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LAW
Paper II

1. Which one of the following is the correct

4. Match the following and select the correct

answer from the code

order of the objectives enshrined in the

Preamble ?

List I

(A) Liberty of thought, belief, expression,

List II

I. Right to Education

1. Chameli Singh V.

faith and worship

State of U..

(B) Liberty of thought, expression, belief,

II. Right to Medical

faith and worship

2. D.K. Basu V.

Assistance

State of West

(C) Liberty of expression, belief, thought,

Bengal

worship and faith

III. Right to Sheltr

3. Unni Krishnan V.

(D) Liberty of belief, thought, expression,

State of A.P.

faith and worship

IV. Right gainst Torture

4. P a r a m a n a n d a
Katara V. Union

2. Which one of the following is not a State

of India

under Art. 12 of the Indian Constitution ?

Code :

(A) University of Madras

(B) Oil and Natural Gas Commission

II

III

IV

(C) State Bank of Iia

(A)

(D) BCCI

(B)

(C)

(D)

3. In which of the following cases the Apex

Court bserved that the reservation for
Backward Classes may be made even

5. Directive Principles of State policy are

outside the scope of Art. 16 (4).

II

(A) State of Kerala V. N.M. Thomas

(A) Negative Injunctions of the State

(B) Balaji V. State of Mysore

(B) Positive Commands

(C) Narasimha Rao V. State of A.P.

(C) Moral Precepts of the State

(D) Devadasan V. Union of India

(D) All the above

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6. Which one of the following is not a correct

8. The nature of Law administered in the

statement relating to ordinance making

Courts maintained by the military

authorities

power of the President ?

(A) Local Law

(A) President alone can promulgate

(B) Prize Law

(C) Martial Law

ordinance

(D) Conventional Law

(B) Ordinance is an executive action

9. The President of India hapower to

(C) President can issue ordinance when

declare emergency under Art. 352 on

both the Houses are not in session

which of the following grounds ?

I. War

(D) Ordinance can be challenged for

II. Internal disturbance

non-application of mind

III. External aggression

7. Which one of the following statements

IV. Armed rebellion

refer to epistolary jurisdiction ofhe

Code :

Supreme Court of India ?

(A) I, III and IV

(B) I, II and III

(A) Original jurisdiction under Art. 141

(C) I, II and IV

(B) Taking cognizance of public interest

(D) II, III and IV

litigation matters through letters

10. The

addressed to the Court

Amendment Act, 2011 relates to

(A) Change of Oriya into Odia

(C) Enforcement of decrees of Supreme

(B) Chattisgarh and Jharkhand for

Court under Art. 142

Bihar

(D) Advisory opinion of the Supreme

(C) Co-operative Societies

Court under Art. 143

II

C onstitution (Ninety-seventh)

(D) Service Tax

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14. Roscoe Pound propounded the theory of

11. Which one of the following sets does not

Social engineering which means

represent tests of authority of custom ?

(A) Greatest happiness to greatest

(A) Continuance, peaceable enjoyment

number of people

(B) Antiquity, obligatory force

(B) Balancing of competing interests in

the society

(C) Certainty, reasonableness

(C) Changes in the concepts and the

(D) Codification, moral

function of the State

(D) Law has its source in the general

12. The Supreme Court of India in

consciousness

A.K. Gopalan case decided that the

15. Which one of th following theories is

expression procedure established by law

based on the principle that punishment

in Art. 21 of the Constitution means any

shoulbe of such a nature so as to prove

procedure prescribed by law irrespective

deterrent not only for the wrongdoer but

of its reasonableness or otherwise. This

also for the society ?

(A) Preventive theory

decision belongs to the school of

(B) Reformative theory

(A) Positivist approach

(C) Retributive theory

(B) Naturalist approach

(D) Deterrent theory

(C) Sociological pproach

16. Identify the INCORRECT proposition

(A) Animus and corpus are necessary for

(D) Philosophical approach

possession
13. Darma implies

(B) Physical control is essential for

ownership

(A) Law

(C) Possession is lost if animus and

(B) Justice

corpus are lost

(C) Both law and justice

(D) Possession is the prima facie

(D) None of the above

II

evidence of ownership
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17. Who is the exponent of the theory of

21. Total number of Articles in Universal

Declaration of Human Rights, 1948

monism ?
(A) Kelson

(A) 20

(B) Austin

(B) 18

(C) Holland

(C) 25
(D) 30

(D) Hugo Groticis

22. Arrange the sources of Hindu law in

18. Which of the following theories applicable

chronological order

to recognition ?

(I) Smriti

(A) Dualism theory

(II) Custom

(B) Declaratory theory

(III) Digests and commentaries

(C) Clean slate theory

(IV) Sruti

(D) Functional necessity theory

Code :
19. Which of the following countries is NOT a

(A)

permanent member of Security Coucil ?

(II)

(III)

(B) (IV)

(I)

(III)

(II)

(A) USA

(C)

(I)

(II)

(III)

(IV)

(B) France

(D) (IV)

(III)

(I)

(II)

(C) Japan

23. Who is a Hindu ?

(D) UK

(A) One who is born to Hindu father and

Hindu mother

20. ECOSOC consists of how many

(B) One who is born to Hindu father and

members ?

Sikh mother

(A) 15

(C) One who is born to Hindu mother and

(B) 54

Muslim father but is brought up like

(C) 20

Hindu

(D) All members of UNO

II

(I) (IV)

(D) All the above

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28. As a general principle of Law of Contract,

24. Brides age is 10 yrs. Bridegrooms age is

which one of the following is NOT an

essential of a valid contract ?

