Audio and Acoustics Test Questions

Chapter 1
Critical Distance is defined as. . .
The distance from a noise source in an enclosed space where the direct and reflected signals
are of equal intensity.
A Psychoacoustic approach to sound deals with what?
How things sound to people; how sound is perceived.
Which of the following is the best physical definition of "sound?"
A wave motion in air or other elastic media
If one plots the position of a piston attached to a rotating camshaft against time, a _____ graph is
produced.
Sine Wave
In many acoustical applications, sound is considered as falling in eight octave bands with specific
center frequencies, which is not a standard center frequency?
3000
Speech and music waveforms are very closely related in shape to sine waves.
False
A wave with a marked tendency toward odd overtones, with relatively little even overtones, is a
__________.
Square Wave
The speed of sound in air at normal temperature and pressure is about __________.
1130 feet/second
If a wave is periodic, it can be reduced to sine wave components of various frequencies, amplitudes,
and phase relationships.
True
The faintest sound an ear can hear (20 micro-Pasals) is roughly ______ times smaller than
atmospheric pressure at sea level.

5000 million
Frequency is the same this as pitch.
False
The trough (low part) of a sound wave in air is where____________ has occurred.
Rarefaction
Random noise can be considered as being made up of sine-wave components constantly shifting in
frequency, amplitude, and phase.
True
To lower the level of a sound, we must reduce the particle velocity.
True
Scientists measure the wavelength of a sound at normal air temperature and pressure to be 11.3 feet.
What is its frequency?
100Hz
What is the wavelength (in feet) of 565Hz at normal air temperature and pressure?
2 feet
Partials are sometimes considered to be different from overtones because they _______.
Are not always related harmonically to the fundamental.
Humans perceive the interval between 100-200 Hz as larger than the interval between 200-300 Hz.
True
As sound is propagated in air, air particles move with the sound wave front. Each traveling as far as
the sound travels.
False
Phase and Polarity are two words for the same thing in electronics.
False
Elasticity and Inertia are two things all media must possess to be capable of conducting sound.
True

When sound travels down the string of a guitar it moves __________.

Transversely
It is best, for practical purposes, to consider sound as behaving in a free field all the time, because the
world around us is basically a free field, as far as sound is concerned.
False
When one is very close to a sound source (in the Near Field) sound level decreases ___ dB for every
doubling or distance.
12
All sound in the free field behave as point sources and radiate spherically.
False
Because true spherical radiation conditions are difficult to achieve in practice, many free-field
measurements are actually taken using a half sphere sound propagation field.
True
Intensity of sound is inversely proportional to the square of the distance the sound travels in a free
field.
True
The low-frequency limit of a band is 65 Hz. What is the high-frequency limit of this band if it is 5
octaves wide?
2080

Chapter 2
Ratios of any two similar phenomena are dimensionless, which is important, since logarithms can only
be taken of dimensionless numbers.
True
The basic equation for the decibel is dB-20log(P1/P2), but when measuring something besides power,
an inverse square is involved, which makes the equation dB=10lob(P1/P2).
False
RMS measurement of waves are usually ___ peak to peak measurements.

Lower than
What is the reference value for dBv?
1.0V
What is the reference level for dB-SPL?
20 uPa
Harvey Fletcher was NOT involved in the early days of acoustics.
True
In order to measure the SPL of my neighbors barking pit bulls, Ill use a sound level meter. Given that
they are roughly as loud as a noisy office, which weighting network should I use my meter?
Network B
An amplifier is given an input of 50mV, producing an output of 1.0 V. What is the voltage gain of the
amplifier in dB?
26dB
An amplifier is given an input of 41mV, producing an output of 36V. What is the voltage gain of the
amplifier in dB? Express your answer as a number, rounded to one decimal place, without units.
58.9
What is the reference value for dBu?
0.775V
Perception of frequency ratios (octaves, for instance) is matched by a physical change in sensory
location in the brain. This fact, along with others like applying to vision, hear, vibe, show ratios come
close to matching.
True
What is the reference level for dB-SPL?
20uPa
Which of the following is the BASIC equation for the decibel?
dB-10log(P1/P2)
The Peak-to-Peak value of a wave is a measure of its _____.

Amplitude.
Your console is capable of outputting 7.75V maximum but your mix is currently summing to 15.5V,
which is making it clip. How much do you need to reduce your master fader in dBu.
Reduce output by: 6dBu
The main reason to measure waves using RMS instead of averages is that ________________.
RMS is closer to the way our ears perceive sound than are average measurements.

Which of the following is the best description of the relationship between AC and DC voltages, with
regard to RMS?
A given value for AC current, in amperes RMS, is exactly equivalent in heating power to the
same DC current (in amperes) as it flows through a resistance of known value.
Dr. Honour's hangover is pretty bad. His alarm clock produces 71 dB-SPL and the sound of his dog
scratching at the door is 44 dB-SPL. What is the combined level of these two horrific sounds? Express
your answer as a number, rounded to one decimal place, without units.
71

Chapter 4
One-sixth octave filter sets are at least as relevant to the way we perceive sound as one-third octave
filter sets.
True
A two-way loudspeaker can be considered as a point source at all distances.
False
The ear canal affects sound reaching the eardrum, adding a marked boost around _______.
3kHz
The air-filled middle ear is vented to the throat by the _________.
Eustachian tube
The ear canal affects sound reaching the ear drum, adding a marked boost around _____.

3kHz
The position on the basilar membrane of the amplitude peak of a standing wabe changes as the
frequency of the exciting sound changes.
True
The ear can generally only perceive about ___ different degrees of loudness.
7
For mid-frequency range at levels most commonly used for music, the minimum detectable change in
level for the ear is about _______.
2-3 dB
Using a simple delay tap on a lead vocal, you set it up so that you have a 20ms delay at the same
volume as the original signal. What will happen?
The image of the vocal will appear to broaden.
The loudness control found on many stereo systems in designed to even the bass response when
the system is played very loudly.
False
Localization of sounds above 1kHz is accomplished primarily through interpretation by the brain of
the _____.
Interaural Intensity Difference
The semicircular canals are part of the inner ear but have nothing to do with our perception of sound.
True
Because the middle ear is air-filled, the ear would not work correctly at different air pressures without
the ability to equalize the mid-ear air press. The ___ allows this equalization.
Eustachian Tube
Youre listening to a CD at medium volume (80dB SPL). The bass range is a little weak compared to the
mids. If you turn the volume of the whole CD down to (50dB SPL) the bass will seem to be more even
with the mids.
False
The ultimate sensitivity of our hearing matches the softest sounds possible in air medium.

True
When low frequency sound is transferred into the cochlea, it produces maximum amplitude peaks
near the oval window.
False
The Pinna is simply a sound gathering device; it performs no other function in the hearing system.
False
In the nerves cells leaving the ear, micro phonic potentials are like ___ and action potentials are like
_____.
Analog recording; digital recording
It is very difficult for listeners to tell the difference in location between sounds located directly in front
of them and those directly behind them.
True
The frequency spectrum of a sound reaching you eardrum is different from that same sound in the
atmosphere.
True
The impact of the pinnas shape upon the frequency spectrum of incoming sound is called a ______.
Transfer function
The physical device in the inner ear which transduce sound energy into electricity are called
________.
Stereocillia
In order for the average person to perceive a doubling of loudness one must increase dB SPL by
_________.
NOT
6 or 3dB

Phons are unity of _________.

Perceived loudness at 1kHz
Transducting the air motion at our ear drums to the fluid motion in our inner ears requires a pressure
ratio of 63:2:1. The mechanical action of the ossicle is enough to accomplish this ratio.

