ACP Prosthodontic Mock Board Exam

THE AMERICAN COLLEGE OF PROSTHODONTISTS
Implant, Esthetic and Reconstructive Dentistry
Post-Graduate Prosthodontic
Mock Board Exam 2009
1. Which of the following is effective in treating patients with trismus following radiation
therapy?
a. Measures to reduce muscle spasm
b. Early initiation of an exercise program
c. Muscle relaxants
d. Hypnosis
e. Surgical intervention
2. Which of the following is true regarding the concept of long centric according to Dawson?
a. The horizontal protrusive path on the maxillary anterior teeth should be 12 mm
long, antero-posteriorly.
b. The horizontal protrusive path of the posterior teeth should be approximately 1 mm.
c. When the teeth come together in a postural closure, the lower incisors should not
strike an incline before reaching full closure.
d. Long centric should be the approximate length of the patients slide in centric.
3. The Weber-Ferguson incision is used during a:
a. Radical neck dissection.
b. Radical maxillectomy.
c. Composite resection involving the mandible.
d. Partial palatectomy via a transoral approach.
4. Osteoradionecrosis:
a. Occurs most often in the mandible.
b. Occurs most often in patients undergoing pre-radiation than post-radiation dental
extractions.
c. Is best treated by long term oral antibiotics.
d. The majority of the cases eventually require resection of the infected, non vital
bony segment to control the infection.
5. According to ANSI/ADA Specification No. 96 what is the maximum allowable film thickness
for luting applications?
a. 25 um
b. 15 um
c. 35 um
d. 5 um
6. Craniofacial implants used to retain facial prostheses have the highest survival rates in
which of the following sites?
a. Orbital
b. Piriform/nasal
c. Frontal bone
d. Auricular
e. Zygoma

7. Which of the following measures should be taken to ensure an effective chemical

interaction and enhanced bonding of resin denture teeth and heat-activated denture base
materials?
a. Flush stone molds with clean hot water
b. Separating media must be applied to stone mold surfaces but should not be
permitted to extend onto the exposed surfaces of resin teeth
c. Ridge-lap surfaces should be wetted with monomer immediately before resin
introduction
d. All of the above
8. Transformational toughening of Zirconia is its ability to stop crack growth. Which of the
following best describes this characteristic?
a. The polycrystals of the yttria-stabilized Zirconia change from a tetragonal
configuration to a monoclinic configuration with a localized volume increase of 610%.
b. The polycrystals of the yttria stabilized Zirconia change from a monoclinic
configuration to a tetragonal configuration with a localized volume decrease of 35%.
c. The polycrystals of the yttria stabilized Zirconia change from a tetragonal
configuration to a monoclinic configuration with a localized volume increase of 35%.
d. The polycrystals of the yttria stabilized Zirconia change from a monoclinic
configuration to a tetragonal configuration with a localized volume decrease of 6
10%.
9. Intensity-Modulated Radiation Therapy (IMRT) used in the treatment of oral malignancies:
a. Allows delivery of high doses of radiation to the tumor volume while simultaneously
lowering the dose to the surrounding normal tissue.
b. Has not proven effective in improving Xerostomia.
c. Increase the severity of Xerostomia.
d. Delivers a higher dose of radiation to a larger portion of the mandible.
10. Which of the following concepts refers to the combination clasp design?
a. Cast circumferential retentive clasp and a cast reciprocal clasp
b. Wrough wire circumferential retentive clasp and a cast reciprocal clasp
c. Cast I-bar retentive clasp and a cast reciprocal clasp
d. Cast I-bar retentive clasp and a lingual plate reciprocal element
e. 20 gauge wrough wire circumferential retentive clasp and no reciprocal element
11. Ghost images on panoramic radiographs are most likely due to:
a. Overexposed areas caused by improperly maintained developing equipment.
b. Radiopaque objects in the path of the x-ray beam and out of the focal trough.
c. Improper positioning of the patient in the machine.
d. Unequal magnification and geometric distortion across the image.

12. All of the following structures are part of the retromolar pad except:
a. Buccinator.
b. Middle pharangeal constrictor.
c. Pterygomandibular raphe.
d. Fibers from the temporal tendon.
e. Glandular tissue.
13. When articulating a definitive cast on a semi-adjustable articulator, the use of an arbitrary
facebow may have adverse esthetic consequences because:
a. The esthetic reference plane and intercondylar axis may not be parallel.
b. The incisal edge position of the anterior restorations may be placed too far labially.
c. Condylar determinants may not be accurately transferred.
d. None of the above.
14. Torus palatinus occurs in what percentage of the population?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
15. According to DiPietro, a patient with an FMA of 18 degrees will have:
a. Group function.
b. Anterior disclusion.
c. Posterior disclusion.
d. Myocentric occlusion.
e. Higher EMG activity in the Temporalis muscle.
16. What occurs upon firing of a metal-ceramic dental restoration if the coefficient of thermal
expansion of the metal is less than the coefficient of thermal expansion of the porcelain?
a. The porcelain is subject to radial tensile stresses together with tangential
compressive stress, which is beneficial if the expansion mismatch is not too great.
b. The porcelain is subjected to radial compressive stresses and tangential tensile
stresses, which results in radial cracks in the porcelain.
c. Nothing would occur.
d. Increases strength of the porcelain due to increased compressive force within the
porcelain.
17. Which of the following may cause an increased amount of localized shrinkage during metal
solidification?
a. Increase in sprue thickness
b. Increase in sprue length
c. Increase in melting temperature
d. Increase in mold temperature
18. According to the ADA specification No. 25, dental gypsum products must reproduce fine
detail of what size to be considered satisfactory?
a. 5m
b. 50m
c. 100m
d. 200m

