Morning Session Problems Solution

Fundamentals of Engineering Sample Examination
Morning Section
Name: ________________________________
AUC ID:_______________
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MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS
1. The equation y= a1 + a2 x is an algebraic expression for which of the following?
(A) a cosine expansion series

(B) projectile motion
(C) a circle in polar form
(D) a straight line
2. In finding the distance, d , between two points, which is the appropriate equation to use?
d =
(x 1 x 2 ) ( y 2 y 1 )
(B) d =
(x 1 y 1 ) + (x 2 y 2 )
(C) d =
(x
(D) d =
(x 2 x 1 ) + ( y 2 y 1 )
(A)
2
1
) (
x 22 + y 12 y 22
)
2
3. What is the following integral?
3x 3 + 2x 2 + 4
dx
(A) 6x + 2 + 4x 2 + C
(B) x 2 + 2x + ln 4x + C
(C) x 3 + x 2 + 4 ln x + C
(D) ln ( 3x 3 + 2x 2 + 4 ) + C
4. If it is known that y = 1 when x = 1 , what is the constant for integration for the following
integral?
y=
(x )
(e
2x
2x dx
(A) C = 2 e 2
(B) C = 3 e 2
(C) C = 4 e 2
C
(D)=
1
4 e 2
2
5. What is the area enclosed by the function y = 4 x 2 and the x-axis, between x = 2 when
x = +2 ?
(A) 4
(B) 8
(C) 10
2
3
(D) 15
2 1
4 3
6. The matrix product AB of A =
and B =
is
1 0
2 1
12 9
(A)
2 1
10 7
4 3
(B)
10 4
3 9
(C)
(D) 2
7. What is the inverse of the matrix A?
cos
A=
sin
cos
sin
(A)
sin
cos
cos
sin
sin
cos
cos
sin
sin
cos
(B)
(C)
cos sin
0
(D)
sin
cos
sin cos
8. Determine the values of x 1 and x 2 that satisfy the following linear system
3 7 x1 2
=
2 6 x 2 4
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
9. What is the solution of the equation 50x 2 + 5 ( x 2 ) =

1 , where x is a real-valued variable?
2
(A) -6.12 and -3.88

(B) -0.52 and 0.700
(C) 7.55
(D) No solution
10. What are the roots of the cubic equation x 3 8x 3 =

0?
(A) x =7.9, 3, 0.38

(B) x =3, 2, 2
(C) x =3, 0.38, 2
(D) x =
2.62, 0.38,3
5
11. What is the name for a vector that represents the sum of two vectors?
(A) scalar
(B) resultant
(C) tensor
(D) moment
12. The cross-product A B of A= 3i + 4 j and B= 4i 3 j is
(A) 7k
(B) 25k
(C) i 7 j + 4k
(D) 12i 12 j
13. Simplify the expression ( A B ) C , given
A= 3i + 2 j
B = 2i + 3j + k
C= 5i + 2k
(A) 0
(B) 20
(C) 60i + 24k
(D) 5i + 2k
6
14. What type of differential equation is shown?
y = e 8 x + yy ' 2 y ''
(A) Nonlinear, second-order and non-homogeneous

(B) linear, second-order and non-homogeneous
(C) linear, second-order and homogeneous
(D) Nonlinear, first-order and non-homogeneous
15. What is the general solution to the following differential equation?
d 2y
dy
+2
+ 2y =
0
2
dx
dx
(A) y A sin x + B cos x

