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b. pico
ALGEBRA
d. deka
c. Tera
d. Hexa
c. real number
d. complex number
27. In a quadratic equation if the quantity under the radical is equal to 0, the roots are :
a. imaginary number
c. complex and unequal
b. real and unequal
d. real and equal
28. 10 to the 12 th power is the value of the prefix:
a. micro
c. tera
b.femto
d. atto
29. How many significant digits do 10.097 have?
a. 2
b. 3
30. Log M log N is equal to:
a. Log MN
b. Log (M N)
c. 4
d. 5
c. Log M / N
d. Log (N M)
8. What is a statement containing one or more variables and having the property that it
becomes either true or false when the variables are given specific values from their domains?
a. worded problems
c. solution
b. problem
d. open sentence
9. What is the difference between an approximate value of a quantity and its exact value?
a. mistake
c. relative change
b. absolute error
d. relative error
32. Convergent series is a sequence of decreasing numbers or when the succeeding term is
__________ than the preceding term.
a. greater
c. equal
b. none of these
d. lesser
c. nano
33. A sequence of numbers where the succeeding term is greater than the preceding term is
called:
a. dissonant series
c. isometric series
b. convergent series
d. divergent series
34. In complex algebra, we use diagram to represent complex plane commonly called:
a. Argand diagram
c. Funicular diagram
b. Venn diagram
d. DMoivers diagram
35. The graphical representation of the cumulative frequency distribution in a set of statistical
data is called:
a. ogive
c. frequency distribution
b. histogram
d. mass diagram
36. Terms that differs only numeric coefficients are called:
a. unequal terms
c. like terms
b. unlike terms
d. equal terms
37. In mathematics, an array of m x n quantities which represent a single number system
composed of elements in rows and columns is known as:
a. determinant
c. adjoint of a matrix
b. inverse matrix
d. multiple matrix
38. The characteristic is equal to the exponent 10, when the number is written in:
a. exponential
c. logarithmic
b. scientific notation
d. irrational
39. The number 0.123123123123 is:
a. irrational
c. rational
b. surd
d. transcendental
40. Two or more equations are equal if and only if they have the same:
a. solution set
c. order
b. degree
d. variable set
41. In any square matrix, when the elements of any two rows are exactly the same, the
determinant is:
a. zero
c. negative integer
b. positive integer
d. unity
42. The ratio or product of two expressions in direct or inverse relation with each other is called:
a. ratio and proportion
c. means
b. constant variation
d. extremes
43. The logarithm of a number to the base e is called:
a. Naperian logarithm
c. Mantissa
b. Characteristic
d. Briggsian proportion
44. ___________ is a sequence of terms whose reciprocals form an Arithmetic progression.
a. Naperian progression
c. algebraic progression
b. harmonic progression
d. ration and proportion
b. 10
45. The logarithm of 1 to any base is:
a. indeterminate
c. infinity
b. one
d. zero
d. 1
c. central tendency
d. dispersion
c. proportion
d. postulate
c. rhombus
d. recession
c. square
d. trapezoid
4. A plane closed curve, all points of which are the same distance from a point within,
called the center is:
a. hyperbola
c. ellipse
b. circle
d. parabola
5. If equals are added to equals, the sum is equal.
a. theorem
c. axiom
b. postulate
d. corollary
6. A statement the truth of which follows with little or no proof from a theorem.
a. axiom
c. conclusion
b. hypothesis
d. corollary
7. A rectangle whose sides are equal.
a. square
b. trapezoid
c. rhombus
d. parallelogram
c. polygon
d. circle
c. triangle
d. pentagon
10. The volume of a circular cylinder is equal to the product of the base and altitude.
a. axiom
c. theorem
b. postulate
d. corollary
11. The study of the properties of figures of three dimensions.
a. physics
c. solid geometry
b. plane geometry
d. trigonometry
12. One fourth of a great circle.
a. cone
b. circle
c. quadrant
d. sphere
c. square
d. circumference
c. 4
d. 8
15. When two planes intersect with each other, the amount of divergence between two
planes is expressed by measuring the:
