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NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato


SECOND PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 8A & B
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
1. How is Chinese music described?
a. It is gentle and lyrical
c. It is meditative and highly ritualized
b. It is slow in tempo and is very peaceful
d. It is slow and melancholy
2. Which of the following is one of Chinas most popular instruments?
a. haegum
b. erhu
c. koto
d. shamisen
3. Which Korean music category is traditionally ssociated with the lower class?
a. tang-ak
b. chong-ak
c. sog-ak
d. a-ak
4. Which Japanese instrument is called the dragon flute?
a. shinobue
b. hichiriki
c. ryuteki
d. shakuhachi
5. A Korean folk song used as a symbol of Korea and Korean culture.
a. Arirang
b. chong-ak
c. sog-ak
d. a-ak
6. It has a literal meaning of music for the noble classes.
a. ching
b. chong-ak
c. sog-ak
d. tang-ak
7. The sound of such an instrument or any similar sound.
a. clarion
b. ensembles
c. form
d. homophony
8. It is a texture in which two or more parts move together in harmony.
a. heterophony
b. homophony
c. form
d. improvisation
9. This is a classical Japanese dance-drama.
a. hichiriki
b. gagaku
c. kabuki
d. kayagum
10. The folk song of Japan
a. shinobue
b. minyo
c. nokan
d. odaiko
11. A traditional Japanese folk song depicting spring, the season of Cherry Blossoms.
a. ryuteki
b. pansori
c. piri
d. sakura
12. The indigenous spirituality of Japan and the people of Japan.
a. Shinto
b. sho
c. taiko
d. tsuridaiko
13. The traditional Chinese flute
a. Dizi
b. Zheng
c. Sheng
d. Yunluo
14. It is an ancient Chinese instrument
a. Dizi
b. Zheng
c. Sheng
d. Yunluo
15. The most famous flute of Japan which is made from bamboo
a. nokan
b. sho
c. shakuhachi
d. hichiriki
16. A Canadian clergyman, educator, and physician who introduced basketball
a. Dr. Luther Gulick
b. James Naismith
c. Larry Bird
d. Michael Jordan
17. It is the most important skill in basketball
a. shooting
b. dribbling
c. passing
d. catching
18. A basic skill done by pushing the ball repeatedly to the floor
a. shooting
b. dribbling
c. passing
d. catching
19. Passing the ball to another player at chest level
a. chest pass
b. overhead pass
c. bounce pass
d. baseball pass
20. It is done to start the game
a. shooting
b. dribbling
c. jump shot
d. jump ball
21. It is done when the ball is dead as permitted by the table official
a. foul
b. violation
c. end of the game
d. substitution
22. It divides the court into two equal halves
a. center line
b. center circle
c. free throw line
d. restricted area
23. It is drawn at the middle of the court
a. center line
b. center circle
c. free throw line
d. restricted area
24. The lane on the basketball court extending from the end line to 15 ft. in front of the back court
a. center line
b. center circle
c. free throw line
d. restricted area
25. Any infraction or violation of the rules of the game
a. foul
b. misconduct
c. drive
d. penalty
26. The defensive zone for each team
a. center line
b. restricted area
c. back court
d. front court
27. One of the major aspects of the game
a. rebounding
b. passing
c. shooting
d. dribbling
28. The term used to refer to the officiating official in basketball
a. umpire
b. timer
c. referee
d. coach

29. A type of play in team sports wherein the team plays in possession of the ball aiming at earning points
through shooting
a. defensive play
b. offensive play
c. goal tending
d. offensive play
30. A spectacular scoring maneuver when a player jumps high, reaches above a ring and stuffs the ball
down through the hoop
a. dunk shot
b. rebound
c. lay up
d. assist

MATALAM NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


Linao, Matalam, Cotabato
FIRST PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 8A & B
MUSIC
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
______1. A country known for being the sole nation in Southeast Asia that has never been ruled by a
Western power.
a. Laos
b. Thailand
c. Vietnam
d. Singapore
______2. Thailand is a country which is also called Muang Thai which means
a. Land of the morning
c. Land of Promise
b. Land of the Free
d. Promise Land
______3. This musical ensemble of Thailand is a mid-sized orchestra that is performed in either outdoor
style with hard mallets or indoor style with padded mallets.
a. Piphat
b. pinpeat
c. gamelan
d. hsaing waing
______4. It is an orchestra that combines some of the percussion and wind instruments of the piphat with
an expanded string section.
a. piphat
b. Khrueang Sai
c. Mahori
d. Pinpeat
______5. A Cambodian musical ensemble
a. oneat
b. gamelan
c. piphat
d. pinpeat
______6. It is the most popular form of music in Indonesia.
a. piphat
b. gamelan
c. oneat
d. pinpeat
______7. Myanmars traditional folk music ensemble
a. hsaing waing
b. maung hsaing
c. kyi waing
d. pat waing
______8. This is a musical ensemble from the Malay Peninsula that consists of xylophones played swiftly
rhythmically in traditional Malay functions.
a. kertok
b. silat melayu
c. dikit barat
d. agung
______9. This is a form of martial art that is similar to tai chi.
a. kertok
b. silat melayu
c. dikit barat
d. agung
_____10. This is a type of music form that is important to Malaysias national culture.
a. kertok
b. silat melayu
c. dikit barat
d. agung
_____11. It is considered to be one of the finest arts in the world.
a. ikat technique
b. uneven twill
c. Thai silk making
d. Cambodian textile
_____12. It is produced from the cocoons of Thai silkworms
a. Thai silk
b. silk weaving
c. Ikat technique
d. uneven twill
_____13. The center of the silk industry in Thailand
a. Khorat
b. karma
c. sihns
d. takeo
_____14. Defined as the ability to become and stay physically healthy
a. aerobics
b. dancing
c. health-related fitness d. skill-related fitness
_____15. The ratio of the body fat to lean body mass
a. body composition
b. fitness
c. force
d. wellness
_____16. Refers to the maximum amount of force a muscle exerts against an opposing force.
a. agility
b. balance
c. speed
d. strenght
_____17. The following are health-related fitness EXCEPT:
a. body composition b. flexibility
c. speed
d. strength
_____18. Heaviness and lightness of a person
a. age
b. height
c. waist circumference d. weight
_____19. The distance between the floor to the top of the head in standing position is called
a. arms span
b. height
c. leg length
d. sitting height
_____20. Exercises for cardio-respiratory endurance
a. basketball pass
b. jogging
c. shuttle run
d. zipper test
_____21. The Body Mass Index or (BMI) is a component of physical fitness which is used to determine
your normal:
a. vital statistics
b. weight and height ratio
c. height
d. waist measurement
_____22. A normal body mass index helps prevent metabolic diseases such as
a. malaria and high fever
c. HIV or AIDS
b. cancer, diabetes and hypertension
d. leprosy and small pox
_____23. It is the capacity of each individual to accomplish daily task with alertness and vigor.
a. good life
b. physical education c. physical fitness
d. strength
_____24. Walking to school and climbing up stairs are examples of activities which illustrate a
component of physical
fitness known as:
a. physiological or aerobic fitness b. flexibility
c. strength
d. Body Mass Index
_____25. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
_____26. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance

b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
_____27. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_____28. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_____29. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_____30. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____31. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____32. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____33. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____34. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
_____35. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
_____36. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
_____37. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
_____38. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
_____39. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
_____40. It means you can carry out everyday tasks without becoming too tired.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
_____41. What term defines a man or a woman based on biological characteristics?
a. sex
b. gender
c. sexuality
d. androgyny
_____42. Which of the following illustrates gender?
a. Miguel loves to cook
c. Hazal has a positive body image
b. Marco does not cry in public
d. Alex is attracted to Fely
_____43. What do you call the sets of activities that society considers as appropriate for men and women?
a. gender role
b. gender identity
c. gender equality
d. gender sensitivity
_____44. Why is it important to understand human sexuality?
a. We will all be mature adults.
c. There is a specific age for developing ones
b. We have similar sexuality issues d. It will help us build a better relationship with
ourselves and others
_____45. Which characterizes a good decision?
a. Easy to make
c. One that your teacher told you to make
b. Makes your friends happy
d. Arrived at after a thoughtful
consideration of consequences
_____46. This means evaluating your well-being periodically which includes you sexuality
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____47. It helps you avoid misunderstanding by expressing your feelings in a healthy way.
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____48. Means making choices that are healthy and responsible.
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____49. It can be accomplished through information about good sexuality.
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____50. It is a choice you make or act upon.
a. decision
b. objectives
c. purpose
d. aim

Good luck
Mam NYMS

MATALAM NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


Linao, Matalam, Cotabato
FOURTH PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 8B & C
Name: ________________________________
Score: _____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided
before each number.
A. MUSIC
______1. What country is rich in culture and tradition?
a. China
b. Japan
c.Indonesia
d. Malaysia
______2. A country which is known for their Show Puppet Theatre.
a. China
b. Japan
c.Indonesia
d. Malaysia
______3. One of the popular traditional songs of Japan
a. Kabuki
b. Noh
c. Sakura
d. Joruri
______4. It is one of the most beautiful country in Southeast Asia.
a. Cambodia
b. Indonesia
c. Laos
d. Malaysia
______5. The worlds fourth most populous country and is the fourth biggest nation in the world
a. Laos
b. Indonesia
c. Malaysia
d. Myanmar
______6. Known as Burma until 1989.
a. Laos
b. Indonesia
c. Malaysia
d. Myanmar
______7. A constitutional monarchy in Southeast Asia
a. Laos
b. Indonesia
c. Malaysia
d. Myanmar
______8. A Cambodian musical ensemble
a. oneat
b. gamelan
c. piphat
d. pinpeat
______9. It is the most popular form of music in Indonesia.
a. piphat
b. gamelan
c. oneat
d. pinpeat
_____10. It describes the subtle delivery of political text written in the Japanese metrical form of
alternating seven and five syllables.
a. Sakura
b. Cherry Blossoms
c. Yakuharai
d. Nagauta
_____11. Which of the following is one of Chinas most popular instruments?
a. haegum
b. erhu
c. koto
d. shamisen
_____12. Which Korean music category is traditionally ssociated with the lower class?
a. tang-ak
b. chong-ak
c. sog-ak
d. a-ak
_____13. Which Japanese instrument is called the dragon flute?
a. shinobue
b. hichiriki
c. ryuteki
d. shakuhachi
_____14. A Korean folk song used as a symbol of Korea and Korean culture.
a. Arirang
b. chong-ak
c. sog-ak
d. a-ak
_____15. It has a literal meaning of music for the noble classes.
a. ching
b. chong-ak
c. sog-ak
d. tang-ak
B. ARTS
______ 1. The shadow puppets in Thailand are:
a. Leather Monkey Show
b. Nang
c. Togalu Gombeyaata d. Wayang Kulit
______2. ________ is played with leather puppets, each representing a separate character and usually
possesses a movable, jointed arm controlled by a string.
a. Nang Talung
b. Nang Yai
c. Wayang Golek
d. Wayang Kulit
______3. It is the teacher and presenter of Nang Talung.
a. Sida
b. Ramayana
c. Nang Yai
d. Nai Nang
______4. The Dragon dance team _________ the movements of the river spirit in a flowing, rise and fall
manner.
a. pantomime
b. tableau
c. mimics
d. sings
______5. Men and children usually wear ______ every Chinese New Year or Spring Festival.
a. Balinese costumes
b. Kimono
c. Kung Fu suits
d. Saya and barong
Tagalog
______6. It is the Japanese drum festival
a. Chinese New Year Festival
c. Dragon Festival
b. Kodo Taiko Drum Festival
d. Balinese Dance Festival
______7. The taiko drums with other traditional instruments like ______ are visible in their performance.
a. erhu
b. fue and shamisen
c. sticks beat
d. percussions beat
______8. The following are the characters in Nang except ______________.
a. gods and goddesses b. Kings and Queens c. magical figures
d. current events
______9. How do you call the Taiko drummer in Japanese?
a. hachimaki
b. tabi
c. odaiko
d. uchike

______10. Traditional Chinese dance usually seen during the Chinese New Year Celebration. This dance
is based on a mythical creature believed by Chinese people.
a. dragon dance
b. lion dance
c. snake dance
d. bali dance
______11. The Chinese people believe that performing the lion and dragon dances ____________.
a. makes the country more wealthy
c. tells the people to reconcile
b. drives bad luck and evil spirits away
d. makes the people more healthy
______12. Which of the following props cannot be seen in the Chinese Spring Festival?
a. Chinese fans
b. Chinese lanterns
c. dragon puppets
d. Wayang Kulit
puppets
______13. What particular term is used for sky lantern?
a. Chiang Mai
b. Khom Fai
c. Loy Krathong
d. Yi Peng
______14. It is a festival in Thailand to honor the goddess of water.
a. Chiang Mai
b. Khom Fai
c. Loy Krathong
d. Yi Peng
______15. It literally means to float.
a. loy
b. chiang
c. krathong
d. fai
C. P.E.
_______1. All are basic skills in football EXCEPT______.
a. defense
b. running and kicking
c. speed
d. sliding
_______2. The only one who can use his hands on the ball is the _________.
a. center halfback
b. goalkeeper
c. left fullback
d. right fullback
_______3. When the ball touched by the defending team crosses the goal line, a _____ kick is awarded.
a. corner
b. free
c. goal
d. side
_______4. Kicks that require second touch by another player before the goal is counted are called ______
kicks.
a. corner
b. free
c. indirect free
d. direct free
_______5. All the offenses bring about free kicks EXCEPT _________.
a. displaying ungentlemanly conduct
b. holding an opponent
c. showing dissent toward the referee
d. none of these
_______6. The game of football starts with a
a. dribbling relay
b. kick-off
c. throw-in
d. jump ball
_______7. When the ball goes out of the line, a _________ is awarded to the opponent.
a. drop ball
b. free kick
c. throw-in
d. point
_______8. One of the rules on free kicks is that the ball must be ______ when the kick is taken.
a. bouncing
b. rolling
c. stationary
d. off the
ground
_______9. Pushing an opponent is an offense that brings about a/an _________.
a. direct free kick
b. indirect free kick
c. corner kick
d. side kick
______10. A batter is out after _______ strikes.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
______11. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______14. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______15. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
D. HEALTH
a. Indicate if the factor that influence people to abuse drugs or alcohol is ------physical, psychological,
social, mental, or economic.
1. malnutrition
2. loss of interest to study
3. deterioration of the mind
4. accidents in industry
5. skin infection and skin rashes
6. dependence on family resources
7. loss of drive and ambitionb. The following are known dangers of cigarette smoking and tobacco use. Arrange the letters for each
item to decipher the word(s).

8. H H I G B O O L D E R U S E S R P
Hint: Too much exertion of blood against the arteries causing damage
9. E T A R H I D A S S E E S
Hint: Involves the cardiovascular system
10. O Y B D O O R D
Hint: Effect of cigarette smoke to your body scent
11. S I T R I C H B O N
Hint: Inflammation of the airways from the trachea into the lungs
12. D A B A T E B R H
Hint: Foul smell exhaled from the mouth
13. S E A Y H E M P M
Hint: Damaged airsacs in the lungs
14. N E A O N I P M U
Hint: Infection of the lungs
15. T A S H A M
Hint: A chronic disease which affects the airways

MATALAM NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


Linao, Matalam, Cotabato
FOURTH PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 7C & D
Name: ________________________________
Score: _____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided
before each number.
A. MUSIC
______1. It is the smallest unit of music.
a. motif
b. form
c. musical form
d. phrase
______2. The organization of musical elements to achieve utmost symmetry and balance.
a. form
b. musical form
c. motif
d. phrase
______3. It is related to shapes, structure, organization, and coherence.
a. form
b. musical form
c. motif
d. phrase
______4. It is a melodic statement that is usually recognized apart from the prevailing musical texture.
a. form
b. musical form
c. motif
d. phrase
______5. It is a combination of notes that leads the listener to the end part of the song.
a. cadence
b. phrase
c. motif
d. strophic
______6. The simplest of all forms.
a. strophic
b. cadence
c. phrase
d. motif
______7. What do you call if a phrase is repeated at a higher or lower pitch with different degrees of
tones?
a. sequence
b. unitary form
c. binary form
d. ternary form
______8. It has only one section, and remains on the some key.
a. unitary form
b. binary form
c. ternary form
d. sequence
______9. When a composition has two sections and ends on the second section
a. unitary form
b. binary form
c. ternary form
d. sequence
______10. A composition with three sections and the third of which is the repetition of the first
a. unitary form
b. binary form
c. ternary form
d. sequence
______11. A systematic, structured and organized sound.
a. music
b. noise
c. timbre
d. tone color
______12. It refers to the degree of loudness and softness of sound.
a. tempo
b. articulation
c. dynamics
d. tone color
______13. Refers to the quality of sound that distinguishes one instrument from another.
a. timbre
b. tone color
c. vocal timbre
d. both a and b
______14. It consists of five parallel lines and four squares.
a. staff
b. clef
c. note
d. rest
______15. The higest female voice is called
a. soprano
b. mezzo soprano
c. alto
d. tenor
B. ARTS
______1. To which form of art do drawing, painting, and sculpture belong to?
a. performing art
b. practical art
c. visual art
d. natural art
______2. Form of art which use the artists bodies, faces, movements, and presence as media.
a. performing art
b. practical art
c. visual art
d. natural art
______3. Lines that are parallel to the ground, they are lying down. They evoke peace and calmness.
a. vertical lines
b. horizontal lines
c. diagonal lines
d. curved lines
______4. Seem to stand at attention. They show dignity and strength.
a. diagonal lines
b. vertical lines
c. horizontal lines
d. zigzag lines
______5. Lines which suggest action and nervous excitement.
a. diagonal lines
b. vertical lines
c. horizontal lines
d. zigzag lines
______6. Element of art that is derived from reflected light.
a. line
b. color
c. shape
d. texture
______7. Red, yellow, and blue are examples of __________.
a. primary colors
b. secondary colors
c. tertiary colors
d.
complementary colors
______8. A property of color concerned with the lightness or darkness of a hue.
a. hue
b. value
c. intensity
d. tint
______9. Two colors opposite each other on the color wheel.
a. primary colors
b. secondary colors
c. tertiary colors
d. complementary colors
______10. You can produce the secondary color green by mixing ___________.
a. blue and red
b. yellow and blue
c. red and yellow
d. yellow, red,
and blue

______11. An organized creative arrangement of the elements of art such as line, color, shape, and form
or texture
a. design
b. pattern
c. balance
d. unity
______12. It is the repetition of a particular element of art in a single composition.
a. composition
b. design
c.pattern
d.balance
______13. The principle of art concerned with making an element or object in a work stand out.
a. harmony
b. emphasis
c. rhythm
d. unity
______14. It is concerned with combining related art elements to create a pleasing appearance.
a. harmony
b. emphasis
c. rhythm
d. unity
______15. To create a feeling of oneness, an art should have ______
a. harmony
b. emphasis
c. rhythm
d. unity
C. P.E.
______1. Exercises for cardio-respiratory endurance
a. basketball pass
b. jogging
c. shuttle run
d. zipper test
______2. The Body Mass Index or (BMI) is a component of physical fitness which is used to determine
your normal:
a. vital statistics
b. weight and height ratio
c. height
d. waist measurement
______3. A normal body mass index helps prevent metabolic diseases such as
a. malaria and high fever
c. HIV or AIDS
b. cancer, diabetes and hypertension
d. leprosy and small pox
______4. It is the capacity of each individual to accomplish daily task with alertness and vigor.
a. good life
b. physical education c. physical fitness
d. strength
______5. Walking to school and climbing up stairs are examples of activities which illustrate a
component of physical fitness known as:
a. physiological or aerobic fitness b. flexibility
c. strength
d. Body Mass Index
______6. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
______7. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
______8. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______9. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______10. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______11. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______14. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______15. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
D. HEALTH
______1. Substances intended for use in cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of diseases in man or
animals.
a. drugs
b. natural drugs
c. synthetic drugs
d. stimulants
______2. A kind of drugs that includes natural plant leaves, flowering tops, resin, hashish, opium and
marijuana.
a. drugs
b. natural drugs
c. synthetic drugs
d. stimulants
______3. Which of these drugs are controlled by law because they are used in medical practice?
a. natural drugs
b. synthetic drugs
c. antibiotics
d. anesthetics

______4. Drugs that directly activate vital body functions such as those of the central nervous sytem.
a. drugs
b. natural drugs
c. synthetic drugs
d. stimulants
______5. Group of divisive volatile substances normally not considered as drugs.
a. stimulant
b. inhalant
c. antihistamine
d. antibiotic
______6. Drugs which numb the senses, induce lethargy and stupor and relieve pain.
a. inhalants
b. stimulants
c. narcotics
d. antiseptics
______7. Drugs used to inhibit the growth and multiplication of microorganisms.
a. inhalants
b. stimulants
c. narcotics
d. antiseptics
______8. Drugs used to counteract the action of certain substances which cause allergy.
a. stimulant
b. inhalant
c. antihistamine
d. antibiotic
______9. Drugs that calm and diminish anxiety.
a. alcohol
b. barbiturate
c. seconal
d. tranquilizer
______10. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia.
a. barbiturate
b. shabu
c. alcohol
d. seconal
______11. Which would be the easiest for you to do with your classmate whom you found to have
marijuana stick in his pocket?
a. talk with him
b. talk with his parent c. talk with his friends d. talk with the officials
______12. What would you do if you see that your best friend is manifesting symptoms of amphetamine
abuse?
a. tell your health teacher b. ignore him
c. talk to him personally
d. tell his parents
______13. If you learned that a classmate was surrendered to the Constabulary Anti-Narcotics Unit, you
will feel
a. happy about it
b. sad about it
c. sorry about it
d. dont mind about it
______14. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength, and
manner.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive drugs
______15. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons.
a. drug abuse
b. drug misuse
c. drug use
d. over-the-counter drugs

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FIRST PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 7
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
1. What causes the vibration of an objects ?
a. noise
b. sound
c. music
d. pitch
2. A sound that is organized, systematic, and structured is called ______.
a. noise
b. sound
c. music
d. pitch
3. A kind of sounds that are unpleasant and disorganized.
a. noise
b. sound
c. music
d. pitch
4. A song they sing during Camote planting season.
a. oggayam
b. bagbagto
c. dissodi
d. fallugay
5. Which of the following is the music of Isneg?
a. bagbagto
b. ayegka
c. oggayam
d. ayoweng
6. Which of the following is an epic song which tells the story of Banna?
a. ullalim
b. ayegka
c. dissodi
d. oggayam
7. Which of the following is not the characteristics of ullalim?
a. Song from te Northern part of Kalinga
b. Written in verse form.
c. It has 5 syllables in every line.
d. It tells a story and legend up a distinguish people.
8. It is known as the salt capital of the region during the pre-Hispanic times.
a. Ilocos region
b. Pangasinan
c. Benguet
d. Ifugao
9. The term used for beating of the cotton balls using bamboo sticks to separate the seeds during initial
stage.
a. timalik
b. sagut
c. binatbatan
d. panagabel
10. The oldest Ilocano tradition that they have inherited from their ancestors.
a. timalik
b. sagut
c. binatbatan
d. panagabel
11. They are known as hillside dwellers.
a. Igorots
b. Tagalogs
c. Ibalois
d. Ilocanos
12. It is located in the Cordillera Central mountain and known for its hanging coffins and mummified
bodies.
a. Ifugao
b. Benguet
c. Pangasinan
d. Mountain Province
13. Which of the following is an important part of Pampanga culture and a source of artistic expression?
a. canon-making
b. weaving
c. basket-making
d. food
14. Form of folk arts in Mountain Province which signifies a site of passage from youth to adult life or
heroism, status in the community, and bravery.
a. Tatoo
b. basketry
c. weaving
d. cooking
15. Pampanga is known for its ________.
a. foods
b. weaving
c. giant lanterns or parol
d. carvings
16. What is the reason why the houses of Batanes are made of limestones?
a. because they are always experiencing earthquakes
b. because they are always experiencing typhoons
c. because of the cold weather
d. because they are always experiencing war
17. It is the capacity of each individual to accomplish daily task with alertness and vigor.
a. good life
b. physical education c. physical fitness
d. strength
18. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
19. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need ti take an action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
20. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
21. Walking to school and climbing up stairs are examples of activities which illustrates a component of
physical fitness known as ______.
a. physiological or aerobic fitness
c. strength
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
22. Which sport is best for agility
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
23. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower back?
a. sit and reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
28 . Leap, cross-step, pause.
a. Cross and change step
b. contragonza
b. Change step
d.

29. Cross-step, close, step.


a. Cross and change step
b. contragonza
b. Change step
d.
rd
30. Which of the following is the 3 feet fundamental position?
a. heels closed, toes open
b. Open position with heels in line
c. Heel of one foot at in-step
d. Heel of front foot close to big toe of rear foot
31. It means you can carry out everyday tasks without becoming too tired.
a. physical health
b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
32. It involves understanding and liking yourself as well as accepting and learning from your mistakes.
a. physical health
b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
33. It refers to how well you get aling with other people.
a. physical health
b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
34. It refers to your personal beliefs, values and faith.
a. physical health
b. moral-spiritual health
c. emotional health
d. social health
35. Which of the following describe emotional health?
a. eating a balanced diet regularly
b. getting enough rest and sleep
c. consulting parents about your problems
d. listening to mood music
36. Which of the following is true among boys and girls during puberty?
a. Boys become more aggressive than girls.
b.
c.
d.

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FOURTH PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 7
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
1. Substances intended for use in cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of diseases in man or animals.
a. drugs
b. natural drugs
c. synthetic drugs
d. stimulants
2. A kind of drugs that includes natural plant leaves, flowering tops, resin, hashish, opium and marijuana.
a. drugs
b. natural drugs
c. synthetic drugs
d. stimulants

3. Which of these drugs are controlled by law because they are used in medical practice?
a. natural drugs
b. synthetic drugs
c. antibiotics
d. anesthetics
4. Drugs that directly activate vital body functions such as those of the central nervous sytem.
a. drugs
b. natural drugs
c. synthetic drugs
d. stimulants
5. Group of divisive volatile substances normally not considered as drugs.
a. stimulant
b. inhalant
c. antihistamine
d. antibiotic
6. Drugs which numb the senses, induce lethargy and stupor and relieve pain.
a. inhalants
b. stimulants
c. narcotics
d. antiseptics
7. Drugs used to inhibit the growth and multiplication of microorganisms.
a. inhalants
b. stimulants
c. narcotics
d. antiseptics
8. Drugs used to counteract the action of certain substances which cause allergy.
a. stimulant
b. inhalant
c. antihistamine
d. antibiotic
9. Drugs that calm and diminish anxiety.
a. alcohol
b. barbiturate
c. seconal
d. tranquilizer
10. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia.
a. barbiturate
b. shabu
c. alcohol
d. seconal
11. Which would be the easiest for you to do with your classmate whom you found to have marijuana
stick in his
pocket?
a. talk with him
b. talk with his parent c. talk with his friends d. talk with the
officials
12. What would you do if you see that your best friend is manifesting symptoms of amphetamine abuse?
a. tell your health teacher
b. ignore him
c. talk to him personally
d. tell
his parents
13. If you learned that a classmate was surrendered to the Constabulary Anti-Narcotics Unit, you will feel
a. happy about it
b. sad about it
c. sorry about it
d. dont mind
about it
14. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength, and manner.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive
drugs
15. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons.
a. drug abuse
b. drug misuse
c. drug use
d. over-thecounter drugs
16. Drugs which may suppress or inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
a. stimulant b. inhalant
c. antihistamine
d. antibiotic
17. Drugs that directly slow vital body functions such as those of the nervous system.
a. depressant
b. hallucinogens
c. anesthetics
d. antibiotic
18. Drugs that alter mood, perception, thinking and ego structure so that the user cannot distinguish the
real from
the unreal.
a. depressant b. hallucinogens
c. anesthetics
d. antibiotic
19. These are non-prescription medicines which may be purchased from any pharmacy or drugstore
without
written authorization from a doctor.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive
drugs
20. Drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor in order to allow a purchase.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive
drugs
21. These are gaseous substances popularly known to abusers as gos or teardrops.
a. seconal
b. volatile solvents
c. tranquilizers
d. alcohol
22. A derivative of morphine, commonly available in cough preparations.
a. codeine
b. paregoric
c. heroin
d. morphine
23. It is the most commonly used and best used opiate,
a. heroin
b. codeine
c. morphine
d. opium
24. These are drugs which suppress vital body functions especially those of the brain or central nervous
system.
a. depressants
b. narcotics
c. stimulants
d.
hallucinogens
25. It is a central nervous system stimulant and sometimes called upper or speed
a. cocaine
b. caffeine
c. nicotine
d. shabu
26. An active component of tobacco which acts as a powerful stimulant of the central nervous system.
a. cocaine
b. caffeine
c. shabu
d. nicotine
27. A poisonous substance found in cigarettes that cause an intense desire to smoke.
a. acetaldehyde
b. nicotine
c. carbon monoxide
d. tar
28. A brown sticky material when the particles in cigarette smoke are cooled.
a. nicotine
b. carbon monoxide
c. tar
d. benzyne
29The most dangerous gas in cigarette smoke.
a. carbon monoxide
b. nicotine
c. tar
d. nitric acid
30. Is inhaling cigarette smoke from others who smoke, even if you are not smoking.

a. involuntary smoking
smoke

b. voluntary smoking

c. mainstream smoke

d. sidestream

31. It is inhaled and then exhaled by a smoker.


a. involuntary smoking
b. voluntary smoking
c. mainstream smoke d. sidestream
smoke
32. Drugs that cause changes in a persons mood or behavior.
a. abused drugs
b. over-the-counter drugs c. prescriptive drugs
d. stimulants
33. These are used by hospitality girls.
a. seconal
b. volatile solvents
c. tranquilizers
d. alcohol
34. Cigarette smoking primarily caused the _____________ system.
a. digestive
b. respiratory
c. circulatory
d. excretory
35. How many beats per minute does the heart increases wen one is smoking?
a. 5 beats per minute
b. 10 beats per minute
c. 15 beats per minute d. 20 beats per
minute
From 36-42, identify the effects of drug abuse as physical, psychological, social, mental, and economic.
36. malnutrition 37. loss of interest to study 38. leads to crime 39. inability to hold stable job 40. adverse effect on the central nervous system 41. irritability, rebellion of attitude 42. dependence on family resources 43. It is commonly used as a household remedy for diarrhea and abdominal pain.
a. codeine
b. paregoric
c. heroin
d. morphine
44. One common inhalant that does not require a prescription.
a. benzyne
b. amyl nitrite
c. octane
d. fumes
45. The most abused depressants
a. barbiturate
b. shabu
c. alcohol
d. seconal
46. Poor mans cocaine.
a. cocaine
b. caffeine
c. shabu
d. nicotine
47. A batter is out after _______ strikes.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
48. If a batter decided not to hit a pitched ball that passes within the strike zone, the umpire will rule it
______.
a. ball
b. out
c. safe
d. strike
49. A batted fly or ground ball that lands outside the foul line is a _________.
a. good ball
b. fair ball
c. foul ball
d. bad ball
50. The official in baseball is called _________.
a. arbiter
b. referee
c. timer
d. umpire
51. An inning is finished after _______ outs from both teams.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. six
52. A pitched ball outside the strike zone is called _________.
a. ball
b. curved ball
c. wild ball
d. strike
53. It is a ______ if a batted fly ball is caught.
a. fly out
b. forced out
c. put out
d. strike out
54. The _____ zone, over the plate is below the batters armpit and above his or her knees where the
pitched ball
should pass.
a. ball
b. pitched
c. strike
d. temperate
55. The only who can use his or her hands on the ball is the ___________.
a. center halfback
b. goalkeeper
c. left fullback
d. right fullback
56. All are basic skills in football EXCEPT _________.
a. defense
b. running and kicking
c. speed
d. sliding
57. Kicks that require second touch by another player before the goal is counted are called ______ kicks.
a. corner
b. free
c. indirect free
d. direct free
58. The game of football starts with a ____________.
a. dribbling relay
b. kick-off
c. throw-in
d. jump ball
59. When the ball touched by the defending team crosses the goal line, a _______ is awarded.
a. corner
b. free
c. goal
d. side
60. When the ball goes out of the line, a _____ is awarded to the opponent.
a. drop ball
b. free kick
c. throw-in
d. point

Good Luck and Enjoy Your Vacation


Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FOURTH PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 8
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
A. MUSIC
1. What country is rich in culture and tradition?
a. China
b. Japan
c.Indonesia
d. Malaysia
2. A country which is known for their Show Puppet Theatre.
a. China
b. Japan
c.Indonesia
d. Malaysia
3. One of the popular traditional songs of Japan
a. Kabuki
b. Noh
c. Sakura
d. Joruri
4. It is one of the most beautiful country in Southeast Asia.
a. Cambodia
b. Indonesia
c. Laos
d. Malaysia
5. The worlds fourth most populous country and is the fourth biggest nation in the world
a. Laos
b. Indonesia
c. Malaysia
d. Myanmar
6. Known as Burma until 1989.
a. Laos
b. Indonesia
c. Malaysia
d. Myanmar
7. A constitutional monarchy in Southeast Asia
a. Laos
b. Indonesia
c. Malaysia
d. Myanmar
8. A Cambodian musical ensemble
a. oneat
b. gamelan
c. piphat
d. pinpeat
9. It is the most popular form of music in Indonesia.
a. piphat
b. gamelan
c. oneat
d. pinpeat
10. It describes the subtle delivery of political text written in the Japanese metrical form of alternating
seven and five
syllables.
a. Sakura
b. Cherry Blossoms
c. Yakuharai
d. Nagauta
11. Which of the following is one of Chinas most popular instruments?
a. haegum
b. erhu
c. koto
d. shamisen
12. Which Korean music category is traditionally ssociated with the lower class?
a. tang-ak
b. chong-ak
c. sog-ak
d. a-ak
13. Which Japanese instrument is called the dragon flute?
a. shinobue
b. hichiriki
c. ryuteki
d. shakuhachi
14. A Korean folk song used as a symbol of Korea and Korean culture.
a. Arirang
b. chong-ak
c. sog-ak
d. a-ak
15. It has a literal meaning of music for the noble classes.
a. ching
b. chong-ak
c. sog-ak
d. tang-ak
B. ARTS
1. The shadow puppets in Thailand are:
a. Leather Monkey Show
b. Nang
c. Togalu Gombeyaata d. Wayang Kulit
2. ________ is played with leather puppets, each representing a separate character and usually possesses a
movable,
jointed arm controlled by a string.
a. Nang Talung
b. Nang Yai
c. Wayang Golek
d. Wayang Kulit
3. It is the teacher and presenter of Nang Talung.
a. Sida
b. Ramayana
c. Nang Yai
d. Nai Nang
4. The Dragon dance team _________ the movements of the river spirit in a flowing, rise and fall manner.
a. pantomime
b. tableau
c. mimics
d. sings
5. Men and children usually wear ______ every Chinese New Year or Spring Festival.
a. Balinese costumes
b. Kimono
c. Kung Fu suits
d. Saya and barong Tagalog

6. It is the Japanese drum festival


a. Chinese New Year Festival
c. Dragon Festival
b. Kodo Taiko Drum Festival
d. Balinese Dance Festival
7. The taiko drums with other traditional instruments like ______ are visible in their performance.
a. erhu
b. fue and shamisen
c. sticks beat
d. percussions beat
8. The following are the characters in Nang except ______________.
a. gods and goddesses
b. Kings and Queens c. magical figures
d. current events
9. How do you call the Taiko drummer in Japanese?
a. hachimaki
b. tabi
c. odaiko
d. uchike
10. Traditional Chinese dance usually seen during the Chinese New Year Celebration. This dance is based
on a mythical
creature believed by Chinese people.
a. dragon dance
b. lion dance
c. snake dance
d. bali dance
11. The Chinese people believe that performing the lion and dragon dances ____________.
a. makes the country more wealthy
c. tells the people to reconcile
b. drives bad luck and evil spirits away
d. makes the people more healthy
12. Which of the following props cannot be seen in the Chinese Spring Festival?
a. Chinese fans
b. Chinese lanterns
c. dragon puppets
d. Wayang Kulit puppets
13. What particular term is used for sky lantern?
a. Chiang Mai
b. Khom Fai
c. Loy Krathong
d. Yi Peng
14. It is a festival in Thailand to honor the goddess of water.
a. Chiang Mai
b. Khom Fai
c. Loy Krathong
d. Yi Peng
15. It literally means to float.
a. loy
b. chiang
c. krathong
d. fai