=
(B) y A sin 2x + B cos 2x
=
(C) y A sin 2x + B cos 2x
=
=
(D) y e x ( A sin x + B cos x )
16. It is known that y ( x ) passes through the points ( 0, 2 ) and (1, 4 ) . Solve for y ( x ) if the
second derivative is
d 2y
=1
dx 2
(A) y = ( x 2 + 3x ) + 2
(B) y =
1 2
x + 3x + 2
2
(C) y =
1 2
x 3x 2
2
(D) y =
1 2
x + 3x 2
2
17. What is the first derivate with respect to x of the function g ( x ) = 4 9
(A) 0
(B) 4/9
(C) 4
(D) 12
18. If a is a general constant, what is the derivative of y = x a ?
(A) ax
(B) x a 1
(C) ax a 1
(D) (a 1) x
19. L'Hopital's rule should be used when
(A) The numerator and denominator of an algebraic expression both approach zero or both
approach infinity
(B) The numerator of an algebraic expression approaches zero but the denominator
approach infinity
(C) The denominator of an algebraic expression approaches zero but the numerator
approaches infinity
(D) A limit cannot be found any other way
10
20. A bag containing 100 balls numbered from 1 to 100. One ball is removed. What is the
probability that the number on this ball is odd or greater than 80?
(A) 0.2
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.8
21. Suppose the lengths of telephone calls form a normal distribution with a mean length of 8
min and a standard deviation of 2.5 min. The probability that a telephone call selected at
random will last more than 15.5 min is most nearly:
(A) 0.0013
(B) 0.0026
(C) 0.2600
(D) 0.9987
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11
22. What is most nearly the standard deviation of 1, 4 and 7?
(A) 2.5
(B) 3
(C) 5.7
(D) 6
23. What is most nearly the sample standard deviation for the data set {2, 7, 9, 12, 34}
(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 17
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12
24. On the average, a piece of machinery jams five times a week, Assuming a Poisson
distribution for the jams, the probability that the machine will jam exactly three times in a
given week is most nearly
(A) 0.0033
(B) 0.14
(C) 0.33
(D) 1.4
25. The least-squares method is used to plot a straight line through the data points (2,2),
(4,7), (1,11) and (5,9). The slope of the line is most nearly
(A) -8
(B) -4
(C) 0
(D) 3.5
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26. Six design engineering are eligible for promotion to pay grade G8, but only four spots are
available. How many different combinations of promoted engineering are possible?

(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 15
(D) 20
27. Five dice are thrown. The probability of rolling at least one six is most nearly
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.52
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.67
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28. The volume (L) of 1 mol of H 2 O at 546K and 1 atm pressure is most nearly:
(A) 11.2
(B) 14.9
(C) 22.4
(D) 44.8
29. The atomic weights of sodium, oxygen and hydrogen are 23, 16 and 1 respectively. To
neutralize 4 grams of NaOH dissolved in 1L of water requires 1 L of:

(A) 0.001 normal HCl solution
(B) 0.01 normal HCl solution
(C) 0.1 normal HCl solution
(D) 1 normal HCl solution
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30. Consider the following equation:
(A) C 2 + D 2 A 4 + B
[]2 []2
=
[]4 []
(B) 4 A + B 2C + 2D
(C) 4C + 2D 2A + B
(D) A 4 + B C 2 + D 2
31. Which of the following is the formula for acetic acid?
(A) COOH
(B) CH 2 COH
(C) CH 3 CH 2 COOH
(D) CH 3 COOH
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16
32. How many moles of NaOH will be neutralized by 1 mole of H 3 PO 4 ?
(A) 1/3
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
33. An anode is
(A) the endpoint of a directed network.

(B) an electrode at which oxidation occurs.
(C) an electrode to which the cation would be attracted during electrolytic reaction.
(D) an electrode at which reduction occur.
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34. Berylium, magnesium and calcium all belong to which elemental grouping?
(A) Noble elements

(B) Halogens
(C) Alkali metals
(D) Alkaline earth metals
35. 1 mol of gaseous chlorine combines with 1 mol of calcium to form calcium chloride
(CaCl 2 ), which of the following statement is true?

