AAKASH TEST SERIES Aiats 2

07.12.
2014
Test No. 2
Test No. 2
Physics
Laws of Motion; Work, Energy and Power; Motion of System of Particles and
Rigid Body
Chemistry
States of Matter: Gases and Liquid, Thermodynamics, Equilibrium, Redox Reactions
Biology
Salient Features and Classification of Plants into Major Groups-Algae,

Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms: AngiospermsClassification up to Class, Characteristic Features and Examples, Morphology
of Flowering Plants: Root, Stem, Leaf, Inflorescence-Racemose and Cymose,
Flower, Fruit and Seed, Structual Organisation in Animals : Animal tissues;
Morphology, Anatomy and Functions of Different Systems (Digestive,
Circulatory, Respiratory, Nervous and Reproductive) of Animals (Cockroach).
(Brief Account only), Chemical Constituents of Living Cells: Biomolecules Structure and Function of Proteins, Carbodydrates, Lipids, Nucleic Acids;
Enzymes-Types, Properties, Enzyme Action.
Test - 2 (Code A)
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015
T EST 2
Time : 3 Hrs.
MM : 720
[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1.
A block of mass m kg is connected to string on an

inclined plane. Tension in string is (g = 10 m/s2)
4.
If a body follows Newtons first law of motion, then

incorrect statement is
(1) State of rest remains constant
(2) State of motion remains constant
(3) It cannot change the shape of body
= 0.8
(4) Both (2) & (3)
30
5.
(1)
mg
2
(1) In Newtons third law forces exist in pairs
(2) Zero
(2) First law can be derived from second law
(3) 0.69mg
2.
(4) mg
(3) Second law is defined for unbalanced force
Tension in the massless string joining A and B is
20 N
Which statement is incorrect?
5 kg
5 kg
20 N
Frictionless
(4) Newtons first law is applicable only for inertial

frame of reference
6.
Variation of force F acting on a body with time t is

as shown in figure. Change in momentum of the
body in the interval 4 s to 8 s is
(1) Zero
20
(2) 40 N
F (N)
(3) 20 N
(4) 10 N
3.
A bullet fired against a glass window pane makes a

hole in it but the glass pane is not cracked due to
(1) Inertia of motion
(1) 10 kg ms1
(2) Inertia of rest
(2) 5 kg ms1
(3) Inertia of direction
(3) 100 kg ms1
(4) Due to momentum of bullet
(4) 20 kg ms1
t (s)
Space for Rough Work
1/24

7.
A particle of mass 0.5 kg is moving in circular path

of radius 1 m with constant speed 10 m/s. The
magnitude of average force, when particle travels
from A to B will be
B
v
/3
(1)
3v 2
2r
3v 2
(3)
r
8.
9.
(2)
v2
2r
6v 2
(4)
2r
A 6 kg bomb at rest explodes into three equal pieces

P, Q and R. If P and Q fly with equal speeds
20 m/s making an angle of 60 with each other. The
angle between the direction of P and R is
(2)
2
3
(3)
4
5
(4)
6
A constant retardation stops a block moving with

speed 30 km/h upto a distance x. If retardation of
half magnitude is applied on the same block moving
with speed 60 km/h, then stopping distance is
(1) 4x
(2) 2x
(3) x
(4) 8x
11. A rocket is set to fire from ground so that gases are

ejected from it at 5 kg/s at 3 km/s. The accelerating
force on the rocket is
(1) 10 N
(2) 15 kN
(3) 8 N
(4) 15 N
12. A man is standing on a weighing machine in a lift.

The lift is going up with an acceleration of 5 m/s2.
Then the apparent weight shown by the weighing
machine is 60 kg wt. If lift is going upward with
constant velocity then the reading shown by the
machine is
(1)
4
Test - 2 (Code A)
10. Maximum constant speed with which a car can move

on a flat horizontal circular road of radius of
curvature 10 m and coefficient of static friction 0.2
is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 400 kg wt
(2) 20 kg wt
(3) 40 kg wt
(4) 80 kg wt
13. All surfaces shown in the figure are frictionless.

A block of mass 5 kg is kept on a wedge of mass
20 kg. If the block remains stationary w.r.t. wedge,
the magnitude of force F is (g = 10 m/s2)
5 kg
F
20 kg
45
(1) 250 N
(2) 200 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 20 N
14. A stream of water flowing horizontally with a speed

of 10 m/s gushes out of a tube of cross-section area
10 cm2 and hits a vertical wall nearby. The force
exerted on the wall by the impact of water.
[assuming it rebounds]
(1) 500 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 200 N
15. Two billiard balls each of mass m kg moving in

opposite directions with speed 5 m/s collide and
rebound with the same speed. The magnitude of
impulse imparted to each ball due to other is
(1) 4.4 m/s
(2) 8 m/s
(1) 5m kg ms1
(2) 10m kg ms1
(3) 0.44 m/s
(4) 4 m/s
(3) 20m kg ms1
(4) Zero
2/24
Test - 2 (Code A)
16. A rain drop of mass 0.5 g falling from a height 2 km.

It hits the ground with a speed of 40 m/s. Work done
by the resistive force is (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 9 J
(2) 0.96 J
(3) 9.6 J
(4) 10 J
U1 U2
then U U is
2
1
17. A body comes to a stop by skidding in 5 m. During

this process, the force on the body due to the road
is 100 N and is opposed to the motion. Work done
on the body by the road is
(1) 500 J
(2) 500 J
(3) Zero
(4) 50 J
18. A body of mass 1 kg is moving a plane. At an instant

force on the body is (2i j) N and velocity of body
is (3i 3 j) m/s. The instantaneous rate of change
in kinetic energy is
(1) 30 J/s
21. Two light springs have force constants 3k and 2k.

Each spring is extended by same force. If their
elastic potential energies are U1 and U2 respectively,
(1)
5
3
(2)
(3)
2
3
(4) 5
22. A block of mass m is placed at the floor of elevator.