31. It stimulate the central nervous system, increase activity, and raise blood pressure.
a. stimulants
b. amphetamines
c. cocaine
d. shabu
32. Commonly called shabu or poor mans cocaine.
a. caffeine
b. alcohol
c. marijuana
d. methamphetamine
hydrochloride
33. These drugs include opium and its components like morphine, heroin, cocaine, hallucinogen and other
synthetic
drugs with psychological effects.
a. stimulants
b. amphetamines
c. cocaine
d. shabu
34. It is an addictive substance found in tobacco products.
a. cocaine
b. nicotine
c. caffeine
d. benzyne
35. Why is it difficult to get family involvement in effective treatment of a drug dependent member?
a. The family is too busy to attend to the problem
b. The family does not have enough income to support him/her
c. The family thinks it may delay the childs education
d. The family denies that a member of theirs is a drug dependent
36. How do you describe an addict?
a. He is hooked on alcohol
c. He drinks too much on social occasions
b. He is a regular drinker of alcohol
d. He is a moderate drinker of alcoholic beverages
37. Why do drugs pose a threat to society?
a. People engage in illegal trade and addiction
b. More adolescents are experimenting with drugs
c. There are inadequate facilities for drug addicts
d. Drug addicts disrupt economic activities in the community
38. If you were caught bringing into Philippines dangerous drug in any quantity, what penalty would be
imposed on you?
a. Fine of 100, 000.00
b. Fine of 500, 000.00
c. imprisonment
d. life
imprisonment and death
39. If you were to report the illegal production deathof a large amount of dangerous drug, what agency
will you approach?
a. BFAD
b. DDB
c. DOH
d. PNP
40. Why are certain drugs dangerous?
a. They cause more trouble
c. They affect ore young people
b. They affect the mental and physical health of the people
d. They lead to unhealthy practices

41. Is often defined as the deliberate taking of a substance for reasons other than its intended use and in a
manner that can
damage the persons health or his or her ability to function normally.
a. drug use
b. drug abuse
c. drug dependence
d. drug tolerance
42. Defined as the continued or occasional use of drugs that is inconsistent with legitimate medical
purposes.
a. drug use
b. drug abuse
c. drug dependence
d. drug tolerance
43. The state that is manifested by physical disturbances when the use of a drug is stopped temporarily.
a. drug dependence
b. physical dependence
c. drug abuse
d. drug use
44. It is the intense desire and perpetuation of abuse to obtain the desired effect of a drug.
a. psychological dependence b. physical dependence c. emotional dependence d. mental
dependence
45. One common inhalant that does not require a prescription.
a. benzyne
b. amyl nitrite
c. octane
d. fumes
46. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength, and manner.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive drugs
47. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons.
a. drug abuse
b. drug misuse
c. drug use
d. OTC drugs
II - From 48-52, indicate if the factor that influence people to abuse drugs or alcohol is ------physical,
emotional, social, or
environmental.
48. to reduce tension or anxiety
49. to satisfy curiosity
50. to overcome shyness
51. condition in the society
52. to feel relaxed
III The following are known dangers of cigarette smoking and tobacco use. Arrange the letters for each
item to decipher the word(s).
53. H H I G B O O L D E R U S E S R P
Hint: Too much exertion of blood against the arteries causing damage
54. E T A R H I D A S S E E S
Hint: Involves the cardiovascular system
55. O Y B D O O R D
Hint: Effect of cigarette smoke to your body scent
56. S I T R I C H B O N
Hint: Inflammation of the airways from the trachea into the lungs
57. D A B A T E B R H
Hint: Foul smell exhaled from the mouth
58. S E A Y H E M P M
Hint: Damaged airsacs in the lungs
59. N E A O N I P M U
Hint: Infection of the lungs
60. T A S H A M
Hint: A chronic disease which affects the airways
Good Luck and Enjoy Your Vacation
Maam Nyms

1. Is often defined as the deliberate taking of a substance for reasons other than its intended use and in a
manner that can

damage the persons health or his or her ability to function normally.


a. drug use
b. drug abuse
c. drug dependence
d. drug tolerance
2. Defined as the continued or occasional use of drugs that is inconsistent with legitimate medical
purposes.
a. drug use
b. drug abuse
c. drug dependence
d. drug tolerance
3. The state that is manifested by physical disturbances when the use of a drug is stopped temporarily.
a. drug dependence b. physical dependence c. drug abuse
d. drug use
4. It is the intense desire and perpetuation of abuse to obtain the desired effect of a drug.
a. psychological dependence b. physical dependence c.emotional dependence d. mental
dependence
5. Drugs that increase the activity of the brain or other parts of the nervous system.
a. stimulants
b. amphetamines
c. cocaine
d. shabu
6. Stimulate the central nervous sytem, increase activity, and raise blood pressure.
a. stimulants
b. amphetamines
c. cocaine
d. shabu
7. Commonly called shabu or poor mans cocaine.
a. caffeine
b. alcohol
c. marijuana
d. methamphetamine
hydrochloride
8. Are those that have harmful effects on the mental and physical well-being of a person.
a. dangerous drugs b. prohibited drugs
c. shabu
d. marijuana
9. These drugs include opium and its components like morphine, heroin, cocaine, hallucinogens and other
synthetic or
natural drugs with psychological effects.
a. stimulants
b. amphetamines
c. cocaine
d. shabu
10. Cigarette smoking primarily affects the ____________ system.
a. central nervous system
b. excretory system
c. respiratory system
d. circulatory system
11. A kind of smoke tha comes out of the lighted nd of a cigarette or pipe.
a. mainstream smoke
b. sidestream smoke
c. third-hand smoke
d. residual tobacco
smoke
12. Refers specifically to the smoke that a smoker directly inhales.
a. mainstream smoke
b. sidestream smoke
c. third-hand smoke
d. residual tobacco
smoke
13. Smoke left for a long time on sofa, beddings, pillow and other objects.
a. mainstream smoke
b. sidestream smoke
c. third-hand smoke
d. residual tobacco
smoke
14. It is an addictive substance found in tobacco products.
a. cocaine
b. nicotine
c. caffeine
d. benzyne
15. Also known as The Tobacco Regulation Act of 2003.
a. RA No. 6425
b. RA No. 9211
c. RA No. 874
d. Phil. Clean Air Act of
1999
16. What country is rich in culture and tradition?
a. China
b. Japan
c. Indonesia
d. Malaysia
17. A country which is known for their Shadow Puppet Theater.
a. China
b. Japan
c. Indonesia
d. Malaysia
18. One of the popular traditional songs of Japan.
a. Kabuki
b. Noh
c. Sakura
d. Joruri
19. It is considered the most important Japanese contribution to world theater.
a. Noh
b. Kabuki
c. Joruri
d. Sakura
20. It is one of the most popular shamisen music.
a. Sakura
b. Cherry Blossoms
c. Yakuharai
d. Nagauta
21. It describes the subtle delivery of poetical text written in the Japanese metrical form of alternating
seven and five
syllables.
a. China
b. Japan
c. Indonesia
d.
Malaysia
22. An Indonesian and Malay word for theater.
a. Wayang
b. Kulit
c. Wayang Kulitd. Dalang
23. It was performed in royal court and widely performed in public or religious occasions.
a. Wayang
b. Kulit
c. Wayang Kulitd. Dalang
24. One who manipulates the puppets, sings, and taps out signals to the orchestra.
a. Wayang
b. Kulit
c. Wayang Kulitd. Dalang
25. Classic court music imported from China during the 18th century.
a. Gagaku
b. Yakuharai
c. Noh
d. Nori
26. It is the shadow puppet of Indonesia.
a. Kabuki
b. Nang
c. Peking Opera
d. Wayang Kulit
27. The Indonesian shadow puppet theater shows are based on the stories of ___________.
a. Biag ni Lam-ang b. Nagarakretagama
c. Ramayana and Mahabharata d. The tale of the Heiki
28. The puppeteer of Java, Indonesia is called _________.
a. blencong
b. Dalang
c. gawang
d. kothak
29. The performances of shadow puppet theaters are accompanied by the music of __________.

a. gamelan
b. guitar
c. piano
d. rondalla
30. Indonesian puppet theaters are performed with shadows that are cast on a ______________.
a. cotton screen and an oil lamp
c. tarpaulin and spotlight
b. Japanese paper and lampshade
d. transparent plastic and flashlight

31. The shadow puppets in Thailand are


a. Leather Monkey Show
c. Togalu Gombeyaata
b. Nang
d. Wayang Kulit
32. _________ is played with leather puppets, eac representing a separate character and usually possesses
a movable,
jointed arm controlled by a string.
a. Nang Talung
b. Nang Yai
c. Wayang Golek
d. Wayang Kulit
33. The following are the characters in Nang except ____________.
a. gods and goddesses
b. kings and queens
c. magical figures
d. current events
34. It is the teacher and presenter of Nang Talung.
a. Sida
b. Ramayana
c. Nang Yai
d. Nai Nang
35. Traditional Chinese dance usually seen during the Chinese New Year Celebration. This dance is based
on a mythical
creature believed by the Chinese people.
a. dragon dance
b. lion dance
c. snake dance
d. Bali dance
36. The dragon dance team __________ the movements of the river spirit in a flowing, rise and fall
manner.
a. pantomime
b. tableau
c. mimics
d. sings
37. The Chinese people believe that performing the lion and dragon dances _____________.
a. makes the country more wealthy
c. tells the people to reconcile
b. drives bad luck and evil spirits away
d. makes the people more healthy
38. Men and children usually wear ________ every Chinese New Year or Spring Festival.
a. Balinese costumes
b. kimono
c. Kung Fu suits
d. saya and barong
Tagalog
39. Which of the following props cannot be seen in the Chinese Spring Festival?
a. Chinese fans
b. Chinese lanterns
c. dragon puppets
d. Wayang Kulit
puppets
40. It is the Japanese drum festival.
a. Chinese New Year Festival
c. Dragon Festival
b. Kodo Taiko Drum Festival
d. Balinese Dance Festival
41. The taiko drums with other traditional instruments like _______ are visible in their performance.
a. erhu
b. fue and shamisen
c. koto
d. shakuhachi
42. Kodo means ____________.
a. heartbeat
b. drums beat
c. sticks beat
d. percussions beat
43. Taiko drum festivals usually last for __________.
a. 5 hrs. and 30 mins
b. 4 hrs. and 40 mins. c. 3 hrs. and 30 mins. d. 1 hr. and 40 mins.
44. How do you call the taiko drummer in Japanese?
a. hachimaki
b. tabi
c. odaiko
d. uchite
45. An Ancient dance tradition that comes from Indonesia.
a. folk dance
b. Bali dance
c. jazz
d. modern dance

III- Identify the concept described in each item. Choose from the words inside the box below.
drugs
drug abuse
prescriptive drugs
stimulants
caffeine

drug use
drug misuse
over-the-counter drugs
cocaine
shabu

depressants
alcohol
barbiturate
narcotics
marijuana

___________36. Substances intended for use in the diagnosis, mitigation, cure, treatment or prevention of
diseases
___________37. These are drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor inorder to allow a
purchase
___________38. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength and
manner
___________39. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons
___________40. The most commonly abused hallucinogen in the Philippines
___________41. One of the most abused drugs which can relieve pain, and produce profound sleep or
stupor
___________42. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia
___________43. The most abused depressants
___________44. This is also known as downers.
___________45. It is a centrl nervous system stimulant and sometimes called upper or speed.
___________46. It can be taken orally, injected or sniffed as to achieve euphoria or an intense of
highness
___________47. These are non-prescription medicines which may be purchased from any pharmacy or
drugstore without
written authorization from the doctor
___________48. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks and some wake up pills
___________49. Drugs that speed up the work of the nervous system
___________50. Means the use of any drug, medically speaking, to the point where it seriously interferes
with the health,
economic status or social functioning of the drug user or others
affected by the drug users behavior

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
THIRD PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 7
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the correct answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
1. An organized creative arrangement of the elements of art such as line, color, shape, and form or texture is called
____.
a. design
b. pattern
c. balance
d. unity
2. It is the repetition of a particular element of art in a single composition.
a. composition
b. design
c.pattern
d.balance

3. The principle of art concerned with making an element or object in a work stand out.
a. harmony
b. emphasis
c. rhythm
d. unity
4. It is concerned with combining related art elements to create a pleasing appearance.
a. harmony
b. emphasis
5. The principle of art used to create the look and feel of action, and to guide the viewers eyes throughout the work
of
art.
a. unity
b.variety
c. proportion
d. movement
6. To create a feeling of oneness, an art should have ______
a. harmony
b. emphasis
c. rhythm
d. unity
7. The proper relation between two objects or parts is called ________.
a. variety
b. movement
c, proportion
d. unity
8. A team sport which is composed of twelve players but there are only six players who are actually playing inside
the
court.a. basketball
b. softball
c. baseball
d. volleyball
9. His main duty is to stop, retrieve the ball, and make a defensive play only.
a. captain ball
b. substitute
c. libero
d. coach
10. In case of a tie or deuce between two teams, a _____ is needed to win the set.
a. set point
b. matc point
c. two-point advantage
d. ad
point
11. Who discovered the game volleyball?
a. William Shakespear b. William Morgan
c. James Naismith
d. Remy Presas
12. When two teammates contact the ball simultaneously, it is considered two contacts for their team except during
a. blocking
b. spiking
c. dribbling
d. serving
13. Each team is entitled to a maximum of _______ contacts.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. five
14. When the serving team fails to serve the ball legally into the opponents court or return the ball into the
opponents
court, the referee give this decision.
a. A side-out with no point awarded is called
c. A fault is declared
b. A score of one point is given
d. A time-out is declared
15. When is a team declared a winner of a set or game?
a. When the team is first to score 25 points
b. When the team is first to score 15 points with an advantage of two points
c. when the team is first to score 24 points with an advantage of one point
d. When the team is first to score 25 points with an average of two points
16. The objective of the volleyball game is ___________.
a. to serve the ball legally into the opponents court
c. for the team to reach at least 25 points or
more
b. to send the ball over the net to the ground of the opponents court.
d. to make the ball remain in play
without
touching the ground
17. Each team is entitled to a maximum of _______ contacts.
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. five
18. How many squares are there in a chessboard?
a. 24
b. 32
c. 36
d. 64
19. Pieces that can move over the other pieces.
a. Queen
b. King
c. Rook
d. Knight
20. The most important piece, but it is one of the weakest.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
21. Moves to any square as for as it wants, but only forward, backward, and to the sides.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
22. Moves and captures along the diagonals
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
23. The most powerful piece
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
24. Can be promoted to any piece
a. Knight
b. Rook
c. Pawn
d. Bishop
25. Moves and captures along the diagonals
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
26. The following are the benefits from playing chess EXCEPT:
a. Chess increases the mathematical and scientific skills of the students
b. It develop a sense of confidence
c. It helps you to become a well-known player
d. It provides entertainment and relaxation
27. The value of the King is ______
a. 10
b. 9
c. 5
d. the game
28. The value of Rook is ______
a. 9
b. 5
c. 3
d.1
29. The value of Bishop is ______
a. 9
b. 5
c. 3
d.1
30. The value of Knight is _______
a. 9
b. 5
c. 3
d.1

31. Period of disease where the organisms are being cast off.
a. incubation period
b. prodromal period
c. recovery period
d. defection
period
32. Period where symptoms are all similar for all respiratory infections and common communicable diseases.
a. incubation period
b. prodromal period
c. recovery period
d. defection
period
33. In this period, the patient feels well.
a. defection period
b. recovery period
c. defervescence period
d.
differential period
34. A period where the disease is at its height. Symptoms and signs appear.
a. differential period b. prodromal period
c. recovery period
d. defection period
35. A period where there is a decline in the severity of symptoms.
a. incubation period
b. prodromal period
c. recovery period
d. defervescence
period
36. What happen to person when there is a structural disorder in his tissues and organs?
a. Diseases may occur b. There is an infection
c. Person become disable d. all of these
37. Which of the following causes of disease that includes the chemical found in polluted air?
a. heredity
b. diet
c. environment
d. degenerative
process
38. Diseases that can be transmitted through discharges from the mouth or nose.
a. filth-form diseases b. respiratory diseases
c. contact diseases
d. insect-transmitted
diseases
39. These diseases are transmitted through excretory discharges as a result of incorrect disposal.
a. filth-form diseases b. respiratory diseases
c. contact diseases
d. insect-transmitted
diseases
40. A disease caused by bacteria that affects the respiratory system
a. primary complex
b. pertussis
c. diphtheria
d. tubercolusis
41. A disease in children that can lead to tubercolusis if untreated
a. primary complex
b. tubercolusis
c. pertussis
d. diphtheria
42. This is a highly contagious infection caused by a bacterium
a. primary complex
b. tubercolusis
c. pertussis
d. diphtheria
43. A disease that frequently affects the liver
a. measles
b. scabies
c. leptospirosis
d. mumps
44. A highly communicable disease due to severe viral infection.
a. measles
b. scabies
c. leptospirosis
d. mumps
45. The causative agent of this disease is the same agent that causes tb in children.
a. primary complex
b. pertussis
c. diphtheria
d. mumps
46. The following are the signs and symptoms of tubercolusis EXCEPT
a. cough lasting for more than two weeks
c. Pains in the chest and back
b. Traces of blood in the sputum
d. May or may not have a fever
47. Which part of the body are affected when tubercolusis is un treated?
a. brain
b. glands
c. lungs
d. all of these
48. A disease-producing organisms that causes the most highly communicable, dangerous and prevalent diseases in
humans?
a. bacteria
b. viruses
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoa
49. Which is the best way of preventing tubercolusis?
a. isolate the sick person
b. have a sputum examination
c. eat nutritious food
d. get enough rest
50. Causes the human beings to get sick or feel uncomfortable due to its harmful effects.
a. pathogen
b. organism
c. bacteria
d. viruses
51. A break in the skin or mucous membrane
a. wound
b. incised wound
c. abrasion
d. laceration
52. It is made by excessive rubbing or scraping
a. wound
b. incised wound
c. abrasion
d. laceration
53. These are commonly caused by knives, metal edges, broken glass or other sharp objects.
a. abrasions
b. incisions
c. lacerations
d. puncture
54. It is produced by bullets and pointed objects such as pins, nails, and splinters.
a. abrasions
b. incisions
c. lacerations
d. puncture
55. These are jagged, irregular, or blunt breaks or tearsin the soft tissues
a. abrasions
b. incisions
c. lacerations
d. puncture
56. Which of the following is the significant value of first aid training?
a. value to self
b. value to others
c. value in civil defense
d. all of these
57. Arrange the following according to order of inspection in case of an accident
a. stoppage of breathing, internal poisoning, profuse bleeding, shock after an injury
b. profuse bleeding, stoppage of breathing, internal poisoning, shock after an injury
c. shock after an injury, stoppage of breathing, internal poisoning, profuse bleeding
d. internal poisoning, stoppage of breathing, shock after an injury, profuse bleeding
58. What pressure point is located in front of the ear?
a. facial
b. temporal
c. femoral
d. brachial
59. What pressure point is located beneath the collar bone?
a. subclavian
b. temporal
c. femoral
d. brachial
60. Which of the following are not recommended to stop severe bleeding?
a. direct pressure
b. elevation
c. pressure on the supplying artery d. put a bandage

Good luck
Mam NYMS

54. When the King is being attacked directly by an opponnents piece, we say that the King is under
________.
a. check
b. mate
c. stalemate
d. promotion
55. It is the position where the player whose turn to move has no legal move at his disposal and his King
is not under
check.
a. castling
b. En Passant
c. stalemate
d. checkmate
56. A special move that is done for the safety of the King.
a. promotion
b. En Passant
c. castling
d. check
57. In castling, which should be move first?
a. Rook
b. King
c. either of the two
d. both
58. The player with the _____ pieces always moves first.
a. white
b. black
c. any
d. the arbiter
will decide
59. The square being intersected by the two lines is called_____
a. e2
b. e3
c. e4
d. e5
60. In playing a chess, you must remember that the light square must be on the _____ side of the board.
a. left
b. right
c. at the center
d. above
22. When the King is being attacked directly by an opponnents piece, we say that the King is under
________.
a. check
b. mate
c. stalemate
d. promotion
23. It is the position where the player whose turn to move has no legal move at his disposal and his King
is not under
check.
a. castling
b. En Passant
c. stalemate
d. checkmate
24. A special move that is done for the safety of the King.
a. promotion
b. En Passant
c. castling
d. check
26. The most important piece, but it is one of the weakest.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
27. Moves to any square as for as it wants, but only forward, backward, and to the sides.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
28. Moves and captures along the diagonals
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
29. The most powerful piece
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Bishop
30. Can be promoted to any piece
a. Knight
b. Rook
c. Pawn
d. Bishop
31. Diseases that can be transmitted through discharges from the mouth or nose.
a. filth-form diseases
b. respiratory diseases
c. contact diseases
d. insecttransmitted diseases
32. These diseases are transmitted through excretory discharges as a result of incorrect disposal.
a. filth-form diseases
b. respiratory diseases
c. contact diseases
d. insecttransmitted diseases
33. A disease caused by bacteria that affects the respiratory system
a. primary complex
b. pertussis
c. diphtheria
d. tubercolusis
34. A disease in children that can lead to tubercolusis if untreated
a. primary complex
b. tubercolusis
c. pertussis
d. diphtheria
35. This is a highly contagious infection caused by a bacterium
a. primary complex
b. tubercolusis
c. pertussis
d. diphtheria
36. A disease that frequently affects the liver

a. measles
b. scabies
c. leptospirosis
d. mumps
37. A highly communicable disease due to severe viral infection.
a. measles
b. scabies
c. leptospirosis
d. mumps
38.This is an immediate care given and generally needed by anyone who is injured or gets suddenly ill.
a. bandage
b. first aid
c. tourniquet
d. safety
measure
39. It is an unplanned event that results to injury, death or damage to property
a. accident
b. home accident
c. vehicular accident
d. school
accident
40. A break in the skin or mucous membrane
a. wound
b. incised wound
c. abrasion
d. laceration
41. It is made by excessive rubbing or scraping
a. wound
b. incised wound
c. abrasion
d. laceration
42. These are commonly caused by knives, metal edges, broken glass or other sharp objects.
a. abrasions
b. incisions
c. lacerations
d. puncture
43. It is produced by bullets and pointed objects such as pins, nails, and splinters.
a. abrasions
b. incisions
c. lacerations
d. puncture
44. These are jagged, irregular, or blunt breaks or tearsin the soft tissues
a. abrasions
b. incisions
c. lacerations
d. puncture
45. This method reduces the loss of blood without affecting normal blood circulation.
a. direct pressure
b. bandage
c. first aid
d. tourniquet
II- A. Identification: Identify the following pressure point.
_____________________46. leg
_____________________47. neck
_____________________48. above jaw
_____________________49. inner side of arms
_____________________50. front of ear
B. Write the value of different pieces.
51. Queen
52. King
53. Rook
54. Bishop
55. Knight
C. Write the symbol of the following pieces.
56. Check
57. Draw
58. Checkmate
59. Castles Kingside
60. Castles Queenside

Good luck
Mam NYMS

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
THIRD PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 8
I-Multiple Choice: Choose the correct answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.

1. The ____ should have a read and a black side.


a. ball
b. net
c. paddle
d. table
2. Players are entitled t practice up to ____ minutes.
a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 12
3. The winner of the _____ will serve first.
a. drawing of lots
b. drawing of numbers
c. drawing of papers
d. coin toes
4. A player is allowed a two minute interval between _____ successive games in a match.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
5. A match is played with ____ out of five games.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
6. In doubles, the pair having the right to ____ first will choose who among them will do so.
a. hit
b. switch
c. serve
d. smash
7. In an individual event, the request for time-out may be made by the _____.
a. coach
b. manager
c. opponent
d. player
8. Legal service requires the ball to rest on an open _____ .
a. finger
b. index finger
c. palm
d. arm
9. If a player is incapacitated by an accident, the referee may allow _____ of play.
a. continuation
b. replacement
c. substitution
d. suspension
10. In case of injury, play shall not resume until the injured player has received _____.
a. artificial respiration b. medical precipitation c. medical mission
d. medical treatment
11. A process where the reproductive cells of a man and woman join together to make a new human cell.
a. implantation
b. ovulation
c. fertilization
d. pregnancy
12. A time when a new cell is formed during fertilization, grows and develops into a baby in the womans uterus.
a. fertilization
b. implantation
c. ovulation
d. pregnancy
13. The attachment of the developing cells to the uterus.
a. implantation
b. fertilization c. ovulation
d. pregnancy
14. An organ that grows in the womans uterus during pregnancy and allows nutrients, gases and wastes to be
exchanged
between the mother and the fetus.
a. umbilical cord
b. mommary gland
c. uterus
d. placenta
15. It is where the fertilized egg develops into a baby.
a. ovary
b. fallopian tube
c. uterus
d. stomach
16. It is known as the best and ideal form of infant feeding.
a. breast feeding
b. bottle feeding
c. mix feeding
d. all of these
17. The stage of pregnancy that lasts from weeks to birth.
a. 1st trimester
b. 2nd trimester
c. 3rd trimester
d. 1st and 3rd trimesters
18. It is a simple procedure to find out if the baby has a congenital metabolis disorder that may lead to mental
retardation
or even death if left untreated.
a. protocol
b. screening
c. laboratory test d. health examination
19. Which among the statements given below, uphold the responsibility of parents to their children?
a. choose their course in college
c. teach them religion
b. choose their husband or wife
d. teach them values
20. Why do peoply marry?
a. for economic security
c. for social status
b. for love
d. all of the above
21. Which is an ingredient of a happy married life?
a. Commitment
b. love
c. sincerety
d. all of the above
22. Which is a wrong reason for having children?
a. Children are gifts from God.
c. Children make the married couples more responsible.
b. Children make married couples happy
d. Children provide parents security in the future.
23. Why is having a small family important?
a. Ensures communitys progress
c. Requires lesser economic needs
b. Provides for the basic needs of children for quality life. d. Small family is quiet and peaceful.
24. It is one aspect of vocal music which uses nasal vocal quality in chanting epics and the Pasyon.
a. Samagana
b. melismatic
c. Sama Veda
d. Rig Veda
25. An ancient Indian sacred collection of vedic Sanskrit hymns.
a. Sama Veda
b. Samagana
c. Rig Veda
d. Ghatam
26. Style of singing developed into a strong and diverse tradition over several centuries
a. Samagana
b. Sama Veda
c. Rig Veda
d. melismatic
27 . A sacred text that were sung as Samagana and not chanted
a. Samagana
b. Sama Veda
c. Rig Veda
d. melismatic
28. The most common style of singing in North India.
a. Carnatic
b. Hindustani
c. Khyal
d. Rig Veda
29. Described as anon-membranous percussive instrument but with solid resonators.
a. Ghan
b. Avanaddh
c. Sushir
d. Tat
30. Vocal music of Israel which is featured during Sabbath and other holy days
a. Hazan
b. secular
c. devotional
d. modal
31. Vocal music of Israel which is very rhythmic and have popular and romantic texts.
a. Hazan
b. secular
c. devotional
d. modal
32. Classification of musical instruments from India that belongs to Ghan
a. Ghatam
b. Shank
c. Daf
d. Vital
33. A significant instrument of Pakistan
a. harmonium
b. banam
c. bansuri
d. karta
34. Significant instruments of Israel

a. goblet
b. psalterion
c. dhol
d. nout
35. Significant instruments of Arab countries
a. goblet
b. esraj
c. manjira
d. Jewish lyre
36. Which of the following musical instruments that belongs to Avanaddh?
a. daf
b. table
c. shankh
d. both a and b
37. Hindu goddess of wealth
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
38. A four-armed dancing Hindu goddess
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
39. Indias festival of lights
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
40. Clay lamp to light the way of the goddess
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
41. A homespun silk used for beautiful dresses worn by Trkmen women
a. shirdaks
b. tush kyiz
c. ketene
d. Diyas
42. Images created by removing part of the rock surface by incising, picking, and carving
a. petroglyphs
b. hieroglyphs
c. calligraphy
d. ochre
43. The art of making designs or patterns on the walls or floors of houses
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
44. Pieces that can move over the other pieces.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Knight
d. Bishop
45. The most important piece, but it is one of the weakest.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Knight
d. Bishop
46. Moves to any square as far as it wants, but only forward, backward, and to the sides.
a. Bishop
b. Rook
c. Knight
d. Pawn
47. Moves and captures along the diagonals.
a. Bishop
b. Rook
c. Knight
d. Pawn
48. The most powerful piece.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Pawn
49. Can be promoted to any piece.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Pawn
50. A Bohemian Jew who won the game and became the worlds first official chess champion, holding this title
until
1894.
a. Paul Morphy
b. Adolf Anderssen
c. Steinity
d. Staunton
51. It is a result of a move that places the opposing King under an immediate threat of captured by one or
sometimes two
of the opponents pieces.
a. check
b. checkmate
c. castling
d. draw
52. A situation in which one players King is threatened with capture having no move to avoid that threat, thus,
ending the
game. a. check
b. checkmate
c. castling
d. draw
53. A chess game where nobody ends as a winner.
a. check
b. checkmate
c. castling
d. draw
54. The following are the benefits from playing chess EXCEPT:
a. Chess increases the mathematical and scientific skills of the students
b. It develop a sense of confidence
c. It helps you to become a well-known player
d. It provides entertainment and relaxation
55. The value of the King is ______
a. 10
b. 9
c. 5
d. the game
56. The value of Rook is ______
a. 9
b. 5
c. 3
d.1
57. The value of Bishop is ______
a. 9
b. 5
c. 3
d.1
58. The value of Knight is _______
a. 9
b. 5
c. 3
d.1
59. When the King is being attacked directly by an opponnents piece, we say that the King is under ________.
a. check
b. mate
c. stalemate
d. promotion
60. In castling, which should be move first?
a. Rook
b. King
c. either of the two
d. both

Good luck
Mam NYMS

30. A country known for its unique vocals


a. India
b. Pakistan
c. Israel
d. Middle East
31. A traditional expressions of love, separation, and loneliness
a. Qawwali
b. Ghazal
c. Tala
d. Punjabi
9. Vocal music of Israel which is featured during Sabbath and other holy days
a. Hazan
b. secular
c. devotional
d. modal
10. Vocal music of Israel which is very rhythmic and have popular and romantic texts.
a. Hazan
b. secular
c. devotional
d. modal
11. Country known for making printed tablecloths, curtains, bed spreads, and shawls
a. Uzbekistan
b. Kazakhstan
c. Tajikistan
d. Pakistan
12. Country in Central Asia known for utensil making, musical instruments, furniture, and jewelry
a. Pakistan
b. Tajikistan
c. Uzbekistan
d. Kazakhstan
13. A homespun silk used for beautiful dresses worn by Trkmen women
a. shirdaks
b. tush kyiz
c. ketene
d. Diyas
14.It is a large elaborately embroidered wall hanging made in Kyrgustan and Kazakhstan
a. ketene
b. frescoes
c. shirdaks
d. tush kyiz
15. Images created by removing part of the rock surface by incising, picking, and carving
a. petroglyphs
b. hieroglyphs
c. calligraphy
d. ochre
16. The art of making designs or patterns on the walls or floors of houses
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
17. Hindu goddess of wealth
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
18. A four-armed dancing Hindu goddess
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
19. Indias festival of lights
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
20. Clay lamp to light the way of the goddess
a. Diwali
b. Rangoli
c. Lakshmi
d. Diyas
21. The ____ should have a read and a black side.
a. ball
b. net
c. paddle
d. table
22. Players are entitled t practice up to ____ minutes.
a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 12
23. The winner of the _____ will serve first.
a. drawing of lots
b. drawing of numbers c. drawing of papers
d. coin toes
24. A player is allowed a two minute interval between _____ successive games in a match.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
25. A match is played with ____ out of five games.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
26. In doubles, the pair having the right to ____ first will choose who among them will do so.
a. hit
b. switch
c. serve
d. smash
27. In an individual event, the request for time-out may be made by the _____.
a. coach
b. manager
c. opponent
d. player
28. Legal service requires the ball to rest on an open _____ .
a. finger
b. index finger
c. palm
d. arm
29. If a player is incapacitated by an accident, the referee may allow _____ of play.
a. continuation
b. replacement
c. substitution
d. suspension
30. In case of injury, play shall not resume until the injured player has received _____.
a. artificial respiration
b. medical precipitation c. medical mission
d. medical treatment
31. After _____ scored services have been made, the receiving player or pair shall serve the ball next.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
32. The player who _____ first in a game shall receive first in te next game of the match.
a. received
b. served
c. won
d. lost
33. It is not only the skills in playing that are important. Equally important are the ____.
a. uniform
b. rules and regulations
c. merienda
d. audience
34. If a score of _____ is reached in a game each server serves only one point and the the right to serve is
switched.
a. 9-9
b. 10-10
c. 15-15
d. 20-20
35. It is a _____ if play is interrupted by the umpire or assistant umpire.
a. fault
b. score
c. let
d. foul
36. A Bohemian Jew who won the game and became the worlds first official chess champion, holding
this title until
1894.
a. Paul Morphy
b. Adolf Anderssen c. Steinity
d. Staunton
37. It is a result of a move that places the opposing King under an immediate threat of captured by one or
sometimes two
of the opponents pieces.

a. check
b. checkmate
c. castling
d. draw
38. A situation in which one players King is threatened with capture having no move to avoid that threat,
thus, ending the . game. a. check
b. checkmate
c. castling
d. draw
39. A chess game where nobody ends as a winner.
a. check
b. checkmate
c. castling
d. draw
40. Pieces that can move over the other pieces.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Knight
d. Bishop
41. The most important piece, but it is one of the weakest.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Knight
d. Bishop
42. Moves to any square as far as it wants, but only forward, backward, and to the sides.
a. Bishop
b. Rook
c. Knight
d. Pawn
43. Moves and captures along the diagonals.
a. Bishop
b. Rook
c. Knight
d. Pawn
44. The most powerful piece.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Pawn
45. Can be promoted to any piece.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Pawn
46. A process where the reproductive cells of a man and woman join together to make a new human cell.
a. implantation
b. ovulation
c. fertilization
d. pregnancy
47. A time when a new cell is formed during fertilization, grows and develops into a baby in the womans
uterus.
a. fertilization
b. implantation
c. ovulation
d. pregnancy
48. A developing human from the time that the ovum and the sperm cell unite until the end of the 8th
week.
a. zygote
b. embryo
c. fetus
d. baby
49. The attachment of the developing cells to the uterus.
a. implantation
b. fertilization
c. ovulation
d. pregnancy
50. An organ that grows in the womans uterus during pregnancy and allows nutrients, gases and wastes
to be exchanged
between the mother and the fetus.
a. umbilical cord
b. mommary gland c. uterus
d. placenta
51. It is where the fertilized egg develops into a baby.
a. ovary
b. fallopian tube
c. uterus
d. stomach
52. It is known as the best and ideal form of infant feeding.
a. breast feeding
b. bottle feeding
c. mix feeding
d. all of these
53. The stage of pregnancy that lasts from weeks to birth.
a. 1st trimester
b. 2nd trimester
c. 3rd trimester
d. 1st and 3rd trimesters
54. It is a simple procedure to find out if the baby has a congenital metabolis disorder that may lead to
mental retardation
or even death if left untreated.
a. protocol
b. screening
c. laboratory test
d. health examination
55. Which among the statements given below, uphold the responsibility of parents to their children?
a. choose their course in college
c. teach them religion
b. choose their husband or wife
d. teach them values
56. Why do peoply marry?
a. for economic security
c. for social status
b. for love
d. all of the above
57. Why do couples want to have children?
a. children are considered wealth of parents
c. society expects couples to have offspring
b. religious institutions require it
d. allows the couple to continue their growing
relationship
58. Which is an ingredient if a happy married life?
a. Commitment
b. love
c. sincerety
d. all of the above
59. Which is a wrong reason for having children?
a. Children are gifts from God.
c. Children make the married couples more
responsible.
b. Children make married couples happy
d. Children provide parents security in the
future.
60. Why is having a small important?
a. Ensures communitys progress
c. Requires lesser economic needs
b. Provides for the basic needs of children for quality life.
d. Small family is quiet and peaceful.

