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ELEMENTS OF MATHEMATICS, ENGINEERING ECONOMICS AND BASIC SCIENCES

b. pico

ALGEBRA

23. What kind of property in real number is A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C?


a. associative
c. cumulative
b. distributive
d. productive

1. What is the absolute value of a non zero number?


a. always negative
c. sometimes zero and sometimes positive
b. always positive
d. always zero
2. What do you call a product of several prime number occurring in the denominators, each
taken when its greatest multiplicity?
a. least square
c. least product
b. least common multiple
d. least common denominator
3. The numbers between two geometric terms is called:
a. arithmetic means
c. median
b. geometric means
d. means
4. What is the value of the determinant if the corresponding elements of two rows of a
determinant are proportional?
a. indeterminate
c. zero
b. infinite
d. one
5. What do you call any combination of symbols and numbers related by the fundamental
operation of algebra?
a. term
c. numeral
b. algebraic expression
d. algebraic sum
6. The ratio of successful outcomes over the total possible outcomes is called:
a. speculation
c. probability
b. combination
d. permutation
7. What do you call a number when it is written as a product of a number having the decimal
point just after the leading digit, and a power of ten?
a. exponential
c. scientific notation
b. irrational
d. logarithm

24. The prefix nano is opposite to:


a. Mega
b Giga

d. deka

c. Tera
d. Hexa

25. b to the m/n th power =


a. n th root of b to the m power
b. b to the m + n power
c. 1/n square root of b to the m power
d. b to the m power over n
26. The logarithm of a negative number is:
a. irrational number
b. imaginary number

c. real number
d. complex number

27. In a quadratic equation if the quantity under the radical is equal to 0, the roots are :
a. imaginary number
c. complex and unequal
b. real and unequal
d. real and equal
28. 10 to the 12 th power is the value of the prefix:
a. micro
c. tera
b.femto
d. atto
29. How many significant digits do 10.097 have?
a. 2
b. 3
30. Log M log N is equal to:
a. Log MN
b. Log (M N)

c. 4
d. 5
c. Log M / N
d. Log (N M)

8. What is a statement containing one or more variables and having the property that it
becomes either true or false when the variables are given specific values from their domains?
a. worded problems
c. solution
b. problem
d. open sentence

31.It is the characteristic of a population which is measurable.


a. sample
c. frequency
b. parameter
d. distribution

9. What is the difference between an approximate value of a quantity and its exact value?
a. mistake
c. relative change
b. absolute error
d. relative error

32. Convergent series is a sequence of decreasing numbers or when the succeeding term is
__________ than the preceding term.
a. greater
c. equal
b. none of these
d. lesser

10. If equality is true for all values of the variable, it is what?


a. conditional equality
c. non conditional inequality
b. equivalent equality
d. absolute inequality
11. A sequence 1,5,12,22,35,. Is known as what?
a. pyramidal numbers
c. cubic numbers
b. oblong numbers
d. pentagonal numbers
12. What do you call the first and fourth terms in the proportion of four quantities?
a. numerators
c. means
b. extremes
d. denominators
13. What is the theorem which states that if n > 2, the equation x n + y n = z n cannot be solve in
positive integers x, y and z?
a. Mersenne Theorem c. Fermats Last Theorem
b. Goldbach Theorem d. Pythagorean Theorem
14. It is any of the digits from 1 to 9 inclusive, and 0 except when it is used to place a decimal.
a. decimal number
c. numeral
b. leading digit
d. significant figure
15. What do you call a polynomial which is exactly divisible by two or more polynomials?
a. factors
c. binomial
b. common multiple
d. least common denominator
16. What do you call an equation in which because of same mathematical process, has
acquired an extra root?
a. linear equation
c. literal equation
b. defective equation
d. redundant equation
17. What is the expression of two terms?
a. binomial
c. doumial
b. monomial
d. polynomial
18. Which of the following cannot be a base for a logarithm?
a. 0
c. e
b. 10
d. 1
19. For a cubic equation, we produce three distinct roots only if the discriminant is what?
a. equal to zero
c. either less than or greater than zero
b. less than zero
d. greater than zero
20. When an imaginary number is raised to an even exponent it becomes what?
a. negative imaginary number
b. real number
c. infinite
d. relatively small number
21. The prefix nano has the same equivalent to:
a. 10 to the -3 power c. 10 to the -9 power
b. 10 to the -6 power d. 10 to the -12 power
22. Tera is opposite to:
a. giga

c. nano

33. A sequence of numbers where the succeeding term is greater than the preceding term is
called:
a. dissonant series
c. isometric series
b. convergent series
d. divergent series
34. In complex algebra, we use diagram to represent complex plane commonly called:
a. Argand diagram
c. Funicular diagram
b. Venn diagram
d. DMoivers diagram
35. The graphical representation of the cumulative frequency distribution in a set of statistical
data is called:
a. ogive
c. frequency distribution
b. histogram
d. mass diagram
36. Terms that differs only numeric coefficients are called:
a. unequal terms
c. like terms
b. unlike terms
d. equal terms
37. In mathematics, an array of m x n quantities which represent a single number system
composed of elements in rows and columns is known as:
a. determinant
c. adjoint of a matrix
b. inverse matrix
d. multiple matrix
38. The characteristic is equal to the exponent 10, when the number is written in:
a. exponential
c. logarithmic
b. scientific notation
d. irrational
39. The number 0.123123123123 is:
a. irrational
c. rational
b. surd
d. transcendental
40. Two or more equations are equal if and only if they have the same:
a. solution set
c. order
b. degree
d. variable set
41. In any square matrix, when the elements of any two rows are exactly the same, the
determinant is:
a. zero
c. negative integer
b. positive integer
d. unity
42. The ratio or product of two expressions in direct or inverse relation with each other is called:
a. ratio and proportion
c. means
b. constant variation
d. extremes
43. The logarithm of a number to the base e is called:
a. Naperian logarithm
c. Mantissa
b. Characteristic
d. Briggsian proportion
44. ___________ is a sequence of terms whose reciprocals form an Arithmetic progression.
a. Naperian progression
c. algebraic progression
b. harmonic progression
d. ration and proportion

b. 10
45. The logarithm of 1 to any base is:
a. indeterminate
c. infinity
b. one
d. zero

PLANE AND SPHERICAL GEOMETRY

46. Naperian logarithms have a base closest to which number?


a. 153
c. 2.72
b. 162
d. 10
47. As we arrange the a number which are of n objects in a given order taken r at a time, the
result will be a:
a. combination
c. progression
b. sequence
d. permutation
48. The number equivalent to the value of the constant e is known as:
a. Fermats number
c. Fibonaccis number
b. Eulers number
d. Naperian number
49. According to this rule, the number of positive roots of an equation, especially polynomials,
is equal to the number of variation in the sign of f(x) or less by an even number, i.e., if there are
7 variations in sign, there could be either 7, 5, 3, 0r 1 positive roots:
a. Fermats rule of sign
c. Eulers rule of sign
b. Bernoullis rule of sign
d. Descartes rule of sign
50. In statistical sampling of a heterogeneous population, the whole population is classified and
grouped into smaller homogeneous grouping and systematic or random sampling may then be
applied:
a. cluster sampling
c. multi-stage sampling
b. quota sampling
d. stratified sampling
51. Two matrices are considered to be conformable for addition if they have:
a. the same order and variation
b. the same order, number of rows and columns
c. either a or b
d. equal co-factors
52. In an experiment conducted such as tossing a coin or a die several times or observing the
outcomes of the repeated trails, we have to consider the chances of occurrence or nonoccurrence in a single trial. The probability that an event w2ill occur exactly r times out of n
trials maybe computed using:
a. Diophantine Formula
b. Bernoullis binomial formula
c. Stirlings approximation formula
d. Fibonaccis formula
53. The quartile deviation is a measure of:
a. division
b. multiplication

d. 1

c. central tendency
d. dispersion

54. Which of the following can not be an operation of matrices?


a. subtraction
c. addition
b. multiplication
d. division
55. In the quadratic equation Ax2 + B + C = 0, the product of the roots is:
a. C/A
c. C/A
b. B/A
d. B/A
56. If a = b and b = c, then a = c. This property of real numbers is known as:
a. reflexive property
c. transitive property
b. symmetric property
d. addition property
57. If a = b and b = a. This property of real numbers is known as:
a. reflexive property
c. transitive property
b. symmetric property
d. addition property
58. A statement the truth of which is admitted without proof is called:
a. postulate
c. theorem
b. axiom
d. corollary
59. The probability of an event B occurring when it is known that the same event A has
occurred is called:
a. independent probability
c. dependent probability
b. exclusive probability
d. conditional probability
60. Which of the following non-terminating decimals is rational?
a. 3.14149265
c. 2.470470..
b. 1.141421356
d. 2.71828182
61. Any number multiplied by ___________ equals unity.
a. infinity
c. its reciprocal
b. itself
d. zero
62. If every element of a column (or row) of a square matrix is multiplied by m, the determinant
of the matrix will be:
a. unchanged
c. it depends
b. multiplied by m
d. none of these
63. In probability theory, the set of possible outcomes of an experiment is termed as:
a. sample space
c. set of random variables
b. fuzzy set
d. set of random events
64. 27, 9, 3, 1/3.. is what type of progression?
a. arithmetic
c. harmonic
b. geometric
d. power
65. Which of the following cannot be used as a base of a system of logarithm?
a. e
c. 2

