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MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement
or answers the question.
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
A) A six-month loan
B) A negotiable certificate of deposit
C) A bankers acceptance
D) A U.S. Treasury bill
E) None of the above
6)
A) A bankers acceptance
B) A U.S. Treasury bill
C) A negotiable certificate of deposit
D) A six-month loan
E) All of the above
7)
8)
9)
A) Eurodollars
B) U.S. Treasury Bills
C) Banker's acceptances
D) Commercial paper
E) None of the above
10)
A) Banker's acceptances
B) U.S. Government agency securities
C) Negotiable bank CDs
D) Repurchase agreements
E) None of the above
11)
Financial intermediaries
12)
13)
14) Which of the following statements about financial markets and securities
are true?
A) A debt instrument is long term if its maturity is ten years or longer.
B) The maturity of a debt instrument is the time (term) to that instrument's
expiration date.
C) A debt instrument is intermediate term if its maturity is less than one year.
D) A bond is a long term security that promises to make periodic payments called
dividends to the firm's residual claimants.
brokerage house.
C) commercial bank. D)
stock exchange.
16)
17)
18) A debt instrument sold by a bank to its depositors that pays annual
interest of a given amount and at maturity pays back the original purchase price
is called
A) a negotiable certificate of deposit. B)
C) federal funds. D)
a banker' acceptance.
commercial paper.
19) A potential borrower usually has better information about the potential
returns and risk of the investment projects he plans to undertake than does the
lender. This inequality of information is called
A) moral hazard. B)
adverse selection.
C) asymmetric information. D)
reverse causation.
20) If bad credit risks are the ones who most actively seek loans and,
therefore, receive them from financial intermediaries, then financial
intermediaries face the problem of
A) moral hazard. B)
C) adverse selection. D)
free-riding.
21) The problem created by asymmetric information before the transaction occurs
is called _____, while the problem created after the transaction occurs is
called _____.
A) adverse selection; moral hazard B)
22)
why
A) corporations get more funds through equity financing than they get from
financial intermediaries.
B) financial intermediaries and indirect finance play such an important role in
financial markets.
C) equity and bond financing play such an important role in financial markets.
D) direct financing is more important than indirect financing as a source of
funds.
23) There is no single precise measure of money or the money supply for
economists because
24)
25)
Currency includes
26) The conversion of a barter economy to one that uses money increases
efficiency by reducing
A) transactions costs.
B) the need to employ team production methods.
C) the need to exchange goods.
D) the need to specialize.
27) When compared to exchange systems that rely on money, disadvantages of the
barter system include:
A) lowering the cost of exchanging goods over time.
B) lowering the cost of exchange to those who would specialize.
C) the requirement of a double coincidence of wants.
D) all of the above.
28)
When economists say that money promotes efficiency, they mean that money
A) is inexpensive to produce.
B) increases transactions costs.
C) encourages specialization and the division of labor.
D) does both (b) and (c) of the above.
29)
30)
A) M2. B)
31)
M3. C)
M1. D)
M0.
A) currency B)
repurchase agreements
C) NOW accounts D)
32)
demand deposits
33)
Demand deposits
NOW accounts
Money is
34)
35) Which of the following sequences accurately describes the evolution of the
payments system?
A) Barter, checks, paper currency, coins made of precious metals, electronic
funds transfers.
36) Which of the following statements accurately describes the three different
measures of the money supply--M1, M2, and M3?
A) The three measures' movements closely parallel each other, even on a monthto-month basis.
B) Short-run movements in the money supply are extremely reliable.
C) The three measures do not move together, so they cannot be used
interchangeably by policymakers.
D) Both (a) and (c) of the above.
37)
38) If a $5,000 coupon bond has a coupon rate of 13 percent, then the coupon
payment every year is
A) $13.
B) $1,300.
C) $650.
D) $130.
39) An $8,000 coupon bond with a $400 coupon payment every year has a coupon
rate of
A) 10 percent B)
8 percent C)
40 percent D)
5 percent
40) With an interest rate of 5 percent, the present value of $100 next year is
approximately
A) $95. B)
$105. C)
$100. D)
$90.
41) With an interest rate of 10 percent, the present value of a security that
pays $1,100 next year and $1,460 four years from now is:
A) $2,000. B)
$1,000. C)
$3,000. D)
$2,560.
42) Which of the following $1,000 face-value securities has the highest yield
to maturity?
A) A 5 percent coupon bond with a price of $600
B) A 5 percent coupon bond with a price of $800.
C) A 5 percent coupon bond with a price of $1,200.
D) A 5 percent coupon bond with a price of $1,500.
E) A 5 percent coupon bond with a price of $1,000.
43) If a $10,000 face-value discount bond maturing in one year is selling for
$5,000, then its yield to maturity is
A) 50 percent. B)
10 percent. C)
100 percent. D)
5 percent.
44)
The current yield on a $5,000, 8 percent coupon bond selling for $4,000 is
A) 8 percent.
B) 5 percent.
C) 10 percent.
D) 20 percent.
E) none of the above.
