Iit 2011 FST2 QNS P1

IIT-JEE 2011
BMAT2/CPM/P(I)/Qns
19.12.2010
B-MAT FULL TEST-II

FOR OUR STUDENTS
TOWARDS
IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2011

PAPER I
CHEMISTRY PHYSICS MATHEMATICS
QUESTION PAPER CODE
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 252
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
A. General
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 84 questions. The booklet has 29 pages.
2. This question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and on the back page
(page no. 29) of this booklet.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers, and electronic
gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and Enrollment No. in the
space provided on the back page (page no. 29) of this booklet.
6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately, in which
appropriate bubble for each question must be darkened with HB pencil.
SEAL
3. This question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for
rough work.
7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.
B. Question paper format: Read the instructions printed on the back page (page no. 29) of this booklet.
C. Marking scheme: Read the instructions on the back page (page no. 29) of this booklet.
Name: .
Enrollment No.:
I have read all the instructions and

shall abide by them.
I have verified all the informations

filled in by the Candidate.
Signature of the Candidate
Signature of the Invigilator
Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.
IIT/B.MAT2/CPM/P(I) - 1
SEAL
DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS ON THIS BOOKLET, AWAIT INSTRUCTIONS FROM THE INVIGILATOR
INSTRUCTIONS:
TEST-I
CHEMISTRY
PART-I
SECTIONI
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1.
A mixture of H2SO4 and H2C2O4 (oxalic acid) and some inert impurity weighing 3185 g was
dissolved in water and solution made upto 1 L . 10 mL of this solution required 3 mL of
0.1 N NaOH solution for complete neutralization. In another experiment 100 mL of the same
solution in hot condition required 4 mL of 0.02 M KMnO4 solution for complete reaction.
The weight % of H2SO4 in the mixture was:
(A) 80 %
(B) 60 %
(C) 40 %
(D) 20 %
2.
Calculate the ratio of F and HCOO in a mixture of 0.1 M HF (Ka = 6.6 104) and
0.2 M HCOOH (Ka = 2 104).
(A) 3.3 : 2
(B) 2 : 3.3
(C) 1 : 6.6
(D) 1: 3.3
3.
One gram of activated carbon has a surface area 100 m 2 . Considering complete coverage as
well as monomolecular adsorption, how much NH3 at STP would be adsorbed on the surface
of 88 g carbon if radius of NH3 molecule is 108 cm and N A = 6 10 23 .
(A) 11.20 L
(C) 10.45 L
(B) 1.045 L
(D) 44.80 L
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
4.
Product (P)
The product (P) is:

O
(A)
5.
(B)
(C)
(D)
Which is the rate determining step in the mechanism given below:
OH
OH
H
(I)
(II)
(III)
OH
OH
H
(IV)
(A) (I)
(C) (III)
6.
(B) (II)
(D) (IV)
0001 mole of octahedral complex Cr (NH 3 )5 (NO3 )SO 4 was passed through cation exchanger
and the acid coming out of it required 20 mL of 0.1N NaOH for neutralization. Hence the
complex is
(A) [Cr(NH 3 )5 (NO3 )](SO 4 )
(C) [Cr(NH 3 )5 (SO 4 )](NO3 )
(B) [Cr (NH 3 )4 (NO3 )(SO 4 )](NH 3 )

(D) [Cr(NH 3 )5 ](NO3 )(SO 4 )
7.
Product (B) in the given reaction is:

(i) 2PhMgBr
O (ii) H3O
(A)
H2SO4
(B)
18
(A)
(B)
O
Ph
Ph
Ph
(C)
Ph
18
(D)
O
Ph
Ph
18
8.
What is the hybridization state of central atom in the cationic part of the solid form of XeF6?
(A) sp3
(B) sp3d2
3
(C) sp d
(D) dsp2
SECTIONII
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple correct questions. Each question has 4 choices: (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
9.
Among the following select the incorrect statement(s)
(A) The shape of an orbital is given by magnetic quantum number (m ) .

