus is the ramnent of ?
48. Pericardial cavity is formed by which mesoderm?
49. Adult structure of bulbus cordis?
50. Articulopulmonary septum is derivative of?
51. Abnormal neural crest cell migration such that there is non spiral development f AP septum
lead to?
52. Rib notching on X-ray is feature of ?
53. Stapedial artery is derived from which aortic arch?
54. Adult structure if Vitelline arteries ?
55. Which cardinal vein is not involved in forming IVC ?
56. Primitive stomach is formed in which week ?
57. Primitive stomach rotates --%clockwise around its longitudinal axis?
58. Which layer of pyloric region hypertrophies in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis ?
59. Uncinate process is formed by which bud?
60. Dubble bubble sign is indicative of?
61. Midgut derivative are supplied by ?
62. Physiological umbelical herniation is seen in which week?
63. Midgut loops around ----- counterclockwise?

64. The urorectal septum fuses with the cloacal membrane at the future site of the anatomical
,????
65. Lower anal canal derived from?
66. Junction between upper and lower anal canal is indicated by ?
67. Ureteric bud is an outgrowth of?
68. Fetal metanephros is located at vertebral level of?
69. Allantois becomes fibrous cord called?
70. Most common cause of congenital obstruction of urinary tract ?
71. Most common renal malignancy of childhood?
72. Nutcracker syndrome occurs when?
73. By which week male and female characteristic of the external genitalia can be recognized ?
74. Phenotype sexual differentiation is determined by which gene?
75. Sry gene encodes for protein called?
76. Vestigial remnants of the mesonephric duct may be found in the adult female called?
77. The Phallus forms the ??
78. Urogenital folds forms the?
79. Testosterone is secreted by which cells?
80. Vestigial remnant of paranesonephric duct is ?
81. The labioscrotal swelling form the?
82. Respiratory diverticulum is formed in which week ?
83. Terminal sac period is the period between?
84. Pseudo glandular period is the period?
85. The site of the thyroglossal duct is indicated in adult by ?
86. Ultimobrschail body is derivative of which pouch?
87. Muscle of facial expression derived by?
88. No taste bud is present in which part if tongue?
89. All muscle motor supply is by XII cranial nerve except?
90. Pharyngeal cyst occurs when ----------- persist?
91. Most common site of ectopic thyroid tissue ?
92. Cleft palate is which type of genetic disorder ?
93. Anatomic landmark that distinguishea an anterior cleft palate from posterior cleft palate is?
94. Digeorge syndrome occurs due to defect in?
95. Remnant of notochord is ?
96. Anterior neuro pore closes on?
97. Posterior neuro pore closes on?
98. The lumen of neural tube for rise to?
99. Name 3 primary brain vesicles ?
100. At birth the conus mudullaris extend to the level of ?
101. Myelination of the corticospinal tract is not completed until ?
102. Remnants of ratkhe pouch may give rise to?
103. Arnold chiari malformation occurs when the caudal vermis and tonsils of cerebellum and
medulla herniated through which foramen?
104. Utricle responds to which acceleration?
105. Semicircular ducts responds to?
106. Stapes is derived from which pharyngeal arch ?
107. Eye development begins at day?

108. The choroid fissure closes during week??

109. The extra ocular muscle develops from Mesoderm of which somitomeres?
110. Anophthalmia is ?
111. HPL can be assayed in maternal blood at week?
112. Growth hormone of later half of pregnancy?
113. ----used by the fetal testes as a precursor of testosterone synthesis?
114. The most potent estrogen is ???
115. Amniocentesis is preferred in which weeks?
116. Quickening in a woman first pregnancy in which weeks?
117. At week 20 uterine fundus is palpable at the ?
118. Surfactants are produced in which weeks?
119. Normal baseline fetal heart rate is?
120. Maximum susceptible period of teratogenicity is?
121. The most common of CMV fetal infection is ??
122. Teratogenicity of thalidomide is ?
123. Fetal hydantoin syndrome is caused by?
124. Aminoglycoside causes which toxicity ?
125. Appendages in wrong position is due to mutation in which gene?
126. Heart begins to beat in which week?
127. Absent organ due to absent primordial tissue?
128. Incomplete organ development ?
129. Effect of diethylstilbestrol on fetus?
130. Caudal regression syndrome caused by?
131. High risk of spontaneous abortion is side effect of vit a excess
132. Decidua basalis is derived from?
133. Obliteration of Vitelline duct is in which week?
134. Yolk sac erythropoisis is in which weeks ?
135. Ductus arteriosus contain which blood?
136. Meninges and spinal cord herniated through spinal cord defect is called?
137. Dec separation of hemispheres across Midline leads to?
138. Most common site of syringomyelia ?
139. PDA is derivative of which aortic arch?
140. Arches are derived from which germ layer ?
141. Styloid process is derivative of which branchial arch ?
142. CN IX supplies which muscle?
143. All intrinsic muscles of larynx are derivative of 6th arch except?
144. Thymus is derivative of which pouch?
145. Sup parathyroid derivative of which pouch?
146. Posterior 1/3 of tongue formed by?
147. Name cranial nerves involving in taste sensation?
148. Muscle of tongue are derived from ?
149. Normal remnant of thyroglossal duct?
150. Cleft lip is due to?
151. Midgut returns to abdominal cavity in ---- week?
152. Spleen is ------ in origin?
153.bicorunate uterus result due to

Incomplete fusion of ?
154. Hypospadiasis is due to ----?
155. Epispadiasis is due to----?
156. Diaphragmatic hernia is due to ?
157. Vertebra is derived from?
158. Somites are derived of which mesoderm?
159. Left umbilical vein will regress to ?
160. Gestational age is estimated from?
161. Union of 5th lumbar with 1st sacral is called?
162. Structure of 2ndry villus include?
163. Amputated leg is the result of?
164. Auditory tube is formed by?
165. Thyroid is derived from ?
166. Four chambers of heart are formed by?
167. Strongest layer of small intestine is?
168. Erythropoietin are secreted by ?
169. Which protein maintain red cell shape ?
170. Which is not major basic tissues ?
171. Ovary epithelium is ?
172. Which structure has 3 layers of muscles?
173. PDFG is secreted by which part of platelets?
174. Which cells produce antibodies?
175. Most abundant phagocytes in circulation?
176. Submucosal glands are present in ?
177. Nissle bodies are?
178. Most mucinous acini gland is ?
179. Calcium releases in muscle from ?
180. In Which state maximum HB produces occurs?
181. Average life of Gi epithelium? 2182. Basophilia of cell is due to ?
183. Which cell release extra cellular fibres and amorphous substance ?
184. Neurons in olfactory tract are ?
185. Heparin is released by which cells ?
186. Microtubule are part of ?
187. Micro filament composed of ?
188. ---- capsule covers the liver?
189. Signet ring appearance seen in?
190. Osteoclast are present in?
191. Structural unit of bone?
192. Myelin hai ---- percent of protein?
193. Blood group antigen are ???
194. Hassal corpuscles feature of?
195. Hypertrophied pharyngeal tonsil?
196. Bruner gland are present in submucosa of?
197. Thickest zone of adrenal cortex?
198. Which coat is thickest in large veins?

199. Ovarian follicles are present in?

200. Eosinophils play role in ??
EMBRYOLOGY KEYS
1. Gametes are descendent of?primordial germ cells
2. All primary oocytes are formed in which month of fetal life? 5th month of fetal life
3. Primary oocyte remain dormant in which phase? Prophase I
4. Secondary oocytes is arrested in which phase? Metaphase II
5. Granulosa cells secrete? Estrogen
6. Progesterone stimulates the endometrium of the uterus to enter which phase? Secretory
7. Primordial germ cells derived from? Wall of yolk sac
8. Which cells supply as the stem cell in male throughout reproductive life? Type A
spermatogonia
9. Newly ejavulated sperms are incapable of fertilization until they undergo ? Capacitation
10. Advanced maternal age is risk factor for ? Down syndrome
11. Normally ----- percent of sperms in an ejaculate are grossly deformed? 10%
12. Genetic disorder characterized by hypogonadism and anosmia? Kallmann syndrome
13. Anovulation is often treated with ? Clomiphenec citrate
14. If a girl never begins menstruation the condition is called ? Primary ovarian failure
15. The reaction which occurs when the sperm binds to the zona pellucida of the secondary
oocyte is ? Acrosome reaction
16. Sperm produces ATP from? fructose
17. Blastomeres are totipotent upto which cell stage? 8 cell stage
18. -----refers to a stem cell that can differentiate into ectoderm , mesoderm and endoderm?
Pleuripotency
19. Blastocyst implants which part of uterine wall? Posterior superior wall
20. Trophoblast differentiate into ?? Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotropoblast
21. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy? Ampulla
22. Bilaminar embryonic disk is ? Epiblast and hypo blast
23. The syncytiotropoblast secretes ?? HCG
24. HCG can be assayed on ---- day in maternal urine? 10 day
25. Left/ right axis determination begins with the asymmetric activity of ? Sonic hedgehog
protein
26. Mesoderm further give rise into? Paraxial , intermediate and lateral mesoderm
27. The intermediate mesoderm forms which system? Urogenital system
28. Sclerotic me of somite forms ? Axial cartilage and bone
29. Dura matter is derivative of which germ layer? Mesoderm
30. Adrenal Cortex derivative of which germ cell layer? Mesoderm
31. Chondroma is a tumor arised from remnants of? Notochord
32. Placenta attached to the lower part of uterus covering internal os? Placenta prvia
33. Classic cause of first trimester bleeding ? Ectopic pregnancy
34. Growth hormone of the fetus? Human placental lactogen
35. Hofbauer cells are macrophage like cells found in? Placental membrane
36. In late pregnancy placental membrane is formed by? Syncytiotropoblast and the fetal
capillary endothelium *** ( imp)
37. The near term fetus excrete about ------ of urinue daily? 500mL

38. Potter syndrome lead to which amniotic fluid condition? Oligohyromnios

39. Name the fetal albumin produced by fetal hepatocytes ?? a-fetoprotein
40. Mucus connective tissue of umbelical cord is also called ? Wharton's jelly
41. A light gray shines sac indicates? Omphalocele
42. Vasculogenesis occurs first within extra embryonic visceral mesoderm around yolk sac on
day? 17
43. Hematopoiesis is taken over by liver at which week? Beginning of 5 th week
44. Hemoglobin a2r2 is called ? Fetal hemoglobin
45. Hydroxy urea promotes which hemoglobin?HBF
46. Highly oxygenated blood in fetal circulation is carried by which vessel? Left umbelical vein
47. Ligamentum venosus is the ramnent of ? Ductus venosus
48. Pericardial cavity is formed by which mesoderm? Lateral plate mesoderm
49. Adult structure of bulbus cordis? Smooth part of right and left ventricle
50. Articulopulmonary septum is derivative of? Neural crest cells
51. Abnormal neural crest cell migration such that there is non spiral development f AP septum
lead to? Transposition of great arteries
52. Rib notching on X-ray is feature of ? Postductal coarctation
53. Stapedial artery is derived from which aortic arch? 2nd
54. Adult structure if Vitelline arteries ? Celiac, sup mesenteric and inferior mesenteric
55. Which cardinal vein is not involved in forming IVC ? Anterior cardinal vein
56. Primitive stomach is formed in which week ? 4 week
57. Primitive stomach rotates --%clockwise around its longitudinal axis? 90
58. Which layer of pyloric region hypertrophies in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis ? Mucularis
externa
59. Uncinate process is formed by which bud? Ventral
60. Dubble bubble sign is indicative of? Annular pancreas
61. Midgut derivative are supplied by ? Sup mesenteric artery
62. Physiological umbelical herniation is seen in which week? Beginning of week 6
63. Midgut loops around ----- counterclockwise? 270
64. The urorectal septum fuses with the cloacal membrane at the future site of the anatomical
,???? Perineal body
65. Lower anal canal derived from? Proctoderm
66. Junction between upper and lower anal canal is indicated by ? Pectinate line
67. Ureteric bud is an outgrowth of? mesonephric duct
68. Fetal metanephros is located at vertebral level of? S1-S2
69. Allantois becomes fibrous cord called? Urachnus or median umbelical ligament in adult
70. Most common cause of congenital obstruction of urinary tract ? Ureteropelvic junction
obstruction
71. Most common renal malignancy of childhood? Wilms tumor
72. Nutcracker syndrome occurs when? Left renal vein is compressed between sup mesenteric
artery and abdominal aorta
73. By which week male and female characteristic of the external genitalia can be recognized ?
By week 12
74. Phenotype sexual differentiation is determined by which gene? Sry gene
75. Sry gene encodes for protein called ?testes-determining dactor
76. Vestigial remnants of the mesonephric duct may be found in the adult female called?

Appendix vasuculosa
77. The Phallus forms the ?? Clitoris
78. Urogenital folds forms the? labia minors
79. Testosterone is secreted by which cells? Leydig cells
80. Vestigial remnant of paranesonephric duct is ? Appendix testes
81. The labioscrotal swelling form the? Scrotum
82. Respiratory diverticulum is formed in which week ? 4 week
83. Terminal sac period is the period between? 24-birth
84. Pseudo glandular period is the period? 7-16 weeks
85. The site of the thyroglossal duct is indicated in adult by ? Foramen cecum
86. Ultimobrschail body is derivative of which pouch? 4th
87. Muscle of facial expression derived by? 2 pharyngeal arch
88. No taste bud is present in which part if tongue? Filiform papillae
89. All muscle motor supply is by XII cranial nerve except? Palatoglossus (CN X)
90. Pharyngeal cyst occurs when ----------- persist? Pharyngeal groove2-4
91. Most common site of ectopic thyroid tissue ? Sublingual
92. Cleft palate is which type of genetic disorder ? Multifacrorial
93. Anatomic landmark that distinguishea an anterior cleft palate from posterior cleft palate is?
Incisive foramen
94. Digeorge syndrome occurs due to defect in? 3 and 4 pharyngeal pouches
95. Remnant of notochord is ? Nucleus pulposus
96. Anterior neuro pore closes on? Day 25
97. Posterior neuro pore closes on? Day 27
98. The lumen of neural tube for rise to? Ventricular system
99. Name 3 primary brain vesicles ? Prosen, mesen ad rhombencephalon
100. At birth the conus mudullaris extend to the level of ? L3
101. Myelination of the corticospinal tract is not completed until ? Te end of 2 years
102. Remnants of ratkhe pouch may give rise to a craniophayngioma
103. Arnold chiari malformation occurs when the caudal vermis and tonsils of cerebellum and
medulla herniated through which foramen? Foramen magnum
104. Utricle responds to which acceleration? Linear acceleration
105. Semicircular ducts responds to? Angular acceleration
106. Stapes is derived from which pharyngeal arch ? Pharyngeal arch 2
107. Eye development begins at day? 22
108. The choroid fissure closes during week?? 7 week
109. The extra ocular muscle develops from Mesoderm of which somitomeres? Somitomeres 1,2
and 3
110. Anophthalmia is ? Absence of the eye
111. HPL can be assayed in maternal blood at week? 6
112. Growth hormone of later half of pregnancy? hPL
113. ----used by the fetal testes as a precursor of testosterone synthesis? Progesterone
114. The most potent estrogen is ??? Estradiol
115. Amniocentesis is preferred in which weeks? 14-18 weeks
116. Quickening in a woman first pregnancy in which weeks? 18-20 weeks
117. At week 20 uterine fundus is palpable at the ? Umbilicus
118. Surfactants are produced in which weeks? 25-27

119. Normal baseline fetal heart rate is? 120-160 beats per minute
120. Maximum susceptible period of teratogenicity is? 3-8weeks
121. The most common of CMV fetal infection is ?? Sensineural deafness
122. Teratogenicity of thalidomide is ? Limb defect
123. Fetal hydantoin syndrome is caused by? Phenytoin
124. Aminoglycoside causes which toxicity ? CNVIII
125. Appendages in wrong position is due to mutation in which gene? Hox gene
126. Heart begins to beat in which week? 4 week
127. Absent organ due to absent primordial tissue? Agenesis
128. Incomplete organ development ? Hypoplasia
129. Effect of diethylstilbestrol on fetus? Vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
130. Caudal regression syndrome caused by? Maternal diabetes
131. High risk of spontaneous abortion is side effect of vit a excess
132. Decidua basalis is derived from? Endometrium
133. Obliteration of Vitelline duct is in which week? 7th week
134. Yolk sac erythropoisis is in which weeks ? 3-8 weeks
135. Ductus arteriosus contain which blood? Deoxygenated
136. Meninges and spinal cord herniated through spinal cord defect is called?
Meningeomyelocole
137. Dec separation of hemispheres across Midline leads to? Holoprosencephaly
138. Most common site of syringomyelia ? C8-T1
139. PDA is derivative of which aortic arch? 6 aortic arch
140. Arches are derived from which germ layer ? Mesoderm
141. Styloid process is derivative of which branchial arch ? 2nd
142. CN IX supplies which muscle? Stylopharyngeus
143. All intrinsic muscles of larynx are derivative of 6th arch except? Cricothyroid ( 4th arch)
144. Thymus is derivative of which pouch? 3rd pouch
145. Sup parathyroid derivative of which pouch? 4th ( inf 3rd pouch)
146. Posterior 1/3 of tongue formed by? 3and 4 arch
147. Name cranial nerves involving in taste sensation? CN VII,IX,X
148. Muscle of tongue are derived from ? Occipital myotomes
149. Normal remnant of thyroglossal duct? Foramen cecum
150. Cleft lip is due to? Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal process
151. Midgut returns to abdominal cavity in ---- week? 10th week
152. Spleen is ------ in origin? Mesodermal
153.bicorunate uterus result due to
Incomplete fusion of ? Paramesonephric duct
154. Hypospadiasis is due to ----? Failure d urethral folds to close
155. Epispadiasis is due to----? Faulty positioning of genital tubercle
156. Diaphragmatic hernia is due to ? Absence of pleuro-peritoneal membrane
157. Vertebra is derived from? Sclerotome
158. Somites are derived of which mesoderm? Paraxial mesoderm
159. Left umbilical vein will regress to ? Ligamentum Teres
160. Gestational age is estimated from? Crown rump length at 8 weeks
161. Union of 5th lumbar with 1st sacral is called? Saccaralization
162. Structure of 2ndry villus include? Mesoderm , cytotrophoblast and syncitium

163. Amputated leg is the result of? amniotic bands

164. Auditory tube is formed by? 1st and 2nd endodernal pouch
165. Thyroid is derived from ? Endoderm
166. Four chambers of heart are formed by? Endo cardial cushions
167. Strongest layer of small intestine is? Submucosa
168. Erythropoietin are secreted by ? Peritubular interistitium of kidney
169. Which protein maintain red cell shape ? Spectrin
170. Which is not major basic tissues ? Blood
171. Ovary epithelium is ? Simple cuboidal
172. Which structure has 3 layers of muscles? Stomach
173. PDFG is secreted by which part of platelets? Alpha granules
174. Which cells produce antibodies? Plasma cells
175. Most abundant phagocytes in circulation? Neutrophils
176. Submucosal glands are present in ? Deudonum
177. Nissle bodies are? RER
178. Most mucinous acini gland is ? Sublingual glands
179. Calcium releases in muscle from ? Sarcoplamsmic reticulum
180. In Which state maximum HB produces occurs? Pro erythrocyte
181. Average life of Gi epithelium? 2-7 days
182. Basophilia of cell is due to ? RER
183. Which cell release extra cellular fibres and amorphous substance ? Fibroblast
184. Neurons in olfactory tract are ? Bipolar
185. Heparin is released by which cells ? Mast cells
186. Microtubule are part of ? Centrioles
187. Micro filament composed of ? Actin
188. ---- capsule covers the liver? Glisson
189. Signet ring appearance seen in? Adipocyte
190. Osteoclast are present in? Howships lacunae
191. Structural unit of bone? Haversian system
192. Myelin hai ---- percent of protein? 20%
193. Blood group antigen are ??? Carbohydrate
194. Hassal corpuscles feature of? Thymus
195. Hypertrophied pharyngeal tonsil? Adenoid
196. Bruner gland are present in submucosa of? Deudonum
197. Thickest zone of adrenal cortex? Zona fasciculata
198. Which coat is thickest in large veins? Adventitia
199. Ovarian follicles are present in? Cortex of ovary
200. Eosinophils play role in ?? Parasitic infections
=-=

2.FIRST AID IMMUNOLOGY

1. Outer cortex of lymph node contain which cells?
2. Which area of lymph node is not well developed in digeorge syndrome?
3. Lymph drainage of lateral side of dorsum of foot?
4. Lymph drainage of rectum below pectinate line?

5. T cells are found in which pulp of spleen?

6. Thymus is derived from?
7. MHC gene is located on which chromosome?
8. APC cells expresses which MHC class?
9. Grave disease is associated with why HLA subtype?
10. NK cells uses what for induction of apoptosis?
11. Antibodies are produced by which cells ?
12. Positive selection is done in which part of thymus?
13. Name APCs??
14. Costimulatory signal is given by interaction between?
15. Th1 cells inhibited by?
16. Which portion of IGM and IGg fixes complement?
17. Light chain contributes to which fraction of anticody?
18. Main antibody in secondary response to antigen?
19. Colostrum contain which antibody?
20. IgE mediates immunity against worms by activating ?
21. Mature B lymphocytes express ------ on their surfaces?
22. Most abundant antibody in blood?
23. Antibody with lowest concentration in serum?
24. Classic complement pathway mediated by which antibody?
25. Neutrophil chemotaxis done by which complement?
26. C1 esterase inhibitor def causes which disease?
27. Decay accelerating factor causes which disease?
28. antibody pentamer in serum ??
29. Name the opsonins in bacterial defense?
30. Recurrent Neisseria bacteremia is caused due to def of?
31. Which IL inhibit inflammation?
32. Name the IL that supports growth factor and differentiation of bone marrow stem cells ?
33. IL causes fever and stimulates production of acute phase reactants?
34. Cytokine mediates septic shock ?
35. Name unique marker of NK?
36. All cells have MHC-I except?
37. Receptor for EBV on B cells ?
38. Self reactive T cells become non reactive without Costimulatory molecule ... This
phenomenon is called ??
39. IgA in Breast milk is form of which immunity ?
40. Antibody involved in type 1 HSR?
41. Cytotoxic hypersensitivity is which type of hypersensitivity?
42. In erythroblastosis fetalis which Ig is involved?
43. Hashimoto thyroiditis involves which type of hypersensitivity ?
44. Rheumatic fever is which type of HSR?
45. Anti mitochondrial antibody associated disorder?
46. Mixed connective tissue disease associated with which autoantibody?
47. Drug induced sle associated with hitch antibody?
48. T cell deficiencies produce which infections mostly?
49. In Brutton aggamaglobinemia defect is in which gene?

50. Jobs syndrome increases which immunoglobulin ?

51. Digeorge syndrome is failure to develop?
52. Sinus and lung infections are caused by which Ig deficiency?
53. SCID is due to defective?
54. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome presentation triad is ??
55. Graft from twin or clone is called ?
56. Rejection occurs within minutes of transplantation is called ?
57. Vasculitis of graft vessels with dense interisitial lymphocytic infiltrate is feature of which
type f rejection?
58. Most common infection in transplant recipient ?
59. Target of infliximab is ?
60. Target of transtuzumab is ?
61. Drug used to prevent acute transplant rejection?
62. Serum sickness is which type of hypersensitivity ?
63. In ataxia talengectasia which gene is defective?
64. Contact dermatitis is which HSR?
65. Fibrinoid necrosis is hallmark of which HSR?
66. Live attenuated vaccine mainly induced which response?
67. Half life of passive immunity is ?
68. IL that promotes differentiation of B cells ??
69. IL that activates NK cells?
70. MAC complex is formed by?
71. IgA in circulation is in which form ?
72. Which fragment of antibody determines idiotype?
73. Foreign body is phagocytosed by?
74. MHC II expressed only on?
75. HLA B27 Associated with which disease ?
76. NK activity is enhanced by?
77. Lymph drainage of stomach ?
78. Lymph drainage os scrotum?
79. During extreme cellular immune response which area of lymph node enlarges ?
80. Most common congenital immunoglobulin deficiency?
81. Which transplant has best allograft survival rate ??
82. Most common drug induced lupus?
83. Most common cause of death in SLE?
84. Reservoir of HIV is ?
85. Amyloidosis of which organ is most serious form of organ involvement?
86. Which rest for AIDS is confirmatory?
87. Complement components are synthesized mostly in?
88. Sjogren syndrome is associated with?
89. Initial most sensitive test for SLE?
90. Patient has CRF best donor for this patient is ??
91. Master switch to nucleus for induction of inflammation?
92. IL that stimulates and activates eosinophils ?
93. Methyl dopa alters which antigen on Rbc surface?

