Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

---------------------------------------------------------------INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.
---------------------------------------------------------------1. What is the duration of Arresto Mayor as a penalty?
A. One day to thirty days
B. As the court may determine
C. Six months and one day to six years
D. One month and one day to six months
2. If the convict has no property with which to meet the fine of his
pecuniary liabilities, he shall be subject to __.
A. Accessory penalty
B. Preventive imprisonment
C. Subsidiary penalty
D. Afflictive penalty
3. One by which a party sues another for the enforcement or
protection of a right or the prevention or redress of a wrong.
What is being defined?
A. Civil action
B. Criminal action
C. Special proceedings
D. Remedial action
4. It is the method prescribed by law for the apprehension and
prosecution of persons accused of any criminal offense, and
their punishment, in case of conviction.
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Procedure
C. Criminal Evidence
D. Remedial Law
5. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to attend and
testify at the hearing or trial or the trial of an action or at any
investigation conducted by competent authority or the taking of
his deposition.
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

A. Summons
B. Subpoena
C. Court Order
D. Warrant
6. It is an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense,
subscribed by the prosecutor and filed with the court.
A. Information
B. Mittimus
C. Court Order
D. Complaint
7. ___ is one by which the State prosecutes a person for an act or
omission punishable by law.
A. Civil Action
B. Remedial Action
C. Criminal Action
D. Power of the State
8. It is concerned with the procedural steps through which a
criminal case passes, commencing with the initial investigation
of a crime and concluding with the unconditional release of the
offender. What is being defined?
A. Criminal Procedure
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Law
D. Remedial Law
9. It is a writ addressed to the defendant, directing him to answer
within the time prescribed by the rules the complaint filed
against him by the plaintiff, with a notice that unless he so
answers, plaintiff will take judgment by default and maybe
granted the relief applied for.
A. Court Order
B. Summons
C. Subpoena
D. Warrant
10.
__ are remedies by which a party seeks to establish a
status, a right, or a particular fact.
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

A. Criminal Action
B. Special proceedings
C. Administrative case
D. None of the above
11. It is a generic term used to describe the network of laws and
rules which govern the procedural administration of criminal
justice.
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Procedure
D. Remedial Law
12. What is called the authority to hear and decide a particular
offense and impose punishment for it?
A. Criminal Evidence
B. Criminal Jurisdiction
C. Power of the Court
D. Juridical Power
13. The facts alleged in the complaint and the laws in force at the
time of the commencement of the action determine the
jurisdiction of a court. This statement is
A. Correct, as it is a general rule
B. Incorrect, as not one among the rules
C. It depends on the judge to consider
D. It depends on the law existing at the time of application
14. It is the process of resolving a dispute or a grievance outside of
the court by presenting it to a third party or a panel decision.
A. Mediation
B. Arbitration
C. Amicable settlement
D. Negotiation
15. In Katarungang Pambarangay proceedings, may the parties
appear with the assistance of their counsel?
A. Yes, because of their right to have counsel
B. No, appearance of a lawyer in all Patarungang
Pambarangay proceedings is prohibited
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

C. Yes, at the prerogative of each party

D. No, unless the lupon chairman allows it
16. It is a sworn written statement charging a person with an
offense, subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer, or
other public officer charge with the enforcement of the law
violated.
A. Subpoena
B. Warrant
C. Complaint
D. Summons
17. Under the rules, all criminal actions commenced by a complaint
or information shall be prosecuted under the direction and
control of the ___.
A. Judge
B. Policeman
C. Prosecutor
D. Lupon chairman
18. As an exception to the rule, in Municipal Trial Courts or
Municipal Circuit Trial Courts when the prosecutor assigned
thereto or to the case is not available, the following can
prosecute the case, except A. the MTC judge
B. the offended party
C. any peace officer
D. public officer charged with enforcement of the law
violated
19. In the crimes of adultery and concubinage, it shall not be
prosecuted except upon a complaint filed by
A. the offended spouse
B. parents of offended spouse
C. guardian of offended party
D. grandparents of offended party
20. For a complaint or information to be sufficient, it must state the
following, except
A. the name of the accused
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