The elevator starts from rest and accelerating
upward with uniform acceleration a. The work done
by normal reaction on the block during first
4 second is
(2) 9 J/s
(3) 90 J/s
(4) 3 J/s

19. A particle is displaced by a force F ( y i x j ) and
it moves from (1, 2) to (3, 4). The work done by this
force is
(1) 10 J
(2) 12 J
(3) 36 J
(4) 20 J
20. A simple pendulum is taken from position A to B. The

work done by gravity on block m is
60
g
2
(1) 8ma 1
a
(3) 8ma2
m B
m A
mgl
2
(2)
mgl
2
(3) mgl
(4)
3 mgl
2
(1)
3
2
(2)
(4)
16ma 2
g
1 a
8ma 2
g
1 a
23. A position dependent force F = (4 x) N acts on a

body of mass 1 kg and displaces it from x = 0 to
x = 1 m. The work done is
(1) 3 J
(2) 5 J
(3) 3.5 J
(4) 7 J
3/24
Test - 2 (Code A)
24. A particle is dropped from some height. Taking g to

be constant everywhere, kinetic energy K of the
particle with respect to time t is given as
29. Potential energy and displacement curve is given in

diagram.
U (J)
20
(2)
(1)
(3)
25. A body is dropped from a certain height. When

it loses 20 J of its potential energy it acquires a
velocity 2 m/s. The mass of a body is
(1) 2 kg
(2) 20 kg
(3) 5 kg
(4) 10 kg
26. The potential energy of a spring when stretched

through a distance 2 cm is 10 J. The amount of work
that must be done on this spring to stretch it through
an additional distance 2 cm will be
(1) 30 J
(2) 10 J
(3) Zero
(4) 30 J
27. A truck of mass 15,000 kg moves up an inclined

plane of slope 1 in 100 at a speed of 18 kmph. The
power of the truck is (g = 10 ms2)
(1) 7.5 kW
(2) 75 kW
(3) 750 kW
(4) 7500 kW
(3) 6mg
(2) 10 N
(3) 10 N
(4) Zero
30. The potential energy of a particle in conservative

field is given as U
p
2
q
, where p and q are
r
r
constant. The value of r at equilibrium is
(1)
2q
p
(2)
q
p
(3)
2p
q
(4)
2p
q

31. Let be a angular velocity and v be a linear
velocity of a body rotating on circular path, then the

value of v is
(1) Zero
(2) 1
(3) 1
(4) Positive
(1)
7
R
5
(2)
5
R
3
(3)
2
R
5
(4)
2
R
3
4/24
x (m)
(1) 2.5 N
(2) 8mg
(4) 3mg
32. The radius of gyration of hollow sphere of radius R

w.r.t. tangential axis on it, is
28. A body of mass m is revolving in vertical circle

connected with a string. If ratio of tension in the
string at lowest and highest point is 4, then tension
in the string at highest point is
(1) 2mg
The force at x = 5 m is
(4)
Test - 2 (Code A)
33. The moment of inertia of a annular disc of mass M,

inner diameter R1 and outer diameter R2 about the
perpendicular axis through the centre is
M 2
[R1 R22 ]
(1)
2
(3)
M 2
[R1 R22 ]
8
(3) Translational & rotational equilibrium

(4) Neither translational nor rotational equilibrium
M 2
[R1 R22 ]
8
34. An engine develops 1 kW power when rotating at a

speed of 600 rpm. The average torque of engine is
(1) 15.94 Nm
(2) 15.91 Nm
(3) 1.591 Nm
(4) 15.92 Nm
(1) Translational equilibrium

(2) Rotational equilibrium
M 2
(2)
[R1 R22 ]
2
(4)
39. If couple acts on a rigid body, then a rigid body is in
40. A circular ring of mass M and radius R is rolling

without slipping with angular speed on a horizontal
plane as given in figure. The magnitude of angular
momentum of ring about an axis which is
perpendicular to the plane of paper and pass through
a origin O is
35. If angular momentum of a rigid body is increased by

50%. The percentage change in rotational kinetic
energy is [Assuming constant moment of inertia]
(1) 125%
(2) 225%
(3) 150%
(4) 100%
36. A particle of mass m1 is projected vertically upward

and m 2 is projected downward. Then the
acceleration of centre of mass of the system is
(1) g
(3) (m1 + m2)g
O
(1)
MR 2
2
(2) MR 2
(2) 2g
(4)
(3) 2MR 2
g
(m1 m2 )
37. The maximum angle of inclination of inclined plane
with horizontal for pure rolling of a ring is if s

2
(1)
2
(2) tan1(2)
(3)
4
1
(4) tan
2
38. The fraction of total energy of spherical shell in

translational motion is
(2) 60%
(3) 50%
(4) 30%
3MR 2
2
41. If coefficient of friction between objects and the

incline are same but not sufficient for pure rolling.
Minimum time will be taken in reaching the bottom
by
(1) Hollow sphere
(2) Solid sphere
(3) Ring
(4) All take same time
42. A circular disc is in pure rolling. The distance covered

by its centre of mass in one revolution is S0. Then
displacement covered by topmost point of disc is
(1) 40%
(4)
(1) S0
(3)
3 S0
(2)
S0
2
(4) 2S0
5/24

43. A hollow cylinder of mass 20 kg and radius 0.5 m is
free to rotate about its fixed horizontal geometrical
axis. A massless string is wound round the cylinder
with one end attached to it and other end is pulled.
Tension in the string required to produce an angular
acceleration of 1 revolutions s2 is
(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 10 N
44. A disc is in pure rolling on a stationary surface with

constant angular velocity. At any instant for the lower
most point of the disc
Test - 2 (Code A)
(1) vp = 0, ap = 0
(3) v p v , ap
v2
R
(2) vp = v, ap = 0
(4) v p 0, ap
v2
R

dL
45. If
, conservation of angular momentum
dt
explains,

(1) If 0 , then L 0

(2) If 0 , then L constant

(3) If 0 , then p 0
P
(for velocity v and acceleration a)

(4) If 0 , then p constant
[ CHEMISTRY ]
46. The average kinetic energy (in joules) of the
molecules in 4 g of CH4 at 27 is
(1) 934.87 J
(2) 93.487 J
(3) 837.5 J
(4) 924.3 J
48. I, II and III are three isotherms respectively at T1,

T2 and T3 temperature. The temperature will be in
order
47. Consider the arrangement of bulbs shown below.
N2
He
Ne
1L
600 mmHg
1L
200 mmHg
0.5 L
400 mmHg
II
III
What is the pressure of the system when all the

stopcocks are opened?
(1) 420 mmHg
(1) T1 = T2 = T3
(2) 400 mmHg
(2) T1 > T2 = T3
(3) 580 mmHg
(3) T1 < T2 < T3
(4) 640 mmHg
(4) T1 > T2 > T3

6/24
Test - 2 (Code A)
49. The temperature at which a real gas obeys the ideal

gas laws over a fairly wide range of pressure is
54. For a particular reaction, H = 35 kJ and

S = 110 JK1mol1. The reaction is
(1) Inversion temperature
(1) Spontaneous at all temperatures
(2) Boyles temperature
(2) Non-spontaneous at all temperatures
(3) Critical temperature
(3) Spontaneous at temperature below 45.18C
(4) Reduced temperature
(4) Spontaneous at temperature above 45.18C
50. A 2 litre flask contains 60 g O2 gas at 27C. What

mass of O2 must be released to reduce the pressure
in the flask to 12 atm?
(1) 30.8 g
(2) 34.2 g
(3) 28.8 g
(4) 20 g
(1) Pressure, entropy