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
SECOND PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 7
I- Multiple Choice: Select the best answer. Write only the letter of your answer on the answer sheet.
1. To which form of art do drawing, painting, and sculpture belong to?
a. performing art
b. practical art
c. visual art
d. natural art
2. Form of art which use the artists bodies, faces, movements, and presence as media.
a. performing art
b. practical art
c. visual art
d. natural art
3. Lines that are parallel to the ground, they are lying down. They evoke peace and calmness.
a. vertical lines
c. horizontal lines
c. diagonal lines
d. curved lines
4. Seem to stand at attention. They show dignity and strength.
a. diagonal lines
b. vertical lines
c. horizontal lines
d. zigzag lines
5. Lines which suggest action and nervous excitement.
a. diagonal lines
b. vertical lines
c. horizontal lines
d. zigzag lines
6. Element of art that is derived from reflected light.
a. line
b. color
c. shape
d. texture
7. Red, yellow, and blue are examples of __________.
a. primary colors
b. secondary colors
c. tertiary colors
d.
complementary colors
8. A property of color concerned with the lightness or darkness of a hue.
a. hue
b. value
c. intensity
d. tint
9. Two colors opposite each other on the color wheel.
a. primary colors
b. secondary colors
c. tertiary colors
d.
complementary colors
10. You can produce the secondary color green by mixing ___________.
a. blue and red
b. yellow and blue
c. red and yellow
d. yellow, red,
and blue
11. Where did badminton first originated?
a. Asia
b. India
c. Inglatera
d. Japan
12. What is the first name given to badminton?
a. battledore
b. shuttlecock
c. bird
d. poona
13. When a player loses his service, the referre should call _____________.
a. deuce
b. let
c. service over
d. fault
14. When the score is 0 or even numbers, serving should be done at ____________.
a. right service court
b. left service court
c. backline
d. long service
line
15. When the score is odd numbers, serving should be done at _______________.
a. right service court
b. left service court
c. backline
d. long service
line
16. It consists of three games, unless otherwise agreed.
a. set
b. match
c. game
d. let
17. To put the bird in play means ____________.

a. set
b. let
c. serve
d. fault
18. Any stroke made on the racket side of the body
a. forehand
b. backhand
c. drop shot
d. round head
stroke
19. Any infraction of the rules resulting in loss of the server or the point
a. set
b. let
c. fault
d. service over
20. A hard horizontal stroke that is straight and close to the net.
a. clear
b. drive
c. ace
d. smash
21. It is an art of self-defense.
a. karate
b. boxing
c. sipa
d. arnis
22. When players use two pieces of stick
a. solo baston
b. double baston
c. espada y daga
d. arnis de
mano
23. He is known as te Father of Modern Arnis in the Philippines.
a. Jose delas Alas
b. Remy Presas
c. Jose Rizal
d. Antonio Luna
24. Who started to promote track and field in the Philippines?
a. Greeks
b. Americans
c. Japanese
d. Indians
25. Opening of the Olympic Games
a. 776 BC
b. 778 BC
c. 1896
d. 1986
26. Senses of the body that works like a camera with automatic focusing.
a. sense of sight
b. sense of hearing
c. sense of smell
d. sense of
touch
27. A living screen inside the eyeball which is the most important part of the eye.
a. sclera
b. retina
c. iris
d. pupil
28. It is composed of a tough elastic material of the eye.
a. sclera
b. retina
c. iris
d. pupil
29. A transparent bulge in front of the sclera that acts as a window to let light enter the eyes.
a. iris
b. pupil
c. cornea
d. sclera
30. A condition of nearsightedness
a. myopia
b. hyperopia
c. cataract
d. astigmatism

II- Identification: Identify the following athletic events as running, jumping or throwing.
31. shot put
36. 4x400-m relay
32. steeplechase
37. long jump
33. pole vault
38. javelin throw
34. marathon
39. triple jump
35. 4x100-m relay
40. 400-m low hurdles
III. Identify the following dance steps.Write only the letter of the correct answer.
a. touch step
b. bleking step
c. close step
d. hop step
e. slide step

41. step, step, step, step (and so on with tiny steps)


42. point, close
43. step, close
44. slide, close
45. cross-step, close, step

f. change step
g. cross change step
h. contraganza
i. plain polka
j. mincing step
k. hop polka

46. leap, cross-step, pause


47. heel place, close
48. step, hop
49. step, close, step
50. step, close, step, pause

Good luck
Mam NYMS

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
SECOND PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 8
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
1. It has been both a passion and a livelihood for many Cambodian sculptors.
a. silk weaving
b. stone carving
c. basket weaving
d. wood carving
2. The fabric most common to Indonesia, Malaysia and Singapore.
a. silk weaving
b. Thai silk
c. golden thread silks
d. batik
3. A small hot-air balloon made of paper with an opening at the bottom where a small candle or fire is
placed.
a. sky lantern
b. wish lantern
c. flying lantern
d. handicrafts
4. This festival is held on the night of the 12th full moon, usually in November.
a. sky lanten
b. Loy Krathong Festival
c. Chang Mai d. Phuket
5. It represent 1.4 percent of the total population in Cambodia.
a. indigenous people
b. highlanders
c. lowlanders d. foreigners
6. One of the most popular forms of art in Vietnam
a. shadow puppetry
b. wayang kulit
c. Vietnamese silk painting
d. handicraft
7. Famous art in Indonesia
a. shadow puppetry
b. wayang kulit
c. Vietnamese silk painting
d. handicraft
8. A type of puppet shadow play performed around the Indo-Malayan archipelago, tracing its origin to
India.
a. shadow puppetry
b. wayang kulit
c. Vietnamese silk painting
d. handicraft
9. A modern Indonesian language means show or perform

a. wayang
b. kulit
c. baying
d. shadow
10. This is used for calligraphy and for making festive temple decorations, umbrellas, fans and kites.
a. handicraft
b. sa
c. silk painting
d. wau kite
11. All are basic skills in football EXCEPT______.
a. defense
b. running and kicking
c. speed
d. sliding
12. The only one who can use his hands on the ball is the _________.
a. center halfback
b. goalkeeper
c. left fullback
d. right fullback
13. When the ball touched by the defending team crosses the goal line, a _____ kick is awarded.
a. corner
b. free
c. goal
d. side
14. Kicks that require second touch by another player before the goal is counted are called ______ kicks.
a. corner
b. free
c. indirect free
d. direct free
15. All the offenses bring about free kicks EXCEPT _________.
a. displaying ungentlemanly conduct
b. holding an opponent
c. showing dissent toward the referee
d. none of these
16. The game of football starts with a
a. dribbling relay
b. kick-off
c. throw-in
d. jump ball
17. When the ball goes out of the line, a _________ is awarded to the opponent.
a. drop ball
b. free kick
c. throw-in
d. point
18. One of the rules on free kicks is that the ball must be ______ when the kick is taken.
a. bouncing
b. rolling
c. stationary
d. off the ground
19. Pushing an opponent is an offense that brings about a/an _________.
a. direct free kick
b. indirect free kick
c. corner kick
d. side kick
20. All the offenses below are offenses that bring about a direct free kick EXCEPT _________.
a. delaying the game
b. jumping at an opponent
c. holding an opponent
d. pushing an
opponent
21. A batter is out after _______ strikes.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
22. A free walk is awarded to the batter on the ______ ball.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
23. An inning is finished after _______ outs from both teams.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. six
24. The official in baseball is called _________.
a. arbiter
b. referee
c. timer
d. umpire
25. The _____ zone, over the plate is below the batters armpit and above his or her knees where the
pitched ball
should pass.
a. ball
b. pitched
c. strike
d. temperate
26. A batter is out when he or she misses _______ pitched balls.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
27. It is a ______ if a batted fly ball is caught.
a. fly out
b. forced out
c. put out
d. strike out
28. A pitched ball outside the strike zone is called _________.
a. ball
b. curved ball
c. wild ball
d. strike
29. If a batter decided not to hit a pitched ball that passes within the strike zone, the umpire will rule it
______.
a. ball
b. out
c. safe
d. strike
30. A batted fly or ground ball that lands outside the foul line is a _________.
a. good ball
b. fair ball
c. foul ball
d. bad ball

31. A Canadian clergyman, educator, and physician who introduced basketball


a. Dr. Luther Gulick
b. James Naismith
c. Larry Bird
32. It is the most important skill in basketball
a. shooting
b. dribbling
c. passing
33. A basic skill done by pushing the ball repeatedly to the floor
a. shooting
b. dribbling
c. passing
34. Passing the ball to another player at chest level
a. chest pass
b. overhead pass
c. bounce pass
35. It is done to start the game
a. shooting
b. dribbling
c. jump shot
36. It is done when the ball is dead as permitted by the table official
a. foul
b. violation
c. end of the game
37. It divides the court into two equal halves

d. Michael Jordan
d. catching
d. catching
d. baseball pass
d. jump ball
d. substitution

a. center line
b. center circle
c. free throw line
d. restricted
area
38. It is drawn at the middle of the court
a. center line
b. center circle
c. free throw line
d. restricted
area
39. The lane on the basketball court extending from the end line to 15 ft. in front of the back court
a. center line
b. center circle
c. free throw line
d. restricted
area
40. Any infraction or violation of the rules of the game
a. foul
b. misconduct
c. drive
d. penalty
41. The defensive zone for each team
a. center line
b. restricted area
c. back court
d. front court
42. One of the major aspects of the game
a. rebounding
b. passing
c. shooting
d. dribbling
43. The term used to refer to the officiating official in basketball
a. umpire
b. timer
c. referee
d. coach
44. A type of play in team sports wherein the team plays in possession of the ball aiming at earning points
through
shooting
a. defensive play
b. offensive play
c. goal tending
d. offensive
play
45. A spectacular scoring maneuver when a player jumps high, reaches above a ring and stuffs the ball
down through
the hoop
a. dunk shot
b. rebound
c. lay up
d. assist
46. This is a lifelong partnership of a man and a woman.
a. courtship
b. commitment
c. marriage
d. love
47. Admiration for someone that may include the desire to get to know that person better.
a. attraction
b. infatuation
c. love
d. courtship
48. A tender feeling toward another person is called_______
a. affection
b. love
c. commitment
d. crush
49. Known as ones dedication to a relationship.
a. affection
b. love
c. commitment
d. crush
50. A strong feeling or a personal attachment between friends and family members.
a. affection
b. love
c. commitment
d. crush

Good luck
Mam NYMS

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FIRST PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 7
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
_______1. A systematic, structured and organized sound.
a. music
b. noise
c. timbre
d. tone color
_______2. It refers to the degree of loudness and softness of sound.
a. tempo
b. articulation
c. dynamics
d. tone color
_______3. Refers to the quality of sound that distinguishes one instrument from another.
a. timbre
b. tone color
c. vocal timbre
d. both a and b
_______4. It consists of five parallel lines and four squares.
a. staff
b. clef
c. note
d. rest
_______5. It is also used to build a sense of continuity and create contrasts in a musical piece.
a. timbre
b. tone color
c. tone quality
d. vocal timbre
_______6. The higest female voice is called
a. soprano
b. mezzo soprano
c. alto
d. tenor
_______7. The highest male voice
a. soprano
b. mezzo soprano
c. alto
d. tenor
_______8. The term given for the lowest female voice.
a. soprano
b. mezzo soprano
c. alto
d. bass
_______9. The medium male voice
a. soprano
b. baritone
c. tenor
d. bass
______10. Musical instruments that are struck, saken, or rubbed.
a. idiophones
b. membranophones
c. aerophones
d. chordophones
______11. It is often referred to as the backbone of the orchestra.
a. string instruments
b. woodwind instruments
c. brass instruments
d.
percussion
______12. It is the leader and the heart of the instruments in the orchestra.
a. violin
b. viola
c. cello
d. harp
______13. Is called the clown of the orchestra with a long curving metallic mouthpiece.
a. piccolo
b. flute
c. oboe
d. bassoon
______14. The main instrument of the brass section.
a. trumpet
b. trombone
c. French horn
d. tuba
______15. The largest instrument in the brass section.
a. trumpet
b. trombone
c. French horn
d. tuba
______16. It is the ability to function effectively, to enjoy leisure, to be healthy, to resist disease, and to
cope with
emergency situations.
a. health
b. wellness
c. physical fitness
d. physical education
______17. This refers to the measurement of ones weight relative to his/her height.
a. body composition
b. body mass index
c. balance
d. fitness
______18. The ability to perform a movement or cover a certain distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. reaction time
______19. The ability to change the position of ones body quickly and to control ones body movement.
a. agility
b. speed
c. power
d. balance
______20. The Body Mass Index or (BMI) is a component of physical fitness which is used to determine
your normal:
a. vital statistics
b. weight and height ratio
c. height
d. waist measurement
______21. A normal body mass index helps prevent metabolic diseases such as
a. malaria and high fever
c. HIV or AIDS
b. cancer, diabetes and hypertension
d. leprosy and small pox
______22. Walking to school and climbing up stairs are examples of activities which illustrate a
component of physical
fitness known as:
a. physiological or aerobic fitness b. flexibility
c. strength
d. Body Mass Index
______23. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
______24. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
______25. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______26. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility

b. muscular strength
d. power
______27. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______28. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______29. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______30. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______31. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______32. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______34. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
______35. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
II- A.Identification: Identify the dimension of health does each activity develop most. Write:
P for Physical Health, S for Social Health, MS for Moral-Spiritual Health,
E for Emotional Health, and M for Mental Health.
_________________36. growth of Adams apple
_________________37. ability to judge
_________________38. show your feelings in a positive way
_________________39. love at first sight
_________________40. increase in height and weight
_________________41. going out with friends
_________________42. appearance of pimples
_________________43. surf the internet
_________________44. broadening of chest and shoulders
_________________45. consulting parents about your problems
B. Identify whether the given instrument is an idiophone, membranophone, aerophone, chordophone, or
electrophone.
_________________46. cymbals
_________________47. flute
_________________48. organ
_________________49. violin
_________________50. snare drum

Good luck
Mam NYMS

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FIRST PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 8
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
______1. It is one of the most beautiful country in Southeast Asia.
a. Cambodia
b. Indonesia
c. Laos
d. Malaysia
______2. The worlds fourth most populous country and is the fourth biggest nation in the world
a. Laos
b. Indonesia
c. Malaysia
d. Myanmar
______3. Known as Burma until 1989.
a. Laos
b. Indonesia
c. Malaysia
d. Myanmar
______4. A constitutional monarchy in Southeast Asia
a. Laos
b. Indonesia
c. Malaysia
d. Myanmar
______5. A Cambodian musical ensemble
a. oneat
b. gamelan
c. piphat
d. pinpeat
______6. It is the most popular form of music in Indonesia.
a. piphat
b. gamelan
c. oneat
d. pinpeat
______7. Myanmars traditional folk music ensemble
a. hsaing waing
b. maung hsaing
c. kyi waing
d. pat waing
______8. This is a musical ensemble from the Malay Peninsula that consists of xylophones played swiftly
rhythmically in traditional Malay functions.
a. kertok
b. silat melayu
c. dikit barat
d. agung
______9. This is a form of martial art that is similar to tai chi.
a. kertok
b. silat melayu
c. dikit barat
d. agung
_____10. This is a type of music form that is important to Malaysias national culture.
a. kertok
b. silat melayu
c. dikit barat
d. agung
_____11. It is considered to be one of the finest arts in the world.
a. ikat technique
b. uneven twill
c. Thai silk making
d. Cambodian textile
_____12. It is produced from the cocoons of Thai silkworms
a. Thai silk
b. silk weaving
c. Ikat technique
d. uneven twill
_____13. The center of the silk industry in Thailand
a. Khorat
b. karma
c. sihns
d. takeo
_____14. Defined as the ability to become and stay physically healthy
a. aerobics
b. dancing
c. health-related fitness d. skill-related fitness
_____15. The ratio of the body fat to lean body mass
a. body composition
b. fitness
c. force
d. wellness
_____16. Refers to the maximum amount of force a muscle exerts against an opposing force.
a. agility
b. balance
c. speed
d. strenght
_____17. The following are health-related fitness EXCEPT:
a. body composition b. flexibility
c. speed
d. strength
_____18. Heaviness and lightness of a person
a. age
b. height
c. waist circumference d. weight
_____19. The distance between the floor to the top of the head in standing position is called
a. arms span
b. height
c. leg length
d. sitting height
_____20. Exercises for cardio-respiratory endurance
a. basketball pass
b. jogging
c. shuttle run
d. zipper test
_____21. The Body Mass Index or (BMI) is a component of physical fitness which is used to determine
your normal:
a. vital statistics
b. weight and height ratio
c. height
d. waist measurement
_____22. A normal body mass index helps prevent metabolic diseases such as
a. malaria and high fever
c. HIV or AIDS
b. cancer, diabetes and hypertension
d. leprosy and small pox
_____23. It is the capacity of each individual to accomplish daily task with alertness and vigor.
a. good life
b. physical education c. physical fitness
d. strength
_____24. Walking to school and climbing up stairs are examples of activities which illustrate a
component of physical
fitness known as:
a. physiological or aerobic fitness b. flexibility
c. strength
d. Body Mass Index
_____25. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of

a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
_____26. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
_____27. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_____28. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_____29. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_____30. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____31. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____32. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____33. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
_____34. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
_____35. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
_____36. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
_____37. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
_____38. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
_____39. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
_____40. It means you can carry out everyday tasks without becoming too tired.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
_____41. What term defines a man or a woman based on biological characteristics?
a. sex
b. gender
c. sexuality
d. androgyny
_____42. Which of the following illustrates gender?
a. Miguel loves to cook
c. Hazal has a positive body image
b. Marco does not cry in public
d. Alex is attracted to Fely
_____43. What do you call the sets of activities that society considers as appropriate for men and women?
a. gender role
b. gender identity
c. gender equality
d. gender sensitivity
_____44. Why is it important to understand human sexuality?
a. We will all be mature adults.
c. There is a specific age for developing ones
b. We have similar sexuality issues d. It will help us build a better relationship with
ourselves and others
_____45. Which characterizes a good decision?
a. Easy to make
c. One that your teacher told you to make
b. Makes your friends happy
d. Arrived at after a thoughtful
consideration of consequences
_____46. This means evaluating your well-being periodically which includes you sexuality
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____47. It helps you avoid misunderstanding by expressing your feelings in a healthy way.
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____48. Means making choices that are healthy and responsible.
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____49. It can be accomplished through information about good sexuality.
a. assessing your health
c. communicating effectively
b. making good decisions
d. practicing wellness
_____50. It is a choice you make or act upon.
a. decision
b. objectives
c. purpose
d. aim

Good luck
Mam NYMS

_______1. The Body Mass Index or (BMI) is a component of physical fitness which is used to determine
your normal:
a. vital statistics
b. weight and height ratio
c. height
d. waist measurement
_______2. A normal body mass index helps prevent metabolic diseases such as
a. malaria and high fever
c. HIV or AIDS
b. cancer, diabetes and hypertension
d. leprosy and small pox
_______3. It is the capacity of each individual to accomplish daily task with alertness and vigor.
a. good life
b. physical education c. physical fitness
d. strength
_______4. Walking to school and climbing up stairs are examples of activities which illustrate a
component of physical
fitness known as:
a. physiological or aerobic fitness b. flexibility
c. strength
d. Body Mass Index
_______5. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
_______6. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
_______7. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______8. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______9. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______10. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______14. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______15. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______16. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______17. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
______18. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
______19. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
______20. It means you can carry out everyday tasks without becoming too tired.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______21. Means being a lifelong learner by continuously wanting to learn new things and improve ones
skills.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health

______22. It involves understanding and liking yourself as well as accepting and learning from your
mistakes.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______23. It refers to how well you get along with other people.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______24. It refers to your personal beliefs, values, and faith.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. moral-spiritual health
d. mental health
______25. This is a pleasant diversion from routine and also relieves nervous tension.
a. driving
b. exercise
c. smoking
d. all of the above
______26. It is your ability to think about how you responded to people and in situations.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______27. It is your skill to identify the different demands on your limited time.
a. time management
b. reflection
c. self-awareness
d. self-appraisal
______28. It is about your skill to work with people with different beliefs, values, and backgrounds.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______29. It is your skill to set realistic, clearly-defined goals with a specific time-frame that is
measurable.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______30. This is your ability to assess the success of a strategy in reaching the original goal.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. planning and
monitoring

______31. It is your skill to recognize your strengths and weaknesses, and acknowledge areas for
improvement.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______32. It is your skill to identify ways to change negative behavior, feelings or attitudes as a result of
contemplation.
a. time management
b. reflection
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______33. It is your skill to adjust to new situations.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______34. It is your ability to think of your past experiences and consider their effects on your health.
a. time management
b. reflection
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______35. It is your skill to manage your personal reactions to responsibilities and challenges in life.
a. self-management
b. reflection
c. flexibility
d. self-appraisal
______36. These are caused by the vibration of of objects or movements of animals and people.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______37. Sounds that are organized and pleasant.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______38. These are disorganized sounds.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______39. It plays a prominent role in different celebrations, rites, rituals, and special occasions.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______40. Which of the following is NOT a function of music?
a. helps us release our emotions
c. not primarily an aesthetic function
b. develop a sense og nationalism
d. provides entertainment
II- A.Identification: Identify the dimension of health does each activity develop most. Write:
P for Physical Health, S for Social Health, MS for Moral-Spiritual Health,
E for Emotional Health, and M for Mental Health.
______41. Eating a balanced diet regularly
______42. Going out with family and friends
______43. Respecting your parents and elders
______44. Show your feelings in a positive way
______45. Telling the truth.
______46. Listening to mood music.
______47. Reading your favorite books.
______48. Getting enough rest and sleep.
______49. Say sorry when you have done wrong.
______50. Consulting parents about your problems.
B. TRUE or FALSE. Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is wrong.
___________51. Girls are taller than boys.
___________52. Girls hips become broader.
___________53. Voice change occurs among boys.
___________54. Boys become more aggressive than girls.
___________55. Muscle growth is faster in girls than in boys.
___________56. Girls and boys experience rapid mental growth.

___________57. Boys reach the age of puberty earlier than girls.


___________58. Boys and girls like to be alone more than to be with friends.
___________59. Adolescents are more sensitive at this stage.
___________60. Puberty is the time when you start to become sexually mature.

Good luck
Mam NYMS

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FOURTH PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 7
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
1. Substances intended for use in cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of diseases in man or animals.
a. drugs
b. natural drugs
c. synthetic drugs
d. stimulants
2. A kind of drugs that includes natural plant leaves, flowering tops, resin, hashish, opium and marijuana.
a. drugs
b. natural drugs
c. synthetic drugs
d. stimulants
3. Drugs that directly activate vital body functions suc as those of the central nervous sytem.
a. drugs
b. natural drugs
c. synthetic drugs
d. stimulants
4. Group of divisive volatile substances normally not considered as drugs.
a. stimulant
b. inhalant
c. antihistamine
d. antibiotic
5. Drugs which numb the senses, induce lethargy and stupor and relieve pain.
a. inhalants
b. stimulants
c. narcotics
d. antiseptics
6. Drugs used to exhibit the growth and multiplication of microorganisms.
a. inhalants
b. stimulants
c. narcotics
d. antiseptics
7. Drugs used to counteract the action of certain substances which cause allergy.
a. stimulant
b. inhalant
c. antihistamine
d. antibiotic
8. Drugs which may suppress or inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
a. stimulant
b. inhalant
c. antihistamine
d. antibiotic
9. Drugs that directly slow vital body functions such as those of te nervous system.
a. depressant
b. hallucinogens
c. anesthetics
d. antibiotic
10. Drugs that alter mood, perception, thinking and ego structure so that the user cannot distinguish the
real from
the unreal.
a. depressant b. hallucinogens
c. anesthetics
d. antibiotic
11. Refer to how much of the medicine should be taken, how often, when or how to continue the
medication.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive
drugs
12. These are non-prescription medicines which may be purchased from any pharmacy or drugstore
without
written authorization from a doctor.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive
drugs

13. Drugs taken for itsnintended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength, and manner.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive
drugs
14. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons.
a. drug abuse
b. drug misuse
c. drug use
d. over-thecounter drugs
15. Drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor in order to allow a purchase.
a. dosage
b. drug use
c. over-the-counter drugs
d. prescriptive
drugs
16. It is taken orally, injected or sniffed as to achieve euphoria or an intense feeling of highness.
a. cocaine
b. caffeine
c. shabu
d. nicotine
17. Poor mans cocaine.
a. cocaine
b. caffeine
c. shabu
d. nicotine
18. An active component of tobacco which acts as a powerful stimulant of the central nervous system.
a. cocaine
b. caffeine
c. shabu
d. nicotine
19. The most abused depressants
a. barbiturate
b. shabu
c. alcohol
d. seconal
20. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia.
a. barbiturate
b. shabu
c. alcohol
d. seconal
21. The chessboard is made out of _____ squares.
a. 12
b. 16
c. 32
d. 64
22. The lines marked with white and green are called ________.
a. diagonals
b. ranks
c. files
d. pieces
23. Lines occupying the squares horizontally are called __________.
a. diagonals
b. ranks
c. files
d. pieces
24. Lines occupying the squares vertically
a. diagonals
b. ranks
c. files
d. pieces
25. Is called when the King is being attacked by an opponents piece.
a. check
b. draw
c. jadoube
d. en passant
26. A long range piece which ends the game with the same square color as it started and moves and
captures diagonally.
a. rook
b. queen
c. knight
d. bishop
27. A long range piece which moves and captures horizontally and vertically.
a. rook
b. queen
c. knight
d. bishop
28. It moves and captures like the King horizontally, vertically, and diagonally but in a long range
fashion.
a. rook
b. queen
c. knight
d. bishop
29. It moves just one square at a time in any direction; up, down, left, right and diagonally.
a. bishop
b. pawn
c. knight
d. king

30. It moves with an L shaped pattern and captures a piece in the same way which means if it started on a
light square
must land on a dark square and vice versa.
a. bishop
b. pawn
c. knight
d. king
31. Refers to that branch of the performing arts concerned with acting out narratives or stories in front of
an audience.
a. theatre
b. drama
c. play
d. cinema
32. Type of theatre that focuses on dialog and action, based on a written text or on an impaired one.
a. theatre
b. drama
c. play
d. cinema
33. It is the use of facial expressions, gestures, body movement, and voice to convey action or a
personality.
a. speaking
b. stage blocking c. acting
d. character
blocking
34. Clothing and accessories worn by actors to portray character and setting.
a. costumes
b. props
c. makeup
d. sound
35. The use of face and body cosmetics, wigs, costumes t portray a role or character.
a. costumes
b. props
c. makeup
d. sound
II. Identify the following dance steps.Write only the letter of the correct answer.

a. touch step
b. bleking step
c. close step
d. hop step
e. slide step

f. change step
g. cross change step
h. contraganza
i. plain polka
j. mincing step
k. hop polka

36. step, step, step, step (and so on with tiny steps)


37. point, close
38. step, close
39. slide, close
40. cross-step, close, step

41. leap, cross-step, pause


42. heel place, close
43. step, hop
44. step, close, step
45. step, close, step, pause

III- A. Write the symbol of the following pieces:


46. Knight 47. Rook 48. Queen 49. Bishop 50. King -

51. Captures 52. Moves to 53. Check 54. Checkmate 55. Draw -

B. Write the value of the following pieces:


56. Queen 57. King 58. Knight 59. Rook 60. Bishop -

Good luck & Happy Vacation


Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FOURTH PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 8
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
1. Is often defined as the deliberate taking of a substance for reasons other than its intended use and in a
manner that can
damage the persons health or his or her ability to function normally.

a. drug use
b. drug abuse
c. drug dependence
d. drug tolerance
2. Defined as the continued or occasional use of drugs that is inconsistent with legitimate medical
purposes.
a. drug use
b. drug abuse
c. drug dependence
d. drug tolerance
3. The state that is manifested by physical disturbances when the use of a drug is stopped temporarily.
a. drug dependence b. physical dependence c. drug abuse
d. drug use
4. It is the intense desire and perpetuation of abuse to obtain the desired effect of a drug.
a. psychological dependence b. physical dependence c.emotional dependence d. mental
dependence
5. Drugs that increase the activity of the brain or other parts of the nervous system.
a. stimulants
b. amphetamines
c. cocaine
d. shabu
6. Stimulate the central nervous sytem, increase activity, and raise blood pressure.
a. stimulants
b. amphetamines
c. cocaine
d. shabu
7. Commonly called shabu or poor mans cocaine.
a. caffeine
b. alcohol
c. marijuana
d. methamphetamine
hydrochloride
8. Are those that have harmful effects on the mental and physical well-being of a person.
a. dangerous drugs b. prohibited drugs
c. shabu
d. marijuana
9. These drugs include opium and its components like morphine, heroin, cocaine, hallucinogens and other
synthetic or
natural drugs with psychological effects.
a. stimulants
b. amphetamines
c. cocaine
d. shabu
10. Cigarette smoking primarily affects the ____________ system.
a. central nervous system
b. excretory system
c. respiratory system
d. circulatory system
11. A kind of smoke tha comes out of the lighted nd of a cigarette or pipe.
a. mainstream smoke
b. sidestream smoke
c. third-hand smoke
d. residual tobacco
smoke
12. Refers specifically to the smoke that a smoker directly inhales.
a. mainstream smoke
b. sidestream smoke
c. third-hand smoke
d. residual tobacco
smoke
13. Smoke left for a long time on sofa, beddings, pillow and other objects.
a. mainstream smoke
b. sidestream smoke
c. third-hand smoke
d. residual tobacco
smoke
14. It is an addictive substance found in tobacco products.
a. cocaine
b. nicotine
c. caffeine
d. benzyne
15. Also known as The Tobacco Regulation Act of 2003.
a. RA No. 6425
b. RA No. 9211
c. RA No. 874
d. Phil. Clean Air Act of
1999
16. Which among the statements given below upholds the responsibility of parents to their children?
a. Choose their course in college
c. Teach them religion
b. Choose their husband or wife
d. Teach them values
17. Why do people marry?
a. for economic security
b. for love
c. for social status
d. all of these
18. Why do couples want to have children?
a. children are considered wealth of parents
c. society expects couples to have offspring
b. religious institutions require it
d. allows the couple to continue their growing
relationship
19. Which is an ingredient of a happy married life?
a. commitment
b. love
c. sincerety
d. all of these
20. Which is a wrong reason for having children?
a. children are gifts from God
c. children make the married couples more
responsible
b. children make married couples happy
d. children provide parents security in the future
21. Why is having a small family important?
a. ensures communitys progress
c. requires lesser economic needs
b. provides for the basic needs of children for quality life
d. small family is quiet and peaceful
22. What is the right age Filipinos to enter into marriage, as set by the Family Code of the Philippines?
a. 15
b. 18
c. 21
d. 25
23. A tender feeling toward another person is called_______
a. affection
b. love
c. commitment
d. crush
24. Known as ones dedication to a relationship.
a. affection
b. love
c. commitment
d. crush
25. A strong feeling or a personal attachment between friends and family members.
a. affection
b. love
c. commitment
d. crush
26. The puppeteer and narrative of Wayang Kulit.
a. Dalang
b. Erhuang
c. Bonang
d. Gamelan
27. Used to express the lyric mood such as mild, placid, and gentle.
a. Dalang
b. Erhuang
c. Bonang
d. Gamelan

28. Combination of music, vocal, mime, dance and acrobats.


a. drama
b. Peking Opera
c. zarzuela
d. orchestra
29. A traditional theatre art of Indonesia.
a. Peking Opera
b. zarzuela
c. Wayang Kulitd. drama
30. Combination of acting, dancing, and music which includes the manifestation of form, color, and
sound.
a. Kabuki
b. Peking Opera
c. drama
d. theatre
II- Identify the concept described in each item. Choose from the words listed below and write its
corresponding letter.
a. gateway drugs
f. ethanol
b. RA No. 8749
g. cirrhosis
c. nicotiano tobacuum
h. fatty liver
d. fermentation
i. heart attack
e. alcohol
j. intoxication
31. Physical and mental changes that the body is experiencing upon consuming alcohol.
32.Condition when the liver is being stored with fat from alcohol.
33. The process of extracting alcohol from plant or fruit source.
34. A drug whih can open doors for the user to experiment and try more dangerous drugs like nicotine and
alcohol.
35. Also known as the Phil. Clean Air Act of 1999.
36. Colorless, bitter-tasting liquid that is consumed and/or used either as beverage or medicine.
37. Also called beverage alcohol which come from fruiots and grains, type of alcohol that can be
consumed by humans.
38. The plant whose leaves can be rolled into a cigar or pipe and can be smoked.
39. Condition when the liver is scarred due to heavy alcohol consumption.
40. It is the immediate death of heart muscles due t blockage of te coronary arteries by a blood clot.
III- Arrange the letters for each item to decipher the words. A hint is provided below the words.
41. R E N C A C
Hint: A group of disease which makes body cells grow uncontrollably.
42. N E A O N I P M U
Hint: Infection of the lungs
43. T A S H A M
Hint: A chronic disease which affect the airways.
44. S E A Y H E M P M
Hint: Damaged air sacs in the lungs.
45. S I T R I C H B O N
Hint: Inflammation of the airways from the trachea into the lung.
46. H H I G B O O L D E R U S E S R P
Hint: Too much exertion of blood against the arteries causing damage.
47. D A B A T E B R H
Hint: Foul smell exhaled from the mouth
48. O Y B D O O R D
Hint: Effect of cigarette smoke to your body scent
49. E T A R H
I D AS S E E S
Hint: Involves the cardiovascular system
50. N O I T C D D I A
Hint: Being dependent on a drug or combination of drugs.
IV- Identify the following components of Physical Fitness. Write HC if it is Health Component, and SC
if it is Skill
Component.
51. Agility
52. Flexibility
53. Speed
54. Body Composition
55. Coordination
56. Reaction Time
57. Muscular strength and endurance
58. Power
59. Cardiovascular Fitness
60. Balance

Good luck & Happy Vacation


Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
THIRD PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 7
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
______1. The National Anthem of te Philippines with music by Julian Felipe.
a. Himno Nacional Filipino b. Lupang Hinirang
c. Bayang Magiliw
d. Marcha
Filipina Nacional
______2. Title of the song with music and lyrics written by Julio Nakpil.
a. Himno Nacional Filipino
b. Lupang Hinirang

c. Bayang Magiliw
d. Marangal na Dalit ng Katagalugan
______3. It is known as the Pilippines signature love song.
a. kundiman
b. sarswela
c. ballad
d. composo
______4. A composer of Nasaan Ka Irog?
a. Nicanor Abelardo
b. Raymundo Baas
c. Jose Corazon de Jesus
d.
Julian Felipe
______5. He is one of our great composer, pianist, and a teacher of composition at the UP then
Conservatory of Music.
a. Jose Corazon de Jesus
b. Julian Felipe
c. Nicanor Santa Ana de Jesus d. Levi
Celerio
______6. A ballad composed by Ernani Cuenco in 1979.
a. Gaano Ko Ikaw Kamahal b. Nasaan Ka Irog
c. Bahay Kubo
d. Dandansoy
______7. He was proclaimed as the National Artist for Music in 1999.
a. Jose Corazon de Jesus
b. Julian Felipe c. Nicanor Santa Ana de Jesus d. Ernani
Joson Cuenco
______8. The highest national recognition bestowed upon to Filipino artists who have made significant
contributions
to the development of Philippine Arts.
a. Best Performer
b. Best Composer
c. Order of National Artists
d. Best
Producer
______9. This song is presently known as Lupang Hinirang.
a. Himno Nacional Filipino b. Lupang Hinirang
c. Bayang Magiliw
d. Marcha
Filipina Nacional
_____10. A narrative song, ranging from indigenous forms to Hispanic-influenced themes.
a. kundiman
b. sarswela
c. ballad
d. composo
_____11. It is a branch of competitive sports involving running, walking, throwing, and jumping.
a. marathon
b. pole vault
c. track and field
d. soccer
_____12. When was the 1st Olympic Game?
a. 776 BC
b. 1896
c. 1923
d. 1945
_____13. A place were Olympic Game was revived.
a. Japan
b. Mexico
c. Athens
d. Philippines
_____14. Who introduced track and Field to the Filipinos?
a. Chinese
b. Mexican
c. Japanese
d. Americans
_____15. A playing venue of track and field events.
a. diamond
b. court
c. lawn
d. oval
_____16. A running event with 4 players and each player has to run 100m and has to relay the baton to te
next player.
a. hurdling
b. 4x100-m relay
c. 4x400-m relay
d. marathon
_____17. Each of the four players has to run 400m and has to relay the baton to the next player.
a. hurdling
b. 4x100-m relay
c. 4x400-m relay
d. marathon
_____18. It is running and leaping over a high bar without touching it.
a. hurdling
b. 4x100-m relay
c. 4x400-m relay
d. marathon
_____19. It is done by leaping over a high bar without touching it.
a. long jump
b. triple jump
c. high jump
d. pole vault
_____20. The most difficult of the jumping events which is done with the use of a pole.
a. long jump
b. triple jump
c. high jump
d. pole vault
_____21. A piece of spherical iron ball thrown to a distance.
a. shot
b. discus
c. javelin
d. pole
_____22. A platelike implement hurdled to a farther distance than the shot put.
a. shot
b. discus
c. javelin
d. pole
_____23. This is a pointed instrument that is struck on the ground to make a distinct mark.
a. shot
b. discus
c. javelin
d. pole
_____24. The following are examples of running events EXCEPT
a. 100-m dash
b. shot put
c. steeplechase
d. marathon
_____25. Which of the following does NOT BELONG to the group?
a. long jump
b. pole vault
c. walkathon
d. triple jump
_____26. Who invented volleyball?
a. James Naismith
b. William Morgan
c. Luther Gulick
d. Michael
Jordan
_____27. His main duty is to stop, retrieve the ball, and make a defensive play only.
a. libero
b. spiker
c. toser
d. linesman
_____28. It is done by hitting the ball over or above the net with a strong force or smash such that the ball
falls in a
downward direction.
a. blocking
b. defending
c. spiking
d. serving
_____29. It is the effort of the defensive team to stop a spike.
a. blocking
b. defending
c. spiking
d. serving
_____30. It is the act of putting the ball in play.