(A) Calcium has a valence of +1.
(B) 1 lbm of chlorine will combine with 1 lbm of calcium.
(C) Chlorine has a valence of -2.
(D) Calcium has a valence of +2.
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36. What is the most likely formula of a compound with the following gravimetric analysis?
Oxygen: 13.7%
Carbon: 20.5%
Hydrogen: 5.1%
Chlorine: 60.7%
(A) CH 3 COCl
(B) C 2 H 6 OCl
(C) C 2 H 6 OCl 2
(D) CH 6 O 2 Cl
37. How many moles of hydrochloric acid will be required to neutralize 1 mol of sodium
hydroxide?
(A) 0.3 mol
(B) 0.5 mol
(C) 1 mol
(D) 1.5 mol
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38. A hydrate is a
(A) buffer solution of water

(B) compound in which hydrogen is combined with an element less electronegative than
itself.
(C) compound containing a definite number of water molecules in its chemical composition.
(D) salt containing the hydroxyl radical.
39. Which of the following is a volatile data storage device?
(A) Hard disk

(B) CD-ROM
(C) WORM drive
(D) RAM
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40. Which of the following best defines a compiler?
(A) Hardware that is used to translate high-level language to assembly language

(B) Hardware that collects and stores executable commands in a program
(C) Software that processes and stores executable commands in a program
(D) Software that is used to translate high-level language to assembly language
41. In a spreadsheet, the number in cell A2 is set to 2. Then cell B2 is set to A2*4/$A$2, where
$ indicates the absolute cell address. This formula is copied into cells C2 and D2. The
number shown in cell D2 is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
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42. In the following portion of a spreadsheet, the value of D1 is set to (A1 + B1 + C1)/3
This formula is copied into the range of cells D2:D3. The value of D4 is set to
SUM(D1:D3)/4.
What is in the number D4?
1
2
3
4
5
A
10
40
70
B
20
50
80
C
30
60
90
(A) 80
(B) 37.5
(C) 15
(D) 30
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43. A segment of a spreadsheet is shown below. What will be the top to bottom values in
column B?
1
2
3
4
5
A
20
5
6
7
8
B
21
A2^2
A3^2
A4^2
A5^2
C
D
22
23
B2*A$1
B3*B$1
B4*C$1
B5*D$1
(A) 25, 30, 35, 40

(B) 25, 36, 49, 64
(C) 40, 42, 44, 46
(D) 5, 6, 7, 8
44. Which of the following control structures are branching statements?
i.
ii.
iii.
FOR NEXT
GOTO
IF THEN
(A) i only
(B) ii only
(C) i and ii
(D) ii and iii
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45. How many times will the line labeled "START" execute in the following program segment?
P=2
Q=1
START
Q=Q+P
P=Q^2
If Q < 100 THEN GO TO START
ELSE GO TO FINISH
FINISH
PRINT Q
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
46. Based on the following program segment, what is the DECISION?
A=1
B=2
C=3
D=4
DECISION = I
If (A > B) OR (C < D) THEN DECISION = G
If (A < B) OR (C > D) THEN DECISION = H
If (A > B) OR (C > D) THEN A = 5
If (A < B) OR (C < D) THEN DECISION = J
(A) G
(B) H
(C) I
(D) J
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47. Mark started to work in a nuclear waste processing facility. He noticed that the engineers
are using an illegal method to process the nuclear waste. When talking to the engineers, the
response is that is how it has always been done. Mark should:
(A) Continue working and ignore the problem

(B) Write a letter to the editor of the paper criticizing the facilitys technique
(C) Quit working for the facility
(D) Notify the director of the nuclear facility and offer an opinion on the possible problem
48. An engineer can:
(A) Actively compete for a contract

(B) Publicity criticize other engineers assuming the quality of their work is inferior
(C) Receive payment from various source for one job
(D) Bid for a contract when a member of the firm serving as principle
49. A professional engineer, originally licensed 30 years ago, is asked to evaluate a newly
developed computerized control system for a public transportation system.