(2) Volume, density
51. When an ideal gas expands in vacuum, work done

is (R = gas constant)
(1) R
(2) 2R
(3) 4R
(4) Zero
55. In which of the following pairs, both properties are

intensive?
52. Heat absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic

process shown in figure is
(3) Concentration, specific heat capacity

(4) Internal energy, density
56. Two balloons A and B are taken below at
temperature 400 K. Maximum capacity of balloon A
and balloon B are 800 mL and 1200 mL respectively.
When the temperature of balloons are raised, which
one will burst first?
V (in L)
50
600 mL
A
1000 mL
B
(1) Balloon A
10
(2) Balloon B
10
50
P (in kPa)
(1) 400 J
(2) 200 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 500 J
(4) Balloon will not burst
53. The entropy change in an adiabatic process is

(1) Zero
(3) Both balloons simultaneously
57. The compressibility factor for a gas under critical

condition is
8
3
(2)
3
8
(3) 1
(4)
1
5
(1)
(2) Always positive

(3) Always negative
(4) May be positive or negative
7/24
Pressure (P)
58. The pressure-volume behaviour of various

thermodynamic processes is shown in graphs.

61. For NH4HS(s)
NH3 (g) H2S(g),
if K p = 81 atm 2 , then equilibrium pressure of

mixture is
A
B
C
Test - 2 (Code A)
(1) 9 atm
(2) 18 atm
(3) 81 atm
(4) 27 atm
62. Which of the following groups of gases will have

same rate of diffusion under identical physical
conditions?
Volume (V)
A, B, C and D represent which of the following
thermodynamic processes respectively?
(1) CO, CO2, C3O2
(2) CO, CO2, C2H4
(3) C3H8, CO2, N2O
(4) CO2, C2H4, N2O
(2) Isochoric, isothermal, adiabatic & isobaric
63. What is the value of compressibility factor (Z) for

0.04 mole of real gas at 0.2 atm pressure? Assuming
the size of the gas molecule (b) is negligible
(3) Isobaric, adiabatic, isothermal & isochoric
(Given a = 104 atm L2 mol2, RT = 120 L atm mol1)
(1) Isobaric, isothermal, adiabatic & isochoric
(4) Isobaric, isothermal, isochoric & adiabatic

59. Which of the following relationships is not true?
(1) Average speed =
8RT
M
(1)
2
3
(2)
1
5
(3)
1
6
(4)
1
4
64. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(2) PV
1
mNu2
3
(1) Both surface tension and viscosity decrease with

increase of temperature
(2) Glass is a highly viscous liquid
Pb
(3) Z 1
, at high pressure
RT
(4) Average kinetic energy of the gas =
(3) The unit of surface tension is Nm1 in the S.I.

system
KT
2
60. 2.24 litre of an ideal gas at STP requires 6 cal to

raise the temperature by 15C at constant volume.
Calculate the value of Cp (in cal K1mol1).
(4) All of these

65. A gaseous mixture was prepared by taking equal
moles of CO and He at same temperature and
pressure. If the total pressure of the mixture was
found 1 atm, the partial pressure of He in the
mixture is
(1) 4
(2) 6
(1) 0.2 atm
(2) 1 atm
(3) 8
(4) 12
(3) 0.7 atm
(4) 0.5 atm
8/24
Test - 2 (Code A)
66. The equilibrium constant in terms of pressure of a

reaction, A B
C D is 200. If volume of
reaction flask is trippled, then the equilibrium
constant in terms of concentration is
(1) 200
(2) 400
(3) 800
(4) 100
72. The conjugate acid and base of HO2

respectively
(1) O2 and H2O2
2
(3) H2O2 and O2
67. In the manufacturing of H2SO4 with the following

equilibrium,

2SO2 (g) O2 (g)
2SO3 (g) + q,
reaction proceeds in the forward direciton if
(2) O 2 and O
2
2
(4) O2 and O2
73. HX is a weak acid (Ka = 105). It forms a salt NaX

on reacting with NaOH. The degree of hydrolysis of
103 M NaX is
(1) 0.01%
(2) 0.1%
(3) 0.001%
(4) 0.05%
74. In a buffer solution containing equal concentration
9
of B and HB, the Kb for B is 10 . The pH of buffer
solution is
(1) Temperature is increased

(2) SO3 is added
(3) Some O2 is removed
(1) 4
(2) 9
(4) Pressure is increased
(3) 5
(4) 6
68. 0.1 M CH3COOH is 0.1% ionised, then its pH is

(1) 1.5
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 3
(3) Sodium phthalate
(1) NaCl + AgCl
(2) H2S + HCl
(3) NH4OH + NH4Cl
(4) CH3COOH + KOH

1011
at temperature 30C,
70. Ksp of Ca(OH)2 is 1.8
then calculate solubility of Ca(OH)2 at pH = 10.
(1) 4.5
(3) 1.8
105
M
M
75. The compound whose 0.1 M solution is basic, is

(1) Ammonium acetate (2) Ammonium chloride
69. Which is not the example of common ion effect?
104
are
(2) 1.8
103
(4) 4.5
105
71. At a temperature under high pressure
(4) CH3COONa + HCl
76. The equivalent weight of CO 2 in the following

reaction is
Sunlight
6CO2 12H2O
C6H12O6 6O2 6H2O
(1) 22
(2) 11
(3) 24
(4)
44
24
77. Which is intramolecular redox reaction?
K W (H2O) 1012
(1) (NH4)2Cr2O7 N2 + Cr2O3 + H2O
A solution of pH = 6.4, under these conditions is said

to be
(2) 2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2
(1) Acidic
(2) Basic
(3) NH4NO2 N2 + 2H2O
(3) Neutral
(4) Amphoteric
(4) All of these

9/24

78. 2 mole of FeC2O4 is oxidized by x moles of MnO4
in acidic medium, then the value of x is
3
(1)
5
(3)
(4)
5
6
79. Which one of the following is not a buffer solution?

