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29. A type of play in team sports wherein the team plays in possession of the ball aiming at earning points
through shooting
a. defensive play
b. offensive play
c. goal tending
d. offensive play
30. A spectacular scoring maneuver when a player jumps high, reaches above a ring and stuffs the ball
down through the hoop
a. dunk shot
b. rebound
c. lay up
d. assist
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
_____27. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_____28. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_____29. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_____30. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____31. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____32. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____33. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____34. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
_____35. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
_____36. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
_____37. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
_____38. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
_____39. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
_____40. It means you can carry out everyday tasks without becoming too tired.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
_____41. What term defines a man or a woman based on biological characteristics?
a. sex
b. gender
c. sexuality
d. androgyny
_____42. Which of the following illustrates gender?
a. Miguel loves to cook
c. Hazal has a positive body image
b. Marco does not cry in public
d. Alex is attracted to Fely
_____43. What do you call the sets of activities that society considers as appropriate for men and women?
a. gender role
b. gender identity
c. gender equality
d. gender sensitivity
_____44. Why is it important to understand human sexuality?
a. We will all be mature adults.
c. There is a specific age for developing ones
b. We have similar sexuality issues d. It will help us build a better relationship with
ourselves and others
_____45. Which characterizes a good decision?
a. Easy to make
c. One that your teacher told you to make
b. Makes your friends happy
d. Arrived at after a thoughtful
consideration of consequences
_____46. This means evaluating your well-being periodically which includes you sexuality
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____47. It helps you avoid misunderstanding by expressing your feelings in a healthy way.
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____48. Means making choices that are healthy and responsible.
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____49. It can be accomplished through information about good sexuality.
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____50. It is a choice you make or act upon.
a. decision
b. objectives
c. purpose
d. aim
Good luck
Mam NYMS
______10. Traditional Chinese dance usually seen during the Chinese New Year Celebration. This dance
is based on a mythical creature believed by Chinese people.
a. dragon dance
b. lion dance
c. snake dance
d. bali dance
______11. The Chinese people believe that performing the lion and dragon dances ____________.
a. makes the country more wealthy
c. tells the people to reconcile
b. drives bad luck and evil spirits away
d. makes the people more healthy
______12. Which of the following props cannot be seen in the Chinese Spring Festival?
a. Chinese fans
b. Chinese lanterns
c. dragon puppets
d. Wayang Kulit
puppets
______13. What particular term is used for sky lantern?
a. Chiang Mai
b. Khom Fai
c. Loy Krathong
d. Yi Peng
______14. It is a festival in Thailand to honor the goddess of water.
a. Chiang Mai
b. Khom Fai
c. Loy Krathong
d. Yi Peng
______15. It literally means to float.
a. loy
b. chiang
c. krathong
d. fai
C. P.E.
_______1. All are basic skills in football EXCEPT______.
a. defense
b. running and kicking
c. speed
d. sliding
_______2. The only one who can use his hands on the ball is the _________.
a. center halfback
b. goalkeeper
c. left fullback
d. right fullback
_______3. When the ball touched by the defending team crosses the goal line, a _____ kick is awarded.
a. corner
b. free
c. goal
d. side
_______4. Kicks that require second touch by another player before the goal is counted are called ______
kicks.
a. corner
b. free
c. indirect free
d. direct free
_______5. All the offenses bring about free kicks EXCEPT _________.
a. displaying ungentlemanly conduct
b. holding an opponent
c. showing dissent toward the referee
d. none of these
_______6. The game of football starts with a
a. dribbling relay
b. kick-off
c. throw-in
d. jump ball
_______7. When the ball goes out of the line, a _________ is awarded to the opponent.
a. drop ball
b. free kick
c. throw-in
d. point
_______8. One of the rules on free kicks is that the ball must be ______ when the kick is taken.
a. bouncing
b. rolling
c. stationary
d. off the
ground
_______9. Pushing an opponent is an offense that brings about a/an _________.
a. direct free kick
b. indirect free kick
c. corner kick
d. side kick
______10. A batter is out after _______ strikes.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
______11. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______14. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______15. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
D. HEALTH
a. Indicate if the factor that influence people to abuse drugs or alcohol is ------physical, psychological,
social, mental, or economic.
1. malnutrition
2. loss of interest to study
3. deterioration of the mind
4. accidents in industry
5. skin infection and skin rashes
6. dependence on family resources
7. loss of drive and ambitionb. The following are known dangers of cigarette smoking and tobacco use. Arrange the letters for each
item to decipher the word(s).
8. H H I G B O O L D E R U S E S R P
Hint: Too much exertion of blood against the arteries causing damage
9. E T A R H I D A S S E E S
Hint: Involves the cardiovascular system
10. O Y B D O O R D
Hint: Effect of cigarette smoke to your body scent
11. S I T R I C H B O N
Hint: Inflammation of the airways from the trachea into the lungs
12. D A B A T E B R H
Hint: Foul smell exhaled from the mouth
13. S E A Y H E M P M
Hint: Damaged airsacs in the lungs
14. N E A O N I P M U
Hint: Infection of the lungs
15. T A S H A M
Hint: A chronic disease which affects the airways
______11. An organized creative arrangement of the elements of art such as line, color, shape, and form
or texture
a. design
b. pattern
c. balance
d. unity
______12. It is the repetition of a particular element of art in a single composition.
a. composition
b. design
c.pattern
d.balance
______13. The principle of art concerned with making an element or object in a work stand out.
a. harmony
b. emphasis
c. rhythm
d. unity
______14. It is concerned with combining related art elements to create a pleasing appearance.
a. harmony
b. emphasis
c. rhythm
d. unity
______15. To create a feeling of oneness, an art should have ______
a. harmony
b. emphasis
c. rhythm
d. unity
C. P.E.
______1. Exercises for cardio-respiratory endurance
a. basketball pass
b. jogging
c. shuttle run
d. zipper test
______2. The Body Mass Index or (BMI) is a component of physical fitness which is used to determine
your normal:
a. vital statistics
b. weight and height ratio
c. height
d. waist measurement
______3. A normal body mass index helps prevent metabolic diseases such as
a. malaria and high fever
c. HIV or AIDS
b. cancer, diabetes and hypertension
d. leprosy and small pox
______4. It is the capacity of each individual to accomplish daily task with alertness and vigor.
a. good life
b. physical education c. physical fitness
d. strength
______5. Walking to school and climbing up stairs are examples of activities which illustrate a
component of physical fitness known as:
a. physiological or aerobic fitness b. flexibility
c. strength
d. Body Mass Index
______6. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
______7. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
______8. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______9. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______10. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______11. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______14. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______15. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
D. HEALTH
______1. Substances intended for use in cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of diseases in man or
animals.
a. drugs
b. natural drugs
c. synthetic drugs
d. stimulants
______2. A kind of drugs that includes natural plant leaves, flowering tops, resin, hashish, opium and
marijuana.
a. drugs
b. natural drugs
c. synthetic drugs
d. stimulants
______3. Which of these drugs are controlled by law because they are used in medical practice?
a. natural drugs
b. synthetic drugs
c. antibiotics
d. anesthetics
______4. Drugs that directly activate vital body functions such as those of the central nervous sytem.
a. drugs
b. natural drugs
c. synthetic drugs
d. stimulants
______5. Group of divisive volatile substances normally not considered as drugs.
a. stimulant
b. inhalant
c. antihistamine
d. antibiotic
______6. Drugs which numb the senses, induce lethargy and stupor and relieve pain.
a. inhalants
b. stimulants
c. narcotics
d. antiseptics
______7. Drugs used to inhibit the growth and multiplication of microorganisms.
a. inhalants
b. stimulants
c. narcotics
d. antiseptics
______8. Drugs used to counteract the action of certain substances which cause allergy.
a. stimulant
b. inhalant
c. antihistamine
d. antibiotic
______9. Drugs that calm and diminish anxiety.
a. alcohol
b. barbiturate
c. seconal
d. tranquilizer
______10. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia.
a. barbiturate
b. shabu
c. alcohol
d. seconal
______11. Which would be the easiest for you to do with your classmate whom you found to have
marijuana stick in his pocket?
a. talk with him
b. talk with his parent c. talk with his friends d. talk with the officials
______12. What would you do if you see that your best friend is manifesting symptoms of amphetamine
abuse?
a. tell your health teacher b. ignore him
c. talk to him personally
d. tell his parents
______13. If you learned that a classmate was surrendered to the Constabulary Anti-Narcotics Unit, you
will feel
a. happy about it
b. sad about it
c. sorry about it
d. dont mind about it
______14. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength, and
manner.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive drugs
______15. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons.
a. drug abuse
b. drug misuse
c. drug use
d. over-the-counter drugs
3. Which of these drugs are controlled by law because they are used in medical practice?
a. natural drugs
b. synthetic drugs
c. antibiotics
d. anesthetics
4. Drugs that directly activate vital body functions such as those of the central nervous sytem.
a. drugs
b. natural drugs
c. synthetic drugs
d. stimulants
5. Group of divisive volatile substances normally not considered as drugs.
a. stimulant
b. inhalant
c. antihistamine
d. antibiotic
6. Drugs which numb the senses, induce lethargy and stupor and relieve pain.
a. inhalants
b. stimulants
c. narcotics
d. antiseptics
7. Drugs used to inhibit the growth and multiplication of microorganisms.
a. inhalants
b. stimulants
c. narcotics
d. antiseptics
8. Drugs used to counteract the action of certain substances which cause allergy.
a. stimulant
b. inhalant
c. antihistamine
d. antibiotic
9. Drugs that calm and diminish anxiety.
a. alcohol
b. barbiturate
c. seconal
d. tranquilizer
10. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia.
a. barbiturate
b. shabu
c. alcohol
d. seconal
11. Which would be the easiest for you to do with your classmate whom you found to have marijuana
stick in his
pocket?
a. talk with him
b. talk with his parent c. talk with his friends d. talk with the
officials
12. What would you do if you see that your best friend is manifesting symptoms of amphetamine abuse?
a. tell your health teacher
b. ignore him
c. talk to him personally
d. tell
his parents
13. If you learned that a classmate was surrendered to the Constabulary Anti-Narcotics Unit, you will feel
a. happy about it
b. sad about it
c. sorry about it
d. dont mind
about it
14. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength, and manner.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive
drugs
15. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons.
a. drug abuse
b. drug misuse
c. drug use
d. over-thecounter drugs
16. Drugs which may suppress or inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
a. stimulant b. inhalant
c. antihistamine
d. antibiotic
17. Drugs that directly slow vital body functions such as those of the nervous system.
a. depressant
b. hallucinogens
c. anesthetics
d. antibiotic
18. Drugs that alter mood, perception, thinking and ego structure so that the user cannot distinguish the
real from
the unreal.
a. depressant b. hallucinogens
c. anesthetics
d. antibiotic
19. These are non-prescription medicines which may be purchased from any pharmacy or drugstore
without
written authorization from a doctor.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive
drugs
20. Drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor in order to allow a purchase.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive
drugs
21. These are gaseous substances popularly known to abusers as gos or teardrops.
a. seconal
b. volatile solvents
c. tranquilizers
d. alcohol
22. A derivative of morphine, commonly available in cough preparations.
a. codeine
b. paregoric
c. heroin
d. morphine
23. It is the most commonly used and best used opiate,
a. heroin
b. codeine
c. morphine
d. opium
24. These are drugs which suppress vital body functions especially those of the brain or central nervous
system.
a. depressants
b. narcotics
c. stimulants
d.
hallucinogens
25. It is a central nervous system stimulant and sometimes called upper or speed
a. cocaine
b. caffeine
c. nicotine
d. shabu
26. An active component of tobacco which acts as a powerful stimulant of the central nervous system.
a. cocaine
b. caffeine
c. shabu
d. nicotine
27. A poisonous substance found in cigarettes that cause an intense desire to smoke.
a. acetaldehyde
b. nicotine
c. carbon monoxide
d. tar
28. A brown sticky material when the particles in cigarette smoke are cooled.
a. nicotine
b. carbon monoxide
c. tar
d. benzyne
29The most dangerous gas in cigarette smoke.
a. carbon monoxide
b. nicotine
c. tar
d. nitric acid
30. Is inhaling cigarette smoke from others who smoke, even if you are not smoking.
a. involuntary smoking
smoke
b. voluntary smoking
c. mainstream smoke
d. sidestream
31. It stimulate the central nervous system, increase activity, and raise blood pressure.
a. stimulants
b. amphetamines
c. cocaine
d. shabu
32. Commonly called shabu or poor mans cocaine.
a. caffeine
b. alcohol
c. marijuana
d. methamphetamine
hydrochloride
33. These drugs include opium and its components like morphine, heroin, cocaine, hallucinogen and other
synthetic
drugs with psychological effects.
a. stimulants
b. amphetamines
c. cocaine
d. shabu
34. It is an addictive substance found in tobacco products.
a. cocaine
b. nicotine
c. caffeine
d. benzyne
35. Why is it difficult to get family involvement in effective treatment of a drug dependent member?
a. The family is too busy to attend to the problem
b. The family does not have enough income to support him/her
c. The family thinks it may delay the childs education
d. The family denies that a member of theirs is a drug dependent
36. How do you describe an addict?
a. He is hooked on alcohol
c. He drinks too much on social occasions
b. He is a regular drinker of alcohol
d. He is a moderate drinker of alcoholic beverages
37. Why do drugs pose a threat to society?
a. People engage in illegal trade and addiction
b. More adolescents are experimenting with drugs
c. There are inadequate facilities for drug addicts
d. Drug addicts disrupt economic activities in the community
38. If you were caught bringing into Philippines dangerous drug in any quantity, what penalty would be
imposed on you?
a. Fine of 100, 000.00
b. Fine of 500, 000.00
c. imprisonment
d. life
imprisonment and death
39. If you were to report the illegal production deathof a large amount of dangerous drug, what agency
will you approach?
a. BFAD
b. DDB
c. DOH
d. PNP
40. Why are certain drugs dangerous?
a. They cause more trouble
c. They affect ore young people
b. They affect the mental and physical health of the people
d. They lead to unhealthy practices
41. Is often defined as the deliberate taking of a substance for reasons other than its intended use and in a
manner that can
damage the persons health or his or her ability to function normally.
a. drug use
b. drug abuse
c. drug dependence
d. drug tolerance
42. Defined as the continued or occasional use of drugs that is inconsistent with legitimate medical
purposes.
a. drug use
b. drug abuse
c. drug dependence
d. drug tolerance
43. The state that is manifested by physical disturbances when the use of a drug is stopped temporarily.
a. drug dependence
b. physical dependence
c. drug abuse
d. drug use
44. It is the intense desire and perpetuation of abuse to obtain the desired effect of a drug.
a. psychological dependence b. physical dependence c. emotional dependence d. mental
dependence
45. One common inhalant that does not require a prescription.
a. benzyne
b. amyl nitrite
c. octane
d. fumes
46. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength, and manner.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive drugs
47. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons.
a. drug abuse
b. drug misuse
c. drug use
d. OTC drugs
II - From 48-52, indicate if the factor that influence people to abuse drugs or alcohol is ------physical,
emotional, social, or
environmental.
48. to reduce tension or anxiety
49. to satisfy curiosity
50. to overcome shyness
51. condition in the society
52. to feel relaxed
III The following are known dangers of cigarette smoking and tobacco use. Arrange the letters for each
item to decipher the word(s).
