Onlyias Quiz Compilation Part 1 Xaam - in

India Year Book 2016, Quiz compilation, WWW.OnlyIAS.
com
Land and the People

1. Consider the following statements:
1.The Peninsula is a region of relative stability and occasional seismic
disturbances.
2. Peninsula is made up of metamorphic rocks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: Q 1 = C
1. Jia Bhareli, Dhansiri, Puthimari, Pagladiya are tributaries of Brahmaputra.
2. The Barak river, the head stream of Meghna, rises in the hills in Mizoram.
Ans: Q 2 = a
1. The Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) designates four official seasons
2. The north-east monsoon commonly known as winter monsoon blows from land
to sea
Ans: Q 3 = c
4. consider the following pairs1)burzil pass -- india-central Asia
2)pir panjal pass -- jammu-sringar
3)zoji LA pass -- srinagar-leh
Which of the pairs given above are correct?
1
India Year Book 2016, Quiz compilation, WWW.OnlyIAS.com

A) 1only. B) 2 and 3
C) all
d) 1 and 3
Correct ans (c)
5. consider the following pairs
1. Prashanth hills- maikal range
2. Gurushikhar peak- kaimur range
3. Dhupgarh peak- chota nagpur plateau
Which of the above are not correctly matched
A) 1
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 3
D) 1,2,3
Answer- d
6. With respect to peninsular plateau,consider the following statements
1. It is the 2nd largest physiographic divisions of india
2. It is of recent origin
3. Highest peak in peninsular plateau is dodabetta
Which of the above statements are incorrect
A)1 and 3
B) 1 and 2
C)1,2,3
D) 3 only
Answer- C
Q. 7 Consider the following statement regarding biodiversity of India.
1. Proportional distribution of biodiversity in India is almost three times of the
proportional area of the country.
2. India ranks second in Asia in terms of floral/ plants diversity.
3. Assam region comprises tall bamboo grasses.
Select the correct answer
A. 1and 3 only.
B. 1 and 2 only
C. Only 2
D. All 1,2 and 3.
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Ans : A
Explanations :
1. India accounts for 2.4 % of global surface area and 7.5 % of total global biodiversity.
2. India ranks 4th and 10th responsibly in floral diversity in Asia and world.
Explanation :
India ranks 4th in Asia in terms of biodiversity and 10th in whole world.
Q 8 . which of the following statement are correct
1. As per census 2011 person aged 5 year who can read and write are treated
as literate
2. Census prior to 1991 person aged less than 5 years are necessarily treated
as illiterate
3. Hockey is the national sport of india
A. 1,2,3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 2 only
Ans D
Explanation: Hockey is not national game of india as per rti response (min of
youth affairs), As per census 2011 person, aged 7 yrs and more are taken for the
purpose of treating as literate.
Q 9 which of the following statements are correct
1 IUCN located at united kingdom publishes the red data book for both plants
and animal species .
2 botanical survey of india (BSI) located at delhi publishes red data book for plants
only .
A 1 only
B 1 and 2
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C 2 only
D none of the above
Ans: A
Explanation :BSI IS LOCATED AT KOLKATA
Q 10.
1. India is divided into 20river basins comprising 12 major and 8 composite river
basins.
2. Wardha, musi , manjira and tungbhadra are tributaries of krishna river.
3. Indus, satluj and brahmaputra arise from a common place mansarovar region.
4. Ancient hindu calender divides an year into four seasons vasanta, grisham,
varsha and shishir.
Find out the correct statements.
A. 1,2,3 only
B. 2,3,4 only
C. 1, 3 only
4. All
Explanation: Answer c
Wardha and manjira are godavari's tributaries.
Indian calendar divides into 6 seasons sharada and hemanta are also included.
Q-11: Consider following statements with respect to latest census :1: Decadal growth rate in female literacy has been more than decadal growth rate
in male literacy.
2: A person aged 7 or above who can both read and write with understanding in
any language is treated as literate.
3: States having female literacy rate higher than national average outnumber
states having male literacy rate above national average.
4: All UTs have male and female literacy rates higher than corresponding national
avg.
Find out the correct statements.
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A. 1,2,3 only
B. 2,3,4 only
C. 1, 3 only
4. All
Sol:
1: correct, female literacy rate increased by around 11%, male by 7%. Refer table
1.9, IYB.
2. Correct, Refer page 9. Age 5 was used in the censuses prior to 1991.
3. Correct, States with male literacy rate above than national avg: 14
States with female literacy rate higher than national avg: 17
Refer table 1.8
4: Correct, refer table 1.8
Q 12.
Silver fir, Silver birch and Junipers are the characteristic features of which of the
following zones
a)Western Himalayan Temperate zone
b)Western Himalayan Alpine zone
c)Eastern Himalayan Temperate zone
d)Eastern Himalayan Alpine zone
Ans: b
Q 13.
This region is rich in Oaks, Laurels, maples, Rhododendrons, Alder and Birch.
a)Western Himalayan Temperate zone
b)Western Himalayan Alpine zone
c)Eastern Himalayan Temperate zone
d)Eastern Himalayan Alpine zone
Ans: c
Q 14.
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Arrange the following Hills in North South order
1. Anaimalai Hills
2.Shevaroy Hills
3.Cardamom Hills
4.Nilgiri Hills
5.Javadi Hills
6.Nallamala Hills
a)6-2-5-4-1-3 b)2-5-6-4-1-3 c) 6-5-2-4-1-3 d)6-5-2-1-4-3
Ans:c
Q15.
This region apart from being rich in forests produces important commercial crops
like coconut, betelnut, cashew, tea, coffee, rubber, pepper.
a) Malabar Region
b)Coromandal Coast
c) Konkan Coast
d) Assam Region
Ans:a
Q16.
Matching:
1.Palk Strait
2.Hormuz Strait
3.Bass strait
4.Bosphorous starit
5.Strait of Malacca
6.Florida strait
7.Bab-el- Mandab strait
8.Magellan strait
9.Hudson strait
10.Sunda strait
a)Turkey
b)Indonesia
c) Indonesia- Malaysia
d)Canada
e)Chile
f)Yemen-Djibouti
g)Australia
h)Oman-Iran
i)India- Srilanka
j)Mexico