False
The human ear is most sensitive around __________.
3 kHz
In order for a 3ms transient to sound the same loudness as a 0.5s tone, it would have to be ______.
Increased 15 dB
The ear takes the direct sound from a source and all the reflection that arrive within the first 50ms
after the direct sound as being one sound. These sounds are integrated together.
True
An oscillator outputs 100 Hz through an amp and speaker at 60dB SPL. As the intensity is increased to
100 dB SPL, the perceived pitch of the tone goes up.
False
The impedance ratio of the outer ear to the inner ear is about ___________.
4000:1
Three noises have different bandwidths all centered on 1kHz and have equal SPL. Noise A has a
bandwidth of 100Hz, Noise B has a bandwidth of 160Hz, and Noise C has one of 200Hz. C sounds
loudest, but A and B the same. Why?
C exceeds the critical bandwidth at 1kHz while A and B do not.
As the ossicles transfer sound to the oval window, standing waves are set up in the cochlea.
True
The frequency bandwidth of a sound affects its loudness within certain limits.
True
The _______________ is a truly subjective unit of loudness.
Sone
When low-frequency sound is transferred into the cochlea, it produces maximum amplitude peaks
near the oval window.
False

An input of 1 watt to a loudspeaker produces an SPL of 100dB at 5.6 meters. What is the SPL at 94.3
meters? Express your answer as a number, rounded to one decimal place, without units (the units are
assumed to be dB-SPL).
75.5

Chapter 5
Stopping the breath, building up air pressure in the vocal tract, and then suddenly relasing it results in
what kind of sound?
Plosives
Forming a constriction at some point in the vocal tract, thereby producing significant turbulence in
exhaled air, results in what kind of sound?
Fricatives
All electrical circuits generate random noise.
True
Which of the following appears on the y-axis of a standard spectrograph?
Frequency
Which of the following correctly describes the filter types shown here, from left to right?
High, low, pass, reject
A stream of air flowing past the slit in the vocal cords, causing them to vibrate, results in what sorts of
sounds?
Voiced
The dynamic range of normal speech is roughly ___ dB while the dynamic range of a symphony
orchestra is roughly __ dB.
30-40; 100
The human voice is not very directional: If someone speaks, we will hear roughly the same amplitude,
regardless of which way they are facing.
False
Of the options here, which is the best definition of noise?

A trained opera singers voice, when Im trying to record a saxophone.

The lower strings of the violin sound richer than the upper strings, because of the way the harmonics
are spaced.
True
The difference between pink noise and white noise is _________.
Pink noise has equal energy per octave, while white noise has equal energy per frequency.
Which of the following is likely to be the most annoying kind of noise?
Intermittent, moving, high frequency noise
If we filter purely random noise with a -3dB per octave filter, we create __________.
Pink noise
The vocal tract basically can be considered as a __________, shaping the sounds produced by the
vocal cords.
Time varying filter
Conventional analog audio techniques are unable to capture the full dynamic range of an orchestra.
True
Given this spectrograph, which of the following is the most likely description of the sound?
Three short noised, followed by a longer one. Each of them is noisy/ relatively unpitched.
A series of short, staccato noises. Each is nearly pure noise, with no discernible pitch.
How much Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) must be present for it to be readily audible with sine
waves?
1%
A steep wave front signal is sent to an amplifier, causing the amplifier to ring. The ringing is an
example of what form of distortion?
Transient Distortion
Its generally best to bow or pluck a stringed instrument roughly ____ of the distance between the
two end pints of the strings, because __________.

1/7; this gives a nice blend of all the various harmonics generated by the string except the 7th
,
which is unmusical.
Which of the following is NOT one of the sources of speech sounds?
Vocal Tract Shaping

Chapter 6
Physical objects act as frequency-dependent reflectors of sound: the larger they are, the more they
reflect low frequencies.
True
The reflected energy from a wall is always less than the incident energy.
True
In practice, flutter echoes eventually attenuate to inaudibility.
True
The wavelength of 100Hz is 11.3 feet. Generally speaking, a rectangular object would require these
dimensions to reflect 100Hz.
56.5 feet X 56.5 feet
Which of the following is a published, well-regarded room dimension ratio?
H: 1 W: 1.4 L: 1.9
Rectangular rooms have certain advantages over non-rectangular rooms when it comes to recording
studio construction. Pick the advantages of rectangular rooms from the list of possibilities below
(note: select ALL correct answers and ONLY the correct answers for credit).
Economy of construction
Relative ease of calculating axial, tangential, and oblique modes.
In what scenario is it possible for us to hear images of images of sound?
When working with sound reflecting from multiple surfaces.

The sound pressure on the surface of a perfect reflector is _________ the energy density of the
incident sound.
Double
In modeling reflections, we frequently use the concept of _______ positioned behind the reflecting
surface.
Virtual Sources
To maximize the energy reflected from a wall, it is important that the wall be built with materials
providing ________.
Heavy surface weight on the reflective side of the wall
The sound pressure on the surface of a perfect absorber is ______ the energy density of the incident
sound.
Equal to
A corner reflector will reflect sound _________.
Back toward the source
Which of the following architectural features would likely be a good idea for a large hall, with regard
to acoustics?
Many protuberances from the walls, of various sizes and shapes
Plane wave fronts striking a ____ tend to be _______, which can be the source of serious acoustical
problems.

Modeling sound as rays emitted from points completely captures the operation in the real world.
False
Sound reflects between two parallel walls. The walls are far enough apart that the sound reflections
are more than 40ms apart. As a result, we hear a ______.
Flutter echo
Sound bouncing back and forth between two parallel walls can create a ________.
Flutter echo

When modeling acoustical spectacle reflections, we consider them to behave the same as light
reflections from mirrors.
True
An ideal reflection of source is effectively a point, the angles of incidence and reflection are equal, and
the source could be modeled as virtual source beyond the reflection is called __________.
Spectacular Reflection
The reflected energy from a wall is always less than the incident energy.
True
One important conceptual breakthrough in modeling the reflective behavior of sound is to _____.
Ignore the reflective surfaces and bass the model instead on virtual sources positioned
beyond those surface.
If we take this approach, how much do we typically splay walls to avoid flutter echoes?
5-10 degrees

Except for unique applications, concave surface such as sections of cylinders, spheres, paraboloids,
and ellipsoids should not be used in acoustically important architecture.
True
IN what scenario is it possible for us to hear images of images of sound?
When working with sound reflecting from multiple surfaces
Compared to normal reflections at the same distance, corner reflections are usually ______.
Less then
Flutter echoes are not particularly objectionable.
False
Sound compromising many reflections sounds dramatically different from sound in a free field.
True
At reasonable distances from the source, spherical wave fronts actually behave like ________.
Plane wave fronts

Quiz 6
Most ______ are good electrical conductors.
Metals
Which of the following is not a good conductor of electricity?
Rubber
One of the factors in impedance is DC resistance. The other is _________.
Reactance
The simplest form of resistance to electrical current is presented by the wire itself.
True
A _____ is an electrical component manufactured to present a specific resistance to the flow of
current
Resistor
"Signal path" is best defined as where the signal should go
False
The diaphram in a microphone responds to change in ______
Air Pressure
You have a DC circuit with 85 volts of electrical potential, with a resistor providing 2,513 ohms of
resistance. You can assume the wire itself provides 0 ohms of resistance. How many watts of power
will this circuit produce? Express your answer as a number, rounded to one decimal place, with no
units (e.g. 600.1)
2.9
You have a simple DC circuit with 71 volts of electrical potential between the negative and positive
poles. There is a resistor in the circuit, providing 80 of resistance, and you can assume that the wire
presents no resistance. How much current will develop in this circuit? Express your answer as a
number, rounded to one decimal place, with no units
0.9
You have a DC circuit with 79 volts of electrical potential, with a resistor providing 6,778 ohms of
resistance. You can assume the wire itself provides 0 ohms of resistance. How many watts of power

will this circuit produce? Express your answer as a number, rounded to one decimal place, with no
units (e.g. 600.1).
0.9
You have an AC circuit which develops 43 amperes of current over 544 ohms impedance. What is the
electrical potential of the circuit in volts? Express your answer as a number, rounded to one decimal
place, with no units (e.g. 10.1)
23,392
You have an AC circuit which develops 41 amperes of current over 727 ohms impedance. What is the
electrical potential of the circuit in volts? Express your answer as a number, rounded to one decimal
place, with no units (e.g. 10.1).
29,807
Audio engineers regularly make signal path charts; its part of a typical day or week on the job.
False
One very good time to make a signal path chart is when _____.
You are trying to bring a new engineer up to speed
The concept of signal path is most often used in ________.
Setting systems up and troubleshooting
The main difference between a schematic and a signal path chart is that a schematic is ____.
the actual circuit diagram created by an electrical engineer
In general, signal paths in live sound reinforcement are less complex than is recording studios.
True
The main difference between a block diagram and a signal path chart is that a block diagram ______.
Shows all the possibilities of signal path flow through single equipment
One very good time to make a signal path chart is when ___________.