a. placement

b. service

c. set-up

_____31. Hitting the ball on an intended spot.


a. placement
b. service
c. set-up
_____32. To bat the ball to a teammate.
a. pass
b. placement
c. set
_____33. Failure of the serving team to score.
a. set
b. set-up
c. foul
_____34. Equivalent to te word game.
a. set
b. set-up
c. foul
_____35. The offensive team attempting to score.
a. attack
b. spike
c. toss
_____36. A violation of the rules.
a. set
b. set-up
c. foul
_____37. When a player touches the ball more than once with whatever part of his body.
a. passing
b. tossing
c. foul
_____38. When the balls come to rest momentarily in the hands or arms of the player.
a. holding
b. dribbling
c. passing
_____39. Both teams committing a foul in the same play.
a. foul
b. double foul
c. dribbling
_____40. Meaning to hit the ball on the fly.
a. rally
b. volley
c. tossing
II- Identification: Identify the following athletic events as running, jumping or throwing.
41. shot put
46. 4x400-m relay
42. steeplechase
47. long jump
43. pole vault
48. javelin throw
44. marathon
49. triple jump
45. 4x100-m relay
50. 400-m low hurdles

d. set

d. set
d. service
d. side-out
d. side-out
d. defense
d. side-out
d. dribbling
d. tossing
d. violation
d. blocking

III- Select from the words inside the box the correct answer of the following items.
infection
dressing
fracture
abrasion

first aid
laceration
puncture
bandage

wound
incision
torniquet

51. a break in the skin or mucous membrane


52. made by excessive rubbing or scrapping
53. sharp cuts that bleed freely
54. irregular wounds associated with much tissue damage
55. a tack run through the skin made by pointed objects
56. a compress to control the hemorrhage
57. requires immediate first aid
58. immediate care given to a victim
59. broken bone
60. a woven material used to hold a wound

Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
THIRD PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 8
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
1. All are basic skills in football EXCEPT______.
a. defense
b. running and kicking
c. speed
d. sliding
2. The only one who can use his hands on the ball is the _________.
a. center halfback
b. goalkeeper
c. left fullback
d. right fullback
3. When the ball touched by the defending team crosses the goal line, a _____ kick is awarded.
a. corner
b. free
c. goal
d. side
4. Kicks that require second touch by another player before the goal is counted are called ______ kicks.
a. corner
b. free
c. indirect free
d. direct free
5. All the offenses bring about free kicks EXCEPT _________.
a. displaying ungentlemanly conduct
b. holding an opponent
c. showing dissent toward the referee
d. none of these
6. The game of football starts with a
a. dribbling relay
b. kick-off
c. throw-in
d. jump ball
7. When the ball goes out of the line, a _________ is awarded to the opponent.
a. drop ball
b. free kick
c. throw-in
d. point
8. One of the rules on free kicks is that the ball must be ______ when the kick is taken.
a. bouncing
b. rolling
c. stationary
d. off the ground
9. Pushing an opponent is an offense that brings about a/an _________.
a. direct free kick
b. indirect free kick
c. corner kick
d. side kick
10. All the offenses below are offenses that bring about a direct free kick EXCEPT _________.
a. delaying the game
b. jumping at an opponent
c. holding an opponent
d. pushing an
opponent
11. A batter is out after _______ strikes.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
12. A free walk is awarded to the batter on the ______ ball.
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
13. An inning is finished after _______ outs from both teams.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. six
14. The official in baseball is called _________.
a. arbiter
b. referee
c. timer
d. umpire
15. The _____ zone, over the plate is below te batters armpit and above his or her knees where the
pitched ball
should pass.
a. ball
b. pitched
c. strike
d. temperate
16. A batter is out when he or she misses _______ pitched balls.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
17. It is a ______ if a batted fly ball is caught.
a. fly out
b. forced out
c. put out
d. strike out
18. A pitched ball outside the strike zone is called _________.
a. ball
b. curved ball
c. wild ball
d. strike
19. If a batter decided not to hit a pitched ball that passes within the strike zone, the umpire will rule it
______.
a. ball
b. out
c. safe
d. strike
20. A batted fly or ground ball that lands outside the foul line is a _________.
a. good ball
b. fair ball
c. foul ball
d. bad ball
21. It is an immediate care given to a sick or injured person before professional help arrives.
a. bandage
b. splint
c. first aid
d. dressing
22. A temporary state wherein there is hyperactive electrical brain activity.
a. convulsion
b. shock
c. hypertension
d. nose bleeding
23. This is a condition where the tissues in the body do not receive enough oxygen and nutrients to allow
the cells to
fuction. a. convulsion
b. shock
c. hypertension
d. nose bleeding

24. A very common occurrence due to the abundance of blood vessels as well as the prominence of the
nose in the
front of te face. a. convulsion
b. shock
c. hypertension
d. nose bleeding
25. It is the damage to the soft tissue of the body from violence or trauma.
a. shock
b. convulsion
c. wound
d. severe bleeding
26. A method of tightly encircling a bandage above the injured limb to stop temporarily the flow of blood
through a large
artery in a limb.
a. direct pressure
b. tourniquet c. elevation
d. bandage
27. This is a break in the skin or mucous membrane resulting from common accidents
a. open wound
b. closed wound
c. severe bleeding
d. bites
28. This is a partial or complete blockage of the air passage by a solid foreign object lodge in the pharynx
or in te airways.
a. choking
b. stroke
c. convulsion
d. hypertension
29. Any break in the continuity of a bone.
a. fracture
b. sprain
c. strain
d. dislocation
30. It usually happen when bone joints separate causing the bones to be mis aligned.
a. fracture
b. sprain
c. strain
d. dislocation

31. An injury of the ligaments of a bone joint due to accidental overstretching.


a. fracture
b. sprain
c. strain
d. dislocation
32. This is a painful injury to a muscle that involves tearing of some muscle fibers.
a. fracture
b. sprain
c. strain
d. dislocation
33. Pressure point at te lower face
a. temporal
b. facial
c. carotid
d. subclavian
34. Pressure point at the lower part of upper arm and elbow.
a. facial
b. brachial
c. subclavian
d. femoral
35. Pressure point at shoulder or upper part of upper arm.
a. facial
b. brachial
c. subclavian
d. femoral
II- Identify which word fits the description of Carnatic and Hindustanic music
Khyal
Unified
Krti
Nasal Singing
Persian Influence
Carnatic Music

III- A. Identify the position of the following players number.


9 ________________
1_______________
4 ________________
7_______________
3 ________________
2_______________

Temple Music
Northern
Southern
Lyrical
Imagination
Hindustani Music

6_________________
5_________________
8_________________

B. Categorize the following violations into DFK for direct free kick, and IFK for indirect free kick.
1. kicking or attempted kicking of an opponent
2. displaying or striking at an opponent
3. ungentlemanly conduct
4. wasting time
5. disputes with the referee
6. holding an opponent

Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
SECOND PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 7
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
1. It refers to the quality of sound that distinguishes one instrument from another.
a. timbre
b. harmony
c. balance
d. intonation
2. Instrument that are struck, shaken or rubbed.
a. idiophones
b. membranophones
c. aerophones
d. chordophones
3. Musical instruments that are stretched skins as membranes.
a. idiophones
b. membranophones
c. aerophones
d. chordophones
4. Wind instruments that are blown on the mouthpiece to produce sound.
a. idiophones
b. membranophones
c. aerophones
d. chordophones
5. String instruments that are either plucked or bowed.
a. idiophones
b. membranophones
c. aerophones
d. chordophones

6. Instruments that use electronic circuits or sound amplification.


a. chordophones
b. electrophones
c. aerophones
d. membranophones
7. The main instrument of the brass section.
a. trumpet
b. trombone
c. tuba
d. French horn
8. The instrument referred to as the heart of the orchestra
a. viola
b. violin
c. cello
d. harp
9. The group of instruments referred to as the backbone of the orchestra
a. string instruments
b. woodwind instruments
c.brass instruments
d. percussion
instruments
10. The woodwind instrument known as the clown of the orchestra
a. piccolo
b. flute
c. bassoon
d. clarinet
11. The embodiment of an ideanan view of life, or feeling in an expressive form or design
a. music
b. art
c. visual arts
d. performing arts
12. Refer to the arts that can be seen and can be appreciated by looking at them.
a. music
b. art
c. visual arts
d. performing arts
13. Forms af art which use the artists bodies faces, movements, and presence as media
a. music
b. art
c. visual arts
d. performing arts
14. An element of art that refers to an object with three dimensions
a. shape
b. form
c. space
d. texture
15. An element of art that refers to the distance or area
a. shape
b. form
c. space
d. texture
16. It is the surface quality of an object
a. shape
b. form
c. space
d. texture
17. An element of art that is derived from reflected light
a. color
b. texture
c. space
d. shape
18. Property of color concerned with the lightness or darkness of a color
a. hue
b. value
c. intensity
d. tone
19. You produce the secondary color green bymixing _________.
a. blue and red
b. yellow and blue
c. red and yellow
d. yellow, red and blue
20. Two colors opposite each other in the color wheel are called ____________.
a. analogous
b. complementary
c. monochromatic
d. split complementary
21. An art of self-defense using a bolo and a piece of wood or rattan
a. arnis
b. karate
c. sipa
d. boxing
22. The Father of Modern Arnis in the Philippines
a. Jose de las Alas b. Remy Presas
c. Jose Rizal
d. Raymond Velayo
23. When players use two pieces of stick, the game is called ___________
a. solo baston
b. espada y daga
c. double baston
d. triple baston
24. When only one stick is used, it is called ________
a. solo baston
b. espada y daga
c. double baston
d. triple baston
25. When the players use one long stick and one short stick, it is called __________
a. solo baston
b. espada y daga
c. double baston
d. triple baston
26. Ilonggo term of arnis
a. kali
b. kalirangan
c. pagaradmon
d. kabaroon
27. Arnis in Tagalog regions
a. kabaroon
b. sinawali
c. kalirangan
d. panandata
28. Material used in playing arnis
a. kampilan
b. bolo
c. piece of rattan
d. tobo
29. This means a hand implement as a weapon.
a. arnis
b. arnis de mano
c. kaliradan
d. kali
30. Some known Filipino heroes were champion arnis players EXCEPT
a. Jose Rizal
b. Gregorio del Pilar
c. Antonio Luna
d. Manny Pacquiao

31. The most important part of the eye


a. retina
b. sclera
c. cornea
d. pupil
32. A transparent bulge in front of the sclera that acts as a window to let light enter the eyes.
a. retina
b. sclera
c. cornea
d. pupil
33. A dark opening at the center of the iris.
a. retina
b. sclera
c. cornea
d. pupil
34. A thin disk located at the center behind the cornea that contains pigment for eye color
a. iris
b. cornea
c. sclera
d. pupil
35. A condition of nearsightedness which usually occurs when the eyeball is longer from front to back.
a. myopia
b. hyperopia
c. astigmatism
d. cataract

36. A condition of farsightedness


a. myopia
b. hyperopia
c. astigmatism
d. cataract
37. In this condition, the cornea is shaped unevenly causing light rays to come together at different points
in the eye.
a. myopia
b. hyperopia
c. astigmatism
d. cataract
38. Part of the ear which is connected to the pharynx by the Eustachian tube which allows air to pass in
and out.
a. outer ear
b. inner ear
c. middle ear
d. eardrum
39. Part of the ear which collects vibrations from the air.
a. outer ear
b. inner ear
c. middle ear
d. eardrum
40. It is gradually an increasing form of conductive deafness that often begins in early adolescence.
a. accidents
b. wax in the ear
c. ear infection
d. otosclerosis
II-Identification: A. Identify whether the given instrument is an idiophone, membranophone, aerophone,
chordophone or
electrophone.
41. cymbals
46. snare drum
42. dabakan
47. banduria
43. bells
48. kudyapi
44. flute
45. electric drum
B. Arrange in order the Twelve Striking Techniques by writing a number only.
_______49. Strike to the head
______55. Strike to left clavicle
_______50. Strike to left temple
______56. Strike to left temple
_______51. Strike to the left arm
______57. Strike to right arm
_______52. Thrust to abdomen
______58. Thrust to left chest
_______53. Thrust to right chest
______59. Strike to right knee (leg)
_______54. Strike to left knee (leg)
______60. Strike to right clavicle

Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato

SECOND PERIODICAL EXAMINATION


MAPEH GRADE 8
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on your answer sheet.
1. How is Chinese music described?
a. It is gentle and lyrical
c. It is meditative and highly ritualized
b. It is slow in tempo and is very peaceful
d. It is slow and melancholy
2. Which of the following is one of Chinas most popular instruments?
a. haegum
b. erhu
c. koto
d. shamisen
3. Which Korean music category is traditionally ssociated with the lower class?
a. tang-ak
b. chong-ak
c. sog-ak
d. a-ak
4. Which Japanese instrument is called the dragon flute?
a. shinobue
b. hichiriki
c. ryuteki
d. shakuhachi
5. A Korean folk song used as a symbol of Korea and Korean culture.
a. Arirang
b. chong-ak
c. sog-ak
d. a-ak
6. It has a literal meaning of music for the noble classes.
a. ching
b. chong-ak
c. sog-ak
d. tang-ak
7. The sound of such an instrument or any similar sound.
a. clarion
b. ensembles
c. form
d. homophony
8. It is a texture in which two or more parts move together in harmony.
a. heterophony
b. homophony
c. form
d. improvisation
9. This is a classical Japanese dance-drama.
a. hichiriki
b. gagaku
c. kabuki
d. kayagum
10. The folk song of Japan
a. shinobue
b. minyo
c. nokan
d. odaiko
11. A traditional Japanese folk song depicting spring, the season of Cherry Blossoms.
a. ryuteki
b. pansori
c. piri
d. sakura
12. The indigenous spirituality of Japan and the people of Japan.
a. Shinto
b. sho
c. taiko
d. tsuridaiko
13. The traditional Chinese flute
a. Dizi
b. Zheng
c. Sheng
d. Yunluo
14. It is an ancient Chinese instrument
a. Dizi
b. Zheng
c. Sheng
d. Yunluo
15. The most famous flute of Japan which is made from bamboo
a. nokan
b. sho
c. shakuhachi
d. hichiriki
16. A Canadian clergyman, educator, and physician who introduced basketball
a. Dr. Luther Gulick
b. James Naismith
c. Larry Bird
d. Michael Jordan
17. It is the most important skill in basketball
a. shooting
b. dribbling
c. passing
d. catching
18. A basic skill done by pushing the ball repeatedly to the floor
a. shooting
b. dribbling
c. passing
d. catching
19. Passing the ball to another player at chest level
a. chest pass
b. overhead pass
c. bounce pass
d. baseball pass
20. It is done to start the game
a. shooting
b. dribbling
c. jump shot
d. jump ball
21. It is done when the ball is dead as permitted by the table official
a. foul
b. violation
c. end of the game
d. substitution
22. It divides the court into two equal halves
a. center line
b. center circle
c. free throw line
d. restricted area
23. It is drawn at the middle of the court
a. center line
b. center circle
c. free throw line
d. restricted area
24. The lane on the basketball court extending from the end line to 15 ft. in front of the back court
a. center line
b. center circle
c. free throw line
d. restricted area
25. Any infraction or violation of the rules of the game
a. foul
b. misconduct
c. drive
d. penalty
26. The defensive zone for each team
a. center line
b. restricted area
c. back court
d. front court
27. One of the major aspects of the game
a. rebounding
b. passing
c. shooting
d. dribbling
28. The term used to refer to the officiating official in basketball
a. umpire
b. timer
c. referee
d. coach
29. A type of play in team sports wherein the team plays in possession of the ball aiming at earning points
through shooting
a. defensive play
b. offensive play
c. goal tending
d. offensive play
30. A spectacular scoring maneuver when a player jumps high, reaches above a ring and stuffs the ball
down through the hoop
a. dunk shot
b. rebound
c. lay up
d. assist

31. Carbon monoxide from jeepneys contribute to


a. water pollution
b. noise pollution
c. land pollution
d. air pollution
32. To be sure whether the water supply is safe to drink, it should undergo
a. bacteriological examination b. physical examination
c. chemical examination d. biological
examination
33. The average noise that a human ear can tolerate is
a. 60 decibels
b. 90 decibels
c. 100 decibels
d. 120 decibels
34. The general term applied to solid and semi-solid waste materials other than human excreta is
a. garbage
b. rubbish
c. refuse
d. night soil
35. Water that is safe for drinking is called
a. clear water
b. potable water
c. contaminated water
d. treated water
36. A very common refuse disposal which must be discouraged because it creates air pollution
a. composting
b. burning
c. burial
d. grinding
37. An effective household method of purifying water is
a. boiling
b. chlorination
c. filtration
d.
sedimentation
38. Community health is a responsibility which results from concerted efforts of
a. members of the community
c. professionals from officials and voluntary agencies
b. barangay health brigades
d. all of the above
39. Air, noise, and water pollution are common in
a. urban communities
b rural communities
c. all of these
d. uncertain
40. It is the introduction of substances or pollutants in water
a. air pollution
b. water pollution
c. visual pollution
d. noise
pollution
II-Supply the correct answer.
A.
Sound Sources
Intensity Decibels
normal conversation
human whisper
alarm clock
rocket
food blender
domestic quarrel
city traffic
motorcycle
printing press
garbage truck
B.
Terms in Team Sports
Corresponding Team Sports
dribble
chest pass
bat/batting
shoot
inning
3 second violation
short stop
bunt
homerun
free throw

Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FIRST PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 7
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided for.
_______1. The Body Mass Index or (BMI) is a component of physical fitness which is used to determine
your normal:
a. vital statistics
b. weight and height ratio
c. height
d. waist measurement
_______2. A normal body mass index helps prevent metabolic diseases such as
a. malaria and high fever
c. HIV or AIDS
b. cancer, diabetes and hypertension
d. leprosy and small pox
_______3. It is the capacity of each individual to accomplish daily task with alertness and vigor.
a. good life
b. physical education c. physical fitness
d. strength
_______4. Walking to school and climbing up stairs are examples of activities which illustrate a
component of physical
fitness known as:
a. physiological or aerobic fitness b. flexibility
c. strength
d. Body Mass Index
_______5. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
_______6. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
_______7. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______8. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______9. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______10. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance

______14. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______15. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______16. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______17. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
______18. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
______19. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
______20. It means you can carry out everyday tasks without becoming too tired.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______21. Means being a lifelong learner by continuously wanting to learn new things and improve ones
skills.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______22. It involves understanding and liking yourself as well as accepting and learning from your
mistakes.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______23. It refers to how well you get along with other people.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______24. It refers to your personal beliefs, values, and faith.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. moral-spiritual health
d. mental health
______25. This is a pleasant diversion from routine and also relieves nervous tension.
a. driving
b. exercise
c. smoking
d. all of the above
______26. It is your ability to think about how you responded to people and in situations.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility

______27. It is your skill to identify the different demands on your limited time.
a. time management
b. reflection
c. self-awareness
d. self-appraisal
______28. It is about your skill to work with people with different beliefs, values, and backgrounds.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______29. It is your skill to set realistic, clearly-defined goals with a specific time-frame that is
measurable.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______30. This is your ability to assess the success of a strategy in reaching the original goal.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. planning and
monitoring
______31. It is your skill to recognize your strengths and weaknesses, and acknowledge areas for
improvement.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______32. It is your skill to identify ways to change negative behavior, feelings or attitudes as a result of
contemplation.
a. time management
b. reflection
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______33. It is your skill to adjust to new situations.
a. reflection
b. self-awareness
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______34. It is your ability to think of your past experiences and consider their effects on your health.
a. time management
b. reflection
c. self-appraisal
d. flexibility
______35. It is your skill to manage your personal reactions to responsibilities and challenges in life.
a. self-management
b. reflection
c. flexibility
d. self-appraisal
______36. These are caused by the vibration of of objects or movements of animals and people.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______37. Sounds that are organized and pleasant.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______38. These are disorganized sounds.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______39. It plays a prominent role in different celebrations, rites, rituals, and special occasions.
a. music
b. sound
c. noise
d. pitch
______40. Which of the following is NOT a function of music?

a. helps us release our emotions


c. not primarily an aesthetic function
b. develop a sense og nationalism
d. provides entertainment
II- A.Identification: Identify the dimension of health does each activity develop most. Write:
P for Physical Health, S for Social Health, MS for Moral-Spiritual Health,
E for Emotional Health, and M for Mental Health.
______41. Eating a balanced diet regularly
______42. Going out with family and friends
______43. Respecting your parents and elders
______44. Show your feelings in a positive way
______45. Telling the truth.
______46. Listening to mood music.
______47. Reading your favorite books.
______48. Getting enough rest and sleep.
______49. Say sorry when you have done wrong.
______50. Consulting parents about your problems.
B. TRUE or FALSE. Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is wrong.
___________51. Girls are taller than boys.
___________52. Girls hips become broader.
___________53. Voice change occurs among boys.
___________54. Boys become more aggressive than girls.
___________55. Muscle growth is faster in girls than in boys.
___________56. Girls and boys experience rapid mental growth.
___________57. Boys reach the age of puberty earlier than girls.
___________58. Boys and girls like to be alone more than to be with friends.
___________59. Adolescents are more sensitive at this stage.
___________60. Puberty is the time when you start to become sexually mature.

Good luck
Mam NYMS

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FIRST PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 8
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided for.
_____1. The measurement of ones weight relative to ones height.
a. Mass Index
b. Curl-up
c. Fitness
d. Body Mass Index
______2. This is one factor that makes an individual acquire good health.
a. Physical Health
b. Mental Health
c. Intellectual Capacity d. Sports Activities
______3. The human body is compared to a ______ that needs utmost care in order to function well.
a. doll
b. machine
c. mirror
d. painting
______4. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
______5. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
______6. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power

______7. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______8. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______9. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______10. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______14. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______15. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______16. A German musicologist who formulated a system of classifying the instruments.
a. Eric Hornbostel Sachs
b. Severino Reyes
c. Alejandro Cuvero
d. Pascual
Poblete
______17. These are usually in triple or duple meter and is usually in major or minor mode.
a. music
b. folk songs
c. zarzuela
d. composo
______18. It is a play with songs and dances.
a. music
b. folk songs
c. zarzuela
d. composo
______19. What do you call the song about the sufferings of Christ and sung during Lenten Season?
a. Pasyon
b. Daigon
c. Alay
d. Balitaw
______20. What song is sung during Christmas?
a. Pasyon
b. Daigon
c. Alay
d. Balitaw
______21. A Tagalog or Visayan folk song in meter.
a. Pasyon
b. Daigon
c. Alay
d. Balitaw
______22. A song in honor of the Blessed Virgin Mary.
a. Pasyon
b. Daigon
c. Alay
d. Balitaw
______23. A song to serenade a lady usually in duple meter.
a. Balitaw
b. Harana
c. Alay
d. Daigon
______24. It is a narrative song type from Panay.
a. music
b. folk songs
c. zarzuela
d. composo
______25. What is the title of the first Tagalognzarzuela?
a. Budhing Nagpahamak
c. Walang Sugat
b. Paglipas ng Dilim
d. Dalagang Bukid
______26. Who is regarded as the Father of Tagalog Zarzuela?
a. Severino Reyes b. Precioso Palma
c. Alejandro Cuvero
d. Pascual Poblete
______27. A sound produced by strings.
a. chordophone
b. aerophone
c. membranophone
d. idiophone

______28. A sound produced by air.


a. chordophone
b. aerophone
c. membranophone
d. idiophone
______29. Sound produced by skin.
a. chordophone
b. aerophone
c. membranophone
d. idiophone
______30. Sound produced by way of the instrument itself vibrating without the use of the strings body
a. chordophone
b. aerophone
c. membranophone
d. idiophone
______31. What term defines a man or a woman based on biological characteristics?
a. sex
b. gender
c. sexuality
d. androgyny
______32. What do you call the sets of activities that society considers as appropriate men and women?
a. gender role
b. gender identity
c. gender equality
d. gender sensitivity
______33. Why is it important to understand human sexuality?
a. We will all be mature adults
c. There is a specific age for developing ones
sexuality
b. We have similar sexuality issues d. It will help us build a better relationship with
ourselves and others

______34. What law promotes the health of the family, particularly in the prevention and control of
HIV/AIDS?
a. RA 8504
b. RA 7719
c. RH Bill 4244
d. RA 9211
______35. How can a woman who has HIV pass the virus to her baby?
a.during pregnancy, delivery or breastfeeding c. feeding the baby with the eating utensils of
the mother
b. kissing and hugging the baby
d. all of these
______36. It is one of the most beautiful country in Southeast Asia.
a. Cambodia
b. Indonesia
c. Laos
d. Malaysia
______37. A Cambodian musical ensemble or an orchestra that usually accompanies ceremonial music f
the royal
courts and temples.
a. samphor
b. oneat
c. pinpeat
d. chhing
______38. A double-headed drum played with hands.
a. samphor
b. oneat
c. pinpeat
d. chhing
______39. How many instrument players were needed to form the Pinpeat?
a. 2
b. 3`
c. 4
d. 5
______40. This is highly influenced by ancient forms as well as Hindu forms
a. art music
b. Cambodian court music
c. folk music d. Pinpeat ensemble
______41. It is produced from the cocoons of Thai silkworms.
a. silk weaving
b. Thai silk
c. golden thread silks
d. batik
______42. The fabric most common to Indonesia, Malaysia and Singapore
a. silk weaving
b. Thai silk
c. golden thread silks
d. batik
______43. It is made out of rice paper with a bamboo frame which contain a fuel cell or small candle
a. sky lantern
b. wish lantern
c. flying lantern
d. handicrafts
______44. This festival is held on the night of the 12th full moon, usually in November.
a. sky lanten
b. Loy Krathong Festival
c. Chang Mai d. Phuket
______45. It represent 1.4 percent of the total population in Cambodia.
a. indigenous people
b. highlanders
c. lowlanders d. foreigners
______46. One of the most popular forms of art in Vietnam
a. shadow puppetry
b. wayang kulit
c. Vietnamese silk painting
d.
handicraft
______47. Famous art in Indonesia
a. shadow puppetry
b. wayang kulit
c. Vietnamese silk painting
d.
handicraft
______48. A type of puppet shadow play performed around the Indo-Malayan archipelago, tracing its
origin to India.
a. shadow puppetry
b. wayang kulit
c. Vietnamese silk painting
d.
handicraft
______49. A modern Indonesian language means show or perform
a. wayang
b. kulit
c. baying
d. shadow
______50. This is used for calligraphy and for making festive temple decorations, umbrellas, fans and
kites.
a. handicraft
b. sa
c. silk painting
d. wau kite
II- Classify the instruments according to the Hornbostel Sachs Sytem.
_______________________51. Gabbang
_______________________56. Sahunay
_______________________52. Suling
_______________________57. Kalutang
_______________________53. Sulibaw
_______________________58. Neguet
_______________________54. Bunkaka
_______________________59. Gansa
_______________________55. Kudyapi
_______________________60. Diwdiw-as

Good luck
Mam NYMS

_______1. The Body Mass Index or (BMI) is a component of physical fitness which is used to determine
your normal:
a. vital statistics
b. weight and height ratio
c. height
d. waist measurement
_______2. A normal body mass index helps prevent metabolic diseases such as
a. malaria and high fever
c. HIV or AIDS
b. cancer, diabetes and hypertension
d. leprosy and small pox
_______3. It is the capacity of each individual to accomplish daily task with alertness and vigor.
a. good life
b. physical education c. physical fitness
d. strength
_______4. Walking to school and climbing up stairs are examples of activities which illustrate a
component of physical
fitness known as:
a. physiological or aerobic fitness b. flexibility
c. strength
d. Body Mass Index
_______5. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
_______6. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
_______7. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______8. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______9. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______10. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance

______11. The ability to maintain an upright position.


a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______14. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______15. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______16. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______17. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
______18. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
______19. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
______20. A game composed of twelve players but there are only six players who are actually playing
inside the court.
a. basketball
b. volleyball
c. sepak takraw d. badminton
______21. His main duty is to stop, retrieve the ball, and make a defensive play only.
a. spiker
b. captain ball
c. toser
d. libero
______22. Scoring in volleyball is called
a. deuce
b. set point
c. rally point
d. match point
______23. It is done by hitting the ball over or above the net with a strong force or smash such that the
ball falls in a
downward direction.
a. spiking
b. blocking
c. dribbling
d. holding
______24. When the ball comes to rest momentarily in the hands or arms of the player.
a. spiking
b. blocking
c. dribbling
d. holding
______25. To bat the ball to a team mate.
a. pass
b. placement
c. point
d. set
______26. Hitting the ball on an intended spot.
a. pass
b. placement
c. point
d. set

______27. A score made by the serving team.


a. pass
b. placement
c. point
d. set
______28. The act of putting the ball in play.
a. point
b. service
c. set
d. placement
______29. Failure of the serving team to score.
a. set
b. set-up
c. side-out
d. pass
______30. The period of rapid physiological change in boys and girls wherein several parts of their body
mature.
a. puberty
b. infancy
c. adulthood
d. adolescence
______31. This is the girls first menstrual flow.
a. menarche
b. menopause
c. menstruation
d. puberty
______32. The transmission of physical and mental traits from parents to offspring.
a. puberty
b. menarche
c. heredity
d. hormones
______33. These are chemical messengers that regulate many body processes.
a. endocrine glands
b. hormones
c. pancreas
d. adrenal
______34. Works as a chemical communications network in the body.
a. endocrine glands
b. hormones
c. pancreas
d. adrenal
______35. Glands which produce hormones that stimulate the development of male and female secondary
sex traits.
a. endocrine
b. sex glands
c. thyroid
d. parathyroid
______36. Gland which acts as the master control unit.
a. endocrine
b. thyroid
c. pituitary
d. parathyroid
______37. It secretes adrenalin which aids in the control of blood volume and blood pressure and in times
of emergency.
a. adrenals
b. thyroid
c. pituitary
d. endocrine
______38. Hormone secreted by thyroid gland.

a. adrenalin
b. thyroxine
c. parathyroid
d. pancreas
______39. It secretes insulin which regulates carbohydrates metabolism.
a. adrenalin
b. thyroxine
c. parathyroid
d. pancreas
______40. An immediate protective cover placed over a wound.
a. dressing
b. compress
c. bandage
d. first aid
______41. Made by excessive rubbing or scraping.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______42. Commonly caused by knives, metal edges, broken glass or other sharp objects.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______43. Produced by bullets and pointed objects.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______44. Jagged, irregular, or blunt breaks or tears in the soft tissues.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______45. A break in the skin or mucous membrane.
a. open wound
b. closed wound
c. accident
d. incision
III- Identify the concept described in each item. Choose from the words inside the box below.
drugs
drug abuse
prescriptive drugs
stimulants
caffeine

drug use
drug misuse
over-the-counter drugs
cocaine
shabu

depressants
alcohol
barbiturate
narcotics
marijuana

___________46. Substances intended for use in the diagnosis, mitigation, cure, treatment or prevention of
diseases
___________47. These are drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor inorder to allow a
purchase
___________48. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength and
manner
___________49. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons
___________50. The most commonly abused hallucinogen in the Philippines
___________51. One of the most abused drugs which can relieve pain, and produce profound sleep or
stupor
___________52. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia
___________53. The most abused depressants
___________54. This is also known as downers.
___________55. It is a centrl nervous system stimulant and sometimes called upper or speed.
___________56. It can be taken orally, injected or sniffed as to achieve euphoria or an intense of
highness
___________57. These are non-prescription medicines which may be purchased from any pharmacy or
drugstore without
written authorization from the doctor
___________58. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks and some wake up pills
___________59. Drugs that speed up the work of the nervous system
___________60. Means the use of any drug, medically speaking, to the point where it seriously interferes
with the health,
economic status or social functioning of the drug user or others
affected by the drug users behavior

Good luck.
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
4th PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH III
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- A. Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided
for.
______1. The measurement of ones weight relative to ones height.
a. Mass Index
b. Curl-up
c. Fitness
d. Body Mass Index
______2. This is one factor that makes an individual acquire good health.

a. Physical Health
b. Mental Health
c. Intellectual Capacity d. Sports Activities
______3. The human body is compared to a ______ that needs utmost care in order to function well.
a. doll
b. machine
c. mirror
d. painting
______4. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
______5. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
______6. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______7. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______8. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______9. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______10. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. A game played over the net using a shuttlecock and a racket.
a. table tennis
b. badminton
c. lawn tennis
d. volleyball
______12. What is the measurement of the playing area of badminton for doubles?
a. 5.3m x 13.2m
b. 6.01m x 13.3m
c. 6.1m x 13.4m
d. 6.2m x 13.5m
______13. It is a place where badminton first originated.
a. Russia
b. Inglatera
c. India
d. Japan
______14. A winning score for table tennis is
a. 10 points
b. 11 points
c. 15 points
d. 21 points
______15. An official who calls service faults made by the server should they occur.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
______16. He records the points scored by each player.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
______17. They decide whether the shuttle fell inside or outside the court.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
______18. He upholds and enforces the laws of badminton; calls a fault or let should either occur.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
______19. There are how many players who are actually playing inside in each team in a volleyball
game?
a. 6
b. 10
c. 12
d. 15
______20.Who among the players in a volleyball whose main duty is to stop, retrieve the ball and make a
defensive play?
a. team captain
b. spiker
c. libero
d. injured player
______21. This is a disease of the upper respiratory tract which is caused by a virus.
a. common cold
b. pneumonia
c. tuberculosis
d. hepatitis
______22. This is an inflammation of the liver caused by a virus or less commonly by certain medications
or toxins.
a. common cold
b. pneumonia
c. tuberculosis
d. hepatitis
______23. The process of segregating a sick person or a carrier until all dangers of conveying the
infection has passed.
a. quarantine
b. isolation
c. controlling
d. eradication
______24. A disease of the heart and blood vessels.
a. high blood pressure
b. cardiovascular disease
c. stroke
d. heart attack
______25. Any disease characterized by body cells that grow abnormally and tend to spread throughout
the body.
a. high blood pressure
b. cardiovascular disease
c. stroke
d. cancer
B. Identify the following situations as FAULT or LET.
___________26. If a service is not correct.
___________27. Any unforeseen or accidental situation has occurred.
___________28. A line judge is unsighted and the umpire is unable to make a decision.
___________29. The server serves before thereceiver is ready.
___________30. If on service, the shuttle is caught on the net and remains suspended on top or on
service, after
passing over the net, is caught in the net.
___________31. If the shuttle is hit twice in succession by the same player with two strokes.
___________32. If a service court error has occurred.

___________33. If a player touches the net or its supports with racket, person or dress.
___________34. If in play, the shuttle lands outside the boundaries of the court.
___________35. If, when in play, the initial point of contact with the shuttle is not on the strikers side of
the net.
III- Identify the concept described in each item. Choose from the words inside the box below.
drugs
drug abuse
prescriptive drugs
stimulants
caffeine

drug use
drug misuse
over-the-counter drugs
cocaine
shabu

depressants
alcohol
barbiturate
narcotics
marijuana

___________36. Substances intended for use in the diagnosis, mitigation, cure, treatment or prevention of
diseases
___________37. These are drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor inorder to allow a
purchase
___________38. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength and
manner
___________39. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons
___________40. The most commonly abused hallucinogen in the Philippines
___________41. One of the most abused drugs which can relieve pain, and produce profound sleep or
stupor
___________42. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia
___________43. The most abused depressants
___________44. This is also known as downers.
___________45. It is a centrl nervous system stimulant and sometimes called upper or speed.
___________46. It can be taken orally, injected or sniffed as to achieve euphoria or an intense of
highness
___________47. These are non-prescription medicines which may be purchased from any pharmacy or
drugstore without
written authorization from the doctor
___________48. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks and some wake up pills
___________49. Drugs that speed up the work of the nervous system
___________50. Means the use of any drug, medically speaking, to the point where it seriously interferes
with the health,
economic status or social functioning of the drug user or others
affected by the drug users behavior
III- Modified True or False. Write True if the statement is true. If False, change the underlined word or
words to make the
statement correct.
___________51. A match shall consist of two games, unless otherwise arranged.
___________52. Players shall not changed ends at the end of the first game.
___________53. In a correct service, the servers racket shall initially hit the base of the shuttle.
___________54. In a correct service, the whole shuttle shall be above the servers waist at the instance of
being hit by the
servers racket.
___________55. It is fault if the server, in attempting to serve, misses the shuttle.
___________56. The server shall serve before the receiver is ready, but the receiver shall be considered to
have been
ready if a return of service is attempted.
___________57. In doubles, the partners are not allowed to take up any position disadvantageous to the
opposing server
or receiver.
___________58. If a line judge is unsighted and the umpire is unable to make a decision, it is fault.
___________59. It is a let if in play, the shuttle passes through or under the net.
___________60. A shuttle is in play when it strikes the net and starts to fall towards the surface of the
court on the
strikers side of the net.