Ans:1-i, 2-h, 3-g, 4-a, 5-c, 6-j, 7-f, 8-e, 9-d, 10-b
Q17.
Which among the following are tributaries of Kaveri?
a)Kabini b)Gomti c) Noyyal d)Periyar e)Arkavati
1.a,c,d,e
2.c,e
3.a,b,c,d
4.a,c,e
5.a,b,c,e
Ans:4
The Tributaries of Cauvery River are
Left Bank: Hemavati, Shmisha, Arkavati
Right Bank:Kabini, Bhavani, Noyyal, Amaravati
Q18.
Which among the following are not tributaries of Barak River?
Teesta , Trang, Tuivai, Puthimari , Rukni , Kathakal, Pagladiya, Manas, Debang
a)Puthimari, Manas, Pagladiya, Debang
b)Teesta, Puthimari, Debang, Rukni
c)Teesta, Puthimari, Pagladiya, Debang
d)Tuivai,Puthimari, Pagladiya, Debang
e)Trang, Tuivai, Kathakal, Rukni,Manas
Ans:c
Makku, Trang, Tuivai, Jiri, Sonai, Rukni, Kathakal, Dhaleswari, Langhachini,
Maduva, Jatinga are Principal tributaries of Barak River.
National Symbols
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1.The design of national flag was adopted by the constituent assembly on 26
January, 1950
2. India state emblem includes an elephant, cow, bull and lion.
Ans: Q 1 = D
Explanation: The design of national flag was adopted by the constituent assembly
on 22 July, 1947. . India state emblem includes an horse, bull.
1.Jana gana mana was first sung on 27th Dec. 1911 at Kolkata session of INC.
2. National song vande mataram was taken from novel anand math of Bankim
Chandra Chatterjee in 1882..
Ans: Q 2 = c
Explanation:
The song Jana-gana-mana, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath
Tagore, was adopted in its Hindi version as the National Anthem of India on
January 24, 1950.
It was first sung on December 27, 1911 at the Kolkata Session of the Indian
National Congress.
The song Vande Mataram, composed in Sanskrit by Bankimchandra Chatterji, was
a source of inspiration to the people in their struggle for freedom. It has an equal
status with Jana-gana-mana.
It was first sung at the 1896 session of the Indian National Congress.
1. The National Calendar based on the Saka Era, with Phalgun as its first month
2.The mango tree is national tree of india
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Ans: Q 3 = D
Explanation
The National Calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month. The
Banyan tree is national tree of india.
1. There is no concept of leap year in national calendar.
2.Though both national anthem and national song has equal status, there is no
mention of national song in constitution.
Ans: Q 4 = b
Explanation
1. Incorrect, first month of indian calendar chaitra is of 30 days in normal
year (year start from 22 March) & 31 days in leap year (year start from 21
march).
2. Correct, National anthem along with national flag is mentioned in
Fundamental duties but no mention of national song.
Q 5.
Consider the following about the State Emblem of India?
1. It is adopted from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka.
2. The wheel appears on the centre of Abacus with the Horse on the Right and the
Bull on the Left.
3. Only one wheel appears on the centre of the abacus and the other wheels
don't appear at all.
4.The abacus is mounted on a Bell shaped Lotus.
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5.The words Satya Meva Jayate taken from Mundaka Upanishad is inscribed on
the Bell shaped Lotus.
Correct options area)1 only b)1,2 c)1,2,3 d)1,2,3,4 e)All of the Above
Explanation
Answer - a)
In the state Emblem adopted by GOI, only 3 lions are visible.
It is an adaptation from Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka.
The wheel appears on the centre of Abacus with a Bull on right and a horse on the
left and the outlines of other wheels on the extreme Left and Extreme Right.
The Bell shaped Lotus has been omitted.
The words 'SatyaMeva Jayate' from "Mundaka Upanishad" meaning "Truth alone
Triumphs" are inscribed below the Abacus in Devanagiri script.
Q 6.
Consider the following about National Flag of India 1. It is a horizontal tricolour with Light Saffron at Top, White in the middle, Light
Green at the bottom.
2. The length to width of the flag is in the ratio of 2:3
3. The 24 spokes in the Navy blue wheel represented 24 states and Union
Territories at the time of adoption of the flag.
4. The National flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November,
1950.
The correct statements are a)1,2 b)1,2,3 c) 2 only d) All of the above e) None of the Above
Explanation -Answer -e
The colours are Dark Saffron, White and Dark Green
It is width:length which is in the ratio of 2:3 not length:width
The 24 spokes Navy Wheel is based on the Wheel of Sarnath Lion Capital of
Ashoka.
The National flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on July 22nd,1947.
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On 26th November, 1950 Constitution was adopted not National flag. Though the
constitution came into force on 26th January, 1950
Q 7.
Find out the correct statement
1. The manufacture of national flag of India is governed by Bureau of Standards
whereas the uses of the flag is governed by flag code of India along with other
laws.
2. To protect the dignity of the flag the government has completely banned the
use of national flag as clothings.
3. Use of national flag as a trade mark by any private entity other than an
educational institutions is a punishable offence.
4. The present format of the flag is based on the swaraj flag designed by Pingali
Venkayyah.
A. Only 1, 2 and 4.
B Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 4.
D. Only 1,2,3.
Ans. C
Q. 8
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Satyamev jayate found in national emblem is taken from which ancient scripture?
1. Rigveda
2. Yajurveda
3. Samveda
4. Atharvaveda
Answer d
It is taken from mundaka upanishad which is part of atharvaveda.
POLITY
Q 1.
Consider the following about Parliamentary system of Government in India1) The persons eligible to be elected as President and Vice President should be
Citizens of India not less than 35 years of Age and eligible for election to Lok
Sabha.
2)The Council of Ministers comprise of Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and
Ministers of State(Independent Charge) only.
3) Rajya Sabha members from the states are elected by members of Legislative
Assembly of the state only.
4) A person must not be less than 30 years of Age to be elected for Lok Sabha
which of them are incorrect
a)3,4 b)1,3,4 c)1,2 d) 1,2,4 e) All of the above
Answer - e
All are incorrect
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1. For Vice President it should be he who is eligible for election to Rajya Sabha
2. It includes Deputy Ministers too.
3. RS members from the state are elected by ELECTED members of the
Legislative Assembly, Nominated members(Anglo Indians) are not included,
while procedure for UTs itll be as per Law made by Parliament
4. It is not less than 25 years for Lok Sabha whereas not less than 30 years for
Rajya Sabha.
Q 2.
Consider the following about Parliamentary Committees
1)As the time at disposal of Parliament is limited, they are formed to scrutinize
legislative matters before it.
2)They are formed every year/periodically and their work goes on more or less on
a continuous basis.
3) Public Undertakings committee scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts
of GOI and calls attention to cases of Waste, extravagance,loss or nugatory
expenditure.
4) Public Accounts Committee has 30 members all of which are from Lok Sabha
only.
which of them are incorrect
a)2,3 b)3 only c)3,4 d)2,3,4 e)All of the above
Answer: d
1 is correct.
2.Parliamentary Committees are of 2 types - Standing committees and Ad hoc
committees. Description suits Standing committees only whereas Ad hoc
committees are formed where and when necessary and dissolved after the
situation is resolved.
3. The description suits for Public Accounts Committee.
Public Undertakings Committee examines Reports of CAG if any. It also examines
whether Public Undertakings are being run efficiently and managed in accordance
with Sound Business Principles and prudent Commercial practices.
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4.Public Accounts Committee has 22 members(15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from RS.