a. dihedral angle
c. polyhedral angle
b. plane angle
d. reflex angle
16. In plane geometry, the apothem of a polygon is what of the inscribed circle.
a. area
c. arc
b. diameter
d. radius
17. A five pointed star is known as:
a. pentagon
b. pentatron
c. pentagram
d. quintagram
18. The median of a triangle is the line connecting the vertex and the midpoint of the opposite
side. For a given triangle, these medians intersect at a point which is called the:
a. orthocenter
c. centroid
b. circumcenter
d. incenter
19. The altitude of the sides of the triangle intersect at the point known as:
a. orthocenter
c. centroid
b. circumcenter
d. incenter
20. The arc length equal to the radius of the circle is called:
a. 1 radian
b. 1 quarter circle
c. centroid
d. incenter
b. prism
d. primatoid
c. areas
d. bases
a. tangent
b. secant
c. sector
d. segment
c. concurrent
d. congruent
24. When two planes intersect with each other, the amount of divergence between two
planes is expressed by measuring the:
a. reflex angle
c. polyhedral angle
b. dihedral angle
d. plane angle
c. concurrent
d. congruent
47. A quadrilateral whose opposite sides are equal is generally termed as:
a. square
c. rhombus
b. rectangle
d. parallelogram
c. diagonals
d. angles
26. In plain geometry, two circular arcs that together make up a full circle are called:
a. coterminal arcs
c. half arcs
b. conjugate arcs
d. congruent arcs
48. A line that meets a plane but no perpendicular to it, in relation to the plane is:
a. parallel
c. coplanar
b. collinear
d. oblique
49. A quadrilateral with two and only two sides of which are parallel is called:
a. parallelogram
c. quadrilateral
b. trapezoid
d. rhombus
28. A plane closed curve, all points which are the same distance from a point within, called the
center.
a. arc
c. circle
b. radius
d. chord
c. quadrant
d. sphere
c. pentedecagon
d. nonagon
c. isosceles triangle
d. right triangle
TRIGONOMETRY
1. To find the angle of a triangle, given only the lengths of the sides, one would use:
a. law of tangent
c. orthogonal function
b. law of sines
d. law of cosines
31. All circles having the same center but with unequal radii are called:
a. encircles
c. concyclic
b. tangent circles
d. concentric circles
2. Which is true regarding the signs of the natural functions for angles between 90 deg and 180
deg?
a. cosine is negative
c. cotangent is positive
b. sine is negative
d. tangent is positive
c. icosahedron
d. dodecagon
33. A polyhedron having bases two polygons in parallel planes and for lateral faces triangles or
trapezoids with one side lying one base and the opposite vertex or side lying in the other
baseof a polyhedron:
a. rectangular parallelepiped
c. pyramid
b. cone
d. prismatoid
34. According to this theorem, the volume of a solid generated by revolving an area about a
given line is equal to the area multiplied by the circumference of the circle traced by the
centroid of an area.
a. first proposition of pappus
b. fermats theorem
c. strokes theorem
d. second proposition of pappus
35. A line segment joining two points on a circle is called:
a. arc
c. sector
b. tangent
d. chord
36. If a regular polygon has 27 diagonals, then it is a:
a. nonagon
c. heptagon
b. hexagon
d. pentagon
37. In a regular, polygon, the perpendicular line drawn from the center of the inscribed circle to
any one of the sides is called:
a. apothem
c. radius
b. median
d. altitude
38. A polygon with 12 sides is called:
a. bidecagon
b. nonagon
c. dodecagon
d. pentedecagon
39. Two geometric shapes are said to be _________ when they have the same size and
shapes.
a. identical
c. similar
b. symmetrical
d. congruent
40. In plane geometry, two circular arcs that together make up a full circle are called:
a. coterminal arcs
c. half arcs
b. conjugate arcs
d. congruent arcs
41. A line drawn from one angle of a triangle dividing its opposite side equally into two.
a. bisector
c. median
b. apothem
d. neutral axis
42. A polygon is ________ if no side , when extended, will pass through the interior of a
polygon.
a. convex
c. isoperimetric
b. equilateral
d. congruent
c. 45 deg
d. 180 deg
c. 270 deg
d. 360 deg
c. trapezoid
d. trapezium
c. greater
d. greater than 180 deg
10. An angle more than pi radian but not less than 2 pi radians is:
a. straight angle
c. reflex angle
b. obtuse angle
d. related angle
11. Given the general triangle ABC with a, b, c. Which of the following statements is not
applicable in solving general triangle?
a. Sin A/a = Sin B/b = Sin C/c
b. Sin A/b = Sin B/c = Sin C/a
c. a2 = b2 + c2 2bc (Cos A)
d. Area = ab Sin C
12. In general triangles the expressions (sin A)/a= (sin B)/b = (sin C/ (sin B)/b = (sin C/ ) is
called:
a. the laws of sines
c. law of cosines
b. Eulers formula
d. Pythagorean theorem
13. One radian is equivalent to;
a. 52 deg
b. 45 deg
c. 90 deg
d. 57.3 deg
14. Angles are measured from the positive horizontal axis, and the positive direction is
counterclockwise. What are the values of sin B and cos B in the 4th quadrant?
a. sin B > 0 and the cos B < 0
b. sin B > 0 and the cos B > 0
c. sin B < 0 and the cos B < 0
d. sin B < 0 and the cos B > 0
43. The section of the sphere cut by a plane through its center is termed as:
a. small circle
c. big circle
b. incircle
d. great circle
c. tan (A B)
d. cos 2(A B)