(1) H3BO3 and Na2B4O7
(2) CH3COONa and CH3COOH
80.
OH(g) H(g) O(g),
(3)
x1 2x 2
2
H x 2 cal
x1 x 2
(2)
2
(4)
2
3
(3) 0
(4)
1
3
84. At 25C and 1 atm, which one of the following has

non-zero standard enthalpy of formation (Hf)?
(1) Cl2(g)
(2) Br2(g)
(3) C (graphite)
(4) Red phosphorus
(1)
M
10
(2)
M
5
(3)
3M
5
(4)
5M
3
H x1 cal
On these value, bond energy of (OH) bond is

(in cal)
(1) x1 x 2
(2)
concentrated NaOH. Equivalent weight of Cl2 will be
C6H5NH3 Cl
H2O(g) H(g) OH(g),
3
5
85. Cl 2 changes to Cl and ClO3 in hot and
(3) H2CO3 and KHCO3

(4) HCl and
83. In the brown ring complex [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+, ratio of

oxidation number of Fe and nitrogen is
(1)
1
(2)
5
6
5
Test - 2 (Code A)
2x1 x 2
2
86. The oxidation number of sodium in Sodium-Mercury

amalgam is
(1) Zero
(2) +1
(3) 1
(4)
1
2
87. Consider the following equilibria at 300 K and

400 K with their equilibrium constants
81. Which has the minimum oxidation number of the

underlined atom in the following?
I:

A(g)
3B(g)
(1) Cr O5
(2) K 3 Cr O8

II : P(g)
Q(g)
(3) Cr O2Cl2
(4) K 2 Cr 2 O7
Then,
82. The difference in the oxidation numbers of the two

types of sulphur atoms in Na2S4O6 is
300 K
400 K
K1 12
K2 6
K1 4
K2 6
(1) I is endothermic, II is exothermic

(2) I is exothermic, II is endothermic
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) I & II both are exothermic
(3) 4
(4) 3
(4) I & II both are endothermic

10/24
Test - 2 (Code A)
88. In which case S is positive?
90. In the dissociation of A2(g) into 2A(g), degree of
(1) H2O (l) H2O (s)
D
according to which of
d
the following graph? (D = vapour density before
dissociation and d = vapour density after dissociation)
dissociation () varies with
(2) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g)

(3) H2 (g) 2H (g)
(4) H2 (g) + I2 (g) 2HI (g)
89. Which is not true about free energy change (G)?

(2)
(1)
(1) G G 2.303RT logQ
(2) G is an extensive property
D/d
D/d
(3) G 2.303RT logK, if G = 0

(3)
(4) G 2.303RT logK, if G = 0
(4)
D/d
D/d
[ BIOLOGY ]
91. Read the following statements w.r.t. artificial
systems of classification.
(a) Based on morphology of chromosomes
(b) Fossil evidence is essential to support the system
(c) They separated the closely related species.
(d) They gave equal weightage to vegetative and
sexual characters
(1) All statements are correct
(1) Sulphated polysaccharides in cell wall

(2) Belong to the group of kelps
(3) Biflagellated antherozoids
(4) They occur at great depths in oceans
93. Sexual reproduction is oogamous and accompanied
by complex post fertilisation developments in a
group of algae in which
(2) Statements (c) & (d) are correct
(1) Spores and gametes are non-motile
(3) Only (a) is correct
(2) Dominance of chlorophyll a and b is observed
(4) All statements are incorrect
(3) Pyrenoids act as storage body commonly
92. Algae, given in the following diagram, is

characterised by
(4) Vegetative cells are covered by gelatinous

coating of algin
94. Find out the common character between algae and
bryophytes.
Branches
Axis
(1) External fertilisation

(2) Uncellular jacketed sex organs
(3) Diploid main plant body
(4) Diploid sporophytes
11/24

95. Sporophyte is multicellular and not free living in
(1) Vascular amphibians of plant kingdom
(2) Non-vascular amphibians of plant kingdom
Test - 2 (Code A)
100. In gymnosperms,
(1) Roots may be associated with fungus to form
coralloid roots
(2) Roots may be associated with fungus to form
mycorrhiza
(3) Phanerogams without ovary

(4) Most algae and some bryophytes
(3) Vessels are usually found in xylem
96. Find correct statement w.r.t. bryophytes.
(4) Adventitious roots are associated with N2 fixing

bacteria to form coralloid roots
(1) Less differentiated than that of algae

(2) They in general are of great economic
importance
101. How many of the given statements are concerned

with angiosperms?
(3) Zygote do not undergo meiosis immediately
(i) Secondary growth
(4) Rhizoids are unicellular or multicellular meant

for storage of food
(ii) Fertilisation occurs twice in male gametophyte
97. The first terrestrial plants possessing vascular

bundles are/have
(iii) Heterosporous and meroblastic embryo

development
(iv) PEN formation
(1) Found in dry, damp and shady places
(v) Male gametophyte with least number of cells
(2) Frequently grown as ornamentals

(3) Only megaphyllous
(4) All heterosporous
(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Two
102. Find odd one w.r.t. life cycle pattern.
98. Choose odd one w.r.t. Selaginella.

(1) Strobili or cone
(1) Cycas
(2) Microsporophyll
(2) Ficus
(3) Multicilliated sperms
(3) Fucus
(4) Heterosporous
(4) Funaria
103. Identify the mis-matched pair w.r.t. algae
99. Find the incorrect statement.

(1) Male and female cones are borne on different
plants in Cycas
(2) Angiosperms have highly reduced gametophytic
generation
(3) Male gametes are carried by pollen tube in
Pinus
(4) Formation of endosperm in gymnosperms is a
pre-fertilisation event
Algae
Number of flagella &

position of insertions
(1)
Spirogyra
Chlorophyll a, b
Aflagellate
(2)
Laminaria
Chlorophyll a, c
2, unequal, lateral
(3)
Dictyota
Chlorophyll a, c
2, equal, lateral
(4)
Porphyra
Chlorophyll a, d
Aflagellate
12/24
Pigments
Test - 2 (Code A)
104. Which of the following event is a precursor to the

seed habit considered an important step in
evolution?
107. In sexual reproduction, the sex organs antheridia

and archegonia are produced on the leafy shoots in
(1) Riccia, Funaria
(1) Development of the zygotes into young

embryos within the monoecious gametophytes
(2) Selaginella, Marchantia
(2) Development of zygotes into young

sporophytes within the male gametophytes
(4) Funaria, Sphagnum
(3) Development of zygotes into zygospores within

the female gametophytes
(4) Development of the zygotes into young
embryos within the female gametophytes
105. Read the following statements:
(3) Marchantia, Polytrichum

108. Spread of pteridophytes is limited and restricted to
narrow geographical regions because
(1) They need water for triple fusion
(2) Gametophytes require cool, damp and shady
places to grow
(3) They bind the soil along hilly slopes
(i) Sporophyte of Riccia possesses capsule only.