53. H H I G B O O L D E R U S E S R P
Hint: Too much exertion of blood against the arteries causing damage
54. E T A R H I D A S S E E S
Hint: Involves the cardiovascular system
55. O Y B D O O R D
Hint: Effect of cigarette smoke to your body scent
56. S I T R I C H B O N
Hint: Inflammation of the airways from the trachea into the lungs
57. D A B A T E B R H
Hint: Foul smell exhaled from the mouth
58. S E A Y H E M P M
Hint: Damaged airsacs in the lungs
59. N E A O N I P M U
Hint: Infection of the lungs
60. T A S H A M
Hint: A chronic disease which affects the airways
Good Luck and Enjoy Your Vacation
Maam Nyms
1. Is often defined as the deliberate taking of a substance for reasons other than its intended use and in a
manner that can
a. gamelan
b. guitar
c. piano
d. rondalla
30. Indonesian puppet theaters are performed with shadows that are cast on a ______________.
a. cotton screen and an oil lamp
c. tarpaulin and spotlight
b. Japanese paper and lampshade
d. transparent plastic and flashlight
III- Identify the concept described in each item. Choose from the words inside the box below.
drugs
drug abuse
prescriptive drugs
stimulants
caffeine
drug use
drug misuse
over-the-counter drugs
cocaine
shabu
depressants
alcohol
barbiturate
narcotics
marijuana
___________36. Substances intended for use in the diagnosis, mitigation, cure, treatment or prevention of
diseases
___________37. These are drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor inorder to allow a
purchase
___________38. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength and
manner
___________39. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons
___________40. The most commonly abused hallucinogen in the Philippines
___________41. One of the most abused drugs which can relieve pain, and produce profound sleep or
stupor
___________42. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia
___________43. The most abused depressants
___________44. This is also known as downers.
___________45. It is a centrl nervous system stimulant and sometimes called upper or speed.
___________46. It can be taken orally, injected or sniffed as to achieve euphoria or an intense of
highness
___________47. These are non-prescription medicines which may be purchased from any pharmacy or
drugstore without
written authorization from the doctor
___________48. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks and some wake up pills
___________49. Drugs that speed up the work of the nervous system
___________50. Means the use of any drug, medically speaking, to the point where it seriously interferes
with the health,
economic status or social functioning of the drug user or others
affected by the drug users behavior
3. The principle of art concerned with making an element or object in a work stand out.
a. harmony
b. emphasis
c. rhythm
d. unity
4. It is concerned with combining related art elements to create a pleasing appearance.
a. harmony
b. emphasis
5. The principle of art used to create the look and feel of action, and to guide the viewers eyes throughout the work
of
art.
a. unity
b.variety
c. proportion
d. movement
6. To create a feeling of oneness, an art should have ______
a. harmony
b. emphasis
c. rhythm
d. unity
7. The proper relation between two objects or parts is called ________.
a. variety
b. movement
c, proportion
d. unity
8. A team sport which is composed of twelve players but there are only six players who are actually playing inside
the
court.a. basketball
b. softball
c. baseball
d. volleyball
9. His main duty is to stop, retrieve the ball, and make a defensive play only.
a. captain ball
b. substitute
c. libero
d. coach
10. In case of a tie or deuce between two teams, a _____ is needed to win the set.
a. set point
b. matc point
c. two-point advantage
d. ad
point
11. Who discovered the game volleyball?
a. William Shakespear b. William Morgan
c. James Naismith
d. Remy Presas
12. When two teammates contact the ball simultaneously, it is considered two contacts for their team except during
a. blocking
b. spiking
c. dribbling
d. serving
13. Each team is entitled to a maximum of _______ contacts.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. five
14. When the serving team fails to serve the ball legally into the opponents court or return the ball into the
opponents
court, the referee give this decision.
a. A side-out with no point awarded is called
c. A fault is declared
b. A score of one point is given
d. A time-out is declared
15. When is a team declared a winner of a set or game?
a. When the team is first to score 25 points
b. When the team is first to score 15 points with an advantage of two points
c. when the team is first to score 24 points with an advantage of one point
d. When the team is first to score 25 points with an average of two points
16. The objective of the volleyball game is ___________.
a. to serve the ball legally into the opponents court
c. for the team to reach at least 25 points or
more
b. to send the ball over the net to the ground of the opponents court.
d. to make the ball remain in play
without
touching the ground
17. Each team is entitled to a maximum of _______ contacts.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. five
18. How many squares are there in a chessboard?
a. 24
b. 32
c. 36
d. 64
19. Pieces that can move over the other pieces.
a. Queen
b. King
c. Rook
d. Knight
20. The most important piece, but it is one of the weakest.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
21. Moves to any square as for as it wants, but only forward, backward, and to the sides.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
22. Moves and captures along the diagonals
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
23. The most powerful piece
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
24. Can be promoted to any piece
a. Knight
b. Rook
c. Pawn
d. Bishop
25. Moves and captures along the diagonals
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
26. The following are the benefits from playing chess EXCEPT:
a. Chess increases the mathematical and scientific skills of the students
b. It develop a sense of confidence
c. It helps you to become a well-known player
d. It provides entertainment and relaxation
27. The value of the King is ______
a. 10
b. 9
c. 5
d. the game
28. The value of Rook is ______
a. 9
b. 5
c. 3
d.1
29. The value of Bishop is ______
a. 9
b. 5
c. 3
d.1
30. The value of Knight is _______
a. 9
b. 5
c. 3
d.1
31. Period of disease where the organisms are being cast off.
a. incubation period
b. prodromal period
c. recovery period
d. defection
period
32. Period where symptoms are all similar for all respiratory infections and common communicable diseases.
a. incubation period
b. prodromal period
c. recovery period
d. defection
period
33. In this period, the patient feels well.
a. defection period
b. recovery period
c. defervescence period
d.
differential period
34. A period where the disease is at its height. Symptoms and signs appear.
a. differential period b. prodromal period
c. recovery period
d. defection period
35. A period where there is a decline in the severity of symptoms.
a. incubation period
b. prodromal period
c. recovery period
d. defervescence
period
36. What happen to person when there is a structural disorder in his tissues and organs?
a. Diseases may occur b. There is an infection
c. Person become disable d. all of these
37. Which of the following causes of disease that includes the chemical found in polluted air?
a. heredity
b. diet
c. environment
d. degenerative
process
38. Diseases that can be transmitted through discharges from the mouth or nose.
a. filth-form diseases b. respiratory diseases
c. contact diseases
d. insect-transmitted
diseases
39. These diseases are transmitted through excretory discharges as a result of incorrect disposal.
a. filth-form diseases b. respiratory diseases
c. contact diseases
d. insect-transmitted
diseases
40. A disease caused by bacteria that affects the respiratory system
a. primary complex
b. pertussis
c. diphtheria
d. tubercolusis
41. A disease in children that can lead to tubercolusis if untreated
a. primary complex
b. tubercolusis
c. pertussis
d. diphtheria
42. This is a highly contagious infection caused by a bacterium
a. primary complex
b. tubercolusis
c. pertussis
d. diphtheria
43. A disease that frequently affects the liver
a. measles
b. scabies
c. leptospirosis
d. mumps
44. A highly communicable disease due to severe viral infection.
a. measles
b. scabies
c. leptospirosis
d. mumps
45. The causative agent of this disease is the same agent that causes tb in children.
a. primary complex
b. pertussis
c. diphtheria
d. mumps
46. The following are the signs and symptoms of tubercolusis EXCEPT
a. cough lasting for more than two weeks
c. Pains in the chest and back
b. Traces of blood in the sputum
d. May or may not have a fever
47. Which part of the body are affected when tubercolusis is un treated?
a. brain
b. glands
c. lungs
d. all of these
48. A disease-producing organisms that causes the most highly communicable, dangerous and prevalent diseases in
humans?
a. bacteria
b. viruses
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoa
49. Which is the best way of preventing tubercolusis?
a. isolate the sick person
b. have a sputum examination
c. eat nutritious food
d. get enough rest
50. Causes the human beings to get sick or feel uncomfortable due to its harmful effects.
a. pathogen
b. organism
c. bacteria
d. viruses
51. A break in the skin or mucous membrane
a. wound
b. incised wound
c. abrasion
d. laceration
52. It is made by excessive rubbing or scraping
a. wound
b. incised wound
c. abrasion
d. laceration
53. These are commonly caused by knives, metal edges, broken glass or other sharp objects.
a. abrasions
b. incisions
c. lacerations
d. puncture
54. It is produced by bullets and pointed objects such as pins, nails, and splinters.
a. abrasions
b. incisions
c. lacerations
d. puncture
55. These are jagged, irregular, or blunt breaks or tearsin the soft tissues
a. abrasions
b. incisions
c. lacerations
d. puncture
56. Which of the following is the significant value of first aid training?
a. value to self
b. value to others
c. value in civil defense
d. all of these
57. Arrange the following according to order of inspection in case of an accident
a. stoppage of breathing, internal poisoning, profuse bleeding, shock after an injury
b. profuse bleeding, stoppage of breathing, internal poisoning, shock after an injury
c. shock after an injury, stoppage of breathing, internal poisoning, profuse bleeding
d. internal poisoning, stoppage of breathing, shock after an injury, profuse bleeding
58. What pressure point is located in front of the ear?
a. facial
b. temporal
c. femoral
d. brachial
59. What pressure point is located beneath the collar bone?
a. subclavian
b. temporal
c. femoral
d. brachial
60. Which of the following are not recommended to stop severe bleeding?
a. direct pressure
b. elevation
c. pressure on the supplying artery d. put a bandage
Good luck
Mam NYMS
54. When the King is being attacked directly by an opponnents piece, we say that the King is under
________.
a. check
b. mate
c. stalemate
d. promotion
55. It is the position where the player whose turn to move has no legal move at his disposal and his King
is not under
check.
a. castling
b. En Passant
c. stalemate
d. checkmate
56. A special move that is done for the safety of the King.
a. promotion
b. En Passant
c. castling
d. check
57. In castling, which should be move first?
a. Rook
b. King
c. either of the two
d. both
58. The player with the _____ pieces always moves first.
a. white
b. black
c. any
d. the arbiter
will decide
59. The square being intersected by the two lines is called_____
a. e2
b. e3
c. e4
d. e5
60. In playing a chess, you must remember that the light square must be on the _____ side of the board.
a. left
b. right
c. at the center
d. above
22. When the King is being attacked directly by an opponnents piece, we say that the King is under
________.
a. check
b. mate
c. stalemate
d. promotion
23. It is the position where the player whose turn to move has no legal move at his disposal and his King
is not under
check.
a. castling
b. En Passant
c. stalemate
d. checkmate
24. A special move that is done for the safety of the King.
a. promotion
b. En Passant
c. castling
d. check
26. The most important piece, but it is one of the weakest.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
27. Moves to any square as for as it wants, but only forward, backward, and to the sides.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
28. Moves and captures along the diagonals
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
29. The most powerful piece
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
30. Can be promoted to any piece
a. Knight
b. Rook
c. Pawn
d. Bishop
31. Diseases that can be transmitted through discharges from the mouth or nose.
a. filth-form diseases
b. respiratory diseases
c. contact diseases
d. insecttransmitted diseases
32. These diseases are transmitted through excretory discharges as a result of incorrect disposal.
a. filth-form diseases
b. respiratory diseases
c. contact diseases
d. insecttransmitted diseases
33. A disease caused by bacteria that affects the respiratory system
a. primary complex
b. pertussis
c. diphtheria
d. tubercolusis
34. A disease in children that can lead to tubercolusis if untreated
a. primary complex
b. tubercolusis
c. pertussis
d. diphtheria
35. This is a highly contagious infection caused by a bacterium
a. primary complex
b. tubercolusis
c. pertussis
d. diphtheria
36. A disease that frequently affects the liver
a. measles
b. scabies
c. leptospirosis
d. mumps
37. A highly communicable disease due to severe viral infection.
a. measles
b. scabies
c. leptospirosis
d. mumps
38.This is an immediate care given and generally needed by anyone who is injured or gets suddenly ill.
a. bandage
b. first aid
c. tourniquet
d. safety
measure
39. It is an unplanned event that results to injury, death or damage to property
a. accident
b. home accident
c. vehicular accident
d. school
accident
40. A break in the skin or mucous membrane
a. wound
b. incised wound
c. abrasion
d. laceration
41. It is made by excessive rubbing or scraping
a. wound
b. incised wound
c. abrasion
d. laceration
42. These are commonly caused by knives, metal edges, broken glass or other sharp objects.
a. abrasions
b. incisions
c. lacerations
d. puncture
43. It is produced by bullets and pointed objects such as pins, nails, and splinters.
a. abrasions
b. incisions
c. lacerations
d. puncture
44. These are jagged, irregular, or blunt breaks or tearsin the soft tissues
a. abrasions
b. incisions
c. lacerations
d. puncture
45. This method reduces the loss of blood without affecting normal blood circulation.
a. direct pressure
b. bandage
c. first aid
d. tourniquet
II- A. Identification: Identify the following pressure point.
_____________________46. leg
_____________________47. neck
_____________________48. above jaw
_____________________49. inner side of arms
_____________________50. front of ear
B. Write the value of different pieces.
51. Queen
52. King
53. Rook
54. Bishop
55. Knight
C. Write the symbol of the following pieces.
56. Check
57. Draw
58. Checkmate
59. Castles Kingside
60. Castles Queenside
Good luck
Mam NYMS
a. goblet
b. psalterion
c. dhol
d. nout
35. Significant instruments of Arab countries
a. goblet
b. esraj
c. manjira
d. Jewish lyre
36. Which of the following musical instruments that belongs to Avanaddh?
a. daf
b. table
c. shankh
d. both a and b
37. Hindu goddess of wealth
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
38. A four-armed dancing Hindu goddess
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
39. Indias festival of lights
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
40. Clay lamp to light the way of the goddess
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
41. A homespun silk used for beautiful dresses worn by Trkmen women
a. shirdaks
b. tush kyiz
c. ketene
d. Diyas
42. Images created by removing part of the rock surface by incising, picking, and carving
a. petroglyphs
b. hieroglyphs
c. calligraphy
d. ochre
43. The art of making designs or patterns on the walls or floors of houses
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
44. Pieces that can move over the other pieces.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Knight
d. Bishop
45. The most important piece, but it is one of the weakest.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Knight
d. Bishop
46. Moves to any square as far as it wants, but only forward, backward, and to the sides.
a. Bishop
b. Rook
c. Knight
d. Pawn
47. Moves and captures along the diagonals.
a. Bishop
b. Rook
c. Knight
d. Pawn
48. The most powerful piece.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Pawn
49. Can be promoted to any piece.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Pawn
50. A Bohemian Jew who won the game and became the worlds first official chess champion, holding this title
until
1894.
a. Paul Morphy
b. Adolf Anderssen
c. Steinity
d. Staunton
51. It is a result of a move that places the opposing King under an immediate threat of captured by one or
sometimes two
of the opponents pieces.
a. check
b. checkmate
c. castling
d. draw
52. A situation in which one players King is threatened with capture having no move to avoid that threat, thus,
ending the
game. a. check
b. checkmate
c. castling
d. draw
53. A chess game where nobody ends as a winner.
a. check
b. checkmate
c. castling
d. draw
54. The following are the benefits from playing chess EXCEPT:
a. Chess increases the mathematical and scientific skills of the students
b. It develop a sense of confidence
c. It helps you to become a well-known player
d. It provides entertainment and relaxation
55. The value of the King is ______
a. 10
b. 9
c. 5
d. the game
56. The value of Rook is ______
a. 9
b. 5
c. 3
d.1
57. The value of Bishop is ______
a. 9
b. 5
c. 3
d.1
58. The value of Knight is _______
a. 9
b. 5
c. 3
d.1
59. When the King is being attacked directly by an opponnents piece, we say that the King is under ________.
a. check
b. mate
c. stalemate
d. promotion
60. In castling, which should be move first?
a. Rook
b. King
c. either of the two
d. both
Good luck
Mam NYMS
a. check
b. checkmate
c. castling
d. draw
38. A situation in which one players King is threatened with capture having no move to avoid that threat,
thus, ending the . game. a. check
b. checkmate
c. castling
d. draw
39. A chess game where nobody ends as a winner.
a. check
b. checkmate
c. castling
d. draw
40. Pieces that can move over the other pieces.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Knight
d. Bishop
41. The most important piece, but it is one of the weakest.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Knight
d. Bishop
42. Moves to any square as far as it wants, but only forward, backward, and to the sides.
a. Bishop
b. Rook
c. Knight
d. Pawn
43. Moves and captures along the diagonals.
a. Bishop
b. Rook
c. Knight
d. Pawn
44. The most powerful piece.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Pawn
45. Can be promoted to any piece.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Pawn
46. A process where the reproductive cells of a man and woman join together to make a new human cell.
a. implantation
b. ovulation
c. fertilization
d. pregnancy
47. A time when a new cell is formed during fertilization, grows and develops into a baby in the womans
uterus.
a. fertilization
b. implantation
c. ovulation
d. pregnancy
48. A developing human from the time that the ovum and the sperm cell unite until the end of the 8th
week.
a. zygote
b. embryo
c. fetus
d. baby
49. The attachment of the developing cells to the uterus.
a. implantation
b. fertilization
c. ovulation
d. pregnancy
50. An organ that grows in the womans uterus during pregnancy and allows nutrients, gases and wastes
to be exchanged
between the mother and the fetus.
a. umbilical cord
b. mommary gland c. uterus
d. placenta
51. It is where the fertilized egg develops into a baby.
a. ovary
b. fallopian tube
c. uterus
d. stomach
52. It is known as the best and ideal form of infant feeding.
a. breast feeding
b. bottle feeding
c. mix feeding
d. all of these
53. The stage of pregnancy that lasts from weeks to birth.
a. 1st trimester
b. 2nd trimester
c. 3rd trimester
d. 1st and 3rd trimesters
54. It is a simple procedure to find out if the baby has a congenital metabolis disorder that may lead to
mental retardation
or even death if left untreated.
a. protocol
b. screening
c. laboratory test
d. health examination
55. Which among the statements given below, uphold the responsibility of parents to their children?
a. choose their course in college
c. teach them religion
b. choose their husband or wife
d. teach them values
56. Why do peoply marry?
a. for economic security
c. for social status
b. for love
d. all of the above
57. Why do couples want to have children?
a. children are considered wealth of parents
c. society expects couples to have offspring
b. religious institutions require it
d. allows the couple to continue their growing
relationship
58. Which is an ingredient if a happy married life?
a. Commitment
b. love
c. sincerety
d. all of the above
59. Which is a wrong reason for having children?
a. Children are gifts from God.
c. Children make the married couples more
responsible.
b. Children make married couples happy
d. Children provide parents security in the
future.