The engineer may accept this project if:
(A) He or she is competent in the area of modern control systems
(B) His or her professional engineering license has not lapsed
(C) Hs or her original area of specialization was in transportation systems
(D) He or she has regularly attended meetings of a professional engineering society
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25
50. The National Council of Examiners for Engineering and Surveying Model Rules contains
guidelines for licensees rules of professional conduct. This outlines a licensees obligation
to which of the following entities?
I.
II.
III.
IV.
Society
Employer and clients
Licensing board
Other licensees
(A) I and II only

(B) I and IV only
(C) I,II, and IV
(D) I,II, III and IV
51. You have created a piece of software that can be very useful and powerful tool for the
manufacturing industry. However, the advertising agency releases the promotion using the
language that suggests that your software works perfectly on all computers. You know that
the software only works on a certain system. What would you do?
(A)
Ask the advertising agency to change that to reflect the limitation of the product
(B)
Ask the promoter to add a clarifying statement in fine print
(C)
Start working on a later version that works on most system
(D)
You are not responsible for the content of the Ad Ignore the issue
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26
52. Which of following is not an ethics violation?
(A) Designing a product to fail in a specific number of years

(B) Charging a premium for a superior product
(C) Using proceeds from one product in order to sell another product below fair market price
(D) All of the above
53. One of your subordinator is on sick and leave and has not yet given the finishing signature to
his portion. As a project manager, you need the project to be signed and submitted within the
few hours. Which of the following is correct?
(A) Sign his portion on his behalf
(B) Submit the project without the signature of the engineer
(C) Wait for the signature of the engineer or have his portion completely review are reapproved
(D) Forge the signature of the engineer
54. An engineer testifying as an expert witness in a product liability cas should:
(A) Answer as briefly as possible only those questions posed by attorneys

(B) Provide a complete and objective analysis within his or her are of competence
(C) Provide an evaluation of the character of the defendant
(D) Provide information on the professional background of the defendant
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55. A company can manufacture a product using hand tools. Tools will cost $ 1,000, and the
manufacturing cost per unit will be $1.5. As an alternative, an automated system will cost
$15,000 with a manufacturing cost per unit of $0.5. With an anticipated annual volume of
5,000 units and neglecting interest, the breakeven point (years) is most nearly:
(A) 2.8
(B) 3.6
(C) 15
(D) Never
56. A printer costs $900. Its salvage value after 5 years is $300. Annual maintenance is $50. If
the interest rate is 8%, the equivalent uniform annual cost is most nearly:
(A) $224
(B)
$300
(C)
$327
(D) $350
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28
57. The need for a large-capacity water supply system is forecast to occur 4 years from now. At
that time, the system required is estimated to cost $40,000. If an account earns 12% per year
compounded annually, the amount that must be placed in the account at the end of each year
in order to accumulate the necessary purchase price is most nearly:
(A) $8,000
(B) $8,370
(C) $9000
(D) $10000
58. A project has the estimated cash flows shown below.
Year End 0
Cash
-$1,100
Flow
1
-$400
2
+$1,00
3
+$1,000
4
+$1,000
Using an interest rate of 12% per year compounded annually, the annual worth of the project is
most nearly:
(A) $450
(B) $361
(C) $320
(D) $226
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29

59. You must choose between four pieces of comparable equipment based on the cash flows
given below. All the four pieces have a life of 8 years.