Good luck.
Maam Nyms

______1. The measurement of ones weight relative to ones height.


a. Mass Index
b. Curl-up
c. Fitness
d. Body Mass Index
______2. This is one factor that makes an individual acquire good health.
a. Physical Health
b. Mental Health
c. Intellectual Capacity d. Sports Activities
______3. The human body is compared to a ______ that needs utmost care in order to function well.
a. doll
b. machine
c. mirror
d. painting
______4. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
______5. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
______6. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______7. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______8. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______9. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______10. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______14. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______15. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______16. Which of the following factors is most considered in making the schedule of the games?
a the number of playing court and covered court
c. the number of players
b. the number of participating teams
d. the playing area
______17. How many byes are there in 11 entries particularly in the double elimination type of tournament?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5
______18. Which physical fitness activities measures agility and coordination?
a. standing long jump
b. sit and reach
c. 50 m sprint d. shuttle run
______19. Which is NOT considered in planning personalized fitness program?
a. time and date
c. companions in performing the program
b. frequency of exercises
d. fitness components you want to measure
______20. Which of the following is considered as one of the fairest types of tournament because each
team must defeated twice before being eliminated from the tournament?
a. double elimination
b. single elimination
c. knock-out system
d. round robin
______21. In what aspect of life does physical fitness contributes to lifes enhancement?
a. mental
b. physical
c. emotional
d. all of the above
______22. Which sport is best for agility?
a. long distance run b. sepak takraw
c. gymnastics
d. badminton
______23. Why are sports committees created in managing school sports competition?
a. to implement rules and regulations for the sports activities

b. to require participation of all members


c. for equal division of work
d. to assure success
______24. The following are qualities of a good officiating official EXCEPT:
a. he is physically fit and alert
c. he is well-versed with the rules and regulations
c. he must project self-confidence
d. he always consult his co-officials in decision-making
______25. What formula that is being used in determining the number of games in single elimination?
a. G=N-1
b. G=2(N-1)
c. G=3(N-1)
d. G=N(N-1)/2

_____26. If 6 teams are competing in a double elimination type of tournament, how many games shall
be played?
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
_____27. This is the formula used to determine the number of games in double elimination.
a. G=2(N-1)
b. G=3(N-1)
c. G=N(N-1)/2
d. G=N-1
_____28. The formula used to determine the number of games in single elimination.
a. G=2(N-1)
b. G=3(N-1)
c. G=N(N-1)/2
d. G=N-1
_____29. What do you call the state of well-being of a person who uses information, products, and
services that have
a direct effect on ones health?
a. consumer health
b. health services
c. consumer rights
d. health
products
_____30 What is an appeal technique which uses doctors, clinical tests, and research results to inform the
public of a
specific product?
a. bandwagon
b. scientific evidence c. testimonials
d. public
exposure
_____31. Why do producers make use of advertisements?
a. to convince consumers to patronize their products
c. for consumer satisfaction
b. for business competition
d. to guide consumers
_____32. Which of the following will you approach for reliable health information?
a. celebrity health product endorser
c. government health agency
b. neighbor
d. school personnel
_____33. Why do people marry?
a. for love
b. for enjoyment
c. for social status
d. to get ahead
_____34. Which is a responsibility of parents to their children?
a. choose their husband or wife
c. inculcate values
b. choose their course in college
d. deprive them food and shelter
_____35. Why is family planning encouraged?
a. to have more disciplined youth
c. to have a stable economy
b. to meet the basic needs of children
d. to increase family income
_____36. Which is an ingredient of a happy marriage?
a. knowledge
b. fulfillment
c. commitment
d. security
_____37. Which is a wrong reason for having children?
a. the sole purpose of marriage
c. positive growth of couples
b. parents security in the future
d. social recognition
_____38. It is an act of handling functions and responsibilities, controlling situations, and directing
people towards
achieving a common goal.
a. management
b. supervision
c. administration
d. leadership
_____39. It is the act of guiding or directing the personnel or staff to pursue the action towards the right
direction.
a. planning
b. leading
c. controlling
d. staffing
_____40. It is an athletic competition within the four walls of the school.
a. school sports extramurals b. school sports fair c. school sports intramurals d. school sports
demonstration
_____41. These are substances intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention
of diseases.
a. drugs
b. vitamins
c. food supplements
d. all of these
_____42. What do you call the use of an illegal drug that causes physical and mental harm to the user?
a. drug peddling
b. tolerance
c. drug abuse
d. drugging
_____43. What is a chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a drug?
a. drug abuse
b. drug addiction
c. tolerance
d. alcoholism
_____44. What do you call the state of craving for the experience that a drug provides?
a. psychological dependence b. physical dependence c. drug addiction
d. drug abuse
_____45. What is the ability to resist the effects of a drug over a period of time?
a. dependence
b. withdrawal
c. tolerance
d. intolerance
_____46. What does a drug addict experience when he or she abruptly stops taking drugs?

a. withdrawal syndrome
b. tolerance
c. dependence
d. addiction
_____47. Which is an immediate effect of an overdose of narcotics?
a. insanity
b. disability
c. trauma
d. sanity
_____48. What narcotic drug stops severe cough?
a. codeine
b. opium
c. morphine
d. heroin
_____49. What is a drug product from the gum of opium that has milder effect?
a. codeine
b. morphine
c. heroine
d. opium
_____50. What is used as an ingredient in potent medicine like painkillers and cough depressants?
a. opium
b. heroin
c. narcotics
d. morphine
II- The following sentences state the bad effects of narcotivs abuse in the person, the family and on the
community.
Write OP if the primary or immediate effect is on the person, FAM on the family, and COM if on the
community.
_____51. Abusers fail to eat and sleep well.
_____52. They cause shame and embarrassment of relatives.
_____53. It cause difficulty in keeping a job.
_____54. Stealing and other criminal activities become rampant.
_____55. Drastic loss of weight, which causes severe malnutrition, is experienced.
_____56. It causes financial difficulty due to the cost of rehabilitation.
_____57. Loss of enthusiasm for work or study.
_____58. Personal cleanliness is hard to maintain.
_____59. Abusers experience physical and/or psychological dependence.
_____60. Personal responsibilities and duties are neglected.
NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
4th PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH III
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- A. Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided
for.
______1. The measurement of ones weight relative to ones height.
a. Mass Index
b. Curl-up
c. Fitness
d. Body Mass Index
______2. This is one factor that makes an individual acquire good health.
a. Physical Health
b. Mental Health
c. Intellectual Capacity d. Sports Activities
______3. The human body is compared to a ______ that needs utmost care in order to function well.
a. doll
b. machine
c. mirror
d. painting
______4. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
______5. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
______6. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______7. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______8. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______9. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______10. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. A game played over the net using a shuttlecock and a racket.
a. table tennis
b. badminton
c. lawn tennis
d. volleyball
______12. What is the measurement of the playing area of badminton for doubles?
a. 5.3m x 13.2m
b. 6.01m x 13.3m
c. 6.1m x 13.4m
d. 6.2m x 13.5m
______13. It is a place where badminton first originated.
a. Russia
b. Inglatera
c. India
d. Japan
______14. A winning score for table tennis is
a. 10 points
b. 11 points
c. 15 points
d. 21 points
______15. An official who calls service faults made by the server should they occur.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen

______16. He records the points scored by each player.


a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
______17. They decide whether the shuttle fell inside or outside the court.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
______18. He upholds and enforces the laws of badminton; calls a fault or let should either occur.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
______19. There are how many players who are actually playing inside in each team in a volleyball
game?
a. 6
b. 10
c. 12
d. 15
______20.Who among the players in a volleyball whose main duty is to stop, retrieve the ball and make a
defensive play?
a. team captain
b. spiker
c. libero
d. injured player
______21. This is a disease of the upper respiratory tract which is caused by a virus.
a. common cold
b. pneumonia
c. tuberculosis
d. hepatitis
______22. This is an inflammation of the liver caused by a virus or less commonly by certain medications
or toxins.
a. common cold
b. pneumonia
c. tuberculosis
d. hepatitis
______23. The process of segregating a sick person or a carrier until all dangers of conveying the
infection has passed.
a. quarantine
b. isolation
c. controlling
d. eradication
______24. A disease of the heart and blood vessels.
a. high blood pressure
b. cardiovascular disease
c. stroke
d. heart attack
______25. Any disease characterized by body cells that grow abnormally and tend to spread throughout
the body.
a. high blood pressure
b. cardiovascular disease
c. stroke
d. cancer
B. Identify the following situations as FAULT or LET.
___________26. If a service is not correct.
___________27. Any unforeseen or accidental situation has occurred.
___________28. A line judge is unsighted and the umpire is unable to make a decision.
___________29. The server serves before thereceiver is ready.
___________30. If on service, the shuttle is caught on the net and remains suspended on top or on
service, after
passing over the net, is caught in the net.
___________31. If the shuttle is hit twice in succession by the same player with two strokes.
___________32. If a service court error has occurred.
___________33. If a player touches the net or its supports with racket, person or dress.
___________34. If in play, the shuttle lands outside the boundaries of the court.
___________35. If, when in play, the initial point of contact with the shuttle is not on the strikers side of
the net.
III- Identify the concept described in each item. Choose from the words inside the box below.
drugs
drug abuse
prescriptive drugs
stimulants
caffeine

drug use
drug misuse
over-the-counter drugs
cocaine
shabu

depressants
alcohol
barbiturate
narcotics
marijuana

___________36. Substances intended for use in the diagnosis, mitigation, cure, treatment or prevention of
diseases
___________37. These are drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor inorder to allow a
purchase
___________38. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount, frequency, strength and
manner
___________39. The incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for health reasons
___________40. The most commonly abused hallucinogen in the Philippines
___________41. One of the most abused drugs which can relieve pain, and produce profound sleep or
stupor
___________42. Drugs for inducing sleep in persons plagued with anxiety, mental stress and insomnia
___________43. The most abused depressants
___________44. This is also known as downers.
___________45. It is a centrl nervous system stimulant and sometimes called upper or speed.
___________46. It can be taken orally, injected or sniffed as to achieve euphoria or an intense of
highness

___________47. These are non-prescription medicines which may be purchased from any pharmacy or
drugstore without
written authorization from the doctor
___________48. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks and some wake up pills
___________49. Drugs that speed up the work of the nervous system
___________50. Means the use of any drug, medically speaking, to the point where it seriously interferes
with the health,
economic status or social functioning of the drug user or others
affected by the drug users behavior
III- Modified True or False. Write True if the statement is true. If False, change the underlined word or
words to make the
statement correct.
___________51. A match shall consist of two games, unless otherwise arranged.
___________52. Players shall not changed ends at the end of the first game.
___________53. In a correct service, the servers racket shall initially hit the base of the shuttle.
___________54. In a correct service, the whole shuttle shall be above the servers waist at the instance of
being hit by the
servers racket.
___________55. It is fault if the server, in attempting to serve, misses the shuttle.
___________56. The server shall serve before the receiver is ready, but the receiver shall be considered to
have been
ready if a return of service is attempted.
___________57. In doubles, the partners are not allowed to take up any position disadvantageous to the
opposing server
or receiver.
___________58. If a line judge is unsighted and the umpire is unable to make a decision, it is fault.
___________59. It is a let if in play, the shuttle passes through or under the net.
___________60. A shuttle is in play when it strikes the net and starts to fall towards the surface of the
court on the
strikers side of the net.

Good luck.
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
3rd PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH IV
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- A. Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided
for.
_______1. What do you call the state of well-being of a person who uses information, products, and
services that have
a direct effect on ones health?
a. consumer health
c. health services
b. consumer rights
d. health products
_______2. What do you call the data and facts about health products and services that you get from media
and people,
including professionals and agencies?
a. regulations
c. resources
b. health information
d. health database methods
_______3. What term refers to the use of methods or remedies to cure diseases that are not scientifically
accepted?
a. palm reading
c. quackery
b. faith healing
d. midwifery
_______4. Which institution has the foremost responsibility of protecting consumers and upholding their
rights?
a. government
c. family
b. community
d. church
_______5. What do you call a practitioner of traditional medicine who uses medicinal plants and other
natural elements
to cure illnesses?
a. albularyo
c. hilot
b. quack
d. midwife
_______6. What are substances, materials, or equipment prepared and used for the maintenance of
health?
a. health products
c. copper bracelet
b. apparatuses
d. herbal drink
_______7. What is a legal method of disseminating information through the use of puffery?
a. popularizing
c. advertisement
b. education
d. hearsay
_______8. What is an appeal technique which uses doctors, clinical tests, and research results to inform
the public of a
specific product?
a. bandwagon
c. scientific evidence
b. testimonials
d. public exposure

_______9. What are health information, procedures, and work that satisfy ones needs and wants as a
consumer?
a. advertisements
c. health products
b. health services
d. consumer education
______10. What is an appeal technique that uses well-known people to endorse a product?
a. novelty
c. testimonials
b. health services
d. bandwagon
______11. Why do producers make use of advertisements?
a. to convince consumers to patronize their products
c. for consumer satisfaction
b. for business competition
d. to guide consumers
______12. How do you make the right decisions in buying a health product?
a. read advertisements of various products
c. look for a well-known manufacturer
b. know the content and effects of the products
d. buy products endorsed by well-known
people
______13. Why do people avail of the services of medical quacks?
a. availability of their services
c. quacks offer quality service
b. high cost of medical services
d. people trust them
______14. How do you identify medical quacks?
a. they are well-known
c. they use incantations while treating
patients
b. they do not demand a medical fee
d. they cure only serious cases
______15. Why should we avoid medical quackery?
a. they are not convincing
c. they perform services in their homes
b. they have many patients
d. patients condition will not improve
______16. How does the government help consumers?
a. by protecting their rights
c. by endorsing good quality products
c. by providing various consumer products
d. by providing good sample products
______17. How are consumers deceived by some producers?
a. by selling expensive products
c. by using unreliable endorsers
b. by selling defective equipment
d. by using different business technique
______18. How does the government ensure the protection of consumer?
a. by providing health services
c. by providing security services in business
establishments
b. by creating agencies to protect consumers
d. by distributing sample products
______19. Which of the following will you approach for reliable health information?
a. celebrity health product endorser
c. government health agency
b. neighbor
d. school personnel

______20. Why is it not advisable to adopt health fads?


a. they provide lasting benefits
c. they do not give extra strength
b. they may cause harm to the body
d. they have proven medicinal value
______21. It is an act of handling functions and responsibilities, controlling situations, and directing
people towards
achieving a common goal.
a. management
c. administration
b. supervision
d. leadership
______22. It is the act of guiding or directing the personnel or staff to pursue he action towards the right
direction.
a. planning
c. controlling
b. leading
d. staffing
______23. It is an athletic competition within the four walls of the school
a. school sports extramurals
c. school sports intramurals
b. school sports fair
d. school sports demonstration
______24. This type of elimination tournament determines the winner by eliminating the loser in every
match until
there s one team left.
a. single elimination
c. round robin
b. double elimination
d. ladder
______25. The formula used in determining the number of games in single elimination.
a. G=2(N-1)
c. G=N(N-1)/2
b. G=3(N-1)
d. G=N-1
______26. In this type of tournament, a team is given the chance to play all other team.
a. single elimination
c. round robin

b. double elimination
d. ladder
______27. If 6 teams are competing in a double elimination type of tournament, how many games will be
played?
a. 7
c. 9
b. 8
d. 10
______28. This is the formula used to determine the number of games in double elimination.
a. G=2(N-1)
c. G=N(N-1)/2
b. G=3(N-1)
d. G=N-1
______29. This type of tournament provides an opportunity for each competing team to play against
every other team
a. single elimination
c. round robin
b. double elimination
d. ladder
______30. The formula used to determine the number of games in round robin elimination.
a. G=2(N-1)
c. G=N(N-1)/2
b. G=3(N-1)
d. G=N-1
II- Identification: Choose from the list of words below the item that is associated with it in each
statement. Write the
letter only.
A. Book
G. Mass Media
B. Consumer
H. On-line Communication
C. Expert Opinion
I. Quack
D. Infomercial
J. Quackery
E. Health Care Professionals
K. Superstition
F. Health Fraud
L. Department of Health
______31. Material written by experts on health topics
______32. Interactive use of computer communication technology
______33. Promise of painless, quick and mysterious cure
______34. TV program meant to sell health products and services
______35. Agency responsible for informing the public about health matters
______36. Cultural belief that is passed from generation to generation
______37. Network of broadcast stations that reach large audience of people
______38. Decision maker in the selection and purchase of goods
______39. Promotion of goods and services which are not proven to be scientifically effective
______40. Medical-dental specialist that works for the prevention and treatment of people
III- Fill in the blanks: Using the formula for round robin type of elimination, fill in this chart.
No. of Teams
No. of Byes
No. of Games
1). 5
2). 6
3). 7
4). 8
5). 9

Good luck.
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
3rd PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH GRADE 7
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- A. Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided
for.
_______1. A game composed of twelve players but there are only six players who are actually playing
inside the court.
a. basketball
b. volleyball
c.b sepak takraw
d. badminton
_______2. His main duty is to stop, retrieve the ball, and make a defensive play only.
a. spiker
b. captain ball
c. toser
d. libero
_______3. Scoring in volleyball is called
a. deuce
b. set point
c. rally point
d. match point

_______4. It is done by hitting the ball over or above the net with a strong force or smash such that the
ball falls in a
downward direction.
a. spiking
b. blocking
c. dribbling
d. holding
_______5. When the ball comes to rest momentarily in the hands or arms of the player.
a. spiking
b. blocking
c. dribbling
d. holding
_______6. To bat the ball to a team mate.
a. pass
b. placement
c. point
d. set
_______7. Hitting the ball on an intended spot.
a. pass
b. placement
c. point
d. set
_______8. A score made by the serving team.
a. pass
b. placement
c. point
d. set
_______9. The act of putting the ball in play.
a. point
b. service
c. set
d. placement
______10. Failure of the serving team to score.
a. set
b. set-up
c. side-out
d. pass
______11. The period of rapid physiological change in boys and girls wherein several parts of their body
mature.
a. puberty
b. infancy
c. adulthood
d. adolescence
______12. This is the girls first menstrual flow.
a. menarche
b. menopause
c. menstruation
d. puberty
______13. The transmission of physical and mental traits from parents to offspring.
a. puberty
b. menarche
c. heredity
d. hormones
______14. These are chemical messengers that regulate many body processes.
a. endocrine glands
b. hormones
c. pancreas
d. adrenal
______15. Works as a chemical communications network in the body.
a. endocrine glands
b. hormones
c. pancreas
d. adrenal
______16. Glands which produce hormones that stimulate the development of male and female secondary
sex traits.
a. endocrine
b. sex glands
c. thyroid
d. parathyroid
______17. Gland which acts as the master control unit.
a. endocrine
b. thyroid
c. pituitary
d. parathyroid
______18. It secretes adrenalin which aids in the control of blood volume and blood pressure and in times
of emergency.
a. adrenals
b. thyroid
c. pituitary
d. endocrine
______19. Hormone secreted by thyroid gland.
a. adrenalin
b. thyroxine
c. parathyroid
d. pancreas
______20. It secretes insulin which regulates carbohydrates metabolism.
a. adrenalin
b. thyroxine
c. parathyroid
d. pancreas
______21. An immediate protective cover placed over a wound.
a. dressing
b. compress
c. dressing
d. first aid
______22. Made by excessive rubbing or scraping.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______23. Commonly caused by knives, metal edges, broken glass or other sharp objects.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______24. Produced by bullets and pointed objects.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______25. Jagged, irregular, or blunt breaks or tears in the soft tissues.
a. abrasion
b. incision
c. laceration
d. puncture
______26. A break in the skin or mucous membrane.
a. open wound
b. closed wound
c. accident
d. incision
______27. Method of controlling severe bleeding.
a. direct pressure
b. compress
c. dressing
d. bandage
______28. Immediate care given to a victim.
a. dressing
b. compress
c. dressing
d. first aid
______29. An unplanned event that results to injury, death or damage to property.
a. first aid
b. accident
c. motor accident
d. abrasion
______30. A woven material used to hold a wound.
a. direct pressure
b. compress
c. dressing
d. bandage

II- Identification:A. Identify the correct answer from the list given. Write the letter only.
a. red
i. orange
b. brown
j. violet
c. blue
k. curved lines

d. yellow
l. angular lines
e. green
m. horizontal lines
f. vertical line
n. neutral colors
g. slanting/diagonal
o. white
h. jagged lines
p. primary colors
______31. stands for purity, chastity
______32. stands for courage, war, passion, violence, love
______33. black, white and gray
______34. stands for growth
______35. stands for miser lines
______36. stands for majesty, pomposity, mysticism
______37. stands for justice, peace, wisdom, honesty
______38. stands for deceit, hope
______39. lines that are harsh and unpleasant
______40. lines that have sharp edges
______41. lines that are parallel to the horizon
______42. lines that are at right angle and or perpendicular to a plane
______43. lines that are graceful and show life and energy
______44. lines that suggest action or movement
______45. red, blue and yellow
B. Identify the following characteristics. Classify them whether they are physical, mental, social, or
emotional.
_________________46. growth of Adams apple
_________________47. ability to judge
_________________48. lives independently
_________________49. love at first sight
_________________50. increase in height and weight
_________________51. going out with friends
_________________52. appearance of pimples
_________________53. feeling of acceptance
_________________54. broadening of chest and shoulders
_________________55. attraction to the opposite sex
_________________56. menstruation for girls
_________________57. surf the internet
_________________58. show your feelings in a positive way
_________________59. open to new ideas and experiences
_________________60. handle stress and seek help, if needed.

Good luck.
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
2nd PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH III
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- A. Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided
for.
______1. It is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of
disease or infirmity.
a. family planning
b. reproductive health c. POP ED
d. fertility
______2. It is the actual number of births applied to an individual or to a group.
a. family planning
b. reproductive health c. POP ED
d. fertility
______3. A process in which one egg matures each month in one of the two ovaries.
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______4. What happen when the egg is fertilized and develops gradually into a baby?
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______5. A process when the sperm cell and ovum meet within the body of the woman.
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______6. When the egg is not fertilized, it does not attach itself to the wall of the uterus but it leaves the
body of the woman.
a. menstruation
b. conception
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______7. It is the union of an egg cell and the sperm cell.
a. menstruation
b. conception
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______8. A short life span of the egg cell which limits the time period during each month in which a
sperm and an egg cell can unite.
a. 12-24 hrs.
b. 24-36 hrs.
c. 12-48 hrs.
d. 48-72 hrs.
______9. The inability of a man to fertilize an egg.
a. fertility
b. sterility
c. heredity
d. infertility
_____10. The inability of a woman to conceive or carry a pregnancy to term.
a. fertility
b. sterility
c. heredity
d. infertility
_____11. A surgical procedure where the vas deferens are tied or cut, resulting in sterilization.
a. vasectomy
b. salpingectomy
c. sterility
d. fertility
_____12. A surgical procedure which consists of tying, cutting or removal of the fallopian tubes.
a. vasectomy
b. salpingectomy
c. sterility
d. fertility
_____13. What part of female reproductive organ where the sperm and egg cell meet?
a. ovary
b. uterus
c. fallopian tube
d. vagina
_____14. A game similar to lawn tennis and badminton is.
a. table tennis
b. sepak takraw
c. volleyball
d. softball
_____15. A game played over the net using a shuttlecock and a racket.
a. table tennis
b. badminton
c. lawn tennis
d. volleyball
_____16. It is called when the score is tied to 15.
a. let
b. love
c. deuce
d. service over
_____17. This means no score.
a. let
b. love
c. deuce
d. service over
_____18. What is the measurement of the playing area of badminton for doubles?
a. 5.3m x 13.2m
b. 6.01m x 13.3m
c. 6.1m x 13.4m
d. 6.2m x 13.5m
_____19. It is a place where badminton first originated.
a. Russia
b. Inglatera
c. India
d. Japan
_____20. A winning score for table tennis is
a. 10 points
b. 11 points
c. 15 points
d. 21 points
_____21. An official who calls service faults made by the server should they occur.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
_____22. He records the points scored by each player.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
_____23. They decide whether the shuttle fell inside or outside the court.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
_____24. He upholds and enforces the laws of badminton; calls a fault or let should either occur.
a. umpire
b. service umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
_____25. Heads the officials of the game.
a. referee
b. umpire
c. scorer
d. linesmen
B. Identify the following situations as FAULT or LET.
___________26. If a service is not correct.
___________27. Any unforeseen or accidental situation has occurred.
___________28. A line judge is unsighted and the umpire is unable to make a decision.
___________29. The server serves before thereceiver is ready.

___________30. If on service, the shuttle is caught on the net and remains suspended on top or on
service, after
passing over the net, is caught in the net.
___________31. If the shuttle is hit twice in succession by the same player with two strokes.
___________32. If a service court error has occurred.
___________33. If a player touches the net or its supports with racket, person or dress.
___________34. If in play, the shuttle lands outside the boundaries of the court.
___________35. If, when in play, the initial point of contact with the shuttle is not on the strikers side of
the net.
II- Identify the concept described in each item. Choose from the words inside the box below.
point
love
racket hand
service over
receiver

rally
server
free hand
deuce
let

___________36. The period during which the ball is in play.


___________37. A rally of which the result is not scored.
___________38. The hand carrying the racket.
___________39. The hand not carrying the racket.
___________40. The player due to strike the ball first in a rally.
___________41. The player due to strike the ball second in a rally.
___________42. Is called when the player committed a fault.
___________43. Is called when the score is tied.
___________44. Means no score.
___________45. A rally of which the result is scored.
III- True or False: Write True if the statement is correct, False if it is incorrect.
___________46. A match shall consist of the best of two games, unless otherwise arranged.
___________47. Players shall not change ends at the end of the first game.
___________48. In a correct service , the whole shuttle shall be above the servers waist at the instance of
being hit
by the servers racket.
___________49. It is fault if the server, in attempting to serve, misses the shuttle.
___________50. If a line judge is unsighted and the umpire is unable to make a decision, it is a fault.
IV- Draw a badminton court with the correct measurement. (10 pts.)
Good luck..
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
SECOND PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH IV
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided for.
_____1. Why do people marry?
a. for love
b. for enjoyment
c. for social status
d. to get ahead
_____2. Which is a responsibility of parents to their children?
a. choose their husband or wife
b. choose their course in college
c. inculcate values
d. deprive them of food and shelter
_____3. Why is family planning being encouraged?
a. to have more disciplined youth
b. to meet the basic needs of children
c. to have a stable economy
d. to increase family income
_____4. Why does the government have a population program?
a. to realize the goals of the population policy
b. to set the rate of population growth
c. because the United Nations require it
d. to strictly enforce the program
_____5. Why do couples want to have children?
a. to strengthen the bond between the husband and wife
b. because religious institutions require it
c. society expects it
d. children are considered as wealth
_____6. Which is an ingredient of a happy marriage?
a. knowledge
b. fulfillment
c. commitment
d. security
_____7. What should be considered in choosing the family planning method to be used by couples?
a. couples health condition
b. social status
c. family background
d. educational attainment
_____8. Why is family planning programs organized?
a. to address family problems
b. to promote family welfare
c. to regulate rapid population growth
d. to stop unwanted pregnancies
_____9. Which is a wrong reason for having children?
a. the sole purpose of marriage
b. parents security in the future
c. positive growth of couples
d. social recognition
____10. Why is having a small family important?
a. to secure the future of the children
b. to provide for the childrens basic
needs
c. for the communitys progress
d. to lessen social problems
____11. The most important element of a marriage is
a. care
b. trust
c. love
d. respect
____12. This is geared primarily toward achieving mutual understanding.
a. love
b. care
c. trust
d. communication
____13. Couples must show their ability to cope with the challenges in life and the capacity to be
physically, emotionally and financially stable.
a. love
b. commitment
c. maturity
d. honesty
____14. Couples should not take advantage of each others trust.
a. love
b. commitment
c. maturity
d. honesty
____15. Couples should have a relationship based on sympathy of thought or feeling.
a. spiritual sensitivity
b. honesty
c. trust
d. love
____16. How will you deal with special individual?
a. make fun of them b. abandon them
c. pity them
d. give them proper care
____17. Where will you bring abandoned and neglected children who are suffering from epilepsy and
celebral palsy?
a. Elsie Gaches Village
b. Silahis ng Kalusugan
c. San Lorenzo Hospital
d. UST Hospital
____18. What socio-cultural factor affects mental health?

a. home
b. television
c. video games
d. movies
____19. Which is not a cause of mental retardation?
a. childhood illnesses
b. prenatal illnesses
c. injuries
d. physical contact
____20. Which is not a way of improving ones health?
a. Enjoy being with people
b. Have balance of work and play
c. Eat anything you want
d. Maintain a sound physical health
____21. Which is not a physical manifestation of aging?
a. lessened mobility b. weakening of bones c. poor eyesight
d. poor memory
____22. It is a normal development factor and a continuous lifelong process that begins at birth and ends
in death.
a. old age
b. aging
c. physical change
d. memory gap
____23. The most important element of marriage is
a. love
b. care
c. commitment
d. communication

____24. It is a part of life and should be understood fully with appreciation and acceptance.
a. death
b. aging
c. marriage
d. to have family
____25. An unavoidable human emotion, a natural response to a certain experience in life.
a. grief
b. denial
c. bargaining
d. depression
II- Modified True or False: Write True if the statement is correct and change the underlined word if the
statement is
wrong.
_________________26. Phobia is a psychological disorder where there is persistent, irrational fear of a
situation or
an object.
_________________27. A healthy lifestyle includes a balanced diet.
_________________28. Death is athe permanent loss of life.
_________________29. Delusion refers to seeing or hearing things that are unreal.
_________________30. Narcissism is a mental disorder characterized by delusions of persecution and
self-importance.
_________________31. Anorexia is a serious eating disorder.
_________________32. Neurosis is a feeling of extreme sadness and a lack of energy.
_________________33. Health service is the process of determining a persons health status.
_________________34. Emotional health is a state of emotional and psychological well being that gives
a person the
ability to face and accept the realities of life.
_________________35. Mental retardation is a condition characterized by below-average general
intellectual functioning.
III- Matching Type: Select the correct answer from the words at the right.
_____36. Refers to pervasive maladaptive patterns in relating
a. ObsessiveCompulsive Personality
to the environment.
b. Trauma
_____37. A condition characterized by below-average intellectual
c. Bipolar Disorder
functioning
d. Drugs
_____38. A kind of mood disorder that involves manic episode and
e. Aging
even depressive episodes
f. Paranoid Personal
Disorder
_____39. The state of well-being in which a person realizes his or
g. Personal Disorder
or her own abilities, can cope with normal stresses of life,
h. Down Syndromes
and can work productively
i. Autism
_____40. A disorder caused by the presence of all or part of an
j. Mental Disorder
extra 21st chromosomes
k.Mental Health
_____41. A developmental disorder involving significant impairment
l. Psychosis
in social interaction and communication
m.Mental Retardation
_____42. A disorder characterized by persistent distrust and suspiciousness of others
_____43. A severe impairment of an individuals mental, emotional, or
behavioral functions
_____44. A mental disorder in which the personality is severely disorganized
_____45. A type marked by a pervasive preoccupation with maintaining
order, attaining perfection, and having mental and interpersonal
control at the expensenof flexibility, openness, and efficiency.

IV- Explain the following: Give at least 2 ingredients of a happy marriage and explain why. (15 pts.)
Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
SECOND PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH (GRADE 7)
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided for.
______1. Where did badminton first originated?
a. Japan
b. Inglatera
c. India
d. Philippines
______2. It is a branch of competitive sports involving running, walking, throwing and jumping.
a. volleyball
b. softball
c. athletics
d. baseball
______3. What is the another term for athletics?
a. running
b. walking
c. throwing
d. track and field
______4. When was the first recorde Olympic Games wherein athletics were the dominant events?
a. 766 BC
b. 776 BC
c. 1896 AD
d. 1925
______5. It is the worlds governing body for athletics.
a. IAAF
b. PATAFA
c. NBA
d. YMCA
______6. The president of the Phil. Amateur Track & Field Assn.
a. Zeus
b. Theodosius
c. Gov. Jose Sering
d. Baron
______7. The chessboard is made out of ______ squares.
a. 32
b. 36
c. 64
d. 72
______8. The lines marked in white and green are called _________.
a. diagonals
b. lines
c. files
d. ranks
______9. These are the lines at the side of the chessboard.
a. diagonals
b. lines
c. files
d. ranks
_____10. These are letters found above and at the bottom of the chessboard.
a. diagonals
b. lines
c. files
d. ranks
_____11. When the King is being attacked directly by an opponents piece we say that the King is under
_____.
a. check
b. checkmate
c. stalemate
d. castling
_____12. It is the position where the player whose turn to move has no legal move at his disposal and his
King is
not nder check. a. check
b. checkmate
c. stalemate
d.
castling
_____13. This is a very special move for when the pawn reaches the eight rank, you can promote the
pawn into any

piece except the King.


a. check
b. checkmate
c. stalemate
d. promotion
_____14. A French term for In Passing.
a. En Passant
b. checkmate
c. stalemate
d. castling
_____15. A special move that is done for the safety of the King and for further development of the pieces,
in this
case the rooks are now connected.
a. check
b. checkmate
c. stalemate
d. castling
_____16. It moves with an L shaped pattern.
a. King
b. Queen
c. Rook
d. Knight
_____17. This is the beginning phase of the game chess.
a. beginning phase b. middlegame
c. endgame
d. castling
_____18. Moves that attack two or more enemy targets at once though the word suggests only two.
a. check
b. double attack
c. stalemate
d. castling
_____19. It is an area wherein most of the running and walking races are played.
a. court
b. track oval
c. diamond
d. lawn
_____20. A good serve that the opponent is unable to hit or touch with his racket.
a. ace
b. backhand
c. drive
d. clear
_____21. The ball being used in badminton.
a. bird
b. shuttlecock
c. cork
d. both a and b
_____22. Any infraction of the rules resulting in loss of the server or the point.
a. match
b. fault
c. let
d. service over
_____23. To put the bird in play.
a. serve
b. rally
c. let
d. deuce
_____24. Any stroke made on the racket side of the body.
a. forehand
b. backhand
c. drop
d. hand-out
_____25. A heated return of the bird several times or the continuous stroking of the bird back and forth
across.
a. serve
b. rally
c. let
d. deuce
II- A. Write the symbol of the following pieces.
_____26. King
______31. Queen
_____27. Rook
______32. Knight
_____28. Bishop
______33. Checkmate
_____29. Check
______34. Castles Kingside
_____30. Moves to
______35. Draw

B. Give the values of the pieces.


_____36. King
_____37. Queen
_____38. Knight
_____39. Rook
_____40. Bishop
III- Identification: Find the correct answer from the list and write it on the space provided for.
myopia
glaucoma
retina
astigmatism
hyperopia
cataract
allergy
laryngitis
common cold
athletes foot
callus
melanin
________________41. A substance that produces color in the skin.
________________42. A patch of thickened, hardened epidermis caused by long continued pressure or
friction.
________________43. It is caused by fungus that thrive in moist environment.
________________44. It results to the presence of some forms of pollen or perhaps fungus in the air.
________________45. It is often associated with common colds or some upper respiratory infections.
________________46. A condition of nearsightedness.
________________47. A condition of farsightedness.
________________48. In this condition, the cornea is shaped unevenly, causing light rays to come
together at different
points in the eye.
________________49. Often develops in adults.
________________50. This is caused by a virus and can be transferred through breathing and sneezing.

