OJT Corrigido

Dynamic Positioning
Operator
eOJT Assessors Guide
Training Procedures
Section 1
Training Procedures
Dynamic Positioning Operator OJT Module
Rev. 02: January 2005 Page: 1.1
Training Procedures Sheet
Objectives
Upon completion of this module, the participant should be able to:
1. demonstrate a clear understanding of the role and responsibilities of Transocean dynamic
positioning operators,
and
2. perform dynamic positioning operator tasks safely and competently.
Training Procedure
Completing the dynamic position operator module should take about twenty working weeks,
depending on the effort put in.
The mandatory task list is the basic tool for recording progress, and each item on the list shall be
completed before participants
can receive a module certificate. The task list evaluation guide in this assessors guide is to help you
assess the competence
of the participants. Some flexibility is permitted, but you must be thoroughly satisfied that the level of
skill and knowledge
demonstrated by each participant is consistent with the objectives of this OJT module. Only when you
believe that a participant
has truly achieved the required skill level and knowledge required by each task, should you sign off on
it.
The suppporting self-study DVD-ROMs, CD-ROMs, books and workbook questions helps participants
understand the tasks.
The use of these tools is voluntary. Many training participants will find the tools very helpful in
providing fundamental knowledge.
You can customize the task list according to the requirements of your particular rig. A blank section is
provided for you to add
additional tasks you feel are important and want participants to perform. You cannot, however, delete
tasks, except where they
do not apply to your rig.
When the participant completes the task list requirements to your satisfaction, and has successfully
completed the computergenerated
final test, complete and sign a completion notification form (CNF). Also, ensure that the participant fills
in the
employee comments section. Then, forward the completed and signed CNF to the regional training
center. After receiving the
CNF, the training center will complete the participant in the Training Management System. The RSTC
will then be able to print
a module certificate from the Training Management System. Keep the completed task list on file at
each participants assigned
location. The training file shall be transferred when the participant is transferred.
Task List Evaluation Guide

Section 2
Task List Evaluation Guide
Dynamic Positioning Operator Task List Evaluation Guide
1. Describe the OJT system and how it works.

Ask participants to explain the OJT system and how it works.
The OJT task list is the core of the training system and reference tools are provided to support the
hands-on-training if
needed.
Supervisors play a key role implementing the training. Supervisors are, as part of their ongoing duties,
expected to
continue providing guidance and on-the-job training to crew members. They monitor and track the
progress of the
participants with the help of the task list and appraisal guidelines. They are required to teach and
instruct the participants.
The OJT competency based system is a self-paced program that trains and measures a participants
skills and knowledge
required in each job category or function. The OJT system is a tool for self-development and career
progression. It is
designed to ensure that the participant is exposed to a majority of the important occurrences relative
to the particular job
category or function. It consists of a combination of practical work on the rig and self-study. The
mandatory tasks are
supported with optional training tools that consist of books, manuals, interactive CD-ROMs, and films
on DVD-ROMs.
Open-book questions are also provided. Instruction and evaluation of the training participants is the
responsibility of the
immediate supervisor(s).
Participants must demonstrate competency in each task before the supervisor signs it off as
completed. This method of
assessment ensures a demonstrated ability from participants as they gain new knowledge and skills
required for the job
function. All tasks must be completed to the supervisor(s) satisfaction before they are eligible to
complete a final computergenerated
test.
Ask questions such as: What are the components of the OJT system and how is it
implemented?
Module booklets, reference books, and reference software are procured in the conventional manner
referencing the
order list on the Corporate Training website or EMPAC/TOPS Houston Procurement website. The
supervisor gives the
module booklet to the participant who follows the self-paced task list. Besides hands-on learning,
training tools are also
used to help the participant gain knowledge on the tasks. Supervisors assess participants as they
perform the tasks.
The OJT Modules Assessors Guide is provided to guide the supervisors through the assessment
process as required.
All tasks must be completed to the supervisors satisfaction. Workbook questions also support the
tasks. The supervisor
should evaluate the workbook answers. The participant must successfully complete the final
computer-generated test
after all other training requirements are completed. The completion notification form (CNF) is
completed by the supervisor
and participant and sent to the regional training center for recording in the training database (TMS). A
certificate is
issued to the participant. When the participant is transferred to another location, the task list / training
records are also
transferred.