1. Part of the theorem which is assumed to be true.


a. hypothesis
b. synthesis

c. proportion
d. postulate

2. An oblique equilateral parallelogram:


a. square
b. rectangle

c. rhombus
d. recession

3. A rectangle with equal sides is:


a. rectangle
b. polygon

c. square
d. trapezoid

4. A plane closed curve, all points of which are the same distance from a point within,
called the center is:
a. hyperbola
c. ellipse
b. circle
d. parabola
5. If equals are added to equals, the sum is equal.
a. theorem
c. axiom
b. postulate
d. corollary
6. A statement the truth of which follows with little or no proof from a theorem.
a. axiom
c. conclusion
b. hypothesis
d. corollary
7. A rectangle whose sides are equal.
a. square
b. trapezoid

c. rhombus
d. parallelogram

8. A plane with closed broken line.


a. sector
b. arc

c. polygon
d. circle

9. A polygon having five sides.


a. square
b. hexagon

c. triangle
d. pentagon

10. The volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the product of the base and altitude.
a. axiom
c. theorem
b. postulate
d. corollary
11. The study of the properties of figures of three dimensions.
a. physics
c. solid geometry
b. plane geometry
d. trigonometry
12. One fourth of a great circle.
a. cone
b. circle

c. quadrant
d. sphere

13. The sum of the sides of a polygon.


a. perimeter
b. hexagon

c. square
d. circumference

14. Hexahedron has __________ faces.


a. 6
b. 20

c. 4
d. 8

15. When two planes intersect with each other, the amount of divergence between two
planes is expressed by measuring the:
a. dihedral angle
c. polyhedral angle
b. plane angle
d. reflex angle
16. In plane geometry, the apothem of a polygon is what of the inscribed circle.
a. area
c. arc
b. diameter
d. radius
17. A five pointed star is known as:
a. pentagon
b. pentatron

c. pentagram
d. quintagram

18. The median of a triangle is the line connecting the vertex and the midpoint of the opposite
side. For a given triangle, these medians intersect at a point which is called the:
a. orthocenter
c. centroid
b. circumcenter
d. incenter
19. The altitude of the sides of the triangle intersect at the point known as:
a. orthocenter
c. centroid
b. circumcenter
d. incenter
20. The arc length equal to the radius of the circle is called:
a. 1 radian
b. 1 quarter circle

c. centroid
d. incenter

21. The area bounded by the two concentric circles is called:


a. ring
c. annulus
b. disk
d. sector
22. It is a polyhedron of which two faces are equal polygons in parallel planes and the
other faces are parallelogram.
a. tetrahedron
c. frustum

b. prism

d. primatoid

23. In geometry, prisms are named according to their:


a. diagonals
b. sides

c. areas
d. bases

a. tangent
b. secant

c. sector
d. segment

45. Lines that pass through a common point are called:


a. collinear
b. coplanar

c. concurrent
d. congruent

24. When two planes intersect with each other, the amount of divergence between two
planes is expressed by measuring the:
a. reflex angle
c. polyhedral angle
b. dihedral angle
d. plane angle

46. Points which lie on the same plane, are called:


a. collinear
b. coplanar

c. concurrent
d. congruent

25. Polygons are classified according to the number of:


a. vertices
b. sides

47. A quadrilateral whose opposite sides are equal is generally termed as:
a. square
c. rhombus
b. rectangle
d. parallelogram

c. diagonals
d. angles

26. In plain geometry, two circular arcs that together make up a full circle are called:
a. coterminal arcs
c. half arcs
b. conjugate arcs
d. congruent arcs

48. A line that meets a plane but no perpendicular to it, in relation to the plane is:
a. parallel
c. coplanar
b. collinear
d. oblique

27. The studies of the properties of figures of three dimensions:


a. Physics
c. Solid Geometry
b. Plane Geometry
d. Trigonometry

49. A quadrilateral with two and only two sides of which are parallel is called:
a. parallelogram
c. quadrilateral
b. trapezoid
d. rhombus

28. A plane closed curve, all points which are the same distance from a point within, called the
center.
a. arc
c. circle
b. radius
d. chord

50. A triangle having three equal sides is called:


a. equilateral triangle
b. scalene triangle

29. One fourth of a great circle is:


a. cone
b. circle

c. quadrant
d. sphere

30. a polygon with fifteen sides is termed as:


a. dodecagon
b. decagon

c. pentedecagon
d. nonagon

c. isosceles triangle
d. right triangle

TRIGONOMETRY
1. To find the angle of a triangle, given only the lengths of the sides, one would use:
a. law of tangent
c. orthogonal function
b. law of sines
d. law of cosines

31. All circles having the same center but with unequal radii are called:
a. encircles
c. concyclic
b. tangent circles
d. concentric circles

2. Which is true regarding the signs of the natural functions for angles between 90 deg and 180
deg?
a. cosine is negative
c. cotangent is positive
b. sine is negative
d. tangent is positive

32. A regular polygon with 54 diagonals is called:


a. bidecagon
b. pentedecagon

3. What is the maximum value of latitude?


a. 360 deg
b. 90 deg

c. icosahedron
d. dodecagon

33. A polyhedron having bases two polygons in parallel planes and for lateral faces triangles or
trapezoids with one side lying one base and the opposite vertex or side lying in the other
baseof a polyhedron:
a. rectangular parallelepiped
c. pyramid
b. cone
d. prismatoid
34. According to this theorem, the volume of a solid generated by revolving an area about a
given line is equal to the area multiplied by the circumference of the circle traced by the
centroid of an area.
a. first proposition of pappus
b. fermats theorem
c. strokes theorem
d. second proposition of pappus
35. A line segment joining two points on a circle is called:
a. arc
c. sector
b. tangent
d. chord
36. If a regular polygon has 27 diagonals, then it is a:
a. nonagon
c. heptagon
b. hexagon
d. pentagon
37. In a regular, polygon, the perpendicular line drawn from the center of the inscribed circle to
any one of the sides is called:
a. apothem
c. radius
b. median
d. altitude
38. A polygon with 12 sides is called:
a. bidecagon
b. nonagon

c. dodecagon
d. pentedecagon

39. Two geometric shapes are said to be _________ when they have the same size and
shapes.
a. identical
c. similar
b. symmetrical
d. congruent
40. In plane geometry, two circular arcs that together make up a full circle are called:
a. coterminal arcs
c. half arcs
b. conjugate arcs
d. congruent arcs
41. A line drawn from one angle of a triangle dividing its opposite side equally into two.
a. bisector
c. median
b. apothem
d. neutral axis
42. A polygon is ________ if no side , when extended, will pass through the interior of a
polygon.
a. convex
c. isoperimetric
b. equilateral
d. congruent

c. 45 deg
d. 180 deg

4. What do you call a statement of truth which is admitted without proof?


a. postulate
c. axiom
b. corollary
d. theorem
5. What do you call an angle whose terminal side coincides with an axis?
a. reflex angle
c. right angle
b. quadrantal angle
d. co-terminal angle
6. What is the angle which the line of sight to the object makes the horizontal is below the eye
of the observer?
a. angle of depression
c. bearing
b. angle of elevation
d. acute angle
7. What is the maximum value of longitude?
a. 180 deg
b. 45 deg

c. 270 deg
d. 360 deg

8. What do you call a quadrilateral with no sides parallel?


a. rhomboid
b. rhombus

c. trapezoid
d. trapezium

9. An obtuse angle is ________ than the right angle.


a. lesser
b. equal

c. greater
d. greater than 180 deg

10. An angle more than pi radian but not less than 2 pi radians is:
a. straight angle
c. reflex angle
b. obtuse angle
d. related angle
11. Given the general triangle ABC with a, b, c. Which of the following statements is not
applicable in solving general triangle?
a. Sin A/a = Sin B/b = Sin C/c
b. Sin A/b = Sin B/c = Sin C/a
c. a2 = b2 + c2 2bc (Cos A)
d. Area = ab Sin C
12. In general triangles the expressions (sin A)/a= (sin B)/b = (sin C/ (sin B)/b = (sin C/ ) is
called:
a. the laws of sines
c. law of cosines
b. Eulers formula
d. Pythagorean theorem
13. One radian is equivalent to;
a. 52 deg
b. 45 deg

c. 90 deg
d. 57.3 deg

14. Angles are measured from the positive horizontal axis, and the positive direction is
counterclockwise. What are the values of sin B and cos B in the 4th quadrant?
a. sin B > 0 and the cos B < 0
b. sin B > 0 and the cos B > 0
c. sin B < 0 and the cos B < 0
d. sin B < 0 and the cos B > 0