19. According to Aull, movement of the rotating condyle can occur in how many major
directions?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 9
20. Casting alloys for long spanned fixed partial dentures need to have high elastic modulus.
Which of the following alloys has the most favorable elastic modulus and has the least
flexible casting?
a. High gold
b. Gold-palladium
c. Palladium-silver
d. Gold-palladium-silver
21. A closed-lock of the temporomandibular joint is:
a. Also called an anterior disc displacement without reduction.
b. Also called an anterior disc displacement with reduction.
c. Commonly associated with an opening click.
d. Commonly associated with a reciprocal click.
22. Poly (ethyl methacrylate) can be used as a material for the fabrication of provisional
crowns and fixed partial dentures. A primary advantage of this material when compared
with poly(methyl methacrylate) is the:
a. Higher transverse strength.
b. Less exothermic heat of polymerization.
c. Greater durability.
d. Greater surface hardness.
23. Multiple tiny voids are seen in casts that are poured early after removing the impression
from the mouth. This is the result of release of hydrogen gas during the setting of which of
the following impression materials:
a. Polysulfide.
b. Condensation silicone.
c. Addition silicone (Polyvinyl siloxane).
d. Reversible hydrocolloid.
e. Polyether.
24. For a patient with resection of the tongue and mandible, the most important factor that
affects the success of mandibular prostheses is:
a.
b.
c.
d.
The size of the mandibular bony defect.

The size of the remaining tongue.
The deviation of the mandible.
The functional status (tongue control and mobility) of the remaining tongue.

25. What is the most important muscle in palatopharyngeal closure?

a. Superior constrictor
b. Levator palatini
c. Tensor palatini
d. Salpingopharyngeus
e. Middle constrictor
26. An intermediate layer of resin, collagen, and dentin produced by acid etching of dentin and
resin infiltration into the conditioned dentin is called:
a. Smear layer.
b. Hybrid layer.
c. Resin tag layer.
d. Adhesive layer.
27. For an Esthetic/Phonetic try in of complete dentures, the incisal edges of the maxillary
incisors touch the wet/dry line of the lower lip when F and V sounds are made. The
mandibular anterior teeth are observed to be in a protrusive relationship when sibilant
sounds are made. It may be concluded that:
a. The maxillary anterior teeth are positioned accurately. The mandibular anterior
teeth are too far labially.
b. The maxillary anterior teeth are too long and the mandibular anterior teeth are too
far labially.
c. The centric relation record is incorrect.
d. The occlusal vertical dimension is excessive.
e. All teeth are correctly positioned.
28. Who is credited with introducing the cone theory of clinical crown anatomy and providing
a conceptual basis for mechanical RPD clasp retention?
a. James H. Prothero
b. Edward Kennedy
c. George H. Wilson
d. Arthur J. Krol
e. William L. McCracken
29. Which of the following is not considered as a bonding mechanism between porcelain and
the metal substructure?
a. Chemical bonding
b. Mechanical bonding
c. Compression of the porcelain to metal
d. VanDer Walls forces
e. Hybridization of metal and porcelain
30. Which of the following muscles is not a muscle of mastication?
a. Masseter
b. Temporalis
c. Lateral pterygoid
d. Medial pterygoid
e. Buccinator

31. Heat-activated poly(methyl methacrylate) denture base resins pass through five distinct
stages upon proper mixing of powder and liquid components. These stages are described
sequentially as:
a. Flowable, semi-viscid, viscid, dough-like, rigid.
b. Liquid, viscid, pliable, elastic, rigid.
c. Sandy, stringy, dough-like, rubbery, stiff.
d. Grainy, sticky, non-adherent, pliable, set.
e. Granular, adherent, non-adherent, moldable, solid.
32. Adding vasoconstrictors to local anesthetics will:
a. Prolong the duration of anesthesia.
b. Enhance the depth of anesthesia.
c. Reduce the peak concentration of anesthetic in the blood.
d. All of the above.
33. Denture teeth look wider and lighter if you:
a. Lighten the denture base shade.
b. Move the teeth posteriorly.
c. Move the teeth anteriorly.
d. Create disastemas.
e. Custom grind the line angles of the teeth.
34. Removable partial denture rests are designed and placed to preserve the supporting oral
structures by:
a. Controlling the position of the prosthesis in relation to teeth.
b. Controlling the position of the prosthesis in relation to the periodontium and
mucosa.
c. Controlling the amount and direction of movement of the abutment teeth.
35. A significant concern when fabricating a Ticonium RPD framework verses one made with
Vitallium is:
a. Inability to apply heat treatment to the Ticonium framework.
b. Presence of nickel in the Vitallium framework.
c. Presence of beryllium in the Ticonium framework.
d. Decreased castability of the Ticonium framework.
e. Higher fusion temperature of the Ticonium framework.
36. When oblique forces are placed on a prosthesis, dislodgement is prevented when resistant
areas of the tooth preparation are placed under:
a. Shear forces.
b. Tensile forces.
c. Compressive forces.
d. None of the above.
37. Ideal lighting for a dental operatory should have a Color Rendering Index (CRI) greater than:
a. 50.
b. 75.
c. 90.
d. 150.