Parameter
First cost
Annual costs
Salvage value
A
$25,000
$8,000
$2,500
Equipment
B
C
$35,000 $20,000
$6,000
$9,000
$3,500
$2,000
D
$40,000
$5,000
$4,000
The discount rate is 12%. Ignore taxes. The most preferable top two projects and the difference
between their present worth values are most nearly:
(A) A and C, $170
(B) B and D, $170
(C) A and C, $234
(D) B and D, $234
60. A bank charges 12% simple interest on a $300 loan. Most nearly, how much will be repaid if
the loan is paid back in one lump sum after three years?
(A) $108
(B) $408
(C) $415
(D) $421
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30
61. A piece of machinery has an initial cost of $40,000 and results in an increase in annual
maintenance costs of $2000. If the machinery saves the company $10,000 per year, in
approximately how many years will the machine pay for itself if compounding is
considered? The effective annual interest rate is 6%.
(A) 5.2 years
(B) 6.1 years
(C) 7 years
(D) 8 years
62. Funds are deposited in a savings account at an interest rate of 8% per annum. If the interest
is compounded semi-annually, what is most nearly the initial amount that must be deposited
to yield a total of $10,000 in 10 years?
(A) $4530
(B) $4560
(C) 6730
(D) 8200
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31
63. The cost of producing an item s represented by the following equation.
C 1 = $25,000 + 0.03P
P represents the number of items produced. If the items are sold for $1.5 each, approximately
how many must be sold to break even?
(A) 1100
(B) 16,700
(C) 17,000
(D) 17,500
64. A sum of 60,000$ will be needed for building improvements in 5 years. To generate this
amount, a sinking fund is established into which three equal payments will be made, one at
the end of each of the first 3 years. After the third year, no further payments will be made. If
an effective annual interest rate of 8% can be expected, the amount that must be paid into the
fund each year is most nearly
(A) $16000
(B) 17000
(C) $19000
(D) $22000
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32
65. A 500N Force F, is directed as shown what is the most nearly the component Vector
representation of the force?
(A) 0.0014i + 0.006J +0.016K (N)

(B) 317i + 136J +362K
(N)
(C) 194i + 83J +222K
(N)
(D) Not any from the above
66. Referring to the figure below, the coefficient of static friction between the block and the
inclined plane is 0.25. The block is in equilibrium.

As the inclined plane is raised, the block will begin to slide when:
(A) Sin = 1.0
(B) Cos = 1.0
(C) Cos = 0.25
(D) tan = 0.25
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33
67. Find the Tension in T1 & T2 in the rope shown so that the system is in equilibrium.
(A) T1=50N,T2=0N
(B) T1=50N,T2=50N
(C) T1=70.7N,T2=50N
(D) T1=70.7N,T2=70.7N
68. The Moment due to an applied force in a body is Zero only when
(A) The force is negative

(B) The force through the origin
(C) The Line of Action Passes through the center of Rotation
(D) The force is a function of time
33
34
69. Calculate the force F to hold the block on equilibrium if the mass of the block is 25 kg.
(A) 245.3 N
(B) 122.6 N
(C) 61.3 N
(D) 30.7 N
70. Determine the force in member CD
(A) 1/12P
(B) 1/3 P
(C) 5/12 P
(D) P
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35
71. A beam is subjected to a distributed load as shown. Determine the reaction at the right Support A.
(A) 2.2 KN
(B) 4.3KN
(C) 5.5KN
(D) 7KN
72. What is most nearly the frictional force between the 80 Kg block and the Ramp? The coefficient of static
friction is 0.2 and the coefficient of dynamic friction is 0.15.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
60
80
90
120
35
36
73. The 50-kg crate shown in Fig. rests on a horizontal surface for which the coefficient of kinetic friction is k
= 0.3. If the crate is subjected to a 400-N towing force as shown, determine the velocity of the crate in 3 s
starting from rest.
(A) 19 m/s
(B) 15.6 m/s
(C) 12.2 m/s
(D) 29.1 m/s
74. An elevator descends from rest with an acceleration of 5 ft/s2 until it achieves a velocity of 15ft/s.
Determine the distance traveled.
(A) 33.2 ft
(B) 20 ft
(C) 22.5 ft
(D) 28.7 ft
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37
75. Each of the two elastic rubber bands of the slingshot has an unstretched length of 200 mm. If
they are pulled back to the position shown and released from rest, determine the speed of the
25-g pellet just after the rubber bands become unstretched. Neglect the mass of the rubber
bands. Each rubber band has a stiffness of k = 50 N/m.
(A) 2.86 m/s
(B) 3.45 m/s
(C) 4.2 m/s
(D) 0.3 m/s
76. A block is Pushed up a plane inclined at 25 to the horizontal .If the block has a mass of 5Kg
and the Coefficient of friction between the plane and the block is 0.25 most nearly how
much force is required to accelerate the block up the plane at the rate of 5m/s2
(A) 13 N
(B) 57 N
(C) 180 N
(D) 240 N
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38
77. Impulse is
(A) Force times distance.