(B) The electron distribution is spherical, if the value of = 0 .
(C) Angular momentum of 2s and 2p electrons are equal.
(D) All the electrons have same velocity in an atom.
10.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the solution containing chloroform
and acetone?
(A) Solution shows + ve deviation from Raoult's law.
(B) The enthalpy change is ve.
(C) Pure chloroform can be separated by the fractional distillation of a solution having any
composition of both the components.
(D) The forces of attraction acting between molecules of acetone and chloroform in solution
are greater than those acting between molecules of pure component.
OMe
11.
AlCl3
ZnHg/HCl
(A)
(B)
C
O
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding the above reaction?
OMe
O
(A) Compound (A) is
COOH
(B) Compound (A) is MeO
COOH
C
COOH
(C) Compound (B) is MeO
CH2
(D) AlCl3 acts as Lewis acid.
12.
Treatment of cyclobutylmethylamine with nitrous acid gives the products (s) :

OH
CH2OH
(A)
13.
(B)
(C)
CH2
(D)
Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) Cl 2O 6 is diamagnetic but in liquid state, it shows paramagnetism.
(B) Phosphorous atom in solid PBr5 is sp3-hybridised.

(C) KClO 4 , RbClO4 and CsClO 4 are slightly soluble in water.
(D) In two dimensional sheet silicates (Si 2 O 5 )2n n , four oxygen atoms of each tetrahedron are
shared with neighbouring tetrahedra.
SECTIONIII
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph 3 multiple choice
questions and based upon the second paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 14 to 16
Nucleophiles such as ammonia and its derivatives H 2 N Z add to the carbonyl group of
aldehydes and ketones. The reaction is reversible and catalysed by acid. The equilibrium favours
the product formation due to rapid dehydration of the intermediate to form C = N Z
R1
R2
R1
R2
C = O + NH2 Z
OH
C
NHZ
H+
R2
OH
H+
NHZ
R1
H
H2O, H
R1
R2
C = NZ
R1 and R2 may be H, R (alkyl) or Ar(aryl)

Z = Alkyl, Aryl, OH, NH2, PhNH , NHCONH2
14.
If the medium of reaction is fairly alkaline in the beginning of the reaction and pH of the
solution is made to decrease gradually.
(A) The rate of reaction decreases throughout.
(B) The rate of reaction increases throughout.
(C) The rate of reaction reaches maximum at a particular pH, and then decreases.
(D) The rate of reaction reaches minimum at a particular pH and then increases.
R1
15.
Product (P)
R2
Which of the following types of isomerism are possible in the product (P)?
(I) Optical
(II) Tautomerism
(III)Geometrical
(IV) Metamerism
(A) (I) and (II)
(B) (I) and (III)
(C) (II) and (III)
(D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
16.
Rate of reaction is fastest when the 'Z' is
C = O + H2N.NH2
(A) Me
(B) OH
(C) NH2
(D)
O
||
C NH 2

Phosphorus exists as a number of allotropes, the most common being white or yellow
phosphorus. This was first prepared from the reduction of the phosphate present in urine.
It is highly reactive and toxic, and is commonly stored under water to protect it from air. Solid
white phosphorus contains P4 molecules, with each P atom at the vertex of a regular tetrahedron.
White phosphorus spontaneously ignites in air to form a mixture of phosphorus(III) oxide and
phosphorus(V) oxide. Orthorhombic black phosphorus, is least reactive form, is obtained by
heating white phosphorus under pressure. It has a graphitic appearance and consists of double
layers. Red phosphorus is of intermediate reactivity and is used commercially. It is thought to
consist of polymers resulting from partial opening of the P4 tetrahedra. The structure of each oxide
is also based on a regular tetrahedron. The phosphorus atoms remain at the vertices but are no
longer bonded to each other. Instead the P atoms are joined by bridging oxygens.
Phosphorus(V) oxide has a further oxygen atom bonded to each phosphorus atom at the
vertex of the tetrahedron.
Each oxide reacts with water to form an acid. Phosphorus(V) oxide forms phosphorus(V)
acid, H3PO4.
17.
Which is the most thermodynamically stable allotropic from of phosphorus?