38. According to Tarnow et al, which of the following is true regarding the vertical distance
from the crest of the bone to the height of the interproximal papilla between adjacent
implants?
a. The presence or absence of the interdental papilla between teeth, between
implants and teeth, and between adjacent implants had a mean height of 5mm,
with a range from 3mm to 7mm.
b. The mean height of papillary tissue between adjacent implants was 5mm or less
100% of the time.
c. The mean height of the papillary tissue between two adjacent implants was 3.4mm,
with a range of 1mm to 7mm.
d. The mean height of papillary tissue between two adjacent implants was greater in
the posterior region than the anterior region.
e. None of the above is true.
39. All of the following are advantages of implant-supported overdentures except:
a. Prevent bone loss.
b. Decreases occlusal force.
c. Improve chewing efficiency.
d. Improves prosthesis retention.
e. Improve prosthesis stability.
40. All of the following branches of the Trigeminal Nerve innervate the TMJ, except:
a. Masseteric nerve.
b. Lesser Petrosal nerve.
c. Auriculotemporal nerve.
d. Deep Temporal nerve.
41. Krishan Kapur compared the effectiveness of two partial denture designs, one with I-bar
and the other with circumferential retainers in his longitudinal prospective study. Which of
the following is true based on Kapurs study on different partial denture design?
a. The success rate of I-bar design was significantly higher than circumferential
design.
b. The success rate of circumferential design was significantly higher than I-bar
design.
c. The success rate, maintenance, and effects on abutment teeth of circumferential
design and bar design did not differ significantly.
d. The study was undertaken in one center.
e. There are discernible changes in periodontal health of the abutment teeth with
either of the two designs after 60 months.
42. According to Silverman, which of the following statements is false with regards to closest
speaking space?
a. Remains constant throughout life
b. It averages about 2mm and is consistent between individuals
c. It can be measured in dentate individuals to be used as a reference for vertical
dimension in the future
d. It is significantly reduced in the edentulous patient

43. What is the most common clinical complications of implants and implant prostheses?
a. Implant loss in irradiated bone
b. Loosening of the overdenture retentive mechanism
c. Hemorrhage related complications
d. Resin veneer fracture with fixed partial dentures
e. Implant loss in type IV bone
44. According to Tallgren in 1972, the ratio of total bone absorption in the maxillary and
mandibular anterior region during 25 yrs of complete denture wear is:
a. Maxillae: mandible = 3:1.
b. Maxillae: mandible = 1:4.
c. Maxillae: mandible = 4:1.
d. Maxillae: mandible = 1:2.
e. Maxillae: mandible = 1:3.
45. Contraindications for precision attachments include all of the following except:
a. High caries risk.
b. Inadequate space.
c. A single unsplinted tooth.
d. Insufficient crown to root ratio.
e. Patient who lacks sufficient dexterity.
46. Which of the following is incorrect about polymerization shrinkage in acrylic resins?
a. It occurs as a result of reduction of the distance between molecules following
chemical bonding.
b. It can be reduced by adding hydroquinone.
c. It can be reduced by prepolymeryzing a fraction of denture base material.
d. Excess monomer can lead to increased polymerization shrinkage.
e. None of the above.
47. Hobo and Takayama electronically compared the sagittal condylar movement of the
eccentric condylar path with the returning condylar path. According to their findings, which
of the following is true?
a. The paths were virtually identical.
b. The mean eccentric path was significantly greater than the returning path.
c. The mean eccentric path was significantly less than the returning path.
d. The eccentric paths and the returning paths were so variable and inconsistent that
no conclusion could be drawn.
48. Evidence supporting specific occlusal theories for implant supported prostheses is based
on:
a. In vitro studies.
b. Animal studies.
c. Expert opinion.

49. In the edentulous patient, which of the following characterize a normal tongue position?
a. It completely fills the floor of the mouth.
b. The tip or apex of the tongue rests on or is just to the lingual side of the lower
anterior ridge.
c. The lateral borders rest over the ridge which would normally represent the occlusal
surfaces of the teeth.
50. What is the recommended occlusal-cervical/facial-lingual ratio for teeth prepared for full
coverage crowns with a total occlusal convergence angle of 23.6 or less?
a. 0.27
b. 0.34
c. 0.40
d. 0.53
51. The following is not a semi-adjustable articulator:
a. Hageman Balancer
b. Whip Mix.
c. Hanau H2 Model 96.
d. Dentatus.
e. Hanau Kinoscope.
52. According to Wright, what is the ideal position of the lateral aspect of the body of the
tongue?
a. Even with the occlusal surface of the posterior teeth
b. Just above the occlusal surface of the posterior teeth
c. Just below the occlusal surface of the posterior teeth
d. Well above the occlusal surface of the posterior teeth
53. Who originated the mucostatic concept of making denture impressions?
a. Page
b. DeVan
c. Richardson
d. Gysi
e. Patterson
54. Post-surgical maxillary defects predispose the patient to:
a. Hypernasal speech.
b. Fluid leakage into the nasal cavity.
c. Impaired masticatory function.
d. Various degrees of cosmetic deformities.
e. All of the above.

55. In a study by Jagger and Harrison (1994), it was found that:

a. Opposing enamel wear produced by glazed aluminous porcelain was greater than
unglazed aluminous porcelain.
b. Opposing enamel wear produced by glazed aluminous porcelain was less than
unglazed aluminous porcelain.
c. Opposing enamel wear produced by polished porcelain was substantially less than
glazed and unglazed aluminous porcelain.
d. Polished or glazed porcelain caused significantly more wear than unglazed
porcelain.
56. As viewed from the coronal and sagittal planes, the condylar disk is thickest:
a. Medially and Anteriorly.
b. Laterally and Posteriorly.
c. Medially and Intermediately.
d. Medially and Posteriorly.
57. When examining the muscles of mastication in a symptomatic patient, the patient reports
feeling pain as gentle resistance is applied to the chin during protrusive movement. Which
structure is likely responsible for this pain?
a. Inferior lateral pterygoid
b. Retrodiscal tissues
c. Superior lateral pterygoid
d. Stylomandibular ligament
58. The angle formed by the occlusal rest and the vertical minor connector should be:
a. Less than 45.
b. Less than 60.
c. Less than 90.
d. Greater than 90.
e. Greater than 120.
59. Applegate describes the clinical Class V partially edentulous arch as one with:
a. Teeth remaining anteriorly and posteriorly that can bear the complete occlusal
load.
b. Teeth remaining anteriorly and posteriorly that can only assume a portion of the
complete occlusal load.
c. Teeth remaining anteriorly and posteriorly where the anterior tooth cannot provide
any abutment support.
d. All remaining teeth anterior to the bilateral edentulous ridges.
60. Total occlusal convergence (TOC) is the angle formed between two opposing prepared
axial surfaces. An appropriate clinical goal for TOC is:
a. 5-7.
b. 8-10.
c. 10-20.
d. 20-25.

