Documente Academic
Documente Profesional
Documente Cultură
53. For the same residence time, which will give the maximum conversion?
(a) single stirred tank (v=5liters)
(b) two stirred tank (each of 2.5liters) in series
(c) stirred tank followed by tubular flow reactor (each 2.5liters)
(d) single tubular flow reactor (v=5liters)
54. Oil hydrogenated using nickel catalyst in a
(a) batch reactor
(b) slurry reactor
(c) fluidized bed reactor
(d) fixed bed reactor
55. A second order reaction of the form A+B
C is called a pseudo-first order reaction
when
(a) CAO = CBO
(b) CAO > CBO
(c) CAO CBO
(d) CBO > CAO
56. A first order irreversible reaction A
B is carried separately in a constant volume as
well as a in a variable volume reactor for a particular period. It signifies that
(a) both conversion as well as concentration are same in the two reactors
(b) conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will be different in
the two reactors
(c) both the conversion as well as concentrations will be different in the two
reactors
(d) none of these
57.A space velocity of 5 hour means that
(a) five reactor volumes of feed (at specified conditions) are being fed into the
reactor per hour
(b) after five hours, reactor is being filled with the feed
(c) cent percent conversion can be achieved in at least 5 hours
(d) a fixed conversion of a given batch of feed takes 5 hours
58. Which of the following fixes the volume of a batch reactor for a particular conversion
and production rate?
(a) operating conditions (e.g. pressure and temperature)
(b) rate constant
(c) density of mixture
(d) none of these
59. In a CSTR
(a) reaction rate varies with time
(b) concentration varies with time
(c) both (a) and (b) occur
(d) neither (a) nor (b) occurs
60. The use of space-time is preferred over the mean residence time in the design of
(a) batch reactor
(b) ideal tubular-flow reactor
(c) slurry reactor
(d) CSTR
69. Which of the following is the optimum operating condition for an exothermic
reversible reaction-taking place in a plug-flow reactor
(a)Temperature should be high in the beginning and decreased
towards the end of the reaction
(b) Very low temperature should be used throughout the reaction
(c) Very high temperature should be used throughout the reaction
(d) None of these
70. With increase in the space-time of an irreversible isothermal reaction being carried
out in a P.F. reactor, the conversion will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain same
(d) Data sufficient; cant be predicted
71. The optimum performance for reactors operating in parallel is obtained when the feed
stream is distributed in such a way that the
(a) Space time for each parallel line is same
(b) Space time for parallel lines is different
(c) Larger reactors have more space time compared to smaller ones
(d) None of these
72. Back mixing is most predominant in
(a) A well stirred reactor
(b) Plug-flow reactor
(c) A single CSTR
(d) CSTR connected in series
73. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to that converted
into unwanted product is called
(a) Operational yield
(b) Relative yield
(c) Selectivity
(d) None of these
74. The performance of a cascade of CSTRs can be improved by adding
(a) a P.F. reactor in series
(b) a P.F. reactor in parallel
(c) More CSTRs in series
(d) More CSTRs in parallel
75. An auto thermal reactor is
(a) Most suitable for a second order reaction
(b) Most suitable for a reversible reaction
(c) Completely self supporting in its thermal energy requirements
(d) Isothermal in nature
76. For series reaction,the
(a) Relative yield is always greater for plug-flow reactor tha) for the single
CSTR of the same volume
(b) Statement in a is wrong
(c) Relative yield decreases with increasing conversion
(d) Both (a) and (c) hold good
77. When a high liquid hold up is required in a reactor for a gas-liquid reaction,
use
(a) Packed column
(b) Spray column
(c) Tray column
(d) Bubble column
78. For reactions in parallel viz. AP (desired product) and AQ (unwanted product),
if the order of the desired reaction is higher than that of the undesired reaction, a
(a) Batch rector is preferred over a single CSTR for high yield
(b) Tubular rector is preferred over a single CSTR for high yield
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) A single CSTR is the most suitable
79. In question 78, high yield would be favored ( for gas phase reactions)
(a) At high pressure
(b) At low pressure
(c) By the presence of the inner gases in the reactabt stream
(d) Both (b) and (c)
80. When all the limiting reactant is consumed in the reaction, the operation yield
(a) Is greater than relative yield
(b) Is smaller than relative yield
(c) Equals the relative yield
(d) Can be greater or smaller than relative yield, depends on the type of
reaction
81. Design of heterogeneous catalytic reactor involves consideration of
(a) Only chemical steps
(b) Only physical steps
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) and (b)
82. Pick out the wrong statement
(a) A catalyst does not alter the final position of equilibrium in a reversible
reaction.
(b) A catalyst initiate a reaction
(c) A catalyst is specific in action
(d) A catalyst remain unchanged in chemical composition at the end of the
reaction
83. Catalyst is a substance which
(a) Increases the speed of chemical reaction
(b) Decreases the speed of chemical reaction
(c) Can either increase or decrease the speed of chemical reaction
(d) Alters the value of equilibrium constant in a reversible reaction
84. Catalyst carriers
(a) Have very high selectivity
(b) Increase the activity of a catalyst
(c) Provide large surface area with small amount of active material
(d) Inhibit catalyst poisoning
93. For high conversion in highly exothermic solid catalyzed reaction, use a
(a) Fixed bed reactor
(b) Fluidized bed reactor followed by a fixed bed reactor
(c) Fixed bed reactor followed by a fluidized bed reactor
(d) Fluidized bed reactor
94. In case of staged packed bed reactors carrying out exothermic reaction, use
(a) High recycle for pure glass
(b) Plug flow for dilute liquid require no large preheating of feed
(c) Cold shot operations for a dilute solution requiring large preheating to
bring the steam up to the reaction temperature
(d) All (a) (b) and (c)
95. Which of the following will give the maximum gas conversion ?
(a) Fixed bed reactor
(b) fluidized reactor
(c) Semi-fluidized reactor
(d) Plug flow catalytic reactor
96. Which of the following factors control the deactivation of a porous catalyst pellet?
(a) Decay reactions
(b) Pore diffusion
(c) Form of surface attack of poison
(d) All (a) (b) and (c)
97. BET apparatus is used to determine the
(a) Specific surface of porous catalyst
(b) Pore size distribution
(c) Pore diameter
(d) Porosity of the catalyst bed
98. If pore diffusion is the controlling step in a solid catalyzed reaction the catalyst
(a) Porosity is very important
(b) Porosity is less importance
(c) Internal surface is utilized efficiently
(d) None of these
99. BET apparatus
(a) Measure the catalyst surface area directly
(b) Operates at very high pressure
(c) Is made entirely by stainless steel
(d) None of these
100. Helium-mercury method can be used to determine the
(a) Pore volume
(b) Solid density
(c) Porosity of catalyst particle
(d) All (a) (b) and (c)
7. Enthalpy H is defined as
a. H = U PV
c. H U = PV
b. H = U TS
d. none of these
8. Efficiency of heat engine working on Carnot cycle between two temperature levels
depends upon
a. the two temperatures only
b. the pressure of working fluid
c. the mass of the working fluid
d. both mass and pressure of the
working fluid
9. What is the degree of freedom for a system comprising liquid water equilibrium with
its vapor?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
10. Efficiency of a Carnot engine working between temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 < T2 ) is
a. (T2 T1) / T2
b. (T2 T1) / T1
c (T1 T2) / T2
d. (T1 T2) / T1
11. For a constant pressure reversible process, the enthalpy ( H) change of the system is
a. C vdT
b. Cp dT
c. Cp dT
d. Cv dT
12. Internal energy of an ideal gas
a. increases with increase in pressure
b. decreases with increase in temperature
c. is independent of temperature
d. none of these
13. Equation which relates pressure, volume, and temperature of a gas is called
a. Equation of state
b. Gibbs Duhem equation
c. ideal gas equation
d. none of these
14. Isobaric process means a constant
a. temperature process
c. volume process
b. pressure process
d. entropy process
b. pressure process
d. none of these
b. entropy process
d. none of these
b. all gases
d. gases at a very low temperature
b. V 1/T
d. PV/T = constant
b. dU = Cv dT
d. dW = pdV
b. dU dW = TdS
d. TdS dW dU > 0
b. dU dW TdS = 0
d. TdS dT + dW < 0
49. Cv is given by
a. ( U/ T)v
c. ( U/P)v
b. ( U/V)T
d. (V/ T)P
b. decrease in entropy
d. none of these
b. A = U TS
d. none of these
b. G = H - TS
d. G = U+ TS
b. only A decreases
d. both G and A increases
77. Maximum work that could be secured by expanding the gas over a given pressure
range is the
a. isothermal work
b. adiabatic work
c. isentropic work
d. none of these
78. The point at which both liquid and gas phases are identical is called
a. critical point
b. triple point
c. freezing point
d. boiling point
79. Equilibrium constant of a reaction varies with
a. initial concentration of the reactant
b. pressure
c. temperature
d. none of these
80. For an ideal solution, the value of activity coefficient is
a. 0
b. 1
c. <1
d. >1
81. Fugacity coefficient of a substance is the ratio of its fugacity to
a. mole fraction
b. activity
c. pressure
d. activity coefficient
82. Van Laar equation deals with activity coefficients in
a. binary solution
b. ternary solution
c. azeotropic mixture only
d. none of these
83. In Joule-Thomson porous plug experiment
a. enthalpy does not remain constant
b. the entire apparatus is exposed to surroundings
c. temperature remains constant
d. none of these
84. Equilibrium constant
a. decreases as the temperature increases for an exothermic reaction
b. decreases as the temperature decreases for an exothermic reaction
c. will decrease with increasing temperature for a exothermic reaction
d. none of these
85. As the entropy of the universe is increasing day by day the work producing capacity
of a heat engine is
a. not changed
b. decreasing
c. increasing
d. data insufficient cant be predicted
86. Refrigeration cycle
a. violates second law of thermodynamics
b. involves transfer of heat from low temperature to high temperature
c. both a and b
d. none of these
b. solid helium
d. none of these
24. Preheating of
(a) the gaseous fuel before combustion decreases the flame temperature
(b) Combustion air decreases the flame temperature
(c) either the fuel or the air or both increases the flame temperature
(d) either the fuel or the air does not affect the flame temperature
25. The fuel ratio of a coal is
(a) the ratio of its percentage of fixed carbon to that of volatile matter
(b) helpful in estimation of its rank
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
26. A fuel containing carbon and carbon monoxide (but containing the hydrogen or its
compounds) is burnt in pure oxygen at constant pressure. Its gross calorific value as
compared to the net calorific value will be
(a) more
(b) less
(c) same
(d) data insufficient; cant be predicted
27. Removal of hydrogen from coke oven gas
(a) increases its calorific value
(b) decreases its calorific value
(c) does not alter its calorific value
(d) is not possible on commercial scale
28. With increase in calorific value of fuels, their adiabatic flame temperatures
(a) increase
(b) decrease
(c) remain unchanged
(d) may increase or decrease; depends on the quantity of products of combustion
29. Grindability index of a coal is 100. It implies that the
(a) coal can be pulverized with great difficulty
(b) coal cant be pulverized
(c) coal can easily be pulverized
(d) power consumption in grinding the coal will be very high
30. If the specific heat of gaseous products of combustion of a fuel is high, the adiabatic
flame temperature will be
(a) low
(b) high
(c) very high if fuel is of low calorific value
(d) none of these
31. Calorific value (kcal/kg) of dry wood may be around
(a) 5
(b) 50
(c) 500
(d) 5000
32. A coal containing high amount of volatile matter will have
(a) low ignition temperature
(b) very little content
(c) high fusion point of its ash
(d) low adiabatic flame temperature
33. Steam is intermittently admitted in to the fuel bed during the production of producer
gas to
(a) convert CO to CO2
(b) increase in combustion rate
(c) increase the gas production rate
(d) minimize the chances of clinker formation
34.Which of the following is called blue gas?