(B) A vector quantity equal to the change in Velocity.
(C) A scalar
(D) A vector quantity equal to the change in momentum.
78. Rectangular beam under bending loading where is the maximum shear stress?
(A) At the top edge

(B) At the neutral axis
(C) At the bottom edge
(D) At a location between the top edge and the neutral axis
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39
79. An aluminum rod has an initial diameter, d o of 30 mm and an initial gauge length of 200mm,
the yield strength is 420 Mpa. what is the modulus of elasticity if a force of 150 KN
elongates the rod by 1 mm?
(A) 21 GPa
(B) 31 GPa
(C) 42 GPa
(D) 53 GPa
80. The beam shown below is known as a:
(A)
Cantilever beam
(B)
Statically intermediate beam
(C)
Simply supported beam
(D)
Continuously loaded beam
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40
81. Determine the vertical reaction at A
(A) 98.2 N
(B) 66.9 N
(C) 85.4 N
(D) 120.5 N
Question 82-83: A force of 250 N is applied at the tip of the beam. The beam also has
distributed Load, w, acting on it as shown.
82. What is the most nearly maximum shear?
(A) 100 N
(B) 130 N
(C) 200 N
(D) 250 N
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41
83. What is the most nearly maximum bending moment?
(A) 1900 N.m

(B) 2000 N.m
(C) 2800 N.m
(D) 5200 N.m
84. For the following stress element what is most nearly the maximum shear stress?
(A) 10 MPa
(B) 11 MPa
(C) 27 MPa
(D) 35 MPa
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42
85. The Euler formula for columns deals with:
(A) Relatively short columns

(B) Shear stress
(C) Tensile stress
(D) Elastic buckling
86. The piston of a steam engine is 50 cm in diameter, and the maximum steam gage pressure is
1.4 MPa. If the design stress for the piton rod is 68 MPa, its cross-sectional area (m2) should
be most nearly:
(A) 40.4 10-4
(B) 98.8 10-4
(C) 228.0 10-4
(D) 323.0 10-4
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87. The mechanical deformation of a material above its recrystallization temperature is
commonly known as:

(A)
Hot working
(B)
Strain aging
(C)
Grain growth
(D)
Cold working
88. What do impact tests determine?
(A) Hardness
(B) Yield strength
(C) Toughness
(D) Creep strength
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89. In general, a metal with high hardness will also have:
(A)
Good formability
(B)
High impact strength
(C)
High electrical conductivity
(D)
High yield strength
90. Yield stress
(A) Is the stress that will eventually leads to fatigue failure of a material.
(B) Is the maximum tensile stress a material can sustain without fracture
(C) Is the stress that causes fracture of a material
(D) Is the stress where elastic behaviour of material changes to plastic behaviour
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91. All of the followings are true about ceramics except:
(A)
Ceramics are poor conductors of electricity
(B)
Ceramics are compounds chemically based on hydrogen and carbon
(C)
Ceramics are hard but brittle
(D)
Ceramics are resistant to high temperature
92. Toughness is
(A) A measure of the energy absorbed by the material before fracture

(B) A measure of the stiffness of the material
(C) A measure of materials resistance to plastic deformation
(D) The ability of the material to withstand deformation without breaking
45
46
93. The following are true about annealing except:
(A) Annealing significantly increase the electrical conductivity of a material

(B) Annealing relieved internal stresses in metal pieces
(C) Annealing increases toughness and ductility of a material
(D) Annealing involves both heating and cooling of a material
94. Which of the following may be the Poisson ratio of a material?
(A)
-0.37
(B)
0.25
(C)
0.55
(D)
1.5
46
47
95. If the shear stress in a fluid varies linearly with the velocity gradient, which of the following
describes the fluid:

(A) It is inviscid
(B) It is a perfect gas
(C) It is a Newtonian fluid
(D) It is at a constant temperature
96. Which of the following must be satisfied by the flow of any fluid, real or ideal?
I. Newton's second law of motion.