61. The maxillary oral mucosal surface most commonly irritated by complete dentures post
insertion is:
a. Labial frenum.
b. Vestibular sulcus between labial and buccal frenum.
c. Edentulous ridge.
d. Vestibular sulcus at tuberosity.
62. According to DiPietro, which of the following is not a clinical manifestation of a low FMA?
a. Anterior components of force on prosthesis
b. Increased biting force
c. Concave facial profile
d. Unlikely tongue thrust habit
e. Increased relative abrasion potential
63. According to Tjan and Miller, a patient is classified as having a high smile line if he or she
displays:
a. A continuous band of gingival tissue in a full smile.
b. Greater than 65% of the interproximal papillae in a full smile.
c. Greater than 65% of the facial surface of each maxillary anterior tooth in a full
smile.
d. Greater than 35% of the facial surface of each maxillary anterior tooth with lips in
repose.
64. A patient who is missing teeth #23, 24, 25, 26 and 28 is classified as a Kennedy:
a. Class I.
b. Class III mod I.
c. Class IV mod I.
d. Class I mod I.
65. According to the American Heart Associations guidelines, a patient who reports which of
the following conditions on his medical history is most likely to require antibiotic
premedication:
a. Mitral valve prolapses with regurgitation.
b. Placement of a stent in a coronary artery.
c. Aortic valve stenosis.
d. A prosthetic heart valve.
66. Which of the following statements regarding refractory components of an investment is
correct?
a. Silica (SiOx2) is added to investments to regulate the thermal expansion
b. Silica exists in at least four allotropic forms: quartz, tridymite, cristobalite, and fused
quartz
c. -allotropic forms are stable only above the transition temperature and an inversion
to the lower form occurs on cooling
d. All of the above

67. The influence of post design on stress distribution has been tested using photoelastic
materials, strain gauges, and finite materials and has drawn all of the following conclusions
except:
a. The greatest stress concentrations are found at the shoulder and at the apex.
b. Stresses are increased as post length increases.
c. Sharp angles should be avoided because they produce high stress during loading.
d. High stress can be generated during insertion.
e. Parallel-sided posts may distribute stress more evenly than do tapered posts,
except at the apex.
68. When comparing all ceramic restorations, fractures tend to occur:
a. Throughout the whole crown thickness in both feldspathic crowns and zirconia
core/feldspathic veneered crowns.
b. Throughout the whole crown thickness in the feldspathic crowns but only in the
veneer layer of zirconia core/feldspathic veneered crowns
c. Throughout the whole crown thickness in the feldspathic crowns but only in the
core layer of zirconia core/feldspathic veneered crowns.
d. All ceramic crowns never fracture.
69. Which of the following components of composite resin matrix shrinks the least?
a. Bis-GMA
b. TEGDMA
c. Silorane
d. Ormocers
70. When preparing a molar tooth where the margins of the preparation approximate a
furcation, which of the following is the best course of action?
a. The preparation should follow the original crown contours.
b. The preparation should be feathered out into the furcation.
c. The surface should be invaginated into a concavity above the bifurcation that
extends occlusally until it meets the facial or lingual groove in the occlusal 1/3.
d. Furcations found on the mesial or distal of crowns should not receive any special
consideration and the tooth should be prepared as usual.
71. During the initial exam of a completely edentulous patient, the significance of Heberdeens
nodes:
a. Increase the difficulty of a patient to insert and clean their dentures.
b. Prevent the accurate capture of the mylohyoid muscle during the mandibular final
impression of a complete denture.
c. Increase the chance of ulceration along the alveolar ridge after delivery of a
mandibular complete denture.
d. Requires surgical removal prior to the fabrication of dentures.
72. The sequencing of abutment preparation on sound enamel or existing restorations is:
a. Occlusal rest, height of contour, proximal surfaces.
b. Height of contour, occlusal rest, proximal plate.
c. Height of contour, proximal plate, occlusal rest.
d. Proximal plate, height of contour, occlusal rest.

73. A lever system in which the resistance is located between the fulcrum and the applied
power is termed a:
a. First class lever.
b. Second class lever.
c. Third class lever.
d. Fourth class lever.
e. Fifth class lever.
74. Heat-activated poly(methyl methacrylate) resins are polymerized via:
a. Condensation.
b. Cationic addition.
c. Anionic addition.
d. Free radical addition.
e. Chelation.
75. Distinct changes in alveolar form may be observed following tooth loss. Faciolingual loss
of alveolar bone in conjunction with normal ridge height is commonly classified as what
type of defect?
a. Seibert Class I
b. Seibert Class II
c. Seibert Class III
d. Virchow Class I
e. Virchow Class II
76. Canine guidance and lateral disclusion result in:
a. An increase in EMG activity of all muscles.
b. Isotonic muscle contraction of the medial pterygoid muscle.
c. Increased activity in the anterior temporal muscle during lateral slide from centric
occlusion.
d. A decrease in EMG activity of the temporal and masseter muscles.
e. No significant effect on the EMG activity of the temporal and masseter muscles.
77. What is the most common elastomer used in maxillofacial prostheses?
a. Polyvinyl chloride
b. Polyurethane
c. Methyl methacrylate
d. Rubber latex
e. RTV silicone
78. What is the greatest disadvantage of gypsum compared to Epoxy resin?
a. Poor resistance to abrasion
b. Expansion
c. Shrinkage
d. None of the above