Chairman is invariably from the Opposition. The term of office of the members is
1 year and no Minister can be elected as member)
It is Estimates Committee which has all 30 members from Lok Sabha(RS doesnt
have much say on Money Bills remember Aadhaar Bill poised as Money Bill and
passed in RS).Chairman is invariably from Ruling Party and no Minister here too. It
examines Estimates included in the Budget and suggest economies in Public
Expenditure.
Q3.
Matching
1. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion
2. Department of Pharmaceuticals
3.Department of Disinvestment
4.Department of Border Management
5.Department of Defence Research and Development
a)Ministry of S&T
b) Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
d)Ministry of Finance
e) Ministry of Defence
f)Ministry of Home Affairs
g)Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
h)Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers
Ans:
1-c, 2-h, 3-d, 4-f, 5-e
Q4.
Which of the following statements are correct
1. 2nd ARC Report recommended that GOI should primarily focus on Core
functions and that it should be guided at all levels by Principle of subsidiarity
2. Performance Related Incentives(PRI) is a variable part of Pay which is awarded
each year depending on Performance
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3. PRI scheme is intended to be Budget neutral.
4. The PRI scheme is applied both at individual/employee level as well as
team/group level.
a) 1,2 b)1,2,4 c)2,3,4 d)2,4 e) All of the above
Ans : e
All are correct.
2nd ARC further recommended that there was a need to carry out a detailed
analysis of the functions/activities in each department/Ministry to help the
ministries to prepare an Action plan for delegating implementation Activities and
non-core activities to attached and subordinate offices.
PRIs- given the Central role that incentives play in improving the Performance of
the Employees in the Public and Private sectors.
5 . Consider the following statements related to the
changes brought by 44th amendment in
emergency provisions in India:
1. The President can declare such an
emergency if the Cabinet recommends in
oral for doing so.
2. The 44th Amendment of the Constitution
provided that ten per cent or more members
of the Lok Sabha can call special session in
the Lok Sabha and can disapprove
emergency by a simple majority.
3. The Constitution of India has provided for
imposition of emergency caused by war,
external aggression or armed rebellion but
by the 44th Amendment Act "armed
rebellion" was changed to "internal
disturbance".
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 2
(b) Only 3
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(c) Only 1 & 2
(d) only 1 and 3
Explanation:
5. (a)
Exp.: The President can declare such an
emergency only if the Cabinet recommends
in writing for doing so whereas earlier only
oral confirmation was sufficient. The
Constitution of India originally has
provided for imposition of emergency
caused by war, external aggression or
internal disturbance but by the 44th
Amendment Act internal disturbance
was changed to armed rebellion.
6. Which among the following comes under the
Concurrent list?
1. Marriage and divorce
2. Forests.
3. Criminal law and procedure
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2 (b) Only 1 & 3
(c) Only 2 & 3 (d) All of the above
Explanation:
6. (d)
7.. Collective privileges of the Houses of Parliament
include:
1. The right to publish debates and
proceedings and the right to restrain others
from publishing.
2. The right to punish members only for
breach of its privileges.
3. A member cannot be summoned without
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the leave of the House to give evidence
while the House is in session.
4. There is complete immunity for anything
spoken in the House.
Select the correct code:
(a) Only 1 & 2
(b) Only 2 & 3
(c) Only 1, 2 & 4
(d) Only 2, 3 & 4
Explanation:
7.(a)
Exp.: Privileges enjoyed by the members
individually include:
A member cannot be summoned without
the leave of the House to give evidence
while the House is in session.
There is complete immunity for anything
spoken in the House.
Freedom from civil arrest
Q8.
Under which circumstances, Governor can reserve a state Bill for the
Consideration of President
1. If it is Ultra vires
2.If it is opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy
3.If it endangers the Position of High court
4.If it is dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Art.31A
a)1,2,3 b)2,3,4 c)1,3,4 d)All of the above
Ans:d
Q9.
Correct statements about Finance Commission are:
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1.It is to act as the Balancing wheel of Indian fiscal Federalism
2.It consists of Chairman and 3 members
3.Qualifications of members of commission are determined by President
4.It is constituted under provisions of Art.280
a)2,3,4 b)2,3 c)1,4
d)1,2,3
Ans:c
The Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and 4 other members.
The Parliament has specified the Qualifications of Chairman and the members.
The Chairman should be a person experienced in Public Affairs while the
members are selected from among
1.A judge of high court or one qualified to be appointed as one.
2.A Person who has specialised knowledge of finance and Govt. Accounts
3. A person with wide expertise in Financial matters and in Administration.
4.A Person who has specialised knowledge in Economics.
Q10.
Indian President's veto Power is a combination of
1.Pocket veto 2.Absolute veto 3.Suspensive Veto
a)2,3 b)2,3,4
c)1,3,4
d)1,2,3
4.Qualified veto
Ans:d
Q11.
The functions of Estimate Committee include
1.To suggest Alternate policies in order to bring out efficiency and economy in
administration
2.To see that the expenditure conforms to the authority which governs it
3.To examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy
implied in the estimates
4.To present the form in which estimates shall be presented to the parliament
Correct statements are
a)1,2 b)1,3,4
c)1,2,4
d)All of the above
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Ans:b
It is CAgs role to see that the expenditure conforms to the authority which
governs it.
Q12.
The origins of UPSC can be traced to
a)1909 Act b)1919 Act c)1935 Act d)1947 Act
Ans:b
Q13.
The UPSC derives its functions from which of the following sources?
1.Constitution 2. Parliamentary Laws 3.Executive Rules and Orders
4.Conventions
a)1 only b)1,2 c)1,3 d)1,2,3,4
Ans:d
Q14.
The features of Indian Parliamentary system are:
1.Independent Judiciary
2.Collective Responsibility of the executive to the legislature
3.Written constitution
4.Presence of de jure and de facto Executives
5.Individual responsibility of the Executive to the Legislature
a)2,3,4 b)1,2,4
c)2,4,5
d)1,2,4,5
Ans:c
Q15.
The accounts of the Union shall be kept in such form as prescribed by:
1.Finance Minister of India in consultation with CAG
2.CAG of India fater approval of NITI Aayog
3.CAG of India with the approval of the President
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4.President of India after cunsultation with the CAG
Ans:4
Q16.
Which of the following are not correct about CAG of India?
1.He is apponyed by the President for a period of 5 years.
2.His salary and conditions of service are determined by the President
3.He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 60 yrs.
4.He can be removed by the president on his own
5.He is responsible for maintaining the Accounts of the Union and the State.
a)1,4,5
b)2,3,4
c)1,2,3,4,5
d)3,4,5
Ans:c
Q17.
Consider following statements.
1. The executive power of union of india is vested in the prime minister.
2. Department of official language comes under purview of ministry of
communication and information technology.
Which statement is correct.
A. 1only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None of them.
Solution d
Executive power of union lies under president.
Department of official language comes under ministry of home affairs.
Q18.
Consider the following statements 1. Union territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha
20