(a) coke oven gas
(b) water gas
(c) natural gas
(d) producer gas (produced using Kopper Totzek gasifier).
35. During combustion of gaseous fuel deficiency of air
(a) lengthens the flame
(b) hydrocarbons
(c) hydrogen
(d) oxygen
39. Quantity of coke oven gas produced by high temperature carbonization of one ton of
dry coal may be around
(a) 30 Nm3
40. Coke oven gas is a better fuel than blast furnace gas because of its higher
(a) calorific value, cleanliness and relatively low distribution cost (due to its low
specific gravity)
(b) adiabatic flame temperature
(c) heat release rate (thus requiring smaller combustion chamber)
(d) all of the above
41. Which of the following constituents of fuel does not contribute to its calorific value
on combustion
(a) hydrogen
(b) sulfur
(c) carbon
43. Which of the following is the most important deterrents to an extended use of
pulverized coal in boiler firing?
(a) ash disposal problem
(b) excessive fly-ash discharge from the stack
(c) high power consumption in its transportation
(d) erosion of induced draft fan blades
44. Pulverized coal used in boiler firing need have
(a) less moisture content
45. Dry air required to burn one lb of carbon completely may be around
(a) 11.5 lb
(b) 2.67 lb
(c) 16 lb
46. Dry air requirement for burning 1 ft3 of CO to CO2 may be around
(a) 2.4 ft3
(c) lignite
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
52. For every 10% increase in the excess air; the fuel consumption increases by
(a) 0.1%
(b) 2%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%
53. Ash content in the coke produced from a coking coal having 20% ash may be around
(a) 5%
(b) 2%
(c)17%
(d) 25%
54. Out of the following fuels, the difference between the net and gross calorific value is
maximum in case of
(a) pitch
60. Which of the following accentuates clinkering trouble on furnace grate burning coal
(a) low density of carbonized residue containing high proportions of iron and sulfur
(b) low forced draught and fuel bed temperature
(c) thick fire and preheated primary air
(d) all (a), (b) and (c)
61. A coal having high ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon as compared to a coal
having low ratio of volatile matter to fixed carbon
(a) is less liable to spontaneous combustion on storage
(b) is more difficult to ignite and produces a shorter flame
(c) requires smaller combustion space and less secondary air
(d) none of these
62. Which of the following can be made into briquettes without the use of a binder
(a) lignite
(b) bitumen
(c) molasses
(b) methane
(c) unsaturates
(b) ash
(c) volatiles
(d) carbon
76. Which of the following is most reactive (as regards the formation of CO + H2 from C
+ H2O)?
(a) blast furnace coke
(b) carbonized
(c) caking
(d) non-caking
(b) ash
(c) iron
(d) moisture
(b) 4500
(c) 7500
(d) 2000
(b) 1800
(c) 4500
(d) 6500
81. Blast furnace gas is a very poisonous gas because of its predominantly high
(a) H2S content
(c) CO content
(b) 5
(c) 20
(d) 55
(b) 5
(c) 20
(d) 50
(b) 10
(c) 25
(d) 55
86. Which of the following gases will require maximum amount of air for combustion of
1 Nm3 gas?
(a) blast furnace gas
87. Which of the following will generate maximum volume of product of complete
combustion (Nm3/Nm3 of fuel)?
(a) carburetted water gas
(c) Alumina
93. The sequence of absorption in flue gas analysis by Orsats apparatus is respectively
(a) CO2, O2, CO
(c) anthracite
(d) peat
(b) ammonia
(c) tar
(b) 600 C
(c) 1100 C
(d) 1600 C
(b) 1100 C
(c) 500-650 C
(d) 150 C
3. Contact process
(a) yields acid of higher concentration than chamber process
(b) yields acids of lower concentration than chamber process
(c) is obsolete
(d) eliminates absorber
4. 20% Oleum means that in 100 lb., there are 20 lb. of
(a) SO3 and 80 lb of H2SO4
(b) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
(c) SO3 for each 100 lb of H2SO4
(d) H2SO4 and 80 lb SO3
5. Producer gas consists mainly of
(a) CO, CO2, N2, H2
(b) CO, H2
(c) H2, CH4
(d) C2H2, CO2, H2
6. Oxygen is produced by fraction of air using
(a) Linde's process
(b) Claude's process
(c) both Linde's and Claude's process
(d) Bayer's process
7. Raw materials for 'Solvay Process' for manufacture of the soda ash are
(a) salt, limestone ,ammonia and coke oven gas
(b) ammonia, salt and limestone
(c) ammonia, limestone and coke
(d) ammonia and coke oven gas
8. Economics of 'Solvay Process" depends upon the efficiency of
(a) carbonating tower
(b) ammonia recovery
(c) ammonia recovery and size of plant
(d) ammoniation of salt solution
9. Mercury cells for caustic soda manufacture compared to diaphragm cells
(a) require lower initial investment
(b) require more power
(c) produce lower concentration of NaOH
(d) none of these
10. Cement mainly contains
(a)CaO, SiO2, Al2O3
(b) MgO, SiO2, K2O
(c) Al2O3, MgO, Fe2O3
(d) CaO, MgO, K2O
11. Gypsum is
(a) calcium chloride
(b) potassium sulfate
(c) sodium sulfate
(d) calcium sulfate
12. Glauber's salt is
(a) calcium sulfate
(b) potassium sulfate
(c) potassium chlorate
(d) sodium sulfate decahydrate
13. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of calcium and
magnesium
(a) bi-carbonates
(b) sulfates and chlorides
(c) carbonate
(d) chlorides
14. Widely used method for conditioning of boiler feed water is
(a) cold lime process
(b) coagulation
(c) hot-lime soda process
(d) sequestration
15. Hydrazine is largely used
(a) as a starting material for 'hypo'
(b) in photographic industry
(c) as rocket fuel
(d) in printing industry
16. Trinitro-toluene is
(a) used in glycerin manufacture
(b) an explosive
(c) used in dye manufacture
(d) used in paint manufacture
17. Oil is
(a) a mixture of glycerides
(b) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids
(c) solid at normal temperature
(d) ester of alcohols other than glycerin
18. Wax is
(a) a mixture of glycerides
(b) a mixture of esters of polyhydric alcohols except glycerin
(c) liquid at room temperature
(d) a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids
51. Which of the following coal has the highest calorific value?
(a) Lignite
(b) Sub-bituminous
(c) Anthracite
(d) Peat
52. The main product of high temperature carbonization is
(a) Coke
(b) Ammonia
(c) Tar
(d) Phenol
53. High temperature carbonization produces
(a) inferior coke compared to low temperature carbonization
(b) less of gases compared to liquid products
(c) larger quantity of tar compared to low temperature carbonization
(d) relatively low tar and yields of gaseous products are larger than
the yield of liquid
products
54. High temperature carbonization takes place at
(a) 4000 - 5000F
(b) 950F
(c) > 1650F
(d) < 1000F
55. Low temperature carbonization takes place at
(a) 500F
(b) 1300F
(c) 750 - 1100F
(d) 2500 F
56. Proximate analysis of coal determines
(a) moisture, ash, sulfur, volatile matter
(b) moisture, volatile matter
(c) moisture, sulfur, nitrogen, fixed carbon
(d) carbon, hydrogen, ash
57. Ultimate analysis of coal determines
(a) moisture, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulfur
(b) carbon, ash, sulfur,nitrogen
(c) carbon, sulfur, volatile matter, ash
(d) carbon,volatile matter, ash, moisture
58. Washing of coal is done to
(a) remove the inherent impurities
(b) remove the adhering impurities
(c) reduce the ash content
(d) both b and c
CO + H2 is
91. Dacron is
(a) a polyester
(b) an unsaturated polyester
(c) a polyamide
(d) an inorganic polymer
92. Celluloid is
(a) cellulose acetate
(b) regenerated cellulose
(c) cellulose nitrate
(d) cellulose acetate butyrate
93. Thermoplastic materials
(a) do not soften on application of heat
(b) are heavily branched molecules
(c) are solvent insoluble
(d) are capable of softening or fusing when heated and of hardening
again when cooled
94. Thermosetting materials
(a) are capable of becoming permanently rigid when heated or
cured
(b) soften on application of heat
(c) are solvent insoluble
(d) are heavily branched molecules
95. Type of glass used in optical work is
(a) soda-lime glass
(b) fiber glass
(c) lead glass
(d) borosilicate glass
96. Silicon carbide is
(a) an adhesive
(b) an abrasive
(c) a type of glass
(d) brittle
97. The temperature in the calcium carbide furnace is
(a) 200 - 300C
(b) 700 - 850C
(c) 2000 -2200C
(d) 4000 - 4500C
98. Cumene (Isopropyl benzene) is made by
(a) oxidation of naphthalene
(b) propylene alkylation of benzene
(c) polymerization of a mixture of benzene and propylene
(d) polymerization of propylene
121. Temperature during hydrogenation of oil should not be more than 200C,
otherwise it will
result in
(a) pyrolysis of oil
(b) sintering of porous catalyst
(c) hydrogen embrittlement
(d)all a, b and c
122. Shaving soaps are
(a) soft potassium soaps (potassium salt of fatty acid) with free
stearic acid to give
lather a lasting property
(b) metallic soaps compounded with frothing agents
(c) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
(d) usually soap soaps
123. Transparent soaps (e.g. Pears) are
(a) usually soft soaps (made from coconut oil) in which cane sugar
and alcohol are
added and finally washed with methylate spirit to achieve
transparency
(b) metallic soaps with frothing agent and free stearic acid to achieve
transparency
(c) metallic soaps with frothing agent from which glycerin has not been
recovered
(d) high free alkali soaps having excess of cane sugar and alcohol
124. Glycerin is recovered from lye by
(a) evaporation followed by vacuum distillation
(b) liquid extraction technique
(c) extractive distillation technique
(d) steam distllation
125. Glycerin is not used in the
(a) manufacture of explosive
(b) conditioning and humidification of tobacco
(c) manufacture of pharmaceuticals
(d) manufacture of caustic soda
FLOW OF FLUIDS
(b) MLT-1
(d) MLT
11. The pressure intensity is the same in all direction at a point in a fluid
(a) only when the fluid is frictionless
(b) only when the fluid is at rest having zero velocity
(c) when there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
(d) regardless of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
12. Choose the set of pressure intensities that are equivalent
(a) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 8.83 inches of Hg.
(b) 4.33 psi, 10 ft. of water, 20.7 inches of Hg.
(c) 10 psi, 19.7 ft. of water, 23.3 inches of Hg.
(d) 10 psi, 19.7 ft of water, 5.3 inches of Hg.
13. For a fluid rotating at constant angular velocity about vertical axis as a rigid body, the
pressure intensity varies as the
(a) square of the radial distance
(b) radial distance linearly
(c) averse of the radial distance
(d) elevation along vertical direction
14. The center of pressure is
(a) always below the centroid of the area
(b) always above the centroid of the area
(c) a point on the line of action of the resultant force
(d) at the centroid of the submerge area
15. A rectangular surface 3x4, has the lower 3 edge horizontal and 6 below a free oil
surface (sp. gr. 0.8). The surface inclination is 300 with the horizontal. The force in
one side of the surface is :(y = specific weight of water)
(a) 39.6y
(c) 49.2y
(b) 48y
(d) 58y
(b) ft-lb/ft3
(d) ft-lb.f/sec
31. Reynolds number flow of water at room temperature through 2 cm diameter pipe at
average velocity of 5 cm/sec is around
(a) 2000
(b) 10
(c) 100
(d) 1000
42. The velocity profile for turbulent flow through a closed conduit is
(b) parabolic
(a) logarithmic
(c) hyperbolic
(d) linear
43. For laminar flow through a closed conduit
(b) Vmax = Vav
(a) Vmax = 2 Vav
(c) Vmax = 1.5 Vav
(d) Vav = 2 Vmax
44. f = 16/NRe is valid for
(a) turbulent flow
(b) laminar flow through an open channel
(c) steady flow
(d) none of these
45. Isotropic turbulence occurs
(a) where there is no velocity gradient
(b) at higher temperatures
(c) only in newtonion fluid
(d) none of these
46. Consider two pipes of same length and diameter through which water is passed at the
same velocity. The friction factor for rough pipe is f1 and that for smooth pipe is f2.