79. A composite resection for the surgical treatment of oral cancer includes resection of:
a. The primary tumor in continuity with a portion of the mandible and a radical neck
dissection.
b. The primary tumor in continuity with a portion of the mandible and a radical neck
dissection only if necessary.
c. The primary tumor, a radical neck dissection, and a portion of the mandible if
necessary.
d. The primary tumor only.
e. The primary tumor in conjunction with the extraction of all remaining teeth.
80. A type of statistical test used to analyze three or more treatment groups with quantitative
data would be:
a. A Mann-Whitney test.
b. Chi-squared analysis.
c. Unpaired t-test.
d. An Analysis of variance.
81. How far from the free gingival margins of the maxillary teeth should the border of a major
connector be if lingual plating is NOT used?
a. At least 2mm
b. At least 3mm
c. At least 4mm
d. At least 5mm
e. At least 6mm
82. According to Bissada, which type of the following features had the best tissue response
with regards to design of the major connector?
a. Gingival margin covered with internal relief
b. Gingival margin covered with no internal relief
c. Gingival margins 5-6 mm away from the Palatal plate
d. Gingival margins 8-10 mm away from the Palatal plate
83. In designing the denture base retentive element for a mandibular extension base
removable partial denture, how far posterior should the minor connector be extended?
a. At least 10mm
b. At least 8mm, but no more than 15mm
c. At least 20mm
d. 2/3 the length of the edentulous ridge
e. To the posterior extent of the retromolar pad
84. The CIE LAB Color System is used almost exclusively in color research in dentistry around
the world. What is the advantage of this system over the Munsell system?
a. It measures only the saturation of the tooths color.
b. It compensates for a light source that does not have a color temperature close to
5500K.
c. It measures color differences that represent approximately uniform steps in human
color perception
d. It emphasizes the effect of the value of the color in the over-all color perception.

85. According to Misch, which is the more favorable implant thread design:
a. V-thread.
b. Buttress.
c. Reverse buttress.
d. Square.
e. No difference.
86. Which of the following factor/s is/are to be considered when making a decision to perform
endodontic or dental implant therapy?
a. Patient related issues
b. Tooth and periodontium related factors
c. Color characteristics of the teeth
d. Quality and quantity of the bone
e. All of the above
87. The classification system for obturator design for partially edentulous patients is called:
a. McGarrys Classification.
b. ORPD Classification.
c. House Classification.
d. Aramanys Classification.
e. Fords Classification.
88. The following statement about articulating paper markings is true:
a. Mark area is representative of the load contained within the mark.
b. Articulating paper markings indicate points of contact between teeth.
c. Mark area does not represent the load contained within the mark.
d. Both A and B are correct.
e. Both B and C are correct.
89. The average tooth display in male patients in the repose position according to Vig and
Brundo is:
a. 3.4 mm.
b. 1.91 mm.
c. 1.58 mm.
d. 0.56 mm.
90. When re-melting an alloy to cast metal, what percentage of new alloy needs to be added
to metal sprues that were removed from previous castings?
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 50%

91. According to Aramanys Classification of Maxillary Defects, which defect is the least
frequent to occur, and what are the anatomic areas involved?
a. Class IV defect, including the premaxilla on the non-surgerized side
b. Class I defect, resection performed along the midline of the maxilla, the teeth are
maintained on one side of the arch
c. Class II defect, this group is unilateral, retaining the anterior teeth on the
contralateral side
d. Class VI, maxillary defect anterior to the remaining abutment teeth
e. Class III, the palatal defect occurs in the central portion of the hard palate & may
involve part of the soft palate
92. Titanium goes through an allotropic transformation from the hexagonal close-packed phase, to a body-centered cubic -phase at 885 C. The phase is stabilized at room
temperature by the addition of:
a. Molybdenum.
b. Carbon.
c. Tin.
d. Silicon.
93. Centric relation is described as a musculoskeletal stable joint position. Electrical
stimulation and subsequent relaxation of the elevator muscles has been proposed to
locate the optimal condylar position. This position determined by electrical stimulation:
a. Is almost always forward and downward to the seated position with increased
vertical dimension.
b. Is an anterior superior position on the eminence.
c. Is a rearmost, uppermost and midmost position in the glenoid fossa.
d. Represents an orthopedically stable condyle position.
94. The muscles of mastication are derived from which of the following branchial arches:
a. First branchial arch.
b. Second branchial arch.
c. Third branchial arch.
d. Sixth branchial arch.
95. Which statement concerning imaging modalities for preoperative implant site assessment
is true?
a. Pantomography has a high resolution, low radiation dose but shows variable
magnification.
b. Medical CT provides sectional slices and 3D information is inexpensive and has a
low radiation dose.
c. CBCT provides sectional slices and 3D information at a relatively low radiation
dose.
d. Linear tomography is the most optimal imaging modality choice for oral
rehabilitation with several implants.
96. Which of the following statements is true :
a. The larger the voxel size the higher the resolution.
b. The higher the voxel size the lower the resolution.
c. There is no relation between voxel size and resolution.
d. The lower the voxel size the lower the resolution.