(ii) Red algae can trap the blue-green portion of
light.
(iii) Liverworts have multicellular rhizoids and
protonema stage in life cycle.
(iv) Branched stem is not a characteristic of all
gymnosperms.
(1) All statements are correct
(4) More than one option is correct

109. Dorsiventral plant body, closely appressed to the
substrate producing green, multicellular asexual
buds is seen in
(1) Chara
(2) Marchantia
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Funaria
110. Gametophyte with photosynthetic tissues is found/

developed in the life cycle of
a. Algae
(2) Only one statement is incorrect
b. Bryophytes
(3) Two statements are incorrect
c.
(4) Three statements are incorrect
Pteridophytes
d. Gymnosperms
106. Choose the correct match.
e. Angiosperms
(1) Fucus - Anisogamy
(1) c + d
(2) b + c + e
(2) Zoochlorella and Trichophilous - Endozoic and

epizoic algae respectively
(3) a + b + c
(4) a + c + d
(3) First stage of moss gametophyte develops from

the lateral bud of protonema which bearing
spirally arranged leaves
(4) Gelidium - Development of the zygotes into
young embryo takes place within the female
gametophyte
111. In Asparagus, roots get modified for

(1) Respiration and mechanical support
(2) Storage of food
(3) Synthesis of PGRs and respiration
(4) Anchorage of plant, storage reserve food
material and respiration
13/24

112. In gymnospermic plants, female gametophyte
(1) Bears 2 or more archegonia and male sex
organs
(2) Is 7-celled and 8-nucleated
(3) Is permanently retained within megasporangium
(4) Is released from megasporangium at 13-celled
stage
Test - 2 (Code A)
118. Find out the incorrect match
(1) Strawberry
Aggregate fruit
(2) Datura
Caryopsis fruit
(3) Tomato
Berry fruit
(4) Ficus
Composite fruit
119. Match the Column-I and II w.r.t. seed of Zea mays
113. Respiratory roots in the plants growing in swampy

areas,
(1) Grow vertically upwards
(2) Provide support and oxygen
(3) Arise from lower nodes of the stem
(4) Store more nutrition for such conditions
Column-I
Column-II
a. Coleorhiza
(i) Plumule
b. Proteinaceous
endosperm
(ii) Scutellum
c.
(iii) Aleurone grains
Coleoptile
d. Large, shield shaped(iv) Radicle

cotyledon
114. In Opuntia, stem is modified into

(1) Phyllode
(v) Epiblast
(2) Spines
(3) Green leaf like structure
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(v)
(4) Fleshy and non-photosynthetic structure
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
115. Axillary buds develop into slender and spirally coiled

structure and help plants to climb as in
(1) Euphorbia
(2) Jasmine
(3) Watermelon
(4) Bougainvillea
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

(4) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(v)
120. Flower of chilli is
(1) Actinomorphic, hypogynous
116. Inflorescence of Ficus plant possess

(1) Male flowers situated at the bottom of
receptacle
(2) Presence of gall flowers between the male and
female flowers
(3) Female flowers situated at the top near ostiole
(4) Dichasial cyme ending in monochasial cyme
117. Both adhesion and cohesion conditions of stamens
are found in the flowers of
(2) Zygomorphic, epigynous

(3) Actinomorphic, epigynous
(4) Zygomorphic, hypogynous
121. Margins of sepals or petals overlap one another but
not in any particular direction in
(1) Cassia and cotton
(2) Cassia and Gulmohur
(1) Indigofera
(2) Brassica
(3) China rose and Ladys finger
(3) Helianthus
(4) Triticum
(4) Calotropis and China rose

14/24
Test - 2 (Code A)
122. Choose the correct statement:

(1) Pentamerous flowers are found in Brassica
campestris
(2) Gynoecium in Petunia is G (2) with axile
placentation
(3) Parthenocarpic fruits develop after fertilisation of
ovary
(4) In Argemone, false septum makes ovary
unilocular and single seeded
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(2) Chrysanthemum
(3) Jasmine
(4) Pineapple
(1) Become winged in lemon
(2) Short lived in Australian Acacia
Salvia
Variable length of Polyadelphous

filament of stamens
Tomato
Carpels are fused
Calotropis A single leaf arise at

each node in
alternate manner
Cassia
(1) Banana
127. Select the odd one w.r.t. Petiole.
123. Choose the correct option.

A
126. The lateral branches originate from the underground

portion of main stem, grow horizontally beneath the
soil and then come out obliquely upward giving rise
to leafy shoots in all of the following, except
Axile placentation
Twisted aestivation
Flower can be divided Imbricate aestivation

into two similar halves
by any plane passing
through the centre
124. Given below is a diagram representing position of

floral parts on thalamus. It is found in the flowers of
(3) Help to hold blade to light

(4) Bud is present in the axil of petiole
128. Which of the following information is not provided
by floral diagram of family solanaceae?
(1) Aestivation of petals
(2) Adhesion of stamens
(3) Position of ovary
(4) Number of locules in ovary
129. The fruit of mango and coconut are different in how
many characteristics?
(a) Presence of differentiated pericarp
(b) Edible part
(c) Number of seed
(1) Brinjal
(2) Rose
(3) Datura
(4) Cucumber
(d) Nature of endocarp
125. Plant of carrot possess

(1) Modified stem with fibrous roots
(2) Modified root for storage with reduced stem
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One
130. Find odd one w.r.t. ex-albuminous seed.
(3) Modified root with node and internodes
(1) Bean
(2) Gram
(4) Modified stem for storage of food
(3) Pea
(4) Maize
15/24

131. How many of the following plants have diadelphous
and epipetalous conditions respectively?
Lupin, Tulip, Aloe, Lily, Chilli, Gloriosa, Petunia,
Mulethi
(1) 2, 6
(2) 3, 2
(3) 2, 2
(4) 4, 2
Test - 2 (Code A)
135. Mark the mis-matched pair:
(1) Sequoia
Direct pollination
(2) Alternate phyllotaxy
China rose
(3) Micropyle
Small pore in seed as

well as ovule
(4) Volvox
Pyrenoids in
cytoplasm
132. In which family sepals are persistent in fruits?

(1) Brassicaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Poaceae
133. Study of DNA sequences and crystals for resolving

confusions in classification, is used in
136. Consider the following four types of epithelium A, B,

C and D. Find out the correct option regarding the
type of given epithelium matched with its location
with one exception in it.
(1) Cytotaxonomy
(2) Chemotaxonomy
(3) Morphotaxonomy
(A)
(4) Karyotaxonomy
(B)
134. Choose the odd one (w.r.t. life cycle patterns).