2. Describe and show the various documentations such as the Marine Operations Manual,
Field Operations
Manual, SOPEP, WSOG, Rig Specific Procedures, capability plots and Emergency Response
Plan for obtaining
rig-specific safety information.
Participants should show how to search for safety information in the various manuals and documents.
They should
identify relevant sections in the MOM concerning safe operation of the vessel, emergency response,
heavy weather
contingencies, and other information. They should know the location and use of reference tools such
as the Field
Operations Manual, rig-specific procedures binder, and the Emergency Response Procedures
Manual.
Reference Operations Manual.
3. Show how to keep your work area clean, tidy, and hazard free and explain why it is
important.
Inspect the participants work areas. The areas should be clean and orderly. Ask why it is important to
maintain a clean
work environment. The control room should be kept clean to allow for efficient operations, minimize
tripping hazards,
and to prevent falling objects.
Page: 2.2 Rev. 02: January 2005
4. Demonstrate a working knowledge of basic math and trigonometry and show how they
apply to dynamic
positioning operations.
Participants should demonstrate basic math skills such as adding and multiplying fractions and word
problems. Also
have them demonstrate basic trigonometry problems using sine functions and the Pythagorean
theorem. They should
figure out the offsets for yellow and red circles on the current well.
Ask them why it is important to know how to do these calculations and how it relates to dynamic
positioning. Answers
should include calculating riser angle for vessel offset; planning acoustic grid deployments; and
calculating transit
times.
Reference Applied Mathematics for the Petroleum and Other Industries book 1.60030.
5. Show how to make an effective handover.
Observe participants performing a handover. Review participants handover notes, the rig specific
check list and handover
forms. The following topics should be covered: On-tour DPO sets up log with appropriate entries for
next tour; On-tour
DPO briefs incoming DPO regarding present situation, drilling status, weather, equipment status,
expected events, and
problems; Incoming DPO performs checks such as examining previous tours DP logs; checking all
power supplies;
checking console lamps; checking DP system; screening to determine present situation; checking
keypad settings and
wind, gyro, and VRU selections; checking thruster settings; checking HPR system setup and status
including hydrophone
arrays, beacons, gyro, and VRU selections; checking DGPS system and setup; checking PMS-VMS
system setup;
checking generator status and load balance; checking propulsion motor assignments and thruster
conditions such as
auto, start, etc.; checking communications with the drill floor; noting overall DP situation; and noting
rig motion,
environmental conditions, heading, drill floor operations, and other pertinent ship-specific items.
The incoming DPO should make an entry in the log at assumption of the watch. A complete turnover
is mandatory to
ensure that information is not lost in a shift change.
Reference OPL - Dynamic Positioning book 10.09005.
6. Show how to monitor the control room and vessel condition during a watch.
Participants must be able to stay focused on the job over long periods. They must also not get tunnel
visioni.e., they
must not get too involved with one task and forget about the rest of the tasks. They should frequently
scan the entire
room, checking wind direction and speed, current direction and speed, and reference system health.
The supervisor
can select which watch to observe the participants, known or unknown to the participant.
Participants should have situational awarenessi.e., they should be able to give a fairly accurate
description of the
current environment without checking the screens at any given time. Awareness is an important skill
but difficult to
measure. Observation is the only way to assess this skill.
7. Explain the main alarms (MOB, abandon ship, fire, gas, bilge, thruster, engine, oil water
separator, water tight
doors, etc.) in the control room and the initial action to take for each alarm.
Ask participants to identify various alarms in the control room. They should identify fire alarms, gas
alarms, flood alarms,
equipment alarms, general alarms, man-overboard alarm, and CO 2 release alarm.
Ask questions such as: How would you react to an alarm in the control room?
Acknowledge the alarm. Identify the area where the alarm is occurring. Confirm its validity and
prepare to mobilize
applicable teams and personnel for follow-up. Communicate with personnel at repeater stations (for
example, the drill
floor and OIM office). In any emergency, the operator may sound the general alarm without
consultation if required.
How would you react to a bilge alarm?
Call for assistance. Note the trim to ascertain the extent of flooding. Bring on emergency bilge pumps.
Ascertain the
cause and extent of the flooding and be prepared to isolate systems.
How would you react to a fire alarm?
Acknowledge the alarm. Identify the area where the alarm is occurring. Confirm the alarm and be
prepared to mobilize
the fire team. Communicate with personnel at repeater stations such as the drill floor and OIM office.
In any emergency, the operator may sound the general alarm without consultation if required.
Reference HS&E Manual 9.30000 and equipment manuals.
8. Describe and show the fixed fire-fighting equipment and systems on your rig.
Ask participants to describe the fixed fire-fighting equipment and systems on the rig. Participants
should show the
location and purpose of various fixed fire-fighting equipment, both physically and using schematics.
They should show
how to configure the fire mains for normal and contingency (abnormal) situations. Situations may
include maintenance
or repair of fire pumps, valves, and associated equipment that affect the availability of fire-fighting
water. Ask participants
to describe the deluge sprinkler systems on the rig. They should explain how they are activated and
the areas of the rig
they cover.
Ask questions such as: What are the minimum contents in the fire stations on the rig fire
mains?
A hose or hoses long enough to reach into the space protected, jet-fog nozzle, spanners (keys) for
the nozzles, and an
on-off valve. Participants should identify the isolation valves on the rig fire mains.
What is an international shore connection and where is it located?
A connection to enable pumping from the shore or a supply boat directly into rigs fire mains.
Normally, it is a loose flange
of specific dimensions that is kept available for emergency hookup.
When is the drill floor deluge system activated?
It is activated during fire or evacuation of the drill floor because of nonignited gas.
What are your responsibilities when the deluge sprinkler system is activated?
Inform the barge marine supervisor. Ensure that firewater is supplied to the deluge sprinkler system.
Ask participants to describe the CO 2 flooding systems on the rig. They should explain how the
systems are activated
and what part of the rig is being covered.
How does the ventilation system interact with the CO 2 flooding system for the protected
space?
Ventilation fans for the space are shut down and automatic dampeners shut.
How are personnel warned of an impending CO2 discharge?
Audiovisual alarm in the space when the CO 2 cabinet door is opened or when in-line pressure
switches are activated.
What precautions should you take when entering a confined space previously flooded by
CO2?
Ensure that it is thoroughly ventilated. Note that CO 2 is heavier than air. Check the space with a
portable O2 meter.
Reference Equipment manuals.
9. Describe and show portable fire-fighting equipment in your area of responsibility.
Ask participants to describe the portable fire-fighting equipment. They should show the locations of
various portable firefighting
equipment, both physically and using the fire-fighting plan. They should distinguish between the types
of fire
extinguishers and their usage.
Ask questions such as: Why is a portable foam preferred over other fire-extinguishing agents
in the engine
room?
The fire risk is usually class B (liquid fuel or oil) and foam smothering performs best for this type of
fire.
Why is CO2 preferred over other fire-extinguishing agents in the SCR room?
The fire is associated with electrical equipment and CO 2 is the safest and cleanest for these types of
fires.
Observe the participant updating and maintaining a list of portable fire extinguishers on the rig.
10. Explain the actions to take in case of a confirmed fire on the vessel.
Ask participants to explain the actions to take in case of a confirmed fire on the rig. Ask the person
confirming the fire to
conduct initial fire-fighting actions if safe to do so using portable fire extinguishers or fire blankets.
Mobilize the emergency
response team and inform the OIM and immediate supervisor. The command center or bridge must
be contacted so that
emergency operations can be controlled and commenced. Alert the drill floor, standby boat, and
medic. Sound the
general alarm and initiate full muster. In case of a general alarm being sounded, act in accordance
with the station bill
instructions.
Reference Emergency Response Procedures Manual, equipment manuals, and CD-ROM 61.10140.
11. Explain the actions to take in case of a confirmed hydrocarbon gas release on the rig.
Ask participants to explain the actions to take in case of a confirmed hydrocarbon gas release on the
rig. Make a PA
announcement ordering to stop all hot work and to return all hot-work permits to the barge control
room. Open
communications with the drill floor. Ensure that ventilation shutdown systems have been activated as
required. Inform
the OIM (Master on DP vessels) and immediate supervisor. Inform the standby boat to move upwind.
Sound the general
alarm and initiate full muster as instructed by the OIM or Master. In case of a general alarm being
sounded, act in
accordance with the station bill instructions. Change vessel heading if needed.
Reference Emergency Response Procedures Manual.
12. Explain the actions to take in case of a confirmed H2S gas release on the rig.
Ask the participant to explain the actions to take in case of a confirmed H 2S gas release on the rig.
Sound the H2S alarm.
Make a PA announcement informing personnel of safe muster areas such as upwind outdoor areas
and indoor safe
refuges. Ensure that ventilation shutdown systems have been activated as required. Inform the
standby boat to move
upwind. Change vessel heading if needed.
Ask a question such as: What precautions should be taken when drilling in a known H 2S
location?
Know the wind direction at all times. Know the location of the SCBA units and escape packs, which
have been added for
the well location. Extra wind socks or streamers should be installed. Increase the frequency of checks
on gas detection
equipment.
Refer to the H2S Rig Specific Procedure and Emergency Response Manual.
Reference HS&E Manual 9.30000, Emergency Response Procedures Manual, Station Bill, and
equipment manuals.
13. Explain and show the dynamic positioning operators responsibilities if a rig-abandonment
alarm sounds.
Ask participants to explain their responsibilities if a rig-abandonment alarm sounds. Follow the station
bill instructions.
Report to the muster station. Observe them participating in a rig-abandonment drill.
Reference Emergency Response Procedures Manual, HS&E Manual 9.30000, and Station Bill.
14. Explain and show the zone classification system on the rig.
Ask participants to describe the zone classification system on their rig. They should show the various
zones on the rig
using the Marine Operations Manual or rig operations manual drawings.
Ask questions such as: What does zone 0, zone 1, zone 2, and safe area stand for?
Zone 0 is an area where an explosive air-gas environment is present at all times such as inside a fuel
tank. Zone 1 is an
area where the explosive air-gas environment may be present during normal operation. Zone 2 is an
area where an
explosive air-gas environment is present only in abnormal circumstances and, if present, only for a
short duration. Safe
area is an area where an explosive gas-air mixture should not be present.
What precautions should be taken when installing or using equipment in zoned areas?
Ensure that the equipment being installed or used will not provide a source of ignition and is
compliant with the zone
classification. The equipment needs to be explosion-proof, intrinsically safe, or otherwise protected.
Reference IMO MODU code 1989 and CD-ROM 61.10140.
15. Describe and show the types, specifications, and locations of lifeboats, liferafts and FRC, if
applicable, on your
rig.
Ask participants to describe the type and specifications of lifeboats, liferafts and FRC on the rig. Their
description should
include the make, model, capacity, location, and numbering. Ask participants to describe the main
safety features
associated with the lifeboat. Life boats are self-righting; have solid buoyancy; are totally enclosed; can
safely sail
through fire, smoke, and gas in the enclosed condition; have a deluge system; contain a breathing air
supply; and have
seat belts.
Observe participants checking supplies that are to be maintained in the lifeboat at all times. Items
include pyrotechnics,
food and water, a search and rescue transponder (SART), radio, first-aid kit, sea anchor, radar
reflector, buoyant lines,
fishing gear, thermal blankets, searchlight, and batteries.
16. Explain and show the class certification structure for your rig.
Ask participants to explain the class certification structure and its specific role. They should produce
the certificate of
class and the most recent survey report. Classification entities (societies) include ABS, DNV, and
Lloyds: The classification
society surveys the rig and, if the rig is satisfactory, issues a Certificate of Class. This certificate will
make representation
to underwriters, clients, and owners that the rig meets the rules and standards of the classification
society. The certificate
is subject to annual endorsement following inspections.
Ask questions such as: What is the class notation of your rig?
The correct answer depends on participants rig, but they should readily know the correct class
notation.
Which classification society is used for your rig?
The correct answer depends on the rig, but participants should readily know the classification society
for their rig.
When is the due date for your rigs annual inspection?
They should know the due date too within + or - 3 months.
When does the class certificate expire? 5-year term.
What do the class society rules and standards pertain to on the rig?
The class certification mainly concerns design, build, maintenance, and seaworthiness of the
structure. The rules and
standards may also be applied to machinery.
17. Explain and show the flag certification structure for your rig.
Ask participants to explain the flag certification structure and its specific role. They should produce the
flag certificates
and most recent survey reports. Every rig has a national identity and as such has to conform to that
nations maritime
rules and regulations. International certificates such as MODU, IOPP, and load line are issued by the
flag state. The flag
state uses classification societies as agents to issue and manage flag certificates.
Ask questions such as: Under what flag does your rig operate?
Where would you find the current flag rules and regulations?
How long are the MODU, IOPP, and load line certificates valid for and what are their expiration
dates?
The correct answer depends on the rig but participants should readily know the answer.
What do the flag rules and standards pertain to on the rig?