97. A whistle sibilant distortion made by a patient wearing a maxillary denture, can be best
corrected by:
a. Changing palatal contours to partially block the air flow.
b. Moving the maxillary anterior teeth downward.
c. Waiting for accommodation, this usually occurs.
d. Constricting the premolars and the first maxillary molars slightly to the lingual.
e. Developing a highly polished palatal surface.
98.
Posselt, Glickman, Arstad and Yurkstas demonstrated that maximal intercuspal relation of
the teeth is anterior to terminal hinge position (centric relation) in approximately _____ of
individuals with a full complement of natural teeth.
a. 80%
b. 85%
c. 90%
d. 95%
99.
More recently, the quality of the conducted trials investigating the effect of prosthetic
therapy on patient-based outcomes is improving. What is the most valid instrument used to
measure such outcomes.
a. Oral Health related quality of life (OHRQOL)
b. Oral Health Impact Profile (OHIP)
c. Subjective Oral Health Status Indicators (SOHSI)
d. Dental Impact Profile (DIP)
100. Which of the following prostheses benefits most from an anterior guide table?
a. Posterior fixed partial denture with canine protected articulation.
b. Preparation of opposing first molars with desired group function from premolars
and canines in lateral excursions.
c. Maxillary central incisors with desired protrusive guidance from central and lateral
incisors.
d. Maxillary canine with desired canine protected articulation.
101. The component(s) found in gold dental solders responsible for narrowing the melting
range, increasing the adherence of the solder to the metal, and increasing the flow of the
solder is:
a. Gold.
b. Copper.
c. Zinc and tin.
d. Silver.
e. Platinum.
102. Preload is a term that is commonly used in implant dentistry. Which of the following is a
definition of preload?
a. The contact force clamping together an implant and implant abutment
b. The amount of torque, expressed in Ncm, delivered to a screw
c. The force transmitted to an implant during occlusal function
d. The torque, expressed in Ncm, required to loosen a screw

103. Early wound healing around endosseous implants involves phenotypic conversion of
mesenchymal cells into bone-forming cells. What is the term given to this phenomenon?
a. Osseoinduction
b. Osseoconduction
c. Appositional bone growth
d. Contact osteogenesis
104. What is the effect of cigarette smoking on dental implant survival when implants are placed
in grafted maxillary sinuses?
a. Smoking has no effect on implant survival rate.
b. Smoking increases blood supply and improves healing.
c. Smoking is detrimental to the success of osseointegrated implants in grafted
maxillary sinuses regardless of the quantity of cigarettes consumed.
d. Smoking is detrimental to the success of osseointegrated implants in grafted
maxillary sinuses only in heavy smokers.
e. None of the above are true.
105. What would you most likely expect to see as 6-month sequelae of a therapeutic dose of
radiation to the head and neck area?
a. Mucositis
b. Increased salivation
c. Gingival color change on the treatment side
d. Rampant caries
e. Trismus.
106. Which is true concerning the biologic effects of radiation?
a. The cytoplasm is more radiosensitive than the nucleus
b. Cell damage is greater in hypoxic conditions
c. Mitotic cells are more radiosensitive than non-mitotic cells
d. Has very little effect on mature erythrocytes
e. None of the above
107. The normalized index of x-ray attenuation, a Hounsfield unit, is based on what three
substances:
a. Water, barium, air.
b. Bone, blood, oxygen.
c. Water, bone, barium.
d. Air, bone, water.
e. Water, air, blood.
108. The intrusion of teeth in fixed partial dentures supported by both implants and natural teeth
is hypothesized to be caused by:
a. Disuse atrophy.
b. Differential energy dissipation.
c. Mandibular flexure.
d. Fixed partial denture flexure.

109. A recent systematic review (Torabinejad et al., 2007) compared therapeutic outcomes of
nonsurgical root canal treatment with three alternative treatments that involve extraction of
the affected tooth: (1) tooth replacement using a FPD, (2) tooth replacement using an
implant supported single crown and (3) no tooth replacement. Findings of this systematic
review indicate:
a. Single implants restored with crowns and nonsurgical endodontic treatments
resulted in superior long-term survival compared to fixed partial dentures.
b. Priority in treatment planning should be given to retain the teeth through root canal
treatment and replacement with an implant-supported single crown should not be
considered.
c. Endodontically treated teeth should be replaced with implant-supported single
crowns.
d. Extraction of teeth without replacement is preferred over fabricating a fixed partial
denture.
e. None of the above reflect conclusion of this systematic review.
110. In a comprehensive literature review relative to complications with implants and implant
prostheses by Goodacre, which of the following statements is correct concerning the
survival of individual implants?
a. The mean incidence of loss of individual implants for maxillary implant-supported
overdentures was 10%.
b. The mean incidence of loss of individual implants for mandibular implant-supported
overdentures was 15%.
c. The mean incidence of loss of individual implants for single implant-supported
artificial crowns was 3%.
d. The mean incidence of loss of individual implants for maxillary implant-supported
fixed partial dentures was 15%.
111. The polymerization of poly(vinyl siloxane) materials differ from other elastomeric
impression materials by the type of reaction. Which of the following is that type of
reaction?
a. Addition polymerization
b. Condensation polymerization
c. Free-radical polymerization
d. Heat polymerization
e. Irreversible reaction from a sol to a gel
112. The most important consideration for treatment of patients with Alzheimers disease is:
a. The use of a rubber dam.
b. The increased use of removable prostheses as disease progresses.
c. That necessary dental treatment is completed early in the illness.
d. Longer appointment times are preferred to complete restorative care.
e. The use of fluoride containing restorative materials.
113. Many studies have shown that an adequate ferrule is necessary for an endodontically
treated tooth that is restored with a dowel to prevent fracture of the tooth root by the dowel.
What is the consensus opinion as to the minimal adequate ferrule to prevent fracture?
a. 0-1mm
b. 1.5-2 mm
c. 2.5-3 mm
d. 3.5-4 mm