(A) red
(B) white
(C) black
(D) yellow
18.
The amount of calcium oxide required to reacts with 852 g of P4O10 is

(A) 16 mol
(B) 18 mol
(C) 12 mol
(D) 15 mol
SECTIONIV
Integer Type
This section contains TEN questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
19.
The number of possible optical isomers of the following compound is ________ .

H
OH
H
H
H
Br
C=C
H
Br
H
20.
H
C=C
H
C=C
Br
H
A gas at 350 K and 15 atm has a molar volume 12 percent smaller than that calculated from
the perfect gas law. Compressibility factor under these conditions can be expressed in
scientific notation as 88 10 x . The value of x is ________ .
21.
A cell is to be constructed to show a redox change

Cr + 2Cr3+
3Cr2+. How many cells with different E cell and different values of n but
same value of G can be made: (Given: E Cr

= 040 V , E Cr
= 074 V,
3+
3+
/ Cr 2 +
/ Cr
= 091 V)
E Cr
2+
/ Cr
22.
Two first order reactions A and B have the same frequency factor and activation energy of
A exceeds that of B by 1046 kJ mol1. If A is 30% complete in 60 min. at 100C, how long
will the B take for 70 % decomposition. [Given: log 3 = 0.4771, log 7 = 0.845, antilog
0.4633 = 2.9]
23.
A current of 10.0 A flows for 2hr through an electrolytic cell containing a molten salt of metal
X and results in the deposition of 0.25 moles of metal X at the cathode. The oxidation state of
X in the electrolysed salt is
24.
The given compound exists in polar form in which there is a close loop of Huckels number
of electrons. The value of n in (4n + 2)-electrons which are present on outer peripheral part
of the polar structure of given organic compound is _________ .
25.
How many ICl bonds are present in solid I2Cl6 ?
26.
The effective contribution of the corner atom

C in the given unit cell of ABAB type
1
of closest packing is
per unit cell. The
x
numerical value of x is ________ .
90
120
60
10
27.
Ar and He are both gases at room temperature. The average molecular velocity of He atoms is
x times of the average molecular velocity of Ar atoms at this temperature. The numerical
value of x is ________ .
28.
The standard electromotive force of the rechargeable lithium ion battery is 3.70 volt. Assume
that half-reaction at the cathode is
CoO2 + Li+ + e LiCoO2
and the half-reaction at the anode is
LiC6 6C + Li+ + e
The value of the standard Gibbs energy of the cell reaction is y 10x J/mol. If the value of
y is less than ten, the numerical value of x is ________ .
11
PHYSICS
PART II
SECTION I
This Section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
29.
30.
31.
In the arrangement shown in the figure, mA = 1 kg

and mB = 2 kg, while all the pulleys and the strings
are massless and frictionless. At t = 0, a force
F = 10 t starts acting over central pulley in the
vertically upward direction. The velocity of A
(in m/s) when B loses contact with floor will be
(A) 5 m/s
(B) 15 m/s
(C) 10 m/s
(D) 2 m/s
Water in a clean aquarium forms a meniscus, as
illustrated in the figure. The difference in height h
between the centre and the edge of the meniscus
will be (Surface tension of water = 0.02 N/m,
density of water = 1000 kg/m3, g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 1 mm
(B) 2 mm
(C) 3 mm
(D) 4 mm
F = 10 t
In a certain hypothetical radioactive decay process, species A decays into species B and
species B decays into species C according to the reactions
A 2B + particles + energy:
B 3C + particles + energy
The decay constant for the species A is 1 = 1 sec1 and that for the species B is
2 = 100 sec 1 . Initially 104 moles of the species of A were present while there was none of
B and C. It was found that species B reaches its maximum number at a time
t0 = 2 ln(10)sec. Then value of the maximum number of moles of B is (e2.303 = 10)
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 6
12
32.
33.
34.
35.
A candle of cross-section radius r floats in water in a