45) The yield on a discount basis of a 90-day, $1,000 Treasury bill selling for
$950 is
A) 20 percent.
B) 10 percent.
C) 5 percent.
D) 15 percent.
E) none of the above.
46) What is the return on a 5 percent coupon bond that initially sells for
$1,000 and sells for $1,200 next year?
A) 5 percent
B) -5 percent
C) 10 percent
D) 25 percent
E) None of the above
47) If the interest rates on all bonds rise from 5 to 6 percent over the course
of the year, which bond would you prefer to have been holding?
A) A bond with one year to maturity B)
48)
49) The current yield is a less accurate measure of the yield to maturity the
______ the time to maturity of the bond and the ______ the price is from/to the
par value.
A) shorter; farther B)
50)
longer; farther C)
longer; closer D)
shorter; closer
A) is a better measure of the incentives to borrow and lend than is the nominal
interest rate.
B) defines the real interest rate.
C) is a more accurate indicator of the tightness of credit market conditions
than is the nominal interest rate.
D) indicates all of the above.
E) indicates only (a) and (b) of the above.
51) A credit market instrument that pays the owner a fixed coupon payment every
year until the maturity date and then repays the face value is called a
A) discount bond. B)
C) simple loan. D)
fixed-payment loan.
coupon bond.
52) A ______ pays the owner a fixed coupon payment every year until the
maturity date, when the ______ value is repaid.
A) coupon bond; discount B)
C) discount bond; discount D)
53) If you expect the inflation rate to be 12 percent next year and a one year
bond has a yield to maturity of 7 percent, then the real interest rate on this
bond is
A) 2 percent. B)
12 percent. C)
-2 percent. D)
-5 percent.
54) The concept of _____ is based on the common-sense notion that a dollar paid
to you in the future is less valuable to you than a dollar today.
A) deflation B)
present value C)
interest D)
future value
55) The interest rate that equates the present value of payments received from
a debt instrument with its value today is the
A) simple interest rate. B)
C) discount rate. D)
yield to maturity.
56) Which of the following are true concerning the distinction between interest
rates and return?
A) The return can be expressed as the sum of the current yield and the rate of
capital gains.
B) The rate of return on a bond will not necessarily equal the interest rate on
that bond.
C) The rate of return will be greater than the interest rate when the price of
the bond falls between time t and time t+1.
57) If the expected return on ABC stock rises from 5 to 10 percent and the
expected return on CBS stock is unchanged, then the expected return of holding
CBS stock _____ relative to ABC stock and the demand for CBS stock _____.
A) falls; falls B)
falls; rises C)
rises; rises D)
rises; falls
58) If wealth increases, the demand for stocks _____ and that of long-term
bonds _____.
A) increases; decreases B)
increases; increases
C) decreases; increases D)
decreases; decreases
59) If the price of gold becomes more volatile, then, other things equal, the
demand for stocks will _____ and the demand for antiques will _____.
A) increase; decrease B)
increase; increase
C) decrease; decrease D)
decrease; increase
60) If housing prices are suddenly expected to shoot up, then, other things
equal, the demand for houses will _____ and that of Treasury bills will _____.
A) decrease; increase B)
increase; increase
C) decrease; decrease D)
increase; decrease
61)
A) the more liquid an asset, relative to alternative assets, the greater will be
the demand.
62) When the price of a bond is above the equilibrium price, there is an excess
_____ for (of) bonds and price will _____.
A) supply; fall B)
supply; rise C)
demand; fall D)
demand; rise
63) When the interest rate on a bond is _____ the equilibrium interest rate, in
the bond market there is excess _____ and the interest rate will _____.
A) above; supply; rise
B) below; supply; rise
C) below; demand; rise
D) below; demand; fall
E) below; supply; fall
64) When a recession occurs, normally the demand for bonds _____ and the supply
of bonds _____.
A) increases; increases B)
decreases; decreases
C) increases; decreases D)
decreases; increases
65) When people expect interest rates to rise in the future, the _____ curve
for bonds shifts to the _____.
A) supply; right B)
demand; right C)
supply; left D)
demand; left
66) When the federal government's budget deficit increases, the _____ curve for
bonds shifts to the _____.
A) supply; left B)
demand; right C)
supply; right D)
demand; left
67) When the expected inflation rate increases, the demand for bonds _____, the
supply of bonds _____, and the interest rate ______.
A) decreases; decreases; falls B)
68) When bond interest rates become more volatile, the demand for bonds _____
and the interest rate _____.
A) increases; rises B)
falls
increases; falls C)
decreases; rises D)
decreases;
69) When bonds become more widely traded, and as a consequence the market
becomes more liquid, the demand curve for bonds shifts to the _____ and the
interest rate _____.
A) right; falls B)
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left; rises C)
right; rises D)
left; falls
A) the demand curve for bonds shifts to the left and the interest rate rises.
B) the supply curve for bonds shifts to the right and the interest rate falls.
C) the demand curve for bonds shifts to the left and the interest rate falls.
D) the demand curve for bonds shifts to the right and the interest rate rises.
E) none of the above occurs.
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