2.It is within the purview of Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate election
disputes
3.According to constitution of India,the Parliament consists of Lok Sabha and
Rajya sabha only
Correct statements area)1 only b)2,3
c)1,3
d)None of the above
Ans : d
Q19.
In the Parliament of India, the adjournment motion is
a)to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance
b)to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
c)to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
d)to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on
the part of some members
Ans:a
Q20.
The distribution of Powers between Centre and States is based on the scheme
provided in the
a)Morley minto Reforms,1909
b)Montagu Chelmsford Reforms,1919
c)GOI Act,1935
d)Indian Independence Act,1947
Ans:c
Q21.
Consider the following statements1)department of space is under ministry of science
2) department of atomic energy is under PMO
3)national authority on chemical weapon is headed by cabinet secretary
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4)department of land resource is under ministry of road and transport.
Incorrect statements are
A)1,3 b) only 2
C) 1,4 d) 2,3
Correct ans is c)
Deptt of space is under pmo
And deptt of land resource is under rural ministry
Q22.
Which of the following states doesn't have Legislative council
1.Rajasthan 2.Karnataka 3.Kerala 4.West Bengal 5.Maharashtra
a)1,2,3 b)1,3,4 c)1,3,4,5 d)3,4 e)2,4
Ans:b
7 States currently having Legislative Councils. They are:
Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana,
Uttar Pradesh
Q23.
Which of the following are instruments of Accountability of the Executive to the
Parliament
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Adjournment
3. Public Undertakings Committee 4.No-Confidence motion
a)1,2,3,4
b)2,3,4 c)1,2,4
d)1,3,4
e)1,4
Ans:c
Q24.
Consider the following statements
1.The constitution provides for a Chief Election Commissioner and 2 Election
Commissioners.
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2.The Power of Superintendence, direction and control of the elections of
President, Vice President, Parliament, state legislatures, village panchayats and
municipal corporations is vested on the election commission.
3.The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners
shall be determined by the President.
4.The constitution has debarred the retiring Election commissioners from any
further appointment by the Govt.
Which are correct
a)1,2,3,4
b)1,3,4
c)3,4
d)4 only
e)3 only
Ans:e
The constitution has provided for Chief Election commissioner and 1 or more
Election commissioners. It hasnt specified how many.
Village Panchayats and Municipal Corporations are handled by State Election
Commission
Some of the flaws related to Election Commission in the constitution are:
1.The constitution hasnt specified for the Qualifications and tenure of the
members of the Election Commission
2.The constitution has not not debarred the retiring Election commissioners from
further appointment by the Govt.
Q 25.
1.The Chief Electoral officer is appointed by the Election Commission in
consultation with the Governor of the state.
2.The Chief Electoral Commissioner appoints the Returning officer of a
Parliamentary Constituency
3. The district Election officer appoints the Presiding officer of the Local booth.
4.The Chief Electoral commissioner appoints Observers for Parliamentary and
Assembly constituency and they report directly to him.
Which of them are correct
a)1,2,3,4
b)2,3,4
c)3,4
d)3 only
e)4 only
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Ans: d
Tip: State Election Commission is concerned with Village Panchayats and
Municipal Corporation elections only. So, if an officer is related to entire
constituency/more he will be appointed by the Election Commission of India.
If less (only presiding officer and polling officer at a poll station left- they are
appointed by District election officer)
The Chief Electoral officer is appointed by ECI in consultation with the State
Govt./Union Territory Administration.
State - Chief Electoral Officer
District - District Election officer
Constituency- Returning officer, Observer, Electoral Registration officer
Polling Booth - Presiding officer, Polling officer
AGRICULTURE
Q1.
Consider the following statements1)rashtriya krishi vikas yojana(rkvy) a scheme of central govt to incentivise states
to achieve 5% agricultural growth target.
2) national mission for saffron is tailored-made for Jammu and Kashmir only
3) national food security mission contains the provision of awarding best
performing district.
4)scheme for nutri farms focuses on bajra,jowar,ragi.
Correct options areA)1,3,4 b) 2,3
C)2,3,4 d) 2,4 e)all of the above
Correct answer is (b)
Explanation under rkvy centre incentivises for 4% agricultural growth target.
Scheme for nutri farms focus on jawar,maize and wheat
Scheme for nutri cereals focus on bajra,jawar,ragi
24
Q2.
National Crop Insurance Programme is approved by merging the following
Programmes
a)National Agriculture Insurance scheme(NAIS)
b)Modified National Agriculture Insurance scheme(MNAIS)
c)Weather based crop Insurance scheme(WBCIS)
d)Coconut Palm Insurance Scheme(CPIS)
1.b,c
2.a,c,d
3.a,b,c
4.a,c 5.b,c,d
Ans:5
Q. 3
consider the following statements
1. Modified nais was restricted to two calamities per year.
2. jald rahat yojna includes both rabi and kharif
3. farm income insurance includes market risks also.
find the correct statements
a. 1 and 2 b. 1,3
c. 2,3
d. only 3
Explanation:
Ans: b
Jald Rahat yojna is for accidental victims.
Q. 4
1. National food security mission also includes coarse cereals.
2. National horticulture mission also includes Tuber crops, mushroom, spices,
flowers, aromatic plants, cashew and cocoa.
3. Rainfed area development plan has been submerged in to national mission for
sustainable agriculture.
25