II. The continuity equation.
III. The requirement of a uniform velocity distribution
IV.
Newton's law of viscosity
V. The principle of conservation of energy
(A)
I,II and III
(B)
I,II and IV
(C)
I, II, and V
(D)
I, II, III, and IV
47
48
97. The surface tension of water in air is approximately 0.0756 N/m. if the atmospheric pressure
is 101 kPa (abs), what is the pressure inside a droplet 0.254 mm in diameter?
(A)
99.83 KPa
(B)
101 KPa
(C)
101.5 KPa
(D)
102.2 KPa
98. Which of the following statements about a streamline is most accurate?
(A)
It is a path of a fluid particle.
(B)
It is a line normal to velocity vector everywhere.
(C)
It is fixed in space in a steady flow.
(D)
It is defined for non-uniform flow only.
48
49
99. For steady flow of a compressible fluid in the expander shown in the figure, what is the
density at the exit section?
(A) 190 Kg/m^3

(B) 62 Kg/m^3
(C) 642 Kg/m^3
(D) 127 Kg/m^3
A pressure vessel with an internal pressure, P, is connected to a simple U-tube open to the
atmosphere at shown. A 10 cm deflection of mercury is observed the density of mercury is
13.6 Mg/m^3, what is most nearly the pressure, P, if the atmospheric pressure is 101 KPa?
100.
(A) 1.0 KPa

(B) 13KPa vacuum
(C) 39 KPa vacuum
(D) 78 KPa
49
50
The tank shown is filled with water. The gate is mounted on a frictionless bearings on the
hinged edge what is the most nearly resultant force (per meter of wall width ) required to
keep the gate closed?
101.
(A) 19.6 KN
(B) 27.6 KN
(C) 29.4 KN
(D) 33.1 KN
What is the coefficient of drag for a flow of air (=1.225 Kg/m^3, = 1.8*10^-5 N.
s/m^2) over a flat plate that is 93 cm long, if V=86 m/s?
102.
(A) 3.38 *10 ^-3

(B) 5.70 *10^-3
(C) 2.19*10^-3
(D) 8.27*10^-3
50
51
103. Which statement about a charge placed on a dielectric material is true?
(A) The charge diffuses across the material's surface

(B) The charge diffuses through the interior of the material
(C) The charge is confined to the region where the charge is placed
(D) The charge increases the conductivity of the material
104. What accelerating voltage is required to accelerate an electron to a kinetic energy of
5 1015 J? The charge on an electron is 1.6 1019 C
(A) 8 kV
(B) 13 kV
(C) 19 kV
(D) 31 kV
51
52
105. The Coulomb force F, acts on two charges a distance, r, apart. What is F proportional
to?
(A)
(B)
r2
(C)
1
r2
(D)
1
r3
106. The relationship between voltage, current, and resistance given by V = IR is known as
(A)
Kirchhoff's Current Law
(B)
Seebeck's Voltage
(C)
Ohm's Law
(D)
Thevenin's Theorem
52
53

107. Find the current passing through the 3 resistor.
12
12
12V
12
D
12
(A)
12
0A
(B) 0.3 A
(C)
1A
(D)
4A
108. The property of a device in which a magnetic field impedes changes in current flow is
(A) Capacitance
(B) Inductance
(C) Resistivity
(D) Permittivity
53
54
109. Series-connected circuit elements are shown in the figure below.
30
j 90
- j 50
Which of the following impedance diagrams is correct according to conventional notation?