43. The section of the sphere cut by a plane through its center is termed as:
a. small circle
c. big circle
b. incircle
d. great circle

15. Sin A cos B cos A sin B is equivalent to:


a. cos (A B)
b. sin (A B)

44. A part of a line included between two points:

16. The cosecant function is negative in quadrants:

c. tan (A B)
d. cos 2(A B)

a. III and IV
b. I and II

c. I and III
d. II and IV

3. The sum of the distances from the two foci to any point in a/an ________ is a constant.
a. parabola
c. hyperbola
b. any conic
d. ellipse

17. The secant function is positive in quadrants:


a. I and IV
c. I and III
b. II and IV
d. II and III

4. The standard equation of a straight line: y y1 = m(x- x1)


a. point-slope form
b. slope form

18. Its magnitude is the product of the length by the cosine of its bearing:
a. latitude
c. hypotenuse
b. departure
d. legs
19. The horizontal distance between two points on the surface of the earth:
a. tangent
c. diameter
b. x-axis
d. straight
20. The angle which the line of sight to the object makes with the horizontal which is above the
eye of the observer is called:
a. angle of depression
c. acute angle
b. angle of elevation
d. bearing
21. The tangent function is negative in quadrant:
a. I and III
c. I and IV
b. IV only
d. III only

5. If the general equation of the conic is Ax2 + Bx + Cy2 + Dx + Ey + F = 0 and B2 4AC > 0,
then the conic is:
a. circle
c. ellipse
b. parabola
d. hyperbola
6. All circles having the same center but with unequal radii are called:
a. tangent circles
c. eccentric circles
b. unequal circles
d. concentric circles
7. The general second degree equation has the form Ax2 + Bxy + Cy2 + Dx + Ey + F = 0 and
describes an ellipse if:
a. B2 4AC = 0
c. B2 4AC > 0
b. B2 4AC = 1
d. B2 4AC< 0
8. The equation x2 + By + y2 + Cy + D =0 is:
a. hyperbola
b. ellipse

22. The cotangent function is negative in quadrant:


a. III only
c. II and IV
b. I and III
d. IV only
23. An angular unit equivalent to 1/400 of the circumference of a circle is called:
a. Mil
c. radian
b. degree
d. gradian
24. A triangle having the three sides of unequal length is known as:
a. equivalent triangle
c. isosceles triangle
b. scalene triangle
d. equilateral triangle
25. An angle greater than a straight line and less than two straight angles is called:
a. right angle
c. acute angle
b. obtuse angle
d. reflex angle
26. Of what quadrant is A, if secant A is positive and csc A is negative/
a. III
c. II
b. IV
d. I
27. Find the supplement of an angle whose complement is 62 deg.
a. 30 deg
c. 152 deg
b. 29 deg
d. 118 deg
28. The median of a triangle is the line connecting a vertex and the midpoint of the opposite
side. For a given triangle, these median intersect at a point which is called:
a. orthocenter
c. circumference
b. incenter
d. centroid
29. The angular bisector of the sides of a triangle intersects at the point which is known;
a. orthocenter
c. centroid
b. circumference
d. incenter
30. The arc length equal to the radius of the circle is called:
a. 1 rad
c. pi rad
b. 1 quarter circle
d. 1 grad
31. The altitudes of the sides of triangles intersect at the point known as;
a. orthocenter
c. centroid
b. circumference
d. incenter
32. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. all equilateral triangles are similar
b. all right angled triangles are similar
c. all isosceles triangles are similar
d. all rectangles are similar

c. two-point form
d. point-intercept form

c. parabola
d. circle

9. The equation of the straight line is y = mx + b, where m is the slope and b is the intercept. If
two straight lines are perpendicular their slopes are:
a. negative
c. positive
b. equal
d. negative reciprocals
10. If eccentricity is less than one, then the curve is:
a. parabola
b. ellipse

c. hyperbola
d. circle

11. What curve is represented by the equation r = a:


a. Spiral of Archimedes
b. four-leaf rose

c. cardiod
d. three-leaf rose

12. ___________ is the locus of a point that moves in a plane of that the difference of the
distances from two fixed points of the plane is constant.
a. hyperbola
c. circle
b. ellipse
d. parabola
13. If the product of the slopes of any two straight lines is negative 1, one of these lines are
said to be:
a. parallel
c. perpendicular
b. skew
d. non-intersecting
14. In an ellipse, a chord which contains a focus and is in a line perpendicular to the major axis
is a:
a. latus rectum
c. conjugate axis
b. minor axis
d. focal width
15. If all the y- terms have even exponents, the curve is symmetric with respect to the
__________.
a. x-axis
c. y-axis
b. origin
d. line 45 deg with the axis
16. The graph of r = a + b cos is a:
a. lemniscate
b. cardoid

c. limacon
d. littus

17. It represents the distance of a point form y-axis:


a. ordinate
b. coordinate

c. abscissa
d. secant line

18. If an equation is unchanged by the substitution of x for x and y for y simultaneously, its
curve is symmetrical with respect to the:
a. x-axis
c. y-axis
b. origin
d. line 45 deg with x-axis

33. The angle which the line of sight to the object, makes with the horizontal, which is above
the eye of the observer is called;
a. angle of depression
c. acute angle
b. angle of elevation
d. bearing

19. When an ellipse is revolved about its major axis, we form a solid known as:
a. elliptical paraboloid
c. prolate spheroid
b. oblate spheroid
d. spherical hyperboloid

34. Supplementary angles are angles whose sum is;


a. 45 deg
c. 180 deg
b. 90 deg
d. 360 deg

20. Av point where the concavity of a curve changes or when the slope of the curve is neither
increasing nor decreasing is known as:
a. maximum point
c. point of tangency
b. minimal point
d. inflection point

35. An obtuse angle is ________ than the right angle.


a. lesser
c. greater
b. equal
d. greater than 180 deg

ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
1. What is the line that intersects two or more lines at distinct points?
a. median
c. transversal
b. tangent line
d. bisector
2. What solid figure that has many faces?
a. octagon
b. decagon

c. polygon
d. polyhedron

21. The ratio of the distance between the foci to the distance between the vertices in either
hyperbola or ellipse is called:
a. aperture number
c. acceptance number
b. eccentricity
d. kurtosis
22. In quadratic equation where the discriminant is equal to zero and the eccentricity is equal to
one, the conic section formed when graphically drawn will be a;
a. ellipse
c. parabola
b. hyperbola
d. circle
23. The parabola y = -x2 + x + 1 opens:
a. to the left
b. upward

c. to the right
d. downward

24. A line is perpendicular to the axis has a slope equal to:


a. zero

c. infinity

b. one

d. indeterminate

25. In a conic section, if the eccentricity e > 1, then the locus is a:


a. hyperbola
c. parabola
b. circle
d. ellipse
26. Which is an equation of a parabola which opens to the left?
a. y2 = -4ax
c. y2 = 4ay
2
b. y = 4ax
d. x2 = -4ay
27. The family of curves which intersect a given family of curves at an angle less than 90 deg is
called:
a. orthogonal trajectories
c. isogonal trajectories
b. intersecting curves
d. acute angle
28. In polar coordinate system, the distance from a point to the pole is known as:
a. polar angle
c. radius vector
b. x-coordinate
d. y-coordinate
29. In polar coordinate system, the polar angle is positive when:
a. measured clockwise
c. measured at the terminal side of
b. none of these
d. measures counterclockwise
30. The rectangular coordinate system in space is divided into eight compartments, which is
known
a. quadrants
c. axis
b. octants
d. coordinates
31. The plane rectangular coordinate is divided into four parts which are known as:
a. coordinates
c. quadrants
b. ellipse
d. axis
32. The axis of the hyperbola through its foci is known as:
a. conjugate axis
c. major axis
b. transverse axis
d. minor axis
33. The axis of the hyperbola, which is parallel to its directrices, is known as:
a. conjugate axis
c. major axis
b. tranverse axis
d. minor axis
34. When two planes intersect with each other, the amount of divergence between the planes
is expressed in measuring the:
a. dihedral angle
c. polyhedral angle
b. plane angle
d. reflex angle
35. In two intersecting lines, the angles opposite to each other are termed as:
a. opposite angle
c. horizontal angle
b. vertical angle
d. inscribed angle
36. A normal to a given plane is:
a. lying in the plane
b. parallel to the plane

c. perpendicular to the plane


d. oblique to the plane

37. A tangent to a conic is a line:


a. which is parallel to the normal
b. which touches the conic at only one point
c. which passes inside a conic
d. all of the above
38. The chord passing through the focus of the parabola and perpendicular to its axis is termed
as:
a. directrix
c. latus rectum
b. translated axis
d. axis
39. In the equation: y = mx + b, m is represents the:
a. slope
c. inclination
b. tangent
d. intercept on y-axis
40. Fill in the blank in the following statement. The integral of the function between certain limits
divided by the difference in abscissas between those limits gives the _________ of the
function.
a. average
c. maximum
b. minimum
d. median

DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
1. This is set of ordered pairs (x,y) where x belongs to one set and y belongs to another set.
a. function
c. relation
b. functional relation
d. solution
2. It is a relation in which any two distinct ordered pairs do not have the same first coordinate.
a. function
c. relation
b. functional relation
d. solution

b. indeterminate

d. infinity

6. What is the process of finding the derivative of a function?


a. differentiation
c. constant variation
b. integration
d. ratio and proportion
7. What is the process finding the derivative of a given implicit function?
a. higher differentiation
c. approximation formula
b. differentiation formula
d. implicit differentiation
8. These are critical values together with their corresponding y-components.
a. Point of inflection
c. critical point
b. Relative maximum
d. relative minimum
9. Critical point (a,b) is a relative maximum point if:
a. f(a) = 0 and f(a) 0
c. f(a) = 0 and f(a) < 0
b. f(a) = 0 and f(a) = 0
d. f(a) = 0 and (a) > 0
10. If for critical point (a,b):
a. f(a) = 0 and f(a) 0
b. f(a) = 0 and f(a) = 0

c. f(a) = 0 and f(a) < 0


d. f(a) = 0 and (a) > 0

11. Critical point (a,b) is a relative minimum point if:


a. f(a) = 0 and f(a) 0
c. f(a) = 0 and f(a) < 0
b. f(a) = 0 and f(a) = 0
d. f(a) = 0 and (a) > 0
12. ________ are problems on rate of change of dependent variable with respect to
independent variable.
a. related-rates problems
c. maxima-minima
b mixed problems
d. time-rates
13. It is an equation of the form y = ax where a is any positive number except 1.
a. differential equation
c. exponential function
b. logarithmic function
d. integral function
14. An equation of the form y = logax where a is any positive number except 1.
a. differential equation
c. exponential function
b. logarithmic function
d. integral function
15. What function of differentiation that has one dependent variable and one
variable?
a. partial differentiation
c. differential function
b. function of one variable
d. implicit differentiation

independent

16. This is finding or solving for the partial derivatives.


a. partial differentiation
c. differential function
b. function of one variable
d. implicit differentiation
17. If for a function of two variables z = f(x,y), z = f(r,s) and y = f(r,s), z is a function of two
independent variables r and s. What do you call variables x and y?
a. dependent variable
c. function of one variable
b. independent variable
d. intermediate or middle variable
18. What do you call to the chain linking of the dependent and independent variable?
a. implicit differentiation
c. partial differentiation
b. chain rule
d. differential function
19. This function has the same relationship to the hyperbola that the
trigonometric function has to circle.
a. trigonometric function
c. hyperbolic function
b. logarithmic function
d. exponential function
20. This is combination of the exponential function ex and e-x.
a. trigonometric function
c. hyperbolic function
b. logarithmic function
d. exponential function

INTEGRAL CALCULUS
1. The process of the finding the function when its derivative is given is called:
a. differentiation
c. implicit function
b. explicit function
d. integration
2. The function F(x) is called ____________ of f(x) if F(x) = f (x):
a. explicit function
c. implicit function
b. antiderivative
d. derivative
3. The integral of a function between certain limits divided by the difference in abcissas
between those limits gives the ___________ of the function.
a. average
c. middle
b. intercept
d. asymptote
4. Wallis formula is applicable only when the limits are from zero to:
a. pi
b. 2pi

c. pi/2
d. pi/3

3. What is the geometric representation of all the points that satisfy the given function or
equation?
a. y-axis
c. origin
b. x-axis
d. graph of the function

5. This method of solution is used when the given integral cannot be solved directly.
a. integration by solution
c. integration by partial fraction
b, integration by parts
d. none of these

4. It is needed in finding the derivative of given function.


a. Fermatis last theorem
c. Pythagorean Theorem
b. Three-step rule
d. Eulers rule of sign

6. What do you call the analysis of point and curves that is usually done using a system?
a. polar coordinates
c. hyperbolic function
b. trigonometric function
d. exponential function

5. The limit of c/x or in general of c/xn where n is a positive integer, as x approaches infinity is;
a. zero
c. one

7. Equations of the form r = a sin k, r = a cos k where k is a positive integer, have


graphs which are called __________.

a. lemnicates
b. limacons

c. cardiods
d. rose or petal curves

8. The graph of equations of the form r = a b cos , r = a b sin are called ________.
a. lemniscates
c. cardiods
b. limacons
d. rose curve
9. In relation to previous question, in special cases in which a= b, the graphs are called
__________.
a. lemniscates
c. cardiods
b. limacons
d.rose curves
10. The graph of the equation of the form r2 = cos 2 is called ___________.
a. lemniscates
c. cardiods
b. limacons
d.rose curves
11. What is the solid formed by revolving a given plane region R about an indicated axis
of revolution L.
a. circular disk
c. cylindrical shell
b. circular ring
d. solids of revolution
12. In this method, a representative rectangle is perpendicular to the axis of revolution that is
the boundary of the region.
a. Washer method
c. Shell method
b. Disk method
d. none of these
13. In this method, a representative rectangle is perpendicular to the axis of revolution that is
not part of the boundary.
a. Washer method
c. Shell method
b. Disk method
d. none of these
14. A representative rectangle is paralleled to the axis of revolution.
a. Washer method
c. Shell method
b. Disk method
d. none of these
15. What is the surface obtained by revolving an arc about a given axis of revolution?
a. solid of revolution
c. sinusoid
b. hypocycloid
d. surface of revolution
16. It is the product of the mass and its distance from a reference point, line or plane.
a. moment of inertia
c. section modulus
b. moment of mass
d. center of mass
17. This is the point where the total mass is concentrated.
a. moment of inertia
b. moment of mass

c. section modulus
d. center of mass

18. This is the product of mass and the square of its distance with respect to the axis.
a. moment of inertia
c. section modulus
b. moment of mass
d. center of mass
19. It is the product the density of liquid/fluid by its distance from the surface of the
liquid.
a. specific gravity
c. pressure
b. specific weight
d. density
20. When a flat plate is divided into several parts, the total force on the entire plane is
the _________ of the forces in each of the parts.
a. product
c. difference
b. sum
d. same

DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION
1. It is any equation containing diffential or derivatives of the unknown function of one or more
variables.
a. algebraic expression
c. quadratic equation
b. differential equation
d. none of the above
2. What are the classifications of differential equation?
a. order
c. type
b. degree
d. all of the above

8. It is a problem which seeks to determine a solution to a differential equation subject to


conditions on the unknown function and its derivatives specified at one value of the
independent variable.
a. initial value problem
c. secondary value problem
b. tertiary value problem
d. boundary value problem
9. A __________ is a problem that seeks to determine a solution to a differential equation
subject to conditions on the unknown function and its derivatives specified at two or more value
of the independent variable.
a. initial value problem
c. secondary value problem
b. tertiary value problem
d. boundary value problem
10. Which of the following is/are method/s of elimination of arbitrary constants?
a. by differentiation and combination
b. by isolation of constants
c. by determinants
d. all of the above
11. This is a method of isolating one of the arbitrary constants?
a. by differentiation and combination
b. by isolation of constants
c. by determinants
d. none of the above
12. It is the third method of eliminating arbitrary constants that is based on the theorem in
Algebra:
In order for a system of n+1 linear equation in n unknowns to be consistent, the determinant
formed from the coefficients of the unknowns and the terms free of the unknowns must
vanished.
a. by differentiation and combination
b. by isolation of constants
c. by determinants
d. eliminations of arbitrary constants
13. This is defined by an equation containing one or more parameters together with the
coordinates of a point on the plane.
a. family of curves
c. straight lines
b. family of circles
d. conic
14. What type of polynomials where all terms have the same degree?
a. monomial
c. homogeneous polynomial
b. binomial
d. heterogeneous polynomial
15. This method is concerned with equations that are simple enough to find integrating factors
by inspection.
a. Bernoullis equation
c. by obvious substitution
b. by elimination
d. by inspection
16. States that the rate of changes of the temperature of a body immersed in a medium where
temperature differs from it is proportional to the differences between it and the medium.
a. Newtons law of cooling
b. Newtons law of acceleration
c. Newtons law of inertia
d. Newtons law of motion
17. What is a curve that is perpendicular to every curve of the family at all points where they
intersect?
a. hyperbola
c. parabola
b. ellipse
d. orthogonal trajectory
18. What is the test that determines if a set of solutions is linearly independent?
a, Wronskian
c. Mersenne Theorem
b. Bernoulli
d. Goldbach Theorem
19. Which of the following is one of the methods of determining the particular integral, Yp?
a. Bernoullis equation
c. by obvious substitution
b. by elimination
d. by inspection
20. As in this method of reduction of order, this method is applicable as long as the
complementary function is known.
a. method of undetermined coefficient
b. solution by inspection
c. method of variation of parameters
d. reduction of order