a. 1 and 2
c. 2,3
b. 1,2,3
d. only 3
Explanation:
Ans: b
The National Food Security Mission (NFSM) during the 12th Five Year Plan will
have five components (i) NFSM- Rice; (ii) NFSM-Wheat; (iii) NFSM-Pulses, (iv)
NFSM-Coarse cereals and (v) NFSM-Commercial Crops.
Q. 5
1. Mango, banana, Citrus, Pineapple, Papaya, Guava, Jackfruit, Litchi, Grape,
Cheeku are the horticulture crops of Tropical and subtropical fruits
2. Apple, pear, peach, Plum, apricot, Almond, Walnut are Temperate fruits.
3. Aonla, Ber, Pomegranate. Fig, Phalsa are the Arid Zone Fruits.
a. 1 and 2 b. 1,2,3
c. 2,3
d. only 3
Explanation:
Ans: b
All are correct.
Q6.
1. Agriculture is in concurrent list.
2. Atma scheme is about providing free subsidies for the tubwell.
3. Soil card does not tell us about amount of irrigation water required.
a. 1 and 2 b. 1,2,3
c. 2,3
d. only 3
Explanation
Ans: d
Agriculture is in state list, Atma is enhancing and utilizing the technology in
agriculture.
26

Q. 7
1. Live stock census is held after every five years.
2. 19th livestock census would be held in 2017
3. Command area development program(1974) was about irrigation
infrastructure.
a. 1 and 2 b. 1,2,3
c. 2,3
d. only 3
Explanation
Ans: b
All are correct
Q8.
1.The diverse agro-ecological conditions in the country are favourable for growing
9 annual oilseed crops, which include 7 edible oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed &
mustard, soybean, sunflower, sesame, safflower and niger) and two non-edible
oilseeds (castor and linseed)
2.India is the fifth largest Vegetable Oil economy after USA, China, Brazil,
Indonesia
3.A substantial portion of our requirement of edible oil is met through import of
oil from Brazil and Malaysia.
4.National mission on Oil seeds and Oil Palms is implemented through 2
minimissions with specific targets.
Correct ones are:
a)1,4
b)1,3,4
c)2,3,4
d)1 only e)1,2
Ans: d
27