(1) Free living gametophytes in
A. Algae
B. Bryophyte
C. Pteridophyte
(C)
(2) Free living sporophyte in
(D)
A. Pteridophyte
b. Gymnosperm
C. Angiosperm
(3) Parasitic gametophytes in
Epithelium
(4) Parasitic sporophytes in

A. Monocots
Walls of blood vessels, air Mesothelium

sacs of lungs, mesothelium
(2)
Proximal convoluted tubule Seminiferous

of nephron, seminiferous tubules of
tubules of testes, ducts of testes
glands
(3)
Lining of stomach, gastric Germinal

glands, intestinal glands, epithelium
germinal epithelium
(4)
Bronchioles, fall opi an Ventricles of

brain
tubes, ventricles of brain
B. Pteridophytes
16/24
Exception
(1)
A. Gymnosperm
B. Angiosperm
Location
Test - 2 (Code A)
137. Blood supply is absent in

(1) Bone
(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Skeletal muscle
(4) Olfactory epithelium
138. How many of the followging statements is/are

correct regarding the given type of epithelial tissue?
141. One of the following is a location of most abundant

cartilage in the human body.
(1) Tracheal rings and costal cartilages
(2) Intervertebral disc and pubic symphysis
(3) Pinna and tip of nose
(4) Pectoral girdle and pelvic girdle
142. Which of the following is a feature of mammalian
bone only?
(a) It is keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

lining buccal cavity, pharynx, tongue,
oesophagus etc.
(b) It is non-keratinised stratified squamous
epithelium which occurs in epidermis of skin of
land vertebrates
(c) The deepest layer of cells are squamous
resting upon basement membrane
(1) Matrix containing salts of calcium and

magnesium
(2) Lamellae
(3) Harversian canals
(4) Osteocytes
143. Dense irregular connective tissue differs from dense
regular connective tissue in
(1) Absence of collagen fibres
(d) It has limited role in secretion and absorption

and the main function is to provide protection
against chemical and mechanical stresses
(2) Absence of fibroblast
(1) One
(2) Two
(4) Orientation of collagen fibres
(3) Three
(4) Four
139. Which type of cell junction is communicating

junction in animals and helps neighbouring cells to
communicate with one another, by connecting their
cytoplasm?
(1) Desmosomes
(2) Gap junction
(3) Tight junction
(4) Adhering junction
(3) Absence of ground substance
144. In which of the following smooth muscle fibres

contract as separate units?
(1) Muscle of gastro-intestinal tract
(2) Arrector pili muscle of skin dermis
(3) Iris muscles in eyes
140. Out of fibroblast, macrophages, few adipocytes,

plasma cells, mast cells, chondrin, collagen fibres,
elastic fibres, modified polysaccharides, hyaluronic
acid, chondrocytes, ossein, how many are found in
areolar connective tissue?
145. The type of neuron in which first a single process

arises from the cyton and then it divides into an
axon and a dendrite is found in
(1) Retina of eyes
(2) Early embryos of invertebrates and vertebrates
(1) Eight
(2) Six
(3) Dorsal root ganglia of spinal nerves
(3) Nine
(4) Seven
(4) Grey matter of brain and spinal cord

17/24

146. Which of the following given tissue/gland is
incorrectly matched with its location in human
body?
Column - I
Unicellular gland Alimentary canal,

trachea
(2)
Adipose tissue Beneath the skin,

around kidneys
and eye ball
(4)
149. Which of the following is an incorrect distinction

between the three types of muscular tissue shown
as A, B and C?
Column - II
(1)
(3)
Test - 2 (Code A)
Dense regular Tendon, ligament
Dense irregular Skin
(A)
(B)
(C)
A
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Shape of
muscle fibre
Cylindrical Spindle
shaped
Cylindrical
Striations
Present
Absent
Present
Branching in
muscle fibre
Present
Absent
Present
Intercalated
discs
Absent
Absent
Present
150. Consider the following diagram of neural tissue with

certain labelled parts A, B, C and D.
Find out the incorrect statement.
A
B
147. A non-myelinated nerve fibre differs from myelinated

nerve fibre in/possessing
(1) Schwann cell
(2) Myelin sheath
(1) In a multipolar neuron, number of C is more

than number of A
(3) Neurilemma
(4) Slower impulse conduction
148. Anisotropic band in a skeletal muscle fibre
(1) Is unit of muscle contraction
(2) Contains both actin and myosin
(3) Contains only myosin
(4) Contains only actin
(2) A and B contain Nissl granules which are

absent in C
(3) D make up more than one-half the volume of
neural tissue in our body
(4) Usually the direction of impulse transmission is
from C towards A
18/24
Test - 2 (Code A)
151. Find out the correct set of secondary metabolites

which are toxins.
(1) Vinblastin, Curcumin
154. Which of the following is a correct description of

the organic compound shown?
(1) HOCH2 O
(2) Abrin, Ricin

(3) Morphine, Codeine
OH
OH
(4) Monoterpenes, Diterpenes

152. Following diagram represents primary structure of a
protein with four labelled amino acids A, B, C
and D. Select the correct statement.
O
CH2 O
(2)
R2 C O CH
CH2 O
N
C
OH
COOH
CH2
R1
C
O
P O CH2
OH
CH3
(3)
CH2
Derived from 20 carbon

saturated fatty acid,
arachidonic acid, used
in synthesis of steroid
hormones, vitamin D
and bile salts
CH2
- HN - CH - CO - NH - CH - CO - NH - CH - CO - NH - CH - CO -
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
HO
(1) A is essential amino acid
(2) C is most complex amino acid
HN
(3) D is represented by single letter code E
(4)
(4) B is basic amino acid

153. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.
starch?
(1) Starch consists of unbranched amylose and
branched amylopectin
(2) It is a polymer of -D-glucose
Uracil, a purine
found in RNA
N
H
155. Cellulose differs from chitin in

(a) Branching
(b) Type of glycosidic bond
(c) Type of monomer unit
(3) Successive glucose units are linked together by

1 6 linkages and at branching 1 4
linkage is found
(4) Starch turns blue black with iodine
Phospholipid
(Lecithin)
Contains
glycerol, fatty
acids,
phosphoric
CH2
acid and
+
N
choline are
CH3
basic
CH3
constituent of
biomembranes
Cholesterol
CH2
SH
CH2OH
C5H10O5(Ribose)
Pentose sugar,
found in RNA,
non-reducing
OH
(d) Abundancy in biosphere

(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(2) (b), (c), (d)
(3) (c) only
(4) (c), (d)
19/24
Test - 2 (Code A)
156. Which of the following is a glycosidic bond?