_______ is the opposition to current flow in DC circuits, and is measure in _______.

Resistance; ohms

_________ is the difference between the positive and negative poles of a simple DC circuit, and is
measured in ________.
Electrical potential; Volts
Many standard electrical insulators become conductors in very low temperature environments
True

Quiz 7
One important thing to know about analog recording processes is that they all occur _________.
In real time, as a continuous process
The amount of electricity involved in audio work is quite small, compared to that used in
professional lighting work
True
In all analog devices, the signal will vary up and down, centered on 0 Voltz, so that sometimes it is
positive, sometimes negative.
False
The reason audio devices use inputs with much high impedance than out puts is because it
_________.
Encourages efficient transfer of voltage
Analog audio systems need a significant amount of power when they get to the _____ stage, not
before then.
Loudspeaker
In a typical analog recording signal path the cables and equipment through which the signal passes are
usually quither transpa the signal passes nearly unchanged.
True
There are many transducers involved in audio work. Which of the following is NOT a transducer?
Preamp
Typically, when a microphone diaphragm moves inward, the mic outputs a positive voltage.

True
An audio signal consist of a ______ that varies over time.
Voltage
In a typical analog recording signal path, the incoming sound wave is transduced to electricity by a
_____.
Microphone
Through most of the analog audio chain, its common to see signals with power levels in the
_______range.
Milliwatts
In a typical analog recording signal path, once the incoming sound wave has been transduced to
electricity, it is not transduced again.
False
Typically, applying a positive voltage across the leads of a speaker will make the speaker cone move
outward.
True
Electrical impedances vary widely in the analog audio signal chain, often as much as ten-fold or more
between two adjacent devices.
True
When the output impedance of one device is low (~150 ohms) and the input impedance of the next
device is very high (~10000 ohms), that is called a _________.
Bridging Input
The reason audio devices typically use inputs with much higher impedances than outputs is because it
______.
encourages efficient transfer of voltage
Quiz 8
The diaphragm of a condenser mic is typically about _____ thick.
3 microns

Because of the way they are designed and built, dynamic mics are quite fragile, and should not be
used to record loud sources.
False
Which of the following types of microphones uses a piezoelectric element to transduce acoustic
energy to electricity?
Contact
The category of condenser microphones is often broken into the subcategories of small-diaphragm
and large-diaphragm condenser mics.
True
Which of the following types of microphones typically makes used of phantom power?
Condenser
Which type of mic operates via the electrostatic principle?
NOT condenser or dynamic
Condenser microphones operate via the electromagnetic principle.
False
Dynamic microphones tend to smear sharp peaks in signals, which makes them very popular for use in
recording instruments that have such peaks, like snare drums.
True
In a typical dynamic microphone it is the motion of ______ that creates the electrical output signal,
via induction.
A coil of wire around a magnet
The primary reason engineers tend t classify microphones by their methods of operation is
_________.
Because that tells us some of the general characteristic we can expect the microphones to
exhibit.
The output of a condenser microphone depends primarily upon the ____.
distance between the diaphragm and the backplate

Dynamic mics are more popular than condenser mics on live stages. Which of the following is NOT
one of the reasons why?
Condenser mics are only available in one pickup pattern (cardioid)

The design of ribbon mic makes them much less sturdy than dynamic or condenser mics.
True
Which of the following does NOT operate via electromagnetism?
NOT loudspeaker woofer
Which type of mic typically does NOT require phantom power?
Tube
A ________ mic uses a thin strip of metal mounted on a Mylar diaphragm near a magnet.
NOT condenser, ribbon
Which of the following types of mics is most sensitive to sound and thus capable of capturing the
greatest detail?
Condenser
The initial output of a condenser mic, right after it is transduced, is typically much lower in level than a
dynamic mics output.
True
Diaphragms of dynamic and condenser microphones are typically made of _________.
Mylar
Which of the following pickup patterns is least commonly found in dynamic mics?
Bidirectional
Which of the following is NOT one of the primary categories of microphones?
Cardoid
Dynamic microphones are less sensitive than ribbon or condenser mics.
True

In a typical dynamic microphone, the diaphragm is connected to __________.

A coil of wire
The sound of a typical condenser mic could best be described as ____.
Crisp, with fantastic detail
The sound of a typical ribbon mic could bests be described as ___________.
Warm and mellow
The sound of a typical dynamic mic could best be described as ___________.
Fat and powerful, but lacking detail
Which types of the following mics is seen least often in typical audio work?
Contact
Ribbon mics are typically _____________?
Bidirectional
Ribbon mics are a popular choice on live stages, because they are very sturdy by design.
False
In a typical dynamic microphone, the _______ of the output charge varies in direct response to the
motion of the __________.
voltage; coil around the magnet

Quiz 9
The highest marking on a standard VU meter is _______.
+3dB
VU meters are calibrated to use RMS measurements, so that they are similar to the way we hear.
False
Most digital and software-based mixers are designed to look and operate like analog mixers.
True

Which of the following is NOT a standard, common type of audio signal meter?
Dorrough
Which of the following is NOT a section found on all mixing consoles?
Matrix Mixer
What is a "control surface?"
A device that looks very much like a mixing console, with faders and knobs, designed to
control what happens in software.
Why do mixer input channels have so many controls on them?
A lot of the work done on a mixer is done on a per-channel basis, and we need to have
controls for each input channel to be able to handle that.
Which of the following terms does not fit?
Bench
Which of the following allows you to create a parallel connection to send signals different places like
stage monitors of effects processors?
NOT Aux return or insert

Mixing consoles (like the Mackie 8-bus) that provides a second mix on the same channel strips as the
main mix are called _________ controls.
Inline
The channel strip controls and their layout on a high-end SSL mixing console are very similar to those
on a low-end Mackie.
True
Unity Gain means _____.
Neither boosting nor cutting
The master section of a mixing console contains a bus.
True
How many busses does a 48x12x6 mixer have?

12
The channel strip controls and their layout on a high-end SSL mixing console are very similar to those
on a low-end Mackie.
True
The master section of a mixing console usually contains controls designed to allow the engineer to
route signals from the console to many different outputs.
True
VU meters show us instantaneous values so that we can see precisely what happens with the signal,
moment by moment.
False
The most common type of standard meter in software is the _________ meter.
NOT VU or Dorrough
Submaster busses allow us to _________.
Both answers 1 and 3
Which of the following types of EQ is NOT usually found in the EQ section of a mixing console?
Graphic
Which of the following is the most typical signal path order in a mixing console?
Channels Submasters Main
In what sort of audio work are very large-format mixers used?
Film Mixing
Which of the following generally takes up most of the room on a mixing console?
Input channels
Many LED meters on digital equipment use two different scales for the same meter.
True
Which of the following number of busses is generally considered to be the boundary point between
small-format and large-format mixers?
24

Which of the following types of mixer often has no busses aside from the main stereo bus?
Line Mixer
On most mixing consoles, the assigns buttons and pan knob work together to determine where the
signal goes from channel strip.
True
All mixing consoles have to have direct outs for the channels, as they are always used by engineers.
False
Which of the following allows you to create a serial connection to and from a piece of equipment
external to the mixing console?
Insert
What is a bus (in the context of a mixing console)?
A system for mixing (summing) signals together
A bus carries multiple input signals from one point to another. At the destination, the engineer can
route those input signals separately wherever he or she wants.
False

Quiz 10
The power bandwidth of a good amplifier design is very flat throughout the audible range, and the
discrepancies that exist are smaller than in other audio components, like speaker.
True
Which of the following types of loudspeaker ratings is measured over the medium term (1-60
seconds)?
Program
Program power ratings are usually ________ continuous power ratings.
NOT lower than r the same as, but express
Clipping is ____________.
NOT A

In live sound reinforcement application an amp capable of delivering 100W per channel at 8 Ohms is a
god match for an 8 Ohms loudspeaker rated at 100W IEC.
True
Amplifiers should always be matched with loudspeakers rated at the same power level. Thats the
point of power ratings, so this procedure will work for all applications.
False
Many different sorts of amplifiers exist in audio work.
True
Hard clipping distortion is completely different from the sort of distortion used in most guitar effect
pedals.
False
Power amplifiers generally accomplish the increase of audio signals primarily through increasing
_________.
Voltage
The purpose of a power amplifier is to ________.
Increase signals from line level to speaker level.
Which of the following is NOT a common load for pro audio speaker systems to present to an
amplifier?
2 Ohms