60. Why is having a small important?
a. Ensures communitys progress
c. Requires lesser economic needs
b. Provides for the basic needs of children for quality life.
d. Small family is quiet and peaceful.
a. set
b. let
c. serve
d. fault
18. Any stroke made on the racket side of the body
a. forehand
b. backhand
c. drop shot
d. round head
stroke
19. Any infraction of the rules resulting in loss of the server or the point
a. set
b. let
c. fault
d. service over
20. A hard horizontal stroke that is straight and close to the net.
a. clear
b. drive
c. ace
d. smash
21. It is an art of self-defense.
a. karate
b. boxing
c. sipa
d. arnis
22. When players use two pieces of stick
a. solo baston
b. double baston
c. espada y daga
d. arnis de
mano
23. He is known as te Father of Modern Arnis in the Philippines.
a. Jose delas Alas
b. Remy Presas
c. Jose Rizal
d. Antonio Luna
24. Who started to promote track and field in the Philippines?
a. Greeks
b. Americans
c. Japanese
d. Indians
25. Opening of the Olympic Games
a. 776 BC
b. 778 BC
c. 1896
d. 1986
26. Senses of the body that works like a camera with automatic focusing.
a. sense of sight
b. sense of hearing
c. sense of smell
d. sense of
touch
27. A living screen inside the eyeball which is the most important part of the eye.
a. sclera
b. retina
c. iris
d. pupil
28. It is composed of a tough elastic material of the eye.
a. sclera
b. retina
c. iris
d. pupil
29. A transparent bulge in front of the sclera that acts as a window to let light enter the eyes.
a. iris
b. pupil
c. cornea
d. sclera
30. A condition of nearsightedness
a. myopia
b. hyperopia
c. cataract
d. astigmatism
II- Identification: Identify the following athletic events as running, jumping or throwing.
31. shot put
36. 4x400-m relay
32. steeplechase
37. long jump
33. pole vault
38. javelin throw
34. marathon
39. triple jump
35. 4x100-m relay
40. 400-m low hurdles
III. Identify the following dance steps.Write only the letter of the correct answer.
a. touch step
b. bleking step
c. close step
d. hop step
e. slide step
f. change step
g. cross change step
h. contraganza
i. plain polka
j. mincing step
k. hop polka
Good luck
Mam NYMS
a. wayang
b. kulit
c. baying
d. shadow
10. This is used for calligraphy and for making festive temple decorations, umbrellas, fans and kites.
a. handicraft
b. sa
c. silk painting
d. wau kite
11. All are basic skills in football EXCEPT______.
a. defense
b. running and kicking
c. speed
d. sliding
12. The only one who can use his hands on the ball is the _________.
a. center halfback
b. goalkeeper
c. left fullback
d. right fullback
13. When the ball touched by the defending team crosses the goal line, a _____ kick is awarded.
a. corner
b. free
c. goal
d. side
14. Kicks that require second touch by another player before the goal is counted are called ______ kicks.
a. corner
b. free
c. indirect free
d. direct free
15. All the offenses bring about free kicks EXCEPT _________.
a. displaying ungentlemanly conduct
b. holding an opponent
c. showing dissent toward the referee
d. none of these
16. The game of football starts with a
a. dribbling relay
b. kick-off
c. throw-in
d. jump ball
17. When the ball goes out of the line, a _________ is awarded to the opponent.
a. drop ball
b. free kick
c. throw-in
d. point
18. One of the rules on free kicks is that the ball must be ______ when the kick is taken.
a. bouncing
b. rolling
c. stationary
d. off the ground
19. Pushing an opponent is an offense that brings about a/an _________.
a. direct free kick
b. indirect free kick
c. corner kick
d. side kick
20. All the offenses below are offenses that bring about a direct free kick EXCEPT _________.
a. delaying the game
b. jumping at an opponent
c. holding an opponent
d. pushing an
opponent
21. A batter is out after _______ strikes.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
22. A free walk is awarded to the batter on the ______ ball.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
23. An inning is finished after _______ outs from both teams.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. six
24. The official in baseball is called _________.
a. arbiter
b. referee
c. timer
d. umpire
25. The _____ zone, over the plate is below the batters armpit and above his or her knees where the
pitched ball
should pass.
a. ball
b. pitched
c. strike
d. temperate
26. A batter is out when he or she misses _______ pitched balls.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
27. It is a ______ if a batted fly ball is caught.
a. fly out
b. forced out
c. put out
d. strike out
28. A pitched ball outside the strike zone is called _________.
a. ball
b. curved ball
c. wild ball
d. strike
29. If a batter decided not to hit a pitched ball that passes within the strike zone, the umpire will rule it
______.
a. ball
b. out
c. safe
d. strike
30. A batted fly or ground ball that lands outside the foul line is a _________.
a. good ball
b. fair ball
c. foul ball
d. bad ball
d. Michael Jordan
d. catching
d. catching
d. baseball pass
d. jump ball
d. substitution
a. center line
b. center circle
c. free throw line
d. restricted
area
38. It is drawn at the middle of the court
a. center line
b. center circle
c. free throw line
d. restricted
area
39. The lane on the basketball court extending from the end line to 15 ft. in front of the back court
a. center line
b. center circle
c. free throw line
d. restricted
area
40. Any infraction or violation of the rules of the game
a. foul
b. misconduct
c. drive
d. penalty
41. The defensive zone for each team
a. center line
b. restricted area
c. back court
d. front court
42. One of the major aspects of the game
a. rebounding
b. passing
c. shooting
d. dribbling
43. The term used to refer to the officiating official in basketball
a. umpire
b. timer
c. referee
d. coach
44. A type of play in team sports wherein the team plays in possession of the ball aiming at earning points
through
shooting
a. defensive play
b. offensive play
c. goal tending
d. offensive
play
45. A spectacular scoring maneuver when a player jumps high, reaches above a ring and stuffs the ball
down through
the hoop
a. dunk shot
b. rebound
c. lay up
d. assist
46. This is a lifelong partnership of a man and a woman.
a. courtship
b. commitment
c. marriage
d. love
47. Admiration for someone that may include the desire to get to know that person better.
a. attraction
b. infatuation
c. love
d. courtship
48. A tender feeling toward another person is called_______
a. affection
b. love
c. commitment
d. crush
49. Known as ones dedication to a relationship.
a. affection
b. love
c. commitment
d. crush
50. A strong feeling or a personal attachment between friends and family members.
a. affection
b. love
c. commitment
d. crush
Good luck
Mam NYMS
b. muscular strength
d. power
______27. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______28. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______29. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______30. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______31. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______32. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______34. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
______35. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
II- A.Identification: Identify the dimension of health does each activity develop most. Write:
P for Physical Health, S for Social Health, MS for Moral-Spiritual Health,
E for Emotional Health, and M for Mental Health.
_________________36. growth of Adams apple
_________________37. ability to judge
_________________38. show your feelings in a positive way
_________________39. love at first sight
_________________40. increase in height and weight
_________________41. going out with friends
_________________42. appearance of pimples
_________________43. surf the internet
_________________44. broadening of chest and shoulders
_________________45. consulting parents about your problems
B. Identify whether the given instrument is an idiophone, membranophone, aerophone, chordophone, or
electrophone.
_________________46. cymbals
_________________47. flute
_________________48. organ
_________________49. violin
_________________50. snare drum
Good luck
Mam NYMS
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
_____26. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
_____27. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_____28. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_____29. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_____30. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____31. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____32. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____33. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____34. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
_____35. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
_____36. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
_____37. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
_____38. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
_____39. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
_____40. It means you can carry out everyday tasks without becoming too tired.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
_____41. What term defines a man or a woman based on biological characteristics?
a. sex
b. gender
c. sexuality
d. androgyny
_____42. Which of the following illustrates gender?
a. Miguel loves to cook
c. Hazal has a positive body image
b. Marco does not cry in public
d. Alex is attracted to Fely
_____43. What do you call the sets of activities that society considers as appropriate for men and women?
a. gender role
b. gender identity
c. gender equality
d. gender sensitivity
_____44. Why is it important to understand human sexuality?
a. We will all be mature adults.
c. There is a specific age for developing ones
b. We have similar sexuality issues d. It will help us build a better relationship with
ourselves and others
_____45. Which characterizes a good decision?
a. Easy to make
c. One that your teacher told you to make
b. Makes your friends happy
d. Arrived at after a thoughtful
consideration of consequences
_____46. This means evaluating your well-being periodically which includes you sexuality
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____47. It helps you avoid misunderstanding by expressing your feelings in a healthy way.
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____48. Means making choices that are healthy and responsible.
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____49. It can be accomplished through information about good sexuality.
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____50. It is a choice you make or act upon.
a. decision
b. objectives
c. purpose
d. aim
Good luck
Mam NYMS
_______1. The Body Mass Index or (BMI) is a component of physical fitness which is used to determine
your normal:
a. vital statistics
b. weight and height ratio
c. height
d. waist measurement
_______2. A normal body mass index helps prevent metabolic diseases such as
a. malaria and high fever
c. HIV or AIDS
b. cancer, diabetes and hypertension
d. leprosy and small pox
_______3. It is the capacity of each individual to accomplish daily task with alertness and vigor.
a. good life
b. physical education c. physical fitness
d. strength
_______4. Walking to school and climbing up stairs are examples of activities which illustrate a
component of physical
fitness known as:
a. physiological or aerobic fitness b. flexibility
c. strength
d. Body Mass Index
_______5. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
_______6. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
_______7. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______8. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______9. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______10. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______14. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______15. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______16. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______17. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
______18. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
______19. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
______20. It means you can carry out everyday tasks without becoming too tired.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______21. Means being a lifelong learner by continuously wanting to learn new things and improve ones
skills.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______22. It involves understanding and liking yourself as well as accepting and learning from your
mistakes.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______23. It refers to how well you get along with other people.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______24. It refers to your personal beliefs, values, and faith.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. moral-spiritual health
d. mental health
______25. This is a pleasant diversion from routine and also relieves nervous tension.
a. driving
b. exercise
c. smoking
d. all of the above
______26. It is your ability to think about how you responded to people and in situations.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______27. It is your skill to identify the different demands on your limited time.
a. time management
b. reflection
c. self-awareness
d. self-appraisal
______28. It is about your skill to work with people with different beliefs, values, and backgrounds.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______29. It is your skill to set realistic, clearly-defined goals with a specific time-frame that is
measurable.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______30. This is your ability to assess the success of a strategy in reaching the original goal.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. planning and
monitoring
______31. It is your skill to recognize your strengths and weaknesses, and acknowledge areas for
improvement.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______32. It is your skill to identify ways to change negative behavior, feelings or attitudes as a result of
contemplation.
a. time management
b. reflection
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______33. It is your skill to adjust to new situations.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______34. It is your ability to think of your past experiences and consider their effects on your health.
a. time management
b. reflection
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______35. It is your skill to manage your personal reactions to responsibilities and challenges in life.
a. self-management
b. reflection
c. flexibility
d. self-appraisal
______36. These are caused by the vibration of of objects or movements of animals and people.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______37. Sounds that are organized and pleasant.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______38. These are disorganized sounds.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______39. It plays a prominent role in different celebrations, rites, rituals, and special occasions.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______40. Which of the following is NOT a function of music?
a. helps us release our emotions
c. not primarily an aesthetic function
b. develop a sense og nationalism
d. provides entertainment
II- A.Identification: Identify the dimension of health does each activity develop most. Write:
P for Physical Health, S for Social Health, MS for Moral-Spiritual Health,
E for Emotional Health, and M for Mental Health.