cylindrical container of radius R (R >> r) as shown in the
figure. Half the length of the candle always remains
submerged in water. If it is burning at the rate of 4 mm h1,
then the top of the candle will
(A) remain at the same height
(B) fall at the rate of 2 mm h1
(C) fall at the rate of 4 mm h1
(D) go up at the rate of 2 mm h1
x
x
2R
2R
Figure shows a long wire of charge having uniform linear

charge density below which a charged particle of
charge q0 and mass m is hung from point O, by a small
string of length l. The minimum horizontal velocity to be
imparted to the particle so that the string become
3
horizontal is (Take = 2 0 mgl , ln = 0.4 )
2
(A) 2.8 gl
(B) 2 gl
(C) 3 gl
+++++ +++++
2l
O
l
v
q0
(D)
The circular boundary of the concave mirror subtends a

cone of half angle at its centre of curvature. The
minimum value of for which a ray incident on this
mirror parallel to the principal axis suffers reflection more
than once is
(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 60
A conveyer belt of length l is moving with velocity v. A
block of mass m is pushed against the motion of conveyer
belt with velocity v0 from end B. Co-efficient of friction
between block and belt is . The value of v0 so that the
amount of heat liberated as a result of retardation of the
block by conveyer belt is maximum is
(A) gl
(B) 2gl
(C) 2 gl
4.2 gl
(D) 75
v0
B
A
l
(D)
3gl
13
36.
A direct current flowing through the winding of a long

cylindrical solenoid of radius R produces a uniform
magnetic field of induction B in it. An electron flies into
v
the solenoid along the radius between its turns (at right
angles to the solenoid axis) with a velocity v as shown in
figure. After a certain time, the electron deflected by the
magnetic field leaves the solenoid. Then the time t during
which the electron moves in the solenoid is
m
2m
eBR
eBR
(A)
(B)
tan 1
tan 1
eB
eB
mv
mv
m
2m
mv
mv
(C)
(D)
tan 1
tan 1
eB
eB
eBR
eBR
SECTION II
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
37.
The position vector of a particle moving in space is given by

r = (1 + 2 cos 2t )i + (3 sin 2 t ) j + (3t ) k
in the ground frame. All the units are in SI. Choose the correct statement (s):
(A) The particle executes SHM in the ground frame about the mean position 1, , 3t .
2
(B) The particle executes SHM in a frame S moving along the positive zaxis with a velocity of 3 m/s.
5
(C) The amplitude of the SHM of the particle in frame S is m .
2
3
4
(D) The line of the SHM of the particle is parallel to the vector i j .
5
5
14
38.
A uniform rod of mass M = 2 kg and length L is

suspended by two smooth hinges 1 and 2 as shown in
M, L
the figure. A force F = 4N is applied downward at a
distance L/4 from the hinge 2. Due to the application of
force F, the hinge 2 breaks. At this instant, applied
1
F
2
force F is also removed. The rod starts to rotate
2
downward about hinge 1. (g = 10 m/s )
(A) The reaction at hinge 1, before hinge 2 breaks, 11 N
(B) The reaction at hinge 1, just after breaking of hinge 2, is 5N
(C) The acceleration of the end point of the rod, when the rod becomes vertical is 20 m/s2
(D) The acceleration of the end point of the rod, when the rod becomes vertical is 3g
39.
A solid cone is placed on a horizontal surface with height h and radius R. Its apex angle
is . To change the position of the cone from fig. (A) to fig. (B), no work is required, then
R
Fig. (A)
1
(A) = sin1 3
40.
(B) =
Fig. (B)
(C)
h
=1
R
(D)
h
=2 2
R
A standing wave is setup in a string fixed at both ends. Then
(A) the sum of total energy per unit length at nodes and antinodes is constant
(B) the total energy of a point midway between a node and an adjacent antinode is constant
(C) if the string has a standing wave and a component of traveling wave, then the kinetic
energy of the points of minimum amplitude is non-zero at some instant of time.
(D) if the string has a standing wave and a component of traveling wave, then the potential
energy of the points of maximum amplitude is non zero at some instant of time.
15
41.
Nucleus A decays to B with decay constant 1 and B decays to C with decay constant 2.
Initially at t = 0, number of nuclei of A and B are 2N0 and N0 respectively. At t = t0, number
3N 0
of nuclei of B stop changing. If at this instant number of nuclei of B are
.
2
1 4 1
1
4 1
(A) the value of t 0 is
(B) the value of t 0 is
ln
ln
1 3 2
2 3 2
3N 0 2
2N 0 2
(C) the value of NA at t 0 is
(D) the value of NA at t 0 is
2 1
3 1
SECTION III
Paragraph Type
questions and based upon the second paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