Pick out the correct statement.
(a) f1 = f2
(b) f1 < f2
(d) data not sufficient to relate f1 and f2
(c) f1 > f2
47. Bernoullis equation for steady frictionless, continuous flow states that
(a) total pressure at all sections is same
(b) total energy at all section is same
(c) velocity head at all section is same
(d) none of these
48. Drag is defined as the force exerted by the
(a) fluid on the solid in a direction opposite to flow
(b) the fluid on the solid in the direction of flow
(c) the solid on the fluid
(d) none of these
49. Drag co-efficient for flow past immersed body is the ratio of
(a) shear stress to the product of velocity head density
(b) shear force to the product of velocity head and density
(c) average drag per unit projected area to the product of velocity head and
density
(d) none of these
50. Stokes law is valid when the particle Reynolds number is
(a) < 1
(b) > 1
(d) none of these
(c) < 5
51. Drag co-efficient CD is given by (in Stokes law range)
(a) CD = 16
(b) CD = 24
Re.p
Re.p
(c) CD = 18.4
(d) CD = 0.079
Re.p
Re.p
52. At low Reynolds number
(a) viscous forces are unimportant
(b) viscous forces control
(c) viscous forces control and inertial forces are unimportant
(d) gravity forces control
53. At high Reynolds number
(a) inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant
(b) viscous forces predominate
(c) inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control
(d) none of these
54. For flow of fluid through packed bed, the superficial velocity is
(a) less than the average velocity through channels
(b) more than the average velocity through channels
(c) dependent on the pressure drop across the bed
(d) same as the average velocity through channels
55. Pressure drop in a packed bed for laminar flow is given by
(a) Kozeny-Carman equation (b) Blake-Plummer equation
(c) Levas equation
(d) none of these
56. Pressure drop in a packed bed for turbulent flow is given by
(a) Kozeny-Carman equation (b) Blake-Plummer equation
(c) Levas equation
(d) none of these
71. The maximum depth from which a centrifugal pump can draw water
(a) dependent on the speed N of the pump
(b) dependent on the power of the pump
(d) 150 feet
(c) 34 feet
(b) slurries
(d) none of these
90. Velocity distribution for flow between the fixed parallel plates
(a) varies parabolically across the section
(b) is constant over the entire cross section
(c) is zero at the plates and increases linearly to the midplane
(d) none of these
91. While starting a centrifugal pump, its delivery valve should be kept
(a) opened
(b) closed
(c) either opened or closed; it does not make any difference
(d) either opened or closed; depending on the fluid viscosity
92. Path followed by water jet issuing from the bottom of a water tank will be a
(a) parabola (vertex being at the opening)
(b) hyperbolic
(c) horizontal straight line
(d) zig-zag path (which is geometrically undefined)
93. A centrifugal pump loses prime after starting. The reason of this trouble may be
(a) incomplete priming
(b) too high a suction lift
(c) low available NPSH and air leaks in the suction pipe
(d) all a, b, and c
94. Capacity of a rotary gear pump can be varied by
(a) changing the speed of rotation
(b) bleeding air into suction
(c) bypassing liquid from the suction or discharge line
(d) all a, b, and c
95. For liquid flow through a packed bed, the superficial velocity as compared to average
velocity through the channel in the bed is
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal
(d) independent of porosity
96. Reciprocating pumps compared to centrifugal pumps
(a) deliver liquid at uniform pressure
(b) can handle slurries more efficiently
(c) are not subject to air binding
(d) can be operated with delivery valve closed
97. A tube is specified by its
(a) thickness only
(c) thickness and outer diameter both
98. For pipes that must be broken at intervals for maintenance, the connector used should
be a
(b) tee
(a) union
(c) reduces
(d) elbow
99. If more than two branches of pipes are to be connected at the same point, then use
(a) elbow
(b) union
(d) none of these
(c) tee
100. The most economical valve for use with large diameter pipes is
(b) globe valve
(a) butterfly valve
(c) needle valve
(d) none of these
101. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the pressure drop in a
pipeline?
(a) velocity of liquid
(b) size of pipe
(c) length of pipe and number of bends (d) none of these
102. Which of the following can be used to create a flow of gas where no significant
compression is required?
(a) reciprocating compressor (b) blower
(c) axial flow compressor
(d) centrifugal compressor
103. Erosion and pits formation on the impeller of a centrifugal pump may be due to
(b) low speed of impeller
(a) cavitation
(c) its operation with delivery valve closed for considerable time after starting the
pump
(d) off centering of pump with motor
104. Which of the following valves will incur maximum pressure drop for the same
discharge of water?
(a) globe valve
(b) gate valve
(d) butterfly valve
(c) needle valve
105. While starting on axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be kept
(b) closed
(a) open
(c) either open or closed
(d) none of these
106. Identification of pipelines carrying different liquids and gases is done by
(a) diameter of the pipe
(b) color of the pipe
(c) the altitude of at which pipe is located (d) none of these
115. The most important factor which determines the maximum height to which water
can be lifted by a pump at standard temperature (62F) is
(b) speed of the impeller
(a) barometric pressure
(c) diameter of the impeller
(d) both b and c
116. Bear pump
(a) is a positive displacement pump
(b) is a centrifugal pump
(c) is a non-positive displacement pump
(d) can be started with delivery valve closed
117. When the water is warm, the height to which it can be lifted by a pump
(a) decreases due to reduced velocity
(b) decreases due to reduced vapor pressure
(c) increases due to increased vapor pressure
(d) decreases due to increased frictional resistance
118. Multistage centrifugal pumps are generally used for
(b) low head but high discharged
(a) high head
(c) highly viscous liquid
(d) slurries of high solid concentration
119. Centrifugal pump cant be used to pump
(a) molten sodium (used as a coolant in Fast Breeder Reactor)
(b) moderately vegetable oil used in soap industry
(c) thick molten soap at 80C
(d) none of the above
120. Volute type of casing is provided in a centrifugal pump to
(a) convert velocity head to pressure head
(b) convert pressure head to velocity head
(c) reduce the discharge fluctuation
(d) increase the discharge
121. A pump operating under specific conditions delivers insufficient quantity of liquid.
This may be set right by
(a) decreasing the size of the inlet pipe
(b) increasing the size of the inlet pipe
(c) lowering the pump position
(d) both b and c
122. Delivery of insufficient quantity of liquid by a pump may be caused by
(a) air leak in the inlet
(b) low rpm
(c) too high a lift
(d) all a, b and c
123. Actual lift of pump always less than the theoretical lift and is limited by
(a) specific gravity and temperature of the liquid
(b) leakage and pressure decreasing at higher elevations
(c) frictional resistance through pipes, fittings and passages
(d) all a, b and c
124. Fill up the blank
Nominal size of the discharge pipe of a pump is usually the nominal size of
the inlet pipe
(b) larger than
(a) smaller than
(c) same as
(d) twice
125. Horsepower requirement for given pump capacity depends upon the
(a) specific gravity of the liquid
(b) suction lift
(c) discharge head
(d) all a, b and c
DRYING
1. The vapor pressure exerted by the moisture contained in a wet solid depends
upon the
a) nature of the moisture
b) temperature
c) nature of the solid
d) all a, b, and c
2. To remove all the moisture from a wet solid requires exposure to
a) perfectly dry air
b) highly humid air
c) air at high temperature
d) none of these
3. Milk is dried usually in a
a) freeze dryer
b) spray dryer
c) tray dryer
d) rotary dryer
4. Equilibrium-moisture curves of different solids
a) are different
b) are same
c) depend on the humidity of the gas
d) none of these
X+1
b)
c)
d)
1-X
1+X
1X
10. Moisture in a substance exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure less than that
of pure liquid at
at the same temperature is
a) bound moisture
b) unbound moisture
c) critical moisture
d) none of these
11. Rotary dryer cannot handle
a) free flowing materials
b) dry materials
c) sticky materials
d) granular materials
12. Moisture in a solid exerting an equilibrium vapor pressure equal to that of the
pure liquid at
the same temperature is
a) unbound moisture
b) critical moisture
c) free moisture
d) bound moisture
13. Refractory bricks are usually dried in a
a) tray dryer
b) tunnel dryer
c) conveyor dryer
d) festoon dryer
14. Heat sensitive materials like certain pharmaceuticals and food stuff can be
dried
a) in indirect tray dryer
b) in spray dryer
c) by freeze drying
d) none of these
15. Moisture contained by a substance in excess of the equilibrium moisture is
called
a) unbound moisture
b) free moisture
c) critical moisture
d) bound moisture
29. During constant rate period, the rate of drying decreases with
a) decrease in air temperature
b) increased air humidity
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
HUMIDIFICATION
1. Humidification involves mass transfer between a pure liquid phase and a fixed
gas which is:
a) insoluble in the liquid
b) soluble in the liquid
c) non-ideal in nature
d) at a fixed temperature
2. At a fixed total pressure, humidity depends only on the
a) partial pressure of vapor in the mixture
b) heat capacity of the vapor
c) density of the vapor
d) none of these
29. The relative saturation of a partially saturated mixture of vapor and gas can
be increased by
a) reducing the total pressure of the mixture
b) increasing the total pressure of the mixture
c) reducing the temperature of the mixture
d) both b and c
30. Condensation of a vapor-gas mixture just begin when
a) p = P
b) p P
c) p P
d) p>= P
where: p = partial pressure of the vapor
P = vapor pressure of the liquid
31. Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35oC and 25oC
respectively) is
passed through water spray chamber maintained at 35oC. The air will be
a) cooled
b) humidified
c) both a and b
d) dehumidified
32. In case of unsaturated air
a) dew point wet bulb temperature
b) wet bulb temperature dry bulb temperature
c) both a and b
d) neither a nor b
33. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb temperature and dew point being 35oC and
18oC respectively)
is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 15oC. The air will be
a) cooled and humidified
b) cooled and dehumidified with increase in wet bulb temperature
c) cooled at the same relative humidity
d) cooled and dehumidified with decrease in wet bulb temperature
34. Which of the following parameters remains almost constant during adiabatic
saturation of
unsaturated air?
a) dry bulb temperature
b) dew point
c) wet bulb temperature
d) none of these
35. Unsaturated air (with dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures being 45oC and
25oC respectively)
is passed through a water spray chamber maintained at 23oC. The air will be
a) cooled and humidified with wet bulb temperature decreasing
b) cooled and humidified at constant wet bulb temperature
c) cooled and dehumidified
d) none of these
Diffusion
1. The unit of volumetric diffusivity is
a.) cm2/ec
b.) cm/sec
c.) cm3/sec
d.) cm3/sec3
2. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the temperature (T)
as
a.) D T
b.) D T0.5
1.5
c.) D T
d.) D T3
3. The diffusivity (D) in a binary gas mixture is related to the pressure (P) as
a.) D T1.5
b.) D 1
P0.5
c.) D 1
d.) D 1
P
P1.5
4. Molecular diffusion is caused by
a.) transfer of molecules from low concentration to high concentration region
b.) thermal energy of the molecules
c.) activation energy of the molecules
d.) potential energy of the molecules
5. Pick out the correct statement
a.) Diffusivity decreases with increase in temperature
b.) Diffusivity increases with increase in molecular weight
c.) Diffusivity increases with the size of the individual molecule
d.) None of these
6. Mass transfer co-efficient is defined as
a.) Flux = (Co-efficient) / (concentration difference)
b.) Co-efficient = Flux / concentration difference
c.) Flux = concentration difference / co-efficient
d.) None of these
7. Mass transfer co-efficient (K) and diffusivity (D) are related according to film
theory as
a.) K D
b.) K D
1.5
c.) K D
d.) K D2
8. Penetration theory relates average mass transfer co-efficient (K) with
diffusivity (D) as
a.) K D
b.) K D
c.) K D1.5
d.) K D2
9. Corresponding to Prandtl number in heat transfer, the dimensionless group in
mass transfer is
a.) Schmidt number
b.) Sherwood number
c.) Peclet number
d.) Stanton number
10. Schmidt number is
a.)