Good luck
Maam Nyms

_______1. The Body Mass Index or (BMI) is a component of physical fitness which is used to determine
your normal:
a. vital statistics
b. weight and height ratio
c. height
d. waist measurement
_______2. A normal body mass index helps prevent metabolic diseases such as
a. malaria and high fever
c. HIV or AIDS
b. cancer, diabetes and hypertension
d. leprosy and small pox
_______3. It is the capacity of each individual to accomplish daily task with alertness and vigor.
a. good life
b. physical education c. physical fitness
d. strength
_______4. Walking to school and climbing up stairs are examples of activities which illustrate a
component of physical
fitness known as:
a. physiological or aerobic fitness b. flexibility
c. strength
d. Body Mass Index
_______5. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
_______6. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
_______7. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______8. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
_______9. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______10. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______14. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______15. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______16. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______17. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
______18. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
______19. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
______20. It means you can carry out everyday tasks without becoming too tired.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______21. Means being a lifelong learner by continuously wanting to learn new things and improve ones
skills.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______22. It involves understanding and liking yourself as well as accepting and learning from your
mistakes.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______23. It refers to how well you get along with other people.
a. physical health b. emotional health
c. social health
d. mental health
______24. It refers to your personal beliefs, values, and faith.

a. physical health b. emotional health


c. moral-spiritual health
d. mental health
______25. This is a pleasant diversion from routine and also relieves nervous tension.
a. driving
b. exercise
c. smoking
d. all of the above

II- A.Identification: Identify the dimension of health does each activity develop most. Write:
P for Physical Health, S for Social Health, MS for Moral-Spiritual Health,
E for Emotional Health, and M for Mental Health.
______26. Eating a balanced diet regularly
______27. Going out with family and friends
______28. Respecting your parents and elders
______29. Show your feelings in a positive way
______30. Read books
B. TRUE or FALSE. Write TRUE if the statement is correct and FALSE if it is wrong.
___________31. Girls are taller than boys.
___________32. Girls hips become broader.
___________33. Voice change occurs among boys.
___________34. Boys become more aggressive than girls.
___________35. Muscle growth is faster in girls than in boys.
___________36. Girls and boys experience rapid mental growth.
___________37. Boys reach the age of puberty earlier than girls.
___________38. Boys and girls like to be alone more than to be with friends.
___________39. Adolescents are more sensitive at this stage.
___________40. Puberty is the time when you start to become sexually mature.
III- Draw a staff. Label it with a G-clef and name its lines and spaces. (10 pts.)

IV- Draw the fundamental positions of arms and feet. (10 pts.)

Good luck.
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
1ST PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH IV
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided for.
______1. The measurement of ones weight relative to ones height.
a. Mass Index
b. Curl-up
c. Fitness
d. Body Mass Index
______2. This is one factor that makes an individual acquire good health.
a. Physical Health
b. Mental Health
c. Intellectual Capacity d. Sports Activities
______3. The human body is compared to a ______ that needs utmost care in order to function well.
a. doll
b. machine
c. mirror
d. painting
______4. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
______5. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
______6. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______7. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______8. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______9. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______10. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______12. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______13. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______14. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______15. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______16. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
______17. Which sport is best for agility?

a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
______18. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
______19. This is a pleasant diversion from routine and also relieves nervous tension.
a. driving
b. exercise
c. smoking
d. all of these
______20. The maximum score for girls in the partial curl-ups is ______.
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60
II- Identify the following physical fitness component as Skill Related or Health Related. Write SR for
Skill Related and HR for Health Related.
______21. Speed
_______26. Cardiovascular Endurance
______22. Body Composition
_______27. Balance
______23. Muscular Strength
_______28. Muscular Endurance
______24. Reaction Time
_______29. Power
______25. Flexibility
_______30. Coordination

III- Choose the letter of the health-related component in the box that is developed in each of the following
activities.
Write the letter only on the space provided for.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Body Composition
Muscular Strength
Muscular Endurance
Flexibility
Cardiovascular Endurance

______31. Partial curl-ups


_____36. Toe touch
______32. Sit-and-reach
_____37. Trunk lift
______33. 10- kilometer marathon
_____38. Right angle push-ups
______34. Shoulder stretch
_____39. One kilometer run/walk
______35. Jogging for 20 minutes
_____40. 900 push-ups
IV- Supply the missing letters to complete its words.
31. ____E P ____E ____ ____I____ E This is a mood disorder characterized by acute, but time-limited,
depressive symptoms, such as dejection.
32. A ____ ____ I E ____ Y This is characterized by extreme, irrational, and incapacitating fear.
33. P ___ R ___ N ___ ___ D This is characterized by persistent distrust and suspiciousness of others
believing that they have ill motives.
34. ____ O R ____ E _____L ____ N _____ - This is pervasive pattern of instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, and control over impulses.
35. S ____H ____Z O ____ D This is marked by a pattern of detachment from any social relationship
and a restricted expression of emotions.
V- Solve the BMI of the following persons using this formula: BMI = weight
(5 pts. each)
height2
a. Peter
c. John
Weight 88 kg
Weight 94 kg
Height 1.9 m
Height 1.8 m
b. Tina
Weight 70 kg
Height 1.7 m
Good luck.
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
1ST PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH III
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Identify the word being referred to in each item. Write only the letter of the best answer.
______1. It is defined as the ability to carry out daily tasks with alertness and vigor.
a. Physical Education
b. Physical Fitness
c. Physical Dependence d. BMI
______2. The partial curl-ups is an example of a physical fitness test of
a. flexibility
c. strength and endurance
b. normal weight
d. aerobic endurance
______3. What component of physical fitness is measured by sit-and-reach test?
a. muscular strength
c. physiological endurance
b. flexibility
d. Body Mass Index
______4. What component of physical fitness which is the bodys ability to deliver oxygen to all of its
vital organs?
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______5. It is the ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______6. It refers to the amount of force a muscle or muscle group can exert.
a. cardio-respiratory endurance
c. flexibility
b. muscular strength
d. power
______7. This refers to the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.

a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______8. The ability to maintain an upright position.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______9. The ability to release maximum force very quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______10. It includes moving two or more body parts at the same time.
a. speed
b. power
c. coordination
d. balance
______11. It is the amount of time it takes to make a physical response once you see the need to take an
action.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______12. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. agility
b. reaction time
c. balance
d. coordination
______13. It is a combination of speed and strength .
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______14. Which of the following RPFSTT measures the flexibility of the hamstring muscles and lower
back?
a. sit-and-reach
b. shoulder stretch
c. trunk lift
d. arm span
______15. Which sport is best for agility?
a. sepak takraw
b. gymnastics
c. long distance run
d. badminton
______16. The purpose of this exercise is to prepare the body for a more strenuous workout.
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
______17. This is a pleasant diversion from routine and also relieves nervous tension.
a. driving
b. exercise
c. smoking
d. all of these
______18. Which of the following principles discuss the intensity of exercise?
a. principle of specificity
c. principle of overload
b. principle of progression
d. principle of regularity
a. stretching
b. bending
c. warm-up
d. cool-down
______19. This principle states that the specific type of exercise you do to determine the specific benefit
a. principle of specificity
c. principle of overload
b. principle of progression
d. principle of regularity
______20. It measures the strength and endurance of the abdominal muscles.
a. stature
b. partial curl-ups
c. mass
d. BMI
II- TRUE or FALSE: Write T if the statement is true and F if it is false.
______21. Fitness implies improvement.
______22. Physical fitness is governed by certain principles.
______23. Intensity, duration, and frequency of training exercises are factors to be considered in applying
the overload principle.
______24. Time for exercise should be governed by the inclination and timetable of the individual.
______25. Heart rate is the most important single indicator of well-being, stress, or illness in your body.
______26. A persons pulse rate goes higher after a short walk, jog, or run.
______27. A persons pulse rate slows down when he gets angry or excited.

______28. The average pulse rate beat for boys is 70 to 74 beats per minute.
______29. The average pulse rate beat for girls is 82 to 89 beats per minute.
______30. All conditioning exercise programs are based on target heart rates.
______31. The target heart rate zone is 60 to 80%.
______32. In getting the maximum predicted heart rate , subtract your age from 220 beats per minute.
______33. Physical fitness testing encourages lifetime participation in physical activity.
______34. The Philippine Physical Fitness Test (PPFT) should be administered in a relaxed and playful
atmosphere.
______35. The PPFT should be conducted every grading period.
III- Fill in the blanks. Rearrange the letters to get the correct answer.
______________________36. (LLANTPEREP) A chemical applied to the skin on clothing or pests.
______________________37. (ICEL) Small wingless insects that suck human blood for food.
______________________38. (NGDEUE) Disease caused by the bite of Aedes mosquitoes.
______________________39. (CESNITIDECI) Any chemical substance used to destroy insects.
______________________40. (ATSR) Cleaning up the piles of garbage and debris will drive these pests
away.
______________________41. (DALUITICDE) Insecticide designated to destroy mature forms of
anthropods.
______________________42. (PRPORE AWTSE IDSOPSAL) This practice is the best means of
controlling flies.

______________________43. (ORIENCIDTDE) Chemical substance used to destroy rats and rodents.


______________________44. (ALMARIA) Disease caused by the bite of anopheles group of mosquitoes
______________________45. (ALVRCIIDE) Way designated to destroy immature stages of anthropods.
IV- Identification: Write the word that describes each statement.
______________________46. Means a permanent structure erected with the intention of providing home
for human
beings.
______________________47. A condition wherein the supply of livable dwelling units is insufficient as a
result of
double-up households and acceptable unit.
______________________48. Refers to individual or families residing in urban and urbanized areas
whose income or
combined household income falls within the
poverty threshold.
______________________49. One who settles on the land of another without title or right whether in
urban or rural areas.
______________________50. The process of evicting and transferring informal settlers/professional
squatters to a more
permanent place.
V- Solve the PMHR and THR of the following ages: (5 pts. each)
a. 15 year-old boy

b. 18 year-old girl

Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FOURTH PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH IV
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Select the best answer by writing only the letter before each number.
_______1. What do you call the state of well-being of a person who uses information, products, and
services hat have a direct effect on ones health?
a. consumer health
b. consumer rights
c. health services
d. health products
_______2. What do you call the data and facts about health products and services that you get from media
people, including professionals and agencies?
a. regulations
b. health information
c. resource d. health database methods
_______3. What do you call a practitioner of traditional medicine who uses medicinal plants and other
natural elements to cure illnesses?
a. albularyo
b. quack
c. hilot
d. midwife
_______4. What term refers to the use of methods or remedies to cure diseases that are not scientifically
accepted? a. palm reading
b. faith healing
c. quackery
d. midwifery
_______5. Which institution has the foremost responsibility of protecting consumers and upholding their
rights?
a. government
b. community
c. family
d. church
_______6. What are substances, materials, or equipment prepared and used for the maintenance of
health?
a. health products
b. apparatuses c. copper bracelet
d. herbal drink
_______7. What is a legal method of disseminating information through the use of puffery?
a. popularizing
b. education
c. advertisement
d. hearsay
_______8. What is an appeal technique which uses doctors, clinical tests, and research results to inform
the public of a specific product?
a. bandwagon
b. testimonials
c. scientific evidence d. public exposure
_______9. What are health information, procedures, and work that satisfy ones needs and wants as a
consumer? a. advertisement b. health services c. health products d. consumer education
______10. What is an appeal technique that uses well-known people to endorse a product?
a. novelty
b. health services
c. testimonials
d. bandwagon
______11. Why do producers make use of advertisements?
a. to convince consumers to patronize their products
c. for consumer satisfaction
b. for business competition
d. to guide consumers
______12. How do you make the right decisions in buying a health product?
a. read advertisement of various products
b. know the content and effects of the products
c. look for a well-known manufacturer
d. buy products endorsed by well-known people
______13. Why do people avail of the services of medical quacks?
a. availability of their services
c. quack offers quality service
b. high cost of medical services
d. people trust them
______14. How do you identify medical quacks?
a. they are well-known
c. they use incantations while treating
b. they do not demand a medical fee
d. they only cure serious cases
______15. Why should we avoid medical quackery?
a. they are not very convincing
c. they perform services in their homes
b. they have many patients
d. patients' condition will not improve
______16. How does government help consumers?
a. by protecting their rights
c. by endorsing good quality products
b. by providing various consumer products d. by providing good sample products
______17. How does the government ensure the protection of consumer?
a. by providing health services
c. by providing security services
b. by creating agencies t protect consumers d. by distributing sample products
______18. Which of the following will you approach for reliable health information?
a. celebrity health product endorser
c. government health agency
b. neighbor
d. school personnel
______19. Which of the following factors is most considered in making the schedule of the games?
a the number of playing court and covered court
c. the number of players
b. the number of participating teams
d. the playing area
______20. How many byes are there in 11 entries particularly in the double elimination type of tournament?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5
______21. Which physical fitness activities measures agility and coordination?
a. standing long jump
b. sit and reach
c. 50 m sprint d. shuttle run

______22. Which is NOT considered in planning personalized fitness program?


a. time and date
c. companions in performing the program
b. frequency of exercises
d. fitness components you want to measure
______23. Which of the following is considered as one of the fairest types of tournament because each
team must defeated twice before being eliminated from the tournament?
a. double elimination
b. single elimination
c. knock-out system
d. round robin
______24. In what aspect of life does physical fitness contributes to lifes enhancement?
a. mental
b. physical
c. emotional
d. all of the above
______25. Which sport is best for agility?
a. long distance run b. sepak takraw
c. gymnastics
d. badminton
______26. Why are sports committees created in managing school sports competition?
a. to implement rules and regulations for the sports activities
b. to require participation of all members
c. for equal division of work
d. to assure success
______27. The following are qualities of a good officiating official EXCEPT:
a. he is physically fit and alert
c. he is well-versed with the rules and regulations
c. he must project self-confidence
d. he always consult his co-officials in decision-making
______28. What formula that is being used in determining the number of games in single elimination?
a. G=N-1
b. G=2(N-1)
c. G=3(N-1)
d. G=N(N-1)/2
______29. If 6 teams are competing in a double elimination type of tournament, how many games shall
be played?
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
______30. The measurement of ones weight relative to ones height is called
a. mass index
b. curl-up
c. fitness
d. body mass index
______31. This is one factor that makes an individual acquire good health.
a. physical health
b. mental health
c. intellectual capacity d. sports activities
______32. The human body is compared to a _______ that need utmost care in order to function well.
a. doll
b. machine
c. mirror
d. painting
______33. This is a pleasant diversion from routine and also relieves nervous tension.
a. driving
b. exercise
c. smoking
d. all of the above
______34. This is the ability of the heart and lung systems to work together to deliver oxygen to the
working muscles and sustain energy for a long period of time.
a. Body Mass Index b. Cardio-respiratory Fitness c. Muscular Fitness d. Flexibility Fitness
______35. It is a combination of speed and strength.
a. flexibility
b. agility
c. power
d. reaction time
______36. Why do people marry?
a. for love
b. for enjoyment
c. for social status
d. to get ahead
______37. Which is a responsibility of parents to their children?
a. choose their husband or wife
c. inculcate values
b. choose their course in college
d. deprive them food and shelter
______38. Why is family planning encouraged?
a. to have more disciplined youth
c. to have a stable economy
b. to meet the basic needs of children
d. to increase family income
______39. Which is an ingredient of a happy marriage?
a. knowledge
b. fulfillment
c. commitment
d. security
______40. Which is a wrong reason for having children?
a. the sole purpose of marriage
c. positive growth of couples
b. parents security in the future
d. social recognition
II- Choose what committee is in-charge f the following tasks. Write the letter only.
a. Program and Invitation
e. Technical Committee
b. Peace and Order
f. Physical Facilities
c. Finance and Resources
g. Equipment
d. Prizes and Awards
______41. Prepares the list of guests
______42. Coordinates with the barangay chairman
______43. Prepares the budget proposal
______44. Requests h purchase of medals and trophies
______45. Provides and maintains round-the-clock general order and security in all the venues
______46. Requests the purchase of balls and/or other sports equipment
______47. Supervises the fund raising for the tournament expenses
______48. Prepares the special numbers in the opening program
______49. Supervises the fund raising for the tournament expenses
______50. Investigates regarding the conduct of the game.

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
Ika-apat na Panahunang Pagsusulit
A.P. IV (Ekonomiks)
Pangalan:________________________________
Iskor:____________
Taon at Pangkat:__________________________
Petsa:____________
I- Pagpipili: Piliin ang tamang sagot at isulat ang katumbas na titik nito sa patlang.
______1. Ang kabayaran sa lupang ginamit sa produksyon.
a. renta
b. sahod
c. upa
d. kita
______2. Ang mga salik ng produksyon na ibinahagi upang makagawa ng kalakal ay tianatawag na
a. output
b. capital gain
c. input
d. factor gain
______3. Ang salik ng produksyon na nagbibigay ng hilaw na sangkap.
a. lakas paggawa
b. puhunan
c. entreprenyur
d. lupa
______4. Anong pangunahing metal ang pinakamaraming namina nong 2003?
a. pilak
b. ginto
c. bronze
d. bakal
______5. Ang lakas ng loob na harapin ag hamon ng mga pangangalakal ay katangiang dapat taglayin ng
a. manggagawa
b. union
c. entreprenyur
d. welgista
______6. Tinatawag na tagalikha ng produkto ang
a. entreprenyur
b. mamumuhunan
c. manggagawa
d. tinder
______7. Ang makina, araro, at gusali ay halimbawa ng anong salik ng produksyon?
a. puhunan
b. output
c. input
d. lakas paggawa
______8. Samahang pangangalakal na itinayo upang tumulong sa pangangailangan ng mga kasapi.
a. korporasyon
b. kompanya
c. sosyohan
d. kooperatiba
______9. Ang paglago ng produksyon dahil sa sipag ng manggagawa.
a. pag-unlad
b. produktibidad c. episyenteng produksyon d. full employment
_____10. Ang korporasyon ay nangangalap ng puhunan sa pamamagitan ng pagbibili ng
a. stock
b. lupa
c. share
d. ari-arian
_____11. Ang nagsasama-sama ng mga salik ng produksyon upang mangalakal.
a. kapitalista
b. entreprenyur
c. ekonomista
d. makinista
_____12. Ano ang tawag sa pagpapalit-palitan ng yaman at produkto ng lahat ng tao na may papel sa
produksyon?
a. pagkonsumo
b. paikot na daloy ng yaman
c. pangangalakal
d. pagtitinda
_____13. Ang salapi ay kabilang sa anong salik ngproduksyon?
a. lupa
b. paggawa
c. capital
d. entreprenyur
_____14. Anong produkto ang pangunahing export ng bansa?
a. damit
b. kemikal
c. produktong elektroniko
d. saging
_____15. Ang pagtigil n manggagawa sa proseso ng produksyon upang igiit ag kanilang mga kagustuhan
a. lock out
b. collective bargaining agreement
c. protesta
d. welga
_____16. Ang ekonomiks bilang isang agham panlipunan ay gumagamit ng mga siyentipikong pamamaraan para ipaliwanag ang pag-uugali ng mga tao. Ano ang unang hakbang dito?
a. obserbasyon b. pagbuo ng teorya c. paglikom ng datus d. paglapat ng konklusyon
_____17. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang dapat gawin upang matugunan ang pangunahing pangangailangan
ng isang mamamayan?
a. magbabadyet
b. maghingi ng pera
c. maghingi ng tulong d. manawagan sa radio
_____18. Ang ekonomiks ay nauuri bilang isang agham panlipunan dahil ito ay pag-aaral tungkol sa
a. tao at lipunan b. salik at produksyon c. patakaran at tungkulin d. pinagkukunang-yaman
_____19. Bilang isang mamamayan, alin ang hindi dapat gawin?
a. magtrabaho
c. maghanap ng paraan
b. mag-asa sa iba
d. magbadyet kung ano ang mayron
_____20. Kung ang presyo ng isang bagay ay mura, ang ibig ipahiwatig nito ay _______
a. kaunti ang demand
c. mataas ang demand
b. madalang ang bibili
d. matumal ang bumibili
_____21. Kapag mababa ang presyo ng damit sa pamilihan, ang demand para rito ay
a. mataas
b. mababa
c. mahina
d. walang pagbabago
_____22. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang HINDI nakakaapekto sa demand para sa iisang produkto?
a. kita
b. presyo
c. panlasa
d. edukasyon

_____23. Maraming nais magkaroon ng abgong sasakyan ngunit hindi lahat nakukuha ito. Ano ang
pangunahing salik na nakakaapekto dito?
a. kita
b. panlasa
c. kasarian
d. relihiyon
_____24. Ano ang pinakamahalagang pinagkukunan ng pondo ng pamahalaan?
a. buwis
b. trabaho
c. dayuhan
d. produkto
_____25. Isa sa mga pagpipilian ay HINDI gamit ng perang papel. Alin ito?
a. pambayad utang
c. pambili ng produkto
b. sukatan ng talino
d. pambayad ng serbisyo

_____26. Kung ang savings deposit ay perang deposito na maaaring kunin sa kahit anong panahon, ano
naman ang tawag sa perang nagtatakda ng panahon para makuha sa bangko?
a. bonds
b. insurance
c. time deposit
d. check deposit
_____27. Alin sa mga sumusunod na ahensya ang nagpapautang kapalit ang alahas?
a. money changer
b. bangko rural
c. bahay-sanglaan
d. bangkong komersyal
_____28. Kapag may mahabang pila sa may tindahan, tanda ito na may
a. kakapusan
b. kasaganaan
c. pagrarasyon
d. pagpupulong
_____29. Ang patuloy na pagtaas ng pangkalahatang presyo ng halos lahat na pamilihan sa buong
ekonomiya ay tinatawag na
a. implasyon
b. produksyon
c. importasyon
d. depresasyon
_____30. Ang pagdami ng mga korporasyong multinasyonal sa bansa ay nakapagdadala ng positibong
epekto sa bansa maliban sa
a. buwis
b. trabaho
c. polusyon
d. kompetisyon
_____31. _____ ang unang tawag sa ekonomiks.
a. agham panlipunan
b. political economy
c. sosyolohiya d. sikolohiya
_____32. Sino ang sumulat ng Das Kapital?
a. Adam Smith
b. Max Weber
c. Karl Marx
d. David Ricardo
_____33. Ang pag-aaral na may kinalaman sa produksyon, pamamhagi at paggamit ng salat na pinagkukunang-yaman. Ito ang kahulugan ng ekonomiks ayon kay________.
a. Gerardo Sicat
b. Lloyd Reynolds
c. Paul Samuelson
d. Clifford James
_____34. Ang tatlong dibisyon ng ekonomiks ay produksyon, distribusyon, at __________.
a. pagkonsumo
b. paggawa
c. capital
d. pamimili
_____35. Hindi agham panlipunan ang __________.
a. ekonomiks
b. heograpiya
c. pilosopiya
d. biolohiya
_____36. Sino ang may akda ng The Wealth of Nations?
a. Thomas Malthus b. Adam Smith
c. David Ricardo
d. John Maynard Keynes
_____37. Tinatawag na ______ ang pag-aaral sa buong ekonomiya ng bansa.
a. ekonomiks
b. maykroekonomiks c. makroekonomiks
d. political economy
_____38. Sa yugtong ito, umaasa lamang ang mga tao sa biyaya ng kalikasan upang mabuhay.
a. pagpapastol
b. pagtatanim c. pangangaso at pangingisda d. paggawa sa kamay
_____39. Tinatawag na _____ ng mga bansang umuunlad.
a. First Worldb. Developed
c. Third World
d. Second World
_____40. Ipinatupad niya ang patakarang Pilipino Muna na naglalayong tangkilikin ang mga produktong gawa ng mga Pilipino.
a. Carlos Garcia b. Diosdado Macapagal c. Ferdinand Marcos
d. Corazon Aquino
II- Pagtatapat-tapatin ang mga salitang nasa Hanay A at Hanay B. Titik lamang ang isulat sa patlang.
HANAY A
HANAY B
_____41. Puhunang pambili ng kalakal sa ibang bansa
a. kita
_____42. Ginagamit din itong tayuan ng pagawaan
b. upa
_____43. Pambili ng makinarya at hilaw na sangkap
c. sahod
_____44. Pakinabang sa ginamit na lupa
d. interes
_____45. Paggawa gamit ang isip
e. mental
_____46. Pakinabang ng entreprenyur
f. manwal
_____47. Paggamit gamit ang bisig
g. lupa
_____48. Pakinabang na gamit ang puhunan
h. capital
_____49. Nagpapadali sa produksyon
i. salapi
_____50. Pakinabang ng manggagawa sa ipinagkaloob na
j. dolyar
paglilingkod
Good luck & Happy Graduation
Maam NYMS

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FOURTH PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH II
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ___________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space before the
number.
______1. Drug abuse is common among
a. teenagers
b. children
c. adult
d. all of the above
______2. The agency credited for the Comprehensive Drugs Act of 2002 is
a. DARE
b. DARN
c. DDB
d. CANU
______3. Smoking affects the
a. digestive system b. endocrine system
c. respiratory system
d. excretory system
______4. Amphetamines are better known as
a. pot
b. pep pills
c. stick
d. shabs
______5. The best way to solve problem is to
a. pretend not to have a problem
c. turn to drugs
b. face the problem and find a solution
d. go with the peers
______6. The common name for methedrine is
a. speed
b. ubas
c. heart
d. methamphetamine
______7. One of the physiological effects of shabu is
a. chest pain
b. hypertension
c. death
d. all of the above
______8. The poor mans cocaine is
a. shabu
b. ecstasy
c. amphetamine
d. cocaine
______9. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 is about
a. prohibited drugs b. regulated drugs
c. proper use of drugs d. all of the above
_____10. The most powerful etral nervous system stimulant is
a. shabu
b. cocaine
c. ecstacy
d. amphetamine
_____11. It is used medically for weight reduction among obese people, relief of mild depression and
treatment of narcolepsy.
a. shabu
b. cocaine
c. ecstacy
d. amphetamine
_____12. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks, and some wake-up pills.
a. cocaine
b. caffeine
c. nicotine
d. shabu
_____13. An active component in tobacco which acts as powerful stimulant of the central nervous system
a. cocaine
b. caffeine
c. nicotine
d. shabu
_____14.What do you call to an assistance given to injured people or those taken suddenly ill before the
arrival of a physician?
a. bandage
b. medical aid
c. first aid
d. dressing
_____15. A good first aider should possess the following EXCEPT:
a. observant
b. cheerful
c. resourceful
d. dependent
_____16. It usually occurs as a result of a fall, a blow, or other traumatic events.
a. factures
b. bleeding
c. sprain
d. dislocation
_____17. Which of the following DOES NOT belong to the group?
a. severe bleeding b. sprain
c. stoppage of breathing d. poisoning

_____18. The term used for the study of birth rate, death rate and migration is
a. demography
b. geography
c. gerontology
d. biography
_____19. Which of the following helps in the increase of population?
a. deportation
b. migration
c. immigration
d. mortality
_____20. The term that refers to the actual number of births applied to an individual or to a group is ___.
a. fertility
b. birth rate
c. crude birth rate
d. mortality
_____21. The process of developing awareness and understanding of population situation is ______.
a. population
b. demography
c. population education
d. fertility
_____22. It is a process tending to reduce population.
a. fertility
b. migration
c. mortality
d. immigration
_____23. It refers to the number of people living I a community.
a. birth rate
b. migration
c. mortality
d. population
_____24. Refers to a one-time movement from one territory t another.
a. birth rate
b. migration
c. mortality
d. population
_____25. Carbon monoxide from jeepneys contribute to
a. water pollution
b. noise pollution
c. land pollution
d. air pollution
_____26. The general term applied to solid and semi-solid waste materials other than human excreta.
a. garbage
b. rubbish
c. refuse
d. night soil

_____27. Water that is safe for drinking is called


a. clear water
b. potable water
c. contaminated
d. treated water
_____28. A very common refuse disposal method which must be discourage because it creates air
tion is ______.
a. composting
b. burning
c. burial
d. grinding
_____29. Air, noise, and water pollution are common in
a. urban communities
b. rural communities
c. all of the above
d. uncertain
_____30. It is the introduction of substances or pollutants in water.
a. air pollution
b. water pollution
c. visual pollution
d. noise pollution
_____31. The capacity of an individual to function in every way at his best is called __________.
a. fitness
b. physical fitness
c. conditioning
d. movement
_____32. It is defined as the ability of the muscles to aid a persons ability to exert maximum force
a. muscular strength
b. flexibility
c. speed
d. power
_____33. The ability of the muscles to move joints with ease through the normal range of motion.
a. muscular strength
b. flexibility
c. speed
d. power
_____34. The ability to perform a movement or cover a distance in a short period of time.
a. muscular strength
b. flexibility
c. speed
d. power
_____35. The ability to move and change direction quickly.
a. speed
b. power
c. agility
d. balance
II- Modified TRUE or FALSE: Write T if the statement is true and write the correct answer that makes
the statement wrong.
_____________________36. James Naismith invented the game softball.
_____________________37. Hot corner refers to the first base.
_____________________38. Softball is similar to baseball.
_____________________39. The game softball was originally called outdoor baseball.
_____________________40. The number of players in a soccer team is 9.
_____________________41. Shuttlecock is the ball used in table tennis.
_____________________42. Backhand stroke is used in returning the bird from the left side of the body.
_____________________43. A single game is played by two players in each side.
_____________________44. Table tennis is also known as pingpong.
_____________________45. Love is called when the score is tie.
III- Arrange by number which of the following incidents should be given immediate attention:
______46. poisoning
______47. stoppage of breathing
______48. severe bleeding
______49. fracture
______50. heart attack
Good luck & Happy Vacation
Maam NYMS

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FOURTH PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH III
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Select the best answer by writing only the letter before each number.
______1. It is a disease of the heart and blood vessels.
a. high blood pressure b. heart attack
c. stroke
d. cardiovascular disease
______2. A disease in which the blood pressure is consistently higher than normal.
a. high blood pressure b. heart attack
c. stroke
d. cardiovascular disease
______3. It occurs when an area of the heart muscle dies.
a. high blood pressure b. heart attack
c. stroke
d. cardiovascular disease
______4. It is the result when the blood supply into or within the brain is severely reduced or cut off.
a. high blood pressure b. heart attack
c. stroke
d. cardiovascular disease
______5. Any disease characterized by body cells that grow abnormally and end to spread throughout the
body.
a. cancer
b. AIDS
c. stroke
d. diabetes
______6. Type of cancer which is usually preventable by avoiding overexposure to the sun.
a. skin cancer
b. lung cancer
c. breast cancer
d. leukemia
______7. The leading sites of cancer among women
a. lungs
b. colon
c. uterus
d. breasts
______8. It is a disease of the tissues that produce blood.
a. skin cancerb. lung cancer
c. breast cancer
d. leukemia
______9. The process of segregating a sick person or a carrier until all dangers of conveying the infection
has passed. a. quarantine
b. isolation
c. eradication
d. admission
_____10. Refers to the limitation of the freedom to be in contact with persons who have come sufficiently
near or have been exposed to a source of infection.
a. quarantine
b. isolation
c. eradication
d. admission
_____11. It is an inflammation of the liver caused by a virus, or by certain medications or toxins.
a. hepatitis
b. acute hepatitis A
c. acute hepatitis B
d. hepatitis C
_____12. This is a serious contagious disease of the lungs caused by pneumococcus and other bacteria.
a. tuberculosis
b. pneumonia
c. influenza
d. common colds
_____13. A disease of the upper respiratory tract which is caused by a virus.
a. tuberculosis
b. pneumonia
c. influenza
d. common colds
_____14. This is an immune deficient state caused by HIV.
a. hepatitis
b. SARS
c. AIDS
d. tuberculosis

_____15. This is a team sport which composed of 12 players.


a. soccer
b. baseball
c. volleyball
d. softball
_____16. His main duty is to stop, retrieve the ball and make a defensive play only.
a. libero
b. spiker
c. server
d. receiver
_____17. Scoring in volleyball is called
a. point system
b. rally point
c. love
d. deuce
_____18. He keeps the scoresheet according to the rules, cooperating with the second referee.
a. first referee
b, second referee
c. linesmen
d. scorer
_____19. They signal the ball in and out whenever the ball lands their lines.
a. first referee
b, second referee
c. linesmen
d. scorer
_____20. Directs the match from the start until the end.
a. first referee
b, second referee
c. linesmen
d. scorer
_____21. Performs his functions standing at the post outside the playing court on the opposite side.
a. first referee
b, second referee
c. linesmen
d. scorer
_____21. The number of players in sepak takraw.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
_____22. In playing the game, which of the following is not allowed to be used in sepak takraw?
a. head
b. feet
c. thighs
d. hands
_____23. Which of the following is not an equipment used in sepak takraw?
a. net
b. ball
c. racket
d. posts
_____24. The most important skill in sepak takraw.
a. heading
b. controlling
c. passing
d. kick
_____25. A skill used to return the ball into the opponents court.
a. heading
b. controlling
c. passing
d. kick
_____26. This skill is often used in attack and defense.
a. heading
b. controlling
c. passing
d. kick
_____27. Is used when the ball is sent by a player to his own mate.
a. pass
b. set
c. heading
d. retrieving

_____28. It can be made by a player to his mate for a kill shot.


a. pass
b. set
c. heading
d. retrieving
_____29. An important skill which is used by an attacking team in its third and final stroke.
a. smash or spike
b. blocking
c. passing
d. controlling
_____30. A defensive skill adopted for the purpose of blocking a head or a foot smash coming from
above and close to the net.
a. smash or spike
b. blocking
c. passing
d. controlling
_____31. The player who stands at the center of the court is called ________.
a. tekong
b. inside-right
c. inside-left
d. spiker
_____32. The player on his right is known as _______.
a. tekong
b. inside-right
c. inside-left
d. spiker
_____33. The player who is on the left side of the court is called _________.
a. tekong
b. inside-right
c. inside-left
d. spiker
_____34. It is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of
disease or infirmity.
a. family planning
b. reproductive health c. POP ED
d. fertility
_____35. It is the actual number of births applied to an individual or to a group.
a. family planning
b. reproductive health c. POP ED
d. fertility
II- A. Choose the best answer from the list of words below. Write the letter only.
a. Louis Pasteur
i. William Harvey
b. Edward Jenner
j. Marie Curie
c. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
k. Gerhard Hansen
d. Robert Koch
l. walking
e. Jonas Salk
m. BMI
f. Albert Sabin
n. physical fitness
g. Alexander Fleming
o. basketball
h. Wilhelm Roentgen
p. psychological
_____36. Called the Father of Bacteriology
_____37. Known as the conqueror of small pox; developed vaccination
_____38. Discovered germ-causing tuberculosis
_____39. Discoverer of germs; invented the microscope
_____40. Discovered penicillin for antibiotic therapy

_____41. Discovered X-ray


_____42. Discovered radium
_____43. Discovered leprosy
_____44. Discovered blood circulation
_____45. Discovered oral vaccine for paralytic poliomyelitis
_____46. Discovered vaccine for paralytic poliomyelitis
_____47. best exercise
_____48. Ability to do the task without undue fatigue
_____49. Sum total of your height and weight
_____50. Develops agility

Good luck & Happy Vacation


Maam NYMS

______1. It is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of
disease or infirmity.
a. family planning
b. reproductive health c. POP ED
d. fertility
______2. It is the actual number of births applied to an individual or to a group.
a. family planning
b. reproductive health c. POP ED
d. fertility
______3. A process in which one egg matures each month in one of the two ovaries.
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______4. What happen when the egg is fertilized and develops gradually into a baby?
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______5. A process when the sperm cell and ovum meet within the body of the woman.
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______6. When the egg is not fertilized, it does not attach itself to the wall of the uterus but it leaves the
body of the woman.
a. menstruation
b. conception
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______7. It is the union of an egg cell and the sperm cell.
a. menstruation
b. conception
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______8. A short life span of the egg cell which limits the time period during each month in which a
sperm and an egg cell can unite.
a. 12-24 hrs.
b. 24-36 hrs.
c. 12-48 hrs.
d. 48-72 hrs.
______9. The inability of a man to fertilize an egg.
a. fertility
b. sterility
c. heredity
d. infertility
_____10. The inability of a woman to conceive or carry a pregnancy to term.
a. fertility
b. sterility
c. heredity
d. infertility
_____11. A surgical procedure where the vas deferens are tied or cut, resulting in sterilization.
a. vasectomy
b. salpingectomy
c. sterility
d. fertility