Which of the following types of power ratings establishes the amount of power an amp or speaker
can handle for very brief periods of time (<1 second)?
Peak
A loudspeakers sensitivity is rated as 93dB at 1 meter. Being a smart, educated audio person, you
know that this spec is useless. What makes it useless?
It doesnt tell us how powerful the test signal was AND we dont know what kind of DB they
mean.
We connect the output of a mixing console, developing 47 volts, to the input of a power amplifier,
which presents 17,531 ohms of impedance. Then we connect the output of the power amplifier to a

loudspeaker, which presents 2 ohms of impedance. With no voltage gain across the amplifier, how
much power gain occurs in dB? Express your answer as a number, rounded to one decimal place, with
no units (e.g. 10.1).
39.4
We connect the output of a mixing console, developing 13 volts, to the input of a power amplifier,
which presents 18,447 ohms of impedance. Then we connect the output of the power amplifier to a
loudspeaker, which presents 8 ohms of impedance. With no voltage gain across the amplifier, how
much power gain occurs in dB? Express your answer as a number, rounded to one decimal place, with
no units (e.g. 10.1).
33.6
We connect the output of a mixing console, developing 38 volts, to the input of a power amplifier,
which presents 5,939 ohms of impedance. Then we connect the output of the power amplifier to a
loudspeaker, which presents 4 ohms of impedance. With no voltage gain across the amplifier, how
much power gain occurs in dB? Express your answer as a number, rounded to one decimal place, with
no units (e.g. 10.1).
31.7
Many responsible manufacturers only supply peak power ratings for their loudspeakers and amps,
because that's the only rating we actually need (we can derive the others from that).
False
Which of the following types of power ratings is NOT typically used with loudspeakers?
Equivalent
The relationship between amplifier power and the sound pressure levels a loudspeaker will produce is
described by _________.
The speakers sensitivity rating
When we match power amplifiers to loudspeakers, which of the following is NOT one of the main
factors to consider?
The voltage increase of the amplifier
Hard clipping is particularly damaging to which sorts of speakers?
Tweeters (high-frequency speakers)
With modern, output transformers less amplifier designs the power bandwidth and frequency
response graphs of the amp are very similar to each other.

True
These days, many manufacturers rate loudspeakers using a process defined by the ____________.
IEC
Given a typical power amplifier, even if there were no voltage gain, it would probably show a net
power gain of around _____________ dB, due to the drop in __________.
30; impedance
The power rating of an amplifier is exactly the same across the range of all frequencies.
False

Equations:

49 29.9
2 31.7
34 32.6
24 27.1

Quiz 11
Which of the following types of tape uses cobalt for its magnetic particles?
Type III
Which of the following types of tape is very rare and unlikely to be seen in a session?
Types III
Which types of the following types of tape uses rust for its magnetic?
Type I
Which of the following types of tape has the highest self-noise?
Types I
Which of the following types of tape uses chromium dioxide for its magnetic particles?
Type II

The record head on most tape decks also function as a playback head.
True
The primary chemical characteristic of a good electrical conductor is _____.
NOT it is as pure as possible, preferably a pure element.
Which of the following parts of the tape deck is responsible for maintaining the tightness of the tape
against the heads?
Tension Arm
Which of the following parts of the tape deck is responsible for holding the tape?
Reel
High-end tape decks marketed to the film/video market will probably use __________ in their
counters.
SMPTE timecode
Magnetic tape was an extraordinary development for audio, and still offers some benefits today.
True
The actual recording on the magnetic tape is created by ______.
the magnetic particles aligning themselves with the magnetic field produced by the heads of
the tape deck
The highest frequency a tape deck can record is determined by the width of the head gap in its record
head.
True
There have been some very serious problems with "binder breakdown" on tape, where the adhesive
goes bad. The only solution, which might allow one to recover information on the tape is to _____.
Bake the tape at very low heat, then copy the recording to new tape.
The erase head on a tape deck doesnt actually erase anything: instead, it records over existing signals
with a new, very high frequency sine wave.
True
If the rear gap of the tape head were not there, the head ____________.

NOT would still work

A head stack is a ___________.
NOT unit designed to allow the engineer t stack track
The head gap is ___________.
All of the above
When it is necessary to cut magnetic tape; what tool do we use?
NOT laser

Quiz 12
Increasing the signal-to-error ratio of a digital audio system increases that systems ___________.
Dynamic Range
Digital audio systems use a continuous process called sampling to describe audio signals.
False
If a digital system attempts to sample frequencies above the Nyquist frequency, _____________.
Aliasing will occur
Aliasing in a digital audio system will produce _____________.
Reflections of the aliased tones in the audio range, a well as ore false tones through
combination with real tones in the audio range
Mathematics demonstrates that in an ideal digital audio system with sampling rates, the syste will be
able to reproduce any frequency below 5/2 perfectly.
True
______________ was a researcher working with telegraph systems, who developed and proved a
theorem defining how much information it was possible to send down a single telegraph wire.
Harry Nyquist

Digital sampling systems, under ideal conditions, can reproduce input signals perfectly, up to the
sampling rate of the system.

True
The quality of a digital recording system is determined primarily by two criteria _________ and
___________.
Sampling rate; bit depth
Most of the problems inherent in analog recording persist in digital recording as well.
False
Digital audio systems use a continuous process called sampling to describe audio signals.
False
CD-quality audio uses a sampling of __________ and bit depth of _______________.
44.1 kHz; 16-bit
Some high-end audio software plug-ins up sample signals intensinally to allow their processing to
occur naturally and generate whatever high frequencies are needed then down sample outputs to . . .
True
We are quickly coming to a point where there will be no such thing as analog audio any more, since
digital audio can do everything we need.
False
Bit depth affects the coloration of a digital signal through ___________.
Its correlation with quantization error, which results in noise and coloration
Quantization error occurs in all digital audio systems, because _____.
NOT digital audio systems are not properly dithered
Contemporary, high-end digital recording equipment generates audio that satisfies nearly everyone.
True
In any digital audio system with sampling rates, the frequency 5/2 is important and is called the
___________ of that system.
Nyquist frequency
In a typical DAT system, with a sampling rate of 48 kHz, the Nyquist frequency is _________.
24 kHz

Which of the following is NOT a downside of using higher sampling rates in digital audio production?
Requires use of high nyquist frequency
The chief complaint with digital recording is the ____________.
Quality of the sound
In a typical DAT system, with a sampling rate of 48 kHz, the nyquist frequency is ____________.
24 kHz
The primary source of noise in digital recording is __________.
NOT jitter
Certain forms of digital syntheses deliberately induce aliasing for aesthetic for creative purposes.
True
In listening to a digital audio recording, you note that the instruments in it are unfocused, the sound is
narrow, and it feels quiet, even though the meters show good levels. What is the likely cause of these
problems?
Jitter
We have a digital audio system, with a sampling rate of 48 kHz. We attempt to record a 30 kHz tone.
What happens?
NOT the tone is recorded, the tone aliases, or the nyquist
The primary source of noise in digital recording is ____________.
NOT operation error, thermal noise, or jitter
Digital audio get its name from the fact that it ____________.
Uses numbers to rep. the instant volts. Of an audio sign
Which of the following adjectives is most likely to be applied to a digital recording, as opposed to an
analog recording?
Brittle
The two most important factors involved with the coloration of sound in digital recording systems are
__________ and ____________.
Bit depth; jitter

Using higher sampling rates will improve digital audio quality with regard to noise, coloration, and
musicality.
False
According to experts in the field, jitter is a major problem in digital-to-digital transfer of audio.
False
Measurements of the incoming audio signal in digital audio systems are never perfect, they are always
approximations.
True
In CD-quality digital audio, with a sample rate of 44.1 kHz, the nyquist frequency is ____________.
22.05 kHz
All real-world digital audio system fail to achieve the perfect results that math proves possible in
sampling systems.
True
Which of the following was a very important audio research center from the 1920s-1980s?
Bell labs

Quiz 13
It is relatively easy to tell what sort of digital audio one finds on a DB25 cable, since they are only used
for TDIF format.
False
Which of the following formats would be the best choice if you needed to carry hundreds of channels
of digital audio a very long distance?
Optocore
Which of the following is NOT one of the forms of data processing that might occur on the way to a
digital audio recording medium, after the ADC?
Demultiplexing