DAB
b.) Sh x Pe
b.) Re.Pe
d.) Re / Pe
b.) Pr x Sc
d.) St x Sh
GAS ABSORPTION
1. For absorbing a sparingly soluble gas in a liquid, the
a.) gas side coefficient should be increased
b.) liquid side coefficient should be increased
c.) gas side coefficient should be decreased
d.) liquid side coefficient should be decreased
2. For contacting a highly soluble gas with a liquid
a.) bubble the gas through liquid
b.) spray the liquid on gas stream
c.) either a or b will suffice
d.) none of these
3. Wetted wall tower experiment determines
a.) molal diffusivity
b.) volumetric coefficient
c.) mass transfer coefficient
d.) none of these
4. Stacked packing compared to dumped packing
a.) provides poorer contact between the fluids
b.) gives lower pressure drop
c.) both (a) and (b)
d.) gives higher drop
5. Channeling is most severe
a.) in towers packed with stacked packing
b.) in towers packed randomly with crushed solids
c.) in dumped packing of regular units
d.) at very high liquid flow rate
6. Flooding results in
a.) High tray efficiency
b.) Low tray efficiency
c.) High gas velocity
d.) Good contact between the fluids
7. Operating velocity in a packed tower is usually
a.) half the flooding velocity
b.) twice the flooding velocity
c.) equal to flooding velocity
d.) more than the flooding velocity
8. At the same gas flow rate, the pressure drop in a packed tower being
irrigated with liquid
a.) is greater than that in dry packed
b.) is lower than that in drying packing
c.) is same as that in drying packing
d.) cannot be predicted as data are insufficient
9. Berl saddle made of carbon cannot be used
a.) for alkalis
b.) for SO2
c.) for H2SO4
d.) in oxidizing atmosphere
10. Flooding in a column results due to
a.) high pressure drop
c.) low velocity of the liquid
11. The operating line for an absorbed is curved when plotted in terms of
a.) mole fractions
b.) mole ratios
c.) partial pressure
d.) mass fractions
12. In case of an absorber, the operating
a.) line always lies above the equilibrium curve
b.) line always lies below the equilibrium curve
c.) line can be either above or below the equilibrium curve
d.) velocity is more than the loading velocity
13. For an absorber, both equilibrium and operating line will be straight for
a.) concentrated solution and non-isothermal operation
b.) dilute solution and non-isothermal operation
c.) dilute solution and isothermal operation
d.) concentrated solution and isothermal operation
14. In case of desorber (stipper)
a.) the operating line always lies above the equilibrium curve
b.) the operating line always lies below the equilibrium line
c.) temperature remains unaffected
d.) temperature always increases
15. The minimum liquid rate to be used in an absorber corresponds to an
operating line
a.) of slope = 1
b.) of slope = '1
c.) tangential to the equilibrium curve d.) none of these
b.) I,IV,V,VI
d.) I,IV,V,VII
23. When both the fluids flow concurrently in an absorber, the slope of the
operating line is
a.) negative
b.) positive
c.) 1
d.) -1
24. Ammonia present in the coke oven gas is removed by washing with
a.) caustic solution
b.) dilute ammoniacal liquor
c.) dilute HCl
d.) ethanolamine
25. Which of the following is not fixed by process requirements in the design of
absorbers?
a.) flow rate of the entering gas
b.) composition of the entering liquid
c.) terminal concentration of gas stream
d.) none of these
26. In an absorber, HETP does not vary with
a.) flow rate of liquid
c.) type and size of packing
FILTRATION
1. For a classification of potable water, we use
a.) gravity sand filter
b.) plate and frame filter
c.) vacuum leaf filter
d.) rotary vacuum filter
2. Vacuum filter is most suitable for
a.) removal of lines from liquid
pressure
c.) liquids of very high viscosity
b.) cm / gm
d.) gm / gm.
b.) gm / cm-1
d.) gm -1
22. Flow of filtrate through cake in a plate and frame filter press is best described
by
a.) Kozency-Carman equation
b.) Hagen-Poiseu equation
c.) Fanning's equation
d.) Kremser equation
29. Addition of filter aid to the slurry before filtration is done to .. of the coke
a.) increase the porosity
b.) increase the compressibility coefficient
c.) decrease the porosity
d.) decrease the compressibility coefficient
30. The cake resistance increases steadily with the time of filtration in a plate and
frame filter employing constant .. filtration
a.) rate
b.) pressure
c.) both a and b
d.) neither a nor b
31. The controlling resistance in a rotary drum vacuum filter is the . Resistance
a.) piping
b.) cake
c.) filter medium
c.) none of these
ADSORPTION
1. Physical adsorption is
a. an irreversible phenomenon
b. a reversible phenomenon
c. accompanied by evolution of heat
d. both b and c
2. Chemisorption (chemical adsorption) is
a. same as Van der Waals adsorption
b. characterized by adsorption of heat
c. also called activated adsorption
d. none of these
3. Rate of adsorption increases as the
a. temperature increases
b. temperature decreases
c. pressure decreases
d. size of adsorbent increases
9. The change in enthalpy per unit weight of adsorbed gas when adsorbed on gas free or
outgassed adsorbent to form a definite concentration of adsorbate is called its
a. integral heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting
c. differential heat of adsorption
d. heat of normal condensation
10. With increase in concentration of the adsorbate the integral heat of adsorption
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains unchanged
d. may increase or decrease; depends on type of adsorbate
11. The change in enthalpy when a unit quantity of gas is adsorbed by a relatively large quantity
of adsorbent (on which a definite concentration of the adsorbed gas already exists) is termed
as the
a. differential heat of adsorption
c. integral heat of adsorption
b. heat of wetting
d. heat of normal condensation
12. As complete saturation of an adsorbent is approached, the differential heat of adsorption
approaches
a. heat of normal condensation
c. zero
b. integral heat of adsorption
d. none of these
13. Ion exchange process is similar to
a. absorption
b. extraction
c. adsorption
d. leaching
c. Cold Ca (OH)2
d. alumina
CENTRIFUGATION
1. For separation of sugar solution from settled out mud we use
a. sparkler filter
c. centrifugal filter
b. plate & frame filter
d. rotary drum vacuum filter
2. Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using
a. tubular centrifuge
c. sparkler filter
b. clarifier
d. vacuum leaf filter
3. Which of the following can be most effectively used for clarification of tube oil and printing
ink?
a. sparkler filter
c. disc-bowl centrifuge
b. precoat filter
d. sharpless supercentrifuge
4. If the radius of a basket centrifuge is halved and the rpm is doubled, then
a. linear speed of the basket is doubled
b. linear speed of the basket is halved
c. centrifugal force is doubled
d. capacity of centrifuge is increased
5. Where the difference in density of the two liquid phases to be separated is very small (as in
milk cream separator), the most suitable separator is
a. disc bond centrifuge
c. batch basket centrifuge
b. sharpless supercentrifuge
d. sparkler filter
FLOTATION
LEACHING
1. Which of the following operations does not involve leaching?
a. dissolving gold from ores
b. dissolving pharmaceutical products from bark or roots
c. dissolving sugar from the cells of the best
d. removing nicotine from its water solution by kerosene
2. Tea percolation employs
a. liquid-liquid extraction
b. leaching
c. absorption
d. adsorption
c. pressure
d. size of the solid
c. temperature
d. none of these
1. Heats sensitive materials with very high latent heat of vaporization may be
economically separated using
a. liquid extraction
b. distillation
2. Fractional solvent extraction
a. employs only one solvent
b. employs two solvents
c. evaporation
d. absorption
3. Choose the best combination or properties for a good solvent for extraction out of the
following
(i)
high selectivity
(ii)
low selectivity
(iii)
high viscosity
(iv)
low viscosity
(v)
large distribution coefficient
(vi)
small distribution coefficient
(vii)
(viii)
a. ( i ), ( iv ), ( v ), ( vii )
b. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), ( vi )
c. ( i ), ( iii ), ( v ), ( vii )
d. ( i ), ( ii ), ( iv ), ( vii )
MATERIALS HANDLING
SCREENING
1. The ratio of the actual mesh dimension of Taylor series to that of the next smaller screen is
a. 2
b. 2
c. 1.5
d. none of these
2. The opening of 200 mesh screen (Taylor series) is
a. 0.0074 cm
b. 0.0074 mm
c. 0.0047 cm
d. 0.0047 mm
3. The ratio of the area of opening in one screen (Taylor series) to that of openings in the next
smaller screen is
a. 1.5
b. 1
c. 2
d. none of these
4. Cumulative Analysis for determining surface is more precise than differential analysis
because of the
a. assumption that all particles in single fraction are equal in size
b. fact that screening is more effective
c. assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in size is not needed
d. none of these
5. Increasing the capacity of screen
a. decreases the screen effectiveness
b. increases the screen effectiveness
6. Screen efficiency is
a. recovery rejection
c. rejection
b. recovery
d. none of these
d. tons/h-ft2
c. 200 openings/cm
d. 200 openings/inch2
SEDIMENTATION
Questions 1 and 2 are based on the following information and illustration
In an experiment, a sphere of density 1 and radius r is dropped in a tank of oil of
viscosity 1 and density 2 . The time of descent for the sphere through the first section of height
d is recorded as t1 and through the second section of the same height as t2, 0 < t2 t1 << 1.
Sphere
d
d
(1)
2
4
3
1 g r 3
d.
d
4 3
r 1 g 61r
3
t2
c. <1
d.
c. < 1
d. 3
SIZE REDUCTION
1. Shape factor for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter is
a. 1.5
b. 0.5
c. 1
d. 0
2. Equivalent diameter of a particle is the diameter of the sphere having the same
a. ratio of surface to volume as the actual volume
b. ratio of volume to surface as the particle
c. volume as the particle
d. none of these
3. For coarse reduction of hard solids, use
a. impact
b. attrition
c. compression
d. cutting
d. none of these
c. ultragrinding
d. crushing
c. Ball mill
d. none of these
15. As the product becomes finer, the energy required for grinding
a. decreases
c. is same as for coarser grinding
b. increases
d. is 1.5 times than for coarser grinding
16. Ultrafine grinders operate principally by
a. slow compression
c. attrition
b. impact
d. cutting action
c. fine grinding
d. attrition
26. The main differentiation factor between tube mill and ball mill is the
a. length to diameter ratio
c. final product size
b. size of the grinding media
d. operating speed
27. Kicks law relates to
a. energy consumption
b. final particle size
c. feed size
d. none of these
c. 10 20
d. as high as 100
40. According to Bond crushing law, the work required to form particle of size D from very
large feed is
S /V p
a.
S /V p
c.
b.
S /V p
d.