a. III and IV
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. II and IV
3. The sum of the distances from the two foci to any point in a/an ________ is a constant.
a. parabola
c. hyperbola
b. any conic
d. ellipse
18. Its magnitude is the product of the length by the cosine of its bearing:
a. latitude
c. hypotenuse
b. departure
d. legs
19. The horizontal distance between two points on the surface of the earth:
a. tangent
c. diameter
b. x-axis
d. straight
20. The angle which the line of sight to the object makes with the horizontal which is above the
eye of the observer is called:
a. angle of depression
c. acute angle
b. angle of elevation
d. bearing
21. The tangent function is negative in quadrant:
a. I and III
c. I and IV
b. IV only
d. III only
5. If the general equation of the conic is Ax2 + Bx + Cy2 + Dx + Ey + F = 0 and B2 4AC > 0,
then the conic is:
a. circle
c. ellipse
b. parabola
d. hyperbola
6. All circles having the same center but with unequal radii are called:
a. tangent circles
c. eccentric circles
b. unequal circles
d. concentric circles
7. The general second degree equation has the form Ax2 + Bxy + Cy2 + Dx + Ey + F = 0 and
describes an ellipse if:
a. B2 4AC = 0
c. B2 4AC > 0
b. B2 4AC = 1
d. B2 4AC< 0
8. The equation x2 + By + y2 + Cy + D =0 is:
a. hyperbola
b. ellipse
c. two-point form
d. point-intercept form
c. parabola
d. circle
9. The equation of the straight line is y = mx + b, where m is the slope and b is the intercept. If
two straight lines are perpendicular their slopes are:
a. negative
c. positive
b. equal
d. negative reciprocals
10. If eccentricity is less than one, then the curve is:
a. parabola
b. ellipse
c. hyperbola
d. circle
c. cardiod
d. three-leaf rose
12. ___________ is the locus of a point that moves in a plane of that the difference of the
distances from two fixed points of the plane is constant.
a. hyperbola
c. circle
b. ellipse
d. parabola
13. If the product of the slopes of any two straight lines is negative 1, one of these lines are
said to be:
a. parallel
c. perpendicular
b. skew
d. non-intersecting
14. In an ellipse, a chord which contains a focus and is in a line perpendicular to the major axis
is a:
a. latus rectum
c. conjugate axis
b. minor axis
d. focal width
15. If all the y- terms have even exponents, the curve is symmetric with respect to the
__________.
a. x-axis
c. y-axis
b. origin
d. line 45 deg with the axis
16. The graph of r = a + b cos is a:
a. lemniscate
b. cardoid
c. limacon
d. littus
c. abscissa
d. secant line
18. If an equation is unchanged by the substitution of x for x and y for y simultaneously, its
curve is symmetrical with respect to the:
a. x-axis
c. y-axis
b. origin
d. line 45 deg with x-axis
33. The angle which the line of sight to the object, makes with the horizontal, which is above
the eye of the observer is called;
a. angle of depression
c. acute angle
b. angle of elevation
d. bearing
19. When an ellipse is revolved about its major axis, we form a solid known as:
a. elliptical paraboloid
c. prolate spheroid
b. oblate spheroid
d. spherical hyperboloid
20. Av point where the concavity of a curve changes or when the slope of the curve is neither
increasing nor decreasing is known as:
a. maximum point
c. point of tangency
b. minimal point
d. inflection point
ANALYTIC GEOMETRY
1. What is the line that intersects two or more lines at distinct points?
a. median
c. transversal
b. tangent line
d. bisector
2. What solid figure that has many faces?
a. octagon
b. decagon
c. polygon
d. polyhedron
21. The ratio of the distance between the foci to the distance between the vertices in either
hyperbola or ellipse is called:
a. aperture number
c. acceptance number
b. eccentricity
d. kurtosis
22. In quadratic equation where the discriminant is equal to zero and the eccentricity is equal to
one, the conic section formed when graphically drawn will be a;
a. ellipse
c. parabola
b. hyperbola
d. circle
23. The parabola y = -x2 + x + 1 opens:
a. to the left
b. upward
c. to the right
d. downward
c. infinity
b. one
d. indeterminate
DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
1. This is set of ordered pairs (x,y) where x belongs to one set and y belongs to another set.
a. function
c. relation
b. functional relation
d. solution
2. It is a relation in which any two distinct ordered pairs do not have the same first coordinate.
a. function
c. relation
b. functional relation
d. solution
b. indeterminate
d. infinity
independent
INTEGRAL CALCULUS
1. The process of the finding the function when its derivative is given is called:
a. differentiation
c. implicit function
b. explicit function
d. integration
2. The function F(x) is called ____________ of f(x) if F(x) = f (x):
a. explicit function
c. implicit function
b. antiderivative
d. derivative
3. The integral of a function between certain limits divided by the difference in abcissas
between those limits gives the ___________ of the function.
a. average
c. middle
b. intercept
d. asymptote
4. Wallis formula is applicable only when the limits are from zero to:
a. pi
b. 2pi
c. pi/2
d. pi/3
3. What is the geometric representation of all the points that satisfy the given function or
equation?