______41. Eating a balanced diet regularly
______42. Going out with family and friends
______43. Respecting your parents and elders
______44. Show your feelings in a positive way
______45. Telling the truth.
______46. Listening to mood music.
______47. Reading your favorite books.
______48. Getting enough rest and sleep.
______49. Say sorry when you have done wrong.
______50. Consulting parents about your problems.
B. TRUE or FALSE. Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is wrong.
___________51. Girls are taller than boys.
___________52. Girls hips become broader.
___________53. Voice change occurs among boys.
___________54. Boys become more aggressive than girls.
___________55. Muscle growth is faster in girls than in boys.
___________56. Girls and boys experience rapid mental growth.
Good luck
Mam NYMS
13. Drugs taken for itsnintended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength, and manner.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive
drugs
14. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons.
a. drug abuse
b. drug misuse
c. drug use
d. over-thecounter drugs
15. Drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor in order to allow a purchase.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive
drugs
16. It is taken orally, injected or sniffed as to achieve euphoria or an intense feeling of highness.
a. cocaine
b. caffeine
c. shabu
d. nicotine
17. Poor mans cocaine.
a. cocaine
b. caffeine
c. shabu
d. nicotine
18. An active component of tobacco which acts as a powerful stimulant of the central nervous system.
a. cocaine
b. caffeine
c. shabu
d. nicotine
19. The most abused depressants
a. barbiturate
b. shabu
c. alcohol
d. seconal
20. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia.
a. barbiturate
b. shabu
c. alcohol
d. seconal
21. The chessboard is made out of _____ squares.
a. 12
b. 16
c. 32
d. 64
22. The lines marked with white and green are called ________.
a. diagonals
b. ranks
c. files
d. pieces
23. Lines occupying the squares horizontally are called __________.
a. diagonals
b. ranks
c. files
d. pieces
24. Lines occupying the squares vertically
a. diagonals
b. ranks
c. files
d. pieces
25. Is called when the King is being attacked by an opponents piece.
a. check
b. draw
c. jadoube
d. en passant
26. A long range piece which ends the game with the same square color as it started and moves and
captures diagonally.
a. rook
b. queen
c. knight
d. bishop
27. A long range piece which moves and captures horizontally and vertically.
a. rook
b. queen
c. knight
d. bishop
28. It moves and captures like the King horizontally, vertically, and diagonally but in a long range
fashion.
a. rook
b. queen
c. knight
d. bishop
29. It moves just one square at a time in any direction; up, down, left, right and diagonally.
a. bishop
b. pawn
c. knight
d. king
30. It moves with an L shaped pattern and captures a piece in the same way which means if it started on a
light square
must land on a dark square and vice versa.
a. bishop
b. pawn
c. knight
d. king
31. Refers to that branch of the performing arts concerned with acting out narratives or stories in front of
an audience.
a. theatre
b. drama
c. play
d. cinema
32. Type of theatre that focuses on dialog and action, based on a written text or on an impaired one.
a. theatre
b. drama
c. play
d. cinema
33. It is the use of facial expressions, gestures, body movement, and voice to convey action or a
personality.
a. speaking
b. stage blocking c. acting
d. character
blocking
34. Clothing and accessories worn by actors to portray character and setting.
a. costumes
b. props
c. makeup
d. sound
35. The use of face and body cosmetics, wigs, costumes t portray a role or character.
a. costumes
b. props
c. makeup
d. sound
II. Identify the following dance steps.Write only the letter of the correct answer.
a. touch step
b. bleking step
c. close step
d. hop step
e. slide step
f. change step
g. cross change step
h. contraganza
i. plain polka
j. mincing step
k. hop polka
51. Captures 52. Moves to 53. Check 54. Checkmate 55. Draw -
a. drug use
b. drug abuse
c. drug dependence
d. drug tolerance
2. Defined as the continued or occasional use of drugs that is inconsistent with legitimate medical
purposes.
a. drug use
b. drug abuse
c. drug dependence
d. drug tolerance
3. The state that is manifested by physical disturbances when the use of a drug is stopped temporarily.
a. drug dependence b. physical dependence c. drug abuse
d. drug use
4. It is the intense desire and perpetuation of abuse to obtain the desired effect of a drug.
a. psychological dependence b. physical dependence c.emotional dependence d. mental
dependence
5. Drugs that increase the activity of the brain or other parts of the nervous system.
a. stimulants
b. amphetamines
c. cocaine
d. shabu
6. Stimulate the central nervous sytem, increase activity, and raise blood pressure.
a. stimulants
b. amphetamines
c. cocaine
d. shabu
7. Commonly called shabu or poor mans cocaine.
a. caffeine
b. alcohol
c. marijuana
d. methamphetamine
hydrochloride
8. Are those that have harmful effects on the mental and physical well-being of a person.
a. dangerous drugs b. prohibited drugs
c. shabu
d. marijuana
9. These drugs include opium and its components like morphine, heroin, cocaine, hallucinogens and other
synthetic or
natural drugs with psychological effects.
a. stimulants
b. amphetamines
c. cocaine
d. shabu
10. Cigarette smoking primarily affects the ____________ system.
a. central nervous system
b. excretory system
c. respiratory system
d. circulatory system
11. A kind of smoke tha comes out of the lighted nd of a cigarette or pipe.
a. mainstream smoke
b. sidestream smoke
c. third-hand smoke
d. residual tobacco
smoke
12. Refers specifically to the smoke that a smoker directly inhales.
a. mainstream smoke
b. sidestream smoke
c. third-hand smoke
d. residual tobacco
smoke
13. Smoke left for a long time on sofa, beddings, pillow and other objects.
a. mainstream smoke
b. sidestream smoke
c. third-hand smoke
d. residual tobacco
smoke
14. It is an addictive substance found in tobacco products.
a. cocaine
b. nicotine
c. caffeine
d. benzyne
15. Also known as The Tobacco Regulation Act of 2003.
a. RA No. 6425
b. RA No. 9211
c. RA No. 874
d. Phil. Clean Air Act of
1999
16. Which among the statements given below upholds the responsibility of parents to their children?
a. Choose their course in college
c. Teach them religion
b. Choose their husband or wife
d. Teach them values
17. Why do people marry?
a. for economic security
b. for love
c. for social status
d. all of these
18. Why do couples want to have children?
a. children are considered wealth of parents
c. society expects couples to have offspring
b. religious institutions require it
d. allows the couple to continue their growing
relationship
19. Which is an ingredient of a happy married life?
a. commitment
b. love
c. sincerety
d. all of these
20. Which is a wrong reason for having children?
a. children are gifts from God
c. children make the married couples more
responsible
b. children make married couples happy
d. children provide parents security in the future
21. Why is having a small family important?
a. ensures communitys progress
c. requires lesser economic needs
b. provides for the basic needs of children for quality life
d. small family is quiet and peaceful
22. What is the right age Filipinos to enter into marriage, as set by the Family Code of the Philippines?
a. 15
b. 18
c. 21
d. 25
23. A tender feeling toward another person is called_______
a. affection
b. love
c. commitment
d. crush
24. Known as ones dedication to a relationship.
a. affection
b. love
c. commitment
d. crush
25. A strong feeling or a personal attachment between friends and family members.
a. affection
b. love
c. commitment
d. crush
26. The puppeteer and narrative of Wayang Kulit.
a. Dalang
b. Erhuang
c. Bonang
d. Gamelan
27. Used to express the lyric mood such as mild, placid, and gentle.
a. Dalang
b. Erhuang
c. Bonang
d. Gamelan
c. Bayang Magiliw
d. Marangal na Dalit ng Katagalugan
______3. It is known as the Pilippines signature love song.
a. kundiman
b. sarswela
c. ballad
d. composo
______4. A composer of Nasaan Ka Irog?
a. Nicanor Abelardo
b. Raymundo Baas
c. Jose Corazon de Jesus
d.
Julian Felipe
______5. He is one of our great composer, pianist, and a teacher of composition at the UP then
Conservatory of Music.
a. Jose Corazon de Jesus
b. Julian Felipe
c. Nicanor Santa Ana de Jesus d. Levi
Celerio
______6. A ballad composed by Ernani Cuenco in 1979.
a. Gaano Ko Ikaw Kamahal b. Nasaan Ka Irog
c. Bahay Kubo
d. Dandansoy
______7. He was proclaimed as the National Artist for Music in 1999.
a. Jose Corazon de Jesus
b. Julian Felipe c. Nicanor Santa Ana de Jesus d. Ernani
Joson Cuenco
______8. The highest national recognition bestowed upon to Filipino artists who have made significant
contributions
to the development of Philippine Arts.
a. Best Performer
b. Best Composer
c. Order of National Artists
d. Best
Producer
______9. This song is presently known as Lupang Hinirang.
a. Himno Nacional Filipino b. Lupang Hinirang
c. Bayang Magiliw
d. Marcha
Filipina Nacional
_____10. A narrative song, ranging from indigenous forms to Hispanic-influenced themes.
a. kundiman
b. sarswela
c. ballad
d. composo
_____11. It is a branch of competitive sports involving running, walking, throwing, and jumping.
a. marathon
b. pole vault
c. track and field
d. soccer
_____12. When was the 1st Olympic Game?
a. 776 BC
b. 1896
c. 1923
d. 1945
_____13. A place were Olympic Game was revived.
a. Japan
b. Mexico
c. Athens
d. Philippines
_____14. Who introduced track and Field to the Filipinos?
a. Chinese
b. Mexican
c. Japanese
d. Americans
_____15. A playing venue of track and field events.
a. diamond
b. court
c. lawn
d. oval
_____16. A running event with 4 players and each player has to run 100m and has to relay the baton to te
next player.
a. hurdling
b. 4x100-m relay
c. 4x400-m relay
d. marathon
_____17. Each of the four players has to run 400m and has to relay the baton to the next player.
a. hurdling
b. 4x100-m relay
c. 4x400-m relay
d. marathon
_____18. It is running and leaping over a high bar without touching it.
a. hurdling
b. 4x100-m relay
c. 4x400-m relay
d. marathon
_____19. It is done by leaping over a high bar without touching it.
a. long jump
b. triple jump
c. high jump
d. pole vault
_____20. The most difficult of the jumping events which is done with the use of a pole.
a. long jump
b. triple jump
c. high jump
d. pole vault
_____21. A piece of spherical iron ball thrown to a distance.
a. shot
b. discus
c. javelin
d. pole
_____22. A platelike implement hurdled to a farther distance than the shot put.
a. shot
b. discus
c. javelin
d. pole
_____23. This is a pointed instrument that is struck on the ground to make a distinct mark.
a. shot
b. discus
c. javelin
d. pole
_____24. The following are examples of running events EXCEPT
a. 100-m dash
b. shot put
c. steeplechase
d. marathon
_____25. Which of the following does NOT BELONG to the group?
a. long jump
b. pole vault
c. walkathon
d. triple jump
_____26. Who invented volleyball?
a. James Naismith
b. William Morgan
c. Luther Gulick
d. Michael
Jordan
_____27. His main duty is to stop, retrieve the ball, and make a defensive play only.
a. libero
b. spiker
c. toser
d. linesman
_____28. It is done by hitting the ball over or above the net with a strong force or smash such that the ball
falls in a
downward direction.
a. blocking
b. defending
c. spiking
d. serving
_____29. It is the effort of the defensive team to stop a spike.
a. blocking
b. defending
c. spiking
d. serving
_____30. It is the act of putting the ball in play.
a. placement
b. service
c. set-up
d. set
d. set
d. service
d. side-out
d. side-out
d. defense
d. side-out
d. dribbling
d. tossing
d. violation
d. blocking
III- Select from the words inside the box the correct answer of the following items.
infection
dressing
fracture
abrasion
first aid
laceration
puncture
bandage
wound
incision
torniquet
Good luck
Maam Nyms
24. A very common occurrence due to the abundance of blood vessels as well as the prominence of the
nose in the
front of te face. a. convulsion
b. shock
c. hypertension
d. nose bleeding
25. It is the damage to the soft tissue of the body from violence or trauma.
a. shock
b. convulsion
c. wound
d. severe bleeding
26. A method of tightly encircling a bandage above the injured limb to stop temporarily the flow of blood
through a large
artery in a limb.
a. direct pressure
b. tourniquet c. elevation
d. bandage
27. This is a break in the skin or mucous membrane resulting from common accidents
a. open wound
b. closed wound
c. severe bleeding
d. bites
28. This is a partial or complete blockage of the air passage by a solid foreign object lodge in the pharynx
or in te airways.
a. choking
b. stroke
c. convulsion
d. hypertension
29. Any break in the continuity of a bone.
a. fracture
b. sprain
c. strain
d. dislocation
30. It usually happen when bone joints separate causing the bones to be mis aligned.
a. fracture
b. sprain
c. strain
d. dislocation
Temple Music
Northern
Southern
Lyrical
Imagination
Hindustani Music
6_________________
5_________________
8_________________
B. Categorize the following violations into DFK for direct free kick, and IFK for indirect free kick.
1. kicking or attempted kicking of an opponent
2. displaying or striking at an opponent
3. ungentlemanly conduct
4. wasting time
5. disputes with the referee
6. holding an opponent
Good luck
Maam Nyms
Good luck
Maam Nyms
Good luck
Maam Nyms
______14. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______15. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______16. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______17. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
______18. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
______19. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
______20. It means you can carry out everyday tasks without becoming too tired.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______21. Means being a lifelong learner by continuously wanting to learn new things and improve ones
skills.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______22. It involves understanding and liking yourself as well as accepting and learning from your
mistakes.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______23. It refers to how well you get along with other people.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______24. It refers to your personal beliefs, values, and faith.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. moral-spiritual health
d. mental health
______25. This is a pleasant diversion from routine and also relieves nervous tension.
a. driving
b. exercise
c. smoking
d. all of the above
______26. It is your ability to think about how you responded to people and in situations.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______27. It is your skill to identify the different demands on your limited time.
a. time management
b. reflection
c. self-awareness
d. self-appraisal
______28. It is about your skill to work with people with different beliefs, values, and backgrounds.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______29. It is your skill to set realistic, clearly-defined goals with a specific time-frame that is
measurable.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______30. This is your ability to assess the success of a strategy in reaching the original goal.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. planning and
monitoring
______31. It is your skill to recognize your strengths and weaknesses, and acknowledge areas for
improvement.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______32. It is your skill to identify ways to change negative behavior, feelings or attitudes as a result of
contemplation.
a. time management
b. reflection
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______33. It is your skill to adjust to new situations.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______34. It is your ability to think of your past experiences and consider their effects on your health.
a. time management
b. reflection
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______35. It is your skill to manage your personal reactions to responsibilities and challenges in life.
a. self-management
b. reflection
c. flexibility
d. self-appraisal
______36. These are caused by the vibration of of objects or movements of animals and people.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______37. Sounds that are organized and pleasant.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______38. These are disorganized sounds.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______39. It plays a prominent role in different celebrations, rites, rituals, and special occasions.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______40. Which of the following is NOT a function of music?
Good luck
Mam NYMS
______7. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______8. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______9. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______10. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______14. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______15. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______16. A German musicologist who formulated a system of classifying the instruments.
a. Eric Hornbostel Sachs
b. Severino Reyes
c. Alejandro Cuvero
d. Pascual
Poblete
______17. These are usually in triple or duple meter and is usually in major or minor mode.
a. music
b. folk songs
c. zarzuela
d. composo
______18. It is a play with songs and dances.
a. music
b. folk songs
c. zarzuela
d. composo
______19. What do you call the song about the sufferings of Christ and sung during Lenten Season?
a. Pasyon
b. Daigon
c. Alay
d. Balitaw
______20. What song is sung during Christmas?
a. Pasyon
b. Daigon
c. Alay
d. Balitaw
______21. A Tagalog or Visayan folk song in meter.
a. Pasyon
b. Daigon
c. Alay
d. Balitaw
______22. A song in honor of the Blessed Virgin Mary.
a. Pasyon
b. Daigon
c. Alay
d. Balitaw
______23. A song to serenade a lady usually in duple meter.
a. Balitaw
b. Harana
c. Alay
d. Daigon
______24. It is a narrative song type from Panay.
a. music
b. folk songs
c. zarzuela
d. composo
______25. What is the title of the first Tagalognzarzuela?
a. Budhing Nagpahamak
c. Walang Sugat
b. Paglipas ng Dilim
d. Dalagang Bukid
______26. Who is regarded as the Father of Tagalog Zarzuela?
a. Severino Reyes b. Precioso Palma
c. Alejandro Cuvero
d. Pascual Poblete
______27. A sound produced by strings.
a. chordophone
b. aerophone
c. membranophone
d. idiophone
______34. What law promotes the health of the family, particularly in the prevention and control of
HIV/AIDS?
a. RA 8504
b. RA 7719
c. RH Bill 4244
d. RA 9211
______35. How can a woman who has HIV pass the virus to her baby?
a.during pregnancy, delivery or breastfeeding c. feeding the baby with the eating utensils of
the mother
b. kissing and hugging the baby
d. all of these
______36. It is one of the most beautiful country in Southeast Asia.
a. Cambodia
b. Indonesia
c. Laos
d. Malaysia
______37. A Cambodian musical ensemble or an orchestra that usually accompanies ceremonial music f
the royal
courts and temples.
a. samphor
b. oneat
c. pinpeat
d. chhing
______38. A double-headed drum played with hands.
a. samphor
b. oneat
c. pinpeat
d. chhing
______39. How many instrument players were needed to form the Pinpeat?
a. 2
b. 3`
c. 4
d. 5
______40. This is highly influenced by ancient forms as well as Hindu forms
a. art music
b. Cambodian court music
c. folk music d. Pinpeat ensemble
______41. It is produced from the cocoons of Thai silkworms.
a. silk weaving
b. Thai silk
c. golden thread silks
d. batik
______42. The fabric most common to Indonesia, Malaysia and Singapore
a. silk weaving
b. Thai silk
c. golden thread silks
d. batik
______43. It is made out of rice paper with a bamboo frame which contain a fuel cell or small candle
a. sky lantern
b. wish lantern
c. flying lantern
d. handicrafts
______44. This festival is held on the night of the 12th full moon, usually in November.
a. sky lanten
b. Loy Krathong Festival
c. Chang Mai d. Phuket
______45. It represent 1.4 percent of the total population in Cambodia.
a. indigenous people
b. highlanders
c. lowlanders d. foreigners
______46. One of the most popular forms of art in Vietnam
a. shadow puppetry
b. wayang kulit
c. Vietnamese silk painting
d.
handicraft
______47. Famous art in Indonesia
a. shadow puppetry
b. wayang kulit
c. Vietnamese silk painting
d.
handicraft
______48. A type of puppet shadow play performed around the Indo-Malayan archipelago, tracing its
origin to India.
a. shadow puppetry
b. wayang kulit
c. Vietnamese silk painting
d.
handicraft
______49. A modern Indonesian language means show or perform
a. wayang
b. kulit
c. baying
d. shadow
______50. This is used for calligraphy and for making festive temple decorations, umbrellas, fans and
kites.
a. handicraft
b. sa
c. silk painting
d. wau kite
II- Classify the instruments according to the Hornbostel Sachs Sytem.