If a charged capacitor is discharged through an inductor having some resistance, the charge
oscillates back and froth and electromagnetic energy thereby is dissipated as thermal energy
damping the oscillations, but the oscillations in an RLC circuit will not damp out if an
external emf device supplies enough energy to make up for the energy dissipated as thermal
energy in the resistance R. It is equivalent to forced oscillation. A circuit containing resistor,
capacitor and inductor is supplied energy by a source of ac emf as shown in figure.
i1
R 2 = 12
i2
R 3 = 12 C = 125F
L = 18mH
30mH
S2
R1 = 8
~
E = (500 V) sin (500 s1)t
S1
16
42.
The difference in phases of the currents i 1 and i 2 , when switch S 1 and S 2 are closed is
(A) 37
(B) 53
(C) 90
(D) 60
43.
If switch S 1 is opened keeping S 2 closed, the impedance of the circuit will be

(A) 20
(B) 12
(C) 8
(D) 25
44.
If S 1 and S 2 both are opened, then the average power consumed in the circuit will be
(A) 1 KW
(B) 3.125 KW
(C) 2 KW
(D) 5 KW
Paragraph for Question Nos. 45 & 46
v0
2
A circular loop of radius R and resistance per unit length

is moving with constant velocity v0 parallel to a very
long current carrying wire carrying current i0. A rod of
length 2R is also moving parallel to the wire as shown
in the figure. The rod and the loop are in contact at point
A and rod is symmetrical with respect to the centre of
the loop and at t = 0, rod starts sliding over the loop
without friction. Neglect self inductance and magnetic
interaction.
45.
46.
A
i0
v0
R 3
R
The current through the rod when it is at a distance from the point A of the loop will
2
be
v i
16v0 0i0
9v0 0i0
ln3
ln3
(A) 0 0 0 2 ln3
(B)
(C)
(D) zero.
2
16 R
R
16 R 2
Force required to maintain the uniform velocity of the rod at this instant is
9 02 i02 v0 (ln 3)
9 02i02 v0 (ln 3)
(B)
16
R 3
R 3
2
(A)
02i02 v0 (ln 3)
32 R 3
(C)
9 02i02 v0 (ln 3)
32 R 3
(D)
17
SECTION IV
Integer Type
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be
bubbled.
47.
A nonconducting ring of radius R having uniformly

distributed charge Q starts rotating about xx axis passing
x
through the centre in the plane of the ring with an angular x
R
acceleration as shown in the figure. Another small
conducting ring having radius a(a << R) is kept fixed at the
centre of bigger ring in such a way that the axis xx is
passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane.
If the resistance of the small ring is r = 1, find the induced current in it (in ampere).
16 10 2
C , R = 1 m, a = 0.1 m, = 8 rad/s2)
(Given q =
0
48.
Two containers A and B are connected by a conducting solid

242
cm and radius 8.3 cm.
cylindrical rod of length
7
Thermal conductivity of the rod is 693 watt/moleK. The
container A contains two mole of oxygen gas and the
container B contains four mole of helium gas. At time t = 0
temperature difference of the containers is 50C. After what
time (in seconds) temperature difference between them will
be 25C. Transfer of heat takes place through the rod only
through conduction. Neglect radiation loss. (Take R = 8.3
22
J/moleK, =
and ln (2) = 0.693)
7
O2
He
18
49.
A copper plate of length 1 m is riveted to two steel plates of same length and same crosssection area at 0C. The tension (in kilo newton) generated in copper plate when heated to
20C is 56n. Find the value of n.
1
Ycopper = Ysteel = 2 1011 N/m2
Y = Youngs modulus
2
copper = 18 106 K1
steel = 11 106 K1
= coefficient of linear expansion
2
Area of each plate = 50 cm
50.
The space between a pair of co-axial cylindrical conductors is