a. y-axis
c. origin
b. x-axis
d. graph of the function
5. This method of solution is used when the given integral cannot be solved directly.
a. integration by solution
c. integration by partial fraction
b, integration by parts
d. none of these
6. What do you call the analysis of point and curves that is usually done using a system?
a. polar coordinates
c. hyperbolic function
b. trigonometric function
d. exponential function
5. The limit of c/x or in general of c/xn where n is a positive integer, as x approaches infinity is;
a. zero
c. one
a. lemnicates
b. limacons
c. cardiods
d. rose or petal curves
8. The graph of equations of the form r = a b cos , r = a b sin are called ________.
a. lemniscates
c. cardiods
b. limacons
d. rose curve
9. In relation to previous question, in special cases in which a= b, the graphs are called
__________.
a. lemniscates
c. cardiods
b. limacons
d.rose curves
10. The graph of the equation of the form r2 = cos 2 is called ___________.
a. lemniscates
c. cardiods
b. limacons
d.rose curves
11. What is the solid formed by revolving a given plane region R about an indicated axis
of revolution L.
a. circular disk
c. cylindrical shell
b. circular ring
d. solids of revolution
12. In this method, a representative rectangle is perpendicular to the axis of revolution that is
the boundary of the region.
a. Washer method
c. Shell method
b. Disk method
d. none of these
13. In this method, a representative rectangle is perpendicular to the axis of revolution that is
not part of the boundary.
a. Washer method
c. Shell method
b. Disk method
d. none of these
14. A representative rectangle is paralleled to the axis of revolution.
a. Washer method
c. Shell method
b. Disk method
d. none of these
15. What is the surface obtained by revolving an arc about a given axis of revolution?
a. solid of revolution
c. sinusoid
b. hypocycloid
d. surface of revolution
16. It is the product of the mass and its distance from a reference point, line or plane.
a. moment of inertia
c. section modulus
b. moment of mass
d. center of mass
17. This is the point where the total mass is concentrated.
a. moment of inertia
b. moment of mass
c. section modulus
d. center of mass
18. This is the product of mass and the square of its distance with respect to the axis.
a. moment of inertia
c. section modulus
b. moment of mass
d. center of mass
19. It is the product the density of liquid/fluid by its distance from the surface of the
liquid.
a. specific gravity
c. pressure
b. specific weight
d. density
20. When a flat plate is divided into several parts, the total force on the entire plane is
the _________ of the forces in each of the parts.
a. product
c. difference
b. sum
d. same
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION
1. It is any equation containing diffential or derivatives of the unknown function of one or more
variables.
a. algebraic expression
c. quadratic equation
b. differential equation
d. none of the above
2. What are the classifications of differential equation?
a. order
c. type
b. degree
d. all of the above
ENGINEERING MECHANICS
1. One joule of work is done by a force of Newton acting through a distance of:
a. one meter
c. a foot
b. one inch
d. one cm
2. The first derivative of kinetic energy with respect to time is :
a. power
c. momentum
b. work
d. force
3. What is the name of the vector that represents the sum of two vectors?
a. scalar
c. resultant
b. tensor
d. tangent
4. Represents the loss due to mechanical friction of the moving parts of the engine expressed
in hp as:
a. combined
c. brake
b. indicated
d. friction
c. millimeter
d. centimeter
8. The study of motion without reference to the forces which causes motion is known:
a. kinetics
c. kinematics
b. acceleration
d. motion
9, What is the unit of force in SI?
a. Joule
b. Newton
c. Watt
d. Hp
10. In the SI system of measurement, the base unit for pressure is:
a. Joule
c. Watt
b. Newton
d. Pascal
11. Why should a person weigh less on the moon than on the earth?
a. the force of earths gravity is greater than that of the moon
b. .the mass of the moon is smaller the mass of the earth
c. the moon is only a satellite of the earth
d. none of the above
12. What causes space capsules to become hot when they re-enter the earths atmosphere?
a. the firing of its rocket engine
b. earths atmosphere is hot
c. the friction of the air
d. all of these
13. At what angle does a projectile go farthest when fired?
a. 30 deg
c. 60 deg
b. 45 deg
d. 75 deg
14. Jun is standing on a weighing scale attached to the floor of an elevator which reads zero.
What does it indicate?
a. Jun is still accelerating
b. Jun is moving at constant speed
c. Jun is at rest
d. Jun is freely falling
15. Engineering mechanics is divided into subject classifications:
a. statics and kinetics
b. statics and dynamics
c. magnitude of force and directions of actions
d. internal and external effects of forces
16.What is the branch of mechanics which deals bodies in motion?