S /V f
when
S /V p
and
S /V f
respectively
20. Fouling factor must be included in the calculation of over all design heat
transfer co-efficient when the liquid
a. containing suspended solids flows at low velocity
b. containing suspended solids flows at high velocity
c. is highly viscous
d. is of high specific gravity
21. The value of fouling factor depends upon the
a. characteristics of process fluid
b. velocity process fluid
containing suspended solids
c. suspended solids in the fluid
28. In shell and tube heat exchangers, straight tie rods are used to
a. hold baffle in space
b. fix the tubes in position
c. account for thermal strain
d. none of these
29. Baffle spacing is generally
a. more than the I.D. of the shell
b. not greater than the I.D. of the shell
c. not less than one fifth of the I.D. of the shell
d. both (b) and (c)
30. Which of the following is the most common baffle used in industrial shell and
tube heat exchange?
a. 75% cut segmental baffle
b. 25% cut segmental baffle
c. orifice baffle
d. disk and doughnut baffle
31. In a shell and tube heat exchanger for given heat transfer surface area, smaller diameter
tubes are favored as compared to larger diameter ones because smaller diameter tubes.
36. Optimum economic pipe diameter for fluid flow is determined by the
a. viscosity of the fluid
b. density of the fluid
c. total cost considerations (pumping cost plus fixed cost of the
pipe)
d. none of these.
37. Friction factor turbulent flow in new pipe is given by
a. f = 16/NRE
b. f = 0.04/(NRE)0.16 c. f = 0.22NRE0.5
d. f =
25/NRE
38. In case of continuous distillation column, increase in the reflux ratio may
result
a. lower fixed charges for the column
b. greater cost for the reboiler
heat supply
c. greater cost for the condenser coolant d. all (a), (b) and (c)
39. Optimum reflux ratio in a continuous distillation column is determined by the
a. maximum permissible vapor velocity
b. flooding limit of the column
c. total cost consideration (fixed cost of the column plus the cooling
water and steam
cost)
d. none of these
40. Pressure drop due to pipe fittings can be estimated by p/ = 4f (Le/D)
(V2/2gc) where Le =
equivalent length of straight pipeline which will incur the same frictional loss
as the fitting and D = diameter of the fitting. The value of Le /D
(dimensionless) for 45 elbow and 180 close return bends would be
respectively around
a. 5 and 10
b. 45 and 75
c. 180 and 300
d. 300 and 500
41. Le/D for 90 elbow (medium radius) and 90 square elbow would be
respectively around
a. 25 and 60
b. 3 and 5
c. 100 and 250
d. 250 and 600
42. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering run) would be around
a.5
b. 60
c. 200
d. 350
43. Le/D for a Tee (used as elbow, entering branch) would be
a. less than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering run)
b. more than that for Tee (used as elbow, entering run)
c. around 90
d. both (b) and (c)
44. Le/D for couplings and unions would be
a. 60
b. 200
c. 350
d. negligible
Diopt 3.9 q f
0.45
c 0.95
d. Diopt 3 q f
0.36
c 0.18
48. For laminar flow (NRe < 2100) in steel pipe, the optimum inside pipe
diameter is given by
0.45
0.28
0.487
c 0.025
a. Diopt 3.6 q f c
c. Diopt q f
a.
Diopt 3 q f
0.36
c 0.18
d. Diopt q f
0.364
c 0.182
49. The necessary wall thickness for a metallic storage vessel is a function of the
a. ultimate tensile strength (or yield point) of the material and operating
temperature
b. operating pressure and welding / joint efficiency
c. diameter of the vessel
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
50. Bubble cap plate column is
a. a finite stage contactor
b. used only for distillation, not for absorption
c. a differential stage contactor
d. a continuous contactor
51. The most common standard size of bubble caps used in industrial operation
is
a. 1" diameter cap with 0.5" diameter riser
b. 6" diameter cap with 4" diameter riser
c. 8" diameter cap with 1" diameter riser
d. 4" diameter cap with 8" diameter riser
52. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to the design of the distillation
column
a. Generally, a skirt clearance of 0.5 to 1.5 is recommended to prevent
plugging of the slots by residue build up.
b. The purpose of the slot is to disperse the gas into the liquid in the form of
small bubbles.
c. If sufficient slot area is not provided, the gas may pass through the skirt
clearance
d. none of these
53. For a given design of bubble cap, the number of bubble caps to be used per
tray is set by the
a. allowable gas velocity through the slots
b. plate spacing
c. diameter of the column
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
54. Maximum and minimum linear slot velocities (in the distillation column design) as
recommended by Davies are respectively
(d)
nRT
(c) nRT
P
(d) __P_
nRT
Where: P =pressure
V= volume of the vessel
n= number of moles of the gas R= gas constant
52. In an exothermic chemical reactor, the manipulated variable is the flow rate
of
(a) coolant
(b) reactant
(c) product
(d) hot fluid
53. Use of I-control along with P-control facilitates
(a) elimination of offset
(b) reduction of offset
(c) reduction of stability time
(d) both b and c
54. Which of the following error integral is considered as the best criterion in
controller settings?
(a) | e | dt
(b) | e | dt
0
(c)
0
e dt
MATERIALS OF CONSTRUCTION
1. Bog iron is used for adsorption of H2S from coke oven gas is
a. an intimate mixture of saw dust and iron dust (i.e. moist ferric
hydroxide)
b. iron impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. carbon free iron
d. none of these
2. Iron alloyed with carbon up to 2% is called
a. pig iron
b. wrought iron
c. high carbon steel
d. none of these
3. The softest material in Mhos scale (for measuring hardness) is
a. talc
b. gypsum
c. rubber
d. none of these
4. Karbate is
a. a mixture of iron dust and saw dust
b. carbon impregnated with resin (usually bakelite)
c. acid resistant material
d. both (b) and (c).
5. Duralumin is an alloy of
a. aluminum, copper and manganese
b .aluminum, nickel and silicon
c. aluminum and nickel
d. none of these
6. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by the addition of
a. phosphorus and tungsten
b. nickel and chromium
c. lead and vanadium
d. molybdenum and tungsten
7. White metal is an alloy of
a. lead, tin and cadmium b. copper, tin and zinc
c. copper and lead
d. none of these
8. Presence of cobalt in steel improve its
a. cutting ability
b. corrosion resistance
c. tensile strength
d. none of these
9. The impure iron (Pig iron) that is taped out from blast furnace contains
about
a. 0.2% carbon
b. 2% carbon
c. 4% carbon
d. 8% carbon
10. Carbon content in steel is
a. 0.1 2%
b. 4 6%
c. 5- 10%
d. 0
11. An ideal material of construction for the storage of 50% caustic soda
solution would be
a. Karbate
b. high silica cast iron
c. monel
d. none of these
12. For storing water and acid free benzol, use
a. steel vessel
b. karbate vessel
c. stainless steel vessel
d. none of these
13. Brine (15% concentration) can be stored in a vessel made of
a. monel
b. karbate
c. cast iron
d. none of these
14. Most suitable material of construction for the storage of concentrated
nitric acid is
a. cast iron
b. monel
c. karbate
d. aluminum or chromium alloys (Cr > 18% for cold acid).
48. Duriron is
a. acid resistant, brittle and very hard
b. high silicon iron
c. prone to breakage due to thermal expansion because of very high coefficient of thermal expansion.
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
49. Lead pipe is
a. especially resistant to solutions containing H2SO4
b. usually joined by burning (e.g. by melting to adjacent pieces with a
torch)
c. having very low elastic limit resulting in permanent deformation from
either mechanical or thermal strain
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
50. The most resistant material to alkaline corrosion is
a. duriron
b. nickel
c. aluminum
d. karbate
51. Presence of nickel in steel improves its
a. corrosion resistance b. cutting ability
c. wear resistance
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
52. An alloy of iron containing 4% carbon is called
a. high carbon steel
b. wrought iron
c. mild steel
d. none of these
53. Bell metal is an alloy of
a. copper and zinc
b. copper and tin
c. copper and nickel
d. zinc and tin
54. Inconel is an alloy of
a. tin, zinc and nickel
b. iron, nickel and chromium
c. copper and nickel
d. zinc and tin
55. Hastelloy comprises
a. copper and tin
b. copper and nickel
c. molybdenum and nickel
d. lead and tin
56. Ability of a material to absorb energy in deformation in the plastic range is
characterized as its
a. ductility
b. toughness
c. creep
d. resilience
57. Slow and progressive deformation of a material with time under constant
stress is called
a. creep
b. erosion
c. resilience
d. none of these
58. Wrought iron is
a. high carbon iron
b. highly resistance to acid corrosion
c .malleable and ductile; hence used for chain links, hooks and couplings
d. an alloy of iron, chromium and carbon
59. Which of the following constituents of cast iron is mainly responsible for
imparting it an anti-corrosive property?
a. silicon
b. phosphorus
c. sulfur
d. none of these
60. Mild steel is
a. a low carbon steel (0.05 0.3% carbon)
b. highly resistance to corrosion (as much as stainless steel)
c. a high carbon steel (0.5 1.5% carbon)
d. very poor in strength and ductility
61. Presence of manganese in alloy steel improves its
a. corrosion resistance
b. cutting ability
c. abrasion resistance and toughness
d. elasticity and creep resistance
62. H2SO4 (<50% concentration) is corrosive to
a. aluminum, mild steel, stainless steel, concrete and tin
b. copper, cast iron and high silicon iron (14% Si)
c. rubber (butyl and hard) silicon rubber and teflon
d. glass, graphite, porcelain and stoneware
63. Aluminum storage vessel can be used to store
a. aqua regia
b. ferrous sulfate
c. hydrochloric acid (10%)
d. none of these
64. Brass container is suitable for storing
a. aqueous ammonia
b. beer
c. H2SO4 (95% concentration)
d. phosphoric acid (95%)
65. Cast iron vessels are not suitable for the storage of
a. Freon
b. H2SO4 (95%) at room temperature
c. H2SO4 (fuming)
d. Wet SO2
66. Out of the following, copper vessels are most suitable for the storage of
a. bromine
b. dry chlorine and dry fluorine
c. nitric acid (95% and fuming)
d. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95% and fuming)
67. Gun metal and bronze are not corroded by the action of
a. wet chlorine
b. synthetic detergent
solution
c. hydrochloric acid (10%)
d. nitric acid (<25%)
68. Containers made of high silicon cast iron (14% Si) are not suitable for the
storage of
a. acetic acid
b. benzoic and boric acids
c. phosphoric acid (95%) and sulfuric acid (95%)
d. hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
69. Lead lined equipments and vessels are suitable for handling
a. hydrochloric acid (10%)
b. nitric acid
c. sulfuric acid up to 60C
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
70. Mild steel storage vessels are suitable for the storage of
a. anhydrous ammonia
b. fatty acids
c. hydrochloric acid (95%)
d. sulfuric acid (25%)
71. Nickel made clad equipments are suitable for handling
a. ammonia (both aqueous and anhydrous)
b. fruit juices, milk and its products and caustic soda solution
c. nitric acid and hydrochloric acid (concentrated)
d. sulfuric acid (concentrated)
72. Platinum and silver are corroded by
a. caustic soda solution
b. phosphoric acid
c. sulfuric acid (10%)
d. none of these
73. 18-8 stainless steel means that it contains
a. 18% chromium and 8% nickel
b. 18% chromium and 8% molybdenum
c. 18% nickel and 8% chromium
d. 18% molybdenum and 8% chromium
74. Stainless steel is not corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%)
b. nitric acid (10%)
c. sulfuric acid (10%)
d. saturated brine
75. Tin vessels are corroded by
a. anhydrous ammonia
b. aromatic solvents
c. synthetic detergent solution
d. none of these
76. Rubber lined vessels are corroded by the action of
a. aqua regia
b. chloroform
c. sulfuric acid (95%)
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
77. Silicon rubber is not resistant to the corrosive action of
a. sulfuric acid (10%)
b. sulfuric acid (95%)
c. ether
d. both (b) and (c)
78. Perspex is nothing but
a. acrylic sheet
b. an elastomer
c. an alloy of lead and tin
d. aluminum foil clad with bakelite
79. Teflon is corroded by
a. hydrochloric acid (10%)
b. hydrochloric acid (95%)
c. sulfuric acid
d. none of these
93. Kel-F is
a. nothing but polycholorotrifluroethylene
b. having excellent chemical and high temperature resistance (up to
200C)
c. an elastomer
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
94. Zircaloy used as a fuel cladding material in a nuclear reactor (thermal) is an
alloy of zirconium
a. tin, nickel, iron and chromium
b. and graphite
c. and copper
d. none of these
95. Which of the following would not be a suitable material of construction for
handling aqueous
hydrofluoric acid (HF) at 100C?