evacuated. The radius of inner cylinder is a, and the inner
radius of the outer cylinder is 3a, as shown in figure. A static
homogeneous magnetic field B parallel to the cylinder axis,
directed into plane of figure, is present. An electron of mass m,
charge e starts out with an initial velocity v0 in the radial
direction. The minimum value of magnetic field B such that the
electron does not reach the outer cylinder is

(take | mv0 | = 4ae .)
v0
a
B
51.
In a vertical cylindrical vessel of base area A = 60 cm2 water is filled to a height h = 10 cm.
If density and Bulk Modulus of water are = 1000 kg m3 and B = 2 109 Nm2
respectively, the elastic deformation energy of water in the vessel is found to be n 107 J.
Find n.
52.
A particle is projected from a point O with an initial speed of 30 m/s to pass through a point
which is 40m from O horizontally and 10m above O. There are two angles of projection for
which this is possible. If these angles are and then find the value of tan[( + )] .
53.
The electric potential V in volt in a region of space is given by V = ax2 + ay2 + 2az2, where a
is a constant given by a = 1.25 103 V/m2. What is the radius (in m) of the circle of the
equipotential line corresponding to V = 6250V and z = 2 m
19
54.
A point object is placed at distance of 40 cm

from a composite refracting slab whose one
face is silvered as shown. The separation
between the object and its final image is
(100 n)cm. Find the value of n.
n =1
40cm
3
2
n=2
9cm
10cm
n=
55.
When the voltage applied to an X-ray tube is increased from V1 = 10 KV to V2 = 20 KV, the
wavelength interval of K line and cut-off wavelength of the continuous X-ray spectrum
increases by a factor . If the atomic number of the element of which the tubes anode is
made is 29, then find .
56.
A uniform rod is attached to a hinge and is connected

to a spring as shown. The pulleys are ideal and
initially spring is undeformed. The time period of
small angular oscillation of the rod about the hinge is
given as
1+ n .
30
Find n. (m = 2kg, l = 1m, k = 40 N/m)
l/2
20
MATHEMATICS
PART-III
SECTION - I
This Section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
57.
58.
zz
If arg(z) < 0, then arg
is equal to
2
(A) 0
(B)
2
(C)
If a1, a2, a3, a4001 are terms of an A.P. such that
(D)
1
1
1
+
+ ... +
= 10 and
a1 a 2 a 2 a 3
a 4000 a 4001
a2 + a4000 = 50 then |a1 a4001| is equal to
(A) 20
59.
(B) 30
(D) none of these
For 0 < < 2 , sin1 (sin ) > cos1 (sin ) is true when

(A) ,
4
3
(B) ,
60.
(C) 40
3
(C) ,
4 4
(D) , 2
4
Let F(x) = c sin x cos t dt + 2 t dt + c cos 2 x x 2 . If x2 2x + 3 F(x) xR then greatest

0
area bounded by xF(x), y = 0 and x = 5 is
(A) 16
(B) 25
(C) 8
(D)
35
2
21
61.
If the curves x y = 4 and xy = 5 intersect at points A and B, then the possible number
2
of point(s) C on the curve x 2 y 2 = 4 such that triangle ABC is equilateral is
(A) 0
(C) 2
62.
(B) 1
(D) 4
If A and B are two events such that P(A B) = 0.3 and P ( A'B ' ) = 0.6 , then the value of
P ( A B ' or A' B ) is equal to
(A) 0.9
(C) 0.3
(B) 0.7
(D) 0.1
63.
The number of values of k for which the equation x 3 3 x + k = 0 has two distinct roots
lying in the interval (0, 1) are
(A) three
(B) two
(C) infinitely many
(D) no value of k satisfies the requirement
64.
If
dy
= f ( x) + f ( x) dx, then the equation of the curve y = f (x) passing through (0, 1) is
dx
0
(A) f ( x) =
2e x e + 1
3e
(B) f ( x) =
3e x 2e + 1
2( 2 e )
(C) f ( x) =
e x 2e + 1
e +1
(D) none of these
22
SECTION - II
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
65.
Let P be any point on the curve S = 0 such that tangents from P to