a. kinematics
c. statics
b. dynamics
d. kinetics
17. Newton was inspired by an apple; Pappus propositions were inspired by what fruits?
a. lemon and orange
c. apple and banana
b. apple and pear
d. apple and lemon
18. Work for energy can be a function of all of the following except:
a. force and distance
c. power and time
b. force and time
d. torque and angular rotation
19. Impulse and momentum principle is mostly useful for solving problems involving:
a. velocity, acceleration and time
b. force, velocity and time
c. force, acceleration and time
d. force, velocity and acceleration
20. Varignons theorem is used to determine ________________.
a. moment of inertia
c. location of centroid
b. mass moment of inertia
d. moment of area
21. An impulse causes:
a. the objects momentum to decrease
b. the objects momentum to increase
c. the objects momentum to change
d. the objects momentum to remain constant
22. Moment of inertia in SI is described as:
a. N-m
c. kg/m
b. N/m
d. farad/m
23. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
a. mass
c. displacement
b. torque
d. velocity
24. The product of force and time during which it acts is known as;
a. impulse
c. work
b. momentum
d. impact
25. The property of the body which measures its resistance to changes in motion:
a. acceleration
c. mass
b. weight
d. rigidity
26. The branch of physical science which deals with state of rest or motion of bodies
the action of forces is known as:
a. mechanics
c. kinematics
b. kinetics
d. statics
under
27. In physics, work is defined in terms of the force acting through a distance. The rate at which
work is done is called:
a. force
c. power
b. energy
d. momentum
28. The point through which the resultant of the distributed gravity force passes regardless of
the orientation of the body in space is known as:
a. center of inertia
c. center of attraction
b. center of gravity
d. moment of inertia
29. The momentum of moving object is the product of its mass and velocity. Newtons second
law of motion says that the rate of change of momentum with respect to time is:
a. power
c. momentum
b. energy
d. force
30. The dimension of acceleration x mass is the same unit as that of:
a. length
c. work
b. weight
d. section modulus
31. The coefficient of friction for dry surfaces;
a. depends on the materials and the finish condition of the surface
b. depends only on the finish condition of the surfaces
c. does not depend on the materials
d. depends on the composition of the materials only
32. In the SI system the base unit for mass is:
a. kg
b. Newton
c. joule
d. Pascal
33. Kinematics is the study of _________ without reference to the forces that causes the body
to move.
a. motion
c. force
b. forces and motion
d. matter
34. Momentum is a property related to the objects _________.
a. mass and acceleration
c. motion and weight
b. weight and velocity
d. motion and mass
35. Which of the following is a measure of the inertia of the body?
a. weight
c. volume
b. density
d. mass
36. What are the three fundamental quantities?
a. volume, weight, time
c. density, mass, volume
b. length, mass, time
d. speed, distance, time
37. What is the speed of the projectile if it is at the top of its path?
a. unchanged
c. minimum
b. doubled
d. maximum
38. Which of the following is/are short range forces?
a. Gravitational force
c. weak nuclear force
b. electromagnetic force
d. strong nuclear force
39. What happens to the mechanical advantage of a lever if its effort distance increases?
a. increases
c. remains the same
b. decreases
d. becomes zero
40. What kind of energy is present whenever a body is at a distance from the ground?
a. elastic potential energy
c. electromagnetic potential energy
b. electric potential energy
d. gravitational potential energy
41. An objects acceleration a it starts to fall is:
a. equal to g
b. greater than g
c. less than g
d. zero
c. distance
d. velocity
c. wavelength
d. speed
44. What law states that, within the elastic limit, strain is directly proportional to stress?
a. Ohms Law
c. Hookes Law
b. Lenzs Law
d. Coulombs Law
45. Any influence capable of producing of change in the motion of an object is:
a. force
c. velocity
b. vector
d. acceleration
FLUID MECHANICS
1.The measure of the fluids resistance when acted upon by an external force is called:
a. tackiness
c. flash point
b. density
d. viscosity
2. A leak from the faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main
cause of this phenomenon?
a. surface tension
c. air resistance
b. viscosity of the fluid
d. gravity
c. bronze
d. mercury
STRENGTHS OF MATERIALS
13. Fluid, which exhibits linear stress-strain rate relationship. If the shear stress in fluid varies
linearly with velocity gradient, which of the following describes the fluid?
a. it is a viscous fluid
b. it is a less viscous fluid
c. it is a Newtonian fluid
d. none of the above
14. The speed at which an exact model of the pump would have to run if it were designed to
deliver 1 gpm against 1 ft head per stage.
a. specific speed
c. rpm
b. linear speed
d. pump capacity
15. Which of the following flowmeters measure the average fluid velocity in a pipe rather than a
point or local velocity
a. humeter
c. speedometer
b. venture meter
d. flowmeter
16. In fluid dynamics, there is what we called conservation laws. One of the laws states that the
fluid mass is always conserved in fluid systems, regardless of the pipelines complexity
orientation of the flow or type of fluid flowing. The law is called:
a. conservation of mass
c. conservation of energy
b. conservation of volume
d. conservation of power
17. Water columns are usually designed for measuring small pressure above or below
atmospheric pressure. They can be used in air ducts, gas lines and the like. These pressure
measuring devices are called;
a. compound gages
c. pitot tubes
b. pressure gages
d. magnometer
18. In fluid flows, if the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of the individual
particles do not cross, the flow is said to be:
a. uniform
c. turbulent
b. laminar
d. critical
19. The unit of kinematic viscosity in SI is described as:
a. N/m
c. Pa-sec
b. W/m
d. m2 /sec
20. Which of the following is not a unit of viscosity?
a. Pa-sec
c. stoke
b. Poise
d. Dyne
21. Which of the following describes laminar flow?
a. NR=2180
c NR=. 4100
b. NR=1989
d. NR=2100
22. Ivory soap floats in water because:
1. What do you call the ratio of the unit deformation or strain in a transverse direction which
constant for stresses within the proportional limit?