12 yrs. Their marriage is

(A) Void

(A) Writing

(B) Voidable

(B) Competency to contract

(C) Valid

(C) Lawful consideration and lawful

object

(D) Invalid

(D) Free consent

25. Dastane Vs Dastane case deals with

29. Consider the following statements

which ground of divorce ?

1) An agreement made without

consideration is void

(A) Desertion

2) Consideratio should have some

value in the eye of law

(B) Cruelty
(C) Adultery

3) Conseration has to be adequate.

(D) Conversion

Which of the statements given above is/

ae correct ?

26. Divorce by Muslim husband on request of

his wife willing to forego dower in

(A) 1, 2, 3

consideration for divorce is known as

(B) 1, 2
(C) 1, 3

(A) Muta

(D) 3 only

(B) Zihar

30. Consider the following statements

(C) Khula

1) Void contract means an agreement

which is perfectly valid at the
inception but rendered void due to
subsequent developments.

(D) Mubaraa
27. If the sum fixed represents a genuine pre
estimate of the probable damages that are

2) Void agreement is an agreement

which is void from the inception.

lily to result from a breach of contract, it

is considered as

Which of the statements given above

is/are correct ?

(A) Liquidated damages

(B) Penal damages

(A) 1 only

(C) Special damages

(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) General damages

II

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

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32. When the promisor declares that he will

31. The given item consists of two statements

not perform the contract even before the

one labelled as the Assertion (A) and the

time is ripe to perform the same. Which of

other as Reason (R). Examine these two

the following courses of action available

statements carefully and select the

to promisee ?
1) Can wait till the stipulated time is over

answers to these items using the codes

and then sue

given below.

2) Can sue immediately even bfore the

Assertion A : Applicant

stipulated time

under

3) Can sue only after h performs his

voluntary retirement

part of contracdeal
4) Can sue only after offering extra time

scheme is bound to

to romisor to reconsider his decision

retire once the employer

to withdraw

receives the application.

Reason R

(A) I, II & III

(B) I & II

: Applicant need not retire

(C) I & IV

because his application

(D) II & III

amountsto offer of
retirement

33. The main supporter of the theory that it is

a law of tort but not law of torts is

through

(A) Winfield

V.R.S. scheme.

(B) Salmond
(C) Fleming

(A) Both A and R are individually true

(D) Kelsen

and R is the correct explanation of A

34. The Rule in Rylands Vs Fletcher does not

(B) Both A and R are individually true but

apply when the escape is due to

(A) Inevitable accident

R is not the correct explanation of A

(B) Lis Major

(C) A is true but R is false

(C) Negligence of the defendant

(D) A is false but R is true

II

(D) Mistake
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35. Which one of the following acts correctly

38. A without provocation makes a false

identifies the specific defences available

statement in a gathering that B is suffering

from AIDS. Here A is

in an action for defamation ?

(A) Not liable because there is no

defamation

(A) Privilege, truth, fair comment

(B) Not liable because defence of

(B) Privilege, mistake, fair comment

privilege available to him

(C) Liable because it is a slnder

(C) Truth, mistake, fair comment

actionable per se

(D) Truth, privilege, mistake

(D) Liable because thestatement is

made in presence of B

36. The maxim Ubi jus ibi remedium means

39. What is the age a child if he is to be

(A) Where there is suffering there is

exemptedrom criminal liability ?

remedy

(A) Below 10 years

() Below 7 years

(B) No violation, no damage

(C) Below 6 years

(C) Where there is a right, there is

(D) Below 12 years

remedy

40. Defence of insanity is developed on which

of the following ?

(D) Right does not lead to damage

(A) Automation
(B) Mc Naughtens rules

37. In case of damage caused by escape of

(C) Irresistible impulse

ferocious anima, the person having

(D) Equivocality test

control over will be liable for any damage

41. A, an officer of a court is ordered by the

cused

Court to affect the arrest of P. But believing

Q to be P, he arrests Q. A is guilty of

(A) Only on proof of negligence

(A) Illegal arrest

(B) Even without proof of negligence

(B) No offence if after enquiries he

arrested

(C) Only on proof of malice

(C) Wrongful restraint

(D) On proof of animals nature

II

(D) Wrongful confinement

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47. Under I.D. Act 1947 an existing
industrial dispute may be referred to
arbitration

42. Which of the following offences against

women are dealt under Indian Penal Code ?
1) Outraging the modesty of woman
2) Rape

(A) by a written agreement

3) Insulting the women

(B) by an oral agreement

(C) by a registered agreement

4) Sedation

(D) none of the above

Code :

48. U/S 22(1) of the I.D. Act 1947 once

notice is given by the person he all
go on strike
(A) within 8 weeks from the date of
giving notice

(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 1, 3, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4
(D) 1, 2, 4
43. Common intention implies

(B) within 9 wees from the date of

giving notice

(A) Similar intention

(C) within5 weeks from the date of

giving notice
() within 6 weeks from the date of
giving notice

(B) Pre-arranged planning

(C) Presence of common knowledge
(D) Common design for common objects
44. The Actus reus is made up of

49. Retrenchment under Section 2(00) of

the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 involves

(A) Physical Act

(B) Mental Condition

(A) Voluntary
workman

(C) Conduct
(D) Injury

(C) is an industry in exceptional case

() none of the above

(D) None of the above

(A) is an industry under I.D. Act 1947

(B) is not a industry under I.D. Act 1947

50. Right to form trade union is

Registration of Trade Union

(A) is compulsory

(A) Fundamental Right

(B) is not compulsory

(B) Constitutional Right

(C) only in case of govt. industries it is

compulsory

(C) Statutory Right

(D) Both Fundamental Right and
Statutory Right

(D) none of the above

II

of the

(B) Retirement on reaching age of

superannuation
(C) Termination of services of a
workman on grounds of continued
ill health

45. Doctors clinic

6.

retirement

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