_______________________51. Gabbang
_______________________56. Sahunay
_______________________52. Suling
_______________________57. Kalutang
_______________________53. Sulibaw
_______________________58. Neguet
_______________________54. Bunkaka
_______________________59. Gansa
_______________________55. Kudyapi
_______________________60. Diwdiw-as
Good luck
Mam NYMS
_______1. The Body Mass Index or (BMI) is a component of physical fitness which is used to determine
your normal:
a. vital statistics
b. weight and height ratio
c. height
d. waist measurement
_______2. A normal body mass index helps prevent metabolic diseases such as
a. malaria and high fever
c. HIV or AIDS
b. cancer, diabetes and hypertension
d. leprosy and small pox
_______3. It is the capacity of each individual to accomplish daily task with alertness and vigor.
a. good life
b. physical education c. physical fitness
d. strength
_______4. Walking to school and climbing up stairs are examples of activities which illustrate a
component of physical
fitness known as:
a. physiological or aerobic fitness b. flexibility
c. strength
d. Body Mass Index
_______5. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
_______6. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
_______7. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______8. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______9. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______10. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
a. adrenalin
b. thyroxine
c. parathyroid
d. pancreas
______39. It secretes insulin which regulates carbohydrates metabolism.
a. adrenalin
b. thyroxine
c. parathyroid
d. pancreas
______40. An immediate protective cover placed over a wound.
a. dressing
b. compress
c. bandage
d. first aid
______41. Made by excessive rubbing or scraping.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______42. Commonly caused by knives, metal edges, broken glass or other sharp objects.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______43. Produced by bullets and pointed objects.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______44. Jagged, irregular, or blunt breaks or tears in the soft tissues.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______45. A break in the skin or mucous membrane.
a. open wound
b. closed wound
c. accident
d. incision
III- Identify the concept described in each item. Choose from the words inside the box below.
drugs
drug abuse
prescriptive drugs
stimulants
caffeine
drug use
drug misuse
over-the-counter drugs
cocaine
shabu
depressants
alcohol
barbiturate
narcotics
marijuana
___________46. Substances intended for use in the diagnosis, mitigation, cure, treatment or prevention of
diseases
___________47. These are drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor inorder to allow a
purchase
___________48. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength and
manner
___________49. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons
___________50. The most commonly abused hallucinogen in the Philippines
___________51. One of the most abused drugs which can relieve pain, and produce profound sleep or
stupor
___________52. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia
___________53. The most abused depressants
___________54. This is also known as downers.
___________55. It is a centrl nervous system stimulant and sometimes called upper or speed.
___________56. It can be taken orally, injected or sniffed as to achieve euphoria or an intense of
highness
___________57. These are non-prescription medicines which may be purchased from any pharmacy or
drugstore without
written authorization from the doctor
___________58. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks and some wake up pills
___________59. Drugs that speed up the work of the nervous system
___________60. Means the use of any drug, medically speaking, to the point where it seriously interferes
with the health,
economic status or social functioning of the drug user or others
affected by the drug users behavior
Good luck.
Maam Nyms
a. Physical Health
b. Mental Health
c. Intellectual Capacity d. Sports Activities
______3. The human body is compared to a ______ that needs utmost care in order to function well.
a. doll
b. machine
c. mirror
d. painting
______4. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
______5. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
______6. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______7. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______8. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______9. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______10. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. A game played over the net using a shuttlecock and a racket.
a. table tennis
b. badminton
c. lawn tennis
d. volleyball
______12. What is the measurement of the playing area of badminton for doubles?
a. 5.3m x 13.2m
b. 6.01m x 13.3m
c. 6.1m x 13.4m
d. 6.2m x 13.5m
______13. It is a place where badminton first originated.
a. Russia
b. Inglatera
c. India
d. Japan
______14. A winning score for table tennis is
a. 10 points
b. 11 points
c. 15 points
d. 21 points
______15. An official who calls service faults made by the server should they occur.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
______16. He records the points scored by each player.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
______17. They decide whether the shuttle fell inside or outside the court.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
______18. He upholds and enforces the laws of badminton; calls a fault or let should either occur.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
______19. There are how many players who are actually playing inside in each team in a volleyball
game?
a. 6
b. 10
c. 12
d. 15
______20.Who among the players in a volleyball whose main duty is to stop, retrieve the ball and make a
defensive play?
a. team captain
b. spiker
c. libero
d. injured player
______21. This is a disease of the upper respiratory tract which is caused by a virus.
a. common cold
b. pneumonia
c. tuberculosis
d. hepatitis
______22. This is an inflammation of the liver caused by a virus or less commonly by certain medications
or toxins.
a. common cold
b. pneumonia
c. tuberculosis
d. hepatitis
______23. The process of segregating a sick person or a carrier until all dangers of conveying the
infection has passed.
a. quarantine
b. isolation
c. controlling
d. eradication
______24. A disease of the heart and blood vessels.
a. high blood pressure
b. cardiovascular disease
c. stroke
d. heart attack
______25. Any disease characterized by body cells that grow abnormally and tend to spread throughout
the body.
a. high blood pressure
b. cardiovascular disease
c. stroke
d. cancer
B. Identify the following situations as FAULT or LET.
___________26. If a service is not correct.
___________27. Any unforeseen or accidental situation has occurred.
___________28. A line judge is unsighted and the umpire is unable to make a decision.
___________29. The server serves before thereceiver is ready.
___________30. If on service, the shuttle is caught on the net and remains suspended on top or on
service, after
passing over the net, is caught in the net.
___________31. If the shuttle is hit twice in succession by the same player with two strokes.
___________32. If a service court error has occurred.
___________33. If a player touches the net or its supports with racket, person or dress.
___________34. If in play, the shuttle lands outside the boundaries of the court.
___________35. If, when in play, the initial point of contact with the shuttle is not on the strikers side of
the net.
III- Identify the concept described in each item. Choose from the words inside the box below.
drugs
drug abuse
prescriptive drugs
stimulants
caffeine
drug use
drug misuse
over-the-counter drugs
cocaine
shabu
depressants
alcohol
barbiturate
narcotics
marijuana
___________36. Substances intended for use in the diagnosis, mitigation, cure, treatment or prevention of
diseases
___________37. These are drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor inorder to allow a
purchase
___________38. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength and
manner
___________39. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons
___________40. The most commonly abused hallucinogen in the Philippines
___________41. One of the most abused drugs which can relieve pain, and produce profound sleep or
stupor
___________42. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia
___________43. The most abused depressants
___________44. This is also known as downers.
___________45. It is a centrl nervous system stimulant and sometimes called upper or speed.
___________46. It can be taken orally, injected or sniffed as to achieve euphoria or an intense of
highness
___________47. These are non-prescription medicines which may be purchased from any pharmacy or
drugstore without
written authorization from the doctor
___________48. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks and some wake up pills
___________49. Drugs that speed up the work of the nervous system
___________50. Means the use of any drug, medically speaking, to the point where it seriously interferes
with the health,
economic status or social functioning of the drug user or others
affected by the drug users behavior
III- Modified True or False. Write True if the statement is true. If False, change the underlined word or
words to make the
statement correct.
___________51. A match shall consist of two games, unless otherwise arranged.
___________52. Players shall not changed ends at the end of the first game.
___________53. In a correct service, the servers racket shall initially hit the base of the shuttle.
___________54. In a correct service, the whole shuttle shall be above the servers waist at the instance of
being hit by the
servers racket.
___________55. It is fault if the server, in attempting to serve, misses the shuttle.
___________56. The server shall serve before the receiver is ready, but the receiver shall be considered to
have been
ready if a return of service is attempted.
___________57. In doubles, the partners are not allowed to take up any position disadvantageous to the
opposing server
or receiver.
___________58. If a line judge is unsighted and the umpire is unable to make a decision, it is fault.
___________59. It is a let if in play, the shuttle passes through or under the net.
___________60. A shuttle is in play when it strikes the net and starts to fall towards the surface of the
court on the
strikers side of the net.
Good luck.
Maam Nyms
_____26. If 6 teams are competing in a double elimination type of tournament, how many games shall
be played?
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
_____27. This is the formula used to determine the number of games in double elimination.
a. G=2(N-1)
b. G=3(N-1)
c. G=N(N-1)/2
d. G=N-1
_____28. The formula used to determine the number of games in single elimination.
a. G=2(N-1)
b. G=3(N-1)
c. G=N(N-1)/2
d. G=N-1
_____29. What do you call the state of well-being of a person who uses information, products, and
services that have
a direct effect on ones health?
a. consumer health
b. health services
c. consumer rights
d. health
products
_____30 What is an appeal technique which uses doctors, clinical tests, and research results to inform the
public of a
specific product?
a. bandwagon
b. scientific evidence c. testimonials
d. public
exposure
_____31. Why do producers make use of advertisements?
a. to convince consumers to patronize their products
c. for consumer satisfaction
b. for business competition
d. to guide consumers
_____32. Which of the following will you approach for reliable health information?
a. celebrity health product endorser
c. government health agency
b. neighbor
d. school personnel
_____33. Why do people marry?
a. for love
b. for enjoyment
c. for social status
d. to get ahead
_____34. Which is a responsibility of parents to their children?
a. choose their husband or wife
c. inculcate values
b. choose their course in college
d. deprive them food and shelter
_____35. Why is family planning encouraged?
a. to have more disciplined youth
c. to have a stable economy
b. to meet the basic needs of children
d. to increase family income
_____36. Which is an ingredient of a happy marriage?
a. knowledge
b. fulfillment
c. commitment
d. security
_____37. Which is a wrong reason for having children?
a. the sole purpose of marriage
c. positive growth of couples
b. parents security in the future
d. social recognition
_____38. It is an act of handling functions and responsibilities, controlling situations, and directing
people towards
achieving a common goal.
a. management
b. supervision
c. administration
d. leadership
_____39. It is the act of guiding or directing the personnel or staff to pursue the action towards the right
direction.
a. planning
b. leading
c. controlling
d. staffing
_____40. It is an athletic competition within the four walls of the school.
a. school sports extramurals b. school sports fair c. school sports intramurals d. school sports
demonstration
_____41. These are substances intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention
of diseases.
a. drugs
b. vitamins
c. food supplements
d. all of these
_____42. What do you call the use of an illegal drug that causes physical and mental harm to the user?
a. drug peddling
b. tolerance
c. drug abuse
d. drugging
_____43. What is a chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a drug?
a. drug abuse
b. drug addiction
c. tolerance
d. alcoholism
_____44. What do you call the state of craving for the experience that a drug provides?
a. psychological dependence b. physical dependence c. drug addiction
d. drug abuse
_____45. What is the ability to resist the effects of a drug over a period of time?
a. dependence
b. withdrawal
c. tolerance
d. intolerance
_____46. What does a drug addict experience when he or she abruptly stops taking drugs?
a. withdrawal syndrome
b. tolerance
c. dependence
d. addiction
_____47. Which is an immediate effect of an overdose of narcotics?
a. insanity
b. disability
c. trauma
d. sanity
_____48. What narcotic drug stops severe cough?
a. codeine
b. opium
c. morphine
d. heroin
_____49. What is a drug product from the gum of opium that has milder effect?
a. codeine
b. morphine
c. heroine
d. opium
_____50. What is used as an ingredient in potent medicine like painkillers and cough depressants?
a. opium
b. heroin
c. narcotics
d. morphine
II- The following sentences state the bad effects of narcotivs abuse in the person, the family and on the
community.
Write OP if the primary or immediate effect is on the person, FAM on the family, and COM if on the
community.
_____51. Abusers fail to eat and sleep well.
_____52. They cause shame and embarrassment of relatives.
_____53. It cause difficulty in keeping a job.
_____54. Stealing and other criminal activities become rampant.
_____55. Drastic loss of weight, which causes severe malnutrition, is experienced.
_____56. It causes financial difficulty due to the cost of rehabilitation.
_____57. Loss of enthusiasm for work or study.
_____58. Personal cleanliness is hard to maintain.
_____59. Abusers experience physical and/or psychological dependence.
_____60. Personal responsibilities and duties are neglected.
NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
4th PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH III
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- A. Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided
for.
______1. The measurement of ones weight relative to ones height.
a. Mass Index
b. Curl-up
c. Fitness
d. Body Mass Index
______2. This is one factor that makes an individual acquire good health.
a. Physical Health
b. Mental Health
c. Intellectual Capacity d. Sports Activities
______3. The human body is compared to a ______ that needs utmost care in order to function well.
a. doll
b. machine
c. mirror
d. painting
______4. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
______5. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
______6. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______7. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______8. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______9. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______10. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. A game played over the net using a shuttlecock and a racket.
a. table tennis
b. badminton
c. lawn tennis
d. volleyball
______12. What is the measurement of the playing area of badminton for doubles?
a. 5.3m x 13.2m
b. 6.01m x 13.3m
c. 6.1m x 13.4m
d. 6.2m x 13.5m
______13. It is a place where badminton first originated.
a. Russia
b. Inglatera
c. India
d. Japan
______14. A winning score for table tennis is
a. 10 points
b. 11 points
c. 15 points
d. 21 points
______15. An official who calls service faults made by the server should they occur.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
drug use
drug misuse
over-the-counter drugs
cocaine
shabu
depressants
alcohol
barbiturate
narcotics
marijuana
___________36. Substances intended for use in the diagnosis, mitigation, cure, treatment or prevention of
diseases
___________37. These are drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor inorder to allow a
purchase
___________38. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength and
manner
___________39. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons
___________40. The most commonly abused hallucinogen in the Philippines
___________41. One of the most abused drugs which can relieve pain, and produce profound sleep or
stupor
___________42. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia
___________43. The most abused depressants
___________44. This is also known as downers.
___________45. It is a centrl nervous system stimulant and sometimes called upper or speed.
___________46. It can be taken orally, injected or sniffed as to achieve euphoria or an intense of
highness
___________47. These are non-prescription medicines which may be purchased from any pharmacy or
drugstore without
written authorization from the doctor
___________48. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks and some wake up pills
___________49. Drugs that speed up the work of the nervous system
___________50. Means the use of any drug, medically speaking, to the point where it seriously interferes
with the health,
economic status or social functioning of the drug user or others
affected by the drug users behavior
III- Modified True or False. Write True if the statement is true. If False, change the underlined word or
words to make the
statement correct.
___________51. A match shall consist of two games, unless otherwise arranged.
___________52. Players shall not changed ends at the end of the first game.
___________53. In a correct service, the servers racket shall initially hit the base of the shuttle.
___________54. In a correct service, the whole shuttle shall be above the servers waist at the instance of
being hit by the
servers racket.
___________55. It is fault if the server, in attempting to serve, misses the shuttle.
___________56. The server shall serve before the receiver is ready, but the receiver shall be considered to
have been
ready if a return of service is attempted.
___________57. In doubles, the partners are not allowed to take up any position disadvantageous to the
opposing server
or receiver.