114. Sedation is often recommended for the elderly dental patient due to:
a. Mental status.
b. Poor level of cooperation.
c. Anxiety reduction.
d. Need for amnesia of perception of traumatic dental procedures.
115. Which is the strongest predictor of an individuals health status?
a. Age
b. Income
c. Literacy skills
d. Education level
e. Racial/ethnic group
f. Average alcohol intake per day
116. When evaluating the Geriatric Patient, it is important to perform a screening test of
cognition in addition to obtaining a history. One frequently used cognitive screening test is
the:
a. The Macro-Mental Status Exam (MMSE).
b. The Short Blessed Test (SBT).
c. The Care Transitions Test.
d. The Katz Index.
117. One would expect to find certain characteristics in a patient with a low or high FMA that
might impact on prosthodontic treatment. All of the following are characteristic of a low
FMA except:
a. Short clinical crowns.
b. Increased biting force.
c. Increased zone of attached gingival.
d. Broad and flat palatal vault.
118. The ADA 1984 classification for dental casting alloys includes each of the following except:
a. High noble metals contain 60 wt% or greater noble metal elements.
b. Noble metals contain 40 wt% or greater noble metal elements.
c. Noble metal elements include: Au, Ir, Os, Pt, Rh, Ru.
d. Predominately base metal contains less than 25 wt% noble metal.
e. High noble metals contain 40 wt% or greater gold.
119. Condylar movement occurring on the nonworking side includes all of the following except:
a. Mediotrusion.
b. Surtrusion.
c. Orbiting movement.
d. Protrusion.
e. Inferior lateral pterygoid muscle activity.

120. Upon completion of the pantographic tracing, the fully adjustable articulator is set and the
data provided becomes the Diagnostic Information for that patient. Setting the instrument
to establish the Occlusal Prescription typically (for a complete fixed restorative case)
requires reducing the steepness of the recorded condylar inclination by what amount
according to Clyde Schuyler?
a. 3 degrees
b. 5 degrees
c. 10 degrees
d. 15 degrees
e. 0 degrees
121. Schallhorn (1957) wrote that an arbitrary hinge axis is justified for which of the following
reasons?
a. There are multiple hinge axis.
b. Split axis theory.
c. Over 95% of all kinematic axes are within 5 mm of the arbitrary axis.
d. The error is only 0.2mm at the molar with a 3mm interocclusal record when you are
5 mm away from the kinematic hinge axis.
122. The zygoma implant:
a. Utilizes angled abutments to facilitate path of insertion problems.
b. Requires a trans-sinus intraoral access.
c. Can provide support for cantilever prosthetic extensions.
d. Incorporates a rigid framework and several implants to provide cross-arch
stabilization.
123. The amount of retention provided by a retentive clasp arm is dependent on all the following
clasp characteristics except:
a. Length.
b. Diameter.
c. Cross-sectional form.
d. Distance to height of contour.
e. Taper.
124. In a commonly employed classification system designed to describe bone quality for
implantation, type 4 bone refers to:
a. A thin cortical layer of bone surrounding a larger core of low-density trabecular
bone.
b. A thick layer of cortical bone surrounding a smaller core of low-density trabecular
bone.
c. An equal thickness of cortical and trabecular bone.
d. Bone of minimal height and volume.
e. Bone of ideal height and volume.

125. When developing a Neutrocentric occlusal scheme, which of the following is not one of the
concepts proposed by Devan?
a. A reduction in the number of posterior teeth from eight to six teeth per arch
b. Neutralizing the compensating curve by setting the teeth on a plane instead of on a
spherical surface
c. Positioning the posterior teeth in as central a position in reference to the foundation
as the tongue function will allow
d. Increasing the width of the posterior teeth by 40 % to better distribute the occlusal
load
e. Using cusp-less posterior teeth
126. For an edentulous patient which of the following is true:
a. The mean area of support for the edentulous maxilla and mandible is 22.5 cm2 per
arch.
b. The mean area of support is 45 cm2 for the edentulous maxilla and 23 cm2 for the
edentulous mandible.
c. The mean area of support is 23 cm2 for the edentulous maxilla and 12 cm2 for the
d. The mean area of support is 12 cm2 for the edentulous maxilla and 23 cm2 for the
e. The mean area of support for the edentulous maxilla and mandible is 45 cm2 per
arch.
127. Long term wear of a mandibular removable partial denture opposing a maxillary complete
denture may result in tissue changes collectively called Combination Syndrome. Which
of the following changes is NOT associated with Combination Syndrome?
a. Loss of bone from the anterior part of the maxillary ridge
b. Overgrowth of the tuberosities
c. Papillary hyperplasia in the hard palate
d. Extrusion of the mandibular anterior teeth
e. Osseous hyperplasia under the RPD bases
128. Which of the following is NOT considered in the Prosthodontic Diagnostic Index (PDI)
classification of the edentulous patient?
a. Residual ridge morphology of the mandible
b. Residual ridge morphology of the maxilla
c. Mandibular muscle attachments.
d. Jaw relationship classification
e. Mandibular bone height
129. Which one of the following muscles insert into the capsular ligament?
a. Massetter
b. Lateral Pterygoid
c. Digastric
d. Medial Pterygoid