94. Amyloid precursor protein is located on which chromosome?

95. Misfolded proteins are normally removed by ?
KEYS
IMMUNOLOGY ANSWERS
1. B cells
2. Paracortex
3. Popliteal
4. Superficial inguinal
5. White pulp
6. 3 rd pharyngeal pouch
7. Chr. 6
8. MHC - II
9. B8
10. Perforins and granzyme
11. Plasma cells
12. Thymic cortex
13. Macrophage, dendritic cell, B cell
14. B7 and CD28
15. IL-10
16. Fc
17. Fab
18. IgG
19. IgA
20. Eosinophils
21. IgM and IgD
22. IgG
23. IgE
24. IgG and IgM
25. C5a
26. Hereditary angoidema
27. PNH
28. IgM
29. C3b and IgG
30. C3-C8 def
31. IL-10
32. IL-3
33. IL-6
34. TNF-alpha
35. CD56
36. Rbc
37. CD21
38. Anergy
39. Passive
40. IgE
41. Type 2

42. ? IgG
43. Typed IV
44. Type II
45. Primary biliary cirrhosis
46. Anti RNP
47. Anti histone
48. Fungal ad viral
49. Tyrosine kisane gene
50. IgE
51. 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches
52. Selective IgA deficiency
53. IL-2 receptor
54. Thrombocytopenia , infections and eczema
55. Syngeneic graft
56. Hyperacute rejection
57. Acute rejection
58. CMV
59. TNF-a
60. Erb-B2
61. Daclizumab
62. Type III
63. ATM gene
64. Type IV
65. TypeIII
66. Humoral
67. 3 weeks
68. IL5
69. IL12
70. C5b-9f
71. Monomer
72. Fab
73. APC
74. APC
75. Psoriasis , ankylosing spondylitis , IBD and Reiter syndrome
76. IL-12, IFN-b, IFN-a
77. Celiac
78. Sup inguinal
79. Paracortex
80. IgA
81. Corneal transplant
82. Procainamide
83. Infections
84. Dendritic cells
85. Kidney
86. Western blot
87. Hepatocyte

88. Rheumatoid arthritis

89. ANA
90. Twin
91. NFkb
92. IL-5
93. Rh antigen
94. Ch.21
95. Proteasomes
=-=-

3.FIRST AID MICROBIOLOGY TEST

1. Bacillus anthracis capsule contain ?
2. Bacteria containing no cell wall?
3. Lofflers media is for ?
4. Name obligate aerobes?
5. Asplenic individuals are susceptible to which organism?
6. IgA protease is secreted by?
7. Endotoxins mode of action ?
8. Rice water diarrhea caused by ?
9. Whooping cough is caused by?
10. Clostridium perfeinges produces which toxin ?
11. Toxic shock syndrome ?? Causative agent
12. Spores is formed in which bacterial growth phase?
13. Bacteria without plasmid termed as ?
14. Organism that is catalase positive and coagulase sensitive ?
15. Which agent causes otitis media in children ?
16. Meningitis in babies caused by?
17. Rusty sputum is associated with?
18. Component of Normal Ali flora?
19. Normal flora that cause dental caries?
20. Bull neck is seen in which infection? Agent?
21. Floppy baby syndrome is seen due to which toxins of?
22. Sulfur granules in sous tract seen in?
23. Prophylactic treatment of Mycobacterium Avium intracellularae is ?
24. Hansen's disease is also called?
25. Prophylaxis in H influenza is give by ?
26. Legionella pneumonia is clinically detected by presence of antigen in ?
27. Blue green pigment os produced by toxins of?
28. Most common se rotor causing hemolytic uremic syndrome?
29. Red currant jelly sputum?
30. Mesenteric adenitis is caused by ?
31. Question marked shaped bacteria?
32. Rose spots in abdomen , fever , headache feature of?
33. Bulls eye rash seen in?
34. Saddle nose and Hutchinson teeth is feature of?

35. Q fever.... Agent?

36. Clue cells , vaginal discharge with fishy smell ?
37. Assay used in diagnosis of rickettsial infection?
38. Palm and sole rash is seen in?
39. Rieter syndrome caused by?
40. Only bacterium having cholesterol?
41. Budding yeast with captain wheel formation ??
42. Spaghetti and meat ball appearance in KOH prep?
43. Septate hyphae branches at acute angles ?
44. Fungal disease most commonly in DKA and leukemic patients ??
45. Rose Gardner disease?
46. Seer diarrhea in AIDS?
47. Toxoplasma gondii... Classic triad?
48. Naelgeria fowleri enters brain via?
49. Kissing bug causes which disease?
50. Treatment of leishmania donovani?
51. Plasmodium malaria cycle of how many hours??
52. Scotch tape test is done for ?
53. Female anopheles causes blockage of lymphatic vessels? Agent...
54. Swiss cheese appearance is seen in?? Causative agent ?
55. River blindness is caused by?
56. Schistosoma hematobium causes which disease of bladde?
57. Pipestem cirrhosis is caused by which agent?
58. Surgeons inject what to kill daughter cell of Hydatid cyst??
59. Macrophage containing amastigotes ? Name te organism ?
60. Chlaongiocarcinona associated with which organism?
61. Drug used against staph aureus?
62. Name beta lactamase inhibitor?
63. Red man syndrome caused by?
64. Drug of choice for meningitis and gonorhea?
65. Imipenem is always administered with ??
66. Main Side effect of aminoglycosides?
67. Tetracycline must not be taken with?
68. Drug of choice for atypical pneumonia?
69. Gray baby syndrome is side effect of?
70. Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial?
71. Only agent used as solo prophylactix againt TB?
72. Hyperurecemia is the side effect of which ATT?
73. Prophylaxis of recurrent UTI?
74. ATT inducing P-450 system ?
75. Soap bubble lesions in brain is seen in ?
76. Oral thrush in immuno compromised patient ???
77. Flask shaped ulcer on histology is seen in infection of ?
78. African sleeping sickness is transmitted by?
79. Chlamydial cell wall lack in?
80. Condylomata lata is seen in which syphillis ?

81. Lyme disease causes by.?

82. Common antecedent of complybactor jejuni?
83. Tumbling motility is characteristic of ?
84. Must autoclave to kill spores by steaming at?
85. Club shape bacteria is ?
86. Tetanospasmin prevent release of ?
87. Which protein of opsonization and phagocytosis ?
88. Lowenstein- Jensen agar medium is for??
89. Silver stain for ??
90. Treatment for Chaga disease ?
91. Exchange of genes between 2 chromosome by crossing over within regions of significance
base sequence homology?
92. All DNA virus are double stranded except?
93. All virus are haploid except?
94. Slapped cheeks syndrome os caused by?
95. Owls eyes inclusion are seen in ?
96. Atypical lymphocytesis is see in?
97. No. 1 cause of fatal doarrhea in children is ?
98. In picorna viruses all are retroviruses except?
99. Yellow fever virus is transmitted by?
100. Largest DNA virus? Pox virus
101. Herpes virus acquire envelope from ?
102. Other viruses in paramyxovirus ?
103. Koplic spots feature of?
104. Negri bodies are characteristic of ?
105. Anti- HBcAg is positive in ??
106. In HIV gp41 shows---- ?
107. Name stages of HIV infection?
108. Bacillary angiomatosis caused by?
109. Ring enhancing lesion in HIV patients ... Agent?
110. Retinitis in HIV .... Agent?
111. Normal flora of skin?
112. Canned food contain which toxin?
113. Reheated rice contain toxins?
114. In cystic fibrosis patient most common cause of pneumonia?
115. Travelers diarrhea... Agent?
116. Nosocomial infection is caused by!?
117. Septic arthritis most common cause ?
118. Vertebral tuberculosis is also called ?
119. UTI most commonly occurs in woman than men because ?
120. 2nd Lessing cause of community acquired UTI ?
121. Mode of transmission of toxoplasmosis gondii?
122. Classic triad of rubella?
123. Sandpaper like rash with sore throat?
124. Vesicular rash begins on trunk spread to face and extremities with lesion of different age ?
125. Painful genital ulcer with inguinal lymphadenopathy?

126. Genital warts organism ?

127. Violin string adhesion of parietal peritonium to liver?
128. Most common cause of nosocomial infection in wound infection ?
129. Water aerosol is risk factor of which pathogen?
130. Pseudomembranous colitis is cussed by!?
131. Cherr red epiglottis in children is seen in ?
132. Whipple disease is caused by?
133. Bilateral Bell's palsy seen in?
134. Amphotericin mechanism?
135. Drug of choice for cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS patient?
136. Drug of choice for invasive aspergillosis?
137. Treatment of trypanosoma 4?
138. Prophylaxis and treatment of influenza A virus?
139. 2nd line drug for CMV retinitis in immuno compromised patient?
140. Interferon toxicity causes ?
141. All protease inhibitor ends in ??
142. Which drug is used for prophylaxis and fetal transmission during pregnancy?
143. Fluroquinolones are contraindicated during pregnancy becoz it causes?
144. Drugs must be phosphorylated by thymidine kinase to be active are?
145. Megaloblastic anemia is side effect of which anti HIV drug?
146. Terbinafine inhibits which fungal enzyme ?
147. Input setting empirical therapy for community acquired pneumonia?
148. HIV Prophylaxis for pneumocystic pneumonia??
149. Red green color blindness is effect of which ATT?
150. Dog or cat bite associated with which pathogen?
151. Top bugs of pelvic inflammatory disease ?
152. 3rd leading cause of UTI?
153. Tell 3 agents in descending order causing meningitis in newborn ?
154. Most common pathogen causing osteomyelitis ?
155. Name viruses causing watery diarrhea?
156. Pseudo appendicitis os caused by which agent?
157. Kaposi sarcoma associated with which herpes virus?
158. In HIV attachment to the host cell is done by?
159. Hepatitis viruses via fecooral root ??
160. Bullet shaped capsid is seen in?
161. Symptoms of mumps?
162. 3 Cs of measle ?
163. Paramyxovirus contain which protein which causes respiratory epithelial involvement ?
164. Picorna virus includes?
165. Post cervical lymphadenopathy associated with?
166. Flesh colored done lesion with central dimple ?
167. All DNA virus replicate in nucleus except?
168. All RNA virus replicate in cytoplasm except?
169. Which anti HIV causes hypercholesterolemia ?
170. Metallic taste is due to which drug?
171. Toxicity of isoniazid is?

172. Floor quinolone damages?

173. In lung abcess which is drug of choice ?
174. Respiratory therapeutic equipment usually which pathogen?
175. Health care provider Is on risk of which infection?
176. Salpingitis is risk factor for ?
177. Strawberry colored mucosa of vagina is caused by?
178. Osteomyelitis ok diabetes and IV drug abusers is caused by which pathogen?
179. Normal flora in vagina is?
180. Acquired prions disease is called as ?
181. Pathogen causing invasive aspergillosis is ?
182. Normal flora of oropharynx?
183. Lab finding is that India ink stain reveals yeast with marrow based budding and large
capsule .... Name pathogen?
184. During latent phase of course of HIV infection? Virus replicates in ?
185. Attachment of HIV virus is by which glycoprotein?
186. Best test to detect active hepatitis A ?
187. In measle Negri bodies are commonly found in which cells pf cerebellum?
188. SARS is caused by which virus?
189. EBV (infectious mononucleosis) infects ?
190. Other names of slapped cheek syndrome?
191. Eosinophilic pneumonia is caused by which nematode?
192. River blindness is treated by?
193. Cerebral malaria is caused by ?
194. Mucor causes which love abscess?
195. Post TB cavities are usually formed by which fungal infection ?
196. Pruritic lesions with central clearing resembling a ring caused by?
197. Which types of chlamydia trachomatis causes lymphgranuloma venerum?
198. Which type of rash starts centrally and spreads outward without involving palms and soles?
199. Plague is caused by ?
200. Most common serotype of E.coli
KEYS
MICROBIOLOGY ANSWERS
1. D glutamate
2. Mycoplasma
3. Clostridium diphtheria
4. Nocardia , pseudomonas, mycobacterium tb, bacillus
5. Strep pneumonae, h.influenza, and N meningitidis
6. Strept.pnemonia , H influenza type B , Neisseria
7. Indices TNF and IL-1
8. Vibrio cholerae
9. Borditella pertusis
10. Alpha toxin ( lecithinase)
11. staph aureus
12. Stationary
13. F-

14. Staph aureus

15. Streptococcus pneumonia
16. Streptococcus agalagtae
17. Streptococcus pnemonia
18. Staph epidermidis
19. Strep. Mutans
20. Diphtheria .. Corynebacterium dihphtheria
21. Clostridium botulinum
22. Actinomycetes israili
23. Azithromycin
24. Leprosy
25. Rifampin
26. Urine
27. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
28. O157:H7
29. Klebsiella
30. Yersinia enterocolotica
31. Leptospira interrogans
32. Salmonella typhi
33. Lyme disease
34. Congenital syphillis
35. Coxiella Burnetti
36. Gardenella vaginalis
37. Latex agglutination
38. Coxachivirus A , rocket mountain spotted fever and syphillis
39. Chlamydia trachomatis
40. Mycoplasma pnemonia
41. Para coccidiodomycosis
42. Tinea versicolor
43. Aspergillus fumigatous
44. Mucor and rhizopus
45. Sporthrix schenckii
46. Cryptosporidium
47. Chorioretinitis, hyrocephalus and intracranial calcification
48. Cribriform plate
49. Chaga disease
50. Sodium stibogluconate
51. 72 hrs
52. Enterobius vermicularis
53. .. Wicherereria bancrofti
54. Neurocysticercosis.... Tania solium
55. Onchocerca volvulus
56. Squamous cell carcinoma of bladder
57. Schistosoma mansoni
58. Ethanol
59. Leishmania donovani

60. Clonirchis sinesis

61. Methicillin , naficillin
62. Clavulanic acid, sulbactum, tazobactum
63. Vancomycin
64. Ceftriaxone
65. Cilaststin
66. Nephrotoxicity , Ototoxiicty, teratogen
67. Milk, antacids and iron containing preparation
68. Macrolides
69. Chloremphinicol
70. Dihydrofolate reductase
71. Isoniazid
72. Pyrizinamide
73. Trimethoprim -sulphametoxaZole
74. Rifampin
75. Cryptococcus neoformans
76. Candida albicans
77. Entamoeba histolytica
78. Tsetse fly
79. Muramic acid
80. Secondary
81. Borellia burgdorfori
82. Guilian bar syndrome
83. Listeria monocytosis
84. 121C for 15
85. Corynebacterium diphtheria
86. Inhibitory neurotransmitter in spinal cord
87. PRotein A
88. M.tuberculosis
89. Legionella and fungi
90. Nifurtimox
91. Recombination
92. parvovirus
93. retrovirus
94. Parvovirus ( B19. Virus )
95. CMV
96. EBV virus
97. Rota virus
98. Rhino viruses
99. Aedes mosquito
100. Pox virus
101. Nuclear membrane?
102. Parainfluenza , RSV and rubeola
103. Measle virus
104. Rabies virus
105. Window period

106. Fusion and entry

107. Flulike, feeling fine , falling Count and final crisis
108. Bartonella henslae
109. Toxoplasmosis gondii
110. CMV
111. Staph. Epidermitidis
112. Clostridium botulinum
113. Reheated rice contain toxins? S. Aureus
114. Pseudomonas
115. Enterotoxigenic E. Coli
116. Staph aureus
117. Nessieria gonorrhea
118. Potts disease
119. Female have short urethra
120. Staphylococcus saorophyticus
121. Cat feces
122. PDA, cataract and deafness
123. Scarlet fever
124. VZV
125. Hemophilus ducreyi
126. HPV 6 and 11
127. Fitz Hugh Curtis syndrome
128. Staph. Aureus
129. Legionella
130. Corynebacterium diphtheria
131. H. Influenza type B
132. Trophyrema whipplii
133. Lyme disease
134. Form membrane pores
135. Fluconazole
136. Caspofungin
137. Malarsoprol
138. Amantadine
139. Foscarnet
140. Neutropenia
141. Navir
142. Zidovudine
143. Cartilage damage
144. Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor
145. Zidovudine
146. Squalene epoxidase
147. Floroquinolones
148. TMP-SMX
149. Ethambutol
150. Pasteurella multocida
151. Chlamydia trachomatis , N.gonorrhea

152. Klebsiella pneumonia

153. Group b streptococcus > E. coli>listeria
154. Staph. Aureus
155. Rota, adeno and Norwalk virus
156. Yersinia enterocolotica
157. HHV-8
158. Gp 120
159. HAV HEV
160. Ranked virus
161. Parotitis , orchitis and aseptic meningitis
162. Coryza, cough and conjunctivitis
163. F protein
164. Polio, echo, rhino, coxackie and HAV
165. EBV
166. Molluscum contagiousum
167. Pox virus
168. influenza and retrovirus
169. Raltegravir
170. Metronidazole
171. Neurotoxicity and hepatotoxicity
172. Cartilage
173. Clindamycin
174. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
175. HBV
176. Ectopic pregnancy
177. Trichomonas vaginalis
178. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
179. Lactobacillus
180. Kuru
181. Aspergillus fumigatous
182. Streptococci virirdians
183. Cryptococcus neoformans
184. Lymph nodes
185. gp120
186. Anti - HAVAb(igM)
187. Purkinjie
188. Corona virus
189. B cells
190. Fifth disease, erythema infectiosum
191. Ascaris lumbricoid
192. Ivermectin
193. Plasmodium falciparum
194. Frontal lobe
195. Aspergillus fumigatous
196.
Dermatophytes

197. L1,L2 and L3

198. Typhus rash
199. Yersinia pestis
200. O157:H7
=--=-

4.FIRST AID REPRODUCTIVE TEST

1.lymph drainage of ovaries??
2. Ovarian vessels are in which ligament?
3. Fallopian tubule epithelium?
4. Ejaculation caused by? Parasympathetic / sympathetic / pudendal
5. FSH is inhibited by?
6. Which cells produces anitmullerian hormone ?
7. Spermatogenesis occurs in ???
8. Testosterone and androstenedione are converted to estrogen in ----- and -------??? By which
enzyme?
9. 5alpha reductase inhibited by which drug?
10. Placenta is source of which type of estrogen?
11. Estrogen receptors are expressed in which part of cell?
12. During menstrual cycle what is responsible for temperature increase?
13. Meiosis II is arrested in which phase until fertilization ??
14. Implantation within wall of uterus occurs which day of fertilization ?
15. HCG detectable in blood after how many days?
16. The best test to confirm menopause?
17. Elevated HCG in pathologic states ??? Name them
18. NO Barr body is feature of ??
19. Most common form of male pseudohermaphroditism?
20. Penis at 12 caused in?
21. Honeycombed uterus seen in ?
22. Mortality in eclampsia is due to?? Name 2 causes
23. Paninful bleeding in 3rd trimester?
24. Oligohydromnios can lead to which syndrome?
25. HPV 18--- E7 gene product inhibits which gene?
26. Koilocytes seen in ???
27. Chocolate cysts ?? Treatment?
28. Most common gynecological malignancy?
29. Most common of all tumors In females?
30. Worst prognostic gynecological carcinoma???
31. PCOD clinically manifests by??
32. Most common ovarian mass in young female?
33. Stroma ovarrii contains ????
34. Schiller duval bodies seen in?
35. Call-Exner bodies seen in?
36. Spindle shaped tumors that are Desmin positive???
37. Yolk sac tumor marker??

38. Krukenberg tumor??

39. Leaf like projections are seen in which breast tumor?
40. Single most important prognostic factor or Breast cancer?
41. Most common cause of acute mastitis ??
42. Most common cause of breast lump? In female age >25?
43. BPH involve which lobe?
44. What is the increased risk of cryptocordisim?
45. Fried egg appearances seen in?
46. Bent penid due to acquired fibrous tissue formation ?? Disease?
47.drug used to treat male pattern baldness?
48. Drug used in premature uterine contractions?
49. Drug used for breast cancer as well as to treat osteoporosis ?
50. Malignant painful worst prognosis testicular germ cell tumor?
51. Prostatic adenocarcinoma involves which lobe?
52. Comedocarcinoma has which necrosis ??
53. Classic stellate morphology shows which Brest carcinoma?
54. Meigs syndrome? Triad??
55. Diethyesterbestrol used in pregnancy leads to???
56. Ovarian cancer marker?
57. Dysgerminoma associated with which syndrome?
58. Ovarian dermoid cyst may contain??
59. Treatment of endometriosis?
60.Painless bleeding in any trimester?
61.5alpha reductase is which type of disorder?? Aut dominant/ Aut recessive/ x linked dominant
/ x linked recessive?
62. Meiosis I is arrested in which phase until Ovulation?
63. Blood from ruprtured follicle cases peritoneal irritation that can mimic appendicitis called??
64. Most common site of fertilization in Fallopian tube?
65. Luteal day is usually if how many days??
66. Spermatogenesis begin at puberty with ???
67. Broad ligament contains??
68. Ligament of ovary lies ---- to uterus?? Lateral / medial/ front /back
69. Ovary epithelium??
70. LH surge causes???
KEYS
1.lymph drainage of ovaries?? Para aortic lymph nodes
2. Ovarian vessels are in which ligament? Suspensory ligament of ovaries
3. Fallopian tubule epithelium?simple ciliates columnar epithelium
4. Ejaculation caused by?Parasympathetic / sympathetic / pudendal ??? Ans= pudendal
5. FSH is inhibited by? Inhibin
6. Which cells produces anitmullerian hormone ?sertioli cells
7. Spermatogenesis occurs in ???Seminiferous tubules
8. Testosterone and androstenedione are converted to estrogen in ----- and -------??? Adipose
tissue and sertoli cells
9. 5alpha reductase inhibited by which drug? Finesteride

10. Placenta is source of which type of estrogen? Estriol

11. Estrogen receptors are expressed in which part of cell?cytoplasm
12. During menstrual cycle what is responsible for temperature increase? Progesterone
13. Meiosis II is arrested in which phase until fertilization ??Metaphase
14. Implantation within wall of uterus occurs which day of fertilization ? 6th day
15. HCG detectable in blood after how many days? 1 week
16. The best test to confirm menopause? Inc FSH
17. Elevated HCG in pathologic states ??? Name them..Hyaditoform mole, choriocarcinoma,
gestational trophoblastic tumors
18. NO Barr body is feature of ?? Turner syndrome
19. Most common form of male pseudohermaphroditism? Androgen insensitivity syndrome
20. Penis at 12 caused in? 5 alpha reductase def
21. Honeycombed uterus seen in ?hyaditoform mole
22. Mortality in eclampsia is due to?? Name 2 causes ??cerebral hemorrhage and ARDS
23. Paninful bleeding in 3rd trimester?abruptio placenta
24. Oligohydromnios can lead to which syndrome? Potter syndrome
25. HPV 18--- E7 gene product inhibits which gene? Rb suppressor gene
26. Koilocytes seen in ???invasive cervical carcinoma
27. Chocolate cysts ?? Treatment?endometriosis ... Danazole
28. Most common gynecological malignancy? Endometrial carcinoma
29. Most common of all tumors In females?Leiomyoma( fibroids
30. Worst prognostic gynecological carcinoma??? Ovarian carcinoma
31. PCOD clinically manifests by?? Amenorrhea, infertility , obesity
32. Most common ovarian mass in young female? Follicular cyst
33. Stroma ovarrii contains ???? Functional thyroid tissue
34. Schiller duval bodies seen in? Yolk sac timor(endo dermal sinus )
35. Call-Exner bodies seen in? Granulosa cell tumor
36. Spindle shaped tumors that are Desmin positive??? Sarcoma botryoides
37. Yolk sac tumor marker?? AFP
38. Krukenberg tumor??GI malignancy that metastasize to ovaries
39. Leaf like projections are seen in which breast tumor?phyllodes tumor
40. Single most important prognostic factor or Breast cancer? Axillary lymph node involvement
41. Most common cause of acute mastitis ??staph aureus
42. Most common cause of breast lump? In female age >25?fibrocystic disease
43. BPH involve which lobe?periurethral lobe ( lat and mid lobe)
44. What is the increased risk of cryptocordisim?prematurity
45. Fried egg appearances seen in?seminoma
46. Bent penid due to acquired fibrous tissue formation ?? Disease?Peyronie disease
47.drug used to treat male pattern baldness?finasteride
48. Drug used in premature uterine contractions? Ritodrine and terbutaline
49. Drug used for breast cancer as well as to treat osteoporosis ?raloxifene
50. Malignant painful worst prognosis testicular germ cell tumor?seminoma
51. Prostatic adenocarcinoma involves which lobe?post lobe( peripheral zone)
52. Comedocarcinoma has which necrosis ??Caseous necrosis
53. Classic stellate morphology shows which Brest carcinoma?invasive ductal
54. Meigs syndrome? Triad??Ovarian fibroma, ascites and hydrothorax

55. Diethyesterbestrol used in pregnancy leads to??? Clear cell carcinoma

56. Ovarian cancer marker? CA 125
57. Dysgerminoma associated with which syndrome? Turner syndrome
58. Ovarian dermoid cyst may contain?? Fat , hair , teeth , bone and cartilage
59. Treatment of endometriosis? Danazol
60.Painless bleeding in any trimester? Placenta prvia
61.5alpha reductase is which type of disorder?? Aut dominant/ Aut recessive/ x linked dominant
/ x linked recessive? Ans= Aut recessive
62. Meiosis I is arrested in which phase until Ovulation? Prophase
63. Blood from ruprtured follicle cases peritoneal irritation that can mimic appendicitis
called??Mittleshmerz
64. Most common site of fertilization in Fallopian tube? Ampulla
65. Luteal day is usually if how many days?? 4 days
66. Spermatogenesis begin at puberty with ??? Spermatogonia
67. Broad ligament contains?? Ovaries , Fallopian tube and round ligament of uterus
68. Ligament of ovary lies ---- to uterus?? Lateral / medial/ front /back?? Ans=Lateral
69. Ovary epithelium?? Simple cuboidal
70. LH surge causes??? Ovulation
=-=

FIRST AID GASTROENTEROLOGY TEST

1. Splenic artery and vein is in? Gastrosplenic ligament/ splenorenal/ gastrohepatic
2. Portal triad?
3. Strongest layer of deudonum? Mucosa/ submucosa/serosa
4. Bruner glands feature of?? Stomach/deudonum/ ilium
5. Arterial supply of GI arises from ---of aorta? Anterior/ posterior/ lateral
6. Parasympathetic supply of hindgut?
7. Watershed area in GI tract?
8. Branches of celiac trunk?
9. Rectal venous anastomoses???
10. Below pectinate line painful somatic stimulation is by which nerve? Sup rectal/ inf rectal/
pudendal/ middle rectal
11. Which hepatic zone is sensitive to toxic injury? I / II/ III
12. Which is not content of femoral sheath? Femoral vein/ artery /nerve
13. Most common hernia in women ? Direct inguinal/ inguinal diaphragmatic / femoral
14. Which hernia covers all 3 layers of spermatozoa fascia ? Indirect / direct inguinal/ femoral
15. Name the potent stimulators of gastrin?
16. Hormone secrete Hco3 but not pancreatic enzyme?? CCK/secretin/ somatostatin
17. Motilium action produces which movements??
18. Source of intrinsic factor??? Chief cell/ parietel cell/ mucosal cell
19. Enzyme secreted by deudonum mucosa? Protease/ enterokinase/ amylase
20. Fructose is taken up by ?? Simple diffusion / facilitated diffusion/ counter transport?
21. Name to factors absorbed in terminal ilium??
22. Intra gut antibody??? IGg / igA / IGM / igE
23. Bilirubin is the product of ????