a. Slenderness ratio
c. Poissons ratio
b. Mohrs circle
d. Hookes law
2. What kind of hardening will extent in the material? A hardening procedure in which an
austenitized ferrous workpiece is quenched into an appropriate medium.
a. quenching
c. tempering
b. martempering
d. none of these
3. It is the ratio of the ultimate stress to the allowable stress.
a. proportional constant
c. modulus
b. strain
d. factor of safety
4. The property by virtue of which a body tends to return to its original size or shape after a
deformation and when the deforming forces have been removed.
a. elasticity
c. ductility
b. malleability
d. plasticity
5. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously withstand.
a. yield point
c. ultimate strength
b. bearing strength
d. point of rupture
6. In a cantilever beam with a concentrated load at the free end, the moment is;
a. constant along the beam
b. maximum at the walls
c. maximum halfway out on the beam
d. maximum at the free end
7. Inelastic collision is a collision in which the total kinetic energy after collision is ________
before collision.
a. equal to zero
c. less than
b. equal
d. greater than
8. Which of the following is not a method by which a single lap rivet joint usually fails?
a. the rivets shear
c. the rivets fails in tension
b. the rivets fall in bearing
d. the plate fails in tension
9. The distance that the top surface is displaced in the direction of the force divided by the
thickness of the body is known as:
a. longitudinal strain
c. shear strain
b. linear strain
d. volume strain
10. The constant of proportionality between stress and strain is called:
a. Hookes constant
c. Young modulus
b. elastance
d. spring constant
11. The distance that the top surface in the direction of the force divided by thickness of the
body is known as:
a. point of rupture
c. volume strain
b. shear strain
d. linear strain
12. The property of material wherein its content is continuously distributed through its entire
volume:
a. homogeneity
c. isotropy
b. anisotropy
d. scarcity
13. The greatest unit pressure the soil can continuously withstand:
a. point of rupture
c. ultimate strength
b. bearing strength
d. yield point
14. Stresses those are independent of load:
a. endurance stress
b. operating stress
c. shear stress
d. residual stress
c. elasticity
d. malleability
c. medium grains
d. none of the above
c. modulus of elasticity
d. modulus of rigidity
c. casting
d. cold heading
c. high load
d. repeated load
42. The ability of a material to absorb energy when deformed elastically and to return it when
unloaded.
a. creep
c. toughness
b. hardness
d. resilience
c. couple
d. composition of forces
c. clearance
d. interference
c. aluminum
d. cast iron
24. The property of material that permits it to be only slightly deformed without rupture:
a. ductility
c. toughness
b. brittleness
d. resilience
25. Which micrometer has no anvil?
a. outside micrometer
b. digit micrometer
a. shear elasticity
b. Poissons ratio
c. depth micrometer
d. screw thread micrometer
26. The differential of the shear equation is which one of the following?
a. load on the beam
b. tensile strength of beam
c. bending moment of the beam
d. slope of the elastic curve
27. Steels can be strengthened by all of the following practices, except:
a. annealing
c. quenching and tempering
b. work hardening
d. grain refinement
28. Hardened steel parts have:
a. fine grains
b. coarse grains
c. medium grains
d. none of the above
c. hardening
d. soldering
43. If a material recovers its original dimensions, when the load is removed, it is called:
a. plastic
c. brittle
b. elastic
d. annealed
44. What is the metal characteristic to withstand forces that cause twisting?
a. torsional strength
c. modulus of elasticity
b. twisting moment
d. elasticity
45. The capacity of metal to withstand load without breaking.
a. strength
c. elasticity
b. stress
d. strain
46. The gradual chemical reaction by other substance such that metal is converted to an oxide
or other compounds.
a. corrosion
c. rusting
b. cheaping
d. weathering
47. The center of gravity of a solid pyramid or cone with a total height of H is:
a. H
c. 1/3 H
b. 3/5 H
d. H
48. The three moment equation maybe used to analyze:
a. a continuous beam
b. a beam loaded at the third points
c. a step tapered column
d. a three element composite beam
49. Principal stresses occur on those planes
a. where the shearing stress is zero
b. which are 45 apart
c. where the shearing stress is maximum
d. which are subjected only to compression
50. A ductile fracture is characterized by
a. rapid rate of crank propagation
b. negligible deformation
c. fragmentation into more than two pieces
d. appreciable plastic deformation prior to propagation of crank
ENGINEERING ECONOMICS
30. The ratio of the stress on an elastic substance to the decrease in volume per unit volume
a. bulk modulus
c. volumetric ratio
b. Poissons ratio
d. modulus of resilience
31. Structural steel elements subjected to torsion develop
a. tensile stress
b. compressive stress
c. shearing stress
d. moment
32. Fast process of analyzing all elements and chemical components of steel casting:
a. pyrometer
c. wet analyzer
b. carbon analyzer
d. spectrometer
33. Shear modulus is also:
1. Funds supplied by others on which a fixed rate of interest must be paid and the debt be
repaid at a specific place and time.