30
(A) 143
140
30
(B)
(C)
50
40
143
140
30
(D)
50
40
30
54

110.
55
What is the output of E, F, and G given the following input?
(A) E=1, F=0, G=1

(B) E=0, F=1, G=1
(C) E=1, F=1, G=0
(D) E=0, F=0, G=1
111.
The Impedance equal to a combination of Impedances in series is the
(A) Sum of the reciprocals of the Impedances

(B) Sum of the Impedances
(C) Difference of the Impedances
(D) Product of the Impedances
55
56
112.
L1
R1
I3
I1
R2
I2
switch closed
at t = 0
E
L2
(A) I1 is discontinuous and decreasing

(B) I1 is discontinuous and increasing
(C) I1 is continuous and decreasing
(D) I1 is continuous and increasing
(1 i ) , where i =
The term
2
(1 + i )
2
113.
1 , is most nearly?
(A) 1
(B) 1 + i
(C) 0
(D) 1 + i
56

114.
57
An isentropic process is one which:
(A)
Is adiabatic but not reversible
(B)
Is reversible but not adiabatic
(C)
Is reversible and adiabatic
(D)
Occurs at constant pressure and temperature
the maximum possible work that can be obtained from a cycle operating between two
reservoirs is found from
115.
(A)
Process irreversibility
(B)
Availability
(C)
Carnot efficiency
(D)
Reversible work
57
58
116.what is most nearly the resulting pressure when 400g of air at 103.6 kPa and 93C is heated
at constant volume to 427C

(A) 160 kPa
(B) 200 kPa
(C) 250 kPa
(D) 480 kPa
117. What is the mass of water at 400 kPa and 500 C contained in a 6 m^3 vessel?
(A) 6 kg
(B) 6.75 kg
(C) 6000 kg
(D) 60 kg
58
59
118. A Carnot engine operates between 400 C and 30 C. what is the efficiency of the engine?
(A)
92.5%
(B)
60%
(C)
55%
(D) 43%
The universal gas constant is 8.314 [KJ/(Kmol.K)]. The gas constant [(KJ/(Kg.K)] of a
gas having a molecular weight of 44 is most nearly
119.
(A)
0.19
(B)
0.38
(C)
0.55
(D) 5.3
120.
The heat transfer during an adiabatic process is :
(A)
Reversible
(B)
Irreversible
(C)
Dependant on temperature
(D) Zero
59

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Fundamentals of Engineering Sample Examination

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

1. The equation y= a1 + a2 x is an algebraic expression for which of the following?

(A) a cosine expansion series

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

3. What is the following integral?

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

7. What is the inverse of the matrix A?

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

9. What is the solution of the equation 50x 2 + 5 ( x 2 ) =

(A) -6.12 and -3.88

10. What are the roots of the cubic equation x 3 8x 3 =

(A) x =7.9, 3, 0.38

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

13. Simplify the expression ( A B ) C , given

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

14. What type of differential equation is shown?

(A) Nonlinear, second-order and non-homogeneous

15. What is the general solution to the following differential equation?

(A) y A sin x + B cos x

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

17. What is the first derivate with respect to x of the function g ( x ) = 4 9

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

18. If a is a general constant, what is the derivative of y = x a ?

19. L'Hopital's rule should be used when

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

22. What is most nearly the standard deviation of 1, 4 and 7?

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

available. How many different combinations of promoted engineering are possible?

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

neutralize 4 grams of NaOH dissolved in 1L of water requires 1 L of:

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

30. Consider the following equation:

31. Which of the following is the formula for acetic acid?

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

32. How many moles of NaOH will be neutralized by 1 mole of H 3 PO 4 ?

(A) the endpoint of a directed network.

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

(A) Noble elements

(CaCl 2 ), which of the following statement is true?

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

(A) buffer solution of water

39. Which of the following is a volatile data storage device?

(A) Hard disk

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

40. Which of the following best defines a compiler?

(A) Hardware that is used to translate high-level language to assembly language

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

(A) 25, 30, 35, 40

44. Which of the following control structures are branching statements?

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

(A) Continue working and ignore the problem

48. An engineer can:

(A) Actively compete for a contract

developed computerized control system for a public transportation system.

MORNING SESSION QUESTIONS

(A) I and II only

Ask the promoter to add a clarifying statement in fine print