Indias vegetable oil economy is worlds fourth largest after USA, China &
Brazil. The oilseed accounts for 13% of the Gross Cropped Area, 3% of the
Gross National Product and 10% value of all agricultural commodities.
The diverse agro-ecological conditions in the country are favourable for
growing 9 annual oilseed crops, which include 7 edible oilseeds
(groundnut, rapeseed & mustard, soybean, sunflower, sesame, safflower
and niger) and two non-edible oilseeds (castor and linseed). Oilseeds
cultivation is undertaken across the country in about 27 million hectares
mainly on marginal lands, of which 72% is confined to rainfed farming.
With per capita consumption of vegetable oils at the rate of 16
kg/year/person for a projected population of 1276 million, the total
vegetable oils demand is likely to touch 20.4 million tonnes by 2017.
A substantial portion of our requirement of edible oil is met through import
of palm oil from Indonesia and Malaysia.
National mission on Oil seeds and Oil Palms is implemented through 3
minimissions with specific targets.
Tree Borne Oilseeds (TBOs), like sal, mahua, simarouba, kokum, olive,
karanja, jatropha, neem, jojoba, cheura, wild apricot, walnut, tung etc. are
cultivated/grown in the country under different agro-climatic conditions in a
scattered form in forest and non-forest areas as well as in waste land
/deserts/hilly areas. These TBOs are also good source of vegetable oil and
therefore need to be supported for cultivation.
edible oil security : Oil Palm is comparatively a new crop in India and is the
highest vegetable oil yielding perennial crop. With quality planting
materials, irrigation and proper management, Area expansion esp.., in
Wastelands and watersheds, fallow lands etc.., - can ensure edible oil
security.
Q9.
Consider the following statements about Intercropping and Mixed cropping
a) All the crops are of almost equal duration in Intercropping, while in the
Mixed cropping the main crop generally has longer duration
28

b)The objective of Intercropping is to utilized the space between Main
crops, while for mixed cropping it is to get atleast one crop with favourable
yield.
c)In intercropping there is competition between different crops, whereas in
Mixed cropping there is no competition
d)More emphasis is given to the main crop in intercropping whereas in
mixed cropping all were given same emphasis.
Correct options are:
1.a,b,c
2.a,b,d
3.a,d
4.b,d
5.b,c
Ans:4
Q10.
which of the following are macronutrients of Plants?
1. Calcium 2. Copper
3.Sulphur
4.Molybdenum
5.Magnesium
a)1,2,3,4
b)1,5
c)3,5
d)1,3,4,5
e)1,3,5
Ans:e
Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium are Primary macronutrients
Calcium, sulphur, Magnesium are secondary macronutrients
the micronutrients/trace minerals: boron (B), chlorine (Cl), manganese
(Mn), iron (Fe), zinc (Zn), copper (Cu), molybdenum (Mo), nickel (Ni)
Q11.
Find out the correct statements:
1. India is largest producer of fisheries.
2. India contributes more production share from marine fisheries than
inland fisheries and aquaculture.
A. 1only
B. 2only
C. Both
29

D. None
Ans d
India is second largest producer in fisheries production after china.
India contributes around 6million tonnes from inland and around 3 million
tonnes from marine fisheries and aquaculture.
Q12.
Find out the correct statements:
1. India is second largest producer of milk.
2. India's per capita consumption of milk is more than world's average per
capita production.
A. 1only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None
Ans b
India is largest producer of milk.
2nd is correct. world average is 294ml and india per capita usage is 302ml.
Culture and Tourism

1. Consider the following statements
1- Indian tourism sector is third fastest growing sector in the world.
2- Tourism sector contributes more than 6% in the GDP of the country.
Find out the correct statements
A.Only 1
B.Only 2
C.Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 Nor 2
30