A 24-bit recording system is __________ times more accurate, in terms of quantization levels, than a
16-bit system.
256
In a typical digital audio signal chain, the actual sampling occurs in which of the following steps?
Sample and hold
Which of the following is the typical consumer-level, stereo, digital audio format?
S/PDIF
A digital audio system is set up so that an analog signal at +18 dBu= 0 dBFs. The engineer running the
system sends it a signal at +20 dBu. What happens?
NOT records nothing or the system aliases. . .
Which of the following is the typical professional level, stereo, digital audio format?
AES/EBU
Which of the following formats carries 56 channels of 48 kHz digital audio on a single cable?
MADI
Which of the following formats carries up to 512 channels of 48 kHz digital audio on a single cable?
Optocore
Which of the following is NOT one of the differences between AES/EBU and S/PDIF digital audio?
Only of them can run at 44.1 kHz
The output wave from a DAC is very jagged, with a lot of very high frequency content. To correct this,
we use a _________.
Anti-imaging, or smoothing, filter
ADAT optical and S/PDIF optical both use the same physical connectors and cables.
True
In a typical digital audio signal chain, the process of quant. Occurs in which of the following steps?
ADC (Analog-to-digital converter)

Different versions of the ____________ protocol allow us to carry 96 kHz or 192 kHz, 24-bit audio
over ADAT optical cables.
S/MUX
Building an analog filter with an extremely steep slope between its pass band and cut band leads to
__________. Which is why we have to use sampling rates more than double high frequency.
Distortion of sound
SCMS is relatively rare, but could still cause major problems for you in a MADI environment.
False
A properly dithered digital recording system can actually record signals quieter than the error noise
floor in the system.
True
If you hear two test tones, one at 1.25 kHz/95 dB-SPL and the other at 1.3 kHz/35 dB-SPL, you will
clearly perceive both of them.
False
In listening to a digital audio recording, you note that the instruments in it are unfocused, the
soundstage is narrow, and it feels quiet, even though the meters show good levels. What is the likely
cause of these problems?
NOT low sampling rate
The DAC in a digital audio system is unable to reproduce the variations in the original, analog input
signal that occurred between samples in the recording process . . .
False
The process of combining two or more streams of data into a single stream is called __________.
Multiplexing
The following steps belong to the recording side of a typical digital audio signal chain. Place them in
the correct order, from beginning to end.
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

Incoming analog signal

Dither generator
Anti-aliasing filter
Sample and hold
ADC (analog-to-digital conv.)

6. Recording medium
Quantization error noise is very apparent to our ears, and very objectionable. Which of the following
parts of a typical digital audio signal chin is designed to mask quantization error noise with random
noise?
Dither Generator
These days, most digital audio recording systems handle analog-to-digital conversion via a process
called ___________, which allows them to use a very gentle anti-aliasing filter, then filter again
digitally.
Oversampling
The analog signal coming into a typical digital audio signal chain is fundamentally different from that
entering an analog recording chain.
False
The recording medium itself is one of the primary sources of noise in digital audio systems.
False
Real-world sample and hold units are able to hold their levels perfectly steady during the quantization
process, as required in the sampling theorem.
False
The function of the dither generator in a typical digital audio signal chain is to ________.
Add noise to the signal
To prevent the analog-to-digital converter from aliasing, all incoming signals are sent through a
___________ filter.
Lowpass
Which of the following formats carries exactly 8 channels of 48 kHz digital audio on a single cable, in
one direction?
ADAT optical
When digital audio first went mainstream, the __________ system was created and implemented on
s/PDIF systems to guard against massive consumer piracy.
SCMS

One of the strengths of the ADAT optical format is that it carries sync as well as digital audio, so device
transports can be locked together.
False
The ideal anti-aliasing filter would have a slope of ___________ dB per octave.
Infinite
The number of bits used to describe the signal in a digital audio system determines the number of
______ in the system.
Quantization levels

In digital audio systems, ___________ is one popular form of error correction, wherein data bits are
stored out of order.
Interleaving
Chapter 14
______ uses SysEx codes to bridge the gap between MIDI Clock timing and SMPTE timecode
MIDI Time Code (MTC)
Which of the following is NOT one of the standard formats of MIDI messages
Channel exclusive
The primary problem leading to the invention of MIDI was that it was _______
impossible to interconnect the control systems of musical instruments from different
manufacturers
Which of the following is NOT a standard MIDI hardware jack
MIDI LOOP
In which of the following fields is proper synchronization likely to be the most complicated and
challenging?
Videogames
Working on an audio-for-film session, you see that the counter reads "01:12:30:27" and you
immediately know something is wrong. Why

The final place in the clock is for frames and film only uses 24 frames per second, so we should
not see a 27
Synchronization is not particularly important in digital audio, since the computer can simply account
for any discrepancies through processing.
False
The typical frame rate for analog color video projects is _____ frames per second
29.97
The typical frame rate for film projects is _____ frames per second.
NOT 29.97
The typical frame rate for analog black & white video projects in the U.S. is _____ frames per second.
30
Many MIDI devices now use USB or Ethernet connections to a computer, which address the problem
of MIDI's standard hardware interface being slow by today's standards.
True
Newer standards for musical interface communications, especially _____ have finally begun to
capture some of the MIDI market.
Open Sound Control (OSC)
MIDI has very little to do with the actual sound you hear from any particular device.
True
The first MIDI-capable instruments were released in _____.
1983
The most common type of MIDI message is the ____ message.
Channel Voice
Without proper synchronization, any two devices will drift apart from each other with regard to time,
because _____
the motors and/or clocks will never run at exactly the same speed
In analog video production systems, it is most common to synchronize the equipment with _____

Black burst
In large, complex audio production systems, it is most common to synchronize the digital audio clocks
with _____.
world clock
In digital video production systems, it is most common to synchronize the video equipment with
_____.
NOT data stream synchronization
In analog-only audio work, synchronization becomes important when ____.
NOT sending signal from one device to another
Which of the following is NOT part of the original MIDI specification?
Computer interconnections
Quiz 15
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using MIDI to transfer musical information over the
Internet?
MIDI files can easily transfer high-quality audio and musical nuance, especially with human
voices.
One of the primary factors in the phenomenon of _____ is the _____ of the ear.
masking; critical bands
Perceptual coding works by _____.
eliminating data we will not perceive so that the file size can be smaller
One of the most important aspects of all well-known lossy audio and video compression formats is
that they are _____.
NOT ratified by MPEG, so they are guaranteed to work properly
What is the most popular lossy audio compression method?
MPEG-1 Audio Layer III
In the mp3 encoding process, information that the model predicts will be masked is _____.
discarded

Which of the following is the most important possible benefit of data compression?
Smaller files are easier to store and transfer
The primary format for distributing music notation ("sheet music") on the Internet today is _____.
Adobe Acrobat (PDF) files
One minute of stereo, CD-quality audio is roughly ____ of information.
10 MB
Which of the following media compression/transmission standards created by MPEG is NOT
commonly seen on the Internet?
MPEG-3
One possible drawback of data compression is that file quality might suffer, depending on the type of
compression used. Which of the following is another possible drawback of data compression?
The expense of the compression scheme, especially in terms of hardware or time, may
outweigh the benefits.
The advent of new, fiber-based Internet solutions like Google Fiber is likely to make full-bandwidth
audio common on the internet within the next few years.
False

Chapter 16
Which of the following architectural features would likely be a good idea for a large hall, with regard
to acoustics
Many protuberances from the walls, of various sizes and shapes
In practice, flutter echoes eventually attenuate to inaudibility
True
The reflected energy from a wall is always less than the incident energy
True
Modeling sound as rays emitted from points completely captures the operation of reflection in the
real world

False
Sound bouncing back and forth between two parallel walls can create a ____
Flutter echo
At reasonable distances from the source, spherical wavefronts actually behave like _____
Plane wavefronts
Modeling sound as rays emitted from points completely captures the operation of reflection in the
real world
False
Except for unique applications, concave surfaces such as sections of cylinders, spheres, paraboloids,
and ellipsoids should not be used in acoustically important architecture
true
An ideal reflection of sound, where the source is effectively a point, the angles of incidence and
reflection are equal, and the source could be modeled as a virtual source beyond the reflecting
surface, is called a _____
Specular reflection