3. It is a type of variable if the derivative of its variable occurs:


a. ordinary
c. dependent
b. partial
d. independent
4. A variable is said to be _________ if one or more derivatives with respect to this particular
variable occurs in an equation.
a. ordinary
c. dependent
b. partial
d. independent
5. It is a type of solution that contains a number of arbitrary constants equal to the order of the
differential equation.
a. singular solution
c. general solution
b. particular solution
d. none of the above
6. A ________ is a solution of differential which cannot be obtained from the general solution by
a particular choice of arbitrary constants.
a. singular solution
c. general solution
b. particular solution
d. none of the above
7. What type of solution which does not have arbitrary constants?
a. singular solution
c. general solution
b. particular solution
d. none of the above

ENGINEERING MECHANICS
1. One joule of work is done by a force of Newton acting through a distance of:
a. one meter
c. a foot
b. one inch
d. one cm
2. The first derivative of kinetic energy with respect to time is :
a. power
c. momentum
b. work
d. force
3. What is the name of the vector that represents the sum of two vectors?
a. scalar
c. resultant
b. tensor
d. tangent
4. Represents the loss due to mechanical friction of the moving parts of the engine expressed
in hp as:
a. combined
c. brake
b. indicated
d. friction

5. The velocity of an object divided by the velocity of sound is called:


a. Micrelsons number
c. velocity factor
b. Plancks number
d. Mach number
6. Any influence capable in producing a change in the motion of an object is called:
a. force
c. acceleration
b. vector
d. velocity
7. Basic unit of length of the SI system:
a. meter
b. decimeter

c. millimeter
d. centimeter

8. The study of motion without reference to the forces which causes motion is known:
a. kinetics
c. kinematics
b. acceleration
d. motion
9, What is the unit of force in SI?
a. Joule
b. Newton

c. Watt
d. Hp

10. In the SI system of measurement, the base unit for pressure is:
a. Joule
c. Watt
b. Newton
d. Pascal
11. Why should a person weigh less on the moon than on the earth?
a. the force of earths gravity is greater than that of the moon
b. .the mass of the moon is smaller the mass of the earth
c. the moon is only a satellite of the earth
d. none of the above
12. What causes space capsules to become hot when they re-enter the earths atmosphere?
a. the firing of its rocket engine
b. earths atmosphere is hot
c. the friction of the air
d. all of these
13. At what angle does a projectile go farthest when fired?
a. 30 deg
c. 60 deg
b. 45 deg
d. 75 deg
14. Jun is standing on a weighing scale attached to the floor of an elevator which reads zero.
What does it indicate?
a. Jun is still accelerating
b. Jun is moving at constant speed
c. Jun is at rest
d. Jun is freely falling
15. Engineering mechanics is divided into subject classifications:
a. statics and kinetics
b. statics and dynamics
c. magnitude of force and directions of actions
d. internal and external effects of forces
16.What is the branch of mechanics which deals bodies in motion?
a. kinematics
c. statics
b. dynamics
d. kinetics
17. Newton was inspired by an apple; Pappus propositions were inspired by what fruits?
a. lemon and orange
c. apple and banana
b. apple and pear
d. apple and lemon
18. Work for energy can be a function of all of the following except:
a. force and distance
c. power and time
b. force and time
d. torque and angular rotation
19. Impulse and momentum principle is mostly useful for solving problems involving:
a. velocity, acceleration and time
b. force, velocity and time
c. force, acceleration and time
d. force, velocity and acceleration
20. Varignons theorem is used to determine ________________.
a. moment of inertia
c. location of centroid
b. mass moment of inertia
d. moment of area
21. An impulse causes:
a. the objects momentum to decrease
b. the objects momentum to increase
c. the objects momentum to change
d. the objects momentum to remain constant
22. Moment of inertia in SI is described as:
a. N-m
c. kg/m
b. N/m
d. farad/m
23. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
a. mass
c. displacement
b. torque
d. velocity
24. The product of force and time during which it acts is known as;
a. impulse
c. work
b. momentum
d. impact
25. The property of the body which measures its resistance to changes in motion:
a. acceleration
c. mass
b. weight
d. rigidity

26. The branch of physical science which deals with state of rest or motion of bodies
the action of forces is known as:
a. mechanics
c. kinematics
b. kinetics
d. statics

under

27. In physics, work is defined in terms of the force acting through a distance. The rate at which
work is done is called:
a. force
c. power
b. energy
d. momentum
28. The point through which the resultant of the distributed gravity force passes regardless of
the orientation of the body in space is known as:
a. center of inertia
c. center of attraction
b. center of gravity
d. moment of inertia
29. The momentum of moving object is the product of its mass and velocity. Newtons second
law of motion says that the rate of change of momentum with respect to time is:
a. power
c. momentum
b. energy
d. force
30. The dimension of acceleration x mass is the same unit as that of:
a. length
c. work
b. weight
d. section modulus
31. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces;
a. depends on the materials and the finish condition of the surface
b. depends only on the finish condition of the surfaces
c. does not depend on the materials
d. depends on the composition of the materials only
32. In the SI system the base unit for mass is:
a. kg
b. Newton

c. joule
d. Pascal

33. Kinematics is the study of _________ without reference to the forces that causes the body
to move.
a. motion
c. force
b. forces and motion
d. matter
34. Momentum is a property related to the objects _________.
a. mass and acceleration
c. motion and weight
b. weight and velocity
d. motion and mass
35. Which of the following is a measure of the inertia of the body?
a. weight
c. volume
b. density
d. mass
36. What are the three fundamental quantities?
a. volume, weight, time
c. density, mass, volume
b. length, mass, time
d. speed, distance, time
37. What is the speed of the projectile if it is at the top of its path?
a. unchanged
c. minimum
b. doubled
d. maximum
38. Which of the following is/are short range forces?
a. Gravitational force
c. weak nuclear force
b. electromagnetic force
d. strong nuclear force
39. What happens to the mechanical advantage of a lever if its effort distance increases?
a. increases
c. remains the same
b. decreases
d. becomes zero
40. What kind of energy is present whenever a body is at a distance from the ground?
a. elastic potential energy
c. electromagnetic potential energy
b. electric potential energy
d. gravitational potential energy
41. An objects acceleration a it starts to fall is:
a. equal to g
b. greater than g

c. less than g
d. zero

42. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?


a. acceleration
b. displacement

c. distance
d. velocity

43. What determines the pitch of sound?


a. amplitude
b. frequency

c. wavelength
d. speed

44. What law states that, within the elastic limit, strain is directly proportional to stress?
a. Ohms Law
c. Hookes Law
b. Lenzs Law
d. Coulombs Law
45. Any influence capable of producing of change in the motion of an object is:
a. force
c. velocity
b. vector
d. acceleration
FLUID MECHANICS
1.The measure of the fluids resistance when acted upon by an external force is called:
a. tackiness
c. flash point
b. density
d. viscosity
2. A leak from the faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main
cause of this phenomenon?
a. surface tension
c. air resistance
b. viscosity of the fluid
d. gravity

3. Reynolds number may be calculated for:


a. diameter, density and absolute viscosity
b. diameter, velocity and absolute viscosity
c. characteristic length, mass flow rate per unit area and absolute viscosity
d. diameter, velocity and surface tension
4. When a thin bore, hollow glass tube is inserted into a container of mercury, the surface of the
mercury in the tube:
a. is below the container surface due to adhesion
b. is below the container surface due to cohesion
c. is level with the surface of the mercury in the container
d. is above the container surface due to cohesion
5. Absolute viscosity is essentially independent of pressure and primarily dependent on:
a. temperature
c. specific gravity
b. density
d. velocity
6. The sum of the pressure head, elevation head and velocity head remains constant. This is
known as:
a. Boyles law
c. Archimedes Principle
b. Torricellis Theorem
d. Bernoullis Theorem
7. An instrument for measuring specific gravity of fluids:
a. hygrometer
c. flow meter
b.hydrometer
d. psychrometer
8. If one end of the manometer is open to the atmosphere, it is called:
a. open manometer
c. closed manometer
b. all of these
d. differential manometer
9. The phenomenon by which air enters a submerged suction pipe from the water surface is
called:
a. thixotropic
c. vortex
b. ditalant
d. vacuum
10. The chemicals added to oil to increase the resistance to oxidation:
a. viscous
c. additive
b. special oil
d. none of these
11. Turbulence is said to exist when:
a. cross current exist
b. streamline parallel in direction
c. pipe friction exist
d. the velocity distribution in cross section is uniform
12. The only liquid metal.
a. tin
b. manganese