a. none
b. stainless steel
c. graphite
d. Kel-F and Teflon
96. Specify the materials of construction suitable for handling concentrated
HNO3 at 100C.
a. high silicon iron, Kel-F and Teflon
b. silicon rubber
c. tin and wood
d. stainless steel
97. Concentrated HCl at 30C can be stored in a vessel made of
a. PTFE and porcelain
b. cast iron and aluminum
c. stainless steel and high silicon cast iron
d. copper, nickel and monel
98. Which of the following material of construction may be recommended by a
chemical engineer
for handling a gaseous chlorine (dry or wet) stream in a fluid flow system?
a. High silicon iron, silicone rubber, Kel-F and teflon
b. Mild steel and stainless steel
c. Cast iron, tin and aluminum
d. Copper, nickel and monel
99. Which of the following materials may prove unsuitable for handling acetic
(glacial and
anhydrous) at 40C?
a. silicone rubber, teflon, porcelain and wood
b. nickel, monel, stainless steel and graphite
c. aluminum, copper, high silicon iron
d. brass, cast iron, mild steel and tin
100. 100% H2SO4 at 30C can't be used and stored in a vessel made/ lined with
a. cast iron and high silicon iron
b. mild steel and stainless steel
c. aluminum, tin and rubber
d. teflon, glass and porcelain
ENGINEERING ECONOMY
1. The following cost item which in common both the fixed and operating cost of
an enterprise is:
a. interest
b. depreciation
c. taxes
d. supplies
2. The length of time, usually in years for the cumulative net annual profit to
equal the investment is called:
a. receivable turnover
b. return of investment
c. price earning ratio
d. payback period
3. The reduction in value and marketability due to competition from newest
products / model
a. depreciated cost
b. fixed cost
c. indirect cost
d. obsolescence
4. Form of summary of assets, liabilities and net worth
a. production
b. break even point
c. balance method
d. balance sheet
5. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less depreciation.
a. earning value
b. scrap value
c. book value
d. face value
6. The type of interest that is periodically added to the amount of loan so that
subsequent interest is based on the cumulative amount.
a. compound interest
b. simple interest
c. interest rate
d. sinking fund
7. Output or sales at which income is insufficient to equal operating cost
a. break even point
b. investment
c. depreciation
d. cash flow
8. The price at which a given product will be supplied and purchased is the price
that will result in the supply and the demand being equal.
a. law of demand and supply
b. law of diminishing returns
c. present worth method
d. obsolescence
9. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end of its estimated life.
a. break even point
b. cash flow
c. interest
d. book value
10. An estimate of an assets' net market value at the end if its estimated life.
a. book value
c. salvage value
c. depreciation
d. cash flow
11. A lessening of the value of an asset due to a decrease in the quantity
available as a coal, oil and timber in forests.
a. depletion
b. depreciation
c. amortization
d. investment
23. The difference between sales revenue and the cost of goods sold
a. net income
b. gross profit
c. rate of return
d. gross national product
24. A currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand is
consistently high in relation to its supply
a. money market
b. hard currency
c. treasury bill
d. certificate of deposit
25. Defined as the certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period
not less than 10 years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of a
corporation
a. bonds
b. T-bills
c. stock
d. all of these
26. It is a negotiable claim issued by a bank in lieu of a term deposit
a. time deposit
b. bond
c. capital gain
d. certificate of deposit
27. The amount of a company's profit that the board of directors of the
corporation decides to distribute to ordinary shareholders
a. dividend
b. return
c. share stock
d. par value
28. a document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security
a. bond
b. bank note
c. coupon
d. check
29. The process determining the value of certain properties for definite reasons
a. valuation
b. appraisal
c. estimate
d. both a and b
30. Represent ownership and enjoys certain preferences than ordinary stock
a. authorized capital stock
b. preferred stock
c. common stock
d. incorporators stock
31. It is the difference between present worth and the worth of the paper at
some time in the future
a. discount
b. amortization
c. depletion
d. investment
32. The value which is usually determined by the disinterested third party in
order to establish a price that is fair to both seller and buyer.
a. fair value
b. market value
c. salvage value
d. book value
33. The price that can be obtained from the sale of property or second hand
a. book value
b. salvage value
c. fair value
d. market value
34. The process of determining the value of certain property for specific reasons
a. amortization
b. appraisal
c. investment
d. depreciation
35. A bond whereby the security behind it are the equipments of the issuing
corporation
a. debenture bond
b. lien bond
c. collateral bond
d. mortgage bond
36. An annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the
periodic payment continue indefinitely.
a. ordinary annuity
b. deferred annuity
c. annuity due
d. perpetuity
37. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it
is designed to produce at a profit
a. write off period
b. physical life
c. economic life
d. perpetual life
38. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is
constant each year
a. Matheson formula
b. Straight line method
c. SYD method
d. Sinking fund method
39. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it and which
can engage in practically any business transaction which a real person can
do.
a. sole proprietorship
b. partnership
c. corporation
d. all of the above
40. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any change in
operation or policy which is made.
a. fixed cost
b. increment cost
c. variable cost
d. differential cost
41. The length of time at which the original cost of capital used to purchase a
unit have already been recovered.
a. economic life
b. write off period
c. physical life
d. salvage life
42. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as:
a. compound interest
b. nominal interest
c. simple interest
d. effective interest
43. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product / services in a
given region of the country.
a. franchise
b. branch
c. extension
d. outlet
44. It occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors
and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market
a. free market
b. perfect competition
c. open market
d. law of supply and demand
45. In making economy studies, a minimum required profit on the invested
capital is included as a cost.
a. rate of return
b. annual cost pattern
c. present worth pattern
d. capital cost
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The hydrogen or deuterium discharge tube can be used as a source of continuous ultraviolet
radiation for spectrophotometers because of
a. the characteristics of chopper-modulated radiation
b. pressure broadening of hydrogen or deuterium emission lines
c. the great sensitivity of photomultiplier tube
d. the narrow band pass of modern grating of monochromators
2. Chopping the source beam in conjunction with the use of a tuned ac amplifier in an atomic
absorption spectrophotometer accomplishes the following
a. a recording potentiometer can be used instead of a voltmeter for the readout
b. a less sensitive detector can be used instead of the usual photomultiplier tube
c. a cooler can be used without decreasing the population of ground-state atoms
d. radiation emitted by excited atoms in the flame will not interfere with the absorbance
measurement
3. Line spectra are emitted by
a. hot solids
b. excited polyatomic molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
4. Recording spectrophotometers sometimes operate with feedback loops that vary the power of
the reference beam until it matches the power of the beam through the sample. This mode of
operation
a. eliminates the need for a continuous source
b. requires two monochromators
c. eliminates the need for nonabsorbing solvents
d. makes the detector a null device, with the result that nonlinear response to radiant
power would not be deleterious
5. Which of the following best explains why atomic absorption is sometimes more sensitive than
flame emission spectroscopy?
a. At the temperature of a typical flame, the population of ground-state atoms is much
greater than the population of excited atoms.
b. Detectors employed in absorption work are inherently more sensitive than those used to
measure emission.
c. Hollow cathode discharge tubes have a much greater radiant power output than do
ordinary flames .
d. An absorption line in a flame is always much sharper than an emission line because of the
Doppler effect.
6. The method of standard addition compensates for matrix effects provided
a. the addition does not dilute the sample appreciably and does not itself introduce
appreciable quantities or interfering substances
b. the addition dilutes the sample enough that the concentrations of interfering substances
are lowered to negligible values
c. the addition contains none of the substance being determined
d. the addition contains a large enough quantity of some substance to swamp out sample
variations
3+
7. Fe and Cu2+ form complexes with EDTA. The ferric complex is colorless , as is Fe 3+ itself, at
the concentration involved here: the copper complex is a deep blue color (deeper than the
color of Cu2+ itself), while EDTA is colorless. The photometric titration curve below was
obtained when a solution containing both Fe3+ and Cu2+ was titrated with EDTA using a
spectrophotometer set at a wavelength of 745 nm in the visible region of the spectrum.
B
A
ml of EDTA solution
a.
b.
c.
d.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15. In GLC, interaction of solutes with the solid support will often cause
a. unusually narrow elution bands
b. asymmetric elution band
c. excessive eddy diffusion
d. decreased detector sensitivity
16. Increasing the quantity of stationary liquid phase applied to the column packing will, with
everything else the same,
a. increase tR for a solute
b. decrease tR for a solute
c. not influence tR for a solute
d. decrease the nonequilibrium term in the van Deemer equation
17. A neutral molecule such as ethanol or sugar which has found its way into the pores of a typical
anion-exchange resin can be eliminated
a. only by replacement with a cation
b. only by replacement with an anion
c. only if replaced by another organic molecule on a one-for-one exchange basis
d. by flushing out the water
18. In chromatography, a substance for which the distribution coefficient, K, is zero may be used to
estimate
a. the volume within the column available to the moving phase
b. the volume within the column occupied by the packing
c. the volume within the pores of the packing material
d. the total volume of the column
19. Which of the following statements is false in normal phase absorption?
a. The more polar a compound, the more strongly it will be adsorbed from a solution
b. A high molecular weight favors adsorption, other factors being equal
c. The more polar the solvent, the stronger the adsorption of the solute
d. The adsorption isotherm is usually nonlinear
20. The best measure of the quantity of a solute in LC is
a. the height of the elution band
b. the area of the elution band
c. the baseline width of the elution band
d. the retention volume
21. Which of the following would be the fastest way to decide which adsorbent and what solvent
system to use for a larger-scale chromatographic separation of an organic reaction product
from materials formed in side reactions?
a. Paper chromatography
b. Affinity chromatography
c. TLC
d. Adsorption chromatography with gradient elution
22. To deionize tap water by ion exchange for laboratory use, the best approach employs
a. a column containing a strong-acid cation exchange in the hydrogen form
b. a column containing a strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form
c. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in the sodium form and a
strong-base anion exchanger in the chloride form
d. a mixed-bed column containing a strong-acid cation exchanger in the hydrogen
form and a strong-base anion exchanger in the hydroxyl form
23. Line spectra are emitted by
a. incandescent solids
b. excited molecules
c. molecules in the ground electronic state
d. excited atoms and monatomic ions
24. Band spectra are emitted by
a. tungsten lamps and Nernst glowers
b. excited molecules in the vapor phase
c. excited atoms and monatomic ions
d. incandescent solids
25. A chemical engineer is conducting research on the development of analytical methods based
upon chemiluminescence. If a conventional spectrofluorometer is used for the measurements,
an the instrument has separate switches for its various circuits, which switch will be left in the
"off" position?