_____12. A surgical procedure which consists of tying, cutting or removal of the fallopian tubes.
a. vasectomy
b. salpingectomy
c. sterility
d. fertility
_____13. What part of female reproductive organ where the sperm and egg cell meet?
a. ovary
b. uterus
c. fallopian tube
d. vagina
_____14. Way of preventing and controlling diseases such as measles, mumps, Rubella measles, and etc.
a. immunization
b. vaccination
c. prevention
d. acupuncture
_____15. One way to determine the sex of the fetus from a mothers uterus.
a. X-ray
b. laser
c. ultrasound
d. acupuncture
_____16. These are microscopic organisms.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
_____17. Organisms that feed on animal or plant tissues.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
_____18. These are one-celled organisms.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
_____19. Made up of genetic materials surrounded by a protein shell.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. viruses
d. protozoans
_____20. These are small bacteria that can be produced only within living cells.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
II- A. Choose the best answer from the list of words below. Write the letter only.
a. Louis Pasteur
i. William Harvey
b. Edward Jenner
j. Marie Curie
c. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
k. Gerhard Hansen
d. Robert Koch
l. rabies
e. Jonas Salk
m. biological
f. Albert Sabin
n. physical
g. Alexander Fleming
o. nutritional
h. Wilhelm Roentgen
p. psychological
_____21. Called the Father of Bacteriology
_____22. Known as the conqueror of small pox; developed vaccination
_____23. Discovered germ-causing tuberculosis
_____24. Discoverer of germs; invented the microscope
_____25. Discovered penicillin for antibiotic therapy
_____26. Discovered X-ray
_____27. Discovered radium
_____28. Discovered leprosy
_____29. Discovered blood circulation
_____30. Discovered oral vaccine for paralytic poliomyelitis
_____31. Discovered vaccine for paralytic poliomyelitis
_____32. stress, tension, neurosis, psychosis
_____33. trauma or accident
_____34. anemia, goiter, beri-beri
_____35. amoebic dysentery
B. Write _ /_ if the following is favorable ecological factors; then _X_ if it is unfavorable ecological
factors.
_____36. aging
_____44. stress, pathogenic organisms
_____37. adequate medical care
_____45. poor environment
_____38. good heredity
_____46. good environment
_____39. psychogenic-emotional factors
_____47. low living standards
_____40. poor heredity
_____48. emotional maturity
_____41. unhealthful practices
_____49. personal-social fulfillment
_____42. proper nutrition
_____50. peaceful community
_____43. satisfying work and recreation

Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
THIRD PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH II
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Select the best answer by writing only the letter before each number.
_______1. Carbon monoxide from jeepneys contribute to
a. water pollution b. noise pollution
c land pollution
d. air pollution
_______2. To be sure ether the water supply is safe to drink, it should undergo
a. bacteriological examination
c. chemical examination
b. physical examination
d. biological examination

_______3. The average noise that a human ear can tolerate is


a. 50 decibels
b. 90 decibels
c. 100 decibels
d. 120 decibels
_______4. Water that is safe for drinking is called
a. clear water
b. potable water
c. contaminated water d. treated water
_______5. An effective household method of purifying water is
a. boiling
b. chlorination
c. filtration
d. sedimentation
_______6. Air, noise, and water pollution are common in
a. urban communities
c. all of the in above
b. rural communities
d. uncertain
_______7. It is the introduction of substances or pollutants in water
a. air pollution
b. water pollution
c. visual pollution
d. noise pollution
_______8. It is the act of introducing into the atmosphere substances r pollutants which may be harmful
to public health.
a. air pollution
b. water pollution
c. visual pollution
d. noise pollution
_______9. A composite of sounds generated by human activities ranging from blasting stereo systems to
the roar of supersonic transport jets.
a. air pollution
b. water pollution
c. visual pollution
d. noise pollution
______10. The loudness of sound is measured in units called
a. intensity
b. tone
c. seconds
d. decibels
______11. This is a prime necessity second only to air in importance as a basic need for the existence of
life on this planet.
a. air
b. water
c. food
d. shelter
______12. Characteristics of water which refers o the inert suspensions of floating substances that are
carried by water in its passage through the hydrologic cycle.
a. physical
b. chemical
c. bacteriological
d. synthetic
______13. It is the process whereby the water particles are brought into intimate contact with air for
the purpose of effecting an exchange of gases.
a. aeration
b. chlorination
c. softening
d. fluoridation
______14. A method f removing the calcium and magnesium salts which cause hardness in water.
a. aeration
b. chlorination
c. softening
d. fluoridation
______15. A treatment process aimed a preventing dental caries or tooth decay especially among children
a. aeration
b. chlorination
c. softening
d. fluoridation
______16. These are strong-smelling, colorless gases that irritate the eyes, nose, throat, and lungs.
a. carbon monoxide
b. sulfur oxide
c. hydrocarbons
d. nitrogen oxides
______17. A group of chemical compounds made up of hydrogen and carbon.
a. carbon monoxide
b. sulfur oxide
c. hydrocarbons
d. nitrogen oxides
______18. These pollutants irritate the eyes, nose, and lungs, and lower a persons resistance to diseases.
a. carbon monoxide
b. sulfur oxide
c. hydrocarbons
d. nitrogen oxides
______19. It is an odorless, colorless gas that can cause serious health problems.
a. carbon monoxide
b. sulfur oxide
c. hydrocarbons
d. nitrogen oxides
______20. A kind of pollution that can contribute to stress is
a. air pollution
b. noise pollution c. water pollution
d. soil pollution
______21. The number of players in a soccer team is
a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12
______22. The team member who may use his hands on the ball.
a. goalkeeper
b. center halfbacks
c. center forward
d. left fullbacks
______23. It refers to the throwing of the ball into the playing area by the opposing team after it is kicked
out of bound.
a. kick in
b. throw in
c. corner kick
d. goal kick
______24. It is given to the attacking player at the corner.
a. kick off
b. throw in
c. corner kick
d. goal kick
______25. It signals the start of the game.
a. kick off
b. throw in
c. corner kick
d. goal kick

______26. It is called if a player is stripped, kicked, pushed, charged into, or held by another player.
a. foul
b. unintentional foul
c. free kick
d. penalty kick
______27. It is awarded if a player of the defending team commits a foul in the penalty area.
a. foul
b. unintentional foul
c. free kick
d. penalty kick
______28. It is made by kicking the ball under or between the goal posts.
a. kick off
b. penalty kick
c. field goal
d. free kick
______29. It is awarded to the opposing team if a foul occurs.
a. kick off
b. penalty kick
c. field goal
d. free kick
______30. The length of the playing game for soccer football.
a. 30 minutes
b. 35 minutes
c. 40 minutes
d. 45 minutes
II- Identification: Identify the correct answer from the list of words given below. Write only the letter of
your answer.

a. mask
i. homeplate
b. bases
j. body protector
c. foul ball
k. keystone sack
d. gloves
l. initial sack
e. flyball
m. hot corner
f. homerun
n. Lewis Robert
g. ground ball
o. William Morgan
h. infield
p. indoor baseball
______31. Worn by any player except the catcher and first baseman.
______32. Worn by catcher and homebase umpire.
______33. Worn by catcher and pitcher.
______34. It is made of canvass or other suitable materials.
______35. A ball that is hit into the air.
______36. A batted ball that falls and lands outside the fair territory.
______37. A batted ball that hits the ground.
______38. A batted ball in fair territory that does not involve an error and allows the batter to circle the
bases.
______39. A five-sided base, 17 inches wide across and facing pitcher.
______40. A 60-foot square with bases at each corner.
______41. An inventor of the game softball.
______42. Original name of softball.
______43. First base
______44. Second base
______45. Third base
III- Fill in the blanks with a correct answer.
Sound Sources
Intensity Decibels
Human whisper
47. ________________
Alarm clock
Domestic quarrel
50. _______________
Garbage truck
52. _______________
Jack hammer
54. _______________
55. _______________
Rocket
City traffic
58. _______________
Garbage disposal unit
60. _______________

46. ____________
60
48. ____________
49. ____________
85
51. ____________
93
53. ____________
97
110
56. ____________
57. ____________
80
59. ____________
135-150

Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
THIRD PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH III
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Select the best answer by writing only the letter before each number.
______1. It is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of
disease or infirmity.
a. family planning
b. reproductive health c. POP ED
d. fertility
______2. It is the actual number of births applied to an individual or to a group.
a. family planning
b. reproductive health c. POP ED
d. fertility
______3. A process in which one egg matures each month in one of the two ovaries.

a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______4. What happen when the egg is fertilized and develops gradually into a baby?
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______5. A process when the sperm cell and ovum meet within the body of the woman.
a. conception
b. ovulation
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______6. When the egg is not fertilized, it does not attach itself to the wall of the uterus but it leaves the
body of the woman.
a. menstruation
b. conception
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______7. It is the union of an egg cell and the sperm cell.
a. menstruation
b. conception
c. implantation
d. fertilization
______8. A short life span of the egg cell which limits the time period during each month in which a
sperm and an egg cell can unite.
a. 12-24 hrs.
b. 24-36 hrs.
c. 12-48 hrs.
d. 48-72 hrs.
______9. The inability of a man to fertilize an egg.
a. fertility
b. sterility
c. heredity
d. infertility
_____10. The inability of a woman to conceive or carry a pregnancy to term.
a. fertility
b. sterility
c. heredity
d. infertility
_____11. A surgical procedure where the vas deferens are tied or cut, resulting in sterilization.
a. vasectomy
b. salpingectomy
c. sterility
d. fertility
_____12. A surgical procedure which consists of tying, cutting or removal of the fallopian tubes.
a. vasectomy
b. salpingectomy
c. sterility
d. fertility
_____13. What part of female reproductive organ where the sperm and egg cell meet?
a. ovary
b. uterus
c. fallopian tube
d. vagina
_____14. Way of preventing and controlling diseases such as measles, mumps, Rubella measles, and etc.
a. immunization
b. vaccination
c. prevention
d. acupuncture
_____15. One way to determine the sex of the fetus from a mothers uterus.
a. X-ray
b. laser
c. ultrasound
d. acupuncture
_____16. These are microscopic organisms.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
_____17. Organisms that feed on animal or plant tissues.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
_____18. These are one-celled organisms.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
_____19. Made up of genetic materials surrounded by a protein shell.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. viruses
d. protozoans
_____20. These are small bacteria that can be produced only within living cells.
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. rickettsiae
d. protozoans
II- A. Choose the best answer from the list of words below. Write the letter only.
a. Louis Pasteur
i. William Harvey
b. Edward Jenner
j. Marie Curie
c. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
k. Gerhard Hansen
d. Robert Koch
l. rabies
e. Jonas Salk
m. biological
f. Albert Sabin
n. physical
g. Alexander Fleming
o. nutritional
h. Wilhelm Roentgen
p. psychological
_____21. Called the Father of Bacteriology
_____22. Known as the conqueror of small pox; developed vaccination

_____23. Discovered germ-causing tuberculosis


_____24. Discoverer of germs; invented the microscope
_____25. Discovered penicillin for antibiotic therapy
_____26. Discovered X-ray
_____27. Discovered radium
_____28. Discovered leprosy
_____29. Discovered blood circulation
_____30. Discovered oral vaccine for paralytic poliomyelitis
_____31. Discovered vaccine for paralytic poliomyelitis
_____32. stress, tension, neurosis, psychosis
_____33. trauma or accident
_____34. anemia, goiter, beri-beri
_____35. amoebic dysentery

B. Write _ /_ if the following is favorable ecological factors; then _X_ if it is unfavorable ecological
factors.
_____36. aging
_____44. stress, pathogenic organisms
_____37. adequate medical care
_____45. poor environment
_____38. good heredity
_____46. good environment
_____39. psychogenic-emotional factors
_____47. low living standards
_____40. poor heredity
_____48. emotional maturity
_____41. unhealthful practices
_____49. personal-social fulfillment
_____42. proper nutrition
_____50. peaceful community
_____43. satisfying work and recreation

Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
THIRD PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH IV
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided for.
______1. It is an act of handling functions and responsibilities, controlling situations, and directing
people towards achieving a common goal.
a. management
b. supervision
c. administration
d. leadership
______2. It is the act of guiding or directing the personnel or staff to pursue the action towards the right
direction.
a. planning
b. leading
c. controlling
d. staffing
______3. It is an athletic competition within the four walls of the school.
a. school sports extramurals
c. school sports intramurals
b. school sports fair
d. school sports demonstration
______4. This type of elimination tournament determines the winner by eliminating the loser in every
match until there is one team left.
a. single elimination b. double elimination
c. round robin
d. ladder
______5. The formula used in determining the number of games in single elimination.
a. G=2(N-1)
b. G=3(N-1)
c. G=N(N-1)/2
d. G=N-1
______6. In this type of elimination, a team should be defeated twice before it is declared out of the
competition.
a. single elimination b. double elimination
c. round robin
d. ladder
______7. If 6 teams are competing in a double elimination type of tournament, how many games will be
played?
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
______8. This is the formula used to determine the number of games in double elimination.
a. G=2(N-1)
b. G=3(N-1)
c. G=N(N-1)/2
d. G=N-1
______9. This type of tournament provides an opportunity for each competing team to play against every
other team.
a. single elimination b. double elimination
c. round robin
d. ladder
_____10. The formula used to determine the number of games in round robin elimination is
a. G=2(N-1)
b. G=3(N-1)
c. G=N(N-1)
d. G=N-1
_____11. Why are sports committees created in managing school sports competition?
a. For equal division of work
b. To implement rules and regulations for the sport activities
c. To assure success
d. To require the participation of all members
_____12. Why are school sports intramurals held?
a. To apply skills and knowledge learned in Physical Education
b. To choose the outstanding school athlete
c. To develop cooperation among the students
d. To choose who will qualify for scholarship
_____13. Why are officiating officials chosen in school sports competitions?
a. To watch the performance of the athletes

b. To handle the different games


c. To serve as judges in the games
d. To apply the rules of the games
_____14. What is the function of the chief umpire in a baseball game?
a. Rules out safe or out
b. Shouts play ball
c. Checks athlete attendance
d. Keeps the record of the teams
_____15. Why is a game schedule important in sports tournaments?
a. To avoid confusion among participants
b. To discipline the participants
c. To assure the presence of officiating officials
d. To provide opportunities for full participations in the sports

_____16. Which is NOT a pre-game activity in the school sports intramurals?


a. Preparing guidelines for the participating teams
b. Listing available equipment
c. Preparing a list of sports events to be played
d. Preparing a list of candidates to serve as athletic manager
______17. Which is NOT required for a good officiating official?
a. game experience b. good judgment c. physical fitness d. educational attainment
______18. Who is NOT a baseball official?
a. linesman
b. scorer
c. chief umpire
d. base umpire
______19. Which of the following describes a school sports intramurals?
a. It involves several private schools
b. It involves several public schools
c. It is an athletic competition within the school for the students
d. It involves colleges and universities
______20. Who among the following usually serves as the general manager in school sports intramurals?
a. School principal
c. Supervisor of MAPEH
b. Department Head of MAPEH
d. Teacher of MAPEH
II- Using the formula for round robin type of elimination, fill in this chart.
ROUND ROBIN ELIMINATION
No. of Teams
No. of Byes
No. of Games
(If there is any)
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.

6
7
8
9
10

_________
_________
_________
_________
_________

_________
_________
_________
_________
_________

III- Make a diagram of single elimination, double ad round robin types of tournament with 6 participating
teams (30 pts.). Use separate sheet if necessary.

Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
Ikatlong Panahunang Pagsusulit
A.P. IV (Ekonomiks)
Pangalan:________________________________
Iskor:____________
Taon at Pangkat:__________________________
Petsa:____________
I- Pagpipili: Piliin ang tamang sagot at isulat ang katumbas na titik nito sa patlang.
______1. Ito ay naglilimita sa pagkonsumo.
a. kita
b. presyo
c. okasyon
d. paggaya
______2. Ang paraan ng panghihikayat sa mamimili na gumagamit ng mga kilalang tao upang ipakilala at hikayatin ang mga tao na bumili at gumamit ng isang particular na produkto
a. paraang brand
b. bandwagon
c. pag-aanunsyo
d. testimonial
______3. Uri ng pagkonsumo na natatamo agad ng tao ang kasiyahan dulot ng produkto.
a. maaksaya
b. direkta
c. produktibo
d. mapanganib
______4. Uri ng pagkonsumo na wala naming natatmong kasiyahan ang tao.
a. maaksaya
b. direkta
c. produktibo
d. mapanganib
______5. Ang paghanap at pagkukumpara ng isang mamimili ay bahagi ng kanyang karapatang
a. pumili
b. magbayad
c. bumili
d. kaligtasan
______6. Ang pinsalang nakamit sa paggamit ng isang kalakal ay nararapat na tumanggap ng
a. papuri
b. kabayaran
c. kaligtasan
d. mapakinggan
______7. Sakop ng DTI ang pagpapatupad ng batas sa
a. kalakal at paglilingkod
c. kompanya at pabrika
b. kalakalan at industriya
d. gamot at pampaganda
______8. Alin sa mga sumusunodang hindi nabibilang?
a. okasyon
b. kita
c. kultura
d. artista
______9. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang hindi salik sa pagkonsumo?
a. panahon
b. okasyon
c. panggagaya
d. artista
_____10.Ano ang pagkakapareho ng mgs sumusunod:
Batas ng bumababangkasiyahan
Batas ng imitasyon
Batas ng nagpapasyangekonomiko
a. lahat ay batas na pumuprotekta sa mamimili
b. lahat ay batas sa pagkonsumo
c. lahat ay batas sa produksyon
d. lahat ay batas sa distribusyon
_____11. Halaga na katumbas ng produkto at serbisyo
a. presyo
b. kultura
c. timbang
d. panukat
_____12. Ang mga sumusunod ay mga ahensya na nagbibigay-protesyon sa mamimili maliban sa:
a. Kagawaran ng Industriya at Kalakalan
c. Bureau of Food and Drugs
b. Civil Service Commission
d. National Pollution Commission
_____13. Salitang ekonomiko sa Ingles na tumutukoy sa kasiyahan na natatamo ng tao sa pagkonsumo.
a. utility
b. price
c. value
d. happiness
_____14. Batas na nagsasaad na ang paggamit o pagbili ng magkakaternong produkto ay nagbibigay
kasiyahan sa tao.
a. Batas ng Imitasyon
c. Batas ng Bumababang Kasiyahan
b. Batas ng Ekonomikong Pagdedesisyon
d. Batas ng Pagkakabagay-bagay

_____15. Higit na makatitipid ang mamimili sa oras at presyo kung


a. nagpaplano
b. walang listahan
c. may pera
d. nagmamadali
_____16. Alin sa mga sumusunod na dahilan ang dapat isaalang-alang upang makaiwas sa pagbili ng
second hand na gamit?
a. Mas higit na mura ang halaga
c. Matagal nang subok ang gamit
b. Makatitipid ang mamimili
d. Wala itong garantiya
_____17. Ang batas na ito ang nagbabawal sa pag-aanunsyo ng mga pekeng produkto ar serbisyo.
a. Price Tag
c. Batas Republika 3740
b. Batas blg. 71
d. Artikulo 1546 ng Kodigo Sibil
_____18. Batay sa ___________ ang lahat ng produkto at serbisyo.
a. distribusyon
b. palitan
c. pagkonsumo
d. bilihan
_____19. Pinakamabisang paraan upang maiwasan ang pagbili ng installment.
a. pagbibili ng ibang gamit
c. pangungutang
b. pagkakait sa sarili
d. pag-iimpok

_____20. Pinangangalagaan ng ahensyang ito ang kalusugan ng publiko.


a. Bureau of Food and Drugs
c. Batas Blg. 71
b. Bureau of Products Standard
d. Batas Blg. 3940
_____21. Ang ahensyang ito ang nagbibigay ng mga pamantayan na dapat sundin ng mga kompanya at
pabrikang gumagawa ng ibat ibang uri ng produkto.
a. Bureau of Food and Drugs
c. Batas Blg. 71
b. Bureau of Products Standard
d. Batas Blg. 3940
_____22. Tawag sa salapi na tinatanggap kapalit ng ginawang produkto o serbisyo.
a. kita
b. presyo
c. value
d. pag-aanunsyo
_____23. Dito nakasaad na may pananagutan ang nagtitinda sa mga sinasabi tungkol sa isang kalakal
upang hikayatin ang mga mamimili.
a. Artikulo 1546 ng Kodigo Sibil
c. Artikulo 2187 ng Kodigo Sibil
b. Artikulo 1547 ng Kodigo Sibil
d. Batas Republika 1556
_____24. Ipinag-uutos nito na magparehistro ang nga kompanyang gumagawa at nagtitinda ng mga
pagkain.
a. Artikulo 1546 ng Kodigo Sibil
c. Artikulo 2187 ng Kodigo Sibil
b. Artikulo 1547 ng Kodigo Sibil
d. Batas Republika 1556
_____25. Isa sa kabutihang dulot nito ang kakayahang bumili kahit na walang dalang pera.
a. widrawal slip
b. deposit slip c. credit card d. time deposit
II-Paglalapat: A. Kilalanin ang ating salaping papel at barya sa pamamagitan ng pagsulat kung sino ang
nakalarawan ditto.
26. Singkuwenta Pesos
27. Limang Piso 28. Dalawangdaang Piso 29. Sampung Piso
30. Piso
31. Isandaang Piso
32. Isanlibong Piso
33. Limandaang Piso
34. Dalawamput limang sentimo
35. Dalawampung Piso
B. Kilalanin ang salapi sa ibang bansa. isulat ang katawagan sa salapi ng sumusunod na bansa.
36. Italy
37. Amerika
38. Indonesia
39. China
40. Thailand
41. Singapore
42. Japan
43. Kuwait
44. Saudi Arabia
45. Korea
C. Magbigay ng 5 karapatan ng mga mamimili.

Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
Ikalawang Panahunang Pagsusulit
A.P. IV (Ekonomiks)
Pangalan:________________________________
Iskor:____________
Taon at Pangkat:__________________________
Petsa:____________
I- Pagpipili: Piliin ang tamang sagot at isulat ang katumbas na titik nito sa patlang.
_______1. Alin sa sumusunod ang hindi layunin ng pambansang ekonomiya?
a. makatarungang distribusyon ng kita at yaman b. mabigyan ng pagkakataon ang lahat
c. patuloy na paglaki ng produksyon
d. serbisyo para sa mga nagbabayad
_______2. Binubuo ng ______ ang pinagkukunang-yaman.
a. likas na yaman, yamang-tao at yamang capital b. likas na yaman at lakas-paggawa
c. lupa at yamang-tao
d. yamang pantao at puhunan
_______3. Sa mga implikasyon ng batang populasyon, hindi kasali ang
a. malaking bahagdan ng lakas-paggawa
b. malaking bahagdan ng pasanin ng padre de pamilya
c. malaking gastos para sa mga paaralan
d. malaking gastos para sa mga palaruan
_______4. Kabilang ang Pilipinas sa mga bansang __________.
a. maunlad
b. hindi maunlad
c. papaunlad d. NIC
_______5. Kabilang ang sumusunod sa yamang pisikal maliban sa
a. gusaling pambansa
b. sistemang patubig
c. daan, tulay d. mga mineral
_______6. Sanhi ng kakapusan ang susumunod maliban sa
a. pagkaubos ng likas na yaman
b. mabilis na paglaki ng populasyon
c. maaksayang paggamit ng likas na yaman
d. paglilibang
_______7. Alin sa sumusunod ang hindi epekto ng kakapusan?
a. kasaganaan
b. kahirapan
c. malnutrisyon d. pagdarahop
_______8. Lubhang kapuna-puna ang kakapusan sa mga bansang
a. maunlad
b. hindi maunlad
c. papaunlad d. NIC
_______9. Ayon kay Harold Maslow, ito ang pinakamataas na pangangailangan.
a. pangangailangang pangkaligtasan
b. pangangailangang pisyolohikal
c. pangangailangan sa pagmamahal
d. katuparan ng kaganapan ng tao
______10. Sino ang nagsabing ang kasaganaan sa material na bagay ang una sa tatlong katangian ng
maunlad na bansa
a. Max Weber b. Thomas Malthus c. Michael Todaro d. Harold Maslow
______11. Tinutukoy ng konseptong ito ang mga bagay na kailangan ng tao upang mabuhay.
a. pagkonsumo
b. kagustuhan
c. pangangailangan
d. pag-unlad
______12. Tawag sa mga bagay na dapat mayroon ang tao.
a. pangangailangan
b. kagustuhan
c. pangarap
d. pagkain
______13. Tawag sa mga bagay na dapat mayroon ang tao.
a. pangangailangan b. kagustuhan
c. pangarap
d. pagkain
______14. Ang tawag sa mga bagay na nakatutulong sa tao upang mapagaan ang kanyang buhay.
a. pangangailangan b. kagustuhan
c. pangarap
d. pagkain
______15. Tawag sa lahat ng mga taong may potensyal magtrabaho.

a. economically active population b. skilled worker c. domestic worker d. lakas-pantao


______16. Ito ay tumutukoy sa hangganan ng produktong pang-ekonomiya.
a. kakapusan
b. kakulangan
c. kahirapan
d. pangangailangan
______17. Ang proseso ng pagsasama-sama ng lupa, paggawa, capital, at entrepreneur upang lumikha
ng kalakal o paglilingkod ay
a. distribusyon
b. alokasyon
c. produksyon
d. trade off
______18. Sa mga hindi mataong pook, nagiging suliranin ang ________.
a. polusyon
b. basura
c. trapiko
d. mabagal na pag-unlad
______19. Matatagpuan ang malaking bahagi n gating populasyon sa ____________.
a. Timog Katagalugan
b. CAR
c. Kalakhang Maynila d. Gitanang Mindanao
______20. Ayon sa PPF, kapag nasa loob ng kurba ang produksyon, nangangahulugan ito na _______.
a. mabisang ginagamit ang mga sangkap ng produksyon
b. hindi lubos ang paggamit sa mga sangkap ng produksyon
c. walang kinalaman ang limitadong sangkap ng produksyon sa paggawa ng produkto
d. naragdagan ang paggawa ng produkto kahit kapos ang sangkap ng produksyon

______21. Papaubos na ang sumusunod na mga mineral maliban sa ____________.


a. ginto
b. pilak
c. tanso
d. aluminum
______22. Anong seksyon ng Artikulo XII ng Pambansang Ekonomiya at Patrimonya na nagsasaad na
pag-aari ng Estado ang lahat ng mga lupaing pag-aari ng bayan, tubig , at iba pa?
a. Seksyon 2
b. Seksyon 4 c. Seksyon 6 d. Seksyon 11
______23. Anyo ng isang kagamitang capital na nagpapahiwatig ng normal at unti-unting pagkaluma at
pagkasira nito.
a. homestead
b. investment c. depreciation
d. disposisyon
______24. May implikasyon sa paggalaw ng populasyon mula sa isang pook patungo sa iba.
a. pag-aanak
b. importasyon
c. migrasyon d. deportasyon
______25. Ang pagsuko sa paggawa ng isang produkto upang maisagawa ang isa pang produkto.
a. halaga ng oportunidad
b. tarade off
c. kakulangan d. kagustuhan
______26. Ang papaunting pakinabang na natatamo habang dumadami ang produksyon ng isang
produkto ay
a. halaga ng oportunidad
b. Batas ng Papaunting Pakinabang
c. trade off
d. likas na kakulangan
______27. Ang pamantayan sa pagsusunud-sunod ng mga kagustuhan ayon sa kahalagahan ay
nakasalalay sa
a. kita
b. panlasa
c. kultura
d. artista
______28. Ang salik ng produksyon na nagsasama-sama sa iba pang salik ng produksyon upang
makagawa ng kalakal ay
a. lupa
b. paggawa
c. capital
d. enterpreneur
______29. Isa ito sa paraan ng di-solusyon sa kakapusan
a. episyenteng paggamit ng yaman
b. produktibidad ng manggagawa
c. paglaki ng populasyon
d. pagdami ng capital
______30. Ang resulta ng kakulangan sa pagkain bunga ng kakapusan.
a. malnutrisyon
b. gutom
c. kahirapan
d. kawalang trabaho
______31. Ang epekto ng pag-aagawan sa pagbili ng produktong kulang sa suplay
a. pagbaba ng presyo
b. paglago ng industriya
c. taggutom
d. pagtaas ng presyo
______32. Ang panandaliang solusyon sa kakulangan ng suplay sa mga produktong di malikha sa bansa
a. pagkakalakal
b. pag-aangkat
c. pag-export
d. pagpipili
______33. Ito ay isa sa positibong epekto ng paglaki ng populasyon.
a. kakulangan sa pagkain
b. pagkakaroon ng maraming pabahay
c. paglaki ng mangungunsumo
d. paglaki ng gagastusin sa serbisyong panlipunan
______34. Ilang porsyento ng 76.5 milyong Pilipino ayon sa NSO sa taong 2000?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50
______35. Ang pinakamahirap na probinsiya sa Pilipinas noong 2000 ay
a. Sulu
b. Masbate
c. Lanao del Norte
d. Sarangani
II- A. Lagyan ng tsek(/) kung pangangailangan ang sumusunod at ekis(x) kung kagustuhan.
_______36. pagkakaroon ng mamahaling sapatos
_______44. pagkakaroon ng stateside na gamit
_______37. pagkain
_______45. pagkakaroon ng damit
_______38. pagkakaroon ng tirahan
_______46. cellphone
_______39. pagbili ng alahas
_______47. kasintahan

_______40. pagkakaroon ng makabagong kagamitan


sa bahay
_______41. kaibigan
_______42. pagiging ligtas
_______43. pag-inom ng alak

_______48. pagmamahal
_______49. kalayaan
_______50. pagbili ng motorsiklo

Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
SECOND PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH IV
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided for.
_____1. Why do people marry?
a. for love
b. for enjoyment
c. for social status
d. to get ahead
_____2. Which is a responsibility of parents to their children?
a. choose their husband or wife
b. choose their course in college
c. inculcate values
d. deprive them of food and shelter
_____3. Why is family planning being encouraged?
a. to have more disciplined youth
b. to meet the basic needs of children
c. to have a stable economy
d. to increase family income
_____4. Why does the government have a population program?
a. to realize the goals of the population policy
b. to set the rate of population growth
c. because the United Nations require it
d. to strictly enforce the program
_____5. Why do couples want to have children?
a. to strengthen the bond between the husband and wife
b. because religious institutions require it
c. society expects it
d. children are considered as wealth
_____6. Which is an ingredient of a happy marriage?
a. knowledge
b. fulfillment
c. commitment
d. security
_____7. What should be considered in choosing the family planning method to be used by couples?
a. couples health condition
b. social status
c. family background
d. educational attainment
_____8. Why is family planning programs organized?
a. to address family problems
b. to promote family welfare
c. to regulate rapid population growth
d. to stop unwanted pregnancies
_____9. Which is a wrong reason for having children?
a. the sole purpose of marriage
b. parents security in the future
c. positive growth of couples
d. social recognition
____10. Why is having a small family important?
a. to secure the future of the children
b. to provide for the childrens basic needs
c. for the communitys progress
d. to lessen social problems
____11. The most important element of a marriage is
a. care
b. trust
c. love
d. respect
____12. This is geared primarily toward achieving mutual understanding.
a. love
b. care
c. trust
d. communication
____13. Couples must show their ability to cope with the challenges in life and the capacity to be
physically, emotionally and financially stable.
a. love
b. commitment
c. maturity
d. honesty

____14. Couples should not take advantage of each others trust.


a. love
b. commitment
c. maturity
d. honesty
____15. Couples should have a relationship based on sympathy of thought or feeling.
a. spiritual sensitivity
b. honesty
c. trust
d. love
____16. These are considered temporary methods of birth control
a. natural method b. artificial contraceptives
c. hormonal method d. permanent method
____17. This method relies on charting the daily temperature of the woman.
a. Basal Body Temperature
c. Cervical Mucus Method
c. Two-Day Method
d. Standard Day Method
____18. This method is applicable to women whose menstrual cycles are from 26 to 32 days.
a. Basal Body Temperature
c. Cervical Mucus Method
c. Two-Day Method
d. Standard Day Method
____19. This is a combination of observing the cervical mucus secretion of the woman and her body
temperature.
a. Sympto-Thermal Method
b. Standard Day Method
c. Basal Body temperature
d. Cervical Mucus Method
____20. This pertains to a married couples primary concern of giving the best to their children and not
just satisfying their needs as a couple.
a. physical aspect
b. social aspect
c. moral aspect
d. economic aspect

____21. This refers to the physical health of the mother and her children.
a. physical aspect
b. social aspect
c. moral aspect
d. economic aspect
____22. Rearing a small family will enable the parents to attend to their children better.
a. physical aspect
b. social aspect
c. moral aspect
d. economic aspect
____23. A smaller family can more easily be handled financially.
a. physical aspect
b. social aspect
c. moral aspect
d. economic aspect
____24. A well-planned family promotes peace of mind and emotional stability among its members for
love, care, and attention can be easily be provided by the couple.
a. mental and emotional aspect b. moral aspect c. physical aspect d. social aspect
____25. The smallest unit of the society.
a. family
b. community
c. country
d. school
____26. Which is the greatest offense against the social unity of the family?
a. irresponsibility
b. infidelity
c. selfishness d. physical abuse
____27. When is the right time for marriage?
a. persons who are between 18-23 years of age
b. persons who have completed a degree and are gainfully employed
c. those who are mature physically, mentally, emotionally and socially
d. both b and c
____28. Which is the correct sequence in decision-making?
a. evaluate possible solution, set a goal, choose the best option, act on your choice
b. set a goal, evaluate possible choices, choose the best option, act on your choice
c. act on your choice, choose the best option, evaluate choices, set a goal
d. set a goal, choose the best option, evaluate possible choices, implement your choice
____29. Who should decide family size?
a. church
b. friends
c. couple
d. parents
____30. In what way can we show that we Honor our father and mother?
a. love and help our parents even if it is difficult to do
b. in case of illness, we are there to help them
c. obey rules and regulations that promote good values
d. all of the above
II- Identify the concept described in each item. Choose from the words inside the box below. Write only
the letter of your answer.
a. Family Planning
h. Family
b. Pills
i. Population Policy
c. Tubal Ligation
j. Natural Method
d. Vasectomy
k. Population Program
e. Marriage
l. Hormonal Method
f. Commitment
m. Birth Control
g. Artificial Contraceptives
____31. This is the legal union of a man and a woman.
____32. This is a socially recognized group related to each other by kinship.
____33. This gives couples the freedom to choose for themselves the number of children they want.
____34. It is a method of family planning which requires a woman to know her menstrual cycle.
____35. These contain synthetic hormones that prevent ovulation.