Explanation:
Ans: C
Both statements are correct and Tourism sector contributes 6.6 percentage
according to report in 2012.
1. Kathak dance is known as ballot of east.
2. Kutiyattam is famous dance of Tamil Nadu
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 and Nor 2
Explanation:
Ans: A
Kutiyattam is dance of Kerala
1. National School of Drama is set up by Lalit kala academy.
2. It is autonomous organization totally financed by department of
culture.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Ans :It works under Sangeet kala Academy.
Que-Which institution confers the status of classical dance of India to a
dance?
A)lalit kala academy
B)sangeet natak academy
C) parliament
D) sahitya academy
Ans b
31
Que-Sangeet natak academy confers the status of classical dance to how

many dances of India?
A)6
B)8
C)10
D)4
Answers (b)
Q4.
Matching:
1.Ankia Naat
2.Yakshagana
3.Nautanki
4.Krishnattam
5.Therukoothu
6.Tamasha
a)Kerala
b)Tamil Nadu
c)Maharashtra
d)Karnataka
e)Assam
f)Jammu and Kashmir
g)Uttar Pradesh
Q5.
Consider the following statements regarding Niche Tourism
1. In order to overcome seasonality, and promote India as 365 days
destination
2.Attract tourists with specific interests, and ensure repeat visits
3. develop tourist sites with less number of visitors but has scope in future.
4. Niche products identified are Golf, Polo , Religious Toursim,Eco-Tourism
Correct options are:
a)1,2,4
b)1,2,3
c)1,2
d)1,4
e)2,4
Q6.
Matching:
1.Hikat Dance
2. Tera tali
a)fisherwomen
b)clasp a sword in between teeth
32

3.Kalbelia
4.Haryanvi
5.Koli dance
c)snakecharmers
d)Phalgun
e)Himachal Pradesh
Q7.
Q. Find out the correct statement regarding tourism development in India.
1. Tamilnadu, Maharashtra and U.P. are most poplar states of choices for
foreigners visiting India.
2. Chennai, Mumbai, Delhi and Agra are the most visited cities by foreign
tourists.
3. To promote tourism government has recently extended Tourist Visa on
Arrival (TVoA) facilities to all International Indian Airports and to the tourists
from all countries except Pakistan, Bangladesh, and China.
Q8.
The Prohibitions of Alcohol and Medical Surrogacy Bill are likely to
enhance Medical Tourism in India.
A. 1and 2 only.
B. 1,2,3 and 4.
C. 1,2 and 4 only.
D. None of the Above.
Basic Economic Data

Q 1. Consider the following statements
1. WPI is compiled by CSO.
2. CPI is compiled by Economic adviser to PM.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
33

C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Ans:D
It is Vice Versa.
1. Annual survey of industries compile the data for all the industries
operating in India.
2. MPLAD is non lapsable grant give to every MP to use in this
constituency funded by Centre govt. Of India
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Ans:B
Annual survey of Industries do not conduct survey for defence , oil storage,
restaurants, hotels, cafe and computer services.
1. Index of Industrial production publishes the data with time lag of 6
weeks
2. IIP is released every month.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Ans: C
Both statements are correct.
34

Que 4. Consider the following statements
1) cso carries out gender statistics and human development stats.
2)nsso carries out household data collection and economic census.
Correct answerA)only1 b)only2
C)both d)none
Correct answer is
Que Consider the following statements
1) under mplad district collector is unit of implementation.
2) mplad scheme was started in 1994.
Correct option
A) only 1 b)only 2
C) both 1,2 d)neither1,2
Correct answer is (a)
Explanation- mplad scheme was started in 1993.
Que 5. -Consider the following statements1)prasad(pilgrimage rejuvenation and spirituality augmentation drive)
envisaged a mission directorate under ministry of tourism.
2)hriday(heritage city development and augmentation yojana) establishes a
national project management unit under ministry of urban affairs.
3) hriday seek to revitalise 12cities viz.
Amritsar,Ajmer,mathura,Varanasi,gaya,dwarka,puri,Amravati,badami,wara
ngal,kanchipuram and velankanni.
Choose correct optionA)1,2 b)only3
C)all d)1,3
Correct answer-all are correct.
Q 6. Find out the correct statements.
1. India contributes 3.2% of global exports.
2. Considering lower oil prices india's trade with venezuela is more in
exports than imports.
A. 1only
B. 2only
35

C. Both
D. None
Ans: A
Q 7. In the Index of Eight Core Industries, which one of the following is
given the highest weight?
a) Coal Production
b) Electricity generation
c) Fertilizer Production
d) Steel Production
Solution: b)
Commerce
Q1.
Consider the folowing statements:
1. Mercosur has 5 full time members which are Brazil, Venezuela , Argentina ,
Uruguay, Peru
2.It's Associate countries are Paraguay, Chile, Suriname, Ecuador , Columbia,
Bolivia
3. India has a Preferential Trade Agreement with Mercosur
Incorrect statements are:
a) 1,2,3
b)1,2
c)1,3 d)2,3
Ans: b
Mercosur = 1st statement shouldn't have Peru but Paraguay
2nd statement shouldn't have Paraguay but Peru
Q2.
Consider the following statements about Niryat Bandhu scheme:
1. It's purpose is to mentor First Generation Entrepreneurs
2. It leverages the knowledge base of Existing Entrepreneurs in the field to
encourage them to mentor new ones by providing Tax Breaks.
3.MSME clusters are selected on the basis of Export Potential of Product and
Density of industries in the cluster
36