24. Most common tumor of salivary gland? Pleomorphic adenoma/ werthin tumor
25. Bird beak appearance is seen in!? Gerd/ achalasia
26. Plummer Vinson syndrome? Triad
27. Painless bleeding of submucosal vein in Lower 1/3 of esophagus ?cancer/ varices
28. Progressive dysohagia feature of??
29. Whipple disease causative agent??
30. Osmotic diarrhea is seen in? Celiac sprue/tropical sprue/Whipple disease/ lactase deficiency
31. Fat soluble vitamin ?
32. Celiac sprue associated with which disease?
33. Ulcers resulted due to burn injury?
34. Ulcer due to hypertension??
35. Stomach cancer associated with which blood group?? A/B/O
36. Pain increase with meal? Deudonunal/ gastric
37. Ulcerative colitis involve which part of GI tract ?
38. String sign feature of ? Crohn/ ulcerative colitis
39. Differentials of appendicitis?
40. Left sided appendicitis is named to??
41. Most common site of diverticulum is ?? Ilium/ jejunum/ rectum/ sigmoid
42. Most common congenital anomaly of Gi tract?
43. Hirschsprung disease associated with which syndrome?? Turner/ down / klinefelter / patau
44. Sawtooth appearance in Colon?
45. Double bubble sign? Adhesion/ meconium ileus/deudonal atresia?
46. Familial adenomatous polyposis---- name the gene?
47. most common site of carcinoid tumor??
48. Pregnant lady jaundice. Important marker? ALP/AST/GGT/ALT
49. Which drug cause reye syndrome in children ? Acetaminophen / aspirin/ burfen/ ampicillin
50. Mallory bodies seen in ? Hepc/ hepB/ autoimmune / alcoholic hepatitis
51. CEA Tumor marker of?
52. Net mug liver caused by ? RHF/LHF
53. Black liver associated with? Gilbert syn/ dubin Johnson syn/ rotor syn/ criglar najjar syn
54. In Wilson disease , cu deposits in which later of cornea?
55. Hemochromatosis associated with? HLA A3/HLA A4/HLA A5
56. Charcot triad ?
57. Migratory thrombophlebitis feature of? Ac pancreatitis/ chr pancreatitis/ pancreatic
adenocarcinoma
58. Marker of pancreatic carcinoma??
59. Treatment of carcinoid syndrome?
60. Magnesium hydroxide causes? Diarrhea/ constipation / seizures
61. Falciform ligament is derivative of ?
62. Superior mesenteric artery is at which vertebral level?
63. Which type of carcinoma is seen above pectinate line? Adenocarcinoma / squamous cell
carcinoma
64. Which zone of liver contains P-450 system?
65. Gastrin inc acid secretion primarily through its effects on???
66. The only GI submucosa glands is?
67. Direct bilirubin is conjugated with ??

68. Most common malignant tumor of salivary gland ??

69. Feeling of having a lump in ones throat without clinical or radiographic evidence is called???
70. Achalasia is due to loss of ?
71. Esophageal strictures associated with???
72. Barrets esophagus is replacement of which epithelium?
73. Telescoping of 1 bowel segment into distal segment is called ?
74. Most common site of volvulus is ?
75. Angiodysplasia is confirmed by?
76. Dense core bodies seen in which tumor?
77. Cavernous hemangioma is tumor of which body organ?
78. In cavernous hemangioma why biopsy is contraindicated?
79. Budd chiari syndrome is due to occlusion of?
80. Cirrhosis with PAS-positive globules in liver?
81. Unknown cause of concentric onion skin bile duct fibrosis ? Diagnosis?
82. Obstructive jaundice with palpable gall bladder?
83. Why are payers patches important in the immune response?
84. Name 4 major risk factors for stomach cancer ?
85. What surgical complication can lead to bowel obstruction?
86. What is the cause of bronze diabetes?
87. Name two intrahepatic cause of biliary obstruction?
88. What enzymes are elevated in acute pancreatitis?
89. What drug combination is oftenly used as triple therapy for H.pylori eradication?
90. What drug used to treat gastroparesis?
KEYS
1. splenorenal
2. hepatic artery, portal vein, cbd
3. Strongest layer submucosa
4. deudonum
5. Anterior
6. Pelvic
7. Splenic flexure
8. Common hepatic, splenic , left gastric
9. Sup rectal and inferior rectal
10. Inf rectal/
11. III
12. Nerve
13. Femoral
14. Indirect inguinal
15. Phenylalanine and tryptophan
16. Secretin
17. Migratory motor complex
18. Parietal cell
19. Enterokinase
20. Facilitated diffusion
21. B12 and bile salts

22. IgA
23. Heme metabolism
24. Pleomorphic adenoma
25. Achalasia
26. Triad Dysphagia , glossitis iron defiecincy anemia
27. Varices
28. Esophegeal cancer
29. Torphyrema whippelii
30. lactase deficiency
31. ADEK
32. Dermatitis herpetiformans
33. Curling
34. Cushing
35. A
36. Gastric
37. Colon
38. Crohn
39. Diverticulitis,ectopic pregnancy
40. Diverticulitis
41. Sigmoid
42. Meckels diverticulum
43. Down
44. Colonic polyps
45. Deudonal atresia
46. APC
47. APpendix
48. GGT
49. Aspirin
50. Alcoholic hepatitis
51. Colorectal ca
52. RHF
53. Dubin Johnson syn
54. Descement membrane
55. HLA A3
56. Jaundice, fever , RUQ pain
57. Pancreatic adenocarcinoma
58. CA 19/9
59. Octreotide
60. Diarrhea
61. Fetal umbelical vein
62. L1
63. Adenocarcinoma
64. Zone III
65. Enterochromaffin like cells
66. Burnners gland
67. Glucuronic acid

68. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

69. Globus sensation
70. Myenteric plexus
71. Lye ingestion and acid reflux
72. Stratified squamous with columnar epithelium
73. Intussusception
74. Sigmoid colon
75. Angiography
76. Carcinoid tumor
77. Liver
78. Due to risk of hemorrhage
79. IVC or heptic veins
80. a1-anti trypsin deficiency
81. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
82. Courvoisier's sign
83. They produce IgA antibodies that combat intramural antigens
84. Smokes food, achlorhydria, chronic gastritis and type A blood group
85. Adhesion
86. Deposition of hemosedrin in the skin
87. Primary biliary cirhosis and primary sclerosing cholangitis
88. Amylase and lipase
89. Metronidazole , amoxicillin and PPI
90. Metoclopromide
=-=-

FIRST AID ENDOCRINOLOGY TEST

=-=-

FIRST AID ENDOCRINOLOGY TEST

1.adernal Cortex derived from
2. Fetal adrenal gland consist of which zones
3. Islet of lingerhans most common in which area of pancreas
4. Rathke pouch -- ectodermal /endoderm
5. Brains use ------- in starvation
6. TRH stimulate ??? Name 2

7. Right adrenal vein drain in----??

8. Which is present in brain?? Glut 1/2/4
9. Insulin cross placenta??? T/F
10. Dopamine---- practin??? Stimulate/ inhibit
11. Growth hormone stimulated by??? Name 3
12. Which zone of adrenal gland is source of cortisol ???
13. What will increase in 21 hydroxylase deficiency???
Mineralocorticoids/ cortisol / sex hormones???
14. PTH initially increase activity of ?? Osteoblast/ osteoclast
15. Vit D def causes ----- in adults and----- in children??
16. Calcitonin is secreted by????
17. Signaling pathway of insulin???
18. Thyroid binding capacity I'm pregnancy?? Increase or decrease
19. Propylthiouracil inhibit -----and------?
20. Primary cause of Cushing syndrome??
21. Cushing disease ??? Inc ACTH / dec ACTH
22. Carcinoid tumor derived from?
23. Common sites for zollinger Ellison syndrome
24.DKA most important complication of ?
25. HLA associated with? Type 1 / type 2 DM
26. Cataract cause in DM???
27. Marker of carconoid syndrome?
28. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus causes??
29. Treatment of SIADH??
30. Name two signs seen in hypocalcemia?
31. Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism???
32. Hashimoto throiditis associated with which malignancy??
33. Orphan Annie nuclei seen in???
34. Name thyroiditis with
granulomatos inflammation?
35. Pheochoemocytoma ??? VMA /HVA
36. Inc TSH, dec T4, dec freeT4, Dec T3uptake ?? Diagnosis
37. Acute 1 adrenal insufficiency due to adrenal hemorrhage
associated with which microb?
38. No skin pigmentation seen in ? Primary adrenal insufficieny /
secondary insufficiency ?
39. Symptoms of pheochrmomoctyoma occurs In? Spells /
continuous???
40. Which os teratogenic ? Merhomazole /porpylthioiuracil...
41. ------ containing hormone control body metabolic rate?? Iron, cu ,

iodine , calcium
42. HIGH plasma renin associated with??? Prim hyperaldosteronism/
sec hyperaldosteronism
43. Calcitonin? Dec calcium level / inc calcium level???
44. Glucagon made by --cell of pancreas??
45. Rbcs depend only on glucose ??? True/ false?
46. Post pituitary secretes???
47. Medulla originated from???
48. Carcinoid causes ?? Rt sided valvular disease/ left sides valvular
disease ???
49. Wermer syndrome triad???
50. Post partum bleeding leads to which syndrome ??
51. ....... Presents as an anterior midline neck mass that moves with
swallowing or protrusion of the tongue ?
52. Most common ectopic thyroid tissue site is?
53. Most common tumor of adrenal medulla in adults which causes
episodic hypertension?
54. Posterior pituitary derived from and secretes?
55. Spermatocyte contains which insulin transporters?
56. Prolactin is secreted by?
57. Prolactin is tonically inhibited by?
58. Anti diuretic hormone is synthesized in which nucleus of
hypothalamus?
59. Treatment of central diabetes insipidus?
60. Exogenous corticosteroids can cause reactivation of TB and
candidiasis by blocking which chemokine?
61. Prolonged secretin of cortisol is due to??
62. Source of PTH?
63. Which enzyme stimulate kidney for production of calcitriol?
64. Clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia??
65. Thyroid hormones increases Basal metabolic rate via???
KEYS
1.adernal Cortex derived from? mesoderm
2. Fetal adrenal gland consist of which zones? Outer adult zone and
inner active fetal zone
3. Islet of lingerhans most common in which area of pancreas??tail
4. Rathke pouch -- ectoderma l
5. Brains use ------- in starvation??ketone bodies
6. TRH stimulate ??? Name 2--Tsh, prolactin
7. Right adrenal vein drain in----?? Inferior Vena Cava

8. Which is present in brain?? Glut 1

9. Insulin cross placenta??? F
10. Dopamine---- practin??? inhibit
11. Growth hormone stimulated by??? Name 3 Hypoglycemia ,
exercise, sleep
12. Which zone of adrenal gland is source of cortisol ??? Fasciculata
13. What will increase in 21 hydroxylase deficiency??? sex hormones
14. PTH initially increase activity of ?? Osteoblasts
15. Vit D def causes ----- in adults and----- in children?? Osteomalacia
and rickets
16. Calcitonin is secreted by???? Para follicular cell of thyroid (C
cells)
17. Signaling pathway of insulin??? Intrinsic Tyrosine kinase
18. Thyroid binding capacity I'm pregnancy?? Increase
19. Propylthiouracil inhibit -----and------? peroxidase---and5'deiodinase----20. Primary cause of Cushing syndrome?? Exogenous steroids
21. Cushing disease ??? Inc ACTH
22. Carcinoid tumor derived from? Neuro endocrine cell of GI
23. Common sites for zollinger Ellison syndrome?? Pancreas and
deudonum
24.DKA most important complication of ? Type 1
25. HLA associated with? Type 1
26. Cataract cause in DM??? Sorbitol accumulation
27. Marker of carconoid syndrome? 5HIAA
28. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus...causes?? LITHIUM,
demeclocycline
29. Treatment of SIADH?? Demeclocycline and restrict water
30. Name two signs seen in hypocalcemia? Chvostek, trousseaus
sign
31. Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism???
Adenoma
32. Hashimoto throiditis associated with which malignancy?? B cell
lymphoma
33. Orphan Annie nuclei seen in??? Papillary carcinoma
34. Name thyroiditis with
granulomatos inflammation? de quarin ( subacute thyroiditis )
35. Pheochoemocytoma ??? VMA
36. Inc TSH, dec T4, dec freeT4, Dec T3uptake ?? Diagnosis
hypothroidism

37. Acute 1 adrenal insufficiency due to adrenal hemorrhage

associated with which microb? Neisseria meningitidis
38. No skin pigmentation seen in ? secondary insufficiency
39. Symptoms of pheochrmomoctyoma occurs In? Spells
40. Which os teratogenic ? Merhomazole
41. ------ containing hormone control body metabolic rate?? iodine
42. HIGH plasma renin associated with??? sec hyperaldosteronism
43. Calcitonin? Dec calcium leve l
44. Glucagon made by --cell of pancreas?? Alpha cells
45. Rbcs depend only on glucose ??? True
46. Post pituitary secretes??? ADH and oxytocin
47. Medulla originated from??? Neural crest cells
48. Carcinoid causes ?? Rt sided valvular disease
49. Wermer syndrome triad??? Parathyroid tumor, pituitary tumor,
pancreatic endocrine tumor
50. Post partum bleeding leads to which syndrome ?? Sheehan
syndrome
51. ....... Presents as an anterior midline neck mass that moves with
swallowing or protrusion of the tongue ? Thyroglossal duct cyst
52. Most common ectopic thyroid tissue site is? Tongue
53. Most common tumor of adrenal medulla in adults which causes
episodic hypertension? Pheochromocytoma
54. Posterior pituitary derived from and secretes? derived from neuro
ectoderm and secretes ADH and oxytocin
55. Spermatocyte contains which insulin transporters? Glut-5
56. Prolactin is secreted by? Anterior pituitary
57. Prolactin is tonically inhibited by? Dopamine
58. Anti diuretic hormone is synthesized in which nucleus of
hypothalamus? Supra optic nucleus
59. Treatment of central diabetes insipidus? Desmopressin
60. Exogenous corticosteroids can cause reactivation of TB and
candidiasis by blocking which chemokine? IL-2 production
61. Prolonged secretin of cortisol is due to?? Chronic stress
62. Source of PTH? Chief cells of parathyroid
63. Which enzyme stimulate kidney for production of calcitriol?
1alpha- hydroxylase
64. Clinical manifestation of hypocalcemia?? Cramps, pain,
parenthesis , carpopedal spasm
65. Thyroid hormones increase Basal metabolic rate via??? Na/K Atpase pump

=-=-=-

FIRST AID CARDIOVASCULAR TEST

1. Coronary artery occlusion most commonly occurs in?
2. Cardiac output =??
3. Stroke Volume affected by?? Name three parameters
4. Most posterior part of heart?
5. Vasodilators decrease?? Preload/after load
6. EF is the index of?
7. Viscosity depends mostly on??
8. Fixed splitting is seen in?
9. S4 is in? Mid diastole/ late/ early
10. Period of highest oxygen consumption?
11. Isovolumetric relaxation?
12. Expiration inc intensity of which side of heart sounds? Left/right
13. Murmur of Mitral stenosis is best heard in which area?
14. Myxomatoys degeneration causes which valvular lesion?
15. Cardiac muscle action potential has plateau due to ??
16. Rapid depolarization caused by?
17. Pacemaker action potential occurs in??
18. QRS complex shows??
19. AV nodal delay is useful because??
20. Lyme disease causes which heart block?
21. Sawtooth appearance??
22. Cushing triad??
23. Aortic arch responds??? And transmits via???
24. Highest blood flow per gran of tissue???
25. Pulmonary vascular hypoxia cause?
26. Autoregulation In brain caused by?
27. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure good approximation of which pressure?
28. Boot shape heart?
29. Preductal coarctation of aorta associated with which congenital syn?
30. Drug to close PDA?
31. Infant of diabetic mother --- > congenital defect??
32. Hyperplasia onion skinning seen in??
33. Most common site of atherosclerosis ??
34. Thoracic aortic aneurysm associated with?
35. Common cause of sudden death first few hours after MI?
36. Marker for reinfarction?
37. V1-V2 ----> infarction location?
38. Autoimmune pericarditis after MI?
39. Sudden death in young athlete?
40. Gold standard in first 6 hours of MI?
41. Etiology of dialated cardiomyopathy?
42. Isolated right heart failure is due to???
43. Heart failure cells ? LHF/RHF

44. IV drug abusers endocarditis valves involved?

45. Colon cancer having IE?? Organism
46. In rheumatic fever early death die to??
47. RF which type of hypersensitivity ?
48. Atrial myxoma involves which site of heart?
49.early lesion in rheumatic fever ??
50. Most frequent primary cardiac tumor on children?
51. Eosinophilia is seen in which vasculitis?
52. Pulseless disease?
53. Vasculitis associated with heavy smokers?
54. Angiosarcoma associated with?
55. Benign painful , red blue tumor under finger Nails?
56. Vitamin causing hyperglycemia ?
57. Torsa de pointes caused by drug??? Name 2
58. Adenosine action time?
59. Name 2 important function of digoxin?
60. Which drugs decrease effect of bad cholesrterol ??
61. Dysphagia is caused by enlargement of which part of heart ?
62. In JVP a wave shows?
63. Carotid body responds to dec Po2 at which level ?
64. Risk of ventricular rupture on which day of post MI??? 2 / 3-7/ 10/ 14
65. In rheumatic fever antibodies are formed against which protein??
66. Patient having prosthetic valve having IE ? Agent?
67. Cardiac cirrhosis caused by?? RHF/LHF
68. Tree bark appearance ??
69. Most common heart tumors??
70. Print metal angina?? St elevation / depression
71. Dirotic notch in aortic pressure curve coincides with which heart sound?
72. Structure with richest blood supplyee?
73. Artificial pacemaker is connected to which part of heart?
74. Aj J point of ECG what happens??
75. Principal source of energy to heart in healthy individual is ???
76. Myocardial infarction that damages the anterior interventricular septum and the apex ..
Which artery is occluded?
77. Which parameter does the viscosity depends upon??
78. During physical examination what diagnostic sign might be observed in the neck of a patient
with right heart failure?
79. What is meant by pulses parvus tardus?
80. Which murmur is often cause by age related calcification?
81. What are the most dangerous sequelae or torsa de pointes?
82. Patient with wolf parkinson white syndrome have higher risk of which type of arrhythmia?
83. An ECG shows no identifiable waves. What is the most likely diagnosis?
84. How does neonates with tricuspid atresia remain viable given with severely compromised
circulation?
85. Six days after having myocardial infarction a patient presents with a new onset murmur ,
which type of murmur is this most likely?

86. Quinine causes symptoms of headache and tinnitus , which collectively called ?
87. Adverse effect of diazoxide?
88. Name the potentially fatal adverse effect of ibutilide?
89. Which ion is infused to treat torsades de pointed and digoxin toxicity?
90. Name three toxocities of antiarrhythmatic drug adenosine?
KEYS
1. Coronary artery occlusion most commonly occurs in? LAD
2. Cardiac output =??HR*CO
3. Stroke Volume affected by?? Name three parameters...Contractility, preload, afterload
4. Most posterior part of heart? Left atrium
5. Vasodilators decrease?? Preload/after load?? Ans= afterload
6. EF is the index of? Ventricular contractility
7. Viscosity depends mostly on?? Hematocrit
8. Fixed splitting is seen in? ASD
9. S4 is in? Mid diastole/ late/ early?? Ans= late
10. Period of highest oxygen consumption? isovolumetric contraction
11. Isovolumetric relaxation? Period between aortic valve closing and opening of mitral valve
12. Expiration inc intensity of which side of heart sounds? Left/right??ans=left
13. Murmur of Mitral stenosis is best heard in which area? Mitral area
14. Myxomatoys degeneration causes which valvular lesion? MVP
15. Cardiac muscle action potential has plateau due to ?? Ca influx
16. Rapid repolarization caused by? Massive K efflux
17. Pacemaker action potential occurs in?? SA AV node
18. QRS complex shows?? Ventricular depolarization
19. AV nodal delay is useful because?? Allows time for ventricular filling
20. Lyme disease causes which heart block? 3rd degree
21. Sawtooth appearance?? Atrial flutter
22. Cushing triad?? Hypertension, bradycardia and respiratory depression
23. Aortic arch responds??? And transmits via??? Inc Bp only -- vagus nerve
24. Highest blood flow per gran of tissue??? Kidney
25. Pulmonary vascular hypoxia cause? Vasoconstriction
26. Autoregulation In brain caused by? Co2(ph)
27. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure good approximation of which pressure? Left atrial
pressure
28. Boot shape heart? TOF
29. Preductal coarctation of aorta associated with which congenital syn? Turner syndrome
30. Drug to close PDA? Indomethacin
31. Infant of diabetic mother --- > congenital defect?? transposition of great vessels
32. Hyperplasia onion skinning seen in?? Malignant hypertension
33. Most common site of atherosclerosis ?? Abdominal aorta
34. Thoracic aortic aneurysm associated with? Hypertension
35. Common cause of sudden death first few hours after MI? Arrhythmia
36. Marker for reinfarction? Ck-MB
37. V1-V2 ----> infarction location? Anterioseptal
38. Autoimmune pericarditis after MI? Dressler syndrome

39. Sudden death in young athlete? HOCM

40. Gold standard in first 6 hours of MI? ECG
41. Etiology of dialated cardiomyopathy? Alcohol abuse, beriberi, cocaine use, Chaga disease,
doxuebecin, hemochromatosis
42. Isolated right heart failure is due to??? Cor pulmonale
43. Heart failure cells ? LHF/RHF?? Ans=LHF
44. IV drug abusers endocarditis valves involved? Tricuspid
45. Colon cancer having IE?? Organism?? Strep bovis
46. In rheumatic fever early death die to?? Myocarditis
47. RF which type of hypersensitivity ? Type 2
48. Atrial myxoma involves which site of heart? Left atrium
49.early lesion in rheumatic fever ?? MVP
50. Most frequent primary cardiac tumor on children? Rhabdomyosarcoma
51. Eosinophilia is seen in which vasculitis? Churg Strauss syndrome
52. Pulseless disease? Takayasu arteritis
53. Vasculitis associated with heavy smokers? Buergers disease ( thromboangitis obliterans )
54. Angiosarcoma associated with? chloride, thorium dioxide and arsenic
55. Benign painful , red blue tumor under finger Nails? Glomus tumor
56. Vitamin causing hyperglycemia ? Niacin
57. Torsa de pointes caused by drug??? Name 2 ?quinidine, sotalol and ibutilide
58. Adenosine action time? 15 secs
59. Name 2 important function of digoxin? Inhibition NaK atpase and vagus nerve stimulation
60. Which drugs decrease effect of bad cholesrterol ?? Statins
61. Dysphagia is caused by enlargement of which part of heart? left atrium
62. In JVP a wave shows? Atrial contraction
63. Carotid body responds to dec Po2 at which level ? <60 mmhg
64. Risk of ventricular rupture on which day of post MI??? 2 / 3-7/ 10/ 14??ans= 3-7 (in goljan )
5-10 days in ( first aid)
65. In rheumatic fever antibodies are formed against which protein?? M protein
66. Patient having prosthetic valve having IE ? Agent? Strep epidermidis
67. Cardiac cirrhosis caused by?? RHF/LHF?? Ans= RHF
68. Tree bark appearance ?? Syphilitic heart disease
69. Most common heart tumors?? Metastases
70. Print metal angina?? St elevation / depression?? Ans= St elevation
71. Dirotic notch in aortic pressure curve coincides with which heart sound? S2 heart sound
(second)
72. Structure with richest blood supply?? Carotid body
73. Artificial pacemaker is connected to which part of heart? Right ventricle
74. Aj J point of ECG what happens?? All part of ventricles are depolarized.
75. Principal source of energy to heart in healthy individual is ??? Free fatty acids
76. Myocardial infarction that damages the anterior interventricular septum and the apex ..
Which artery is occluded? Left anterior decending artery
77. Which parameter does the viscosity depends upon?? Hematocrit
78. During physical examination what diagnostic sign might be observed in the neck of a patient
with right heart failure? Elevated jugular venous pressure
79. What is meant by pulses parvus tardus? Pulses are weak, and the strongest part of the

peripheral pulse occurs late after the S1 is heard;

this is because it takes a long time for blood to cross the stenotic aortic valve to fill the vessels.
80. Which murmur is often cause by age related calcification? Aortic stenosis
81. What are the most dangerous sequelae or torsa de pointes? Ventricular fibrillation and death
82. Patient with wolf parkinson white syndrome have higher risk of which type of arrhythmia?
Supra ventricular tachycardia
83. An ECG shows no identifiable waves. What is the most likely diagnosis? Ventricular
fibrillation
84. How does neonates with tricuspid atresia remain viable given with severely compromised
circulation? Both ASD and VSD required
85. Six days after having myocardial infarction a patient presents with a new onset murmur ,
which type of murmur is this most likely? Holo systolic murmur of mitral regurgitation
86. Quinine causes symptoms of headache and tinnitus , which collectively called ? Cinchonism
87. Adverse effect of diazoxide? Hyperglycemia secondary to insulin release
88. Name the potentially fatal adverse effect of ibutilide? Torsades de pointes
89. Which ion is infused to treat torsades de pointed and digoxin toxicity? Magnesium
90. Name three toxocities of antiarrhythmatic drug adenosine? Flushing, hypotension and chest
pain
=-=-

FIRST AID RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

1. Respiratory zone consists of??
2. Mucus secretion are swept out of lungs toward mouth by which cells ??
3. Pulmonary surfactant contains??
4. Aspirated peanut at supine position reaches?
5. Aorta at T12 Other components are?
6. Phrenic nerve root value?
7.important muscle in expiration ?
8. Kallekrien activates----?
9. Surfactants deficit in which disease?
10. Vital capticity?
11. Which part of lung has largest contribution of functional dead space?
12. Compliance defined as----???
13. Relaxed form of HB has high affinity for O2? T/F
14. CO has ------ time greater affinity than O2?
15. Methemoglobinemia can ne treated with ??
16. Fetal dissociation curve is shifted to ? Right/ left
17. Oxygen HB dissociation curve is sigmoid due to?
18. Normal pulmonary artery pressure??
19. Cyanosis result when deoxyhaemoglobin HB reaches ???
20. V/Q=0 what does it means??
21. CO2 is transported in forms??? Name them
22. Bohr effect seen in ?? Lungs / peripheral tissues ?
23. Chronic hypoxia pulmonary vasoconstriction results in ???
25. Pulmonary embolism symptoms??