130. When describing the actions of the human temporomandibular joint, which of the following
best defines diarthrosis?
a. Describes two arthritic joints
b. Capable of hinge movement only
c. Capable of limited free movement
d. Capable of translatory movements only
e. Capable of rotational and translational movements
131. When making a provisional restoration for a patient who presents with a severely worn
dentition, creating an anterior guidance that is too steep is likely to cause which of the
following complications?
a. Periodontal abscess
b. Loosening of the provisional restoration
c. Temporalis symptoms
d. Clicking of the anterior teeth
e. Phonetic problems
132. The dimension of color that is probably most important in shade matching is:
a. Hue.
b. Value.
c. Chroma.
d. Saturation.
e. Intensity.
133. Which of the following are advantages of cement-retained implant restorations versus
screw-retained implant restorations?
a. Better esthetics
b. Better occlusion
c. Passive when placed
d. A and B only
e. A, B, and C
134. Two ml. of a local anesthetic solution consisting of 2% Lidocaine with 1:100,000
Epinephrine contains how many milligrams of each?
a. 4mg. Lidocaine, 0.2 mg. Epinephrine
b. 4mg. Lidocaine, 0.02 mg. Epinephrine
c. 40mg. Lidocaine, 0.2 mg. Epinephrine
d. 40mg. Lidocaine, 0.02 mg. Epinephrine
e. 400mg. Lidocaine, 0.2 mg. Epinephrine
135. Which of the following determinants of occlusal morphology will allow for taller posterior
cusps?
a. Greater horizontal overlap of the anterior teeth
b. More acute anteroposterior curve of Spee
c. Greater immediate lateral translation
d. Greater vertical overlap of the anterior teeth
e. Shallower condylar guidance

136. Normal values for platelets are in the range of:

a. 4,500-11,000 /mm3.
b. 15,000-45,000/ mm3.
c. 45,000-110,000 /mm3.
d. 15,000-45,000/ mm3.
e. 150,000-450,000/mm3.
137. The area that lies above the dorsum of the tongue and below the hard and soft palates
when the mandible and tongue are in the rest position is called the:
a. Bolus space.
b. Space of Donders.
c. Mastication space.
d. Space of Bonwill.
138. According to Osterle and Cronin, when placing single tooth implants in adults:
a. There should be no concern over changes related to continued growth and
development.
b. A restoration that was initially well placed may end up becoming vertically deficient
and 2-3 mm lingual to the natural teeth after 2 or more decades.
c. There is continued growth in adults, but it is usually just seen in areas such as
ears, noses, and chins, not in dentoalveolar areas.
d. If a radiograph is made to verify closure of growth plates and sutures, then one can
be confident that dentoalveolar areas have quit growing.
139. When fabricating a provisional restoration by mixing the polymer and the monomer, color
instability of the restoration can result. In time, the restoration may become more yellow in
appearance. The cause is:
a. The monomer present is urethane dimethacrylate.
b. The polymer used was methyl methacrylate.
c. Curing the restoration in water at 100 C.
d. Unreacted benzoyl peroxide is present.
140. Which of the following salivary antigens is (are) most related to the incidence of caries?
a. Immunoglobulin A
b. Immunoglobulin M
c. Secretory immunoglobulin A
d. Immunoglobulin M and immunoglobulin A
141. The best and most consistent indicator for caries risk assessment is:
a. Lactobacillus saliva test.
b. Mutans streptococci saliva test.
c. Past caries experience.
d. Saliva ph test.

142. Five factors governing articulation according to Hanaus Quint are: CG (condylar
guidance), IG (incisal guidance), CI (cusp inclination), OOP (orientation of occlusal plane)
and CC (compensating curve). Which factor is determined by the patient and the dentist
has the least control over?
a. CG (condylar guidance)
b. IG (incisal guidance)
c. CI (cusp inclination)
d. OOP (orientation of occlusal plane)
e. CC (compensating curve)
143. Apparent color change exhibited by a single color when the spectral distribution of the light
source is changed or when the angle of illumination or viewing is changed is called:
a. Metamerism.
b. Translucency.
c. Fluorescence.
d. Color constancy.
144. What types of microorganisms are present the most in periimplantitis?
a. Gram positive aerobics
b. Gram negative aerobics
c. Gram negative anaerobic and facultative
d. Gram positive anaerobes
145. Intraoral carcinoma is most commonly located on/in which structure:
a. Floor of the mouth.
b. Lateral or ventral area of tongue.
c. Soft palate.
d. Buccal mucosa.
146. Cleft palate is the result of:
a. Failure of fusion of the lateral nasal and median nasal processes.
b. Failure of fusion of the maxillary and median nasal processes.
c. Failure of fusion of the maxillary and lateral nasal processes.
d. Failure of fusion of the maxillary and mandibular processes.
147. Which of the following graft definitions is correct?
a. Alloplastic graft material is transplanted from one site to another within the same
individual.
b. Isogenic graft is when graft material is transplanted between nongenetically related
members of the same species.
c. Allogenic graft is when graft material is transplanted between genetically related
members of the same species.
d. Xenogenous graft is when graft material is transplanted between members of
different species.
e. Autogenous graft is when nonbiologic material suitable for implantation is used,
such as titanium, cobalt-chrome, stainless steel, silicone and plastics.

148. Which of the following is NOT a fat soluble vitamin?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin C
149. Primary supporting (bearing) areas of the maxilla include:
a. The periphery of the denture bearing area and the anterior ridge crest.
b. The midline suture and the posterior ridge crest.
c. The posterior ridge crest and the horizontal hard palate.
d. The incisive papilla region and the posterior ridge crest.
e. The Anterior ridge crest.
150. The eye is sensitive only to the visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum with
wavelengths in the range of:
a. 0-90 nm.
b. 100-370 nm.
c. 380-750 nm.
d. 700-1200 nm.

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