a. all matter has mass


b. the density of ivory is unity
c. the specific gravity of ivory soap is greater than that of the water
d. the specific gravity of ivory soap is less than that of the water
23. How is pressure related to depth?
a. directly proportional
b. inversely proportional
c. no effect
d. equal to one another
24. Which of the following would float on water?
a. iron
c. wood
b. stone
d. mercury
25. Which of the following is the temperature at which the gas would no longer exert pressure?
a. Kelvin temperature
b. Celsius scale temperature
c. Absolute zero
d. Absolute temperature
26. Which of the following substances has the greatest specific heat/
a. aluminum
c. alcohol
b. glass
d. iron
27. A fluid flow at a constant velocity in a pipe. The fluid completely fills the pipe and the
Reynolds number is such that the flow is laminar. If all other parameters remain unchanged
and the viscosity of the fluid is decreased a significant amount, one would generally expect the
flow to:
a. not change
c. become more laminar
b. become turbulent
d. increase
28. The velocity of a liquid which discharges under a head is equal to the of a body which falls
in the same head.
a. Torrecellis Theorem
c. Archimedes Principle
b. Bernoullis Theorem
d. Continuity Principle
29.A body partly or wholly submerged in a liquid is buoyed up by a force equal to the weight of
the liquid displaced.
a. Torricellis Theorem
c. Archimedes Principle
b. Bernoullis Theorem
d. Continuity Principle
30. What is the rate at which viscosity changes with temperature?
a. viscosity
c. kinematic viscosity
b. viscosity index
d. dynamic viscosity

c. bronze
d. mercury
STRENGTHS OF MATERIALS

13. Fluid, which exhibits linear stress-strain rate relationship. If the shear stress in fluid varies
linearly with velocity gradient, which of the following describes the fluid?
a. it is a viscous fluid
b. it is a less viscous fluid
c. it is a Newtonian fluid
d. none of the above
14. The speed at which an exact model of the pump would have to run if it were designed to
deliver 1 gpm against 1 ft head per stage.
a. specific speed
c. rpm
b. linear speed
d. pump capacity
15. Which of the following flowmeters measure the average fluid velocity in a pipe rather than a
point or local velocity
a. humeter
c. speedometer
b. venture meter
d. flowmeter
16. In fluid dynamics, there is what we called conservation laws. One of the laws states that the
fluid mass is always conserved in fluid systems, regardless of the pipelines complexity
orientation of the flow or type of fluid flowing. The law is called:
a. conservation of mass
c. conservation of energy
b. conservation of volume
d. conservation of power
17. Water columns are usually designed for measuring small pressure above or below
atmospheric pressure. They can be used in air ducts, gas lines and the like. These pressure
measuring devices are called;
a. compound gages
c. pitot tubes
b. pressure gages
d. magnometer
18. In fluid flows, if the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of the individual
particles do not cross, the flow is said to be:
a. uniform
c. turbulent
b. laminar
d. critical
19. The unit of kinematic viscosity in SI is described as:
a. N/m
c. Pa-sec
b. W/m
d. m2 /sec
20. Which of the following is not a unit of viscosity?
a. Pa-sec
c. stoke
b. Poise
d. Dyne
21. Which of the following describes laminar flow?
a. NR=2180
c NR=. 4100
b. NR=1989
d. NR=2100
22. Ivory soap floats in water because:

1. What do you call the ratio of the unit deformation or strain in a transverse direction which
constant for stresses within the proportional limit?
a. Slenderness ratio
c. Poissons ratio
b. Mohrs circle
d. Hookes law
2. What kind of hardening will extent in the material? A hardening procedure in which an
austenitized ferrous workpiece is quenched into an appropriate medium.
a. quenching
c. tempering
b. martempering
d. none of these
3. It is the ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable stress.
a. proportional constant
c. modulus
b. strain
d. factor of safety
4. The property by virtue of which a body tends to return to its original size or shape after a
deformation and when the deforming forces have been removed.
a. elasticity
c. ductility
b. malleability
d. plasticity
5. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously withstand.
a. yield point
c. ultimate strength
b. bearing strength
d. point of rupture
6. In a cantilever beam with a concentrated load at the free end, the moment is;
a. constant along the beam
b. maximum at the walls
c. maximum halfway out on the beam
d. maximum at the free end
7. Inelastic collision is a collision in which the total kinetic energy after collision is ________
before collision.
a. equal to zero
c. less than
b. equal
d. greater than
8. Which of the following is not a method by which a single lap rivet joint usually fails?
a. the rivets shear
c. the rivets fails in tension
b. the rivets fall in bearing
d. the plate fails in tension
9. The distance that the top surface is displaced in the direction of the force divided by the
thickness of the body is known as:
a. longitudinal strain
c. shear strain
b. linear strain
d. volume strain
10. The constant of proportionality between stress and strain is called:
a. Hookes constant
c. Young modulus

b. elastance

d. spring constant

11. The distance that the top surface in the direction of the force divided by thickness of the
body is known as:
a. point of rupture
c. volume strain
b. shear strain
d. linear strain
12. The property of material wherein its content is continuously distributed through its entire
volume:
a. homogeneity
c. isotropy
b. anisotropy
d. scarcity
13. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously withstand:
a. point of rupture
c. ultimate strength
b. bearing strength
d. yield point
14. Stresses those are independent of load:
a. endurance stress
b. operating stress

c. shear stress
d. residual stress

15. A measure of the amount of light transmitted through a given material:


a. opacity
c. luminous transmittance
b. lubricity
d. isotropy
16. Ability of the material to withstand high-unit stress together with great unit strain.
a. resilience
c. malleability
b. toughness
d. ductility
17. Ability to resist deformation under stress.
a. rigidity
b. stiffness
18. Hardened steel parts have:
a. fine grains
b. coarse grains

c. elasticity
d. malleability
c. medium grains
d. none of the above

19. Cold working of materials:


a. increase the fatigue strength
b .decrease the fatigue strength
c. does not change fatigue strength
d. none of the above
20. Finding the resultant of two or more forces is called:
a. coplanar forces
b. non-planar forces

c. modulus of elasticity
d. modulus of rigidity

34. The frictional forces depend on coefficient of friction and:


a. torque
c. normal force
b. weight of object
d. moment
35. The number of cycles required to cause failure for given stress level.
a. endurance
c. fatigue
b. fatigue life
d. rupture
36. Two or more forces acting together could be replaced by a single force with the same effect
in a mass:
a. couple forces
c. resultant
b. resolution of forces
d. concurrent forces
37. At a given section of a beam the maximum bending stress occurs at the ________.
a. maximum shear stress area
b. neutral axis
c. web joint near the flange
d. outermost fiber
38. The property that characterizes a materials ability to be drawn into a wire.
a. plasticity
c. ductility
b. elasticity
d. utility
39. Stress relieving is also __________ for the purpose of reducing the internal stress of
steel/material.
a. quenching
c. tempering
b. normalizing
d. drawing
40. Steel balls for ball bearings are manufactured by:
a. turning
b. rolling

c. casting
d. cold heading

41. Under which type of loading does fatigue occur?


a. static load
b. plane load

c. high load
d. repeated load

42. The ability of a material to absorb energy when deformed elastically and to return it when
unloaded.
a. creep
c. toughness
b. hardness
d. resilience
c. couple
d. composition of forces

21. The best instrument for measuring a thousand of an inch:


a. micrometer
c. caliper
c. tachometer
d. pyrometer
22. Is permissible variation of a size of a dimension:
a. tolerance
b. allowance

c. clearance
d. interference

23. Which is the lightest metal?


a. lead
b. GI sheet

c. aluminum
d. cast iron

24. The property of material that permits it to be only slightly deformed without rupture:
a. ductility
c. toughness
b. brittleness
d. resilience
25. Which micrometer has no anvil?
a. outside micrometer
b. digit micrometer

a. shear elasticity
b. Poissons ratio

c. depth micrometer
d. screw thread micrometer

26. The differential of the shear equation is which one of the following?
a. load on the beam
b. tensile strength of beam
c. bending moment of the beam
d. slope of the elastic curve
27. Steels can be strengthened by all of the following practices, except:
a. annealing
c. quenching and tempering
b. work hardening
d. grain refinement
28. Hardened steel parts have:
a. fine grains
b. coarse grains

c. medium grains
d. none of the above

29. Which is the lightest metal?


a. TIG
b. MIG

c. hardening
d. soldering

43. If a material recovers its original dimensions, when the load is removed, it is called:
a. plastic
c. brittle
b. elastic
d. annealed
44. What is the metal characteristic to withstand forces that cause twisting?
a. torsional strength
c. modulus of elasticity
b. twisting moment
d. elasticity
45. The capacity of metal to withstand load without breaking.
a. strength
c. elasticity
b. stress
d. strain
46. The gradual chemical reaction by other substance such that metal is converted to an oxide
or other compounds.
a. corrosion
c. rusting
b. cheaping
d. weathering
47. The center of gravity of a solid pyramid or cone with a total height of H is:
a. H
c. 1/3 H
b. 3/5 H
d. H
48. The three moment equation maybe used to analyze:
a. a continuous beam
b. a beam loaded at the third points
c. a step tapered column
d. a three element composite beam
49. Principal stresses occur on those planes
a. where the shearing stress is zero
b. which are 45 apart
c. where the shearing stress is maximum
d. which are subjected only to compression
50. A ductile fracture is characterized by
a. rapid rate of crank propagation
b. negligible deformation
c. fragmentation into more than two pieces
d. appreciable plastic deformation prior to propagation of crank
ENGINEERING ECONOMICS