B. the designation of the offense

C. the acts or omissions complained of
D. the age of the offended party
21. When an offense is committed by more than one person, all of
them shall be included in the complaint or information. This
statement is
A. correct
B. not necessary, under the rules
C. incorrect
D. doubtful
22. The rule provides that the complaint or information must state
the name and surname of the accused or any appellation or
nickname by which he has been or is known. What if his name
cannot be ascertained? The rule says A. leave the name blank to be supplied later on
B. the name juan de la cruz should be used
C. he must be described under a fictitious name with a
statement that his true name is unknown
D. the name john doe should be entered
23. The rule provides that the complaint or information shall state
the designation of the offense given by the statute, aver the acts
or omissions constituting the offense, and specify its qualifying
and aggravating circumstances. If there is no designation of the
offense, then
A. reference shall be made to the section or subsection of the
statute punishing it
B. reference shall be based on the provisions of the Revised
Penal Code
C. reference shall be made on the basis of special laws
D. reference shall be made in accordance with the civil code
24. The acts or omissions complained of as constituting the offense
and the qualifying and aggravating circumstances must be
stated in ordinary and
A. shall be translated to Tagalong or Ilocano dialect
B. concise language
C. not necessarily in the language used in the statue
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

D. as long as the person know what offense is being charged

25. The complaint or information is sufficient if it can be understood
from its allegations that the offense was committed or some of
its essential ingredients occurred at some place within
A. the locality
B. the reach of coverage area
C. the jurisdiction of the court
D. the identification of the person
26. It is not necessary to state in the complaint or information the
precise date the offense was committed except
A. when it is a material ingredient of the offense
B. when the offense may be alleged to have been committed
on a date as near as possible to the actual date of its
commission
C. Both A and B are correct
D. when date is clearly known
27. Where an offense is committed in a train, aircraft, or other public
or private vehicle in the course of its trip, the criminal action
shall be instituted
A. at the nearest RTC where such train, aircraft, or other
vehicle passed during its trip.
B. at the nearest MTC where such train, aircraft, or other
vehicle passed during its trip.
C. under the prerogative of the prosecutor
D. in the court of any municipality or territory where such
train, aircraft, or other vehicle passed during its trip,
including the place of its departure and arrival.
28. A complaint or information is sufficient in substance if it doesnt
contain any of the defects which is a ground for a motion to
quash. A motion to quash, once granted, is equivalent to
dismissal, but not acquittal. This statement is
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
C. Sometimes correct
D. Sometimes incorrect
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

29. If acquittal is based on the merits of the case,

based on ___.
A. crime committed
B. technicality
C. judges prerogative
D. lack of evidence

dismissal is

30. It is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is

sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime
has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty
thereof, and should be held for trial.
A. Prejudicial question
B. Double jeopardy
C. Preliminary Investigation
D. Probe
31. A preliminary investigation is required to be conducted before
the filing of a complaint or information for an offense where the
penalty prescribed by law is
A. Capital punishment
B. Life imprisonment
C. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day
without regard to the fine
D. prision mayor to reclusion perpetua
32. Which among the following is not authorized to conduct
preliminary investigation?
A. National and Regional State Prosecutors
B. Provincial or City Prosecutors
C. Judges of lower courts
D. City Assistant Prosecutors
33. Within how many days after the filing of the complaint, the
investigating officer either dismiss or issue a subpoena to the
respondent?
A. 10 days, according to the procedures
B. 15 days, according to the rules
C. 20 days, according to the judge
D. At any time, according to the prosecutor
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

34. Within how many days from receipt of the subpoena with
complaint and supporting affidavits and documents,
respondent should submit his counter-affidavit and that of
witnesses and other supporting documents relied upon for
defense?
A. 10 days, according to the procedures
B. 15 days, according to the rules
C. 20 days, according to the judge
D. At any time, according to the prosecutor

the
the
his
his

35. Within how many days after the investigation, the investigating
officer should determine whether or not there is sufficient
ground to hold the respondent for trial?
A. 10 days, according to the procedures
B. 15 days, according to the rules
C. 20 days, according to the judge
D. At any time, according to the prosecutor
36. An arrest is made by an actual restraint of a person to be
arrested, or by
A. recognizance
B. way of probation
C. his submission to the custody of the person making the
arrest
D. voluntary detention
37. The duty of the officer executing the warrant to arrest the
accused is to
A. detain the arrested person within the time prescribed by
law
B. deliver him to the nearest police station or jail without
unnecessary delay
C. conduct preliminary investigation
D. lock up the person to the detention cell for safekeeping
38. Are there how many Justices of the Supreme Court of the
Philippines?
A. 13 Justices excluding the Chief Justice
B. 15 Justices including the Chief Justice
C. 16 Justices including the Chief Justice
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