a. detector power supply
b. amplifier
c. source power supply
d. power to the motor drive of the scanning monochromator on the emission side of the
instrument
26. In flame spectroscopy, the highest temperature fuel oxidant combination available as yet is
a. hydrogen-oxygen
b. hydrogen-nitrous oxide
c. acetylene-oxygen
d. acetylene-nitrous oxide
27. If the change in a molecule caused by absorption of light energy involves change in the
average separation of the nuclei of two or more atoms, then the change is
a. electronic
b. vibrational
c. translational
d. rotational
28. The nephelometric method of analysis is based upon
a. Beer's law
b. Fajar's law
c. Bouger law's
d. Beer Lambert's Law
29. IR spectro-photometers have practically the same basic components as visible and UV
spectro-photometers. In which of the following basic components could the devices be used
interchangeable in both:
a. sources of radiant energy
b. optical system
c. sample holders
d. detectors
30. Which of the following may not be used in the determination of sugars?
a. TLC chromatography
b. Polarimetry
c. Copper reduction methods
d. Lane and Eynon methods
31. Which is not the recommended device for a filter photometry?
a. hydrogen arc lamp
b. glass filter
c. barrier layer photocell
d. none of these
32. This law states that the amount of light absorbed or transmitted by a solution is an
experimental function of the concentration of absorbing substance present and the sample
path length
a. Bouger's Law
b. Beer's Law
c. Lambert's Law
d. Bouger-Beer Law
33. Deviation's from Beer's Law may be due to
a. instrumental
b. intermolecular reactions
c. formation of complexions with varying number of ligonds
d. all of these
34. IR spectrophotometers have the same basic components as UV spectrophotometers, except:
a. source of radiant energy and the kind of detectors
b. materials used in the optical system
c. materials used in the sample cells
d. all of these
35. Which of the following involves emission of radiation by excited atoms:
a. Ultra-violet spectrophotometry
b. Infra-red spectrophotometry
c. Atomic absorption spectrometry
d. Nephelopmetry
36. The absorption of a solution of a particular substance does not depend on the :
a. wavelength of the incident light
b. intensity of the incident light
c. concentration of the substance
d. thickness of the sample cell
37. If we compare flame spectrophotometry and emission spectroscopy, which of the following
statements will be true?
a. Flame photometry is more senstive than emission spectroscopy
b. Flame photometry can analyze more metals than emission spectroscopy
c. Flame photometry is less sensitive to the matrix than emission spectroscopy
d. Flame photometry is simpler to use than emission spectroscopy
38. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS) differs from visible absorption spectrophotometry
because AAS
a. has no light source
b. does not need a monochromator
c. does not follow Beer's Law
d. destroys the sample when a reading is made
39. Gas chromatography does not use this detector
a. thermal conductivity detector
b. refractive index detector
c. flame ionization detector
d. electron capture detector
40. In gas chromatography, the retention time is not dependent on
a. carrier gas velocity
b. column temperature
c. volume of compound analyzed
d. volatility of compound analyzed
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
1. The main component of air is ____________.
a. oxygen
b. argon
c. carbon dioxide
d.
nitrogen
e. methane
2. Of the following, ____________ is characteristic of gases.
a. Gases are highly compressible
b. These are relatively large distances between molecules
c. Gases form homogenous mixtures regardless of the non-reacting gas components
d. All of these
e. A gas expands spontaneously to fill its container
3. One significant difference between gases and liquids is that ______________________.
a. a gas is made up of molecules
b. a gas assumes the volume of its container
c. a gas may consist of both elements and compounds
d. gases are always mixtures
e. all of these answers are correct
4. Molecular compounds of low molecular weights tend to be gases at room temperature. Which
of the following is most likely not a gas at room temperature?
a. Cl2
b. HCl
c. LiCl
d. H2
e. CH4
d. -363K
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
e. M = RT
Gv
Of the following, _____________ correctly relates pressure, volume, temperature, amount
(mol), molecular mass (M), density (d) and mass (g).
a. d = PM
RT
b. d = gRT
PM
c. d = PTM
gRV
d. d = gV
RT
e. d = RT
PM
Of the following gases, ____________ will have the greatest rate of effusion at a given
temperature.
a. NH3
b. CH4
c. Ar
d. HBr
e. HCl
An ideal gas differs from a real gas in that the molecules of an ideal gas _________________.
a. have no attraction for one another
b. have appreciable molecular volume
c. have a molecular weight of zero
d. have no kinetic energy
e. has an average molecular mass
The statement, For a fixed mass of gas at constant temperature, gas volume is inversely
proportional to gas pressure. Is known as:
a. Avogadros law b. Boyles law c. Charles law d. Grahams law e. Kelvins law
If gas volume is doubled but the temperature remains constant:
a. the pressure stays the same
b. the molecules move faster
c. the kinetic energy increases
d. the molecules move slower
e. none of these answers
Subtracting the vapor pressure of water from the total pressure of a gas collected over water is
an example:
a. Avogadros Hypothesis
b. Daltons law
c. Grahams law
d. van der Waals Theory
e. ideal gas law
25. Which of the following assumptions is not used to explain the ideal gas law?
a. gas particles themselves occupy a negligible percent of total gas volume
b. inter-particle forces are negligible in gases
c. collisions between gas particles are perfectly elastic
d. collisions between gas particles and container walls are perfectly elastic
e. individual gas particles are perfectly compressible to nuclear size
26. If someone were to light a cigar at one end of a closed room, persons at the other end of the
room might soon perceive an odor due to gaseous emissions from the cigar. Such a
phenomenon is an example of:
a. monometry
b. ideality
c. effusion
d. diffusion
e. barometry
27. The fact that a balloon filled with helium will leak more slowly than one filled with hydrogen is
explained by citing:
a. Avogadros hypothesis b. Daltons law c. Grahams law
d. van der Waals Theory
e. ideal gas law
28. Gases tend to behave ideally at
a. low temperature and low pressure
b. low temperature and high pressure
c. high temperature and low pressure
d. high temperature and high pressure
e. gases always behave ideally
29. Assuming ideal gas behavior, which of the following gases would have the lowest density at
standard temperature and pressure?
a. SF6
b. CF2Cl2
c. CO2
d. N2
e. Kr
30. Of the following gases, the one with the greatest density at STP is:
a. CH4
b. NH3
c. Ne
d. H2
e. He
31. The phenomenon in which a steel needle can, with proper care, be made to
float on the surface of some water illustrates a property of liquid known as:
a. compressibility
b. polarizability
c. surface tension
d. triple point
e. viscosity
32. The property of liquid that measures its resistance to flow is called:
a. capillarity
b. polarizability
c. resistivity
d. viscosity
e. wetability
33. A liquid will wet a surface if:
a. the liquid has a lesser density than the surface
b. the forces between the liquid molecules are weak
c. the liquid has a low vapor pressure
d. the forces between the molecules and the surface are greater
than the forces between the molecules of the liquid
e. none of these answers
34. Which of the following statements concerning molecules in the liquid state is
true?
a. Cohesive forces are not important
b. The molecules contract to fit the size of the container
c. The molecules have no motion
d. The molecules in a patterned (oriented) arrangement
e. The molecules are mobile and relatively close together
35. The temperature ate which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the external
pressure is called the :
a. boiling point
b. critical point
c. melting point
d. sublimation point
e. thermal point
36. Liquid and vapor phases of a substance become indistinguishable at the:
a. triple point
b. normal point
c. permanent point
d. critical point
e. absolute point
37. When a liquid is in dynamic equilibrium with its vapor at a given temperature,
the following conditions could exist:
(I)
There is no transfer of molecules between liquid and vapor
(II) The vapor pressure has a unique value
(III) The opposing processes, (liquid to vapor) and (vapor to liquid),
proceed at equal rates
(IV) The concentration of vapor is dependent on time
Which of the above choices are applicable?
a. I
b. II and III
c. I, II, and III
d. II and IV
e. none of these combination
38. Which of the following does NOT describe the critical point of a liquid?
a. The temperature and pressure at which a liquids meniscus disappears
b. The point where the vapor pressure curve intersects the fusion
temperature
c. The highest temperature at which a liquid can exist
d. The temperature and pressure at which a liquid and its vapor are identical
e. The highest temperature at which it is possible to obtain a liquid form its
vapor by increasing pressure
39. A container holds a small amount of liquid and its vapor in equilibrium If the
volume of the container is decreased, which of the following has occurred
once equilibrium is reestablished?
a. the temperature is lower
b. the temperature is higher
c. the pressure is higher
d. the pressure is lower
e. none of these
40. When the vapor pressure of a liquid equals atmospheric pressure, the
temperature of the liquid equals:
a. 100C
b. boiling point c. the normal boiling point
d. the vaporization point e. none of these
48. All of the following are logical consequences of the observed macroscopic
properties of crystals EXCEPT
a. The atoms or molecules of a crystal are arranged in a regularly repeating
pattern
b. The forces holding the atoms in a metal crystal are the same for
essentially every atom except at the surface
c. The distances between adjacent atoms or molecules vary greatly
d. Some defects are present in the crystals
49. Which of the following has the largest number of lattice points per unit cell?
a. The primitive (simple) cubic lattice
b. The face centered cubic lattice
c. The body centered cubic lattice
d. All these lattices have the same number of lattice points per unit cell
50. All of the following are true about lattice points in a crystal structure EXCEPT
a. The first lattice point can be placed at any location
b. All lattice points have identical environments
c. The corners of unit cells are located at lattice points
d. Atoms are always located on lattice points
51. All of the following statements are true EXCEPT
a. The face-centered cubic lattice is identical to the cubic closest packed
lattice
b. The body-centered cubic lattice is identical to the hexagonal
closest packed lattice
c. The cubic closest packed and hexagonal closest packed structures have
identical fractions of space which are occupied by atoms
d. The density of a metal sample is independent of the size of the sample
considered
52. Which of the following represents the minimal amount of date necessary to
determine the atomic mass of a metal?
a. Avogadros number and the density of the metal
b. Avogadros number, the density of the metal and the length of the unit
cell edge
c. Avogadros number, the density of the metal, the length of the
unit cell edge and the type of lattice
d. Avogadros number, the density of the metal, the length of the unit cell
edge, the type of lattice and the atomic radius of the metal
53. Which of the following is assumed when calculating atomic radii of metals
form crystallographic data?
a. The atoms are soft spheres that are deformed in the structure
b. The atoms are almost perfect cubes
c. The atoms are of different sizes and the value calculated for the radius is
an average
d. The atoms in the structure are touching
54. What is the usual relationship between the number of valence electrons and
the number of nearest neighbors of a metal atom in a solid metal?
a. The number of valence electrons is less than the number nearest
neighbors
b. The number of valence electrons is greater than the number of nearest
neighbors
c. The number of valence electrons is equal to the number of nearest
neighbors
d. The number of valence electrons can be less than, greater than, or equal
to the number of nearest neighbors
55. All of the following are consequences of the theory of the structure of metals
EXCEPT
a. Metals conduct electricity b. Metals are malleable
c. Metals are ductile
d. Metals break easily when they are bent
56. Which of the following is the reason that metals conduct electricity?
a. The metal atoms are close together
b. There are no empty spaces in metal structures
c. Electrons in the structure can move freely
d. Electrons and protons in the structure can move freely
57. Which of the following is the reason why salt stay bonded in the solid state?
a. There are strong covalent bonds between the ions
b. The structure consists of salt molecules tat bind tightly to other salt
molecules
c. They are held together by electrostatic attractions and the structure
includes no electrostatic repulsions
d. There are both electrostatic attractions and repulsions within the
structure but the total of the attractions is greater
58. All of the following are possible crystal defects EXCEPT
a. An atom or ion out of its regular position and occupying a normally empty
hole
b. A crystal in which he only defect is one pair of ions of the same
charge which are missing
c. An electron occupying a site that is normally occupied by a 1 anion
d. A crystal containing some ion sites empty and some ions not bearing the
expected charge
59. Which of the following is the most important explanation for the conductivity
of metals?
a. they are almost all solids b. their coordination numbers are high
c. Their numbers of valence electrons are high
d. Their densities are high
60. Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic?
a. AIS and P
b. GeAs and Se
c. GeAs and GaSe
d. Al and SiP
61. Which of the following is always the same for allotropes of the same
element?