____36. This realizes the goals expressed in the population policy.


____37. It is a set of goals and guidelines for changing the rate of population growth.
____38. This procedure involves the cutting and tying of the fallopian tubes.
____39. It is a minor procedure involving the cutting and tying of the vas deferens.
____40. This alters the menstrual cycle and thus prevents conception.
III- Draw the fundamental positions of arms and feet. (10 pts.)
Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
SECOND PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH II
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided for.
_______1. It is the first name known for badminton.
a. battledore
b. shuttle cock
c. poona
d. bird
_______2. Place where badminton first originated.
a. India
b. Japan
c. Inglatera
d. Singapore
_______3. Who introduced badminton in our country?
a. Chinese
b. Japanese
c. Indians
d. Americans
_______4. A stroke used when returning the bird from the right side of the body.
a. forehand stroke b. backhand stroke
c. overhand stroke
d. smash
_______5. Used when returning a high shot and in which the arm and the shoulder are extended.
a. forehand stroke b. backhand stroke
c. overhand stroke
d. smash
_______6. Used when returning the bird from the left side of the body.
a. forehand stroke b. backhand stroke
c. overhand stroke
d. smash
_______7. An attacking shot made with all the power and speed one can put into it.
a. forehand stroke b. backhand stroke
c. overhand stroke
d. smash
_______8. Is called when the bird could not reach the opponents court.
a. wrong court
b. short service
c. service over
d. in
_______9. Any infraction of the rules resulting in loss of service or a point.
a. fault
b. violation
c. let
d. out
______10. A bird which touches the top of the net and falls in the proper side of the court.
a. fault
b. violation
c. let
d. out
______11. Consists of three games, unless otherwise agreed.
a. let
b. match
c. set
d. ace
______12. A good serve that the opponent is unable to hit or touch with his racket.
a. let
b. match
c. set
d. ace
______13. Means no score.
a. play
b. love
c. deuce
d. let
______14. When score is tied to 13.
a. play
b. love
c. deuce
d. let
______15. To put the bird in play.
a. serve
b. shop
c. drop
d. let
______16. Another term for change ends.
a. change court
b. service over
c. decision game
d. let
______17. Any person playing badminton.
a. player
b. substitute
c. libero
d. smasher
______18. A match where there is one player on each of the opposing sides.
a. singles
b. doubles
c. set
d. let
______19. A match where there are two players on each of the opposing sides.

a. singles
b. doubles
c. set
d. let
______20. The side having the right to serve.
a. rally
b. serving side
c. receiving sided. opposing side
______21. A sequence of one or more strokes starting with the service until the shuttle ceases to be
in play.
a. rally
b. set
c. let
d. love
______22. Any shot that drops immediately after crossing the net.
a. net shot
b. drop shot
c. drive
d. smash
______23. A drop shot that is played close to the net.
a. net shot
b. drop shot
c. drive
d. smash
______24. A flat shot that is kept as low as possible to have the opponent run from side to side.
a. net shot
b. drop shot
c. drive
d. smash
______25. An attacking shot made with all the power and speed one can put into it.
a. net shot
b. drop shot
c. drive
d. smash
______26. Refers to the number of people living in a community.
a. fertility
b. birth rate
c. population
d. mortality
______27. The term used for the study of birth rate, death rate, and migration is __________.
a. demography
b. geography
c. gerontology
d. population

______28. Which of the following helps in the increase of population?


a. deportation
b. migration
c. fertility
d. mortality
______29. The process of developing awareness and understanding of population situation is ______.
a. population b. demography
c. population education
d. gerontology
______30. It is a process tending to reduce population.
a. fertility
b. migration
c. mortality
d. immigration
III- TRUE OR FALSE: Write T if the statement is true and F if it is false.
______31. Number of births and deaths affect population size.
______32. One of the reasons for the rapid decline in mortality is marked improvement in medical
science.
______33. Mortality is low among infants, especially during the first year of life.
______34. Women have higher mortality than men at any age.
______35. Births and deaths are the two most significant causes of population change.
______36. Migration results to population growth.
______37. When the rate of births exceeds that of deaths, population decreases.
______39. Demography refers to the number of people living in a community.
______40. The percentage of death is greater during the first year after birth.
III- Draw the fundamental positions of arms and feet. (10 pts.)
Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
SECOND PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEH III
Name: ____________________________
Score: ___________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date : ____________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the space provided for.
______1. This is a team sport which composed of 12 players.
a. soccer
b. baseball
c. volleyball
d. softball
______2. His main duty is to stop, retrieve the ball and make a defensive play only.
a. libero
b. spiker
c. server
d. receiver
______3. Scoring in volleyball is called
a. point system
b. rally point
c. love
d. deuce
______4. He keeps the scoresheet according to the rules, cooperating with the second referee.
a. first referee
b, second referee
c. linesmen
d. scorer
______5. They signal the ball in and out whenever the ball lands their lines.
a. first referee
b, second referee
c. linesmen
d. scorer
______6. Directs the match from the start until the end.
a. first referee
b, second referee
c. linesmen
d. scorer
______7. Performs his functions standing at the post outside the playing court on the opposite side.
a. first referee
b, second referee
c. linesmen
d. scorer
______8. The number of players in sepak takraw.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
______9. In playing the game, which of the following is not allowed to be used in sepak takraw?
a. head
b. feet
c. thighs
d. hands
_____10. Which of the following is not an equipment used in sepak takraw?
a. net
b. ball
c. racket
d. posts
_____11. The most important skill in sepak takraw.
a. heading
b. controlling
c. passing
d. kick
_____12. A skill used to return the ball into the opponents court.
a. heading
b. controlling
c. passing
d. kick
_____13. This skill is often used in attack and defense.
a. heading
b. controlling
c. passing
d. kick
_____14. Is used when the ball is sent by a player to his own mate.
a. pass
b. set
c. heading
d. retrieving
_____15. It can be made by a player to his mate for a kill shot.
a. pass
b. set
c. heading
d. retrieving
_____16. An important skill which is used by an attacking team in its third and final stroke.
a. smash or spike
b. blocking
c. passing
d. controlling
_____17. A defensive skill adopted for the purpose of blocking a head or a foot smash coming from
above and close to the net.
a. smash or spike
b. blocking
c. passing
d. controlling
_____18. The player who stands at the center of the court is called ________.
a. tekong
b. inside-right
c. inside-left
d. spiker

_____19. The player on his right is known as _______.


a. tekong
b. inside-right
c. inside-left
d. spiker
_____20. The player who is on the left side of the court is called _________.
a. tekong
b. inside-right
c. inside-left
d. spiker
II- Modified TRUE OR FALSE: Write TRUE if the statement is correct and if the statement is false,
change the underlined word or words to make the statement correct.
________________21. In sepak takraw, it is considered a fault if the ball touches a players hand or
forearm at any time during play.
________________22. The name sepak takraw was originated in Malaysia.
________________23. This game was introduced in Tuguegarao, Cagayan in 1982.
________________24. Tekong is the name of the server.
________________25. Sepak takraw is played with a ball called bola takyan.
________________26. Asia Sepak Takraw Federation was formed in 1945.
________________27. In volleyball, the first team who reaches 21 points will be declared as the winner.
________________28. In case of 24-24 points of both teams or deuce, a one-point advantage is needed to
win a set.
________________29. The serving team can serve anywhere behind the endline.
________________30. The main reason for having a libero is for the spiker to have a rest.

II- As an umpire decides on the following situations. Write P for a point, L for let, and NP for no point.
________31. During the rally, the ball goes outside the table.
________32. The player obstructs the ball.
________33. The condition of play is disturbed that affect the outcome of the rally.
________34. When a served ball touches the net but is otherwise a good serve.
________35. If a play is interrupted by the umpire.
________36. When the ball touches the edge of the table and still a good ball.
________37. The server serves the ball but the receiver is not yet ready.
________38. The receiver strikes the ball twice successfully.
________39. The players freehand touches the table while the ball is in play.
________40. The play is interrupted to correct an error in the order of service.
III-A. Draw the fundamental positions of arms and feet. (10pts.)
B. Draw a volleyball court and indicate the correct positions of the players by using the number.
(10 pts.)
Good luck
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FOURTH PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
A.P. IV (EKONOMIKS)
Pangalan: ________________________________
Iskor:_______________
Taon at Pangkat: _______________________
Petsa:
______________
I- Pagpipili: Piliin ang pinakaangkop na sagot sa bawat tanong. Titik lamang ang
isulat sa patlang.
_______1. Ang salitang ekonomiks ay galling sa salitang oikonomeia, isang salitang
Griyego na ang
ibig sabihin ay
a. pamamahala ng negosyo
c. pamamahala ng tahanan
b. pakikipagkalakan
d. pagtitipid
_______2. Ang unang tawag sa ekonomiks ay
a. agham panlipunan
c. sosyolohiya
b. political economy
d. sikolohiya
_______3. Ang pag-aaral na may kinalaman sa produksyon, pamamahagi at
paggamit ng salat na
pinagkukunang-yaman. Ito ang kahulugan ng ekonomiks ayon kay
___________.
a. Gerardo Sicat b. Lloyd Reynolds c. Paul Samuelson d. Clifford James
_______4. Ang tatlong dibisyon ng ekonomiks ay produksyon, distribusyon, at
______________.
a. pagkonsumo
b. paggawa
c. kapital
d. pamimili
_______5. Hindi agham panlipunan ang _____________.
a. ekonomiks
b. heograpiya
c. pilosopiya
d. biolohiya
_______6. Ang unang hakbang sa siyentipikong pamamaraan ay ang
a. pagmamasid
c. pagsubok sa teoriya
b. paglikom ng datos
d. pagbuo ng konklusyon
_______7. Ang tawag sa pag-aaral sa buong ekonomiya ng bansa.
a. ekonomiks
b. maykroekonomiks
c. makroekonomiks d.
political economy
_______8. Alin sa sumusunod ang saklaw ng makroekonomiks?
a. pagbili ng isang konsyumer
c. pagpapairal ng mga proyektong
pangkaunlaran
b. pagsukat ng kabuuang produksyon
d. pagpataw ng buwis
_______9. Sino ang itinuturing na Ama ng Makabagong Makroekonomiks?
a. Malthus
b. Marx
c. Keynes
d. Marshall
______10. Tawag sa komperensyang idinadaos na dinadaluhan ng ibat ibang
pangulo ng bansa?
a. CARP
b. ECC
c. APEC Summit
d. EDSA
______11. Sino ang pangulo na gusting maging industrialized country ang bansa?
a. Marcos
b. Aquino
c. Ramos
d. Estrada

______12. Naglikha ng Emergency Employment Administration upang maglaan ng


trabaho sa mga
Pilipino.
a. Diosdado Macapagal
b. Manuel Roxas
c. Ferdinand Marcos
d.
Carlos Garcia
______13. Ipinatupad niya ang patakarang Pilipino Muna na naglalayong
tangkilikin ang mga
produktong gawa ng mga Pilipino.
a. Carlos Garcia b. Diosdado Macapagal
c. Ferdinand Marcos
d.
Corazon Aquino
______14. Isang kaisipang pang-ekonomiko kung saan nais ng isang bansa na
palawakin ang kanyang
teritoryo sa pamamagitan ng pananakop ng ibang bansa.
a. sosyalismo
b. merkatilismo
c. komunismo
d.
kolonyalismo
______15. Tinutukoy ng konseptong ito ang mga bagay na kailangan ng tao upang
mabuhay.
a. pagkonsumo b. kagustuhan
c. pangangailangan
d.
pag-unlad
______16. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang pinakamataas na pangangailangan ayon kay
Maslow?
a. pagkain
b. damit
c. tirahan
d. kaganapan
______17. Tawag sa mga bagay na dapat mayroon ang tao.
a. pangangailangan
b. kagustuhan
c. pangarap
d.
pagkain
______18. Tawag sa mga bagy na nakatutulong sa tao upang mapagaan ang
kanyang buhay.
a. pangangailangan
b. kagustuhan
c. pangarap
d.
pagkain
______19. Ang tawag sa mga bagay na nilikha o gawa ng tao para sa bansa.
a. yamang-tao
b. yamang-pisikal c. pinagkukunang-yaman d. lakas-tao
______20. Tawag sa lahat ng mga taong may potensyal magtrabaho.
a. economically-active population
c. domestic worker
b. skilled worker
d. lakas-tao
______21. Ito ay tumutukoy sa hangganan ng produktong pang-ekonomiya.
a. kakapusan
b. kakulangan
c. kahirapan
d.
pangangailangan
______22. Ang proseso ng pagsasama-sama ng lupa, paggawa, capital at
entrepreneur upang lumikha
ng kalakal o paglilingkod.
a. distribusyon b.alokasyon
c. produksyon
d. trade off

______23. Batay sa _________ ang lahat ng produkto at serbisyo.


a. distribusyon b. palitan
c. pagkonsumo
d. bilihan
______24. Ito ang naglilimita sa pagkonsumo.
a. kita
b. presyo
c. okasyon
d. paggawa
______25. Uri ng pagkonsumo na natatamo agad ng tao sa kasiyahang dulot ng
produkto.
a. maaksaya
b. direkta
c. produktibo
d.
mapanganib
______26. Ang paghanap at pagkukumpara ng isang mamimili ay bahagi ng kanyang
karapatang
a. pumili
b. magbayad
c. bumili
d. kaligtasan
______27. Salitang ekonomiya sa Ingles na tumutukoy sa kasiyahan na natatamo ng
tao sa pagkonsumo.
a. utility
b. price
c. value
d.
happiness
______28. Tumutukoy sa bumibili at gumagamit ng kalakal o serbisyo.
investor
b. konsyumer
c. prodyuser
d. kapitalista
______29. Higit na makatitipid ang mamimili sa oras at presyo kung
a. nagpaplano
b. walang listahan c. may pera
d. nagmamadali
______30. Tagalikha at tagasuplay ng mga produkto at serbisyo.
a. mamimili
b. ispekyuleytor
c. prodyuser
d.
konsyumer
______31. Tawag sa lipunang may makalumang sistema.

a. tradisyunal
b. ipinag-uutos
c. pampamilihan d.
pinaghalo
______32. Sa ilalim ng sistemang ito, hindi pinahihintulutan ng pamahalaan ang
pribadong pag-aari
ng ari-arian.
a. tradisyunal
b. ipinag-uutos
c.
pampamilihan
d. pinaghalo
______33. Isang sistemang pampamilihan kung saan may bahaging ginagampanan
ang pamahalaan.
a. tradisyunal
b. ipinag-uutos
c.
pampamilihan
d. pinaghalo
______34. Nakabatay ti sa napagkasunduang presyo o halaga sa pagitan ng mga
mamimili at nagtitinda. a. tradisyunal
b. ipinag-uutos
c. pampamilihan
d. pinaghalo
______35. Sa pampamilihang ekonomiya, ang malayang kalakalan ay batay
sa_______________.
a. Das Kapital
b. karapatang pantao
c. laissez faire
d. pinaghalo
II- Pagkikilala: A. Kilalanin ang ating salaping papel at barya sa pamamagitan ng
pagsulat kung sino
ang mga nakalarawan dito.
36. Piso
37. Limang Piso
38. Dalawampung Piso
39. Dalawampung Piso
40. Dalawamput Limang Piso 41. Singkwenta Pesos
42. Isandaang Piso
43. Limandaang Piso
44. Dalawangdaang Piso
45. Isanlibong Piso
B. Kilalanin ang salapi sa ibang bansa. Isulat ang katawagan sa salapi ng
sumusunod na bansa.
46. Japan
51. Saudi Arabia 47. Singapore
52. Italy 48. Thailand
53. Amerika 49. China
54. Indonesia 50. Kuwait
55. Korea III- Magbigay ng isang uri ng pamahalaan at ipaliwanag ang kanilang sistemang
pangkabuhayan.
(5 pts.)
B. Lagyan ng tsek (/) ang tapat ng pangungusap na nagpapakita kung itoy sanhi, palatandaan o
epekto ng kakapusan.
Sanhi
Palatandaan
Epekto
1. Mataas na presyo ng mga pangunahing pangangailangan
2. Alitan ng kapitalista at manggagawa
3. Mapang-abusong paggamit ng likas na yaman
4. Patuloy na pag-angkat ng pamahalaan kahit naghihirap ang
bansa
5. Mababang antas ng edukasyon
6. Maling prayoridad ng paggamit ng likas na yaman
7. Mataas na antas ng malnutrisyon
8. Pagtitipid ng lahat ng mamamayan
9. Mataas na antas ng kriminalidad
10. Pagpapatupad ng pamahalaan ng mga batas para sa
konserbasyon ng mga likas na yaman
Good Luck & Happy Graduation.
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FOURTH PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
English IV

Name: ________________________________
Score:
______________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date:
_______________
I- Identification: Identify the voice used in the given sentences.
____________________1. The house was designed by Nicole.
____________________2. The lady mended her torn dress.
____________________3. The girls sold beautiful flowers.
____________________4. The boy was bitten by the dog.
____________________5. She praises the talented child.
____________________6. The dirty dishes were cleaned by my sister.
____________________7. We confirmed the news.
____________________8. We heard the sermon of the priest.
____________________9. The ball was thrown by Kim.
___________________10. He tills the land.
___________________11. The meeting was presided by the president.
___________________12. Neil received a loyalty award.
___________________13. Chit offered her help to us.
___________________14. The noise of the explosion was heard by them.
___________________15. My book was taken by someone.
II-Fill in each blank with the appropriate tag questions.
16. I didnt acknowledge his presence, __________________________?
17. Billy raises his hand, _________________________?
18. You cant do that to me, ______________________?
19. Mila has completed the papers, _______________________?
20. The kids arent allowed to go with us, _______________________?
21. Stella settled all her accounts, _________________________?
22. She hasnt heard that song, ____________________________?
23. The firemen are always alert, __________________________?
24. Louie couldnt come by plane, _________________________?
25. They should come to my party, _________________________?
26. She had collected many stuffed toys, _________________________?
27. We arent ready for the competition, _________________________?
28. The administrators meet the new superintendent, ________________________?
29. Myrna doesnt recognize her friends, ____________________________?
30. He failed to answer the last question, ____________________________?
III- In the following sentences, pick out the verbs and indicate whether
they are active or passive.
31. The experiment was done in 30 minutes.
32. After the class, James verified the result of his Science exam.
33. Soap and water were used in the experiment.
34. A thorough discussion of the result of the experiment was headed by the group
leader.
35. The Science teacher believed in the feasibility of the students project.
36. After doing a series of procedures, the junior scientists made the appearance of
three colors
on the paper possible.
37. The group that successfully conducted the experiment was recognized.
38. The procedures of the experiment were questioned by the teacher.
39. Pieces of paper of different colors were used in the experiment.
40. The researcher gathered enough reference materials for his science study.
IV. Choose the right word from the words in parentheses. Underline the
correct answer.
41. The two leaders signed a (piece, peace) treaty.
42. Would you like to try a (piece, peace) of pecan pie?
43. Loren has (already, all ready) decided that she wants to be a veterinarian.
44. We studied the (principles, principals) of government in social studies.
45. The (principle, principal) actors took their bows.
46. I am (quiet, quite) nervous about going to high school.
47. That movie was (to, too) funny for words.
48. Call us when (your, youre) ready.
49. If the (weather, whether) permits, we will have a picnic.
50. The coach says (your, youre) the best hitter on the team.

V- Select the most appropriate meaning of the word listed below. Write
your answer on the
blank.
ecosystem
ecoterrorism
ecowarriors

ecofriendly
ecotype
ecofeminism

ecolike
ecofreak
ecology

ecotourism

______________________51. A distinct form or race of plant or animal species


occupying a particular
habitat.
______________________52. Destruction of natural environment, especially when
willfully done.
______________________53. The branch of biology that deals with the relations of
organism to one
another and their physical surrounding.
______________________54. A person who is usually enthusiast about the protection
and preservation of
of the environment.
______________________55. Not harmful to the environment.
______________________56. Violence carried out to cause deliberate environmental
damage.
______________________57. Tourism directed toward exotic often threatened national
environments
especially, to support conservation efforts.
______________________58. A biological community of interacting organisms and their
physical environment.
______________________59. A philosophical and political movement that combines
ecological concerns
with feminist ones.
______________________60. A person actively involved in preventing damages to the
environment.
Good luck & Happy Graduation
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FOURTH PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEHI
Name: ________________________________
Score:
______________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date:
_______________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the
space
provided before the number.
________1. These are substances intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation,
treatment or
prevention of diseases in man or animals.
a. drugs
b. vitamins
c. tablets
d. prescription
________2. Drugs that directly activate vital body functions such as those of the
central nervous
system. a. stimulants
b. narcotics
c. inhalants
d.
depressants
________3. Drugs which numb the senses , induce lethargy and stupor and relieve
pain.
a. stimulants
b. narcotics
c. inhalants
d.
depressants
________4. Drugs that directly slow vital body functions such as those of the nervous
system.
a. stimulants b. narcotics
c. inhalants
d. depressants
________5. Are groups of divisive volatile substances normally not considered as
drugs.
a. stimulants b. narcotics
c. inhalants
d. depressants
________6. Drugs that produce a practical or total loss of the sense of pain,
temperature, touch.
a. anesthetics b. antibiotics
c. antihistamine
d. antiseptics
________7. Drugs which may suppress or inhibit the growth of microorganisms.
a. anesthetics b. antibiotics
c. antihistamine
d. antiseptics
________8. Drugs used to counteract the action of certain substances which cause
allergy.
a. anesthetics b. antibiotics
c. antihistamine
d. antiseptics
________9. These are groups of divisive volatile substances normally not considered
as drugs.
a. anesthetics b. antibiotics
c. narcotics
d. inhalants
_______10. Drugs which numb the senses, induce lethargy and stupor and relieve
pain.
a. anesthetics b. antibiotics
c. narcotics
d. inhalants
_______11. A drug that is used for health reasons is considered as
a. vitamin
b. medicine
c. antibiotics
d.
food
supplement
_______12. Drugs taken for its intended purposes with appropriate amount,
frequency, strength and
manner. a. drug use b. drug misuse
c.
prescriptive
drugs
d. OTC drugs
_______13. It is the incorrect use of medicine which is being taken for heath reasons.
a. drug use
b. drug misuse
c.
prescriptive
drugs
d. OTC drugs
_______14. These are drugs requiring written authorization from a doctor in order to
allow a purchase. a. drug use b. drug misuse
c.
prescriptive
drugs
d. OTC drugs
_______15. These are non-prescription medicines which may be purchased from any
pharmacy or
drugstore without written authorization from a doctor.
a. drug use
b. drug misuse
c.
prescriptive
drugs
d. OTC drugs
_______16. Group of strong stimulants.

a. amphetamines
b. cocaine
c. caffeine
d. shabu
_______17. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks and some wake up
pills.
a. amphetamines
b. cocaine
c. caffeine
d. shabu
_______18. It is sometimes called upper or speed.
a. amphetamines
b. cocaine
c. caffeine
d. shabu
_______19. An active component in tobacco which acts as a powerful stimulant of
central nervous
system. a. shabu
b. nicotine
c. cocaine
d. caffeine
_______20. The most abused depressant.
a. alcohol
b. barbiturate
c. seconal
d.
tranquilizer
_______21. Drugs that calm and diminish anxiety.
a. alcohol
b. barbiturate
c. seconal
d.
tranquilizer
_______22. The most commonly abused hallucinogen in the Philippines.
a. marijuana
b. LSD
c. ecstacy
d. shabu
_______23. The botanical name of marijuana.
a. indica mangifera
b. panocha
c. cannabis sativa d.
reefer
_______24. The main psychoactive substance in marijuana.
a. hash oil
b. tetrahydrocannabinol c. poppy
d.
hashish
_______25. Also known as psychedelics.
a. hallucinogens
b. stimulants
c. depressants
d.
narcotics

II-Put a check (/) if the statement is correct and (x) if the statement is wrong.
_______26. Non-prescription drugs are those drugs which can be bought from
drugstores and sarisari stores.
_______27. A person misuses a drugs by failing to follow directions.
_______28. Drug misuse is the correct use of medicine which is being taken for
health reasons.
_______29. Tranquilizers produce mind-altering effects.
_______30. It is good to use leftover medicines in order to economize.
_______31. Smoking is harmful to the body.
_______32. The poisonous substance found in cigarette is cocaine.
_______33. Smoking increases ones appetite.
_______34. There is more good than harm in smoking.
_______35. Marijuana distorts the senses of taste, touch, smell and hearing.
III-A. Find the correct answer from the list and write the corresponding letter on the
space before
the number.
a. badminton
g. love
b. basketball
h. shuttlecock
c. volleyball
i. point
d. track and field
j. track oval
e. Libero
k. William Morgan
f. deuce
_______36. A game composed of 5 players in each team.
_______37. His main duty is to stop, retrieve the ball, and make a defensive play
only.
_______38. Means no score.
_______39. It is an area wherein most of the running and walking races are played.
_______40. A tie score.
_______41. It is played over the net using a shuttlecock and a racket.
_______42. A ball used in playing badminton.
_______43. It is a branch of competitive sports involving running, walking, throwing
and jumping.
_______44. A score made by the serving team.

_______45. It is played by two teams, each composed of six players.


IV- Write the symbol of the following pieces in a chess game.
_______46. King
_______47. Queen
_______48. Rook
_______49. Checkmate
_______50. Castles King side

Good luck & Happy Vacation. . . . . .


Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
FOURTH PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
M A P E H II
Name: ________________________________
Score:
______________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date:
_______________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the
space
provided before the number.
________1. It is an assistance or help given to injured people or those taken
suddenly ill before the
arrival of a physician.
a. dressing
b. drugs
c. first aid
d. medication
________2. It usually occurs as a result of a fall, a blow or other traumatic events.
a. fractures
b. sprains
c. dislocation
d. shock
________3. An injury in which the ends of bones are forced out of their normal
positions.
a. fractures
b. sprains
c. dislocation
d. shock
________4. It occurs when trauma such as violent twist or stretch causes the joint to
move outside its
normal range of movement and the ligaments are torn.
a. fractures
b. sprains
c. dislocation
d. shock
________5. What is letter E in the word P.R.I.C.E. stands for?
a. elimination
b. elevation c. equation d. evaluation
________6. A violent and abnormal muscular contraction followed by jerking
movements, bluish
discoloration of the face and lips.
a. convulsion
b. epilepsy c. eclampsia d. stroke
________7. A condition that occasionally develops in the late stages of toxemia of
pregnancy.

a. convulsion
b. epilepsy c. eclampsia d. stroke
________8. A medical condition results from a blockage of blood flow or bleeding in
the brain.
a. convulsion
b. epilepsy c. eclampsia d. stroke
________9. Technical term of heart attack.
a. stroke b. myocardial infarction c. arteriosclerosis d. angina pectoris
_______10. An area of tissue that has died because of oxygen starvation
a. infarct b. stroke
c. arteriosclerosis d. angina pectoris
_______11. The unscientific term that is applied to the event that occurs when blood
clots.
a. infarct
b. heart attack
c. stroke
d. hypertension
_______12. A common complication of injury, burns and other conditions
a. shock
b. heart attack
c. convulsion
d. stroke
_______13. It is considered as a chronic disease, often progressive and fatal.
a. heart attack b. alcoholism
c. shock
d. stroke
_______14.This lifesaving technique is applicable to a range of emergencies,
including cardiac
arrest, choking episode, and drowning.
a. ABC
b. CPR
c. clear the airway d. protection
_______15. Drug abuse is common among
a. teenagers
b. children
c. adult
d. any
person
_______16. Smoking affects the
a. digestive system
b. endocrine system
c. respiratory system
d. excretory system
_______17. These are drugs that increase certain functions of the central nervous
system.
a. stimulants
b. depressants
c. narcotics d. shabu
_______18. These are used medically for weight reduction among obese people,
relief of mild depression and treatment of narcolepsy.
a. amphetamines
b. cocaine c. caffeine d. shabu
_______19. It is taken orally, injected or sniffed to achieve euphoria or intense feeling
of highness.
a. amphetamines
b. cocaine c. caffeine d. shabu
_______20. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks and some wake up pills.
a. amphetamines
b. cocaine c. caffeine d. shabu
_______21. An active component in tobacco which acts as a powerful stimulant of the
central
nervous system.
a. cocaine
b. nicotine
c. ecstasy
d. shabu
_______22. It is also known as the rich mans hug drug.
a. cocaine
b. nicotine
c. ecstasy
d. shabu
_______23. Drugs that sometimes used to combat fatigue, prevent drowsiness,
reduce appetite and
treat nervous system disorders.
a. stimulants
b. depressants
c. hallucinogens
d.
amphetamines
_______24. The common name for methedrine is
a. speed
b. ubas
c. heart
d.
metamphetamine
_______25. The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 is about
a. prohibited drugs
b. regulated drugs
c. proper use of drugs
d. all of these
II- Modified True or False: Write TRUE if the statement is true. If it is false, replace
the underlined word with the term that will make the statement true.
_______________________26. James Naismith invented the game softball.
_______________________27. Poona was the first name given to badminton.
_______________________28. Hot corner refers to the first base.
_______________________29. Body Muscular Index is the sum total of your height and
weight.
_______________________30. Jogging is the capacity of each individual to accomplish
daily tasks with
alertness and vigor.

_______________________31. Speed is the ability to perform a movement or cover a


distance in a short
period of time.
_______________________32. Love is called for a tie score.
_______________________33. Soccer is an international game with 6 players in each
team.
_______________________34. The term used for the study of birth rate, death rate and
migration is census.
_______________________35. Mortality increases birth rates.
III- A. Write the symbol of the following pieces in a chess game.
36. King37. Queen38. Rook39. Checkmate40. Castle QueensideB. Arrange by number which of the following incidents should be given immediate
attention.
_______poisoning
_______stoppage of breathing
_______severe bleeding
_______fracture
_______heart attack
IV- HANDS OF MY LIFE
Trace your hand then, write in every finger all the things that you can do to
prevent yourself
from using prohibited drugs.(5 pts.)

Good luck & Happy Vacation. . . . . .


Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL


New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato
SECOND PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
MAPEHI
Name: ________________________________
Score:
______________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date:
_______________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the
space
provided before the number.
_______1. It is the first name known for badminton.
a. battledore
b. shuttle cock
c. poona
d. bird

_______2. Place where badminton first originated.


a. India
b. Japan
c. Inglatera
d. Singapore
_______3. Who introduced badminton in our country?
a. Chinese
b. Japanese
c. Indians
d. Americans
_______4. A stroke used when returning the bird from the right side of the body.
a. forehand stroke
b. backhand stroke c. overhand stroke d. smash
_______5. Used when returning a high shot and in which the arm and the shoulder
are extended.
a. forehand stroke
b. backhand stroke c. overhand stroke d. smash
_______6. Used when returning the bird from the left side of the body.
a. forehand stroke
b. backhand stroke c. overhand stroke d. smash
_______7. An attacking shot made with all the power and speed one can put into it.
a. forehand stroke
b. backhand stroke c. overhand stroke d. smash
_______8. Is called when the bird could not reach the opponents court.
a. wrong court
b. short service
c. service over
d. in
_______9. Any infraction of the rules resulting in loss of service or a point.
a. fault
b. violation
c. let
d. out
______10. A bird which touches the top of the net and falls in the proper side of the
court.
a. fault
b. violation
c. let
d. out
______11. Consists of three games, unless otherwise agreed.
a. let
b. match
c. set
d. ace
______12. A good serve that the opponent is unable to hit or touch with his racket.
a. let
b. match
c. set
d. ace
______13. Means no score.
a. play
b. love
c. deuce
d. let
______14. When score is tied to 13.
a. play
b. love
c. deuce
d. let
______15. To put the bird in play.
a. serve
b. shop
c. drop
d. let
______16. This is the girls first menstrual flow.
a. menarche
b. menopause
c. menstruation
d.
puberty
______17. It carry the blueprints or instructions the cell needs in order to function.
a. chromosomes b. genes
c. heredity
d. cell
______18. Total number of chromosomes needed for the growth and development of
the child.
a. 23 x chromosomes b. 23 y chromosomes c. 46 chromosomes d. 48
chromosomes
______19. It is the last stage of growth and development.
a. infancy
b. childhood
c. adulthood
d. adolescence
______20. A Latin word which means the age of adulthood.
a. puberty
b. pubertas
c. menarche
d. menopause
II- Matching Type: Match column A with column B. Write only the letter of the correct
answer.
Column A
Column B
______21. threadlike bodies inside the nucleus
a. heredity
______22. stage from birth to 2 years
b. infancy
______23. transmission of physical and mental traits
c. parathormone
______24. over secretion of hormones
d. insulin
______25. hormones secreted by adrenals
e. thyroxin
______26. hormone secreted by pancreas
f. ovary

______27. hormone secreted by thyroid


______28. male reproductive organ
______29. female reproductive organ

g. testes
h. gigantism
i. adrenalin

______30. hormone secreted by parathyroid

j. chromosomes
k. genes
III-Choosing from the group of words given below, identify the answer to the given
statements.
Write your answer on the blank.
thyroid
thymus
pineal
ovaries and testes
adrenals
parathyroid
pancreas
endocrine glands
pituitary
estrogen
________________________31. regulates blood sugar level
________________________32. regulates body metabolism
________________________33. influences male and female traits
________________________34. balances calcium level in the blood
________________________35. enables the body to produce antibodies
________________________36. affects activities of the ovaries
________________________37. stimulates growth
________________________38. hormone secreted by the ovaries
________________________39. prepares the body for action in times of emergency
________________________40. produce hormones that act as messengers in the
bloodstream
IV- Write P if the change is physical; M if mental; S if social, and E if emotional.
______41. going out with friends
______46. lives independently
______42. growth of pubic hair
______47. love at first sight
______43. onset of menstruation for girls
______48. broadening of pelvis for girls
______44. change of voice for boys
______49. appearance of pimples
______45. ability to judge
______50. increase in height and weight
Good luck..
Maam Nyms

NEW ALIMODIAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL

New Alimodian, Matalam, Cotabato


SECONG PERIODICAL EXAMINATION
M A P E H II
Name: ________________________________
Score:
______________
Year & Section: _______________________
Date:
_______________
I- Multiple Choice: Choose the best answer and write the corresponding letter on the
space
provided before the number.
_______1. Carbon monoxide from jeepneys contribute to
a. water pollution b. noise pollution c. land pollution
d. air pollution
_______2. To be sure whether the water supply is safe to drink, it should undergo
a. bacteriological examination
c. chemical examination
b. physical examination
d. biological examination
_______3. The average noise that a human ear can tolerate is
a. 50 decibels
b. 90 decibels
c. 100 decibels
d. 120 decibels
_______4. The general term applied to solid and semi-solid waste materials other
than human excreta
a. garbage
b. rubbish
c. refuse
d. night soil
_______5. Water that is safe for drinking is called
a. clear water
b. potable water
c. contaminated water
d.
treated water
_______6. A very common refuse disposal method which must be discouraged
because it creates air
pollution is
a. composting
b. burning
c. burial
d.
grinding
_______7. An effective household method of purifying water is
a. boiling
b. chlorination
c. filtration d. sedimentation
_______8. Community health is a responsibility which results from concerted efforts
of
a. members of the family
c. professionals from officials and
voluntary agencies
b. barangay health brigades
d. all of the above
_______9. Air, noise, and water pollution are common in
a. urban communities b. rural communities
c. all of the above d.
uncertain
______10. It is the introduction of substances or pollutants in water
a. air pollution
b. water pollution c. visual pollution d. noise pollution
______11. These are left-over vegetables, animal and fish materials from kitchen and
food establishments.
a. garbage b. rubbish
c. ashes
d. stable manure
______12. Waste materials such as bottles, broken glasses, tin cans, waste papers,
and other wrapping materials. a. garbage b. rubbish
c. ashes
d.
stable
manure
______13. Human waste normally wrapped and thrown into sidewalks and streets.
a. night soil
b. stable manure c. ashes
d. rubbish
______14. Left-over from burning of wood and coal.
a. night soil
b. stable manure c. ashes
d. rubbish
______15. Means to reclaim by using in the manufacture of new products
a. refuse disposalb. recycling
c. burning
d. composting
______16. The study of garbage.
a. biology
b. garbology
c. zoology d. bacteriology
______17. Refers to the inert suspensions of floating substances that are carried by
water in its
passage through the hydrologic cycle.
a. physical
b. chemical
c. bacteriological d. biological
______18. Is a process whereby the water particles are brought into intimate contact
with air for the
purpose of effecting an exchange of gases.
a. aeration
b. softening
c. fluoridation
d.
corrosion
______19. This refers to a series of procedures to assess or determine the health
status of the students. a. health counseling
b. health examination
c. health
appraisal
d. follow-up

______20. Takes charge of the medical examinations of students, teachers and other
school personnel
a. school nurse b. school physician c. school dentist
d. teachers
______21. These are preliminary evaluations of the state of development and
function of the various
body organs.
a. screening test b. teacher observation
c. vision
test d. hearing test
______22. This is done by the school dentist who will give information on proper
caring and importance of the teeth.
a. teacher observation b. screening test c. medical exam
d.
dental
exam

______23. This is the final step in health appraisal.


a. teacher observation b. screening test c. medical exam
d.
dental
exam
______24. Gives instruction on first aid and safety education among the students to
develop safety
attitudes. a. follow-up b. emergency care program
c.
health
exam
d. dental exam
______25. This is done with the use of Snellen Chart.
a. vision test
b. hearing test
c. health exam
d. dental exam
II- Identification: Identify the item or term being referred to in each number. Write
your answer on
the blank.
____________________________26. It is a pollutant wherein the sources are the
automobile and truck
exhausts.
____________________________27. The act of introducing into the atmosphere
substances or pollutants
which may be harmful to public health.
____________________________28. It is a strong-smelling, colorless gas that irritates the
eyes, nose, throat,
and lungs.
____________________________29. Treatment process aimed at preventing dental
carries or tooth decay, especially among children.
____________________________30. The most important treatment method of water.
____________________________31. A process whereby the water particles are brought
into intimate contact with air for the purpose of affecting an exchange of gases.
____________________________32. Sounds that can damage the ears and contribute to
other health problems.
____________________________33. It measures the loudness of sound in units.
____________________________34. A kind of pollution that can contribute to stress.
____________________________35. It is the general term applied to solid and semi-solid
waste materials.
____________________________36. A kind of refuse disposal where simple incinarators
are used.
____________________________37. The intensity decibels of human whisper.
____________________________38. It is an odorless, colorless gas that can cause
serious health problems.
____________________________39. It is the method of removing the calcium and
magnesium salts which cause hardness in water.
____________________________40. It means repeating the treatment methods
employed so as to bring down the bacterial load.
III- Identify the intensity decibels of some common sounds.
___________41. normal conversation
___________42. city traffic
___________43. garbage disposal unit

___________44. alarm clock


___________45. domestic quarrel
___________46. vacuum cleaner
___________47. garbage truck
___________48. jack hammer
___________49. motorcycle
___________50. rocket
IV- Write the TEN COMMANDMENTS OF GARBOLOGY. (10 pts.)
Good luck..
Maam Nyms

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