D. 12 Justices excluding the Chief Justice

39. The head of the office to whom the warrant of arrest was
delivered for execution shall cause the warrant to be executed
within ten (10) days from its receipt. Within ten (10) days after
the expiration of the period, the officer to whom it was assigned
for execution should
A. make a follow up investigation on the progress of the
execution of the warrant
B. make a report to the judge who issued the warrant
C. execute the warrant by himself
D. apply to the court for another warrant
40. When the person to be arrested is a prisoner who has escaped
from a penal establishment or place where he is serving final
judgment or is temporarily confined while his case is pending,
or has escaped while being transferred from one confinement to
another, there is no need for a warrant of arrest. This statement
is
A. Correct
B. Incorrect
C. Sometimes correct
D. Sometimes incorrect
41. It is now a settled rule that the time of making arrest can be
made during the day and at any time of the day only. This
statement is
A. True
B. False
C. It depends upon the judge
D. It depends upon the arresting officer
42. When making an arrest by virtue of a warrant, the officer shall
inform the person to be arrested of the cause of the arrest and
the fact that a warrant has been issued for his arrest, except
A. when he flees or forcibly resists before the officer has
opportunity to so inform him
B. when the giving of such information will imperil the arrest.
C. Both A and B are correct
D. voluntary surrender
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

43. An officer, in order to make an arrest either by virtue of a

warrant, or without a warrant, may break into any building or
enclosure where the person to be arrested is or is reasonably
believed to be, if he is refused admittance thereto, after
announcing his authority and purpose. Is this allowed?
A. No, it is a violation of domicile
B. No, it is trespass to dwelling
C. Yes, it is in accordance with the rules
D. Yes, according to the judge
44. If a person lawfully arrested escapes or is rescued, any person
may immediately pursue or retake him without a warrant at any
time and in any place within the Philippines. This statement is
A. Correct, in accordance with the rules
B. Incorrect, it is baseless
C. Sometimes correct, when the person is unidentified
D. Sometime incorrect, unless with a valid search warrant
45. A restraint on person, depriving one of his own will and liberty,
binding him to become obedient to the will of the law. What is
being defined?
A. Custody
B. Arrest
C. Search
D. Seizure
46. What is the literal meaning of the Latin phrase In flagrante
delicto?
A. caught in the act of wrong
B. hot pursuit of a person
C. delicate flower flagrance
D. in the name of the people
47. For purposes of search and seizure, the officer can break into
any building or enclosure without violating the right of privacy.
Is this allowed?
A. No, never allowed.
B. Yes, when there is consent and there is a warrant
C. No, this is allowed only in making an arrest not search
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D. It all depends on the officer thru police discretion

48. It is the security given for the release of a person in custody of
the law, furnished by him or a bondsman, to guarantee his
appearance before any court as required under the conditions
hereinafter specified.
A. Recognizance
B. Probation
C. Republic Act 5487
D. Bail
49. The failure of the accused to appear at the trial without
justification and despite due notice shall be deemed a waiver of
his right to be present thereat. In such case, should the trial
proceed?
A. Yes, the trial may proceed in absentia
B. No, because of the absence of the accused
C. No, anyway there is always bail as security
D. Yes, upon the order of the high court
50. When an accused is represented by a fake lawyer who
pretended to be a member of the bar, his right to counsel is
violated, unless
A. the fake lawyer is a person of probity
B. the accused voluntarily chose him knowing him to be a
non-lawyer
C. the court allows it
D. the public attorneys office is informed
51. On arraignment, the accused must be arraigned before
A. the prosecutor who conducted preliminary investigation
B. the Regional Trial Court
C. the court where the complaint or information was filed or
assigned for trial
D. the Supreme Court
52. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the People of the
Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer,
commanding him to search for personal property described
therein and bring it before the court.
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