a. The atomic mass b. the molar mass
c. the structure
d. the
chemical and physical properties
62. The semiconductor crystalline Si has a low electrical conductivity in the dark
because
a. crystalline Si is a molecular solid
b. the band gap energy is much greater than 3RT at 23C
c. the chemical bonding in the crystal is strong in all three dimensions
d. Si has fewer valence electrons that elements that form metallic solids
63. A laser pointer of a doped semiconductor junction (i.e., a region of A1 doped
semiconductor bonded to a region of P doped semiconductor) with a flowing
current due to an applied voltage from a battery. Which of the following
statements is TRUE?
a. The color of the light is determined by the semiconductor band gap
b. The device works better warm rather than cold because the number of
thermally generated electrons is higher
c. Light is emitted at the interface when a hole from the A1 region combines
with an electron from the P region
d. Both (a) and (c)
64. In order to dope crystalline Si with extra electrons, which element should be
incorporated into the lattice?
a. P
b. A1
c. C
d. O
65. All of the following statements about NaCl crystalline lattice are true, EXCEPT
a. Every Cl is surrounded by 4 Na at equal bond lengths, and vice
versa
b. The structure along the x,y and z axes of the unit cell is all the same
c. If the length of one side of the unit cell and the atomic weights of Na and
Cl are known, then the density can be calculated
d. The unit cell is cubic even though the Na and Cl ions have different ionin
radii
66. All of the following statements about the different forms of solid C are true,
EXCEPT
a. Diamond is transparent and shows no color because its band gap
is quite large
b. Graphite slides easily because the C atoms are strongly bonded in only
two dimensions
c. In diamond the structure around each C atom is due to C sp3 hybridization
d. Diamond is hard yet brittle because the band gap is large
67. Solids with long-range microscopic order in their structures are called
a. amorphous b. crystalline
c. glasses
d. metals
e. none of these
78. The conditions --- a b c, alpha= beta =gamma = 90 --- describe the
_________ unit cell.
a. tetragonal
b. orthorhombic c. monoclinic
d. hexagonal
e. trigonal
79. The conditions --- a b c, alpha = gamma = 90, 90--- describe the
_______ unit cell
a. tetragonal
b. orthorhombic
c. monoclinic
d. hexagonal
e. trigonal
80. The number of lattice points in the unit cell for the body-centered cubic
lattice is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 8
81. For a face-centered cubic unit cell, each corner contributes _____ lattice
points to the unit cell
a. 1/8
b.
c.
d. 1
e. none of these
82. In a face-centered cubic lattice, each lattice, each lattice point located in a
face of the unit cell is shared equally with ___ other unit cell
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
e. none of
these
83. A metal crystallizes in a body-centered cubic lattice. Which of the following
correctly relates the atomic radius r of the metal to the length of an edge a of
the unit cell?
a. r = a
b. r = a2
c. r = a3
2
4
4
d. This cannot be determined without additional information
e. none of these
84. The forces holding the molecules together in the lattice of a molecular solid
are
a. van der Waals forces
b. ionic bonds
c. covalent bonds
d. all of these
e. none of these
85. Molecular crystals typically
a. are soft
b. have low melting points
c. are insulators
d. all of these
e. none of these
86. Most ionic solids crystallize in the ______ system
a. hexagonal
b. orthorhombic
c. cubic
d. tetragonal
e. monoclinic
87. The rock salt structure can be viewed as a _______ lattice of anions, with
cations occupying positions exactly between pairs of anions
a. face-centered cubic
b. monoclinic c. trigonal
d. body-centered cubic
e. primitive cubic
88. In the rock salt structure, each ion is surrounded by ________ equidistant
ions of opposite charge
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
e. none of these
89. Which of the following cannot possibly crystallize in the rock salt structure?
a. VN
b. Na2S
c. ZrSe
d. NH4I
e. MgO
90. How many chloride ions are contained in a unit cell of CsCl?
a. 1/8
b.
c.
d. 1
e. 2
91. The coordination number of each cesium atom in CsCl is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 8
e. 12
92. A certain solid is a good insulator, is brittle, and has a high melting point. The
substance readily conducts electricity when molten. This substance is most
likely _____ in nature.
a. molecular
b. covalent c. ionic
d. metallic
e. it could be more than one of these
93. In a metallic solid, _______ are located at the lattice points.
a. neutral metal atoms b. molecules c. positively charged core ions
d. electrons e. atomic clusters
94. The metal with the highest melting point is
a. Pt
b. Rh
c. Nb
d. Ga
e. W
95. A structure that forms naturally when identical rigid spheres are placed as
close together as possible is called a ____ arrangement.
a. primitive
b. close-packed c. face-centered
d. dense
e. nematic
96. A crystal structure which yields close packing for uniform rigid spheres is
a. primitive cubic
b. tetragonal c. body-centered cubic
d. all of
these
e. none of these
97. In the hexagonal close-packed structure, each atom has a coordination
number of
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
e. 12
98. In diamond, each carbon is covalently bonded to ________ other carbon
atoms
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
e. 8
99. The most stable form of sulfur at room temperature is
a. gaseous atoms
b. long chains of sulfur atoms
c. S4 tetrahedral
d. S2 molecules with double bonds e. S8 rings
100. Which element in group V does not form a solid with each atom bonded to
three others?
a. As
b. Bi
c. N
d. P
e. Sb
101. Which of the following forms a layered structure?
a. graphite
b. white tin
c. sulfur
d. red phosphorous
e. all of these
102. Which of the following forms a solid with the diamond structure?
a. sulfur
b. white tin
c. red phosphorous
d. sodium
e. gray tin
103. The crystal defect in which an atom or ion is displaced from its regular
position in the lattice to an interstitial site is called a(n)
a. Schottky defect
b. Frenkel defect
c. F-center
d. site defect
e. berthollide
104. Irradiation of NaCl with ultraviolet light can cause
a. chloride ions to lose electrons to the crystalline lattice
b. formation of an F-center
c. formation of a nonstoichiometric crystal
d. all of these
e. none of these
105. In a plastic crystal,
a. the molecules tumble before the lattice s disrupted
b. the lattice is disrupted before the molecules begin to tumble
c. the molecules are rod-like
d. all of these
e. none of these
106. The rate constant of a reaction depends upon
a. initial concentration of reactants
b. extent of reaction
c. temperature
d. time of reaction
107. Which of the following factors does not influence the rate of a reaction?
a. Concentration of reactants
b. Nature of reactants
c. Molecularity of the reaction
d. Temperature
108. The mechanism of a reaction can sometimes be reduced from
a. the temperature dependence of the rate
b. the rate law
c. the net equation
d. the activation energy
109. The activation energy of a reaction may be lowered by
a. raising the temperature
b. lowering the temperature
c. removing the products of the reaction
d. adding a catalyst
110. The equilibrium constant in a reversible chemical reaction at given
temperature
a. depends on the initial concentrations of the reactants
b. depends on the concentration of one of the products at equilibrium
c. does not depend on the initial concentrations
d. is not characteristic of the reaction
Answer the following questions 111-113 with the help of the hypothetical
reaction and its rate law
3A(g) + B(g) +2C(g) D(g) + 2E(g)
Rate of formation of D = k[A] [B]2
111. Doubling of the concentration of A increases the rate of reaction by a
factor of
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 9
112. Doubling of the concentration of B increases the rate of the reaction by a
factor of
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 9
113. If the volume of the container is suddenly reduced to one-half its original
volume the rate will increase by a factor of
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
114. The value of k, the specific rate constant, may be increased by
a. decreasing the concentration of D
b. increasing the concentration of A
c. increasing the concentration of C
d. increasing the temperature
115. What effect does an increase in temperature of 10C have on the rate of
the reaction?
a. Halved
b. Multiplied by 1.5
c. Doubled
d. Tripled
116. Which of the following is the best explanation for the effect of increase in
temperature on the rate of the reaction?
a. It increases the number of particles with the necessary activation
of energy
b. It enables the reacting particles with the necessary activation energy
c. It lowers the activation energy for the reaction
d. It enables the activated complex to be more easily converted to the
products
117. The reactions of high molecularity are rare because
a. activation energy of many body collisions is very high
b. many body collisions have low probability
c. many body collisions are not favoured energetically
d. none of the above statement is true
118. At 25C , the half life for the decomposition of N2O5 is 5.7 hours, and is
dependent of the initial pressure of N2O5 the specific rate constant is
a. ln 2
b. (1/5.7)hr-1
c. (ln2/5.7)-1hr-1
d. (ln2/5.7)hr
119. If the rate of reaction is independent of the concentration of the reactant,
the reaction is of
a. zero order
b. first order
c. second order
d. third order
120. Who among the following gave the law of photochemical equivalence?
a. Drapper
b. Einstein
c. Grotthus
d. Lambert
121. The energy of electromagnetic radiation depends on
a. its amplitude
b. its frequency
c. its wave length
d. none of the above
122. What term is used to define the phenomenon of emission of light in a
chemical reaction?
a. Chemical luminescence
b. Photosensitization
c. Both chemical luminescence and photosensitization
d. None of the above
123. Raman spectra may be obtained in
a. IR and Visible region
b. Visible region only
c. IR and micro wave region
d. UV and visible region
124. ESR spectra mainly helps in study of
a. compounds having hydrogen
b. compounds having carbons
c. free radicals
d. ionic compounds
125. Which one of the following rate laws has an overall order of 0.5 for the
reactions involving substances X, Y, Z.?
a. Rate = k(Cx) (Cy) (Cz)
b. Rate = k (Cx)0.5 (Cy) 0.5 (Cz)0.5
c. Rate = k (Cx)1.5 (Cy) 1 (Cz)0
d. Rate = k (Cx) (Cz)0/(Cy)2
126. Chemical reaction rates in solution do not depend to any great extent
upon
a. pressure
b. temperature
c. concentration
d. catalyst
127. Which of the following might be used as an electrode?
a. A stick
b. A nail
c. A glass rod
d. A soda straw
128. The e.m.f. value for oxidation from H2 at 1.0 atm to H+ at 1.0 x 10-1 M is
a. 0.00V
b. 0.059V
c. 0.059V
d. 0.030V
129. A good reducing agent
a. will always react rapidly
b. has a negative oxidation potential
c. is readily oxidized
d. shows a negative oxidation number
d. 1.16 ml
147. Which of the following instruments makes use of the standard electrode potentials
and the variation of electrode potential with concentration?
a. Polarimeter
b. pH meter
c. Electrophorous
d. Electrophotometer
148. The series in which the electrode potentials of metals are arranged in an order is
known as:
a. electrical conductivity series
b. electrode potential series
c. electrochemical series
d. chemical affinity series
d. Cd (NO3)2
108g
29.5g
17.5g
b.
108g
59g
52.0g
c.
108g
108g
108g
d.
108g
117.5g
166g
154.
Fe++ + 2e Fe
-0.440V
Fe+++ + 3e Fe
-0.036V
0.78V
when both the half cells (a) and (b) are connected with SHE, the metallic
electrode Co is found to be ve and Hg electrode is found to be +ve. The correct sign
for the electrode potentials will be:
a. +ve for half cell (I)
b. +ve for half cell (ii)
c. ve for half cell (ii)
156. When an iron wire is immersed in an acidic solution of CuSo4, the blue color of
the solution is lost after some time. This is due to
a. reduction of Cu++
b. oxidation of CuSO4
c. formation of double complex between iron and copper sulfate
d. formation of a colorless salt of Cu++
157. Magnesium cannot displace from solution the ions of
a. sodium
b. lead
c. copper
d. gold
b. C = F-P+2
c. C = F-P+1
d. P = C+F+2
159. The homogenous physically distinct and mechanically separable parts of the
heterogeneous system in equilibrium are called
a. phases
b. components
c. degrees of freedom
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
162. How many phases will be there in the system made of water and methyl alcohol?
a. 3
b. 1
c. 1
d. 0
163. How many components are necessary to define the following equilibrium?
CaCO3
Solid
CaO + CO2
solid
gas
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
peritectic temperature
meritectic temperature
transition temperature
all of the above