Sound comprising many reflections sounds dramatically different from sound in a free field
True
Flutter echoes are not particularly objectionable
False
Sound comprising many reflections sounds dramatically different from sound in a free field
True
The reflected energy from a wall is always less than the incident energy
True
One important conceptual breakthrough in modeling the reflective behavior of sound is to _____
ignore the reflective surfaces and base the model instead on virtual sources positioned
beyond those surfaces

When modeling acoustical specular reflections, we consider them to behave the same as light
reflections from mirrors
True
The sound pressure on the surface of a perfect absorber is _____ the energy density of the incident
sound
Equal to
If we take this approach, how much do we typically splay walls to avoid flutter echoes?
5-10 degrees
Compared to normal reflections at the same distance, corner reflections are usually _____
Less intense

Physical objects act as frequency-dependent reflectors of sound: the larger they are, the more they
reflect low frequencies
True

To maximize the energy reflected from a wall, it is most important that the wall be built with
materials providing ____
Pg 97
The wavelength of 100 Hz is 11.3 feet. Generally speaking, a rectangular object would require these
dimensions to reflect 100 Hz
Pg 97
In what scenario is it possible for us to hear "images of images" of sound?
When sound hits more than one surface

Chapter 17
The frequency response graph of an anechoic chamber will show peaks and valleys related to its room
modes

True
Graph that falls
The exponential response of the graph, with the sudden change toward the bottom, is called a
"dual-slope" graph. It indicates that some room modes are ringing longer than the rest of the
room, which indicates poor diffusion.
Withpropertreatment,mosttrackingroomscouldhaveaperfectlydiffusesoundfield
False

If you covered a wall with polycylindrical diffusors, all of which were 2 feet wide and 18" deep, the
wall would become a single, large, very effective diffusor
False
Which of the following is NOT something that usually happens to sound striking a polycylindrical
diffusor (poly)?
Refraction
Theoretically, reverberation is the same everywhere in a room, but practically, the fact that multiple
tests are usually conducted in different places for a given room demonstrates that reverberation
differs for different places in the room
True
When sound absorbing material is placed in a studio in patches, it is more effective at some
frequencies than a single piece of absorbent of the same total surface area. This phenomenon is
explained by
"edge effect," where the edges of the absorbing material cause its effective area to be greater
than a single piece of material.

Graph straight line

This is a room response graph of a fairly typical room. The swings of 30+ dB are evidence of
poor diffusion
Analysis of multiple room reverberation tests in terms of standard deviation shows us that
room modes cause low frequencies to deviate more widely from each other then high
frequencies do

In a perfectly diffuse sound field, reverberation time will be the same at all points in the room
True
When measuring the frequency response of a standard recording studio (with no diffusion treatment),
it is common to see peaks and dips as large a
+/- 35 dB
Given the graph below, which of the following statements is most accurate and true?
This is a room response graph of a fairly typical room. The swings of 30+ dB are evidence of
poor diffusion.
Inaperfectlydiffusesoundfield,thedecaywillbethesameatallfrequencies(discounting
varianceresultingfromarandomnoisetestsignal).
True

Concave surfaces focus sound; the flatter the concave surface, the farther away the sound will be
focused
True
In general, for a given room, the smoothness of reverberation decay
Increases as frequency increases

Chapter 18
A sound source is turned on in an enclosed space. A listener would hear that the sound pressure
builds to equilibrium in a series of small steps, rather than a smooth process
False
Reverberation is considered to be the single most important characteristic defining the quality of a
space by today's acoustician
False
Even if you know all the absorption coefficients for the different wall, floor and ceiling coverings in a
room and the volume of that room, it is very difficult to predict the reverberation time
False

Reverberant sound decays _____ after its source ceases energizing the space
Exponentially
The Sabine equation was discovered through the application of highly sophisticated computer
processing of reverberation measurements
False
Hall reverberation is the only important acoustical factor affecting the quality of live performances of
music
False
It is relatively easy for an acoustician to predict the intelligibility of speech in a room given knowledge
of the geometrical factors and reverberation time
True
In reverberant spaces, it is common to hear a change in pitch during the reverberant decay
True
Roughly how many echoes per second are required to simulate reverberation realistically
1,000
Good symphony orchestra halls are designed with RT60s as high as 7-8s to help with the lushness and
balance of the ensemble
False
In a small room, it is likely to find that some low frequencies will have much longer decay times than
other low frequencies
True
The gap in time between the arrival of the direct signal at our ears and the arrival of the first
reflections cues us about _____
The size of the hall
Most British living rooms have shorter RT60s than most recording studios
True
When using good measurement equipment, one will see that differnet decay traces of a room, when
taken under identical conditions, are identical

False
It is common for the noise floor of a space to require an acoustician to extrapolate the decay time of
that space beneath the noise floor
True
If you listen to a music CD in your living room (which has a fairly short RT), the reverb you hear on the
music will be longer than what is actually on the CD
True
The _____ of a space is problematic in the measurement of the reverberation time of that space
Noise floor
Diagram Pink Floor
One method for measuring reverberation
The Sabine equation is most often used today to
Predict the RT60 of a hall, given its size, surface area, and information about the materials
that cover the surfaces of the hall
The gap in time between the arrival of the direct signal at our ears and the arrival of the first
reflections cues us about _____
The size of the hall
Most people tolerate a reverberation pattern in which the bass frequencies take longer to decay than
the treble
True
The lowest bass frequencies (around 63Hz or lower) could have decay times ____% longer than upper
frequencies without disturbing listeners
75%
Back question:
Pg 169
For impulse measurements in a large space, acousticians might use a ______, to help with measuring
the low frequencies
All of the above

Which of the following steps is NOT required in Schroeder's system for measuring reverberation decay
from a single trace
Pg 168
The standard reverberation time formulas are based on the assumption of an enclosed space in which
there is
highly uniform distribution of sound energy with random direction of propagation of the
sound
Reverberation time has a marked effect on the intelligibility of speech because
reverberation can mask successive consonants
Reverberation time is defined as the time required for the sound in a room to decay _____ dB
60

Chapter 19
The presence of underlay beneath carpet has little effect on the carpet's absorption
False
This graph shows that ____.
Graph on pg. 195
thick porous absorbers have much better low frequency absorption than thin ones
Standard drywall walls offer significant amounts of absorption of low frequencies (<125Hz), which
must be taken into account in any room design involving them
True
Very short time gates are used in which method of determining absorption coefficients?

Tone-burst method
Drapes hung at a distance X from a wall will be most effective at absorbing a frequency f(x) such that
X=
1/4 wavelength of f(x)
The refraction and dissipation of sound in the interior of a wall is an important consideration for the
acoustical engineer.
False
In a very dry space, a poorly-designed Helmholtz resonator could conceivably ring longer than the
space itself.
True
We generally use resonant-type absorbers for low frequencies instead of porous absorbers because
While porous absorbers CAN absorb low frequencies, they must be very thick to do so; they
are thus impractical
Painting the surface of a porous absorber will drastically reduce its effectiveness, unless special paint
is used.
True
A single drape will be more effective if it is stretched to cover as much as wall as possible than if it
only covers half the area it could cover
False
You build a slat absorber with the following characteristics: Frame built with 2x4 boards on edge
(actual width 3.75"). Slats built with 1x4 boards laid across frame to make a 0.75" thick panel. Slats
spaced so that the gaps cover 1.5% of the panel area. What is the resonant frequency of this
absorber?
157.74 HZ

For porous absorbers like fiberglass, changing the density of the material has little effect on its
absorptive qualities
True

In a perforated panel absorber, if all other characteristics are held the same, increasing the depth and
adding mineral wool will lower and broaden the resonant frequency
True
Diagram backing plate, spacing
Absorption coefficients
If one builds a Helmholtz resonator or any derivation thereof (e.g. a perforated panel absorber),
covering the mouth of the resonator with fabric will
Cause the resonator's bandwidth to become more broad, depending on how much air-friction
the fabric creates
Porous absorbers are very effective below 250 Hz
False
Foam rubber underlay is always open-celled, but sponge rubber can be either open- or closed-celled
True
Porous materials tend to have much higher absorption coefficients when mounted with airspace
between the material and the wall
True
The diagram here shows one method for measuring ____. (Fig.12-2)
Absorption coefficients
The diagram shown here is a good design for a (Fig 12-29)
Bass trap
We generally use resonant-type absorbers for low frequencies instead of porous absorbers because
While porous absorbers CAN absorb low frequencies, they must be very thick to do so; they
are thus impractical
The actual absorption coefficient for a surface with regard to a particular sound varies, depending on
the angle and the frequency of the impinging sound
True
The arrangement of absorbers in a room (i.e. where they are placed) has significant impact on their
absorption in that room.