A. Warrant of Arrest
B. Search Warrant
C. Bench Warrant
D. Court Order
53. Before arraignment, the court shall inform the accused of his
right to counsel and ask him if he desires to have one. Unless
the accused is allowed to defend himself in person or has
employed counsel of his choice
A. the court shall suspend the trial until the accused picked
his lawyer
B. the court must assign a counsel de oficto to defend him
C. the court proceed with the trial in the absence of a lawyer
D. the court will impose judgement on merits of the case
54. The initial step in a criminal prosecution whereby the defendant
is brought before the court to hear the charges and to enter a
plea is called
A. Pleadings
B. Plea Bargaining
C. Arraignment
D. Preliminary Investigation
55. At what time the accused may move to quash the complaint or
information?
A. At any time before entering a plea
B. 10 days before the date of trial
C. 15 days immediately after plea bargaining
D. 10 days upon receipt of information by the court
56. After a plea of not guilty is entered, the accused shall have
__________ to prepare for trial. The trial shall commence within
thirty (30) days from receipt of the pre-trial order.
A. at least 5 days
B. at least 10 days
C. at least 15 days
D. at least 20 days
57. Among the following, which shall be the first in the order of
trial?
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

A. The defense counsel will preside in the case

B. The accused should be presented on the witness stand
C. The prosecution will present evidence to prove the charge
and, in the proper case, the civil liability
D. The judge will recite the Panunupa sa Watawat
58. The judgment is promulgated by reading it in the presence of the
accused and any judge of the court in which it was rendered.
However, when the judge is absent or outside the province or
city, the judgment may be promulgated by
A. the clerk of court
B. secretary of justice
C. any justice of the supreme court
D. any judge in the RTC or MTC within the immediate locality
59. At any time before a judgment of conviction becomes final, the
court may, on motion of the accused or at its own instance but
with the consent of the accused, grant new trial or
reconsideration. This statement is
A. Incorrect, it should be within five (5) days after judgement
B. Correct, as stated in the rules
C. Correct, as long as on the motion of the accused
D. Incorrect, motion for reconsideration should be denied
60. An appeal must be taken within ____ from the promulgation of
the judgment or from notice of the final order appealed from.
A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 20 days
D. 10 days
61. The Court of Appeals of the Philippines is the second highest
court next to the Supreme Court. It is composed of ___ .
A. 69 Justices including the Presiding Justice
B. 58 Justices including the Presiding Justice
C. 28 Justices including the Presiding Justice
D. 16 Justices including the Presiding Justice
62. A search warrant shall not issue except upon ___ in connection
with one specific offense to be determined personally by the
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

judge after examination under oath or affirmation of the

complainant and the witnesses he may produce.
A. existence of probable cause
B. conduct of preliminary investigation
C. availability of witnesses
D. in writing
63. A search warrant shall be valid for _____ from its date.
Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 15 days
B. 10 days
C. 20 days
D. until it is served
64. Can a person lawfully arrested be searched for dangerous
weapon or anything which may have been used or constitute
proof in the commission of an offense without a search warrant?
A. Yes, it is allowed by the rules
B. No, it must be with search warrant
C. It depends upon the the order of the court
D. It is a prerogative of the peace officer
65. Every person is entitled to be presumed innocent of a crime or
wrong, unless proven otherwise. This is a prima facie
presumption which must be overcome by proof beyond
reasonable doubt. This statement is
A. absolutely true
B. absolutely false
C. without legal basis
D. out of context in the Philippines
66. It is the means, sanctioned by the Revised Rules of Court, of
ascertaining to a judicial proceeding the truth respecting a
matter of fact.
A. Motive
B. Fact
C. Evidence
D. Proof of crimes

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

67. Evidence is ___ when it has a tendency in reason to establish

the probability or improbability if a fact in issue.
A. Accurate
B. Relevant
C. Competent
D. Complete
68. Direct evidence proves the fact in dispute without the aid of any
inference or presumption while _____ is the proof of a fact or
facts from which, taken either singly or collectively, the
existence of the particular fact in dispute may be inferred as a
necessary or probable consequence.
A. Indirect Evidence
B. Circumstantial Evidence
C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D. Preponderance of evidence
69. The evidence is considered positive when the witness affirms
that a fact did or did not occur, and ____ when the witness
states he did not see or know of the occurrence of a fact.
A. Hearsey
B. Negative
C. Neutral
D. Active
70. What kind of evidence is given by one possessing in regard to a
particular subject or department of human activity or knowledge
which does not usually acquired by other persons?
A. Expert evidence
B. Special evidence
C. Ordinary evidence
D. Cumulative evidence
71. It is an additional evidence of a different kind and character,
tending to prove the same point.
A. Cumulative evidence
B. Corroborative evidence
C. Prima facie evidence
D. Add value evidence
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