26. Amniotic fluid emboli can lead to?

27. Virchow's triad??
28. Barrel shape chest seen in?
29. Test for asthma??
30. Bilateral hilar lymphedanoparhy and non caseating granuloma? Disease ?
31. Which effects lower lobes?? Coal miner/ asbestosis/ silicosis?
32 In neonatal respiratory distress syndrome therapeutic supplemental O2 can result in ??
33.NRDS Persistent Low O2 tension----> risk of???
34. Crushmann,s spiral seen in?
35. Asbestosis associated with ??
36. Surfactant is made by -----cells??? And mostly abundant after -------- week of gestation??
37. Treatment of sleep apnea???
38. Dull percussion note?
39. Coin lesion on X-ray film??
40... Lung carcinoma associated with smoking?
41. Spontaneous pneumothorax -- tracheal deviation which side??
42. Carcinoid tumors secretes?
43. Salt and pepper histological feature seen In ?
44. Horner syndrome??
45. Most common cause of lung abcess?
46. Farmer disease shows which type of hyperactivity reaction?
47. Facial plethora seen in??
48. In pneumothorax ?? Inc tactile fremitus/ dec tactile fremitus
49. Spontaneous pneumothorax most commonly occurs because of ???
50. Name 1st generation H1blockers?
51. Theophylline causes bronchodilators by??
52. Mast cell stabilizers?
53. Drug of pulmonary hypertension?
54. Dextromethorphan act on which receptors ?
55. Name the transcription factor that induces production of TNF-alpha?
56. Lymphatic pleural effusion also called?
57. Psamomma bodies seen in which lung disease?
58. Most aggressive lung carcinoma?
59. Sleep apnea breathing stops for how much time?
60. Risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome??
61.egg cell calcification of hilar lymph nodes?
62. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy os associated with achi clung carcinoma?
63. Drugs causing restrictive lung disease?
64. What sign is present in DVT? And how we check it?
65. Primary pulmonary hypertension is due to inactivation of which gene?
66. 1gm HB binds with =?
67. Functional residual capacity??
68. Pain from the diaphragm can be referred to ??
69. In perfusion limited .. Diffusion can be increased only if -------- increases???
70. Majority of blood CO2 is carried as ----- in plasma?

KEYS
1. Respiratory zone consists of?? respiratory bronchioles,alveolar ducts and alveoli..
2. Mucus secretion are swept out of lungs toward mouth by which cells ?? Ciliates columnar
cells
3. Pulmonary surfactant contains?? dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine
4. Aspirated peanut at supine position reaches? Sup portion of right inf lobe
5. Aorta at T12 Other components are? Thoracic duct and Azygous vein
6. Phrenic nerve root value? C345
7.important muscle in expiration ? Rectus abdominus
8. Kallekrien activates----? Bradykinin
9. Surfactants deficit in which disease? Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome
10. Vital capticity? TV +IRV +ERV
11. Which part of lung has largest contribution of functional dead space? Apex of healthy lung
12. Compliance defined as----??? change in lung volume in given change in pressure
13. Relaxed form of HB has high affinity for O2? T
14. CO has ------ time greater affinity than O2? 200
15. Methemoglobinemia can ne treated with ?? methylene blue
16. Fetal dissociation curve is shifted to ? left
17. Oxygen HB dissociation curve is sigmoid due to? Positive cooperatively
18. Normal pulmonary artery pressure?? 10-14 mmHg
19. Cyanosis result when deoxyhaemoglobin HB reaches ??? >5 mHg
20. V/Q=0 what does it means?? Airway obstruction ( shunt)
21. CO2 is transported in forms??? Name them bicarbonate, carbaminohemoglobin, dissolved
22. Bohr effect seen in ?? peripheral tissues
23. Chronic hypoxia pulmonary vasoconstriction results in ??? RVH
25. Pulmonary embolism symptoms?? Chest pain, tachypnea and dyspnea
26. Amniotic fluid emboli can lead to? DIC
27. Virchow's triad?? Hypercoagubility , stasis and endothelial injury
28. Barrel shape chest seen in? Emphysema
29. Test for asthma?? Metha choline challenge
30. Bilateral hilar lymphedanoparhy and non caseating granuloma? Disease ? Sarcoidosis
31. Which effects lower lobes?? asbestosis
32 In neonatal respiratory distress syndrome therapeutic supplemental O2 can result in ??
Retinopathy of prematurity
33.NRDS Persistent Low O2 tension----> risk of??? PDA
34. Crushmann,s spiral seen in? Asthma
35. Asbestosis associated with ?? Bronchogenic carcinoma and pleural mesothelioma
36. Surfactant is made by -----cells??? And mostly abundant after -------- week of gestation??
Type II Pneumocytes and 35th week of gestation
37. Treatment of sleep apnea??? Weight loss, CPAP, surgery
38. Dull percussion note? Pleural effusion
39. Coin lesion on X-ray film?? Lung Cancer
40... Lung carcinoma associated with smoking? Squamous cell carcinoma
41. Spontaneous pneumothorax -- tracheal deviation which side?? Towards side of lesion
42. Carcinoid tumors secretes? Serotonin
43. Salt and pepper histological feature seen In ? Small cell lung carcinoma

44. Horner syndrome?? Ptosis , miosis and anhydrosis

45. Most common cause of lung abcess? Staph aureus
46. Farmer disease shows which type of hyperactivity reaction? Mixed type II/III
47. Facial plethora seen in?? SVC obstruction
48. In pneumothorax ?? dec tactile fremitus
49. Spontaneous pneumothorax most commonly occurs because of ??? Rupture of apical bleb
50. Name 1st generation H1blockers? Diphenhydramine , dimenhydrinate , chlorpheniramine
51. Theophylline causes bronchodilators by?? Inhibits phosphodiesterse
52. Mast cell stabilizers? Cromolyn
53. Drug of pulmonary hypertension? Bonestan
54. Dextromethorphan act on which receptors ? NMDA glutaminergic receptors
55. Name the transcription factor that induces production of TNF-alpha? NF-kB
56. Lymphatic pleural effusion also called? Chylothorax
57. Psamomma bodies seen in which lung disease? Mesothelioma
58. Most aggressive lung carcinoma? Small cell lung carcinoma
59. Sleep apnea breathing stops for how much time? 10 secs
60. Risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?? Prematurity, maternal diabetes,
cesarean section
61.egg cell calcification of hilar lymph nodes? Silicosis
62. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy os associated with achi clung carcinoma? Adenocarcinoma of
lung
63. Drugs causing restrictive lung disease? Busulfan, bleomycin and amaidarone .
64. What sign is present in DVT? And how we check it? Homan sign, dosriflexion of foot
65. Primary pulmonary hypertension is due to inactivation of which gene? BMPR2 gene
66. 1gm HB binds with = 1.34 ml O2
67. Functional residual capacity?? RV+ERV
68. Pain from the diaphragm can be referred to ?? Shoulder
69. In perfusion limited .. Diffusion can be increased only if -------- increases??? Blood flow
70. Majority of blood CO2 is carried as ----- in plasma? Bicarbonate
=-=-=

FIRST AID RENAL TEST

1. Normal GFR??
2. Renal plasma flow best estimated with?
3. Clearance =?
4. Hartnup disease deficiency due to ----- and result in -----?
5. Maximum reabsorption. Is seen in which part of nephron??
6. Name the channel on thick ascending loop of henle???
7. Transient action of angiotensin II?
8. Aldosterone primarily regulate ?? Volume / osmolarity??
9. Macula densa is the part of which tubule?
10. Potent stimulus for erythropoietin?
11. Renin is secreted by??? B1 effect / b2 effect / a1 effect a2 effect ??
12. Parathyroid hormone secreted in response to??? Tell 3 points...
13. ANP is secreted in reposne to??? Inc ventricular pressure/ inc atrial pressure?

14. Insulin causes ? Hypokalemia / hyperkalemia?

15. Digitalis block which enzyme??
16. U wave on ECG???
17. Low level of magnesium causes ???
18. For every 1 mEq/L Hco3 how much PCO2 increases???
19. Which type of Renal tubular acidosis associated with calcium containing kidney stone ??
1/2/3/4??
20. Muddy brown cast???
21. Most common glomerolunephritis globally??
22. Alport syndrome --- mutation in which collagen???
23. Wagener granulomatous associated with??? C anca / p anca ??
24. Apple green birefringes seen in???
25. Most common glomerular disease in HIV ?
26. Most common glummerular disease in children ??
27. Composition of staghorn calculus ???
28. Ethylene glycol(antifreeze) or vit c abuse causes which crystal???
29. Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion feature of???
30. Radiolucent stone?? Cystine/ calcium/ uric acid???
31. RCC associated with which syndrome??? And tell defect of chromosome number ??
32. Secondary polycythemia??? RCC / wilms tumor/ transitional cell carcinoma ??
33. Painless hematuria??? Urethral cancer/ bladder cancer / Renal cancer ???
34. Most common renal malignancy in early childhood ???
35. Thyroidization of kidney involve which cast ?? Neutrophilic / esoniphilic / plasma cells ??
36. Diffuse cortical necrosis associated with ???
34. Most common cause of acute renal failure ???
35. ADPKD ? Autosomal recessive / autosomal dominant ???
36. Tram track appearance seen in???
37. Erythropoietin is formed by which part of kidney???
38. Name diuretic causes gout??
39. Diuretic drug of choice for hypercalciuria?? Loop / hydrochlorthoazide??
40. Most common intracellular buffer? Haemoglobin/ protien/ bicarbonate /phosphate???
41. Which has highest protein content?? Plasma/HB/plasma protien/PO4???
42. Which of the following has highest clearance? Inulin/PAH/glucose/Na??
43. Angiotensin 1 is converted to angiotensin 2 in? Lung capillary endothelium/ kidney / liver??
44. Which is absorbed passively from the renal tubules ? NH3/Cl/glucose ??
45. 65% Na absorption is in ??
46. Thirst is dec by? ADH/alcohol/angII??
47. Aldosterone escape caused by?? Renin/aldosterone/ANP??
48. Normal filtration fraction? 20% / 50% / 30%??
49. Charge barrier is lost in? Nephrotic / nephritic??
50. Ureter passes -----the uterine artery? Above/ under ???
51. Extra cellular volume is measured by?
52. Glomerular filtration barrier composed of ?
53. Clearance>GFR shows??
54. Renal plasma flow best estimates with?
55. Important clinical clue to diabetes mellitus?

56. PTH increases ca reabsorption by which transporter?

57. Which part of nephron completely impermeable to water?
58. 80 percent of Na is reabsorbed in ??
59. NSAIDS can cause acute renal failure by inhibiting the renal production of ???
60. JG cells secretes renin in response to?
61. Peaked T waves are seen in ??
62. Tetany is caused by?
63. Name causes of normal anion gap?
64. Which Renal tubular acidosis is hyperkalemic??
65. Waxy casts in urine is due to??
66. Good pasture syndrome is which type type of hypersensitivity disease?
67. Spike and dome appearance with subepithelial deposits?
68. Hexagonal kidney stone is seen in ?
69. Von HIPPLE LINDAU syndrome is due to deletion in chromosome number?
70. Acute pyelonephritis affects which part of the kidney?
71. Why is the left kidney harvested for transplantation rather than the right?
72. What are the effects of prostaglandins on the glomerulus ?
73. How and where amino acids are reabsorbed in nephron?
74. What substance is secreted in early proximal tubule that acts as a buffer?
75. Which three ions indirectly reabsorbed in thick ascending loop of henle ?
76. On which segment of nephron does aldosterone act?
77. What is the site of action of angiotensin converting enzyme ?
78. Which cells produce renin in the kidney?
79. What is the primary electrolyte disturbance in metabolic acidosis.
80. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of death of which
systemic disease?
81. Name four clinical finding associated with nephritic syndrome?
82. Kidney stones are most commonly composed of what element?
83. Name the four components of WAGR complex?
84. What is the mechanism of action of acetazolamide?
85. Which loop diuretic is used for diuresis for patient allergens to sulfa drugs?
86. What are the effects of hydrochlorthoazide toxicity?
87. Mechanism of action of loop diuretic ?
88. Mechanism of action of angiodema caused by ACE inhibitors?
89. Name four clinical finding associated with nephrotic syndrome?
90. Name 3 causes of acute tubular necrosis?
KEYS
1.Normal GFR??100 ml/min
2. Renal plasma flow best estimated with? PAH
3. Clearance =? UV/P
4. Hartnup disease deficiency due to ----- and result in -----? Tryptophan and results in pallegra
5. Maximum reabsorption. Is seen in which part of nephron?? Proximal tubule
6. Name the channel on thick ascending loop of henle??? NaKCl
7. Transient action of angiotensin II? Vasoconstriction
8. Aldosterone primarily regulate ?? Volume / osmolarity?? Ans= Volume

9. Macula densa is the part of which tubule? Distal convoluted tubule

10. Potent stimulus for erythropoietin? Hypoxia
11. Renin is secreted by??? B1 effect / b2 effect / a1 effect a2 effect ?? Ans= b1
12. Parathyroid hormone secreted in response to??? Tell 3 points... Dec plasma ca, inc plasma
po4, dec 1,25(0H)
13. ANP is secreted in reposne to??? Inc ventricular pressure/ inc atrial pressure? Ans= inc atrial
pressure
14. Insulin causes ? Hypokalemia / hyperkalemia? Ans= hypokalemia
15. Digitalis block which enzyme?? Na/K ATPase pump
16. U wave on ECG???hypokalemka
17. Low level of magnesium causes ??? Neuromuscular irritability and arrhythmias
18. For every 1 mEq/L Hco3 how much PCO2 increases??? 0.7mmHg
19. Which type of Renal tubular acidosis associated with calcium containing kidney stone ??
1/2/3/4?? Ans= 1
20. Muddy brown cast??? acute tubular necrosis
21. Most common glomerolunephritis globally?? Berger disease (IgA nephropathy)
22. Alport syndrome --- mutation in which collagen??? Type 4 collagen
23. Wagener granulomatous associated with??? C anca / p anca ?? Ans= C anca
24. Apple green birefringes seen in??? Amyloidosis
25. Most common glomerular disease in HIV ? Focal segmental glomerulonephritis
26. Most common glummerular disease in children ?? Minimal change nephropathy
27. Composition of staghorn calculus ??? Ammonium magnesium phosphate
28. Ethylene glycol(antifreeze) or vit c abuse causes which crystal??? Oxalate
29. Kimmelstiel Wilson lesion feature of??? Diabetec glomerolunephritis
30. Radiolucent stone?? Cystine/ calcium/ uric acid??? Ans= uric acid
31. RCC associated with which syndrome??? And tell defect of chromosome number ?? VON
HIPPLE LINDAU... Chromosome 3
32. Secondary polycythemia??? RCC / wilms tumor/ transitional cell carcinoma ?? Ans= RCC
33. Painless hematuria??? Urethral cancer/ bladder cancer / Renal cancer ??? Ans= bladder
carcinoma
34. Most common renal malignancy in early childhood ??? Wilms tumor
35. Thyroidization of kidney involve which cast ?? Neutrophilic / esoniphilic / plasma cells ??
Ans=eosinophilic
36. Diffuse cortical necrosis associated with ??? Obstetric catastrophes and septic shock
34. Most common cause of acute renal failure ??? Acute tubular necrosis
35. ADPKD ? Autosomal recessive / autosomal dominant ??? Ans= Aut dominant
36. Tram track appearance seen in??? Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
37. Erythropoietin is formed by which part of kidney??? Peritubular capillaries
38. Name diuretic causes gout?? Loop diuretics
39. Diuretic drug of choice for hypercalciuria?? Loop / hydrochlorthoazide??
Hydrochlorthoazide
40. Most common intracellular buffer? Haemoglobin/ protien/ bicarbonate /phosphate??? Ans=
Protein
41. Which has highest protein content?? Plasma/HB/plasma protien/PO4??? Ans= Plasma
42. Which of the following has highest clearance? Inulin/PAH/glucose/Na?? Ans= PAH
43. Angiotensin 1 is converted to angiotensin 2 in? Lung capillary endothelium/ kidney / liver??

Ans= lung capillary

44. Which is absorbed passively from the renal tubules ? NH3/Cl/glucose ?? Ans= Cl
45. 65% Na absorption is in ?? Proximal tubule
46. Thirst is dec by? ADH/alcohol/agII?? Ans= ADH
47. Aldosterone escape caused by?? Renin/aldosterone/ANP?? Ans= ANP
48. Normal filtration fraction? 20% / 50% / 30%?? Ans= 20%
49. Charge barrier is lost in? Nephrotic / nephritic?? Ans= nephrotic
50. Ureter passes -----the uterine artery? Above/ under ??? Ans= under
51. Extra cellular volume is measured by? Inulin
52. Glomerular filtration barrier composed of ? 1. Fenestrated capillary endothelium 2. Fused
basement membrane with heparin sulphate 3. Epithelial layer insisting of podocty
53. Clearance>GFR shows?? Net tubular secretion
54. Renal plasma flow best estimates with? PAH
55. Important clinical clue to diabetes mellitus? Glycousuria
56. PTH increases ca reabsorption by which transporter? Ca/Na exchanger
57. Which part of nephron completely impermeable to water? Thick ascending loop of henle
58. 80 percent of Na is reabsorbed in ?? Early proximal tubule
59. NSAIDS can cause acute renal failure by inhibiting the renal production of ???
Prostaglandins
60. JG cells secretes renin in response to? Dec renal pressure, dec Na delivery and inc
sympathetic tone(b1)
61. Peaked T waves are seen in ?? Hyperkalemia
62. Tetany is caused by? Hypocalcemia
63. Name causes of normal anion gap? Diarrhea, glue sniffing , RTA
64. Which Renal tubular acidosis is hyperkalemic?? Type 4 RTA
65. Waxy casts in urine is due to?? Advanced renal disease/ CRF
66. Good pasture syndrome is which type type of hypersensitivity disease? Type II
67. Spike and dome appearance with subepithelial deposits? Membranous glumerulonephritis
68. Hexagonal kidney stone is seen in ? Cystiene
69. Von HIPPLE LINDAU syndrome is due to deletion in chromosome number? 3
70. Acute pyelonephritis affects which part of the kidney? Cortex sparing glomeruli
71. Why is the left kidney harvested for transplantation rather than the right? Because left kidney
hai longer renal vein
72. What are the effects of prostaglandins on the glomerulus ? Dialates the afferent arterioles and
inc GFR
73. How and where amino acids are reabsorbed in nephron? Amino acids are reabsorbed at level
of proximal convoluted tubule by sodium dependent transporters
74. What substance is secreted in early proximal tubule that acts as a buffer? Ammonia
75. Which three ions indirectly reabsorbed in thick ascending loop of henle ? Na K and Cl
76. On which segment of nephron does aldosterone act? Collecting tubule
77. What is the site of action of angiotensin converting enzyme ? Lungs
78. Which cells produce renin in the kidney? Juxtaglomerular cells
79. What is the primary electrolyte disturbance in metabolic acidosis. Serum bicarbonate
80. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of death of which
systemic disease? SLE
81. Name four clinical finding associated with nephritic syndrome? Azotemia, oliguria ,

hypertension and proteinuria .5g/day

82. Kidney stones are most commonly composed of what element? Calcium
83. Name the four components of WAGR complex? Wilms tumor, Aniridia, Genitourinary
malformation and mental motor Retardation
84. What is the mechanism of action of acetazolamide? Carbonic anhydride inhibitor
85. Which loop diuretic is used for diuresis for patient allergens to sulfa drugs? Ethacrinic acid
86. What are the effects of hydrochlorthoazide toxicity? Hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia,
hyperurecemia, Dhypercalcemia
87. Mechanism of action of loop diuretic ? NaKCl transporter inhibitor
88. Mechanism of action of angiodema caused by ACE inhibitors? It prevents inactivation of
bradykinin which is potent vasodilator that's leads to angiodema
89. Name four clinical finding associated with nephrotic syndrome? Massive proteinuria
>3.5g/day, edema , fatty casts and hyperlipidemia
90. Name 3 causes of acute tubular necrosis? Renal ischemia , crush injuries and toxins

=-=-=-

MUSKULOSKELETAL FIRST AID TEST

1. Autoantibodies against hemodesmosome caused which disease?
2. Pudendal nerve block ?? Site
3. Unhappy triad?
4. Rotator cuff muscles??
5. Fall on outstretched hand may cause fracture of ??
6. Wrist drop is caused by injury of?
7. Root value injury of Erb Duchenne palsy??
8. Popes blessing sign Is seen in?
9. Winged scApula?? Muscle and nerve?
10. Fibula neck fracture ?? Nerve involved
11. Fast twitch white fibres and dec mitochondria ... Which type of muscle ?
12. Cartilaginous model of bone is first made by which cells ?
13. Person can't jump climd stairs or can't rise from seated position?? Nerve involved?
14. Bone formed directly without cartilage?
15. Advanced paternal age related disease?
16. Erlenmeyer flask bone on X ray?
17. Normal ca , phosphorus and PTH and inc ALP? Disease
18. Vertebral crush fractures usually seen in ????
19. Double bubble appearance in ???
20. Onion skin appearance in bone ??
21. Bouchard nodes involve which phalanges?
22. Rheumatoid arthritis ? Type of reaction?
23. Baker cysts? Which side of knee?
24. Sjogren syndrome associated with which type of lymphoma?
25. Crystals in Gout?
26. Chromosomal translocation in Ewing sarcoma?

27. Infectious arthritis ?? Pathogens

28. Reiter syndrome ?? Triad?
29. Sle causes which type of endocarditis?
30. Non caseating granuloma with elevated serum ACE levels ? Disease
31. Pencil in cup deformaty on x ray ? Which disease ?
32. Drug induced lupus?? Antibodies?
33. Schaumman and asteroid bodies???
34. Giant cell arteritis associated with ?
35. Fibromyalgia seen in women of ?? Age range
36. Mechanic hands seen in?
37. Antibodies seen in poly myositis ?
38. Most common neuromuscular junction disorder?
39. Crest syndrome involves?
40. NMJ disorder associated with small lung cancer?? Name disorder
41. Auspitz sign seen in?
42. Allergic contact dermatitis ???
43. Mask of pregnancy???
44. Honey colored crusting ??? Disease?
45. In scalded skin syndrome exotoxins destroyes which stratum ??
46. In pemphigous vulgaris IGg formed against ?
47. In Acanthosis nigricans there is hyperplasia of ???
48. Lichen planus associated with which hep ?
49. Keratin pearls is seen in ???
50. What is precursor of melanoma?
51. Febuxostat inhibits???
52. Antidote of acetaminophen ?
53. PGI2 function?
54. Classic triad of sjogren syndrome?
55. Pope blessing seen in which nerve injury?
56. Eccrine gland secretes?
56. HLA-D4 associated disease ?
57. Pseudo gout crystal ?
58. Inflammatory bowel disease?
59. Treatment of sarcoidosis?
60. Precursor of squamous cell carcinoma?
61. C7 root is usually compressed by?
62. Name the nerve passes in Guyon canal?
63. How many tendons passed in carpel tunnel?
64. Saturday night palsy is caused by which nerve injury?
65. Sign in axillary nerve injury?
66. Which bone is called funny bone?
67. Klumpke's palsy is usually caused by?
68. Serratus anterior is supplied by which nerve and what is its root value?
69. Name thenar muscle?
70. Sensory deficit in tibial nerve injury is seen in which part of lower limb?
71. Cause of injury of anterior hip dislocation?