False

If a room requires significant reduction at 500 Hz, the cheapest way to treat it will be _______
To use R-11 "pink stuff" soft fiberglass, with the Kraft paper facing out into the room
The refraction and dissipation of sound in the interior of a wall is an important consideration for the
acoustical engineer.
False
Diagram airspace
Spacing 1" porous absorbers out from a wall leads to increased absorption in the bass and mid
frequencies, compared to placing the material directly on the wall
If a sound ray strikes a wall made up of several different materials, it will be refracted each time it
crosses a boundary between materials
True
The glass fiber board placed at the mouth of a resonant cavity bass trap is highly effective in killing
low frequencies because
At the mouth of the trap, air pressure is zero and particle velocity is high
When we discuss how well a surface or material absorbs sound, we generally use the __________
Absorption coefficient

Chapter 20
When it comes to building a new recording room from scratch, the primary goal in determining the
layout of the room should be to ___________
avoid coincidence of axial modes
Which of the following performed early acoustical experiments with resonators shaped somewhat like
laboratory flasks
Hermann Von Helmholtz
Which of the following is a published, well-regarded room dimension ratio

Pg 247
When sound resonantes in a closed pipe, air particle displacement _____ along the length of the pipe
Is opposite sound pressure level e.g. where SPL is high, displacement is low
The modal resonances in a room are a function of _____
the physical dimensions of the room
If a sound source emits sound in a room, the resulting sound heard at any particular point in a room is
a combination of the direct signal plus all the various reflections
True
Which one of the following rooms falls within Bolt's range
H: 10' W: 16' L: 23.3
Which of the following is a published, well-regarded room dimension ratio?
H: 1 W: 1.4 L: 1.9
Room resonances have _____ on the sound we hear indoors
a profound impact
Based on the research presented by Everest, it is clear that splaying the walls of a recording studio has
nominal benefits for diffusion and substantial ones for flutter echo
True
The wavelength of the fundamental resonance frequency in a closed pipe is
2x
You are standing in a closed pipe. A speaker mounted in the wall at one end of the pipe is playing a
sine wave tuned to the fundamental resonance of the pipe, which is getting pretty annoying! Where
should you stand to minimize the amount of the sine wave you hear?
In the center of the pipe

Chapter 21
All primitive root diffusers will have a pattern that is _______ and _______.
Asymmetrical periodic

The greatest limitation of the reflection phase-grating diffuser is that ________.

Because of the one quarter wavelength groove depth requirement, it is only effective over a
fairly narrow band of frequencies
Through remarkable insight and much experimentation, ______ did more to develop our
understanding of acoustic diffusion than anyone else in the last 100 years.
Manfred R. Schroeder
IN the maximum length binary sequence diffuser like the one Schroeder used, changing the well
depth from, 25 wavelength results in
Almost no diffusion, it reflects almost as well as a flat sheet of metal
If we project a certain frequency at a piece of sheet metal, bent according to binary (+/- 1) max length
sequence, with well a quarter wave length deep, we get almost perfect diffusion in the reflection
True
In churches, there is often conflict between the intelligibility of the spoken word and conditions for
full enjoyment of music making the rear wall of the
True
A standard quadratic residue diffusor, with columns of varying depths, diffuses sound in 3 dimensions
False
Typical absorbers, such as glass fiber panels, provide significant diffusion benefits, in addition to the
absorptive qualities.
False
In building a quadratic-residue diffusor, the max well depth is ___.
Determined by the lowest frequency to be scattered.
Good broad-bandwidth wide-angle diffusion requires a large period (eg. The result of using a large
prime # in the quadratic residue equation) with a large # of deep, narrow wells
True
Quadratic-residue diffusors designed to cover very wide frequencies ranges (ie 100 Hz- 17 kHz)
generally
Employ the concept of fractal geometry: they stack smaller diffusors (which diffuse high
frequencies) inside of larger ones

In a quadratic residue diffusor, thin and rigid separators are usually used between the wells, without
these, _______.
The effectiveness of the diffuser is decreased.
Difficult small-room acoustics are helped especially by diffraction-grating-type diffusing elements
True
All quadratic residue diffusers will have a pattern that is _______ and ________.
Symmetrical, periodic

A basic binary maximum-length diffusor will be reasonably effective over a frequency range of +/- .5
octaves around the frequency for which it is designed.
True

Quiz 22
Shrubbery and trees can be an important factor in the reducing of street noise inside a studio
True
In solid structures sound travels great distances with little loss
True
In constructing a double window for a studio, what range of distances between the panes is most
efficient
4-8
To avoid the expense of high transmission loss doors, studio designers frequently use ______ instead.
Sound locks
An ordinary house-hold door probably offers around ______ dB sound insulation
20
Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic approaches to reducing noise ina listening or
recording room.
Wearing flat-response ear-plugs

The effect of a wall on sound passing throught it is called the _______ of the wall.
Transmission loss
A double window is much better than a single window in a studio, and a triple window provides the
same amount of improvement again
False
A wall can be classified as to its sound transmission class by comparing the graph of its sound
transmission with standard graphs
True
What is the most important aspect of a wall with regard to blocking outside airborne sounds?
Mass
Porous materials are excellent sound absorbers and can be used by themselves to insulate against
sound travelling from one room to another
False

In general, walls do a better job of blocking low frequencies than high ones
False
Which of the following walls would give the best STC rating?
Double 2x4 stud wall filled with 9 fiberglass
Room modes affect studio isolation in that sound entering a room with appreciable energy at a model
frequency will be very hard to control
True
The construction of a double window requires the use of absorption between the panes.this
absorption must go at the bottom of the window, not the sides and top.
False
What is most important aspect of a wall with regard to blocking outside airborne sound?
Mass

Applying a great deal of absorption to the walls of a studio is the most effective way to control
invading noise
False
Active noise control (where signal is measured and a generator its inverse) is used frequently to tame
loud noise sources
False
Which of the following is NOT a way by which sound can invade a space?
Transmitted through humans
A small crack in a door does not affect the noise reducing properties of the door very much
False
Which of the following is generally the most logical and profitable approach to noise reduction?
Reduce the noise output of the offending source
Quiz 23
Which of the following is NOT a good tip for achieving good results as you pursue quiet air in an
acoustically sensitive space?
Control relative humidity carefully to ensure the air is not too wet.
Which of the following is considered a practical and obtainable room criteria (RC) noise level for
recording studios
RC-15
In addition to overall noise produced by a fan, it will also usually produce a discrete tone related to its
revolution speed and number of blades
True
Lined ducts are particularly effective for reducing ____
General midrange noise in the system, particularly 1-3kHz
The most effective solution for noise control is to
Minimize it at the source

The quantity of air to be delivered measured in cubic feet per minute, is a basic design parameter of
an HVAC system
True
Which of the following is capable of producing serious amounts of noise in an HVAC system?
All of the below
Which of the following is the most commonly used set of criteria for HVAC noise specifications?\
Balanced noise criteria (NCB)
Which of the following is NOT one of the factors that must be considered to obtain quiet air in an
acoustically sensitive space?
Establishing proper temperature gradients in ducts
The primary concern with noise generated by HVAC machinery is usually
Rumble/vibration coupling into the structure of the building
It is expensive to run larger-diam ducts throughout a facility. One way to help mitigate costs and still
obtain quiet air at the outlets of the ducts is to _____
Use small ducts for most of the runs, but flare them out before the outlets. However they will
still be noisy all along
Aside from the fan, HVAC machinery generally does not produce a great deal of noise, and can be
located anywhere it is convenient
False
Which of the following types of nose is common to almost all acoustically sensitive rooms?
Noise from the HVAC system
In addition to the overall noise produced by a fan, it will also usually produce a discrete tone related
to its revolution speed and number of blades.
True
Which of the following RC levels would likely be recommended for a small working space for several
people, like a small conference room, hospital operating room, or a classroom?
RC-25 RC-30