a. discount
c. working capital
b. cash flow
d. borrowed capital
2. The difference between sales revenue and the cause of goods sold.
a. rate of return
c. gross profit
b. net income
d. gross national product
3. The amount of a companys profit that the board of directors of the corporation decides to
distribute ordinary shareholders.
a. dividend
c. share stock
b. par value
d. return
c. annuity
d. postulate
11. A type of annuity where the payments are made at the start of each period, beginning from
the first period.
a. annuity due
c. deferred annuity
b. ordinary annuity
d. perpetuity
12. The first cost of any property includes
a. installation expenses
b. the original purchase price and freight and transportation charges
c. initial taxes and permits fee
d. all of these
13. Fall after the increase reaches a certain variable amount
a. inflation
c. law of supply and demand
b. process factors
d. law of diminishing returns
14. Ratio of the annual revenues to the annual expenses.
a. benefit ratio
b. rate of return
c. benefit-cost ratio
d. income ratio
25. What do you call a currency traded in a foreign exchange market for which the demand is
consistently high in relation to its supply?
a. certificate of deposit
c. hard currency
b. money market
d. treasury bill
26. What is the recorded current value of an asset?
a. salvage value
b. book value
c. present worth
d. scrap value
27. Type of organization where the assistant of the executive are appointed to attend to
function as a staff.
a. corporation
c. line organization
b. cartel
d. lien and staff
28. __________ is simply a measure of how much a product costs to make.
a. net expense
c. gross margin
b. sales
d. gross sales
29. The decrease in value of a certain property due to the gradual extraction of its contents.
a. depreciation
c. depletion
b. diminishing returns
d. depression
30. Which of the following is not considered?
a. manufacturing cost
b. schedule expenses
31. It is a sharp sudden increase in money or credit or both without corresponding increase in
business transactions.
a. deflation
c. inflation
b. subrogation
d. resultant
32. The hire of any person to do whatever work he is skilled in doing.
a. promotion cost
c. salary cost
b. material cost
d. labor cost
33. A cash flow that represents each year for n years without change in amount, its symbol is A
and its factor is (F/A).
a. sinking fund
c. annual amount
b. annuity
d. EAC
34. The length of time, usually in years, for the cumulative net profit to equal the initial
investment.
a. pay-back period
c. return on investment
b. break-even point
d. receivable turn-over
35. Series of equal payments at equal time interval.
a. annuity
b. depreciation
c. amortization
d. bond
c. franchise
d. corporation
37. A provision in the contract that indicates the possible adjustment of material cost and labor
cost.
a. secondary clause
c. escalatory clause
b. specification
d. general provision
38. A tax on imports.
a. export tax
b. import tax
c. export tariff
d. import tariff
18. What is the form of fixed-interest governments, companies, banks or other institutions?
They are usually a form of a long security, but may be imdeemable, secured or unsecured.
a. certificate of deposit
c. stock
b. bonds
d. T-bills
19. Bonds whose security behind them is mortgage on certain specified assets of the
corporation.
a. debenture
c. mortgage
b. collateral trust
d. joint
41. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given
place and time.
a. demand
c. stocks
b. supply
d. goods
c. recreation center
d. buy and sell section
21. It is the depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit does not change
each year.
a. sinking fund method
c. SYD method
b. Matheson method
d. straight line method
c. an expense
d. an asset
22. What is the market situation wherein there is only one seller with many buyers?
a. monopoly
c. oligopoly
b. oligopsony
d. monopsony
23. What is the interest rate at which the present worth of the cash fl0ow on the project is zero
of the interest earned by an investment?
a. effective rate
c. yield
b. nominal rate
d. rate of return
24. The estimated value at the end of the useful life.
a. compounded annually
b. salvage value
c. face value
d. economic life
c. gratuitous
d. favor
44. Damages that specified in the contract to insure that if the contract becomes disputed, the
amount of damages are agreed upon in advance.
a. liquidated damages
c. general damages
b. nominal damages
d. special damages
45. Money paid for the use of borrowed capital.
a. deflation cost
b. discount
c. interest
d. overhead cost
c. current ratio
d. profit margin ratio
a. investment
b. dacion-en-pago
c. equity
d. patents
48. The worth of property which is equal to the original cost less than depreciation.
a. scrap value
c. earning value
b. book value
d. face value
49. Cash money credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise.
a. funds
c. capital
b. assets
d. liabilities
50. Additional information to perspective bidders on contract documents issued prior to bidding
date.
a. delicts
c. technological assessment
b. bid bulletin
d. escalatory clause
51. A civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person or his property
or reputation.
a. tort
c. negligence
b. material breach
d. fraud
69. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money
is available after the required necessities have been obtained.