___________58. If a line judge is unsighted and the umpire is unable to make a decision, it is fault.
___________59. It is a let if in play, the shuttle passes through or under the net.
___________60. A shuttle is in play when it strikes the net and starts to fall towards the surface of the
court on the
strikers side of the net.
Good luck.
Maam Nyms
_______9. What are health information, procedures, and work that satisfy ones needs and wants as a
consumer?
a. advertisements
c. health products
b. health services
d. consumer education
______10. What is an appeal technique that uses well-known people to endorse a product?
a. novelty
c. testimonials
b. health services
d. bandwagon
______11. Why do producers make use of advertisements?
a. to convince consumers to patronize their products
c. for consumer satisfaction
b. for business competition
d. to guide consumers
______12. How do you make the right decisions in buying a health product?
a. read advertisements of various products
c. look for a well-known manufacturer
b. know the content and effects of the products
d. buy products endorsed by well-known
people
______13. Why do people avail of the services of medical quacks?
a. availability of their services
c. quacks offer quality service
b. high cost of medical services
d. people trust them
______14. How do you identify medical quacks?
a. they are well-known
c. they use incantations while treating
patients
b. they do not demand a medical fee
d. they cure only serious cases
______15. Why should we avoid medical quackery?
a. they are not convincing
c. they perform services in their homes
b. they have many patients
d. patients condition will not improve
______16. How does the government help consumers?
a. by protecting their rights
c. by endorsing good quality products
c. by providing various consumer products
d. by providing good sample products
______17. How are consumers deceived by some producers?
a. by selling expensive products
c. by using unreliable endorsers
b. by selling defective equipment
d. by using different business technique
______18. How does the government ensure the protection of consumer?
a. by providing health services
c. by providing security services in business
establishments
b. by creating agencies to protect consumers
d. by distributing sample products
______19. Which of the following will you approach for reliable health information?
a. celebrity health product endorser
c. government health agency
b. neighbor
d. school personnel
b. double elimination
d. ladder
______27. If 6 teams are competing in a double elimination type of tournament, how many games will be
played?
a. 7
c. 9
b. 8
d. 10
______28. This is the formula used to determine the number of games in double elimination.
a. G=2(N-1)
c. G=N(N-1)/2
b. G=3(N-1)
d. G=N-1
______29. This type of tournament provides an opportunity for each competing team to play against
every other team
a. single elimination
c. round robin
b. double elimination
d. ladder
______30. The formula used to determine the number of games in round robin elimination.
a. G=2(N-1)
c. G=N(N-1)/2
b. G=3(N-1)
d. G=N-1
II- Identification: Choose from the list of words below the item that is associated with it in each
statement. Write the
letter only.
A. Book
G. Mass Media
B. Consumer
H. On-line Communication
C. Expert Opinion
I. Quack
D. Infomercial
J. Quackery
E. Health Care Professionals
K. Superstition
F. Health Fraud
L. Department of Health
______31. Material written by experts on health topics
______32. Interactive use of computer communication technology
______33. Promise of painless, quick and mysterious cure
______34. TV program meant to sell health products and services
______35. Agency responsible for informing the public about health matters
______36. Cultural belief that is passed from generation to generation
______37. Network of broadcast stations that reach large audience of people
______38. Decision maker in the selection and purchase of goods
______39. Promotion of goods and services which are not proven to be scientifically effective
______40. Medical-dental specialist that works for the prevention and treatment of people
III- Fill in the blanks: Using the formula for round robin type of elimination, fill in this chart.
No. of Teams
No. of Byes
No. of Games
1). 5
2). 6
3). 7
4). 8
5). 9
Good luck.
Maam Nyms
_______4. It is done by hitting the ball over or above the net with a strong force or smash such that the
ball falls in a
downward direction.
a. spiking
b. blocking
c. dribbling
d. holding
_______5. When the ball comes to rest momentarily in the hands or arms of the player.
a. spiking
b. blocking
c. dribbling
d. holding
_______6. To bat the ball to a team mate.
a. pass
b. placement
c. point
d. set
_______7. Hitting the ball on an intended spot.
a. pass
b. placement
c. point
d. set
_______8. A score made by the serving team.
a. pass
b. placement
c. point
d. set
_______9. The act of putting the ball in play.
a. point
b. service
c. set
d. placement
______10. Failure of the serving team to score.
a. set
b. set-up
c. side-out
d. pass
______11. The period of rapid physiological change in boys and girls wherein several parts of their body
mature.
a. puberty
b. infancy
c. adulthood
d. adolescence
______12. This is the girls first menstrual flow.
a. menarche
b. menopause
c. menstruation
d. puberty
______13. The transmission of physical and mental traits from parents to offspring.
a. puberty
b. menarche
c. heredity
d. hormones
______14. These are chemical messengers that regulate many body processes.
a. endocrine glands
b. hormones
c. pancreas
d. adrenal
______15. Works as a chemical communications network in the body.
a. endocrine glands
b. hormones
c. pancreas
d. adrenal
______16. Glands which produce hormones that stimulate the development of male and female secondary
sex traits.
a. endocrine
b. sex glands
c. thyroid
d. parathyroid
______17. Gland which acts as the master control unit.
a. endocrine
b. thyroid
c. pituitary
d. parathyroid
______18. It secretes adrenalin which aids in the control of blood volume and blood pressure and in times
of emergency.
a. adrenals
b. thyroid
c. pituitary
d. endocrine
______19. Hormone secreted by thyroid gland.
a. adrenalin
b. thyroxine
c. parathyroid
d. pancreas
______20. It secretes insulin which regulates carbohydrates metabolism.
a. adrenalin
b. thyroxine
c. parathyroid
d. pancreas
______21. An immediate protective cover placed over a wound.
a. dressing
b. compress
c. dressing
d. first aid
______22. Made by excessive rubbing or scraping.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______23. Commonly caused by knives, metal edges, broken glass or other sharp objects.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______24. Produced by bullets and pointed objects.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______25. Jagged, irregular, or blunt breaks or tears in the soft tissues.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______26. A break in the skin or mucous membrane.
a. open wound
b. closed wound
c. accident
d. incision
______27. Method of controlling severe bleeding.
a. direct pressure
b. compress
c. dressing
d. bandage
______28. Immediate care given to a victim.
a. dressing
b. compress
c. dressing
d. first aid
______29. An unplanned event that results to injury, death or damage to property.
a. first aid
b. accident
c. motor accident
d. abrasion
______30. A woven material used to hold a wound.
a. direct pressure
b. compress
c. dressing
d. bandage
II- Identification:A. Identify the correct answer from the list given. Write the letter only.
a. red
i. orange
b. brown
j. violet
c. blue
k. curved lines
d. yellow
l. angular lines
e. green
m. horizontal lines
f. vertical line
n. neutral colors
g. slanting/diagonal
o. white
h. jagged lines
p. primary colors
______31. stands for purity, chastity
______32. stands for courage, war, passion, violence, love
______33. black, white and gray
______34. stands for growth
______35. stands for miser lines
______36. stands for majesty, pomposity, mysticism
______37. stands for justice, peace, wisdom, honesty
______38. stands for deceit, hope
______39. lines that are harsh and unpleasant
______40. lines that have sharp edges
______41. lines that are parallel to the horizon
______42. lines that are at right angle and or perpendicular to a plane
______43. lines that are graceful and show life and energy
______44. lines that suggest action or movement
______45. red, blue and yellow
B. Identify the following characteristics. Classify them whether they are physical, mental, social, or
emotional.
_________________46. growth of Adams apple
_________________47. ability to judge
_________________48. lives independently
_________________49. love at first sight
_________________50. increase in height and weight
_________________51. going out with friends
_________________52. appearance of pimples
_________________53. feeling of acceptance
_________________54. broadening of chest and shoulders
_________________55. attraction to the opposite sex
_________________56. menstruation for girls
_________________57. surf the internet
_________________58. show your feelings in a positive way
_________________59. open to new ideas and experiences
_________________60. handle stress and seek help, if needed.
Good luck.
Maam Nyms
___________30. If on service, the shuttle is caught on the net and remains suspended on top or on
service, after
passing over the net, is caught in the net.
___________31. If the shuttle is hit twice in succession by the same player with two strokes.
___________32. If a service court error has occurred.
___________33. If a player touches the net or its supports with racket, person or dress.
___________34. If in play, the shuttle lands outside the boundaries of the court.
___________35. If, when in play, the initial point of contact with the shuttle is not on the strikers side of
the net.
II- Identify the concept described in each item. Choose from the words inside the box below.
point
love
racket hand
service over
receiver
rally
server
free hand
deuce
let
a. home
b. television
c. video games
d. movies
____19. Which is not a cause of mental retardation?
a. childhood illnesses
b. prenatal illnesses
c. injuries
d. physical contact
____20. Which is not a way of improving ones health?
a. Enjoy being with people
b. Have balance of work and play
c. Eat anything you want
d. Maintain a sound physical health
____21. Which is not a physical manifestation of aging?
a. lessened mobility b. weakening of bones c. poor eyesight
d. poor memory
____22. It is a normal development factor and a continuous lifelong process that begins at birth and ends
in death.
a. old age
b. aging
c. physical change
d. memory gap
____23. The most important element of marriage is
a. love
b. care
c. commitment
d. communication
____24. It is a part of life and should be understood fully with appreciation and acceptance.
a. death
b. aging
c. marriage
d. to have family
____25. An unavoidable human emotion, a natural response to a certain experience in life.
a. grief
b. denial
c. bargaining
d. depression
II- Modified True or False: Write True if the statement is correct and change the underlined word if the
statement is
wrong.
_________________26. Phobia is a psychological disorder where there is persistent, irrational fear of a
situation or
an object.
_________________27. A healthy lifestyle includes a balanced diet.
_________________28. Death is athe permanent loss of life.
_________________29. Delusion refers to seeing or hearing things that are unreal.
_________________30. Narcissism is a mental disorder characterized by delusions of persecution and
self-importance.
_________________31. Anorexia is a serious eating disorder.
_________________32. Neurosis is a feeling of extreme sadness and a lack of energy.
_________________33. Health service is the process of determining a persons health status.
_________________34. Emotional health is a state of emotional and psychological well being that gives
a person the
ability to face and accept the realities of life.
_________________35. Mental retardation is a condition characterized by below-average general
intellectual functioning.
III- Matching Type: Select the correct answer from the words at the right.
_____36. Refers to pervasive maladaptive patterns in relating
a. ObsessiveCompulsive Personality
to the environment.
b. Trauma
_____37. A condition characterized by below-average intellectual
c. Bipolar Disorder
functioning
d. Drugs
_____38. A kind of mood disorder that involves manic episode and
e. Aging
even depressive episodes
f. Paranoid Personal
Disorder
_____39. The state of well-being in which a person realizes his or
g. Personal Disorder
or her own abilities, can cope with normal stresses of life,
h. Down Syndromes
and can work productively
i. Autism
_____40. A disorder caused by the presence of all or part of an
j. Mental Disorder
extra 21st chromosomes
k.Mental Health
_____41. A developmental disorder involving significant impairment
l. Psychosis
in social interaction and communication
m.Mental Retardation
_____42. A disorder characterized by persistent distrust and suspiciousness of others
_____43. A severe impairment of an individuals mental, emotional, or
behavioral functions
_____44. A mental disorder in which the personality is severely disorganized
_____45. A type marked by a pervasive preoccupation with maintaining
order, attaining perfection, and having mental and interpersonal
control at the expensenof flexibility, openness, and efficiency.
IV- Explain the following: Give at least 2 ingredients of a happy marriage and explain why. (15 pts.)
Good luck
Maam Nyms
Good luck
Maam Nyms
_______1. The Body Mass Index or (BMI) is a component of physical fitness which is used to determine
your normal:
a. vital statistics
b. weight and height ratio
c. height
d. waist measurement
_______2. A normal body mass index helps prevent metabolic diseases such as
a. malaria and high fever
c. HIV or AIDS
b. cancer, diabetes and hypertension
d. leprosy and small pox
_______3. It is the capacity of each individual to accomplish daily task with alertness and vigor.
a. good life
b. physical education c. physical fitness
d. strength
_______4. Walking to school and climbing up stairs are examples of activities which illustrate a
component of physical
fitness known as:
a. physiological or aerobic fitness b. flexibility
c. strength
d. Body Mass Index
_______5. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
_______6. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
_______7. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______8. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______9. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______10. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______14. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______15. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______16. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______17. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
______18. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
______19. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
______20. It means you can carry out everyday tasks without becoming too tired.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______21. Means being a lifelong learner by continuously wanting to learn new things and improve ones
skills.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______22. It involves understanding and liking yourself as well as accepting and learning from your
mistakes.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______23. It refers to how well you get along with other people.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______24. It refers to your personal beliefs, values, and faith.
II- A.Identification: Identify the dimension of health does each activity develop most. Write:
P for Physical Health, S for Social Health, MS for Moral-Spiritual Health,
E for Emotional Health, and M for Mental Health.
______26. Eating a balanced diet regularly
______27. Going out with family and friends
______28. Respecting your parents and elders
______29. Show your feelings in a positive way
______30. Read books
B. TRUE or FALSE. Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is wrong.
___________31. Girls are taller than boys.
___________32. Girls hips become broader.
___________33. Voice change occurs among boys.
___________34. Boys become more aggressive than girls.
___________35. Muscle growth is faster in girls than in boys.
___________36. Girls and boys experience rapid mental growth.
___________37. Boys reach the age of puberty earlier than girls.
___________38. Boys and girls like to be alone more than to be with friends.
___________39. Adolescents are more sensitive at this stage.
___________40. Puberty is the time when you start to become sexually mature.
III- Draw a staff. Label it with a G-clef and name its lines and spaces. (10 pts.)
IV- Draw the fundamental positions of arms and feet. (10 pts.)
Good luck.
Maam Nyms
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
______18. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
______19. This is a pleasant diversion from routine and also relieves nervous tension.
a. driving
b. exercise
c. smoking
d. all of these
______20. The maximum score for girls in the partial curl-ups is ______.
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60
II- Identify the following physical fitness component as Skill Related or Health Related. Write SR for
Skill Related and HR for Health Related.
______21. Speed
_______26. Cardiovascular Endurance
______22. Body Composition
_______27. Balance
______23. Muscular Strength
_______28. Muscular Endurance
______24. Reaction Time
_______29. Power
______25. Flexibility
_______30. Coordination
III- Choose the letter of the health-related component in the box that is developed in each of the following
activities.
Write the letter only on the space provided for.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Body Composition
Muscular Strength
Muscular Endurance
Flexibility
Cardiovascular Endurance
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______8. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______9. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______10. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______12. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______13. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______14. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
______15. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
______16. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
______17. This is a pleasant diversion from routine and also relieves nervous tension.
a. driving
b. exercise
c. smoking
d. all of these
______18. Which of the following principles discuss the intensity of exercise?
a. principle of specificity
c. principle of overload
b. principle of progression
d. principle of regularity
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
______19. This principle states that the specific type of exercise you do to determine the specific benefit
a. principle of specificity
c. principle of overload
b. principle of progression
d. principle of regularity
______20. It measures the strength and endurance of the abdominal muscles.
a. stature
b. partial curl-ups
c. mass
d. BMI
II- TRUE or FALSE: Write T if the statement is true and F if it is false.
______21. Fitness implies improvement.
______22. Physical fitness is governed by certain principles.
______23. Intensity, duration, and frequency of training exercises are factors to be considered in applying
the overload principle.
______24. Time for exercise should be governed by the inclination and timetable of the individual.
______25. Heart rate is the most important single indicator of well-being, stress, or illness in your body.
______26. A persons pulse rate goes higher after a short walk, jog, or run.
______27. A persons pulse rate slows down when he gets angry or excited.
______28. The average pulse rate beat for boys is 70 to 74 beats per minute.
______29. The average pulse rate beat for girls is 82 to 89 beats per minute.
______30. All conditioning exercise programs are based on target heart rates.
______31. The target heart rate zone is 60 to 80%.
______32. In getting the maximum predicted heart rate , subtract your age from 220 beats per minute.
______33. Physical fitness testing encourages lifetime participation in physical activity.
______34. The Philippine Physical Fitness Test (PPFT) should be administered in a relaxed and playful
atmosphere.