30. The ratio of the stress on an elastic substance to the decrease in volume per unit volume
a. bulk modulus
c. volumetric ratio
b. Poissons ratio
d. modulus of resilience
31. Structural steel elements subjected to torsion develop
a. tensile stress
b. compressive stress

c. shearing stress
d. moment

32. Fast process of analyzing all elements and chemical components of steel casting:
a. pyrometer
c. wet analyzer
b. carbon analyzer
d. spectrometer
33. Shear modulus is also:

1. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid and the debt be
repaid at a specific place and time.
a. discount
c. working capital
b. cash flow
d. borrowed capital
2. The difference between sales revenue and the cause of goods sold.
a. rate of return
c. gross profit
b. net income
d. gross national product
3. The amount of a companys profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to
distribute ordinary shareholders.
a. dividend
c. share stock

b. par value

d. return

4. A document that shows proof of legal ownership of a financial security.


a. coupon
c. bank note
b. bond
d. check
5. Total amount spent on a physical property until the property put into operation.
a. first cost
c. sunk cost
b. marginal cost
d. incremental cost
6. Gross, profit, sales less cost of goods sold as percentage of sale.
a. gross margin
c. profit machine
b. rate of return
d. price earnings
7. The exclusive right of the company to provide specific product/services in a given region of
the country.
a. outlet
c. branch
b. franchise
d. extension
8. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product that action of one will lead
almost the same action by the other.
a. oligopoly
c. monopoly
b. semi-monopoly
d. perfect competition
9. The length of time during which it is capable of performing the function for which it was
designed and manufactured.
a. business life
c. physical life
b. economic life
d. insular life
10. The series of equal payment at equal intervals of time.
a. interest
b. depreciation

c. annuity
d. postulate

11. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning from
the first period.
a. annuity due
c. deferred annuity
b. ordinary annuity
d. perpetuity
12. The first cost of any property includes
a. installation expenses
b. the original purchase price and freight and transportation charges
c. initial taxes and permits fee
d. all of these
13. Fall after the increase reaches a certain variable amount
a. inflation
c. law of supply and demand
b. process factors
d. law of diminishing returns
14. Ratio of the annual revenues to the annual expenses.
a. benefit ratio
b. rate of return

c. benefit-cost ratio
d. income ratio

15. Cost which arise as a result of a change in operations or policy.


a. integral cost
c. differential cost
b. incremental cost
d. variable cost
16. The function of interest rate and time determines the cumulative amount of sinking fund
resulting from specific periodic deposits.
a. capacity factor
c. demand factor
b. sinking fund factor
d. present worth factor
17. Funds supplied and used by owners of an enterprise in the expectation that profit will be
earned.
a. present
c. working capital
b. investment
d. equity capital

25. What do you call a currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand is
consistently high in relation to its supply?
a. certificate of deposit
c. hard currency
b. money market
d. treasury bill
26. What is the recorded current value of an asset?
a. salvage value
b. book value

c. present worth
d. scrap value

27. Type of organization where the assistant of the executive are appointed to attend to
function as a staff.
a. corporation
c. line organization
b. cartel
d. lien and staff
28. __________ is simply a measure of how much a product costs to make.
a. net expense
c. gross margin
b. sales
d. gross sales
29. The decrease in value of a certain property due to the gradual extraction of its contents.
a. depreciation
c. depletion
b. diminishing returns
d. depression
30. Which of the following is not considered?
a. manufacturing cost
b. schedule expenses

c. profit and loss statement


d. balance sheet

31. It is a sharp sudden increase in money or credit or both without corresponding increase in
business transactions.
a. deflation
c. inflation
b. subrogation
d. resultant
32. The hire of any person to do whatever work he is skilled in doing.
a. promotion cost
c. salary cost
b. material cost
d. labor cost
33. A cash flow that represents each year for n years without change in amount, its symbol is A
and its factor is (F/A).
a. sinking fund
c. annual amount
b. annuity
d. EAC
34. The length of time, usually in years, for the cumulative net profit to equal the initial
investment.
a. pay-back period
c. return on investment
b. break-even point
d. receivable turn-over
35. Series of equal payments at equal time interval.
a. annuity
b. depreciation

c. amortization
d. bond

36. Share of participation of a corporation.


a. partnership
b. stock

c. franchise
d. corporation

37. A provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment of material cost and labor
cost.
a. secondary clause
c. escalatory clause
b. specification
d. general provision
38. A tax on imports.
a. export tax
b. import tax

c. export tariff
d. import tariff

39. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.


a. investment
c. capital
b. assets
d. total capital

18. What is the form of fixed-interest governments, companies, banks or other institutions?
They are usually a form of a long security, but may be imdeemable, secured or unsecured.
a. certificate of deposit
c. stock
b. bonds
d. T-bills

40. Kind of obligation which has no conditions attached.


a. deal
b. agreement

19. Bonds whose security behind them is mortgage on certain specified assets of the
corporation.
a. debenture
c. mortgage
b. collateral trust
d. joint

41. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.
a. demand
c. stocks
b. supply
d. goods

20. What do you call an increase in the value of a capital asset?


a. capital expenditure
c. capital stock
b. capital gain
d. profit

42. The place where buyers and sellers come together.


a. market
b. business

c. recreation center
d. buy and sell section

21. It is the depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit does not change
each year.
a. sinking fund method
c. SYD method
b. Matheson method
d. straight line method

43. What is the work-in process classified as:


a. a revenue
b. a liability

c. an expense
d. an asset

22. What is the market situation wherein there is only one seller with many buyers?
a. monopoly
c. oligopoly
b. oligopsony
d. monopsony
23. What is the interest rate at which the present worth of the cash fl0ow on the project is zero
of the interest earned by an investment?
a. effective rate
c. yield
b. nominal rate
d. rate of return
24. The estimated value at the end of the useful life.
a. compounded annually
b. salvage value

c. face value
d. economic life

c. gratuitous
d. favor

44. Damages that specified in the contract to insure that if the contract becomes disputed, the
amount of damages are agreed upon in advance.
a. liquidated damages
c. general damages
b. nominal damages
d. special damages
45. Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
a. deflation cost
b. discount

c. interest
d. overhead cost

46. An index of short term paying ability.


a. receivable turnover
b. acid-test ratio

c. current ratio
d. profit margin ratio

47. Intangible assets of a corporation or company.

a. investment
b. dacion-en-pago

c. equity
d. patents

48. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less than depreciation.
a. scrap value
c. earning value
b. book value
d. face value
49. Cash money credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise.
a. funds
c. capital
b. assets
d. liabilities
50. Additional information to perspective bidders on contract documents issued prior to bidding
date.
a. delicts
c. technological assessment
b. bid bulletin
d. escalatory clause
51. A civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person or his property
or reputation.
a. tort
c. negligence
b. material breach
d. fraud

69. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money
is available after the required necessities have been obtained.
A. utilities
c. luxuries
b. necessities
d. producer goods and services
70. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.
a. discount
c. utility
b. luxuries
d. necessity

THERMODYNAMICS
1. If a process is carried out in such a manner that at every instant, the system departs only
infinitesimally from an equilibrium state.
a. isentropic process
c. throttling process
b. non-flow process
d. quasi-static process

52. The highest space in the organizational chart of a corporation.


a. board of directors
c. chairman
b. president
d. quasi-delict

2. It is impossible to operate a cyclic device in such a manner that the sole effect is the transfer
of heat from heat reservoir to another at a higher temperature.
a. Third Law of Thermodynamics
b. Claussius statement
c. Kelvin-Planck statement
d. First Law of Thermodynamics

53. Penal provision of a contract to compensate for the losses incurred by one party due to the
failure to comply with contract provisions.
a. dacion-en-pago
c. liquidated damages
b. force majeure
d. quasi-delict

3. Amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one pound of that substance one degree
Fahrenheit.
a. BTU
c. Calorie
b. Sensible heat
d. Centigrade heat unit

54. If a cost is a function of the independent variable, the cost is said to be a:


a. incremental cost
c. direct cost
b. fixed cost
d. variable cost

4. An open system, first law should be utilized for all the following, except;
a. a turbine
b. a pump
c. a piston-cylinder device with no inlet and exhaust valves
d. a nozzle

55. Cost of things that are neither labor nor material.


a. investment
b. construction cost

c. expenses
d. labor cost

56. A series of equal payments occurring at me3qual periods of time.


a. installment
c. amortization
b. perpetuity
d. annuity
57. Decrease in value of a physical property with passage of time.
a. valuation
c. depletion
b. depreciation
d. interest
58. Association of two or more individuals for the purpose of operating a business as coowners of a profit.
a. organization
c. partnership
b. company
d. corporation

5. An increase in heat enthalpy of a substance where it undergoes a change of phase at a


constant pressure and temperature.
a. heat of fusion
b. heat of transformation
c. heat of crystallization
d. heat of vaporization
6. An ideal gas is contained in a rigid container. There is no work of a rotating shaft associated
with a container. Any heat transfer is a function of:
a. pressure
b. heat transfer to work
c. volume only
d. temperature only