4. Orientation programmes are based on all the products that are being
produced in a particular cluster
a)1,2,3
b)1,2,4
c)1,3
d)1,3,4
Ans:c
It leverages the knowledge base of officers(Niryat Bandhu) not the existing
Entrepreneurs
Orientation programmes focus on specific product potential and their
objective is to increase the number of Exporters of that specific product and
Boost the export of that specific product
Q3.
Which of the following countries feature in top 5 in both Destinations of
Exports from india as well as imports from those countries to India
(financial year 14-15)
1. Saudi Arabia
2.Hong Kong
3.UAE
4.Switzerland
a)1,2,3
b)1,3,4
c)2,3
d)1,2
e)1,3
Ans:e
Top 5 Export destinations serially - USA, UAE, Hong Kong, China, Saudi
Arabia
Top 5 Origins of Import serially - China, Saudi Arabia, UAE, Switzerland,
USA
Q4.
With which of the following Top Trade Partners of India does India enjoy
Net Trade surplus (in Rupee terms- financial year 14-15)
1. Saudi Arabia
2.USA
3.UAE
4.China
a)1,2,3
b)1,2
c)2,3
d)2,3,4
37
Ans: c
USA and UAE
Q5.
Which of the following commodities are both Principal Commodities of
Export as well as Import for India(14-15)
1.Gems and Jewellery
2.Machinary
3.Chemicals and
related Products
4.Textiles and allied products
a)1,2,3
b)1,3,4
c)1,3
d)1,2
e)2,3
Ans:c
Principal Exports - Petroleum(Crude and Products), Gems and Jewellery,
Textiles and Allied Products, Chemicals and related products, Ari and allied
products
Principal Imports - Petroleum(Crude and Products), Gems and Jewellery,
Chemicals and related products,,Electronic items and Machinary
Q6.
Q. Consider the following statements
1. India supplies quality drugs at affordable prices in more than 200
countries of the world and is known as the pharmacy of the world.
2. The volume of drugs produced by India is very high in comparison to
value addition.
38

3. Approval of a drug to be manufactured comes under the purview of both
Union and State governments.
The correct statements are
A. Only 1
B. Only 1and 2
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All are correct.
Ans D
Q.7 Find the correct statements.
1. India's largest trade dealing is with european region.
2. Share of gems and jewellery is highest in india's imports.
A. 1only
B. 2only
C. Both
D. None
Ans:Ans d
India's largest export and import is with asian region.
Share of petroleum products is highest in both imports and exports.
Q. 8 Consider the following statements
1. Wto is the conclusion of paragway round.
2. Services are not inluded into Wto and Gatt includes services also.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:D
Ans:WTO is the conclusion of urgway round.Services are inluded into Wto
and Gatt does not include services.
Communication and IT
39

1.Project Arrow, an initiative to transform Department of Posts into a
vibrant and responsive
organization
2. The Electronic Indian Postal Order (eIPO) was introduced to enable
Indian
citizens living abroad to pay RTI fee online through the ePost Office portal
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Ans:C
Both statments are correct.
1. Deptt. of Post deals with all financial services except mutual funds.
2. MeghRaj is scheme to harness the benefits of cloud technology.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Ans:B
It deals with the retail mutual funds.
Q 3. Consider the following statements about National Policy on Electronics
1.Electronics Manufacturing Clusters Scheme
2. Scheme for Mandatory Registration of Identified Electronic Products
40

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Ans:C
Q. 4. Consider the following statements
1.Dial. Gov: Dial. Gov has been implemented as a common mans interface
for providing
comprehensive information on eligibility of benefits under the various social
sector schemes
operational across the country.
2. e_Tall is Electronic Transactions Aggregation and Analysis Layer (eTaal) is a web portal
developed by NIC for aggregation and analysis of e-Transaction statistics
of central and state level
e-governance projects including Mission Mode Projects
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Ans: C
Q. 5 Which of the following are incorporated in the Government approved National
Telecom Policy, 2012?
1. Broadband for all with a minimum download speed of two megabits
per second
2. Indias rural tele- density to be improved from 39% to 70% in the
next five years
3. Roaming charges shall be scrapped
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
41

(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Ans: All are correct
6.Find out initiatives taken by ministry of communication and information technology to

make internet services acessible to a larger share in india.
1. E-bharat
2. NOFN
3. Sevottam
4. Meghdoot
Find out the correct statments.
A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 2,3,4
D. All
Ans b.
Sevottam is for improving services in dept of posts not internet access.
Q. 7 Consider the following statements
1-under e-bharat plan state data centres has to be established
2-assam has achieved 100% state wide area network(swan)
3-national telecom policy,2012 envisage 100% mobile connectivity by 2017.
Correct option
A-1,2. B-2,3
C-1,2,3. D-only1
Answers
42

Defence que (c)
Que2 (a) explanation national telecompolicy ,2012 envisage 100%mobile connectivity by
2020
Q.8 Find out the correct statement.
1. Telecom Licenses and Spectrum Trading Services In India are provided via TRAI Act.
by Union Government.
2. Broadcasting and cable services also come under the purview of TRAI Act 1997.
3. The issue of high call drop rates in India is due to the inability of telecos due to poor
profit margins.
4. Indian telecom policy expressly enprovisions heavy monetary penalty on telecos for
violating net neutrality norms.
A. Only 1 and 2
B. 1,2 and 4.
C. Only 2.
D. None of statements are correct.
Ans C
1. Telecom Licenses are provided under Indian Telegraph Act 1885.
2. Correct statement
3. Indian telecom operators are maintaining heavy profit margins deliberately spending
less to enhance infrastructure.
4. There are no provisions which expressly prohibit violation of net neutrality however
inherently it favors net neutrality but doesn't have any penal provisions.
43
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Land and the People

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(d) only 1 and 3

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Culture and Tourism

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Que-Sangeet natak academy confers the status of classical dance to how

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Basic Economic Data

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Q.8 Find out the correct statement.

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