x 2 + y 2 2 x 4 y 4 = 0 makes 60 with each other and from point Q perpendicular
tangents are drawn to S, then
(A) locus of P is a circle of radius 5
(B) locus of P is a circle of radius 6
(C) locus of Q is a circle of radius 5 2

66.
(D) locus of Q is a circle of radius 6 2
A function f : R R + satisfies f (x + y ) = f ( x ). f ( y ), x, y R , f (0) = 1, f (0) = 2 , then

ln 3
(A) [ f (x )e x ] dx = ln 4.5 (where [.] denotes greatest integer function)

0
(B) lim[ f (x )] does not exist (where [.] denotes greatest integer function)
x 0
(C) f
(x ) = ln
(D) f ( x ) < e x
4 x
x , x > 0
has infinite solution in (0, 6)
x+a
If a, b, c, d are in A.P. and f ( x) dx = 4 where f ( x) = x + b
0
x+c
common difference of the A.P. may be
(A) 1
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
2
67.
x+b
x+c
x+d
x+ac
x 1 , then the
xb+d
23
68.
Let z1 and z 2 be two complex numbers such that z12 4 z 2 = 16 + 20i . If and are roots
of x 2 + z1 x + z 2 + M = 0 (where M is complex number) and
69.
( )2
= 28 , then
(A) maximum value of M is 7 + 41
(B) maximum value of M is 5 + 41
(C) minimum value of M is 7 41
(D) minimum value of M is 5 41
The system of equations ax + by + cz = q r , bx + cy + az = r p and cx + ay + bz = p q

is
(A) consistent if p = q = r
(B) inconsistent if a = b = c, and p, q, r are distinct

(C) consistent if a, b, c are distinct and a + b + c 0
(D) all of above
SECTION - III
Paragraph Type
questions and based upon the second paragraph 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
A curve x = f(y) passing through origin is such that slope of tangent at any point is
reciprocal of sum of co-ordinates of the point of tangency.
70.
Slope of tangent to curve at the point where ordinate is log e 3 is

1
1
(A) 1
(B)
(C)
3
2
(D) 2
24
1
71.
x dy
is equal to
1
2
5
(C) e
2
(A) e
72.
1 xe
(B) e
3
2
(D) e + 1
d (e y ) is equal to
(A) e e 1
(C) e
1
3
(B) e e1 2
1
e
(D) e + e 1 +
1
3
Paragraph for Question Nos. 73 and 74

x
Let g ( x) = (t 2 + t + 1)dt , and f (x) be a decreasing function x 0 such that

0

A = f ( x)i + g ( x) j , B = g ( x)i + f ( x) j make an obtuse angle with each other x 0 then
73.
Which of the following is true (for x 0) ?
(A) f(x) < 0, g(x) > 0 (B) f(x) > 0, g(x) > 0
74.
(C) f(x) < 0, g(x) < 0 (D) none of these
lim f ( x) g ( x) is
x
(A) +
(B)
(C) 0
(D) none of these
25
SECTION IV
Integer Type
ranging from 0 to 9. The correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
75.
76.
a+b c+b
If a, b, c are in H.P. and
+
...... , then find the least value of
2 a b 2c b
. (where a, b, c are positive).
If e be the eccentricity of a hyperbola and f (e) be the eccentricity of its conjugate
3
hyperbola, then the value of
fff ...... f (e)de

1
77.
78.
is (n is even)
n times
A staircase has 10 steps. A person can go up the steps one at a time, two at a time, or any
combination of 1s and 2s. If the number of ways in which the person can go up the stairs
p
is p, then find
.
89
If the normals to curve y = x 2 at the points P, Q & R pass through the point 0,
the radius of the circle circumscribing PQR.
3
, find
2
e x / a eb / x
a x dx
b
79.
Let a & b be two positive real numbers. Evaluate
26
80.
Let
'f'
be
function
such
that
f ( xy) = f ( x). f ( y )x, y R +

2
f (1 + x) = 1 + x(1 + ( g ( x ))),
where
lim g ( x) = 0 . The value of

x0
f ( x)
and
f ' ( x) .1 + x
dx
is
1
a
log e where a & b are co-prime. Find a + b .
2
b
81.