72. What is the source of osteoblast ?

73. Vit D deficiency in childhood causes ?
74. MacCune-Albright syndrome is a form of which disease?
75. Sunburst pattern on X-ray is seen in ??
76. Heberden's nodes involves which phalanges ?
77. Crystals in pseudo gout ??
78. Infarction of bone and marrow is called?
79. Fibromyalgia patients must have how many tender points?
80. Hyper keratosis is due to increase thickness of which skin layer?
Keys
1. Autoantibodies against hemodesmosome caused which disease? Bullous pemphigoid
2. Pudendal nerve block ?? Site?Ischial spine
3. Unhappy triad? Medial colateral ligament , anterior colateral ligament and lateral meniscus
4. Rotator cuff muscles??Supraspinatous, infraspinatous, Teres minor, subscapularis
5. Fall on outstretched hand may cause fracture of ?? scaphoid
6. Wrist drop is caused by injury of? radial
7. Root value injury of Erb Duchenne palsy?? C5-C6
8. Popes blessing sign Is seen in? ulnar
9. Winged scApula?? Muscle and nerve? Serratous anterior- long thoracic nerve
10. Fibula neck fracture ?? Nerve involved?? Common peroneal nerve
11. Fast twitch white fibres and dec mitochondria ... Which type of muscle ? Type 2 muscle
12. Cartilaginous model of bone is first made by which cells? Chondrocytes
13. Person can't jump climd stairs or can't rise from seated position?? Nerve involved? Inf gluteal
nerve (L5-S2)
14. Bone formed directly without cartilage? Woven bone
15. Advanced paternal age related disease? Achondroplasia
16. Erlenmeyer flask bone on X ray? osteopetrosis
17. Normal ca , phosphorus and PTH and inc ALP? Disease?? Disease Paget's disease
18. Vertebral crush fractures usually seen in ???? Osteoporosis
19. Double bubble appearance in ???osteosarcoma (giant cell tumor
20. Onion skin appearance in bone ?? Ewing sarcoma
21. Bouchard nodes involve which phalanges? PIP
22. Rheumatoid arthritis ? Type of reaction? type III
23. Baker cysts? Which side of knee? Behind the knee
24. Sjogren syndrome associated with which type of lymphoma? B Cell lymphoma
25. Crystals in Gout? Mono sodium urate crystals
26. Chromosomal translocation in Ewing sarcoma? 11;22
27. Infectious arthritis ?? Pathogens? s. Aureus , streptococcus , nisserria gonorrhea
28. Reiter syndrome ?? Triad? Conjunctivitis , urethritis, arthritis
29. SLE causes which type of endocarditis? Libman sac endocarditis
30. Non caseating granuloma with elevated serum ACE levels ? Disease ?? Sarcoidosis
31. Pencil in cup deformaty on x ray ? Which disease ? psoriatic arthritis
32. Drug induced lupus?? Antibodies? Anti histone antibodies
33. Schaumman and asteroid bodies??? Sarcoidosis
34. Giant cell arteritis associated with ? Polymyalgica rheumatica

35. Fibromyalgia seen in women of ?? Age range?? 30-50

36. Mechanic hands seen in?? Dermatomyositis
37. Antibodies seen in poly myositis ?? Anti jo antibodies
38. Most common neuromuscular junction disorder?? Myasthenia gravis
39. Crest syndrome involves?? Calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon , esophageal dysmotility,
sclerodactyly, telangectasia
40. NMJ disorder associated with small lung cancer?? Name disorder?? Lambart eaton syndrome
41. Auspitz sign seen in?? Psoriasis
42. Allergic contact dermatitis ??? Type IV HSR
43. Mask of pregnancy??? Melasma
44. Honey colored crusting ??? Disease?? Impetigo
45. In scalded skin syndrome exotoxins destroyes which stratum ??? Stratum granulosum
46. In pemphigous vulgaris IGg formed against ?? Desmosomes
47. In Acanthosis nigricans there is hyperplasia of ??? stratum spongiosum
48. Lichen planus associated with which hep?? Hepatitis c
49. Keratin pearls is seen in??Squamous cell carcinoma
50. What is precursor of melanoma?? dysplastic navus
51. Febuxostat inhibits??? Xanthine oxidase
52. Antidote of acetaminophen?? N - acetylecystiene
53. PGI2 function? Platelet aggregation and promote vasodilation
54. Classic triad of sjogren syndrome? Xerophthalmia, xerostomia and arthritis
55. Eccrine gland secretes? Sweat
56. HLA-D4 associated disease?? RhUmatoid arthritis
57. Pseudo gout crystal?? Calcium pyro phosphate
58. Inflammatory bowel disease??Crohn, UC
59. Treatment of sarcoidosis?? Steroids
60. Precursor of squamous cell carcinoma?? Actinic keratosis
61. C7 root is usually compressed by? Cervical disc lesion
62. Name the nerve passes in Guyon canal? Ulnar nerve
63. How many tendons passed in carpel tunnel? 9 tendons
64. Saturday night palsy is caused by which nerve injury? Radial nerve
65. Sign in axillary nerve injury? Flattened deltoid
66. Which bone is called funny bone? Humerus
67. Klumpke's palsy is usually caused by? Cervical rib / pancoast tumor
68. Serratus anterior is supplied by which nerve and what is its root value? Long thoracic nerve
and C567
69. Name thenar muscle? Opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis
70. Sensory deficit in tibial nerve injury is seen in which part of lower limb? Sole of foot
71. Cause of injury of anterior hip dislocation? Obturator nerve
72. What is the source of osteoblast ? Mesenchymal stem cells in periosteum
73. Vit D deficiency in childhood causes ? Rickets
74. MacCune-Albright syndrome is a form of which disease? Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
75. Sunburst pattern on X-ray is seen in ?? Osteosarcoma
76. Heberden's nodes involves which phalanges ? DIP
77. Crystals in pseudo gout ?? Calcium pyro phosphate
78. Infarction of bone and marrow is called? Osteonecrosis

79. Fibromyalgia patients must have how many tender points? >11of 18 tender points
80. Hyper keratosis is due to increase thickness of which skin layer? Stratum corneum
=-=-

THORAX ANATOMY
1. Bones of thoracic wall consists of ??
2. Sternum is which type of ?
3. Which intervertebral discs are opposite of angle of Louis ?
4. Common site or bone marrow biopsy????
5. Name false ribs????
6. Which part is weakest part of rib?
7. The cartilages of the 11 and 12 ribs end in the ??
8. Which type of movement is there in costrocondral joints??
9. The intercostal nerves and blood vessels run between???
10. Nerve supply of diaphragm ?
11. Which structure passes through aortic opening ?
12. Most important muscle of respiration?
13. Caval opening lies at the level of which vertebra?
14. Anterior intercostal veins drains into?
15. Anterior intercostal artery terminate in which intercostal space ?
16. Anterior intercostal artery terminates as?
17. Thymus is supplied by ?
18. Which intercostal nerve is involved in the formation of lower trunk of brachial plexus?
19. Which intercostal nerve supplies the armpit and upper medial side of arm?
20. In coronary artery disease pain refereed to medial side of arm due to?
21. Pericardium heart and roots of great blood vessels are present in which mediastinum?
22. Cricoid cartilage is at the level of which vertebra?
23. Length of trachea???
24. Trachea divides at the level of?
25. Posteriorly trachea contains?
26. Right bronchus before entering the hilum gives?
27. Foreign body tends to enter rt bronchus becoz?
28. Visceral pleura is sensitive to?
29. Left bronchus on entering he hil divides into?
30. What structure separates parietal pleura from thoracic wall?
31. How are lungs attached to mediastinum?
32. Name the lobes of rt lung ?
33. Functional unit of lung is ?
34. Shape of bronchi pulmonary segment?
35. Bronchial arteries are branches of?
36. All lymph nodes living hilum drains into?
37. Lung os supplied by which plexus?
38. Vertical diameter of thoracic cavity is increases by?
39. Quite expiration is which type of process?
40. Pericardium attached Anteriorly to the sternum by the ??

41. Pericardium supplied by which nerve ?

42. Apex of heart lies at the level of which intercostal space?
43. Skeleton of heart consists of?
44. Superior vene cava has how many valves?
45. Coronary sinus open into which chamber of heart?
46. Greater part of anterior surface of heart is due to?
47. Name the cusps of tricuspid valves ?
48. Right coronary artery arises from which sinus?
49. Pulmonary valve is best heard at?
50. First heart sound is produced by?
51. The conducting system of heart is composed of which muscle?
52. Name the pacemaker of heart?
53. SA node usually supplied by?
54. AV node is located just above which cusp?
55. Right bundle branch is supplied by?
56. Only route for cardiac impulse to spread from atria to ventricle is?
57. Which is the largest branch of rt coronary artery?
58. Lt coronary artery arises from?
59. Which branch if left coronary artery supplies the right and left ventricle ?
60. Name the largest vein draining the heart?
61. Coronary sinus is continuation of??
62. Anterior cardiac vein drain into?
63. Brachiocephalic vein is formed by?
64. Azygous vein drain into which aspect of superior vene cava?
65. Azygous vein usually formed by?
66. Ligamentum arteriosus is remains of?
67. Intercostal nodes lies at which site of ribs?
68. Brachicephalic nodes drain lymph from ??
69. Thoracic duct begins at the abdomen as a dilated sac called?
70. Length of right lymphatic duct is ??
71. The vagus nerves the abdomen through which opening?
72. Phrenic nerves passes in----- of root of lungs?
73. Name the only motor nerve supplying the diaphragm ?
74. The first thoracic ganglion fused with the inferior cervical ganglion is called?
75. Middle third of esophagus is supplied by??
76. Upper end of esophagous is at level of?
77. Enlargement of which part of heart causes esophageal obstruction?
78. Esophagogastric junction is at ??
79. The carina is part of ?
80. Tracheostomy site for 6 years old Child is between ?
81. Parietal and fibrous pericardium supplied by which nerve ?
82. Right border of the heart is mainly formed by?
83. Which vein of heart is located in posterior interventricular sulcus?

84. 1st rib articulates with which vertebra?

85. The longest fives of diaphragm arise from which costal cartilage?
86. The phrenic nerve is separated by inferior vene cava by?
87. Posterior surface of base of heart is entirely formed by?
88. SA node is which shaped?
89. Fallots tetralogy is due to unequal division of?
90. Lung contain how much bronchi pulmonary segments?
91. Body of sternum is also called ?
92. Apex of heart is formed by?
93. Most anterior structure in thoracic inlet is ?
94. J receptors are present in???
95. Thoracic duct also called ?
96. Best guide of inter segmental planes is?
97. Sympathetic supply of heart is from ?
98. Strongest part of parietal pleura is ??
99. Lungs are supplied by?
100. Lingula is part of which lobe?
101. Coronary arteries arises from which aorta?
102. The largest group of axillary nodes is?
103. Most common site for myocardial infarction is??
104. Phrenic nerve is which type of nerve?
105. Which nerve segment is commonly injured ??
106. Female has which type of respiration?
107. Left bundle branch supplied by?
108. Complete ossification of body if sternum occurs at?
109. Pleural pain referred to shoulder by which nerve segment?
110. Pretrachial fascia infections spread to?
KEYS
1. Bones of thoracic wall consists of ?? Sternum, the ribs , and the costal cartilage
2. Sternum is which type of ? Flat bone
3. Which intervertebral discs are opposite of angle of Louis ? T4-5
4. Common site or bone marrow biopsy???? Body of sternum1. Bones of thoracic wall consists
of ?? Sternum, the ribs , and the costal cartilage
2. Sternum is which type of ? Flat bone
3. Which intervertebral discs are opposite of angle of Louis ? T4-5
4. Common site or bone marrow biopsy???? Body of sternum
5. Name false ribs???? 8,9,10
6. Which part is weakest part of rib? Angle of rib
7. The cartilages of the 11 and 12 ribs end in the ?? Abdominal musculature
8. Which type of movement is there in costrocondral joints?? No movements
9. The intercostal nerves and blood vessels run between??? Internal and innermost intercostal
muscle
10. Nerve supply of diaphragm ? Phrenic nerve
11. Which structure passes through aortic opening ? Aorta , thoracic duct and Azygous vein
12. Most important muscle of respiration? Diaphragm

13. Caval opening lies at the level of which vertebra? T8

14. Anterior intercostal veins drains into? Internal thoracic veins
15. Anterior intercostal artery terminate in which intercostal space ? 6th intercostal space
16. Anterior intercostal artery terminates as? Sup epigastric artery and musculo phrenic artery
17. Thymus is supplied by ? Mediastinal artery of anterior intercostal artery , sup thyroid and inf
thyroid artery
18. Which intercostal nerve is involved in the formation of lower trunk of brachial plexus?
19. Which intercostal nerve supplies the armpit and upper medial side of arm? 2 intercostal nerve
20. In coronary artery disease pain refereed to medial side of arm due to? Intercostobrachial
nerve
21. Pericardium heart and roots of great blood vessels are present in which mediastinum? Middle
mediastinum
22. Cricoid cartilage is at the level of which vertebra?6 th cervical vertebra
23. Length of trachea??? 13cm
24. Trachea divides at the level of? T4-5
25. Posteriorly trachea contains? Esophagous and led recurrent laryngeal nerve
26. Right bronchus before entering the hilum gives? Superior lobar bronchus
27. Foreign body tends to enter rt bronchus becoz? Rt bronchus is wider and shorter
28. Visceral pleura is sensitive to? Stretch
29. Left bronchus on entering he hil divides into? Sup and infer lobar bronchus
30. What structure separates parietal pleura from thoracic wall? Endo thoracic fascia
31. How are lungs attached to mediastinum? By their roots
32. Name the lobes of rt lung ? Upper middle and lower
33. Functional unit of lung is ? Bronco pulmonary segments
34. Shape of bronchi pulmonary segment? Pyramidal
35. Bronchial arteries are branches of? Descending thoracic aorta
36. All lymph nodes living hilum drains into? Tracheobronchial nodes
37. Lung os supplied by which plexus? Pulmonary plexus
38. Vertical diameter of thoracic cavity is increases by? Contraction and descent of the
diaphragm
39. Quite expiration is which type of process? Passive process
40. Pericardium attached Anteriorly to the sternum by the ?? Sternopericardial ligaments
41. Pericardium supplied by which nerve ? Phrenic nerve
42. Apex of heart lies at the level of which intercostal space? 5th intercostal space
43. Skeleton of heart consists of? Fibrous rings
44. Superior vene cava has how many valves? No valve
45. Coronary sinus open into which chamber of heart? Right atrium
46. Greater part of anterior surface of heart is due to? Right ventricle
47. Name the cusps of tricuspid valves ? Anterior , septal and inferior
48. Right coronary artery arises from which sinus? Anterior aortic sinus
49. Pulmonary valve is best heard at? Medial end of 2nd left intercostal space
50. First heart sound is produced by? Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valve
51. The conducting system of heart is composed of which muscle? Modified cardiac muscle
52. Name the pacemaker of heart? Sinuatrial node
53. SA node usually supplied by? Rt coronary artery
54. AV node is located just above which cusp? Septal cusp of tricuspid valve

55. Right bundle branch is supplied by? Lt coronary artery

56. Only route for cardiac impulse to spread from atria to ventricle is? AV bundle
57. Which is the largest branch of rt coronary artery? Marginal branch
58. Lt coronary artery arises from? Left posterior aortic sinus of ascending aorta
59. Which branch if left coronary artery supplies the right and left ventricle ? Anterior
interventricular branch
60. Name the largest vein draining the heart? Coronary sinus
61. Coronary sinus is continuation of?? Great cardiac vein
62. Anterior cardiac vein drain into? Right atrium
63. Brachiocephalic vein is formed by? Union of right subclavian and the right internal jugular
vein
64. Azygous vein drain into which aspect of superior vene cava? Posterior aspect
65. Azygous vein usually formed by? Rt ascending lumbar and right sub costal vein
66. Ligamentum arteriosus is remains of? Ductus arteriosus
67. Intercostal nodes lies at which site of ribs? Head of ribs
68. Brachicephalic nodes drain lymph from ?? Thyroid and the pericardium
69. Thoracic duct begins at the abdomen as a dilated sac called? Cysterna chyli
70. Length of right lymphatic duct is ?? 0.05 inch (1.3cm)
71. The vagus nerves the abdomen through which opening? Esophageal opening
72. Phrenic nerves passes in----- of root of lungs? Front
73. Name the only motor nerve supplying the diaphragm ? Phrenic
74. The first thoracic ganglion fused with the inferior cervical ganglion is called? Stellate
ganglion
75. Middle third of esophagus is supplied by?? Branches of descending thoracic aorta
76. Upper end of esophagous is at level of? C6
77. Enlargement of which part of heart causes esophageal obstruction? Left artrium
78. Esophagogastric junction is at ?? T7
79. The carina is part of ? Trachea
80. Tracheostomy site for 6 years old Child is between ? 3-4 tracheal rings
81. Parietal and fibrous pericardium supplied by which nerve ? Phrenic nerve
82. Right border of the heart is mainly formed by? Right atrium
83. Which vein of heart is located in posterior interventricular sulcus?
Middle cardiac vein
84. 1st rib articulates with which vertebra? T1
85. The longest fives of diaphragm arise from which costal cartilage? 9th constable cartilage
86. The phrenic nerve is separated by inferior vene cava by? Fibrous pericardium
87. Posterior surface of base of heart is entirely formed by? Left atrium
88. SA node is which shaped? Crescent
89. Fallots tetralogy is due to unequal division of?truncus arteriosus
90. Lung contain how much bronchi pulmonary segments? 10 segments
91. Body of sternum is also called ? Gladiolus
92. Apex of heart is formed by? Left ventricle
93. Most anterior structure in thoracic inlet is ? Sternohyoid
94. J receptors are present in??? Alveolar interistitium
95. Thoracic duct also called ? Pecquet duct
96. Best guide of inter segmental planes is? Veins draining the segment

97. Sympathetic supply of heart is from ? T1-T5

98. Strongest part of parietal pleura is ?? Costal part
99. Lungs are supplied by? Bronchial arteries
100. Lingula is part of which lobe? Left upper lobe
101. Coronary arteries arises from which aorta? Ascending aorta
102. The largest group of axillary nodes is? Apical
103. Most common site for myocardial infarction is?? Lateral wall of left ventricle
104. Phrenic nerve is which type of nerve? Mixed type
105. Which nerve segment is commonly injured ?? T1
106. Female has which type of respiration? Thoracic type
107. Left bundle branch supplied by? Right coronary artery
108. Complete ossification of body if sternum occurs at? 21 years
109. Pleural pain referred to shoulder by which nerve segment? C345
110. Pretrachial fascia infections spread to? Anterior mediastinum

=-=-=-=--

FIRST AID HAEMATOLOGY

1. Professional APCs??
2. Clock face chromatin distribution seen in?
3. CD stand for ?
4. Universal recipient ??
5. Majority of circulating lymphocytes are??
6. Vit K def---- dec synthesis of???
7. Dec ESR? Causes
8. Clopidogrel and tiopidine blocks?
9. Basophils stippling seen in?
10. Oval cells are seen in?
11. In asplenia what bodies are found?
12. Iron def anemia manifests to which syndrome?
13. HBH genes --- deletion of how many genes?
14. Beta thalassemia is due to which type of mutation ?
15. Lead inhibits??
16. Treatment of lead poisoning in kids??
17. Inc homocysteine but normal methylmalonic acid and hypersegmented neutros ??
18. Finding in intravascular hemolysis?
19. Pancytopenia ? Feature?
20. Cause of aplastic anemia ?
21. Hemolytic anemia following oxidative stress ?
22. PNH impaired synthesis of which gene?
23. Sickle cell anemia point mutation of which amino acid?
24. Osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia?? Agent?
25, erythroblastosis fetalis is due to which immunoglobulin?

26. Common cause of macroangiopathic anemia is ??

27. CLL is associated with which autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
28. Treatment of sickle cell anemia?
29. Tea colored urine is seen in which condition?
30. Glanzman thrombosthenia Defect in?
31. Hemophilia defect in which coagulation pathway?
32. TTP --- deficiency of?
33. Causes of DIC?
34. Most common cause of inherited hypercoagubility?
35. Inc risk of thrombotic skin necrosis with hemorrhage following administration of warfarin ?
What is the deficiency ?
36. In DIC what blood component should we give?
35. Cryoprecipitate contain???
36. Hodgkin lymphoma has which characteristic cells ?
37. Inc WBC count with left shift and inc leukocyte alkaline phosphatase? What is this reaction?
38. Which Hodgkin lymphoma has excellent prognosis?
39. Starry sky appearance scene on which lymphoma?
40. Most malignant gammopathy???
41. t(11;14) associated with which lymphoma ?
41. Waldenstrms macroglobulinemia is associated with with which IG?
42. CLL differs from SLL in having ??
43. Philadelphia chromosome is seen in?
44. Vitamin is given as treatment of which malignancy?
45. Name the chromosome translocation which is responsive to vitamin A ?
46. Birbeck granules seen in ?
47. Teardrop cell seen in?
48. In polycythemia Vera which type of mutation seen ?
49. Inappropriate absolute polycythemia is associated with which disease?
50. Patient on heparin what we have to follow?
52. Warfarin toxicity is corrected by?
53. Methotrexate toxicity is reversible by which drug?
54. Drug used for childhood tumors ?
55. Hemorrhagic cystitis is caused by?
56. Drug used in breast cancer and is an endometrial antagonist ??
57. Name the drug used in treatment of cml?
58. Name the drug used is glioblastoma multiforme ?
59. Side effects of cisplatin and Carboplatin??
60. Paclitaxel hyper stabilize polymerized microtubles in which phase ?
61. Thrombolytic toxicity is treated with ?
62. A patient on warfarin what will be his follow up?
63. Histocytosis expresses which CD?
64. Burkitt lymphoma is due to activation of which activation ?? And mention it's translocation?
65. Most common gammopathy?
66. Burkitt lymphoma is endemic form in Africa have which lesion?
67. Most common adult NHL?
68. Reed stern Berg cells are which CD+???

69. Constitutional signs and symptoms? Hodgkin/ non Hodgkin lymphoma

70. Defect in platelet plug formation ---- increase what parameter?
71. Treatment of hereditary Spehrocytosis ?
72. Name the tapeworm causing b12 deficiency ?
73. Chipmunk facies are seen in ??
74. Cooleys anemia???
75. Heinz bodies seen in?
76. Helmet cells seen in?
77. Delta granules of platelets secrete?
78. Factor VIII is produced by?
79. Multiple myeloma is a neoplasm of whic cell ?
80. Mast cell stabilizer ?
81. APC cells perform their function via?
82. Universal donor?
83. B blood group person what have on Rbc surface and what in plasma?
84. Master of iron regulatory hormone ?
85. Most common cause of anemia in malignancy?
86. Alcohol is toxic to which organelle ?
87. Form of glutamate for synthesis for folic acid is absorbed in jejunum ??
88. Thymidylate synthase irreversible inhibited by ???
89. Most common cause of vit B 12 def?
90. Most common cause of macrocytosis??
91. Car scratch disease ? Agent
92. Smudge cells are seen in ?
93. Blood antibodies are natural antibodies synthesize in ---- after birth?
94. Burr cells seen in??
95. Sickle cell disease is protective against which disease?
96. Job syndrome is associated with inc of which IG?
97. Dec LAP score is seen in which blood malignancy ?
98. Numerous auer rod cells are seen in ?
99. Painless lymphadenopathy occur almost in all leukemia except?
100. Hereditary spherocytosis is which type of Mendelian disorder?
101. Most sensitive blood cells to radiation exposure are?
102. Gum infiltration is seen in which leukemia?
103. Protozoa causing eosinophilia ???
104. Free vit B12 binds to R binder which is synthesized in ?
105. Only leukemia with thromocytosis?
106. Most common cause of pyridoxine def?
107. Marker for folate or vit b12 def?
108. Aplastic crisis is due to which agent?
109. Heterophile antibodies are which Ig antibodies ?
110. Cns and testicle involvement ? Which malignancy ?
111. Common causes of death in multiple myeloma?
112. Most common cause of qualitative platelet defect?
113. Most sensitive screen for DIC?
114. Most common pathogen transmitted by transfusion ??

115. If factor IX is not available , what is next best choice ?

116. DIC is stimulated by ?
117. Intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge at ??
118. Bence jones proteins are derivatives from ?
119. Splenic infarction commonly occurs in ?
120. AIHA is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
121. Iron is stored in the form of ?
122. Best indicator of iron stores is?
123. HB binds with ---- In blood?
124. t(11;22) translocation???
125. Cell surface marks of macrophage ?
KEYS
1. Dendritic cell
2. Plasma cells
3. Cluster of differentiation
4. AB
5. T cells
6. 2,7,9,10 protein c and s
7. Causes? Polycythemia , sickle cell anemia , CCF,
8. ADP Receptor
9. Thalassemia, iron def, lead poisoning , ACD
10. Megaloblastic anemia
11. Howell jolly bodies
12. Plummer Vinson syndrome
13. 3 gene deletion
14. Point mutation
15. Ferrochelatase + ALA dehydratase
16. Succimer
17. Megaloblastic due to folate deficiency
18. Dec haptoglobin, inc LDH, hemoglobinuria
19. Severe anemia, neutropenia and thrombocytopenia
20. Failure or destruction of myeloid stem
21. G6PD def
22. mutant PIGA gene
23. L Glutamic aid with valine
24. Salmonella paratyphi
25, IgG
26. Prosthetic heart valves
27. Cold agglutinin (IGM)
28. Hydroxy urea and BMT
29. Porphyria cutanea tarda
30. GP IIb/IIIa
31. Intrinsic pathway
32. ADAMTS 13
33. Sepsis, trauma, obstetric complication, malignancy

34. Factor V ladien disease

35. Protein c and s
36. FFP
35. Factor VIII and factor XIII
36. Reed-Sternberg cells
37. Leukemoid reaction
38. Lymphocyte predominant
39. Burkitts lymphoma
40. Multiple myeloma
41. Mantle cell lymphoma
41. IGM
42. ? inc peripheral blood lymphocytesis
43. CML
44. AML
45. t(15:17)
46. Histiocytosis X
47. Myelofibrosia
48. JAK2 mutation
49. RCC , wilms tumor
50. APTT
52. vit k and FFP
53. leucovorin
54. Dactynomycin
55. Cyclophosphamide
56. Raloxifene
57. Imatinib mesylate
58. Nitrosourase
59. Nephrotoxicity and acoustic nerve damage
60. M PHASE
61. Aminocaproic acid
62. PT, APTT, INR
63. CD1
64. t(8;14) c myc activation
65. Monoclonal gammopathy of undermined significance
66. Jaw lesion
67. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
68. CD15+ And CD 30+
69. Hodgkin lymphoma
70. Bleeding time
71. Splenectomy
72. Diphylobothrium latum
73. Beta thalassemia major
74. Thalassemia major
75. G6PD
76. DIC,TTP HUS, traumatic hemolysis
77. Serotonin, ADP, Ca (SAC)

78. endothelial cell

79. Plasma cell
80. Coromonyl sodium
81. MHC II
82. O
83. Antigen on Rbc surface and A antibody in serum
84. Hepcidin
85. ? ACD
86. Mitochondria
87. Monoglutamate
88. 5 florouracil
89. Pernicious anemia
90. Alcohol access
91. -- Bartonela henslae
92. CLL
93. Payer patches
94. CRF ( dec EPO)
95. Plasmodium falciparum
96. IgE
97. CML
98. Acute premyeolitic leukoemia ----M3
99. Hairy cell leukemia .
100. Autosomal dominant
101. Lymphocyte
102. Acute monocytic leukemia
103. Dientamoeba fragilis
104. Salivary glands
105. CML
106. INH
107. Hypersegmented neutrophils
108. Parvo virus
109. IGM
110. ALL
111. Sepsis and renal failure
112. Aspirin
113. D dimer
114. CMV
115. FFP
116. Thromboplastin
117. Activator X
118. Gamma globulins
119. CML
120. Type 2
121. ferritin
122. Serum ferritin
123. Haptoglobin

124. Ewing sarcoma

125. CD14
=-=-=-=-

CNS FIRST AID

1. Astrocyte marker ?
2. Micro glia origin?
3. Free nerve endings sense??
4. Invests single nerve fibre?
5. Norepinephrine ---location os synthesis???
6. Circadian rhythm nucleus ??
7. Trigeminal and gustatory pathway relay by which thalamic nucleus??
8. Destruction of which centre causes hyperphaiga?
9. Input nerves in cerebellum?
10. Name deepest nuclei of cerebellum? Lateral to medial
11. Striatum?
12. Direct pathway has ? D1/D2
13. Cogwheel rigidity seen in?
14. Chorea is characteristic of ??
15. Essential tremors are treated by?
16. Hemiballismus characteristic of which lesion?
17. KLver bucy syndrome? Area of lesion and features?
18. Wernickie kosrakoff syndrome involves which thalamic nucleus?
19. Frontal eyes field lesion?? Eyes look toward / away?
20. Acute paralysis , dysarthria , Diplopia, and loss of consciousness ?? Disease and common
cause?
21. Non fluent aphasia with intact comprehension? Area involved
22. ------ connects broca with wornicke areas?
23. Cerebral perfusion is normally driven by?
24. Common site of berry aneurysm with CNIII palsy?
25. Contralateral Hemiperesis , dec contralateral proprioreception and ipsilateral hypoglosal
dysfunction?? Cause
26. Charcoat Bouchard microaneurysms associated with?
27. CT shows bi convex disk not crossing suture line??? What hemorrhage is this ?
28. Hemorrhage most commonly caused by systemic HTN ?
29. In ischemic brain disease ??? Irreversible damage occurs after how much time?
30. Brief reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction lasting fewer than 24 hours ??
31. CSF is made by-----? And reabsorbed by -----?
32. Clinical triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus?
33. Nerves C1-C7 exist via ???
34. Subarachnoid space extends to?
35. 1st order neuron of spinothalamic tract are in?
36. Dorsal column decussates in ?
37. Poliomyelitis cause destruction of what part on spinal cord?
38. Floppy baby at Birth? Disease?

39. Treatment for Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis ?

40. Ipsilateral UMN sign below lesion, ipsilateral loss of tactile , vibration below lesion and
contralateral pain temperature loss below lesion? Disease
41. Dermatome at nipple?
42. Movement of head toward one side if cheek or mouth is stroked ? Name reflex
43. Inferior collilculi associated with??
44. Pineal gland secretes?
45. Eye movement , pupillary constriction and accommodation is function of which CN?
46. Cranial nerve nuclei located in which portion of brain?
47. Motor innervation of pharynx, larynx and upper esophagus ? Nucleus involves?
48. Foramen ovale contains which nerve??
49. Hearing and balance controlled by which nerve?
50. Structure passing through jugular foramen ??
51. Cavernous sinus syndrome?? Feature?
52. CNX lesion? Uvula deviates ---- from side of lesion ?
53. Bell's palsy involve which nerve?
54. 3 muscles closes jaw... Name them?
55. Epinephrine contraindicated in which glaucoma?
56. Patient problem going downstairs ?? Nerve injured?
57. Silent painless glaucoma ?
58. Right optic tract lesion causes??
59. Alzheimer's disease most commonly associated with?
60. Parkinsonism with dementia??
61. Charcoat classic triad of MS???
62. Gold standard investigation for MS?
63. In GBS what step is most critical for treatment and survival?
64. Metachromatic leukodystrophy is commonly due to which deficiency?
65. Drug of choice for absence seizures?
66. Partial seizures most commonly originate due to which lobe ??
67. Headache most commonly due to irritation of??
68. Worst headache of my life???
69. Port wine stains are seen in ?
70. Cafe -au- lait spots and lisch nodules seen in which disease?
71. Von HIPPLE LINDAU syndrome is due to defect in which chromosome?
72. Majority of childhood primary tumors are ?? Supra/ infra tentorial?
73. Fried eggs seen in which brain tumor?
74. Psamomma bodies seen in which brain Tumor??
75. Basal ciliary bodies seen in?
76. Herniation can compress which cerebral artery??
77. Most common cause of ring enhancing lesion?
78. Browning of iris is side effect of which drug?
79. opoid toxicity is treated with?
80. Maintenance programme for opoid addicts done by?
81.1st line drug for trigeminal neurolgia?
82. 1st line drug for eclampsia?
83. Gingival hyperplasia side effect of which epileptic drug?

84. Barbiturates facilitate GABA A action by ????

85. Benzodiazepine toxicity treated by?
86. Which inhaled anesthetic is hepatotoxic?
87. Most common drug used for endoscopy?
88. Drug used for rapid anesthesia induction and short procedures?
89. Local anesthetic causing severe cardiovascular toxicity?
90. Drug used in malignant hyperthermia?
91. Parkinson disease is due to loss of ----neurons??
92. Anti parkinson drug also used against influenza A ??
93. Selegiline selectively inhibits ??
94. Sumatriptan contraindicated with?
95. Haloperidol is antagonist of which receptor?
96. Cough suppressor opoid?
97. Brain tumor causing polycythemia ??
98. Most common childhood supratentorial tumor?
99. 3rd most common primary brain tumor in adult??
100. Butterfly glioma seen in??
101. Muscle which opens the jaw?
102. What is the test used for CN XI injury?
103. Contralateral paralysis of lower face only?? Which type of lesion os it?
104 Nissle substance are not present in?
105. Taste sensation from posterior 1/3 rd of tongue is carried by which nerve ?
106. Perinaud syndrome causes paralysis of which gaze??
107. Patellar reflex root value?
108. Fredreich ataxia has repeat disorder of which gene ?
109. Tabes dorsalis is consequence of ??
110. In syringomyelia what is damaged ?
111. Adult spinal cord extends upto???
112. Lateral ventricles connects with 3 ventricle through?
113. Hemorrhagic stroke is often due to ??
114. Shaken baby cAn lead to which intracranial hemorrhage?
115. Sub arachnoid hemorrhage treated with?
116. Nucleus ambiguous effects are specific to which artery stroke?
117. Wernickie area is in which gyrus?
118. Slow writhling movements specially of fingers ???
119. Lewy bodies composed of?
120. Neurophysis secretes ??
121. Ach location of synthesis ?
122. Paccinian corpuscles senses
123. Glassopharyngeal nerve motor supply to which muscle ?
124. Pseudoptosis seen in whic nerve injury ?
125. Hypoglosal nerve supply all muscle of tongue except ?
126. Clarke nucleus are found in which spinal cord tract ?
127. Largest nucleus of midbrain ?
128. Excitatory transmitter in cerebellum?
129. Pupillary light reflex centre ??

130. Most common cns complication after sarcoidosis ??

131. Nucleus interposed name of which nuclei?
132. In Wilson disease , which part of basal ganglion is suffered ?
133. Marcus gunn pupil diagnosis made by?
134. Searching movements involved which eye field ?
135. Which thalamic nuclei are involved in arousal?
136. Epithalamus consist of ?
137. Pinealocytes synthesizes ? Name 3 substance
138. Cells of betz are present in which cortex?
139. Lesion of prefrontal lobe produces which syndrome?
140. Hippocampus is characterized by how many layers ?
KEYS
1. Astrocyte marker ? GFAP
2. Micro glia origin? Mesoderm
3. Free nerve endings sense?? Pain and temperature
4. Invests single nerve fibre? Endoneuroum
5. Norepinephrine ---location os synthesis??? Locus ceruleus
6. Circadian rhythm nucleus ?? Supra chiasmatic
7. Trigeminal and gustatory pathway relay by which thalamic nucleus?? VPL
8. Destruction of which centre causes hyperphaiga? Ventromedial
9. Input nerves in cerebellum? Climbing and mossy fibres
10. Name deepest nuclei of cerebellum? Lateral to medial? Dentate, emboli form, globos ,
festigial
11. Striatum? Putamen+ caudate
12. Direct pathway has ? D1/D2?? Ans=D1
13. Cogwheel rigidity seen in? Parkisnson disease
14. Chorea is characteristic of ?? Basala ganglia
15. Essential tremors are treated by? B- blockers
16. Hemiballismus characteristic of which lesion? Sub thalamus
17. KLver bucy syndrome? Area of lesion and features? Amygdala------ hyperorality
Hyperphaiga and hyper sexuality
18. Wernickie kosrakoff syndrome involves which thalamic nucleus? Dosro medial nucleus
19. Frontal eyes field lesion?? Eyes look toward / away? Ans= Towards lesion
20. Acute paralysis , dysarthria , Diplopia, and loss of consciousness ?? Disease and common
cause? Central pontine myelenosis------ due to very rapid correction of hyponatremia
21. Non fluent aphasia with intact comprehension? Area involved? Broca area
22. ------ connects broca with wornicke areas? Arcuate fasciculus
23. Cerebral perfusion is normally driven by? PCO2
24. Common site of berry aneurysm with CNIII palsy? Posterior communicating artery
25. Contralateral Hemiperesis , dec contralateral proprioreception and ipsilateral hypoglosal
dysfunction?? Cause?? Anterior spinal artery
26. Charcoat Bouchard microaneurysms associated with? Chronic HTN
27. CT shows bi convex disk not crossing suture line??? What hemorrhage is this ? Epidural
hemorrhage
28. Hemorrhage most commonly caused by systemic HTN ? Intraparynchymal hemorrhage

29. In ischemic brain disease ??? Irreversible damage occurs after how much time? > 5 minutes
30. Brief reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction lasting fewer than 24 hours ?? Transient
ischemic attack
31. CSF is made by-----? And reabsorbed by -----? Choroid plexus----- arachnoid granulation
32. Clinical triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus? Dementia , ataxia and urinary incontience
33. Nerves C1-C7 exist via ??? Intervertebral foramina
34. Subarachnoid space extends to? Lower border of S2
35. 1st order neuron of spinothalamic tract are in? Cell body in the dorsal root ganglion
36. Dorsal column decussates in ? Medulla
37. Poliomyelitis cause destruction of what part on spinal cord? Ant horn of spinal cord
38. Floppy baby at Birth? Disease? Werding Hoffman disease
39. Treatment for Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis ? Riluzole
40. Ipsilateral UMN sign below lesion, ipsilateral loss of tactile , vibration below lesion and
contralateral pain temperature loss below lesion? Disease?? Brown Sequard syndrome
41. Dermatome at nipple? T4
42. Movement of head toward one side if cheek or mouth is stroked ? Name reflex?? Rooting
reflex
43. Inferior collilculi associated with?? Auditory
44. Pineal gland secretes? Melatonin
45. Eye movement , pupillary constriction and accommodation is function of which CN? III CN
46. Cranial nerve nuclei located in which portion of brain? Tegmentum
47. Motor innervation of pharynx, larynx and upper esophagus ? Nucleus involves? Nucleus
ambiguous
48. Foramen ovale contains which nerve?? Mandibular nerve
49. Hearing and balance controlled by which nerve? VIII CN
50. Structure passing through jugular foramen ?? IX X XI Jugular vein
51. Cavernous sinus syndrome?? Feature? Ophthalmoplegia , ophthalmic and maxillary sensory
loss
52. CNX lesion? Uvula deviates ---- from side of lesion ? Away
53. Bell's palsy involve which nerve? Facial nerve proper
54. 3 muscles closes jaw... Name them? Masseter , teMporalis and medial pterygoid
55. Epinephrine contraindicated in which glaucoma? Close angle glaucoma
56. Patient problem going downstairs ?? Nerve injured? CN IV
57. Silent painless glaucoma ? Open angle glaucoma
58. Right optic tract lesion causes?? Lt homononous hemianopia
59. Alzheimer's disease most commonly associated with? Down syndrome
60. Parkinsonism with dementia?? Lewy body dementia
61. Charcoat classic triad of MS??? Scanning speech , intentional termites , nystagmus
62. Gold standard investigation for MS? MRI
63. In GBS what step is most critical for treatment and survival? Respiratory support
64. Metachromatic leukodystrophy is commonly due to which deficiency? Arysulfate A def
65. Drug of choice for absence seizures? Ethosuxemide
66. Partial seizures most commonly originate due to which lobe ?? Medial temporal lobe
67. Headache most commonly due to irritation of?? Dura matter
68. Worst headache of my life??? SAH
69. Port wine stains are seen in ? Sturge weber syndrome

70. Cafe -au- lait spots and lisch nodules seen in which disease? NF1 (Von ricklenghausan
disease)
71. Von HIPPLE LINDAU syndrome is due to defect in which chromosome? Chromosome 3
72. Majority of childhood primary tumors are ?? Supra/ infra tentorial??? Ans=Infra tentorial
73. Fried eggs seen in which brain tumor? Oligodendrocyte
74. Psamomma bodies seen in which brain Tumor?? Meningeoma
75. Basal ciliary bodies seen in?Ependymoma
76. Herniation can compress which cerebral artery?? Anterior cerebral artery
77. Most common cause of ring enhancing lesion? Mutation
78. Browning of iris is side effect of which drug? Latanoprosate
79. opoid toxicity is treated with? Naloxone/naltrexone
80. Maintenance programme for opoid addicts done by? Methadone
81.1st line drug for trigeminal neurolgia? Carbamazepine
82. 1st line drug for eclampsia? Mgso4
83. Gingival hyperplasia side effect of which epileptic drug? Phenytoin
84. Barbiturates facilitate GABA A action by ???? Inc duration of Cl channel
85. Benzodiazepine toxicity treated by? Flumazinil
86. Which inhaled anesthetic is hepatotoxic? Halothane
87. Most common drug used for endoscopy? Midazolam
88. Drug used for rapid anesthesia induction and short procedures? Propofol
89. Local anesthetic causing severe cardiovascular toxicity? Bupvicaine
90. Drug used in malignant hyperthermia? Dantrolene
91. Parkinson disease is due to loss of ----neurons?? Dopaminergic neuron
92. Anti parkinson drug also used against influenza A ?? Amantadine
93. Selegiline selectively inhibits ?? MAO-B
94. Sumatriptan contraindicated with? CAD/ prinzmetal angina
95. Haloperidol is antagonist of which receptor? Dopamine receptor
96. Cough suppressor opoid? Dextromethorphan
97. Brain tumor causing polycythemia ?? Hemangioastoma
98. Most common childhood supratentorial tumor? Craniophayngioma
99. 3rd most common primary brain tumor in adult?? Schwannoma
100. Butterfly glioma seen in?? Glioblastoma multiforme
101. Muscle which opens the jaw? Lateral pterygoid
102. What is the test used for CN XI injury? Syrengiomyelia
103. Contralateral paralysis of lower face only?? Which type of lesion os it? UMN lesion
104 Nissle substance are not present in? Axon
105. Taste sensation from posterior 1/3 rd of tongue is carried by which nerve ? IX CN
106. Perinaud syndrome causes paralysis of which gaze?? Conjugate vertical gaze
107. Patellar reflex root value? L3-L4
108. Fredreich ataxia has repeat disorder of which gene ? GAA( fraxatin gene)
109. Tabes dorsalis is consequence of ?? Tertiary syphillis
110. In syringomyelia what is damaged ? Ant white commissure of spinothalamic tract
111. Adult spinal cord extends upto??? Lower border of L2
112. Lateral ventricles connects with 3 ventricle through? Foramina monrro
113. Hemorrhagic stroke is often due to ?? HTN, anti coagulation and cancer
114. Shaken baby cAn lead to which intracranial hemorrhage? Sub dural hemorrhage

115. Sub arachnoid hemorrhage treated with? Nimodipine

116. Nucleus ambiguous effects are specific to which artery stroke? PICA
117. Wernickie area is in which gyrus? Sup temporal gyrus
118. Slow writhling movements specially of fingers ??? Atethosis
119. Lewy bodies composed of? Alpha- synnyclein
120. Neurophysis secretes ?? ADH and OXYTOCIN
121. Ach location of synthesis ? Basal nuclei of mynart
122. Paccinian corpuscles senses? Vibration and pressure
123. Glassopharyngeal nerve motor supply to which muscle ? Stylopharyngeus
124. Pseudoptosis seen in which nerve injury ? 6CN abducent
125. Hypoglosal nerve supply all muscle of tongue except ? Palatoglossus
126. Clarke nucleus are found in which spinal cord tract ? Dorsal spinocerebellar tract
127. Largest nucleus of midbrain ? Substantia nigra
128. Excitatory transmitter in cerebellum? Glutamate
129. Pupillary light reflex centre ?? Pretectal nucleus
130. Most common cns complication after sarcoidosis ?? Facial nerve paralysis
131. Nucleus interposed name of which nuclei? Globos and emboliform
132. In Wilson disease , which part of basal ganglion is suffered ? Putamen
133. Marcus gunn pupil diagnosis made by? Swinging flash light
134. Searching movements involved which eye field ? Searching --- frontal eye field
Tracking ------ occipital eye field
135. Which thalamic nuclei are involved in arousal?midline/ intralaminar
136. Epithalamus consist of ? Pineal body and habenular nuclei
137. Pinealocytes synthesizes ? Name 3 substance ?Melatonin, serotonin and CCK ref kaplan(
453)
138. Cells of betz are present in which cortex? Primary motor cortex
139. Lesion of prefrontal lobe produces which syndrome? Frontol lobe syndrome
140. Hippocampus is characterized by how many layers ? 3 layers
=-=-=-

FIRST AID PATHOLOGY

1. Leading cause of death due to poisoning?
2. CO poisoning inhibit which enzyme?
3. Name mitochondrial toxins ?
4. Most susceptible to hypoxia in nephron?
5. Irreversible damage to neuron occurs after ----- minutes of global hypoxia?
6. Most destructive free radicals?
7. Which vitamin is the best neutralizer of free radical?
8. Marker of intermediate filament degradation?
9. Mallory bodies are present in ?
10. Acetaminophen free radicals are formed in?
11. Wear and tear pigment?
12. Hemosedrin laden macrophages present in left sides heart failure are called?
13. What is called green bile ?
14. Disordered cell growth is calle ?

15. Examples of permanent cells?

16. Most common cause of caseous necrosis?
17. Programmed cell death is called?
18. Guardian of genome is?
19. Which is specific for pancreatitis?
20. Heterophagy is seen in which cell organelle?
21. Cerebral infarct is example of?
22. What is called red bile?
23. Extrinsic pathway in apoptosis require?
24. In lead poisoning lead deposits in?
25. Only endogenous pigment?
26. Which metaplasia occurs in brain?
27. Most susceptible zone in hypoxia of hepatocyte ?
28. Oxidase reaction produce which radicals?
29. Primary lysosomes are derived from ?
30. Lewy body seen in ?
31. Most common cause of tissues hypoxia?
32. Most common site for metastatic calcification? Kidney
33. Vitamin as an antioxidant?
34. Central organ in apoptosis?
35. Caspases are involved in which phenomenon?
36. Female had silicon breast implant which was then removed , wich cells would be numerous ?
37. Omental necrosis is of which type?
38. Superimposed infection on necrosis is called ?
39. Metaplasia of surface epithelium most commonly causes by?
40. In our country the most common cause of cell injury is ?
41. Immediate affect after injury to a vessel is ?
41. Major circulating phagocyte?
42. Most important chemical mediator of inflammation?
43. Clearance of neutrophils in acute inflammation is by?
44. Neutrophil leucocytosis is caused by?
45. The hallmark of acute inflammation is increased ?
46. Acute phase reactants mostly synthesized in?
47. Most common cause of skin abscess?
48. Hall mark of chronic inflammation?
49. Kininogen converts into bradykinin due to?
50. Prostaglandin that helps in protection of gastrointestinal mucosa is??
51. Prostacyclin is produced by?
52. Fever in inflammation is caused by ?
53. ICAM and VCAM are responsible for ?
54. Most common cause of increases permeability?
55. Chemotaxis is a feature of ?
56. Most common cause of hyperkalemia?
57. Virchows triad?
58. Pulmonary thromboembolism originate from?
59. Best indicator of tissues hypoxia?

60. Most common cause of respiratory acidosis ?

61. Cushing triad?
62.most common manifestation of septic patient is ?
63. Most important distinguishing feature if hypo volumic and septic shock is ?
64. Last mediator of endo toxic shock ?
65. Death due to embolism after accident ?
66. Severe generalized Edema is called ?
67. Which vitamin involved in synthesis of collagen?
68. Keyloid is excess of which type of collagen?
69. Corticosteroid inc which wbc?
70. The hallmark of healing?
71. The element act as cofactor in collagen synthesis is?
72. Polyclonal gammopathy is sign of ?
73. The liver contain stem cells in?
74. Most important cells for wound contraction is?
75. Resistance to tension in main function of which collagen?
76. Liver regenerates in how many days?
77. Most common cause of impaired wound healing?
78. Cells increasing in number
Is called?
79. Grading of tumor is done by?
80. Sarcoma involves which origin?
81. Down syndrome is associated with which malignancy?
82. Most common metastatic cancer to bone?
83. Barrets esophagous associated with ?
84. Bcl-2 gene associated with which tumor ?
85. Ret gene associated with which tumor?
86. Li fraumani syndrome associated with which gene?
87. Colorectal carcinoma associated with which gene?
88. TRAP is tumor marker of?
89. S-100 tumor marker of?
90. Calcitonin tumor marker of?
91. Disease associated with asbestosis?
92. Vinyl chloride associated with which disease ?
93. ACTH like peptide are secreted by which tumor?
94. Name disease associated with Psamomma bodies?
95. Most common site of metastasis ?
96. Most common cancer related death?
97. Alkylating agents associated with which malignancy?
98. Polycythemia is associated with which carcinoma?
99. CA-125 tumor marker of ?
100. HTLV-1 virus associated cancer is?
101. Rb gene associated with which 2 tumors?
102. Dysplastic navus associated with which neoplasm?
103. Cachexia is mediated by?
104. c-kit gene associated tumor is?

105. Staging of tumor is done by?

106. Malignancy of skeletal muscle is called ?
107. Term carcinoma implies which origin?
108. Tumor involving all germs layers called?
109. DPC gene associated tumor?
110. Bombesin tumor marker of?
111. Poly cystic kidney disease is which Mendelian genetic disorder?
112. Known cause of congenital anomalies are ?
113. Most common autosomal recessive disorder is ?
114. First 4 weeks of life is called which period?
115. Which disease is commonly associated with down syndrome in younger age?
116. Mitochondrial DNA disorder is associated with ------ inheritance?
117. Barr body is attached to which part of cell?
118. Most common cause of neonatal death?
119. Cataract is caused by which infection during pregnancy?
120. XXY genotype is of ??
121. Best way to identify Turner syndrome?
122. Achondroplasia is associated with ??
123. Pt with primary amenorrhea, webbed neck , short stature.... What is Karyotype?
124. Allele is which type of gene ?
125. Triple marker for Down syndrome are??
126. Scanty Barr body ??
127. Most common type of Mendelian disorder is?
128. Most common X linked disorder is ?
129. Highest caloric value is of ?
130. Beriberi is due to which vit def?
131. Most common pathogen causing congenital infection is ?
132. Vit A used in treatment of?
133. The most common source of vit k is ?
134. Name essential fatty acids?
135. Tryptophan is used in synthesis of?
136. Ionization radiation damages which part of cell?
137. Most frequent type of cancer caused by radiation?
138. Nicotine patch is in treating of??
139. Most common drowning is ?
140. What is the most important factor determining daily energy expenditure ?
141. Most common cause of death in anorexia nervosa ?
142. First hematological sign in total body radiation?
143. Most common systemic complication of IV drug abuser?
144. Which element is use in diabetes?
145. Sepsis in burn patient is due to ?
146. Goat milk lacks in?
147. Gene which is defective in obesity?
148. Rat poisons contain which derivative?
149. Corn based diets are deficient in?
150. Which current os more dangerous?

151. What metabolite of nicotine used for screening?

152. Cofactor in conversion of dopamine to nor epinephrine?
153. Most common UV B light related cancer?
154. Vomiting in bulemia nervosa produces ----------- alkalosis?
155. What complication occurs in shaken baby syndrome?
156. Which bile acid is not reabsorbed in terminal and has role in producing colorectal cancer?
157. 1st sign of vitamin A deficiency?
158. What is least sensitive to radiation?
159. Avidin in raw eggs bind with ?
160. Ulcer that may develop in burn tissue is ?
161. Bergers disease is strongly associated with ?
162. Pellagra is due to ----deficiency?
163. Name far soluble vitamins?
164. Sarcoma is derived of ?
165. Non neoplastic tissue in foreign origin?
166. ----- is a neoplastic component and ------ is non neoplastic component?
167. Benign tumors are enclosed by fibrinous capsule except?
168. Sarcomas spread through ------- and carcinomas through-------commonly?
169. Glioblastoma multiforme seeds in??
170. Most common cancer in children is ?
171. Most common type of mutation in cancer is ?
172. Most common anemia in cancer?
173. Most common pata neoplastic syndrome?
174. Carcinoma which invade tissues but dosen't metastasize?
175. Virus cause cancer because they have ??
176. Which of the following is the most radio sensitive phase of cell cycle?
177. Most radiosensitive tumor is ?
178. Tumor involving lymph vessels is called ?
179. Slowest growing thyroid tumor?
180. Radiation usually cause cancer after -----years??
GENERAL PATHOLOGY ANSWERS
1. CO poisoning
2. Cytochrome oxidase.
3. Alcohol and salicylate
4. Proximal tubule
5. 5 min
6. Hydroxyl free radicals
7. Vit C
8. Ubiquitine
9. Alcoholic liver disease
10. Liver
11. Lipofuschin
12. Heart failure cells
13. Biliverdin
14. Dysplasia

15. Neurons, skeletal and cardiac muscle cells

16. TB
17. Apoptosis
18. P53
19. Lipase
20. Lysosomes
21. Liquifactve infarct
22. Bilirubin
23. TNF
24. Proximal renal tubule
25. Melanin
26. No metaplasia occurs in brain
27. Zone 3
28. Superoxide free radicals
29. Golgi apparatus
30. Idiopathic parkinson disease
31. Ischemia
32. Kidney
33. Vit E
34. Mitochondria
35. Apoptosis
36. Plasma cells
37. Fat necrosis
38. Wet gangrene
39. Chronic irritation.
40. Ischemia
41. Vasoconstriction
41. Neutrophil
42. Histamine
43. Apoptosis
44. Catecholamines , corticosteroids and lithium
45. Vascular permeability.
46. Liver
47. Staph aureus
48. Tissue destruction
49. Hageman factor
50. PGE2
51. Endothelial cells
52. IL1 and TNF-a
53. Leukocyte adhesion
54. Inflammation
55. Acute inflammation
56. Renal failure
57. Endothelial injury, abnormal blood flow and hypercoagubility
58. Femoral vein
59. Mixed venous O2

60. Anxiety
61. Inc bp, HTN, bradycardia
62. Hypotension
63. Temperature
64. IL6
65. Fat embolism
66. Anasarca
67. Vit c
68. Type 3
69. Neutrophils
70. Granulation tissue
71. Zinc
72. Chronic inflammation
73. Canal of hering
74. Myocibroblasts
75. Type 1 collagen
76. 10-14 days
77. Infections
78. Hyperplasia
79. Degree of cellular differentiation on histological appearance
80. Mesenchymal
81. ALL
82. Breast
83. Esophageal adenocarcinoma
84. Follicular lymphoma
85. MEN IIA and IIB
86. P53
87. APC
88. Hairy cell leukemia
89. Melanoma, astrocytoma
90. Thyroid medullary carcinoma
91. Mesothelioma and Bronchogenic carcinoma
92. Angiosarcoma
93. Small cell lung carcinoma
94. Papillary ca of thorid, serous papillary cystadebocarcinoma of ovary, meningioma, malignant
mesothelioma
95. Lymph nodes
96. Lung carcinoma
97. Leukemia
98. RCC
99. Ovarian carcinoma
100. Adult T cell leukemia/ lymphoma
101. Retinoblastoma and osteosarcoma
102. Malignant melanoma
103. TNF-a
104. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)

105. Degree of localization/spread based on site and size

106. Rhabdomyosarcoma
107. Epithelial origin
108. Teratoma
109. Pancreatic cancer
110. Neuroblastoma, lung and gastric cancer
111. Autosomal dominant
112. Multifacrorial
113. Hemochromatosis
114. Neonatal period
115. Alzheimer's diseas
116. Maternal
117. Nuclear membrane
118. Prematurity
119. Rubella
120. Klinefelter syndrome
121. Karyotyping
122. Inc paternal age
123. XO
124. Non identical gene
125. Dec AFP, inc HCG , dec uterine estriol
126. Controversial .. I m with Turner syndrome
127. Autosomal recessive
128. fragile X syndrome
129. Fat
130. Vit B 1( thiamine)
131. CMV
132. Acne and acute premyelocytic leukemia
133. Colonic bacteria
134. Linoleic acid and linolenic acid
135. Niacin
136. DNA
137. Acute leukemia
138. Ulcerative colitis
139. Wet drowning
140. BMR
141. Ventricular arrhythmia
142. Lymphopenia
143. Hep B
144. Chromium
145. Pseudomonas aeroginosa
146. Folate and pyridoxine
147. Leptin
148. Coumarin
149. Tryptophan and niacin
150. AC current

151. Cotinine
152. Vit C
153. Basal cell carcinoma
154. Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
155. Retinal hemorrhage
156. Lithocholic acid
157. Night blindness
158. Bone
159. Biotin
160. Marjolin ulcer
161. Smoking
162. Niacin deficiency
163. ADEK
164. Connective tissue
165. Choristoma
166. Parenchyma , stroma
167. Uterine leiomyoma
168. Haematogenous ,, lymphatics
169. CSF
170. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
171. Point mutation
172. Anemia of chronic disease
173. Hypercalcemia
174. Basal cell carcinoma
175. Oncogene
176. M phase
177. Lymph node
178. Cystic hygroma
179. Papillary carcinoma
180. 5-10 years
=-=-=

FIRS AID BIOCHEMISTRY

1. DNA October subunit contain which main amino acids?
2. What inactivates transcription of DNA?
3. Deamination of cytosine makes?
4. The only histone that is not on the nucleosome core?
5. Hydroxy urea inhibits?
6. Amino acids necessary for purine synthesis ?
7. Leach- Nyhan syndrome is the absence of??
8. Change resulting in early stop codon.... Which mutation type?
9. Unwinding of DNA template at replication fork is done by enzyme name as ?
10. Mismatch repair is mutated in which disease??
11. Non homologous end joining repair is mutated in disease?
12. Smallest RNA Is?

13. Name the stop codons?

14. ------ inhibits RNA polymerase II ?
15. Longest RNA ? Longest type
16. Name start codon?
17. Patients with lupus make antibodies to ?
18. ----- contains actual genetic information coding for protein?
19. Most abundant RNA ?
20. Rb and P53 inhibits?
21. Permanent cells remain in which phase of cell cycle?
22. Nissl bodies contain?
23. Liver hepatocytes and steroid hormone producing cells if adrenal cortex are rich in?
24. Labile cells never goes to which phase of cell cycle ?
25. The distribution centre of protein and lipids from the ER to the plasma is?
26. Long chain fatty acids are metabolized in ?
27. Retrograde to micro tubule transport is feature of which type of micro tubule?
28. In cilia microtubule arrangement is?
29. Immotike cilia due to dynein arm defect .... Syndrome?
30. Stain for connective tissue?
31. ------- inhibits NA-K pump by binding to K site?
32. Skin contain which type of collagen?
33. Type of collagen defective in osteogenesis imperfecta?
35. Hydroxylation of proline and lysine requires?
36. Cleavage of terminal regions of procollagen transforms it into insoluble?
37. Other name of brittle bone disease? Osteogenesis imperfecta
38. Late wound repair contain wich collagen?
39. Ehlar danlos syndrome is defective is which collagen?
40. Fibrillin defect is in which syndrome ?
41. Wrinkles of aging are due to .......... And .........?
42. Defective collagen in Alport syndrome?
43. Neither of 2 alleles is dominent....term??
44. Severity of disease worsens or age of onset of disease is earlier in succeeding generation?
45. Heteroplasmy is seen in which inherited disease ?
46. Random X inactivation in females is called as ?
47. Imrinting is due to activation or deletion of genes on chromosome number?
46. Happy puppet in which syndrome?
47. Structural defect are inherited by which pattern ?
48. Ragged red fibres are characteristic of?
49. Mitochondrial myopathies are ?
50. Tendon xanthoma classically seen in ?
51. Hereditary spherocytosis are due to defect in ?
52. Huntington gene is located in which chromosome ?
53. Another name of neurofibromatosis type 1?
54. Ash leaf spots are seen in?
55. APKD is associated with which chromosome ?
56. Grower maneuver is characteristic of ?
57. Longest known human gene?

58. In cystic fibrosis which gene is defective?

59. Test diagnostic for cystic fibrosis is?
60. 2nd most common cause of mental retardation?
61. Trinucleotide repeat in Fredreich ataxia?
62. Rocker bottom feet + micrognathia are seen in which?
63. Most common chromosomal disorder ?
64. Most common trisomy resulting in live birth after Down syndrome?
65. Patau syndrome is trisomy number?
66. Cri-du-chat syndrome is congenital micro deletion of chromosome number ?
67. Distinctive ELFIN facies are seen in which syndrome?
68. Diegeorge syndrome is has defects of???
69. Which vitamin is contraindicated in pregnancy?
70. High cardiac outOut is feature of which vit deficiency?
71. Name 3 D's of pellagra?
72. Vitamin used as cofactor on transamination?
73. Test used to detect the etiology of the deficiency?
74. Vitamin that can increase iron toxicity ?
75. Delayed wound healing, hypogonadism , dec adult hair and anosmia are features of which
element deficiency?
76. Cofactor for enzymes in decarboxylation reaction?
77. Malignant carcinoid syndrome caused b deficiency of vitamin?
78. Vitamin necessary for dopamine beta-hydroxylase?
79. Fomipezole inhibits ?
80. Alcohol dehydrogenase operates via which order kinetics?
81. Anaerobic metabolism of glucose produces -------ATP via malate aspartate shuttle?
82. NAD+ is used in -------reactions ?
83. Phosphorylation of glucose in liver is catalyzed by?
84. Lipoic acid is inhibited by ??
85. Name the only purely ketogenic amino acids?
86. Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency causes which defects?
87. Pyruvate metabolite --------- carries amino groups to liver from muscle ?
88. ATPsynthase inhibitors that directly inhibit mitochondrial ATP synthase ???
89. ------ chain fatty acids produce new glucose???
90. Muscle cannot participate in gluconeogenesis because it lacks ???
91. NADPH required for which reactions ?
92. NADPH oxidase deficiency leads to which disease ?
93. Most common human enzyme deficiency?
94. Fructose intolerance is due to hereditary deficiency of enzyme?
95. Lens deficient in which enzyme that causes sorbitol accumulation ?
96. Which form of amino acid found in protein?
97. Most basic amino acid?
98. At body pH which amino acid has no charge?
99. Which amino acids are required during periods of growth?
100. Catecholamines are derivative of which amino acid?
101. Heme derivative of which amino acid?
102.musty body odor is due to which deficiency?

103. Alkaptonuria is congenital deficiency of ?

104. Amino acids involved in maple syrup urine disease??
105. Cardiomegaly is finding of which glycogen storage disease?
106. The enzyme deficient in Von Gierke's disease is ?
107. Most common lysosomal storage disease?
108. Cherry red spot with no Splenomegaly ?
109. All lysosomal storage disease are AR except?
110. Zebra bodies are seen in ?
111. Fruity odor smell is due to which ketone body?
112. Glycogen stores are depleted after how many days of starvation?
113. Main source of energy after 3 days starvation for brain and heart Is?
114. Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis is ?
115. Why Rbc cannot use ketone?
116. LDL transport cholesterol from------ to -------?
117. Cholymicrons are secreted by?
118. Abeta lipoproteinemia os due to deficiency of ???
119. Treatment of cystineuria is ??
120. Melatonin is derivative of which amino acid???
KEYS
BIOCHEMISTRY
1. LYSINE and ARGININE
2. Hypermethylation
3. Uracil
4. H1
5. Ribonucleotide reductase
6. Glycine , aspartate and glutamine
7. HGPRT
8. Nonsense mutation
9. Helicase
10. Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC)
11. Ataxia talengectasia
12. tRNA
13. UGA, UAA, UAG
14. a- amantin(found in death cap mushrooms)
15. Longest type
16. AUG
17. Spliceosonal snRNPs
18. Exons
19. rRNA
20. G1-S
21. Go
22. RER
23. SER
24. Go
25. Golgi apprartus
26. Peroxisomes

27. Dyenin
28. Kartagener syndrome
30. Vimentin
31. Ouabain
32. Type 1
33. Type I
35. Vit C
36. Tropocollagen
37. Osteogenesis imperfecta
38. Type 1
39. Type III
40. Marfan syndrome
41. Reduced collagen and elastin production
42. Type IV
43. Codominance
44. Anticipation
45. Mitochondrial inherited disease
46. Lyonizatoin
47. 15
46. Angelman's syndrome
47. Autosomal dominent
48. Mitochondrial myopathy
49. Maternal / paternal
50. Achilles' tendon
51. Spectrinand ankrin
52. 4
53. Von recklinghausen's disease( chromosome 17)
54. Tuberous sclerosis
55. Ch. 16
56. Duchenne's dystrophy
57. Dystrophin gene
58. CFTR gene
59. Sweat test
60. Fragile X chromosome
61. (CAA)n
62. Edwards syndrome
63. Down syndrome
64. Edward syndrome
65. 13
66. 5
67. Williams syndrome
68. Thymic, parathyroid and cardiac
69. Vitamin A
70. Vit B1
71. Dementia , dermatitis and pellagra
72. Vit B6

73. Schilling test

74. Vit C
75. Zinc
76. Vit B1(thiamine)
77. Vitamin B3
78. Vit C
79. Alcohol dehydrogenase
80. Zero order
81. 32ATP
82. Anabolic / catabolic
83. Glucokinase
84. Arsenic
85. Lysine and leucine
86. Neurologic defects
87. Alanine
88. Oligomyicin
89. Odd
90. Glucose 6 phosphatase
91. reductive
92. Chronic granulomatous disease
93. G6PD deficiency
94. Aldolase B
95. Sorbitol dehydrogenase
96. L-form
97. ARGININE
98. Histidine
99. Arginine and histidine
100. Phenylalanine
101. Glycine
102. Dec phenylalanine hydroxylase
103. Homogenistic acid oxidase
104. Ile, Leu, Val
105. Pompe's disease
106. Glucose-6-phophatase
107. Gaucher
108. Tay Sachs disease
109. Fabrey's disease ( XR) and Hunter disease (XR)
110. Neimann-pick disease
111. Acetone
112. Day 1
113. Ketone bodies
114. HMG-CoA reductase
115. Lack of mitochondria
116. Liver - tissues
117. Intestinal epithelial cells
118. Apo-B100 and apoB-48

119. Acetazolamide
120. Tryptophan----->serotonin------> melatonin
=-=-=

UPPER LIMB ANATOMY

1. Mammary gland are specialized accessory gland of??
2. Nipples are surrounded by colored skin called?
3. Increase of breast size is mainly results due to?
4. Lateral thoracic artery and thoracoacromial artery is branch of?
5. Medial quadrant of breasts drain into ?
6. Name bones of the shoulder girdle?
7. What is the weakest part of clavicle?
8. Which part of humerus usually fractured?
9. Capitulum articulates with?
10. Most commonly fractured bone of body os ?
11. How many carpel bones are there?
12. Which nerve is compresses in carpel tunnel symdrome?
13. Medial colateral ligament is closely related with?
14. Elbow is which type of joint?
15. The carrying angle in females is?
16. Wrist is which type of joint?
17. Axilla is which shaped?
18. Latissimus dorsi is supplied by which nerve?
19. Deltoid is supplied by?
20. Name the muscles of rotator cuff?
21. Quadrangular area is bounded medially by?
22. Which nerve passes through quadrangular area??
23. Cubital fossa medial border formed by?
24. Brachialis muscle nerve supply is?
25. Interrosi muscles are supplied by?
26. In the palm deep fascia is thickened and is called?
27. Brachioradialia muscle is supplied by which nerve?
28. Which artery begins at the level of first rib?
29. Which muscle divides tha axillary artery into 3 parts?
30. 3rd part of axillary artery gives how many branches?
31. Name the branch of first part of axillary artery?
32. Brachial artery begins at?
33. Which nerves crosses the middle of brachial artery?
34. Deep palmar arch is formed by which artery?
35. Thoracoacromial artery is branch of ???
36. The ulnar artery enters the palm from which side of flexor retinaculum ?
37. Pectolaris major is supplied by whoch artery?
38. Basilic vein arises from which side of arm?
39. Which vein connects cephalic with basilic vein?
40. Which nodes recieve lymph from superficial vessels of lateral side of hand,arm , forearm ???

41. Which nodes recieve lymph from most of upper limb except lateral side?
42. Which lymph node recieve lymph from medial fingers, medial part of hand and the medial
side of forearm??
43. Musculocutaneous nerve arises from which cord of brachial plexus?
44. Root valcue of median nerve?
45. Root value of ulnar nerve?
46. Root value of axillary nerve?
47. Winged scapula is caused by damage of which nerve?
48. Wrist drop is caused by which nerve injury?
49. Claw hand is caused by which nerve injury?
50. The extensor indicis muscle is innervated by?
51. Spinal part of accessory nerve supplies?
52. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused hy compression of which nerve?
53. Sweat gland of upper limb are innervated by?
54. Which muscle is mainly responsible for first 15 degree of abduction by shoulder joint ?
55. Muscle that will compensate in part of paralysis of the supinator muscle is the?
Keys
1. Mammary gland are specialized accessory gland of?? Skin
2. Nipples are surrounded by colored skin called? Areola
3. Increase of breast size is mainly results due to? Deposition of adipose tissue?
4. Lateral thoracic artery and thoracoacromial artery is branch of? Axillary artery
5. Medial quadrant of breasts drain into ? Internal thoracic nodes
6. Name bones of the shoulder girdle? Clavicle and scapula
7. What is the weakest part of clavicle? Junction between the medial 2/3 and lateral 1/3
8. Which part of humerus usually fractured? Surgical neck
9. Capitulum articulates with? Head of radius
10. Most commonly fractured bone of body os ? Clavicle
11. How many carpel bones are there? Eight carpel bones
12. Which nerve is compresses in carpel tunnel symdrome? Median nerve
13. Medial colateral ligament is closely related with? Ulnar nerve
14. Elbow is which type of joint? Hinge joint
15. The carrying angle in females is? 167 degree
16. Wrist is which type of joint? Synovial condyloid joint
17. Axilla is which shaped? Pyramidal
18. Latissimus dorsi is supplied by which nerve? Thoracodorsal nerve
19. Deltoid is supplied by? Axillary nerve
20. Name the muscles of rotator cuff? Subscapularis, supraspinatus, infraspinatus and the teres
minor
21. Quadrangular area is bounded medially by? Long head of tricep
22. Which nerve passes through quadrangular area?? Axillary nerve
23. Cubital fossa medial border formed by? Pronater teres
24. Brachialis muscle nerve supply is? Musculoskeletal nerve
25. Interrosi muscles are supplied by? Ulnar nerve
26. In the palm deep fascia is thickened and is called? Palmar aponeurosis
27. Brachioradialia muscle is supplied by which nerve? Radial nerve

28. Which artery begins at the level of first rib? Axillary artery
29. Which muscle divides tha axillary artery into 3 parts? Pectoralis minor
30. 3rd part of axillary artery gives how many branches? 3 branches
31. Name the branch of first part of axillary artery? Highest thoracic artery
32. Brachial artery begins at? Lower border of teres major muscle
33. Which nerves crosses the middle of brachial artery? Median nerve
34. Deep palmar arch is formed by which artery? Radial artery
35. Thoracoacromial artery is branch of ??? Second part of axillary artery
36. The ulnar artery enters the palm from which side of flexor retinaculum ? From the front
37. Pectolaris major is supplied by whoch artery? Thoracoaromial artey
38. Basilic vein arises from which side of arm? Medial side
39. Which vein connects cephalic with basilic vein? Median cubital vein
40. Which nodes recieve lymph from superficial vessels of lateral side of hand,arm , forearm ???
Infraclavicular nodes
41. Which nodes recieve lymph from most of upper limb except lateral side? Lateral nodes
42. Which lymph node recieve lymph from medial fingers, medial part of hand and the medial
side of forearm?? Supratrochlear lymph node
43. Musculocutaneous nerve arises from which cord of brachial plexus? Lateral cord
44. Root valcue of median nerve? C5,6,7,8 and T1
45. Root value of ulnar nerve? C8 T1
46. Root value of axillary nerve? C5 and C6
47. Winged scapula is caused by damage of which nerve? Long thoracic nerve
48. Wrist drop is caused by which nerve injury? Radial nerve injury
49. Claw hand is caused by which nerve injury? Ulnar nerve
50. The extensor indicis muscle is innervated by? Deep branch of ulnar nerve
51. Spinal part of accessory nerve supplies? Sternocleidomastoid and trapiuz muscle
52. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused hy compression of which nerve? Median nerve
53. Sweat gland of upper limb are innervated by? Sympatheic postganglionic nerve fibres
54. Which muscle is mainly responsible for first 15 degree of abduction by shoulder joint ?
Supraspinatus muscle
55. Muscle that will compensate in part of paralysis of the supinator muscle is the bicep brachii
muscle
=-=-=

PELVIS PERINEUM ANATOMY

1. Word pelvis means??
2. Bony pelvis is composed of how many bones?
3. Below the brim is which pelvis? True or false pelvis??
4. Pelvic inlet bounded Posteriorly by?
5. During pregnancy the ligament of pelvis are relaxed by which hormones?
6. Pelvis is which shaped in males?
7. The distance between Ischial tuberosities measure about?
8. Anterior pelvic wall is formed by?
9. Obturator canal is a gap in?
10. Sacro spinous ligament is which shaped ?

11. Pelvic floor is formed by?

12. The pelvic diaphragm is incomplete on which side?
13. Which fascia is called parametrium in females?
14. Sacral plexus lies on posterior pelvic wall in front of which muscle?
15. Root value of sciatic nerve?
16. Gluteus medius muscle supplied by?
17. Root value of pudendal nerve?
18. Gluteus Maximus is supplied by?
19. Obturator nerve emerges from which border of psoas muscle?
20. Parietal peritonium on the lateral pelvic wall?
21. Pelvic splanchnic nerves arises from ?
22. Superior hypo gastric plexus is situated in?
23. Common iliac artery divides to external and internal at which point?
24. Deep circumflex iliac artery is branch of?
25. Upper portion of bladder is supplied by?
26. Artery to vas deferens arises from?
27. Obturator artery leaves the pelvis through?
28. Internal pudendal artery leaves the pelvis through?
29. Name the branches of posterior division of internal iliac artery?
30. Direct communication of the inferior mesenteric artery is?
31. Ovarian artery arises from abdominal aorta at the level of?
32. Median sacral artery arises at?
33. External iliac vein is continuation of?
34. The left ovarian vein drains into?
35. Length of sigmoid colon is?
36. Sigmoid colon is attached to pelvic wall by?
37. Rectum begins in front of which sacrum?
38. The lower part of rectum is dialated to form ??
39. In male ureters near termination is crossed by?
40. Ureter has how many constrictions?
41. Urinary bladder has maximum capacity of approximately?
42. Empty bladder is which shaped?
43. Apex of bladder connects with?
44. The neck of bladder point on which side?
45. Internal surface of bladder is called ?
46. The muscular coat of bladder is which muscle ?
47. In male neck of bladder Is held in position by which ligament?
48. Lymph drians from bladder in??
49. In females neck of bladder is attached by which ligament?
50. Approximate length of vas deferens is ?
51. Vas deferens joins the duct of seminal vesicle to form?
52. Ejaculatory duct open in which part of urethra?
53. Prostate surround which part of urethra?
54. Lymph drainage of prostate is into?
55. Which plexus supplies the prostate?
56. Ovary is attached to the back of ye broad ligament by?