______35. The PPFT should be conducted every grading period.
III- Fill in the blanks. Rearrange the letters to get the correct answer.
______________________36. (LLANTPEREP) A chemical applied to the skin on clothing or pests.
______________________37. (ICEL) Small wingless insects that suck human blood for food.
______________________38. (NGDEUE) Disease caused by the bite of Aedes mosquitoes.
______________________39. (CESNITIDECI) Any chemical substance used to destroy insects.
______________________40. (ATSR) Cleaning up the piles of garbage and debris will drive these pests
away.
______________________41. (DALUITICDE) Insecticide designated to destroy mature forms of
anthropods.
______________________42. (PRPORE AWTSE IDSOPSAL) This practice is the best means of
controlling flies.
b. 18 year-old girl
Good luck
Maam Nyms
_____23. Maraming nais magkaroon ng abgong sasakyan ngunit hindi lahat nakukuha ito. Ano ang
pangunahing salik na nakakaapekto dito?
a. kita
b. panlasa
c. kasarian
d. relihiyon
_____24. Ano ang pinakamahalagang pinagkukunan ng pondo ng pamahalaan?
a. buwis
b. trabaho
c. dayuhan
d. produkto
_____25. Isa sa mga pagpipilian ay HINDI gamit ng perang papel. Alin ito?
a. pambayad utang
c. pambili ng produkto
b. sukatan ng talino
d. pambayad ng serbisyo
_____26. Kung ang savings deposit ay perang deposito na maaaring kunin sa kahit anong panahon, ano
naman ang tawag sa perang nagtatakda ng panahon para makuha sa bangko?
a. bonds
b. insurance
c. time deposit
d. check deposit
_____27. Alin sa mga sumusunod na ahensya ang nagpapautang kapalit ang alahas?
a. money changer
b. bangko rural
c. bahay-sanglaan
d. bangkong komersyal
_____28. Kapag may mahabang pila sa may tindahan, tanda ito na may
a. kakapusan
b. kasaganaan
c. pagrarasyon
d. pagpupulong
_____29. Ang patuloy na pagtaas ng pangkalahatang presyo ng halos lahat na pamilihan sa buong
ekonomiya ay tinatawag na
a. implasyon
b. produksyon
c. importasyon
d. depresasyon
_____30. Ang pagdami ng mga korporasyong multinasyonal sa bansa ay nakapagdadala ng positibong
epekto sa bansa maliban sa
a. buwis
b. trabaho
c. polusyon
d. kompetisyon
_____31. _____ ang unang tawag sa ekonomiks.
a. agham panlipunan
b. political economy
c. sosyolohiya d. sikolohiya
_____32. Sino ang sumulat ng Das Kapital?
a. Adam Smith
b. Max Weber
c. Karl Marx
d. David Ricardo
_____33. Ang pag-aaral na may kinalaman sa produksyon, pamamhagi at paggamit ng salat na pinagkukunang-yaman. Ito ang kahulugan ng ekonomiks ayon kay________.
a. Gerardo Sicat
b. Lloyd Reynolds
c. Paul Samuelson
d. Clifford James
_____34. Ang tatlong dibisyon ng ekonomiks ay produksyon, distribusyon, at __________.
a. pagkonsumo
b. paggawa
c. capital
d. pamimili
_____35. Hindi agham panlipunan ang __________.
a. ekonomiks
b. heograpiya
c. pilosopiya
d. biolohiya
_____36. Sino ang may akda ng The Wealth of Nations?
a. Thomas Malthus b. Adam Smith
c. David Ricardo
d. John Maynard Keynes
_____37. Tinatawag na ______ ang pag-aaral sa buong ekonomiya ng bansa.
a. ekonomiks
b. maykroekonomiks c. makroekonomiks
d. political economy
_____38. Sa yugtong ito, umaasa lamang ang mga tao sa biyaya ng kalikasan upang mabuhay.
a. pagpapastol
b. pagtatanim c. pangangaso at pangingisda d. paggawa sa kamay
_____39. Tinatawag na _____ ng mga bansang umuunlad.
a. First Worldb. Developed
c. Third World
d. Second World
_____40. Ipinatupad niya ang patakarang Pilipino Muna na naglalayong tangkilikin ang mga produktong gawa ng mga Pilipino.
a. Carlos Garcia b. Diosdado Macapagal c. Ferdinand Marcos
d. Corazon Aquino
II- Pagtatapat-tapatin ang mga salitang nasa Hanay A at Hanay B. Titik lamang ang isulat sa patlang.
HANAY A
HANAY B
_____41. Puhunang pambili ng kalakal sa ibang bansa
a. kita
_____42. Ginagamit din itong tayuan ng pagawaan
b. upa
_____43. Pambili ng makinarya at hilaw na sangkap
c. sahod
_____44. Pakinabang sa ginamit na lupa
d. interes
_____45. Paggawa gamit ang isip
e. mental
_____46. Pakinabang ng entreprenyur
f. manwal
_____47. Paggamit gamit ang bisig
g. lupa
_____48. Pakinabang na gamit ang puhunan
h. capital
_____49. Nagpapadali sa produksyon
i. salapi
_____50. Pakinabang ng manggagawa sa ipinagkaloob na
j. dolyar
paglilingkod
Good luck & Happy Graduation
Maam NYMS
_____18. The term used for the study of birth rate, death rate and migration is
a. demography
b. geography
c. gerontology
d. biography
_____19. Which of the following helps in the increase of population?
a. deportation
b. migration
c. immigration
d. mortality
_____20. The term that refers to the actual number of births applied to an individual or to a group is ___.
a. fertility
b. birth rate
c. crude birth rate
d. mortality
_____21. The process of developing awareness and understanding of population situation is ______.
a. population
b. demography
c. population education
d. fertility
_____22. It is a process tending to reduce population.
a. fertility
b. migration
c. mortality
d. immigration
_____23. It refers to the number of people living I a community.
a. birth rate
b. migration
c. mortality
d. population
_____24. Refers to a one-time movement from one territory t another.
a. birth rate
b. migration
c. mortality
d. population
_____25. Carbon monoxide from jeepneys contribute to
a. water pollution
b. noise pollution
c. land pollution
d. air pollution
_____26. The general term applied to solid and semi-solid waste materials other than human excreta.
a. garbage
b. rubbish
c. refuse
d. night soil
______1. It is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of
disease or infirmity.
a. family planning
b. reproductive health c. POP ED
d. fertility
______2. It is the actual number of births applied to an individual or to a group.
a. family planning
b. reproductive health c. POP ED
d. fertility
______3. A process in which one egg matures each month in one of the two ovaries.
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______4. What happen when the egg is fertilized and develops gradually into a baby?
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______5. A process when the sperm cell and ovum meet within the body of the woman.
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______6. When the egg is not fertilized, it does not attach itself to the wall of the uterus but it leaves the
body of the woman.
a. menstruation
b. conception
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______7. It is the union of an egg cell and the sperm cell.
a. menstruation
b. conception
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______8. A short life span of the egg cell which limits the time period during each month in which a
sperm and an egg cell can unite.
a. 12-24 hrs.
b. 24-36 hrs.
c. 12-48 hrs.
d. 48-72 hrs.
______9. The inability of a man to fertilize an egg.
a. fertility
b. sterility
c. heredity
d. infertility
_____10. The inability of a woman to conceive or carry a pregnancy to term.
a. fertility
b. sterility
c. heredity
d. infertility
_____11. A surgical procedure where the vas deferens are tied or cut, resulting in sterilization.
a. vasectomy
b. salpingectomy
c. sterility
d. fertility
_____12. A surgical procedure which consists of tying, cutting or removal of the fallopian tubes.
a. vasectomy
b. salpingectomy
c. sterility
d. fertility
_____13. What part of female reproductive organ where the sperm and egg cell meet?
a. ovary
b. uterus
c. fallopian tube
d. vagina
_____14. Way of preventing and controlling diseases such as measles, mumps, Rubella measles, and etc.
a. immunization
b. vaccination
c. prevention
d. acupuncture
_____15. One way to determine the sex of the fetus from a mothers uterus.
a. X-ray
b. laser
c. ultrasound
d. acupuncture
_____16. These are microscopic organisms.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
_____17. Organisms that feed on animal or plant tissues.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
_____18. These are one-celled organisms.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
_____19. Made up of genetic materials surrounded by a protein shell.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. viruses
d. protozoans
_____20. These are small bacteria that can be produced only within living cells.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
II- A. Choose the best answer from the list of words below. Write the letter only.
a. Louis Pasteur
i. William Harvey
b. Edward Jenner
j. Marie Curie
c. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
k. Gerhard Hansen
d. Robert Koch
l. rabies
e. Jonas Salk
m. biological
f. Albert Sabin
n. physical
g. Alexander Fleming
o. nutritional
h. Wilhelm Roentgen
p. psychological
_____21. Called the Father of Bacteriology
_____22. Known as the conqueror of small pox; developed vaccination
_____23. Discovered germ-causing tuberculosis
_____24. Discoverer of germs; invented the microscope
_____25. Discovered penicillin for antibiotic therapy
_____26. Discovered X-ray
_____27. Discovered radium
_____28. Discovered leprosy
_____29. Discovered blood circulation
_____30. Discovered oral vaccine for paralytic poliomyelitis
_____31. Discovered vaccine for paralytic poliomyelitis
_____32. stress, tension, neurosis, psychosis
_____33. trauma or accident
_____34. anemia, goiter, beri-beri
_____35. amoebic dysentery
B. Write _ /_ if the following is favorable ecological factors; then _X_ if it is unfavorable ecological
factors.
_____36. aging
_____44. stress, pathogenic organisms
_____37. adequate medical care
_____45. poor environment
_____38. good heredity
_____46. good environment
_____39. psychogenic-emotional factors
_____47. low living standards
_____40. poor heredity
_____48. emotional maturity
_____41. unhealthful practices
_____49. personal-social fulfillment
_____42. proper nutrition
_____50. peaceful community
_____43. satisfying work and recreation
Good luck
Maam Nyms
______26. It is called if a player is stripped, kicked, pushed, charged into, or held by another player.
a. foul
b. unintentional foul
c. free kick
d. penalty kick
______27. It is awarded if a player of the defending team commits a foul in the penalty area.
a. foul
b. unintentional foul
c. free kick
d. penalty kick
______28. It is made by kicking the ball under or between the goal posts.
a. kick off
b. penalty kick
c. field goal
d. free kick
______29. It is awarded to the opposing team if a foul occurs.
a. kick off
b. penalty kick
c. field goal
d. free kick
______30. The length of the playing game for soccer football.
a. 30 minutes
b. 35 minutes
c. 40 minutes
d. 45 minutes
II- Identification: Identify the correct answer from the list of words given below. Write only the letter of
your answer.
a. mask
i. homeplate
b. bases
j. body protector
c. foul ball
k. keystone sack
d. gloves
l. initial sack
e. flyball
m. hot corner
f. homerun
n. Lewis Robert
g. ground ball
o. William Morgan
h. infield
p. indoor baseball
______31. Worn by any player except the catcher and first baseman.
______32. Worn by catcher and homebase umpire.
______33. Worn by catcher and pitcher.
______34. It is made of canvass or other suitable materials.
______35. A ball that is hit into the air.
______36. A batted ball that falls and lands outside the fair territory.
______37. A batted ball that hits the ground.
______38. A batted ball in fair territory that does not involve an error and allows the batter to circle the
bases.
______39. A five-sided base, 17 inches wide across and facing pitcher.
______40. A 60-foot square with bases at each corner.
______41. An inventor of the game softball.
______42. Original name of softball.
______43. First base
______44. Second base
______45. Third base
III- Fill in the blanks with a correct answer.
Sound Sources
Intensity Decibels
Human whisper
47. ________________
Alarm clock
Domestic quarrel
50. _______________
Garbage truck
52. _______________
Jack hammer
54. _______________
55. _______________
Rocket
City traffic
58. _______________
Garbage disposal unit
60. _______________
46. ____________
60
48. ____________
49. ____________
85
51. ____________
93
53. ____________
97
110
56. ____________
57. ____________
80
59. ____________
135-150
Good luck
Maam Nyms
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______4. What happen when the egg is fertilized and develops gradually into a baby?
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______5. A process when the sperm cell and ovum meet within the body of the woman.
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______6. When the egg is not fertilized, it does not attach itself to the wall of the uterus but it leaves the
body of the woman.
a. menstruation
b. conception
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______7. It is the union of an egg cell and the sperm cell.
a. menstruation
b. conception
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______8. A short life span of the egg cell which limits the time period during each month in which a
sperm and an egg cell can unite.
a. 12-24 hrs.
b. 24-36 hrs.
c. 12-48 hrs.
d. 48-72 hrs.
______9. The inability of a man to fertilize an egg.
a. fertility
b. sterility
c. heredity
d. infertility
_____10. The inability of a woman to conceive or carry a pregnancy to term.
a. fertility
b. sterility
c. heredity
d. infertility
_____11. A surgical procedure where the vas deferens are tied or cut, resulting in sterilization.
a. vasectomy
b. salpingectomy
c. sterility
d. fertility
_____12. A surgical procedure which consists of tying, cutting or removal of the fallopian tubes.
a. vasectomy
b. salpingectomy
c. sterility
d. fertility
_____13. What part of female reproductive organ where the sperm and egg cell meet?
a. ovary
b. uterus
c. fallopian tube
d. vagina
_____14. Way of preventing and controlling diseases such as measles, mumps, Rubella measles, and etc.
a. immunization
b. vaccination
c. prevention
d. acupuncture
_____15. One way to determine the sex of the fetus from a mothers uterus.
a. X-ray
b. laser
c. ultrasound
d. acupuncture
_____16. These are microscopic organisms.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
_____17. Organisms that feed on animal or plant tissues.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
_____18. These are one-celled organisms.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
_____19. Made up of genetic materials surrounded by a protein shell.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. viruses
d. protozoans
_____20. These are small bacteria that can be produced only within living cells.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
II- A. Choose the best answer from the list of words below. Write the letter only.
a. Louis Pasteur
i. William Harvey
b. Edward Jenner
j. Marie Curie
c. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
k. Gerhard Hansen
d. Robert Koch
l. rabies
e. Jonas Salk
m. biological
f. Albert Sabin
n. physical
g. Alexander Fleming
o. nutritional
h. Wilhelm Roentgen
p. psychological
_____21. Called the Father of Bacteriology
_____22. Known as the conqueror of small pox; developed vaccination
B. Write _ /_ if the following is favorable ecological factors; then _X_ if it is unfavorable ecological
factors.
_____36. aging
_____44. stress, pathogenic organisms
_____37. adequate medical care
_____45. poor environment
_____38. good heredity
_____46. good environment
_____39. psychogenic-emotional factors
_____47. low living standards
_____40. poor heredity
_____48. emotional maturity
_____41. unhealthful practices
_____49. personal-social fulfillment
_____42. proper nutrition
_____50. peaceful community
_____43. satisfying work and recreation
Good luck
Maam Nyms
6
7
8
9
10
_________
_________
_________
_________
_________
_________
_________
_________
_________
_________
III- Make a diagram of single elimination, double ad round robin types of tournament with 6 participating
teams (30 pts.). Use separate sheet if necessary.