If A, B, C are vectors such that | B |=| C |, then find (( A + B ) ( A + C )) ( B C ).( B + C )
82.
If
f ( x) sin t dt = constant, 0 < x < 2 and
f() = 2 then find the value of f(/2).
83.
If line y = x + 2 does not intersect any member of family of parabolas y2 = ax, (aR+) at two
distinct point, then find the maximum value of latus rectum of parabola.
84.
If a ( x 2 + y 2 + 2 y + 1) = ( x 2 y + 3) 2 is an ellipse and a (b, ) , then find b.
27
28
29
Name: .
QUESTION PAPER CODE:
Enrollment No.:
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
B. Question paper format:

9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Part I: Chemistry, Part II: Physics and Part III: Mathematics).
Each part has 4 sections.
10. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which only one is correct.
11. Section II contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.
12. Section III of each part contains 2 sets of Comprehension (paragraph) type questions. First set
consists of 3 questions and second set has 2 questions, based on a paragraph. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only one Choice is correct.
13. Section IV contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the ORS as per the
instructions given at the beginning of the section.
C. Marking scheme:
14. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus
one (
1) mark will be awarded.
15. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to
the correct choice(s) for the answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. Partial marks will be awarded
for partially correct answers. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.
16. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus one (
1) mark will
be awarded.
17. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to
the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect
answer in this section.

Iit 2011 FST2 QNS P1

Încărcat de

Informații document

Titlu original

Drepturi de autor

Formate disponibile

Partajați acest document

Partajați sau inserați document

Opțiuni de partajare

Vi se pare util acest document?

Este necorespunzător acest conținut?

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

Iit 2011 FST2 QNS P1

Încărcat de

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

IIT-JEE 2011

B-MAT FULL TEST-II

IIT-JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2011

Maximum Marks: 252

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH/MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

I have read all the instructions and

I have verified all the informations

Signature of the Candidate

Signature of the Invigilator

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

The product (P) is:

Which is the rate determining step in the mechanism given below:

(A) [Cr(NH 3 )5 (NO3 )](SO 4 )

(C) [Cr(NH 3 )5 (SO 4 )](NO3 )

(B) [Cr (NH 3 )4 (NO3 )(SO 4 )](NH 3 )

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

Product (B) in the given reaction is:

Among the following select the incorrect statement(s)

(A) The shape of an orbital is given by magnetic quantum number (m ) .

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

(B) Compound (A) is MeO

(C) Compound (B) is MeO

(D) AlCl3 acts as Lewis acid.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

Treatment of cyclobutylmethylamine with nitrous acid gives the products (s) :

Which among the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(B) Phosphorous atom in solid PBr5 is sp3-hybridised.

R1 and R2 may be H, R (alkyl) or Ar(aryl)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

Rate of reaction is fastest when the 'Z' is

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 18

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

Which is the most thermodynamically stable allotropic from of phosphorus?

The amount of calcium oxide required to reacts with 852 g of P4O10 is

The number of possible optical isomers of the following compound is ________ .

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

A cell is to be constructed to show a redox change

same value of G can be made: (Given: E Cr

How many ICl bonds are present in solid I2Cl6 ?

The effective contribution of the corner atom

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

In the arrangement shown in the figure, mA = 1 kg

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

A candle of cross-section radius r floats in water in a

Figure shows a long wire of charge having uniform linear

The circular boundary of the concave mirror subtends a

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd.

A direct current flowing through the winding of a long

The position vector of a particle moving in space is given by

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK