0% (0 out of 40 correct)

1. Which of the following is a neurotransmitter used by postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic

division of the autonomic nervous system? Choose the correct option.
A. Norepinephrine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Glycine
D. GABA

2. Why is propranolol used to treat stage fright? Choose the correct option.
A. Slows heart rate and reduces blood pressure
B. Dilates the pupils
C. Provides a sense of self-confidence
D. Reduces the firing of raphe neurons

3. Which neurotransmitter is synthesized and released by the raphe nuclei? Choose the correct
option.
A. Serotonin
B. Acetylcholine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Adrenaline

4. Which of the following is true of the diffuse modulatory systems of the brain? Choose the
correct option.
A. Each system originates with a large set of neurons.
B. Neurons arise from all parts of the brain except from the brain stem.
C. Neurons release transmitter only into the synaptic cleft.
D. Each neuron influences many others, contacting more than 100,000 postsynaptic neurons.

5. Which is true of the CannonBard theory of emotion? Choose the correct option.
A. Emotional experience is a response to physiological changes in the body.
B. Emotion is evoked by a situation, and the body changes in response to the emotion.
C. Emotional experience can be independent of emotional expression.
Sensory inputs have no influence on emotional experience.

D.

6. What is the most common symptom of amygdala lesions in humans? Choose the correct option.
A. KlverBucy syndrome
B. Emotional disturbances such as spontaneous crying
C. Placid demeanor
D. Inability to recognize the facial expression of fear

7. What is the empirical evidence for the experience of unconscious emotions? Choose the correct
option.
A. James Papez proposed a link between cingulate cortex (emotional experience) and the
hypothalamus (emotional expression) in what is called the Papez circuit.
B. Experiments by Heinrich Klver and Paul Bucy using temporal lobectomy in rhesus
monkeys demonstrated the KlverBucy syndrome.
C. Experiments by Arne hman, Ray Dolan, and their colleagues showed autonomic
responses to angry faces that had not been consciously perceived.
D. Experiments by Joseph LeDoux showed the effects of fear conditioning and learned
visceral responses.

8. Which of the following is strong evidence linking the amygdala with fear? Choose the correct
option.
A. Animals with the KlverBucy syndrome exhibit flattened emotions.
B. Monkeys with bilateral amygdalectomy have diminished visual perception and poor
visual recognition.
C. Monkeys with bilateral amygdalectomy show sham rage.
D. Bilateral amygdalectomy in animals profoundly reduces fear and aggression.

9. Vervet monkeys were injected with drugs that either increased or decreased serotonergic activity.
These experiments showed which of the following about the relationship between serotonin and
aggression? Choose the correct option.
A. More aggression is associated with less serotonergic activity.
B. More aggression is associated with more serotonergic activity.
C. Aggression is not affected by serotonergic activity.
D. Aggression is influenced by high but not low levels of serotonergic activity.

10. Which of the following structures is associated with predatory aggression, as shown by

stimulation experiments in cats? Choose the correct option.

A. Lateral hypothalamus
B. Medial hypothalamus
C. Lateral and medial hypothalamus
D. Periaqueductal gray

11. Electrical stimulation of the amygdala elicits what response in humans? Choose the correct
option.
A. Decreased vigilance or attention
B. Increased recognition of fearful, happy, and neutral facial expressions
C. Increased anxiety and fear
D. Decreased fear and aggression

12. What part of the nervous system generates the fluctuations and oscillations of an EEG? Choose
the correct option.
A. Individual cortical neurons
B. Dendrites of many pyramidal neurons in the cerebral cortex
C. Individual thalamic neurons
D. Axons of many thalamic neurons projecting to the cerebral cortex

13. Which of the following represents delta rhythms, the hallmark of deep sleep? Choose the
correct option.
A. Greater than 14 Hz
B. 813 Hz
C. Less than 4 Hz
D. 47 Hz

14. What brain structure is known to act as a powerful pacemaker for the cerebral cortex? Choose
the correct option.
A. Cerebellum
B. Midbrain
C. Brain stem
D. Thalamus

15. Why is REM sleep referred to as paradoxical sleep? Choose the correct option.
A. The EEG for REM sleep is almost indistinguishable from an active, waking brain.
B. The body (except for the eyes and respiratory muscles) is immobilized.
C. Vivid, detailed illusions called dreams are conjured during REM sleep.
D. Rapid eye movements occur during REM sleep.

16. Which of the following statements represents the activationsynthesis hypothesis proposed by
Hobson and McCarley? Choose the correct option.
A. Sleep is the best way to enforce isolation, so as to protect a smaller animal from bigger
animals during the night.
B. Sleep is an adaptation for conservation of energy because during sleep, the body just
does enough work to stay alive.
C. Dreams are an unconscious way for us to express our sexual and aggressive fantasies,
which are forbidden while we are awake.
D. Dreams are the associations and memories of the cerebral cortex that are elicited by the
random discharges of the pons during REM sleep.

17. Which of the following describes REM sleep behavior disorder? Choose the correct option.
A. Sleepers who do not generate REM brain waves characteristic of REM sleep
B. Dreamers have no REM atonia and therefore may act out their dreams.
C. Sleepers who have narcolepsy
D. Dreamers with delta wave terrors

18. What are zeitgebers? Choose the correct option.

A. Cellular mechanisms that serve as internal biological clocks
B. Free-running biological clocks
C. Environmental cues that help biological clocks become entrained to the daynight cycle
and the 24-hour day
D. Fluctuations in physiological functions with circadian rhythms

19. Which of the following statements describes the disorder called panic attacks? Choose the
correct option.
A. Sudden feelings of intense terror that occur without warning
B. Compulsions that neutralize anxiety
C. Anxiety provoked by exposure to certain performance situations
D. Reexperiencing an extremely traumatic event

20. Which of following are the common symptoms of OCD? Choose the correct option.
A. Avoidance of situations irrationally perceived as threatening, such as being alone outside
the house, in a crowd, or on a bridge
B. Palpitations, sweating, trembling, shortness of breath, chest pain, nausea, dizziness,
tingling sensations, and chills
C. Overwhelming fear of dying or going crazy, with a tendency to flee from the place
where the attack begins
D. Recurrent, intrusive thoughts, images, or impulses perceived as inappropriate, grotesque,
or forbidden

21. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is released by the anterior pituitary gland when what
neurochemical is released by parvocellular neurosecretory neurons of the hypothalamus?
Choose the correct option.
A. Serotonin
B. Norepinephrine (NE)
C. GABA
D. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

22. Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of a tricyclic antidepressant drug?
Choose the correct option.
A. Block serotonin reuptake only at serotonin terminals
B. Interfere with the actions of adenylyl cyclase
C. Block the reuptake of both norepinephrine and serotonin by transporters
D. Reduce the enzymatic degradation of serotonin and norepinephrine.

23. What is the role of the central nucleus of the amygdala in the stress response? Choose the
correct option.
A. Activates hypothalamic stimulation of the HPA axis and the sympathetic nervous system
B. Activates periaqueductal gray matter to produce avoidance behavior
C. Activates the diffuse modulatory systems of the brain to increase vigilance
D. All choices are correct.

24. Which are two major classes of anxiolytic drugs? Choose the correct option.
A. Tricyclic compounds and MAO inhibitors
B. MAO inhibitors and lithium

C. Benzodiazepines and serotonin-selective reuptake inhibitors

D. Lithium and tricyclic compounds

25. Which of the following statements explains why neurons that fire together wire together?
Choose the correct option.
A. A synapse formed by a presynaptic axon is weakened when the presynaptic axon is
active at the same time that the postsynaptic neuron is weakly activated by other inputs.
B. A synapse formed by a presynaptic axon is strengthened when the presynaptic axon is
active at the same time that the postsynaptic neuron is weakly activated by other inputs.
C. A synapse formed by a presynaptic axon is strengthened when the presynaptic axon is
active at the same time that the postsynaptic neuron is strongly activated by other inputs.
D. A synapse formed by a presynaptic axon is weakened when the presynaptic axon is
active at the same time that the postsynaptic neuron is strongly activated by other inputs.

26. Which of the following best describes activity-dependent synaptic rearrangement? Choose the
correct option.
A. When retinal activity inhibits a postsynaptic LGN neuron, the synapses between them
are lost.
B. Almost all activity-dependent synaptic rearrangement occurs before birth as a
consequence of spontaneous electrical activity in developing neurons.
C. Significant activity-dependent shaping of neuron connections occurs after birth and is
influenced profoundly by sensory experience.
D. Actively migrating neural precursor cells are precisely guided to the cortical plate by the
network of radial glial fibers.

27. Which type of memory can be accessed for conscious recollection? Choose the correct option.
A. Nondeclarative memory
B. Procedural memory
C. Declarative memory
D. Classical conditioning

28. What term best describes the process by which reactivating a memory makes it sensitive just as
it had been immediately after the memory was first formed? Choose the correct option.
A. Consolidation
B. Reconsolidation
C. Deconsolidation
D. Differentiation

29. Karl Lashley studied the effects of various-sized cortical lesions on maze performance in rats.
He concluded that the memory deficits were correlated with the size of the lesion but not the
location and hypothesized that all cortical areas contribute equally to learning and memory.
What is the current interpretation of these experiments? Choose the correct option.
A. Lashley's conclusions remain unchallenged.
B. Nothing about Lashley's studies has stood the test of time.
C. All cortical areas contribute equally to memory in rats but not in other species.
D. All cortical areas do not contribute equally to memory, but memories are widely
distributed.

30. How did Hebb define the cell assembly? Choose the correct option.
A. All the cortical cells that are activated by any one of the senses
B. All the cortical cells that are activated by the process of memory reconsolidation
C. Neurons simultaneously activated by an external stimulus that are reciprocally
interconnected
D. Those cells being used at any given moment for working memory

31. Bilateral temporal lobectomy such as that sustained by H.M. is characterized by which of the
following? Choose the correct option.
A. Permanent anterograde amnesia but intact procedural memory
B. Permanent retrograde amnesia as well as procedural memory deficits
C. Permanent anterograde amnesia as well as procedural memory deficits
D. Permanent procedural memory deficits and transient anterograde amnesia

32. Which kind of learning involves a change in behavioral response that occurs over time in
response to a single type of stimulus? Choose the correct option.
A. Classical conditioning
B. Instrumental conditioning
C. Associative learning
D. Nonassociative learning

33. Which is the process by which some experiences, held temporarily by transient modifications
of neurons, are selected for permanent storage in long-term memory? Choose the correct
option.
A. Stimulus selectivity
B. Memory consolidation

C. Distributed memory storage

D. Autophosphorylation

34. Which of the following structures is necessary for procedural memory? Choose the correct
option.
A. Inferotemporal cortex
B. Striatum
C. Hippocampus
D. Pararhinal cortex

35. At what synapse does habituation to gill-withdrawal reflex occur in Aplysia? Choose the
correct option.
A. Synapse at the sensory nerve endings in the skin
B. Synapse on the abdominal muscle
C. Synapse joining the sensory neuron and motor neuron
D. Synapse between L29 from the head and the sensory neuron

36. What is the main input to the hippocampus? Choose the correct option.
A. Entorhinal cortex
B. Fornix
C. Schaffer collateral
D. Ammon's horn

37. The BCM theory proposed by Bienenstock, Cooper, and Munro suggested which of the
following about the bidirectional nature of LTP and LTD? Choose the correct option.
A. LTD occurs when synaptic stimulation coincides with strong postsynaptic
depolarization.
B. A single powerful synapse can provide the critical depolarization in the hippocampus.
C. LTD and LTP are input-specific.
D. Synapses that are active when the postsynaptic cell is only weakly depolarized by other
inputs undergo LTD instead of LTP.

38. Which of the following is a special feature of the NMDA glutamate receptor? Choose the
correct option.
A. NMDA have a very high affinity for glutamate so transmitter remains bound a relatively

long time.
B. Bound glutamate does nothing if the postsynaptic membrane is not depolarized enough.
C. The NMDA receptor is clogged with Mg2+ that can only be dislodged by strong
postsynaptic depolarization.
D. All choices are correct.

39. Which of the following is a requirement for long-term memory? Choose the correct option.
A. Sodium influx
B. Repeated phosphorylation
C. Synthesis of new protein
D. Adenylyl cyclase

40. Normally the kinases are tightly regulated and are on only in the presence of what? Choose
the correct option.
A. A second messenger
B. CA2+
C. Two NR1 subunits and two NR2 subunits
D. NR2B

Retake Test