Good luck
Maam Nyms
Good luck
Maam Nyms
_______48. pagmamahal
_______49. kalayaan
_______50. pagbili ng motorsiklo
Good luck
Maam Nyms
____21. This refers to the physical health of the mother and her children.
a. physical aspect
b. social aspect
c. moral aspect
d. economic aspect
____22. Rearing a small family will enable the parents to attend to their children better.
a. physical aspect
b. social aspect
c. moral aspect
d. economic aspect
____23. A smaller family can more easily be handled financially.
a. physical aspect
b. social aspect
c. moral aspect
d. economic aspect
____24. A well-planned family promotes peace of mind and emotional stability among its members for
love, care, and attention can be easily be provided by the couple.
a. mental and emotional aspect b. moral aspect c. physical aspect d. social aspect
____25. The smallest unit of the society.
a. family
b. community
c. country
d. school
____26. Which is the greatest offense against the social unity of the family?
a. irresponsibility
b. infidelity
c. selfishness d. physical abuse
____27. When is the right time for marriage?
a. persons who are between 18-23 years of age
b. persons who have completed a degree and are gainfully employed
c. those who are mature physically, mentally, emotionally and socially
d. both b and c
____28. Which is the correct sequence in decision-making?
a. evaluate possible solution, set a goal, choose the best option, act on your choice
b. set a goal, evaluate possible choices, choose the best option, act on your choice
c. act on your choice, choose the best option, evaluate choices, set a goal
d. set a goal, choose the best option, evaluate possible choices, implement your choice
____29. Who should decide family size?
a. church
b. friends
c. couple
d. parents
____30. In what way can we show that we Honor our father and mother?
a. love and help our parents even if it is difficult to do
b. in case of illness, we are there to help them
c. obey rules and regulations that promote good values
d. all of the above
II- Identify the concept described in each item. Choose from the words inside the box below. Write only
the letter of your answer.
a. Family Planning
h. Family
b. Pills
i. Population Policy
c. Tubal Ligation
j. Natural Method
d. Vasectomy
k. Population Program
e. Marriage
l. Hormonal Method
f. Commitment
m. Birth Control
g. Artificial Contraceptives
____31. This is the legal union of a man and a woman.
____32. This is a socially recognized group related to each other by kinship.
____33. This gives couples the freedom to choose for themselves the number of children they want.
____34. It is a method of family planning which requires a woman to know her menstrual cycle.
____35. These contain synthetic hormones that prevent ovulation.
a. singles
b. doubles
c. set
d. let
______20. The side having the right to serve.
a. rally
b. serving side
c. receiving sided. opposing side
______21. A sequence of one or more strokes starting with the service until the shuttle ceases to be
in play.
a. rally
b. set
c. let
d. love
______22. Any shot that drops immediately after crossing the net.
a. net shot
b. drop shot
c. drive
d. smash
______23. A drop shot that is played close to the net.
a. net shot
b. drop shot
c. drive
d. smash
______24. A flat shot that is kept as low as possible to have the opponent run from side to side.
a. net shot
b. drop shot
c. drive
d. smash
______25. An attacking shot made with all the power and speed one can put into it.
a. net shot
b. drop shot
c. drive
d. smash
______26. Refers to the number of people living in a community.
a. fertility
b. birth rate
c. population
d. mortality
______27. The term used for the study of birth rate, death rate, and migration is __________.
a. demography
b. geography
c. gerontology
d. population
II- As an umpire decides on the following situations. Write P for a point, L for let, and NP for no point.
________31. During the rally, the ball goes outside the table.
________32. The player obstructs the ball.
________33. The condition of play is disturbed that affect the outcome of the rally.
________34. When a served ball touches the net but is otherwise a good serve.
________35. If a play is interrupted by the umpire.
________36. When the ball touches the edge of the table and still a good ball.
________37. The server serves the ball but the receiver is not yet ready.
________38. The receiver strikes the ball twice successfully.
________39. The players freehand touches the table while the ball is in play.
________40. The play is interrupted to correct an error in the order of service.
III-A. Draw the fundamental positions of arms and feet. (10pts.)
B. Draw a volleyball court and indicate the correct positions of the players by using the number.
(10 pts.)
Good luck
Maam Nyms
a. tradisyunal
b. ipinag-uutos
c. pampamilihan d.
pinaghalo
______32. Sa ilalim ng sistemang ito, hindi pinahihintulutan ng pamahalaan ang
pribadong pag-aari
ng ari-arian.
a. tradisyunal
b. ipinag-uutos
c.
pampamilihan
d. pinaghalo
______33. Isang sistemang pampamilihan kung saan may bahaging ginagampanan
ang pamahalaan.
a. tradisyunal
b. ipinag-uutos
c.
pampamilihan
d. pinaghalo
______34. Nakabatay ti sa napagkasunduang presyo o halaga sa pagitan ng mga
mamimili at nagtitinda. a. tradisyunal
b. ipinag-uutos
c. pampamilihan
d. pinaghalo
______35. Sa pampamilihang ekonomiya, ang malayang kalakalan ay batay
sa_______________.
a. Das Kapital
b. karapatang pantao
c. laissez faire
d. pinaghalo
II- Pagkikilala: A. Kilalanin ang ating salaping papel at barya sa pamamagitan ng
pagsulat kung sino
ang mga nakalarawan dito.
36. Piso
37. Limang Piso
38. Dalawampung Piso
39. Dalawampung Piso
40. Dalawamput Limang Piso 41. Singkwenta Pesos
42. Isandaang Piso
43. Limandaang Piso
44. Dalawangdaang Piso
45. Isanlibong Piso
B. Kilalanin ang salapi sa ibang bansa. Isulat ang katawagan sa salapi ng
sumusunod na bansa.
46. Japan
51. Saudi Arabia 47. Singapore
52. Italy 48. Thailand
53. Amerika 49. China
54. Indonesia 50. Kuwait
55. Korea III- Magbigay ng isang uri ng pamahalaan at ipaliwanag ang kanilang sistemang
pangkabuhayan.
(5 pts.)
B. Lagyan ng tsek (/) ang tapat ng pangungusap na nagpapakita kung itoy sanhi, palatandaan o
epekto ng kakapusan.
Sanhi
Palatandaan
Epekto
1. Mataas na presyo ng mga pangunahing pangangailangan
2. Alitan ng kapitalista at manggagawa
3. Mapang-abusong paggamit ng likas na yaman
4. Patuloy na pag-angkat ng pamahalaan kahit naghihirap ang
bansa
5. Mababang antas ng edukasyon
6. Maling prayoridad ng paggamit ng likas na yaman
7. Mataas na antas ng malnutrisyon
8. Pagtitipid ng lahat ng mamamayan
9. Mataas na antas ng kriminalidad
10. Pagpapatupad ng pamahalaan ng mga batas para sa
konserbasyon ng mga likas na yaman
Good Luck & Happy Graduation.
Maam Nyms
Name: ________________________________
Score:
______________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date:
_______________
I- Identification: Identify the voice used in the given sentences.
____________________1. The house was designed by Nicole.
____________________2. The lady mended her torn dress.
____________________3. The girls sold beautiful flowers.
____________________4. The boy was bitten by the dog.
____________________5. She praises the talented child.
____________________6. The dirty dishes were cleaned by my sister.
____________________7. We confirmed the news.
____________________8. We heard the sermon of the priest.
____________________9. The ball was thrown by Kim.
___________________10. He tills the land.
___________________11. The meeting was presided by the president.
___________________12. Neil received a loyalty award.
___________________13. Chit offered her help to us.
___________________14. The noise of the explosion was heard by them.
___________________15. My book was taken by someone.
II-Fill in each blank with the appropriate tag questions.
16. I didnt acknowledge his presence, __________________________?
17. Billy raises his hand, _________________________?
18. You cant do that to me, ______________________?
19. Mila has completed the papers, _______________________?
20. The kids arent allowed to go with us, _______________________?
21. Stella settled all her accounts, _________________________?
22. She hasnt heard that song, ____________________________?
23. The firemen are always alert, __________________________?
24. Louie couldnt come by plane, _________________________?
25. They should come to my party, _________________________?
26. She had collected many stuffed toys, _________________________?
27. We arent ready for the competition, _________________________?
28. The administrators meet the new superintendent, ________________________?
29. Myrna doesnt recognize her friends, ____________________________?
30. He failed to answer the last question, ____________________________?
III- In the following sentences, pick out the verbs and indicate whether
they are active or passive.
31. The experiment was done in 30 minutes.
32. After the class, James verified the result of his Science exam.
33. Soap and water were used in the experiment.
34. A thorough discussion of the result of the experiment was headed by the group
leader.
35. The Science teacher believed in the feasibility of the students project.
36. After doing a series of procedures, the junior scientists made the appearance of
three colors
on the paper possible.
37. The group that successfully conducted the experiment was recognized.
38. The procedures of the experiment were questioned by the teacher.
39. Pieces of paper of different colors were used in the experiment.
40. The researcher gathered enough reference materials for his science study.
IV. Choose the right word from the words in parentheses. Underline the
correct answer.
41. The two leaders signed a (piece, peace) treaty.
42. Would you like to try a (piece, peace) of pecan pie?
43. Loren has (already, all ready) decided that she wants to be a veterinarian.
44. We studied the (principles, principals) of government in social studies.
45. The (principle, principal) actors took their bows.
46. I am (quiet, quite) nervous about going to high school.
47. That movie was (to, too) funny for words.
48. Call us when (your, youre) ready.
49. If the (weather, whether) permits, we will have a picnic.
50. The coach says (your, youre) the best hitter on the team.
V- Select the most appropriate meaning of the word listed below. Write
your answer on the
blank.
ecosystem
ecoterrorism
ecowarriors
ecofriendly
ecotype
ecofeminism
ecolike
ecofreak
ecology
ecotourism
a. amphetamines
b. cocaine
c. caffeine
d. shabu
_______17. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks and some wake up
pills.
a. amphetamines
b. cocaine
c. caffeine
d. shabu
_______18. It is sometimes called upper or speed.
a. amphetamines
b. cocaine
c. caffeine
d. shabu
_______19. An active component in tobacco which acts as a powerful stimulant of
central nervous
system. a. shabu
b. nicotine
c. cocaine
d. caffeine
_______20. The most abused depressant.
a. alcohol
b. barbiturate
c. seconal
d.
tranquilizer
_______21. Drugs that calm and diminish anxiety.
a. alcohol
b. barbiturate
c. seconal
d.
tranquilizer
_______22. The most commonly abused hallucinogen in the Philippines.
a. marijuana
b. LSD
c. ecstacy
d. shabu
_______23. The botanical name of marijuana.
a. indica mangifera
b. panocha
c. cannabis sativa d.
reefer
_______24. The main psychoactive substance in marijuana.
a. hash oil
b. tetrahydrocannabinol c. poppy
d.
hashish
_______25. Also known as psychedelics.
a. hallucinogens
b. stimulants
c. depressants
d.
narcotics
II-Put a check (/) if the statement is correct and (x) if the statement is wrong.
_______26. Non-prescription drugs are those drugs which can be bought from
drugstores and sarisari stores.
_______27. A person misuses a drugs by failing to follow directions.
_______28. Drug misuse is the correct use of medicine which is being taken for
health reasons.
_______29. Tranquilizers produce mind-altering effects.
_______30. It is good to use leftover medicines in order to economize.
_______31. Smoking is harmful to the body.
_______32. The poisonous substance found in cigarette is cocaine.
_______33. Smoking increases ones appetite.
_______34. There is more good than harm in smoking.
_______35. Marijuana distorts the senses of taste, touch, smell and hearing.
III-A. Find the correct answer from the list and write the corresponding letter on the
space before
the number.
a. badminton
g. love
b. basketball
h. shuttlecock
c. volleyball
i. point
d. track and field
j. track oval
e. Libero
k. William Morgan
f. deuce
_______36. A game composed of 5 players in each team.
_______37. His main duty is to stop, retrieve the ball, and make a defensive play
only.
_______38. Means no score.
_______39. It is an area wherein most of the running and walking races are played.
_______40. A tie score.
_______41. It is played over the net using a shuttlecock and a racket.
_______42. A ball used in playing badminton.
_______43. It is a branch of competitive sports involving running, walking, throwing
and jumping.
_______44. A score made by the serving team.
a. convulsion
b. epilepsy c. eclampsia d. stroke
________8. A medical condition results from a blockage of blood flow or bleeding in
the brain.
a. convulsion
b. epilepsy c. eclampsia d. stroke
________9. Technical term of heart attack.
a. stroke b. myocardial infarction c. arteriosclerosis d. angina pectoris
_______10. An area of tissue that has died because of oxygen starvation
a. infarct b. stroke
c. arteriosclerosis d. angina pectoris
_______11. The unscientific term that is applied to the event that occurs when blood
clots.
a. infarct
b. heart attack
c. stroke
d. hypertension
_______12. A common complication of injury, burns and other conditions
a. shock
b. heart attack
c. convulsion
d. stroke
_______13. It is considered as a chronic disease, often progressive and fatal.
a. heart attack b. alcoholism
c. shock
d. stroke
_______14.This lifesaving technique is applicable to a range of emergencies,
including cardiac
arrest, choking episode, and drowning.
a. ABC
b. CPR
c. clear the airway d. protection
_______15. Drug abuse is common among
a. teenagers
b. children
c. adult
d. any
person
_______16. Smoking affects the
a. digestive system
b. endocrine system
c. respiratory system
d. excretory system
_______17. These are drugs that increase certain functions of the central nervous
system.
a. stimulants
b. depressants
c. narcotics d. shabu
_______18. These are used medically for weight reduction among obese people,
relief of mild depression and treatment of narcolepsy.
a. amphetamines
b. cocaine c. caffeine d. shabu
_______19. It is taken orally, injected or sniffed to achieve euphoria or intense feeling
of highness.
a. amphetamines
b. cocaine c. caffeine d. shabu
_______20. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks and some wake up pills.
a. amphetamines
b. cocaine c. caffeine d. shabu
_______21. An active component in tobacco which acts as a powerful stimulant of the
central
nervous system.
a. cocaine
b. nicotine
c. ecstasy
d. shabu
_______22. It is also known as the rich mans hug drug.
a. cocaine
b. nicotine
c. ecstasy
d. shabu
_______23. Drugs that sometimes used to combat fatigue, prevent drowsiness,
reduce appetite and
treat nervous system disorders.
a. stimulants
b. depressants
c. hallucinogens
d.
amphetamines
_______24. The common name for methedrine is
a. speed
b. ubas
c. heart
d.
metamphetamine
_______25. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 is about
a. prohibited drugs
b. regulated drugs
c. proper use of drugs
d. all of these
II- Modified True or False: Write TRUE if the statement is true. If it is false, replace
the underlined word with the term that will make the statement true.
_______________________26. James Naismith invented the game softball.
_______________________27. Poona was the first name given to badminton.
_______________________28. Hot corner refers to the first base.
_______________________29. Body Muscular Index is the sum total of your height and
weight.
_______________________30. Jogging is the capacity of each individual to accomplish
daily tasks with
alertness and vigor.
g. testes
h. gigantism
i. adrenalin
j. chromosomes
k. genes
III-Choosing from the group of words given below, identify the answer to the given
statements.
Write your answer on the blank.
thyroid
thymus
pineal
ovaries and testes
adrenals
parathyroid
pancreas
endocrine glands
pituitary
estrogen
________________________31. regulates blood sugar level
________________________32. regulates body metabolism
________________________33. influences male and female traits
________________________34. balances calcium level in the blood
________________________35. enables the body to produce antibodies
________________________36. affects activities of the ovaries
________________________37. stimulates growth
________________________38. hormone secreted by the ovaries
________________________39. prepares the body for action in times of emergency
________________________40. produce hormones that act as messengers in the
bloodstream
IV- Write P if the change is physical; M if mental; S if social, and E if emotional.
______41. going out with friends
______46. lives independently
______42. growth of pubic hair
______47. love at first sight
______43. onset of menstruation for girls
______48. broadening of pelvis for girls
______44. change of voice for boys
______49. appearance of pimples
______45. ability to judge
______50. increase in height and weight
Good luck..
Maam Nyms
______20. Takes charge of the medical examinations of students, teachers and other
school personnel
a. school nurse b. school physician c. school dentist
d. teachers
______21. These are preliminary evaluations of the state of development and
function of the various
body organs.
a. screening test b. teacher observation
c. vision
test d. hearing test
______22. This is done by the school dentist who will give information on proper
caring and importance of the teeth.
a. teacher observation b. screening test c. medical exam
d.
dental
exam