For acoustically sensitive spaces, it is generally best- but most expensive- to build a ________ HVAC
system
Low-velocity, large duct
Lining ducts in HVAC systems generally does a good job of attenuating low frequencies
False
Which of the following is a very important factor in keeping HVAC noise quiet
Air velocity in the ducts
NCB values for HVAC system noise can be misleading, bcz they do not account for specific frequency
response differences between rooms
True
Which of the following would best describe a room measured as NCB -25 (R)
The room is quiet with a significant rumbly component
Which of the following options for the HVAC system will give best result
Large airfoil centrifugal type
The typical cost of constructing a recording studio have gone up since the advent of digital recording,
since its high signal-to-noise ratios mean that we need a lower RC contour goal
True
Which of the following is NOT one of the reasons HVAC systems are required in acoustic sensitive
spaces
To provide a stable medium for acoustic transmission
Quiz 24
Windows, doors and other construction materials are active in creating the indirect (reflective) sound
of the room
True
Small recording studios began to emerge as a major market force in the
1990s

The principals involved in dealing with the acoustics of small recording studios are widely applicable
even to larger recording studios
True
A typical small recording studio in the 3,000-10,000 cubic foot range should probably have RT60 of
about ____
.3-.7 seconds
Our primary concern with budgeting for the construction of a small recording studio is the cost of
building the walls and floors; doors, windows, lighting, and wiring precautions are all secondary and
will cause no sig problems
False
The process of designing treatment for a small recording studio begins with _____
Establishing the desired RT60 and calculating what it will be before treatment
In practice it is difficult to add too much diffusion in a small recording studio
True
A recording studio with a total volume of 1,000 cubic feet will present very serious acoustical
problems that may be insurmountable
True

The ultimate criterion for the quality of a recording studio, regardless of size, is ____
The acceptability of the sound recorded in it for its intended audience

Unless great care is taken in design and construction, small recording studios will have ___
Poor distribution of room modes with significant acoustical anomalies as a result

Which of the following would be a good goal for the acoustical characteristics of a small recording
studio?
Short RT60 with balanced, diffuse characteristic and a slight bass rise

Which of the following is NOT one of the ways we typically try to reduce the ambient noise in a small
recording studio
Treat the room with absorbers and diffusors

QUIZ
25

In creating a good Initial Time Delay Gap for an audio control room, one approach is to attenuate the
early reflections with absorptions. As long as they are attenuated at least _____ dB, they can be
ignored.
20
One significant benefit of applying reflection-phase grating style diffusion to the rear wall of an audio
control room is___.
to spread the wavelets in space and in time
Which of the following is a serious, unique acoustical challenge presented by audio control rooms?
Control rooms require us to deal with the mixing console, which is often the source of
problematic acoustical reflections very near the listener
In a specific audio control room, we discover that the playback systems provides a bass frequency
boost at the listening position, what will be the likely result?
The engineer will correct for the hyped bass in the mix, by turning it down, which will lead to
all recordings made in the studio having a bass bass deficiency
The architectural design of control rooms for recording and production studios is straightforward, and
any architect has the knowledge set to accomplish the task
False
The basic idea behind the RFZ control room approach is to _____
Carefully direct all early reflections away from the listener and towards the rear wall, by
managing the shapes and angles of the wall and ceiling
One of the things that makes the job of designing an audio control room easier is the fact that _____.
we know where the listener will be sitting, and can design the room around that

The reflection of sound energy from the rear wall of audio control room can cause sig cancellations in
the low frequency region. The best way to deal with this issue is to ____
Place large, low frequency diffusors at the rear wall, in addition to higher-frequency diffusors
The main difference between a high-end home listening room (or home theater) and an audio control
room is ____
The control room must provide completely accurate playback at the listening position, while
the home listening room should provide the most enjoyable playback
One of the things that makes the job of designing an audio control room easier is the fact that
We know where the listener will be sitting and can design the room around that.
In the reflective end of a LEDE style audio control room, it is very important to avoid ____
Specular reflections
The LEDE approach to audio control rooms was designed for stereo playback and cannot be adapted
for surround sound mixing
False
The team of Don Davis are perhaps most well known for inventing the ____ style of audio control
room
Live End-Dead End (LEDE)
The time gap between the arrival at the listener of the direct and reflected portions of a signal is
determined by the _____
Geometry of the room
Placing a loudspeaker close to an isolated solid surface make its output into half as much space, which
______, in that space
Doubles its power output, providing a 3 dB boost
In the LEDE style audio control room, if the reflections from the rear wal arrive at the listener about
40-80 ms after the direct sound _____
The listeners auditory system will integrate them with the early portion of the sound, making
it seem as though there is natural ambience in the front of the room
The concept of the Initial Time Delay Gap came from Leo Beraneks extensive study of the acoustics of
____

Concert halls
The LEDE approach calls for one end of an audio control room to be highly absorptive, with the other
end very reflective. In terms of treatment, the live end should have _____
Lots of diffusion, preferably reflection-phase grating types of diffusion
In small rooms, the Initial Time Delay Gap (ITDG) is small, in large rooms it is larger
True
The ITDG is a measurement of ____
The time between the arrival of the direct sound at the listener and the arrival of the first
reflection
What is the primary, very specific purpose of an audio control room?
Providing high-quality loudspeaker playback to a single listening (mixing) person
A trihedral corner is one where three walls come together. Placing a loudspeaker in a trihedral corner
produces ____
A flat response at the listener, if the listener is in a reflection free zone
The inner shell of an audio control room, which establishes the shape of the inside of the room, can
be built with lightweight materials, as long as care is taken to avoid any buzzing or rattling joints
True
Which of the following is a good choice for the walls of the outer shell of an audio control room,
which must contain strong, low frequency sounds within the room
12 in thick concrete
The typical approach today to designing audio control rooms depends on shaping the wall surfaces to
nullify the negative effect of the reflections. This design model is known as the ____ approach
RFZ
The reason we want to achieve good ITDG in an audio control room is ____
Reflections arriving too soon after the direct signal will combine with it, causing a comb filter
effect and coloring what the listener hears

QUIZ 26

Concert halls that sound good usually have a well-define initial delay gap, which is often around 20 ms
True
In halls designed for either music or speech, a sloping (raked) floor is desirable for the audience
True
Which of the following types of music performance provides the best model for concert hall design?
None of the above
Which of the following kinds of architecture is generally considered to be the pinnacle of acoustical
design?
Concert halls and other large performance spaces
Experiments show that echoes in large performance spaces are often audible when they
Are at a level and a delay time the same as or just above, the level of the reverberation in the
room at the same time
Which of the following acoustical criteria is markedly different for large performance spaces than it is
for smaller acoustically sensitive spaces like recording studios?
None of the above
In a large performance space, the presence of a discernible, discrete echo is ____
A gross defect, for which there is little tolerance
For large performance spaces the types of performances intended to occur there will profoundly
influence the design
True
In a large performance space designed for
music,
the RT60 of bass frequencies will be _____ those of
mids and highs
Longer
In halls designed for unamplified speech it is often necessary to limit the overall room volume
True
In a hall designed for unamplified speech, the audience area must be placed as close to the talkers as
possible, why?

All of the above

A traditional, long shape is good for a medium-large hall designed for speech
False
In a large performance space designed for
Speech
, the RT60 of bass frequencies will be ____ those of
mids and highs
Shorter or the same as
The acoustic gain of a concert hall can be defined as ___
The difference in sound pressure levels between that in the center of the hall from an
arbitrary source, minus the sound pressure level 10 meters away from the same source

Deep balconies in concert halls are problematic because they ____

Create acoustical shadows where the sound quality will be diminished
A fan shaped large hall is best suited for
Speech
The clarity of a concert hall can be defined as ____
The difference between the sound energy in the first 80 ms and the late reverberation energy
arriving after 80 ms
The brilliance of a good concert hall can be defined as _____
Having high frequency early decay times that are roughly 90% as long as the mid frequency
early decay times
The vineyard configuration for a concert hall, as used in the Berlin Philharmonic and Kansas Citys
Kaufman Centers Helzberg Hall means that ____
The hall is not rectangular and the audience seating area is broken into a number of different
areas with low walls between them, perhaps even surrounding the orchestra
Architects and acousticians generally say: a multi-purpose hall in a no-purpose hall, because for the
best results, a hall must be tailored for its specific purpose
True
In large concert halls designed for music, concave surfaces are best used _____

Nowhere
In a concert hall designed for music, very generally the ceiling should be ____
About as high as 1/3-2/3 the width of the room
In small speech halls, the majority of the absorption is provided by the audience
True