72. Evidence is the means of proof while ____is the effect of

evidence, the establishment of as fact by evidence. It results as
a probative effect of evidence and is the conviction or
persuasion of mind resulting from a consideration of the
evidence.
A. Motive
B. Evidence
C. Proof
D. Value
73. In evidence, what is the ultimate fact or the fact to be
established?
A. Factum Lactum
B. Factum Probandum
C. Factum Probans
D. Factum Facie
74. When the evidence consists of writings or any material
containing letters, words, numbers, figures, symbols or other
modes of written expression offered as proof of their contents,
they are called
A. Material evidence
B. Documentary evidence
C. Testimonial evidence
D. Relevant evidence
75. The oral testimony of the witness to the killing as reflected in the
stenographic notes is considered
A. Material evidence
B. Documentary evidence
C. Testimonial evidence
D. Relevant evidence
76. The cognizance of certain facts which judges may properly take
and act on without proof because they already know them is
called
A. Legal presumption
B. Judicial notice
C. Factum probandum
D. Legal history
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

77. Generally speaking, matters of judicial notice have three

material requisites, except A. the matter be common and general knowledge
B. the matter must be well and authoritatively settled and not
doubtful or uncertain
C. the matter must be biblically based
D. the matter must be known to be within the limits of
jurisdiction of the court
78. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a document, no
evidence shall be admissible other than the original document
itself. This is the
A. Originality rule
B. Best evidence rule
C. Parole evidence rule
D. Questioned document rule
79. When the original of a document is in the custody of a public
officer and is recorded in a public office, its contents may be
proved by
A. a xerox copy of the original
B. a notarized copy of the original
C. a certified copy issued by the public office in custody
thereof
D. all of these
80. When the terms of an agreement have been reduced into writing,
it is considered as containing all the terms agreed upon and
there can be, between the parties and their successors-ininterests, no evidence of such other terms or agreements other
than the contents of the written agreement. This is called the
A. Best evidence rule
B. Parole evidence rule
C. Pardon evidence rule
D. Questioned document rule
81. Can a deaf and dumb person allowed to testify in court?
A. Yes, in any manner satisfactory to the court
B. Yes, by writing or signs through an interpreter
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

C. No, never allowed by the rules

D. Both A and B are correct
82. The husband or the wife, during or after the marriage, cannot be
examined without the consent of the other as to any
communication received in confidence by one from the other
during the marriage. This statement is covered under the so
called
A. Marital Priviledge Rule
B. Paternity Rule
C. Rule on Marriage
D. Rule on Special proceedings
83. Tacio admitted to his lawyer that he killed Badong. After
sometime, the lawyer withdrew his representation of Tacio.
Thereafter, the prosecution wishes to offer the lawyers
testimony as to the admission of Tacio to him. Will the testimony
of Tacio be presented as evidence?
A. No, the admission was learned during the existence of the
attorney-client relationship covered under privileged
communication
B. Yes, the lawyers withdrawal of representation cuts
attorney-client relationship
C. Both A and B are incorrect
D. It depends upon the prerogative of the court
84. It is a contract whereby the parties, by making reciprocal
concessions, avoid litigation or put an end to one already
commenced.
A. Agreement
B. Compromise
C. Special arrangement
D. Treaty
85. The act, declaration or omission of a party as to a relevant fact
may be given in evidence against him is called
A. Declaration
B. Admission
C. Confession
D. Oral argument
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

86. A confession made before a court in which the case is pending

and in the course of legal proceedings therein is called
A. Judicial confession
B. Extrajudicial confession
C. Intrajudicial confession
D. Paralegal confession
87. A confession is admissible only against the accused who made
it and not against his co-accused, for, as against the latter, the
confession would be hearsay and res inter alios acta. This
statement is
A. Correct as a general rule
B. Incorrect, not allowed by the rules
C. Sometimes correct
D. Sometimes incorrect
88. Hearsay evidence is that which derives its value, not solely from
the credit to be given to the witness upon the stand, but in part
from the veracity and competency of some other person. Is
hearsay evidence admissible?
A.
Absolutely not admissible
B.
No, except in some case like in dying declaration
C.
Absolutely admissible without exemption
D.
All of the above are correct
89. The declaration of a dying person, made under the
consciousness of an impending death, may be received in any
case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as evidence of
the cause and surrounding circumstances of such death is
called
A. Oral testament
B. Dying declaration
C. Res gestae
D. Deadmans statute
90. These are spontaneous statements made by a person while a
startling occurrence is taking place or immediately prior or
subsequent thereto with respect to the circumstances thereof.
A. Dying declaration
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