(1) C O C
(1)
Collagen Hormone Antibody
(2)
Collagen Enzyme
(3)
Collagen Sensory Antibody

reception
(4)
Collagen Enzyme
(2) C S
(3) CONH
157. Consider the following diagrams A and B showing
structure of protein.
Which of the following statement is correct?
Insulin
Antibody
D
Enables glucose
transport into cells
Sensory reception
Hormone
Enables glucose
transport into cells
159. Fats belong to same category of lipids as that of

(1) Oils and waxes
(2) Waxes and cholesterol
(3) Phospholipids and oils
(4) Glycolipids and prostaglandins
(B)
(A)
160. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t.

the organic compound shown?
CH3 (CH2)14 COOH
(1) Structure (A) is absolutely necessary for many

biological activities of proteins such as enzymes
(2) Human haemoglobin is represented by
structure (B)
(3) Keratin of hair is represented by structure (A)
(4) C terminal and N terminal in structure B
represent left and right end of protein
respectively
158. Following is a table of some proteins and their
functions with certain blanks A, B, C and D. Find
out the correct option.
Protein
(A)
Trypsin
(C)
GLUT-4
Functions
Intercellular ground substance
(B)
Fights infectious agents
(D)
(1) It is palmitic acid

(2) It is saturated fatty acid being a constituent of
bees wax
(3) It is an essential fatty acid
(4) Tripalmitin is a triglyceride consisting of three
palmitic acid molecules esterified with a glycerol
161. How many of the following statements are wrong
w.r.t. Periplaneta?
(a) Coelom is reduced by presence of blood
containing cavity called haemocoel
(b) Wings in male cockroach are relatively larger
than female wings
(c) Diploid number of chromosome is 48 in female
(d) Embryologically body is made of twenty
segments
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
20/24
Test - 2 (Code A)
162. Which of the following endocrine gland in cockroach

secretes juvenile hormone, which retains the
nymphal characters and checks the appearance of
adult characters?
165. Which of the following is mis-matched w.r.t.

Periplaneta?
(1) Head
- Triangular in shape; lies at

right angles to longitudinal
axis of body and is
formed by fusion of six
segments
(2) Thorax
- Consists
of
three
segments; each segment
of it bear a pair of walking
legs and a pair of wings
(1) Prothoracic glands

(2) Corpora allata
(3) Corpora cardiaca
(4) Intercerebral gland cells
163. Select the correct sequence of podomeres in leg
of cockroach from proximal to distal end.
(1) Coxa - Tronchanter - Femur - Tibia - Tarsus
(2) Tarsus - Tibia - Femur - Tronchanter - Coxa
(3) Coxa - Femur - Tronchanter - Tibia - Tarsus
(4) Tarsus - Tronchanter - Femur - Tibia - Coxa
164. Given below is diagrammatic representation of
circulatory system of cockroach with three labelled
parts A, B and C.
A
B
(3) Abdomen of male - Consists of ten segments;

Genital pouch or chamber
lies at the hind end
bounded dorsally by 9 th
and 10 th terga and
ventrally by 9th sternum.
It contains dorsal anus
and ventral male genital
pore
(4) Abdomen of female - Consists
of
ten
th
segments; 7 sternum is
boat shaped and together
with 8 th and 9 th sterna
forms a brood or genital
pouch
Select the correct statement w.r.t. labelled parts

(1) A opens in capillaries of head region
166. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. structure/

gland of cockroach and its total number in body?
(1) Collaterial glands in female cockroach - 2
(2) B are 12 muscles which help in circulation of

blood
(2) Malpighian tubules - 100 - 150
(3) C are funnel shaped chambers of heart lying

along mid ventral line of thorax and abdomen
(3) Spiracles - 10
(4) B and C are present in pericardial sinus of body
(4) Ommatidia in each compound eye - 2000
21/24

167. Find out the incorrect match w.r.t. given mouth part
of cockroach and its description/function.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Paired, containing
grinding and incising
region
Test - 2 (Code A)
170. Anal cerci in cockroach are
(1) A pair of fifteen jointed structures arising from
9th sterna in both male and female, sensitive to
vibrations
(2) A pair of unjointed structures arising from 10th
terga in both male and female, sensitive to
sound
Unpaired, bearing
chemoreceptors
(3) A pair of fifteen jointed structures arising from

10th terga in both male and female sensitive to
sound
Unpaired, covering
mouth from dorsal side
forming upper lip
(4) A pair of unjointed structures arising from 9th

sterna, in both male and female sensitive to
sound
Paired, serves to hold

food paticles
171. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of

reproductive system of female cockroach with
certain labelled parts A, B, C and D. Find out the
incorrect description/function of the labelled part.
168. Gastric caecae in alimentary canal of cockroach are

(1) 6-8 blind tubules present at the junction of crop
and gizzard, which secrete digestive juice
(2) 6-8 blind tubules present at the junction of

gizzard and midgut, which majorly absorbs food

midgut and hindgut, which remove away waste
from haemolymph
gizzard and midgut, which secrete digestive
juice
169. Pseudopenis and titillator in male cockroach are a
part of
(1) Left phallomere
(2) Right phallomere
C
D
(1) A Paired structures each having eight
ovarioles lying laterally in 2nd-6th abdominal
segments
(2) B Paired structures left and right of which left
is larger, stores sperms received from male
(3) Ventral phallomere
(3) C Paired branched structures left and right of

which left is larger, secrete wall of ootheca
(4) Anal style
(4) D It is vestibulum
22/24
Test - 2 (Code A)
172. Which of the following structures are present in 67th and 6th abdominal segment only in male and
female cockroach respectively?
175. Nephrocytes and urecose glands in cockroach

help in
(1) Digestion
(1) Utricular gland and ovary
(2) Respiration
(2) Phallic gland and vestibulum
(3) Reproduction
(4) Excretion
(3) Utricular gland and spermathecae
176. Guanosine differs from cytosine in

(4) Seminal vesicles and genital chamber
173. The nymphal stage during development of
Periplaneta americana
(1) Looks completely distinct from adult
(2) Undergoes thirteen moultings to reach to adult
form
(1) Guanosine is a nucleotide and cytosine a

nucleoside
(2) Guanosine having ribose sugar and cytosine
having deoxyribose sugar
(3) Guanosine being a nucleoside and cytosine a
nitrogenous base
(4) Guanosine being a nitrogenous base and
cytosine a nucleoside
(3) Bear wings but cannot fly

(4) Has well developed gonads and can reproduce
177. Which of the following factor affecting enzyme

activity is depicted in the given graph?
(1) Brain
- Represented by supraoesophageal ganglion;

supplies nerves to antennae
and compound eyes
(2) Nerve cord
- Double, solid structure,

ventral in position, consists
of nine ganglia, three in
thorax and six in abdomen
Enzyme activity
174. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t.

nervous system/sensory organ of cockroach?
(a) pH
(b) Temperature
(3) Compound eyes - Help in mosaic vision with

more resolution but less
sensitivity during night
(c) Substrate concentration
(4) Antennae
(2) (b) & (c)
- Paired structures have

sensory receptors that help
in
monitoring
the
environment
(d) Presence of non-competitive inhibitor

(1) (a) & (b)
(3) (c) & (d)

(4) (b) & (d)
23/24
Test - 2 (Code A)
178. Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t.

competitive inhibition?
(3) Coenzymes are organic cofactors but their

association with apoenzyme is only transient
usually occurring during course of catalysis
(1) Malonate inhibits succinic dehydrogonase and

there is decrease in km and Vmax
(4) Haem is prosthetic group of peroxidase and

catalase and is tightly bound to respective
enzymes
(2) Cyanide inhibits cytochrome oxidase and there

is decrease in Vmax but km remains same
(3) Sulpha drugs inhibits enzymes synthesising folic
acid in bacteria which results in increase of km
but no change in Vmax
180. Select the incorrect statement for B-DNA.