A. utilities
c. luxuries
b. necessities
d. producer goods and services
70. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.
a. discount
c. utility
b. luxuries
d. necessity
THERMODYNAMICS
1. If a process is carried out in such a manner that at every instant, the system departs only
infinitesimally from an equilibrium state.
a. isentropic process
c. throttling process
b. non-flow process
d. quasi-static process
2. It is impossible to operate a cyclic device in such a manner that the sole effect is the transfer
of heat from heat reservoir to another at a higher temperature.
a. Third Law of Thermodynamics
b. Claussius statement
c. Kelvin-Planck statement
d. First Law of Thermodynamics
53. Penal provision of a contract to compensate for the losses incurred by one party due to the
failure to comply with contract provisions.
a. dacion-en-pago
c. liquidated damages
b. force majeure
d. quasi-delict
3. Amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one pound of that substance one degree
Fahrenheit.
a. BTU
c. Calorie
b. Sensible heat
d. Centigrade heat unit
4. An open system, first law should be utilized for all the following, except;
a. a turbine
b. a pump
c. a piston-cylinder device with no inlet and exhaust valves
d. a nozzle
c. expenses
d. labor cost
7. A very important consequence of the ideal gas model is that the internal energy of an ideal
gas is a function of ___________ only.
a. pressure
c. point function
b. temperature
d. volume
60. Profit margin ratio is the percentage of each peso of sales that is net income and the profit
margin is equal to:
a. Rate of return
b. net income before taxes/net sales
c. price earnings
d. net income owners equity
8. A thermodynamic system which undergoes a cyclic process during a positive amount of work
is done by the system.
a. heat engine
b. heat pump
c. reversible- irreversible process
d. reversed rankine cycle
62. A diagram drawn to help visualize and simplify problem having diverse receipts and
disbursements.
a. budget
c. year-end-convention
b. investment
d. cash-flow
10. In any non quasistatic thermodynamic properties, the overall entropy of an isolated
system will
a. increase only
b. increase and then decrease
c. stay the same
d. decrease and then increase
c. partnership
d. single proprietorship
c. p V
d. s - u
c. 50 to 1500F
d. -50 to -1000F
13. The gas from sludge digestion tanks is mainly composed of.
a. hydrogen sulfide
c. nitrogen
b. carbon dioxide
d. methane
14. A feedwater treatment process which involves sedimentation, coagulation and filtration:
a. mechanical treatment
c. thermal treatment
b. chemical treatment
d. all of these
15. The type of vibration which is caused by fluctuating vertical couples which tends to make
the ends of the engine rise and fall:
a. pitching
c. bleaching
b. blanking
d. splitting
16. The total kinetic energy of all the molecules of an object.
a. temperature
c. calorie
b. heat
d. pressure
c. calorie
d. pressure
20. States that pressure applied to a confined fluid acts equally in all directions.
a. Pascals Principle
c. Boyles Law
b. Archimedes Principle
d. Daltons Law
21. The quality x, the liquid-vapor is
a. the ratio of the total volume that is saturated liquid
b. the ratio of the total mass that is saturated vapor
c. the ratio of the total volume that is saturated vapor
d. the ratio of the total mass that is saturated liquid
22. What is the equipment in air conditioning plant is applied for the heating and ventilation,
usually used the motion?
a. blower
c. separator
b. filter
d. humidifier
23. The ratio of heat removed to the work needed to remove heat.
a. Carnot cycle ratio
c. volumetric ratio
b. compression ratio
d. COP
c. 4. 187 kJ
d. 778 ft-lb
41. What is the temperature at which water freezes using the Kelvin scale?
a. 373
c. 237
b. 273
d. 406
42. The SI unit of temperature is:
a. 0F
b. 0K
c. 0Btu
d. 0R
c. 74.6 watts
d. 7.46 watts
45. What is the value of work done for a closed, reversible isometric system?
a. positive or negative
c. positive
b. negative
d. zero
c. 33 000 ft-lb/min
d. 2545 Btu/lb
46. The ratio of the weight of the water vapor mixed with a kg of dry air to the weight of
saturated vapor at the same temperature mixed with a kg of dry air.
a. relative humidity
c. humidity ratio
b. saturation ratio
d. specific density
c. 1000 C
d. 1200 C
31. Which is true about water as a reference temperature when or if enthalpy is zero/
a. vapor pressure zero c. internal energy is negative
b. entropy is non-zero d. specific volume is zero
32. The English unit of gravitational constant is:
a. 32.2 ft/sec2
c. 9.81 ft/sec2
b. 28.97 ft/sec2
d. 3.28 ft/sec2
33. If PV is assumed to be constant, is what law?
a. Charles law
c. Boyles law
b. Constant Temperature
d. Thermodynamic law
34. The top most ring in a piston.
a. compression ring
b. oil ring
47. If an initial volume of saturated steam is expanded isothermally to twice the initial volume,
the pressure:
a. halves
c. increases
b. remains the same
d. decreases
c. piston ring
d. shaft ring
c. enthalpy
d. internal energy
c. isobaric
d. polytrophic