B. Deadmans statute
C. Res gestae
D. Oral testament
91. Alfie was in his room when he overheard Oliver and Arjay talking
in the other room. Oliver telling Arjay that he had got into a fight
in a bar and stabbed Remrick thereafter he ran away to the
house of Arjay. The following day, Alfie learned that Remrick
died of a stab wound. Can Alfie testify as the statement made by
Oliver to Arjay even though he did not personally see Oliver stab
Remrick?
A. No, it is hearsay
B. Yes, it is part of res gestea
C. It depends if the judge admit such testimony
D. No, it is not a dying declaration
92. As a rule, a witness must confine his testimony to matters within
his actual knowledge. He cannot be asked questions calling for
his opinion or conclusions upon facts, which are for the court to
make. This is called
A. Admisibility test
B. Opinion rule
C. Special arrangement
D. Invalid questioning
93. ____ is the duty of a party to present evidence on the facts in
issue necessary to establish his claim or defense by the amount
of evidence required by law.
A. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B. Burden of proof
C. Burden of evidence
D. Prima facie case
94. ____ is defined as that logical necessity which rests on a party
at any particular time during a trial to create a prima facie case
in his own favor, or to overthrow one when created against him.
A. Burden of proof
B. Burden of evidence
C. Prima facie case
D. Proof reasonable doubt
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

95. What is a presumption?

A. Knowledge of an event to have been occured
B. An inference as to the existence of a fact not actually
known, arising from its usual connection with another
which is known
C. A chance or probability of the existence of an event
D. Circumstances surrounding the an event
96. Whenever a party has, by his own declaration, act or omission,
intentionally and deliberately led another to believe a particular
thing true, and to act upon such belief, he cannot, in any
litigation arising out of such declaration, act or omission, be
permitted to falsify it. This is called
A. Presumtive evidence
B. Estoppel in pais
C. Morality
D. Falsehood
97. The examination of witnesses presented in a trial or hearing
should be done in
A. private with the judge, defense and prosecutor
B. open court and under oath or affirmation
C. speedy manner to beat the time frame specified by law
D. None of the above is correct
98. In the order of examination of an individual witness, which one
comes first?
A. Direct examination by the proponent
B. Cross-examination by the opponent
C. Re-direct examination by the proponent
D. Re-cross-examination by the opponents
99. If the examination of a witness is made by the party presenting
him on the facts relevant to the issue, it is called
A. Direct examination
B. Cross examination
C. Re-direct examination
D. Re-cross examnation
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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

100. In a criminal case, the accused is entitled to an acquittal, unless

his guilt is shown beyond reasonable doubt. What is proof
beyond reasonable doubt?
A. that degree of proof which produces a conviction in
unprejudiced mind
B. the greater weight of evidence against guilt
C. the greater weight of evidence against innocence
D. the presumption of innocent unless proved otherwise

End

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Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

SUGGESTED KEY ANSWER

CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE
SET C
1. D
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. B
6. A
7. C
8. A
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. C
18. A
19. A
20. D
21. A
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. C

26. C
27. D
28. A
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. C
33. A
34. A
35. A
36. C
37. B
38. B
39. B
40. A
41. B
42. C
43. C
44. A
45. B
46. A
47. B
48. D
49. A
50. B

51. C
52. B
53. B
54. C
55. A
56. C
57. C
58. A
59. B
60. A
61. A
62. A
63. B
64. A
65. A
66. C
67. B
68. B
69. B
70. A
71. B
72. C
73. B
74. B
75. C

***

65

76. B
77. C
78. B
79. C
80. B
81. D
82. A
83. A
84. B
85. B
86. A
87. A
88. B
89. B
90. C
91. B
92. B
93. B
94. B
95. B
96. B
97. B
98. A
99. A
00. A

Criminal Jurisprudence and Procedure

66