(1) One turn of helical strand involves ten base
pairs
(4) Glucose 6-phosphate inhibits hexokinase and

there is increase in both km and Vmax
(2) At each step of ascent strand turns 34
179. Select the incorrect statement.
(3) Rise per base pair is 0.34 nm
(1) Catalytic activity is lost when the cofactor is

removed from the enzyme
(4) Nitrogen bases are projected more or less

perpendicular to sugar-phosphate-sugar chain
backbone
(2) Zinc is a cofactor for lipolytic enzyme

carboxypeptidase
24/24
ES
RI
AL L
S
H TE
A
K
A
A
ST
IA
SE
IN
Test No. 1
Test - 1 (Code A) (Answers & Hints)
T EST 1
Test Date : 09-11-2014
ANSWERS
1.
(2)
37.
(1)
73.
(4)
109. (1)
145. (3)
2.
(3)
38.
(2)
74.
(2)
110. (4)
146 (1)
3.
(1)
39.
(3)
75.
(4)
111. (3)
147. (4)
4.
(3)
40.
(2)
76.
(4)
112. (2)
148. (3)
5.
(1)
41.
(2)
77.
(2)
113. (3)
149. (3)
6.
(1)
42.
(1)
78.
(2)
114. (4)
150. (3)
7.
(3)
43.
(1)
79.
(3)
115. (2)
151. (2)
8.
(3)
44.
(2)
80.
(3)
116. (3)
152. (2)
9.
(2)
45.
(3)
81.
(2)
117. (2)
153. (3)
10.
(1)
46.
(4)
82.
(2)
118. (2)
154. (2)
11.
(2)
47.
(3)
83.
(2)
119. (3)
155. (1)
12.
(2)
48.
(4)
84.
(2)
120. (1)
156. (2)
13.
(4)
49.
(3)
85.
(2)
121. (4)
157. (2)
14.
(4)
50.
(4)
86.
(2)
122. (2)
158. (2)
15.
(2)
51.
(4)
87.
(3)
123. (2)
159. (3)
16.
(1)
52.
(3)
88.
(3)
124. (3)
160. (4)
17.
(2)
53.
(3)
89.
(2)
125. (3)
161. (2)
18.
(4)
54.
(4)
90.
(3)
126. (4)
162. (4)
19.
(1)
55.
(2)
91.
(3)
127. (4)
163. (4)
20.
(2)
56.
(2)
92.
(4)
128. (3)
164. (2)
21.
(4)
57.
(1)
93.
(2)
129. (2)
165. (3)
22.
(3)
58.
(4)
94.
(4)
130. (2)
166. (2)
23.
(1)
59.
(2)
95.
(4)
131. (1)
167. (4)
24.
(1)
60.
(4)
96.
(1)
132. (3)
168. (3)
25.
(3)
61.
(3)
97.
(3)
133. (2)
169. (2)
26.
(1)
62.
(2)
98.
(2)
134. (2)
170. (4)
27.
(3)
63.
(4)
99.
(4)
135. (3)
171. (3)
28.
(2)
64.
(4)
100. (3)
136. (1)
172. (3)
29.
(1)
65.
(3)
101. (3)
137. (3)
173. (4)
30.
(3)
66.
(1)
102. (2)
138. (2)
174. (1)
31.
(3)
67.
(2)
103. (3)
139. (2)
175. (3)
32.
(3)
68.
(3)
104. (1)
140. (3)
176. (3)
33.
(3)
69.
(3)
105. (2)
141. (4)
177. (4)
34.
(1)
70.
(4)
106. (2)
142. (3)
178. (3)
35.
(4)
71.
(4)
107. (3)
143. (2)
179. (3)
36.
(3)
72.
Deleted
108. (2)
144. (2)
180. (3)
1/8

AAKASH TEST SERIES Aiats 2

Încărcat de

Informații document

Drepturi de autor

Formate disponibile

Partajați acest document

Partajați sau inserați document

Opțiuni de partajare

Vi se pare util acest document?

Este necorespunzător acest conținut?

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

AAKASH TEST SERIES Aiats 2

Încărcat de

Drepturi de autor:

Formate disponibile

07.12.

States of Matter: Gases and Liquid, Thermodynamics, Equilibrium, Redox Reactions

Salient Features and Classification of Plants into Major Groups-Algae,

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

A block of mass m kg is connected to string on an

If a body follows Newtons first law of motion, then

(3) It cannot change the shape of body

(4) Both (2) & (3)

(1) In Newtons third law forces exist in pairs

(2) First law can be derived from second law

(3) Second law is defined for unbalanced force

Tension in the massless string joining A and B is

Which statement is incorrect?

(4) Newtons first law is applicable only for inertial

Variation of force F acting on a body with time t is

A bullet fired against a glass window pane makes a

(1) Inertia of motion

(2) Inertia of rest

(3) Inertia of direction

(3) 100 kg ms1

(4) Due to momentum of bullet

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

A particle of mass 0.5 kg is moving in circular path

A 6 kg bomb at rest explodes into three equal pieces

A constant retardation stops a block moving with

11. A rocket is set to fire from ground so that gases are

12. A man is standing on a weighing machine in a lift.

10. Maximum constant speed with which a car can move

13. All surfaces shown in the figure are frictionless.

14. A stream of water flowing horizontally with a speed

15. Two billiard balls each of mass m kg moving in

(1) 4.4 m/s

(2) 10m kg ms1

(3) 0.44 m/s

(3) 20m kg ms1

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

16. A rain drop of mass 0.5 g falling from a height 2 km.

17. A body comes to a stop by skidding in 5 m. During

18. A body of mass 1 kg is moving a plane. At an instant

21. Two light springs have force constants 3k and 2k.

22. A block of mass m is placed at the floor of elevator.

20. A simple pendulum is taken from position A to B. The

23. A position dependent force F = (4 x) N acts on a

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

24. A particle is dropped from some height. Taking g to

29. Potential energy and displacement curve is given in

25. A body is dropped from a certain height. When

26. The potential energy of a spring when stretched

27. A truck of mass 15,000 kg moves up an inclined

30. The potential energy of a particle in conservative

Space for Rough Work

32. The radius of gyration of hollow sphere of radius R

28. A body of mass m is revolving in vertical circle

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2015

33. The moment of inertia of a annular disc of mass M,

(3) Translational & rotational equilibrium

34. An engine develops 1 kW power when rotating at a

(1) Translational equilibrium

39. If couple acts on a rigid body, then a rigid body is in

40. A circular ring of mass M and radius R is rolling

35. If angular momentum of a rigid body is increased by