59. A legally binding agreement between two personalities having an agreement.


a. sign-up
c. contract
b. agreement
d. deal

7. A very important consequence of the ideal gas model is that the internal energy of an ideal
gas is a function of ___________ only.
a. pressure
c. point function
b. temperature
d. volume

60. Profit margin ratio is the percentage of each peso of sales that is net income and the profit
margin is equal to:
a. Rate of return
b. net income before taxes/net sales
c. price earnings
d. net income owners equity

8. A thermodynamic system which undergoes a cyclic process during a positive amount of work
is done by the system.
a. heat engine
b. heat pump
c. reversible- irreversible process
d. reversed rankine cycle

61. Worth of property as shown on the accounting records of an enterprise.


a. use value
c. market value
b. fair value
d. book value

9. On what plane is the Mollier diagram plotted?


a. h s
b. p T

62. A diagram drawn to help visualize and simplify problem having diverse receipts and
disbursements.
a. budget
c. year-end-convention
b. investment
d. cash-flow

10. In any non quasistatic thermodynamic properties, the overall entropy of an isolated
system will
a. increase only
b. increase and then decrease
c. stay the same
d. decrease and then increase

63. Form of business/company ownership.


a. corporation
b. a,b,c

c. partnership
d. single proprietorship

64. The peso amount as earned from investment or project.


a. ROI
c. interest
b. surplus
d. ROR
65. Modes of extinguishing obligations when creditor abandons his right to collect.
a. condonation
c. debt cancellation
b. forfeiture
d. liquidated damages
66. Instead of the profits being paid out to the stockholders or owner as dividends, they are
retained in the business and used to finance expansion.
a. retained earnings
c. bonds
b. flow back
d. deposits
67. A market where is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods substitution.
a. monopsony
c. monopoly
b. oligopoly
d. oligopsony
68. A condition where only few individuals produce a certain product and that any action of one
will lead to almost the same action to others.
a. oligopoly
c. monopoly
b. semi-monopoly
d. perfect competition

c. p V
d. s - u

11. Cryogenics ranges in temperature from:


a. -150 to -3000F
b. -250 to -4950F

c. 50 to 1500F
d. -50 to -1000F

12. Sound travels fastest in


a. steel at 700F
b. air at 70 0F and 1 atm

c. air at 00F and 1 atm


d. air at 70 0F and 0 psi

13. The gas from sludge digestion tanks is mainly composed of.
a. hydrogen sulfide
c. nitrogen
b. carbon dioxide
d. methane
14. A feedwater treatment process which involves sedimentation, coagulation and filtration:
a. mechanical treatment
c. thermal treatment
b. chemical treatment
d. all of these
15. The type of vibration which is caused by fluctuating vertical couples which tends to make
the ends of the engine rise and fall:
a. pitching
c. bleaching
b. blanking
d. splitting
16. The total kinetic energy of all the molecules of an object.
a. temperature
c. calorie
b. heat
d. pressure

17. Why does a cube of ice float in water?


a. ice has lower temperature than water
b. The density of ice is lesser than water
c. there are more water than ice
d. none of the above
18. The number of calories needed to warm up 1 g of any substance by 10 C is called
_________.
a. boiling point
c. specific heat
b. absolute temperature
d. Btu
19. Measures the average kinetic energy of molecules.
a. temperature
b. heat

c. calorie
d. pressure

20. States that pressure applied to a confined fluid acts equally in all directions.
a. Pascals Principle
c. Boyles Law
b. Archimedes Principle
d. Daltons Law
21. The quality x, the liquid-vapor is
a. the ratio of the total volume that is saturated liquid
b. the ratio of the total mass that is saturated vapor
c. the ratio of the total volume that is saturated vapor
d. the ratio of the total mass that is saturated liquid
22. What is the equipment in air conditioning plant is applied for the heating and ventilation,
usually used the motion?
a. blower
c. separator
b. filter
d. humidifier
23. The ratio of heat removed to the work needed to remove heat.
a. Carnot cycle ratio
c. volumetric ratio
b. compression ratio
d. COP

37. Which of the statements is true?


a. entropy always decreases
b. entropy increases up to the critical temperature then it decreases
c. theoretically, entropy may be zero at a less enough temperature
d. entropy does not change in a throttling process
38. What is the standard temperature in the US?
a. Fahrenheit
c. Celsius
b. Rankine
d. Kelvin
39. 1 torr is equivalent to a pressure of ________.
a. 1 atm
c. 14.7 psi
b. 2 mm Hg
d. 1/760 atm
40. 1 calorie is equivalent to:
a. 4.187 J
b. 252 Btu

c. 4. 187 kJ
d. 778 ft-lb

41. What is the temperature at which water freezes using the Kelvin scale?
a. 373
c. 237
b. 273
d. 406
42. The SI unit of temperature is:
a. 0F
b. 0K

c. 0Btu
d. 0R

43. The energy that changes the phase of a substance.


a. specific
c. latent
b. fusion
d. sensible
44. The second law of thermodynamics states that:
a. entropy cannot be neither created nor destroyed
b. heat energy cannot be completely transformed into work
c. there is no tendency towards spontaneous change
d. mass is indestructible

24. One horsepower is equivalent to:


a. 746 watts
b. 7460 watts

c. 74.6 watts
d. 7.46 watts

45. What is the value of work done for a closed, reversible isometric system?
a. positive or negative
c. positive
b. negative
d. zero

25. What is the equivalent of one horsepower?


a. 746 W
b. 3141 kw

c. 33 000 ft-lb/min
d. 2545 Btu/lb

46. The ratio of the weight of the water vapor mixed with a kg of dry air to the weight of
saturated vapor at the same temperature mixed with a kg of dry air.
a. relative humidity
c. humidity ratio
b. saturation ratio
d. specific density

26. What is the equivalent temperature in deg K of boiling point of water?


a. 1000 K
c. 3730 K
b. 2730 K
d. 4000 K
27. One Btu equals 778.2 ft-lb of mechanical energy is
a. mechanical equivalent of heat
b. calorie
c. refrigerating
d. latent heat of fusion
28. g = 32.2 ft/sec2. How is it expressed in SI?
a. 9.81 m/s2
b. 9.86 m/s2

48. The equilibrium temperature that a regular thermometer measures if exposed to


atmospheric air is:
a. wet bulb temp
c. dew point
b. dry bulb temp
d. 0C
c. 9.08 m/s2
d. 9.91 m/s2

29.In steady flow system, the mass of the working substance is


a. always conserved
c. constant
b. not equal
d. infinity
30. What is the Centigrade equivalent of 212 deg F?
a. 2000 C
b. 1800 C

c. 1000 C
d. 1200 C

31. Which is true about water as a reference temperature when or if enthalpy is zero/
a. vapor pressure zero c. internal energy is negative
b. entropy is non-zero d. specific volume is zero
32. The English unit of gravitational constant is:
a. 32.2 ft/sec2
c. 9.81 ft/sec2
b. 28.97 ft/sec2
d. 3.28 ft/sec2
33. If PV is assumed to be constant, is what law?
a. Charles law
c. Boyles law
b. Constant Temperature
d. Thermodynamic law
34. The top most ring in a piston.
a. compression ring
b. oil ring

47. If an initial volume of saturated steam is expanded isothermally to twice the initial volume,
the pressure:
a. halves
c. increases
b. remains the same
d. decreases

c. piston ring
d. shaft ring

35. What is the gauge used to measure 0.001 to 1 atm?


a. barometer
c. psychrometer
b.hydrometer
d. mercury manometer
36. An adiabatic process:
a. allows heat transfer into the system but not out of the system
b. allows heat transfer out of the system but not into the system
c. maybe reversible
d. is one in which enthalpy remains unchanged

49. The system is said to be in thermodynamically equilibrium:


a. when there is no tendency towards spontaneous change
b. when all its parts are at the same temperature
c. if it has no tendency to undergo further chemical reaction
d. when the system is not accelerating
50. In energy transformation process in which the resultant condition lacks the driving potential
needed to reverse the process, the measure of this loss is expressed as:
a. entropy decrease of the system
b. specific heat ratio of the system
c. entropy increase of the system
d. enthalpy increase of the system
51. Entropy is the measure of
a. the change in enthalpy of the system
b. the heat capacity of the substance
c. randomness or disorder
d. the internal energy of gas
52. In the flow process, neglecting KE and PE changes, -V dP represents what?
a. enthalpy change
c. shaft work
b. flow energy
d. heat transfer
53. The temperature of air that has gone through an adiabatic saturation process.
a. Kelvin temperature
c. dew point temperature
b. boiling temperature
d. wet bulb temperature
54. ( u + pv ) is a quantity
a. flow energy
b. shaft work

c. enthalpy
d. internal energy

55. An adiabatic process with no work done.


a. isometric
b. throttling

c. isobaric
d. polytrophic

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