57. Ovary is covered by modified area of peritonium called?

58. Ovary usually lies near the lateral wall of pelvis in a depression called?
59. Which ligament of the uterus is the remains of the lower part of Gubernaculum?
60. Lymph drainage of ovary is in?
61. After pregnancy ovaries may prolapse into?
62. Which is the narrowest part of the tube?
63. Widest part of the uterine tube is?
64. The cavity of cervix communicates with the cavity of the body through the?
65. Forward bending of the uterus on the long axis of vagina?
66. Ligament that attaches the cervix to pubic bones?
67. Lymph from fundus drains into?
68. Lower third of the vagina is supported by?
69. Vaginal artery is branch of?
70. Which plexus supplied the vagina?
71. The pelvic fascia in the region of the uterine cervix is often called?
72. Most inferior part of the peritoneal cavity is the?
73. The anterior triangle which contains the urogenital orifices is called?
74. The potential space that lies beneath the skin of the perinium is?
75. In males the superficial perineal pouch contains?
76. At the distal end of penis corpus spongiosum expands to form?
77. The bulb of penis is continuos Anteriorly with the?
78. The lymph of glans penis drains into?
79. Penis is supplied by which nerve?
80. Erectile tissue drains into?
81. The ducts of bulborethral glands open into which urethra?
82. Male urethra is divided in which parts?
83. Widest part of urethra is? Prostatic urethra
84. Which is the narrowest part of urethra?
85. Name the contents of vestibule of the vagina?
86. Shortest part of urethra is?
87. The cries of clitoris are covered by?
88. The length of female urethra is?
89. Upper half of the anal canal is supplied by?
90. The lower half of the anal canal is drained into ?
91. Pudendal nerve and the internal pudendal nerves lie in which canal?
92. The inferior rectal artery originates from the?
93. Then Obturator internus muscle recieved it's nerve supply from?
94. The sphincter urethrae recieved it's innervation from the?
95. The prostatic venous plexus drains into the?
96. In most women the Anatomic position of the uterus when bladder empty is?
97. Erections is the response of the activity of the?
98. Cancer of prostate can metastasize to the skull via the?
99. Malignant tumors of the trigone of the bladder metastasize to which of the following lymph
nodes?
100. The internal Anal sphincter recieves it's nerve supply from the?
101. Right testicular vein drains into?

102. Patient feels pain on defection. Nerve involved is?

103. When the bulbar urethra is injured, urine will leak into?
104. Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a boy?
105. Cervical carcinoma is drained by which lymph node?
106. Tumor of cervix will spread to labius majora via?
107. Ejaculatory duct opens into?
108. Carcinoma of prostate drains into?
109. During childbirth, a major bony landmark used for childbirth is the?
110. Female pelvis is also called?
111. What is the landmark for biscop scoring?
112. Weight bearing line passes through?
113. The branch of internal carotid artery which remains in true pelvis throughout its course is?
114. The accessory Obturator artery is a branch of?
115. To reach the uterus, uterine artery crosses the?
116. Scrotum drains to which lymph nodes?
117. Ductus deferens end in?
118. Dorsal vein of penis drains into which plexus?
119. The most fixed part of uterus is?
120. The only part of vagina to have peritoneal covering is?
Keys
1. Word pelvis means?? Basin
2. Bony pelvis is composed of how many bones? 4 bones ... Two hip, sacrum and coccyx
3. Below the brim is which pelvis? True or false pelvis?? True pelvis
4. Pelvic inlet bounded Posteriorly by? Sacral promontoryy
5. During pregnancy the ligament of pelvis are relaxed by which hormones? Estrogen,
progesterone and relaxin
6. Pelvis is which shaped in males? Heart shaped
7. The distance between Ischial tuberosities measure about? 4 inch
8. Anterior pelvic wall is formed by? Pubic bones , pubic rami and symphysis pubis
9. Obturator canal is a gap in? Obturator membrane
10. Sacro spinous ligament is which shaped ? Triangular
11. Pelvic floor is formed by? Pelvic diaphragm
12. The pelvic diaphragm is incomplete on which side? Anteriorly
13. Which fascia is called parametrium in females? Visceral pelvic fascia
14. Sacral plexus lies on posterior pelvic wall in front of which muscle? Piriformis muscle
15. Root value of sciatic nerve? L4-5, S123
16. Gluteus medius muscle supplied by? Superior gluteal nerve
17. Root value of pudendal nerve? S 2,3 and 4
18. Gluteus Maximus is supplied by? Inferior gluteal nerve
19. Obturator nerve emerges from which border of psoas muscle? Medial border
20. Parietal peritonium on the lateral pelvic wall? Obturator nerve
21. Pelvic splanchnic nerves arises from S2,3 and 4
22. Superior hypo gastric plexus is situated in? Front of promontory of the sacrum
23. Common iliac artery divides to external and internal at which point? In front of sacroiliac
joint

24. Deep circumflex iliac artery is branch of? External iliac artery
25. Upper portion of bladder is supplied by? Superior vesical artery
26. Artery to vas deferens arises from? Inferior vesical artery
27. Obturator artery leaves the pelvis through? Obturator canal
28. Internal pudendal artery leaves the pelvis through? Greater sciatic foramen
29. Name the branches of posterior division of internal iliac artery? Ilio lumber artery , lateral
sacral arteries and superior gluteal artery
30. Direct communication of the inferior mesenteric artery is? Superior rectal artery
31. Ovarian artery arises from abdominal aorta at the level of? First lumbar vertebra
32. Median sacral artery arises at? Bifurcation of aorta
33. External iliac vein is continuation of? Femoral vein
34. The left ovarian vein drains into? Left renal vein
35. Length of sigmoid colon is? 10-15 inches
36. Sigmoid colon is attached to pelvic wall by? Sigmoid mesocolol
37. Rectum begins in front of which sacrum? 3rd sacral vertebra
38. The lower part of rectum is dialated to form ?? Rectal ampulla
39. In male ureters near termination is crossed by? Vas deferens
40. Ureter has how many constrictions? 3 constrictions
41. Urinary bladder has maximum capacity of approximately? 500 ml
42. Empty bladder is which shaped? Pyramidal
43. Apex of bladder connects with? Median umbilical ligament
44. The neck of bladder point on which side? Inferiorly
45. Internal surface of bladder is called ? Trigone
46. The muscular coat of bladder is which muscle ? Detrussor muscle
47. In male neck of bladder Is held in position by which ligament? Puboprostatic ligament
48. Lymph drians from bladder in?? Internal and external lymph nodes
49. In females neck of bladder is attached by which ligament? Pubovesical ligament
50. Approximate length of vas deferens is ? 45cm
51. Vas deferens joins the duct of seminal vesicle to form? Ejaculatory duct
52. Ejaculatory duct open in which part of urethra? Prostatic part
53. Prostate surround which part of urethra? Prostatic part
54. Lymph drainage of prostate is into? Internal iliac nodes
55. Which plexus supplies the prostate? Inferior hypogastric plexus
56. Ovary is attached to the back of ye broad ligament by? Mesovarium
57. Ovary is covered by modified area of peritonium called? Germinal epithelium
58. Ovary usually lies near the lateral wall of pelvis in a depression called? Ovarian fossa
59. Which ligament of the uterus is the remains of the lower part of Gubernaculum? Round
ligament
60. Lymph drainage of ovary is in? Para aortic nodes
61. After pregnancy ovaries may prolapse into? Pouch of Douglas
62. Which is the narrowest part of the tube? Isthmus
63. Widest part of the uterine tube is? Ampulla
64. The cavity of cervix communicates with the cavity of the body through the? Internal os
65. Forward bending of the uterus on the long axis of vagina? Antiversion
66. Ligament that attaches the cervix to pubic bones? Pubicervical ligaments
67. Lymph from fundus drains into? Para aortic nodes

68. Lower third of the vagina is supported by? Perineal body

69. Vaginal artery is branch of? Internal iliac artery
70. Which plexus supplied the vagina? Inferior hypogastric plexus
71. The pelvic fascia in the region of the uterine cervix is often called? Parametrium
72. Most inferior part of the peritoneal cavity is the? Rectouterine pouch
73. The anterior triangle which contains the urogenital orifices is called? Urogenital triangle
74. The potential space that lies beneath the skin of the perinium is? Superficial perineal pouch
75. In males the superficial perineal pouch contains? Root of penis
76. At the distal end of penis corpus spongiosum expands to form? Glans penis
77. The bulb of penis is continuos Anteriorly with the? Corpus spongiosum
78. The lymph of glans penis drains into? Deep and external iliac nodes
79. Penis is supplied by which nerve? Pudendal nerve
80. Erectile tissue drains into? Internal iliac nodes
81. The ducts of bulborethral glands open into which urethra? Penile urethra
82. Male urethra is divided in which parts? Prostatic, membranous and penile urethra
83. Widest part of urethra is? Prostatic urethra
84. Which is the narrowest part of urethra? External meatus
85. Name the contents of vestibule of the vagina? Clitoris, opening of urethra , vagina
86. Shortest part of urethra is? Membranous urethra
87. The cries of clitoris are covered by? Ischiocavornosus muscles
88. The length of female urethra is? 1.5 inche
89. Upper half of the anal canal is supplied by? Superior rectal artery
90. The lower half of the anal canal is drained into ? Medial group if superficial inguinal nodes
91. Pudendal nerve and the internal pudendal nerves lie in which canal? Pudendal canal
92. The inferior rectal artery originates from the? Internal pudendal artery
93. Then Obturator internus muscle recieved it's nerve supply from? Sacral plexus
94. The sphincter urethrae recieved it's innervation from the? Pudendal nerve
95. The prostatic venous plexus drains into the? Internal iliac veins
96. In most women the Anatomic position of the uterus when bladder empty is? Anteverted and
antiflexed
97. Erections is the response of the activity of the? Parasympathetic nerve
98. Cancer of prostate can metastasize to the skull via the? Vertebral venous plexus
99. Malignant tumors of the trigone of the bladder metastasize to which of the following lymph
nodes? External and internal iliac
100. The internal Anal sphincter recieves it's nerve supply from the? Hypogastric plexuses
101. Right testicular vein drains into? Inferior vena cava
102. Patient feels pain on defection. Nerve involved is? Inferior rectal nerve
103. When the bulbar urethra is injured, urine will leak into? Superficial perineal pouch
104. Most common cause of urinary obstruction in a boy? Posterior urethral valve
105. Cervical carcinoma is drained by which lymph node? Both internal and external iliac
106. Tumor of cervix will spread to labius majora via? Round ligament of uterus
107. Ejaculatory duct opens into? Prostatic urethra
108. Carcinoma of prostate drains into? Internal iliac nodes
109. During childbirth, a major bony landmark used for childbirth is the? Ischial spine
110. Female pelvis is also called? Gynecoid
111. What is the landmark for biscop scoring? Ischial spine

112. Weight bearing line passes through? Ischial tuberosity

113. The branch of internal carotid artery which remains in true pelvis throughout its course is?
Middle rectal artery
114. The accessory Obturator artery is a branch of? Inferior epigastric artery
115. To reach the uterus, uterine artery crosses the? Ureter
116. Scrotum drains to which lymph nodes? Superficial inguinal node
117. Ductus deferens end in? Ejaculatory duct
118. Dorsal vein of penis drains into which plexus? Santorini's plexus
119. The most fixed part of uterus is? Cervix
120. The only part of vagina to have peritoneal covering is? Posterior fornix
=--=

HEAD AND NECK

1. The anterior fontanelle is which shaped?
2. Posterior fontanelle usually closes at which stage of life?
3. The mastoid process develops during ???
4. Which sinuses serves as voice resonators?
5. Nasal septum is largely formed by which bone?
6. Below the orbit maxilla is perforated by?
7. Which bone forms the prominence of cheeks?
8. Most common fractures of facial fractures?
9. Frontal bone articulates with parietal bones at which suture?
10. Thinnest part of the lateral wall of skull is called?
11. What important thing lies below pterion?
12. Crebriform plate tranmits?
13. Optic canal transmits?
14. Middle meningeal artery is transmitted through?
15. Foramen ovale transmits which nerve?
16. Internal acoustic meatus transmits?
17. Which is the largest and strongest bone of face?
18. Name the foramen which is below the 2 nd molar tooth and what nerve it transmits?
19. Temporomandibular joint is which type of joint?
20. Congenital torticollis is caused by damaging of which muscle during labour?
21. Platysma muscle is supplied by which nerve?
22. Geniohyoid muscle is supplied by which nerve?
23. Which muscle divides the neck to anterio and posterior triangles?
24. Muscle of scalp and face derived from which pharyngeal arch?
25. Scalp contain how many layers ???
26. Muscle of facial expression are supplied by?
27. Right carotid artery arises from?
28. In bells palsy which nerve is damaged?
29. Comon carotid artery divides at the upper border of ?
30. Carotid sinus is supplied by which nerve?
31. Behind the neck of mandible carotid artery divides into?
32. Lingual artery is branch of which artery?

33. Lingual artery is crossed superficially by whichb nerve?

34. Occipital artery supplies????
35. Middle meningeal artery is branch of ?
36. The haemorrhage caused by middle meningeal artery is which type?
37. Internal carotid arteries terminates as ?
38. The only blood supply to retina is ?
39. The middle cerebral artery supplied all the motor area of cortex except?
40. Circle of willis lies in which space?
41. At the outer border of first rib subclavian artery continues as?
42. Which artery divides subclavian artery into 3 parts?
43. Name the branches of first part of subclavian artery?
44. Both vertebral arteries joins to form ?
45. Which nerve is closely related with sup thyroid artery??
46. Which artery is closely related with inf thyroid artery?
47. Inferior parathyroid gland supplied by which artery?
48. Name the branches of third part of subclavian artery?
49. Straight sinus is formed by the union of ?
50. Right transverse sinus is the continuation Of the?
51. Internal jugular vein is continuation by which sinus?
52. Which cranial nerve travels centrally through cavernous sinus?
53. Name the valveless vein that passes through the skull bones?
54. Facial vein is formed by union of ?
55. Retromandibular vein is formed by union of?
56. Maxillary vein is formed from which plexus?
57. External jugular vein formed by union of?
58. Internal jugular vein is closely related with which lymph nodes?
59. Lymph drainage form the tip of the tongue is by?
60. Tonsils are drained by which node?
61. Olfactory bulb is connected tomthe olfactory area of cerebral cortex by?
62. Optic nerve ends at?
63. The nerve cells of the lateral geniculate body to the visual cortex of the cerebral hemisphere
by forming ?
64. The most slender of cranial nerves is ?
65. Name the largest cranial nerve?
66. Name the branches of ophthalmic nerve?
67. The nasocilliary nerve continues as which nerve to enter the cranial cavity?
68. Maxillary nerve leaves the skull through which foramen?
69. Buccal nerve supplies ?
70. Other name of sensory root of facial nerve is ?
71. Geniculate ganglion involve which cranial nerve?
72. Nerve to stapedius arise from which nerve?
73. Name the five terminal branches of facial expression?
74. Vestibulocochlear nerve is which type of nerve?
75. Vagus nerve leaves the skull through which foramen?
76. Phayrngeal branch supplies all the muscles of the pharynx except??
77. Which nerve divides into internal and external laryngeal nerves?

78. External laryngeal nerve is which type and supplies which muscle?
79. Recurrent laryngeal nerve on right side hooks around which artery?
80. The cervical plexus is formed by the anterior rami of the root of ???
81. The only motor nerve supply to diaphragm is?
82. Cheek is formed by which muscle?
83. Posteriorly the roof is formed by?
84. Surface of tongue is connected to the floor of mouth by?
85. Deciduous teeth are how many in number ?
86. Side of anterior two thirds of tongue drains into ?
87. Posterior third of tongue is supplied by?
88. Depression of tongue is caused by which muscle?
89. Protrusion of tongue is done by?
90. All extrinsic muscle supplied by hypoglossal nerve except?
91. Name the largest salivery gland?
92. Parasympathetic nerve supply to submandibular gland is by which nerve?
93. All muscle of pharynx is supplied by pharyngeal plexus except?
94. Sensory nerve supply to nasal pharynx is by?
95. Esophagus begins in the neck at the level of which cartilage?
96. Superior meatus lies below which concha?
97. Nasolacrimal duct open in which meatus?
98. Maxillary sinus opens in which meatus ?
99. Name the largest cartilage of larynx?
100. Rod shape cartilage of larynx is called?
101. Other name of false vocal cord is ?
102. Vocal cords are of which color?
103. Tensing of the vocal cord is functiom of which muscle?
104. Relaxing of the vocal is function of which muscle?
105. Below the vocal fold sensory nerve supply is by?
106. All inteinsic muscles are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve except?
107. Laterally the pituitary gland is related with?
108. Abducent nerve supply which muscle?
109. Superior oblique is supplied by?
110. Medulla oblongata leaves the cranium through which foramen?
HEAD AND NECK KEYS
1. The anterior fontanelle is which shaped? Diamond shaped
2. Posterior fontanelle usually closes at which stage of life? 1st year of life
3. The mastoid process develops during ??? First 2 years of life
4. Which sinuses serves as voice resonators? Frontal sinuses
5. Nasal septum is largely formed by which bone? Vomer
6. Below the orbit maxilla is perforated by? Inter Maxillary foramen
7. Which bone forms the prominence of cheeks? Zygomatic bone
8. Most common fractures of facial fractures? Nasal fractures
9. Frontal bone articulates with parietal bones at which suture? Coronal suture
10. Thinnest part of the lateral wall of skull is called? Pterion
11. What important thing lies below pterion? Middlw meningeal artery and vein

12. Crebriform plate tranmits? Olfactory nerves

13. Optic canal transmits? Ophthalmic artery and optic nerve
14. Middle meningeal artery is transmitted through? Foramen spinosum
15. Foramen ovale transmits which nerve? Mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve
16. Internal acoustic meatus transmits? Vestibulocochlear ans facial nerves
17. Which is the largest and strongest bone of face? Mandible
18. Name the foramen which is below the 2 nd molar tooth and what nerve it transmits? Mental
foramen and transmits terminal branch of inferior alveolar nerve
19. Temporomandibular joint is which type of joint? Synovial joint
20. Congenital torticollis is caused by damaging of which muscle during labour?
Sternocledomastoid muscle
21. Platysma muscle is supplied by which nerve? Facial nerve
22. Geniohyoid muscle is supplied by which nerve? C1 through the hypoglossal nerve
23. Which muscle divides the neck to anterio and posterior triangles? Sternocleidomastoid
muscle
24. Muscle of scalp and face derived from which pharyngeal arch? 2nd oharyngeal arch
25. Scalp contain how many layers ??? 5 layers
26. Muscle of facial expression are supplied by? Facial nerve
27. Right carotid artery arises from? Brachiocephalic trunk
28. In bells palsy which nerve is damaged? Facial nerve
29. Comon carotid artery divides at the upper border of ? Throid cartilage
30. Carotid sinus is supplied by which nerve? Glossopharyngeal nerve
31. Behind the neck of mandible carotid artery divides into? Superficial temporal and maxillary
artery
32. Lingual artery is branch of which artery? External carotid artery
33. Lingual artery is crossed superficially by whichb nerve? Hypoglossal nerve
34. Occipital artery supplies???? Back of the scalp
35. Middle meningeal artery is branch of ? Maxillary artery
36. The haemorrhage caused by middle meningeal artery is which type? Extradural hemorrhage
37. Internal carotid arteries terminates as ? Anterior and middle cerebral arteries
38. The only blood supply to retina is ? Central retinal artery
39. The middle cerebral artery supplied all the motor area of cortex except? Leg area
40. Circle of willis lies in which space? Subarachnoid space
41. At the outer border of first rib subclavian artery continues as? Axillary artery
42. Which artery divides subclavian artery into 3 parts? Scalenus Anterior muscle
43. Name the branches of first part of subclavian artery? The vertebral artery, the thyrocervical
trunk and the internal thoracic artery
44. Both vertebral arteries joins to form ? Basilar artery
45. Which nerve is closely related with sup thyroid artery?? External laryngeal nerve
46. Which artery is closely related with inf thyroid artery? Recurrent laryngeal nerve
47. Inferior parathyroid gland supplied by which artery? Inferior thyroid artery
48. Name the branches of third part of subclavian artery? No branches
49. Straight sinus is formed by the union of ? Inferior sagittal sinus and great cerebral vein
50. Right transverse sinus is the continuation Of the? Superior sagittal sinus
51. Internal jugular vein is continuation by which sinus? Sigmoid sinus
52. Which cranial nerve travels centrally through cavernous sinus? 6th cranial nerve

53. Name the valveless vein that passes through the skull bones? Emissary veins
54. Facial vein is formed by union of ? Supraorbital and supratrochlear veins
55. Retromandibular vein is formed by union of? Maxillary vein and superficial temporal vein
56. Maxillary vein is formed from which plexus? Pterygoid venous plexus
57. External jugular vein formed by union of? Posterior auricular vein and post division of
retromandibular vein
58. Internal jugular vein is closely related with which lymph nodes? Deep cervical lymph node
59. Lymph drainage form the tip of the tongue is by? Sub Mental lymph node
60. Tonsils are drained by which node? Jugulodiagastric node
61. Olfactory bulb is connected tomthe olfactory area of cerebral cortex by? Olfactory tract
62. Optic nerve ends at? Optic chiasma
63. The nerve cells of the lateral geniculate body to the visual cortex of the cerebral hemisphere
by forming ? Optic radiation
64. The most slender of cranial nerves is ? Trochlear nerve
65. Name the largest cranial nerve? Trigeminal nerve
66. Name the branches of ophthalmic nerve? Lacrimal , frontal and nasocilliary
67. The nasocilliary nerve continues as which nerve to enter the cranial cavity? Anterior
ethmoidal artery
68. Maxillary nerve leaves the skull through which foramen? Foramen rutendum
69. Buccal nerve supplies ? The skin and mucous membrane of cheeks
70. Other name of sensory root of facial nerve is ? Nervus intermedius
71. Geniculate ganglion involve which cranial nerve? Facial nerve
72. Nerve to stapedius arise from which nerve? Facial nerve
73. Name the five terminal branches of facial expression? Temporal, zygomatic, buccal,
mandibular and cervical
74. Vestibulocochlear nerve is which type of nerve? Sensory nerve
75. Vagus nerve leaves the skull through which foramen? Jugular foramen
76. Phayrngeal branch supplies all the muscles of the pharynx except?? Stylopharyngeus
77. Which nerve divides into internal and external laryngeal nerves? Superior laryngeal nerve
78. External laryngeal nerve is which type and supplies which muscle? Motor and supplies
cricothyroid muscle
79. Recurrent laryngeal nerve on right side hooks around which artery? Subclavian artery
80. The cervical plexus is formed by the anterior rami of the root of ??? First four cervical spinal
nerves
81. The only motor nerve supply to diaphragm is? Phrenic nerve
82. Cheek is formed by which muscle? Buccinator muscle
83. Posteriorly the roof is formed by? Soft palate
84. Surface of tongue is connected to the floor of mouth by? Frenulum of the tongue
85. Deciduous teeth are how many in number ? 20 number
86. Side of anterior two thirds of tongue drains into ? Submandibular lymph nodes
87. Posterior third of tongue is supplied by? Glossopharyngeal nerve
88. Depression of tongue is caused by which muscle? Hypoglossus muscle
89. Protrusion of tongue is done by? Genioglossus muscle
90. All extrinsic muscle supplied by hypoglossal nerve except? Palatoglossus
91. Name the largest salivery gland? Parotid gland
92. Parasympathetic nerve supply to submandibular gland is by which nerve? Facial nerve via

corda tympani
93. All muscle of pharynx is supplied by pharyngeal plexus except? Stylopharyngeus
94. Sensory nerve supply to nasal pharynx is by? Maxillary nerve
95. Esophagus begins in the neck at the level of which cartilage? Cricoid cartilage
96. Superior meatus lies below which concha? Superior
97. Nasolacrimal duct open in which meatus? Inferio meatus
98. Maxillary sinus opens in which meatus ? Middle meatus
99. Name the largest cartilage of larynx? Thyroid cartilage
100. Rod shape cartilage of larynx is called? Cuneiform cartilage
101. Other name of false vocal cord is ? Vestibular fold
102. Vocal cords are of which color? White color
103. Tensing of the vocal cord is functiom of which muscle? Cricothyroid muscle
104. Relaxing of the vocal is function of which muscle? Thyroaretenoid muscle
105. Below the vocal fold sensory nerve supply is by? Recurrent laryngeal nerve
106. All inteinsic muscles are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve except? Cricothyroid muscle
107. Laterally the pituitary gland is related with? Cavernous sinus and its contents
108. Abducent nerve supply which muscle? Lateral rectus
109. Superior oblique is supplied by? Trochlear nerve
110. Medulla oblongata leaves the cranium through which foramen? Foramen magnum