Compliance with IMO regulations covering requirements such as stability, safety equipment, and
pollution prevention as
well as its own flag-state rules. The flag-state rules cover requirements such as manning, marine
licensing, tonnage
measurement, and taxes.
18. Explain and show the coast-state certification structure for your vessel.
Ask participants to explain the coast-state certification structure and its specific role. They should
produce the coaststate
documentation. The sea area in which the rig operates is controlled by the coast state. The coast
state (country)
applies its own rules and regulations with respect to exploration and development activities in its
waters. The coast state
issues consents to locate and drill. The consent is subject to coast-state acceptance of the owners
proof of safe
operations (safety case, safety statement). It is also subject to the coast-states recognition of the
class and flag certification.
Ask questions such as: Under which coast-states jurisdiction is the rig currently operating?
How does your rig handle coast-state legislation requirements? Safety case, certificate of
fitness.
19. Describe and show the minimum manning and marine licensing requirements for your
vessel.
Ask participants to describe the minimum manning and marine licensing requirements for their rig.
They should produce
the safe manning certificate and Coastal State Manning Certificate, if applicable.
Ask questions such as: What does the safe manning certificate indicate?
The number of certified personnel required on board for specific positions.
What is the minimum manning requirement for your flag licenses?
The correct answer depends on the participants rig.
Where would you sight marine licenses for the personnel on board?
Posted under glass in a prominent position.
20. Explain function of the main components (power generation, distribution, propulsion,
position reference
systems, DP computers) of the DP system for your vessel.
Ask participants to give an overview of the main components of the DP system on the vessel. They
should read and
interpret the DP systems one-line diagram and block diagrams. Their interpretation should include
power generation,
distribution, propulsion, DP computers, sensors, position reference systems, and DP operator panels.
Ask questions such as: How are the sensors and position reference systems connected to
the DP computers?
The correct answer depends on the rig.
How many DP control computers are installed on your rig and where are they situated?
How many independent position reference systems are installed on your rig and where are
they situated?
Reference Equipment manuals and OPL - Dynamic Positioning book 10.09005.
21. Explain DP theory and why it is important to know.
Participants should explain the basic theory behind dynamic positioning. The explanation does not
have to be vessel
specific. Their explanation should include thruster allocation, environmental forces, feed forward, and
estimated position.
They should state the fact that DP systems are concerned with giving heading priority over the
position. Position could
be sacrificed in order to maintain the requested heading.
Ask questions such as: How does the system know where it is?
Reference systems provide positioning information to the system by distances from a point of origin.
What is gain and how does it change positioning?
Gain is a time-dependent variable for vessel response and power consumption. High gain makes the
vessel respond
the quickest but consumes the most power.
What is a set point?
A set point is a speed, point, or value that the DP system attempts to achieve. Position set point,
rotation speed, and
transit speed are a few examples of set points.
Participants should relate their knowledge of dynamic positioning to troubleshooting and responding in
a positive way to
critical situations. Knowing the theory behind DP helps participants understand what is happening
when they operate the
DP system.
Reference Equipment manuals, OPL - Dynamic Positioning book 10.09005.
22. Explain what the vessel model is and how the DP system uses it.
Ask participants to explain what a vessel model is and what affects it. They should talk about what
comprises the vessel
model and the operator inputs that can alter it.
Ask questions such as: How long does the vessel model take to stabilize?
Usually it takes 30 minutes for a strong vessel model to be produced.
How do you reset the model, and why would you do so?
Usually a standby mode resets the model. Reset would occur if an integral error needed to be cleared
such as before a
large turn after a boat has been tied up for a long time and no current update function is offered.
23. Demonstrate an understanding of DP current and how it is used by the DP system.
Participants should explain a detailed understanding of what DP current is. They should know that it is
not a measured
force but a calculated one. It is any force applied to the vessel that is not accounted for by the wind
sensors. Sea swell,
workboats, marine growth, thruster discrepancies, draft change, etc., can be a factor in DP current.
Ask a question such as: What makes up the DP current?
Sea swell, wakes from workboats, marine growth, thruster discrepancies, and draft changes.
24. Describe the power supply to the main components of the DP system on your rig.
Ask participants to explain the power supply to the main components including the capacitors and
regeneration systems
(as applicable), the function and time constraints of the UPS, location of switchboards, and UPS. They
should know the
power distribution from port and starboard switchboard rooms and alternative backup power supply
routings to main
components of the DP system.
Ask questions such as: What is the minimum voltage from the UPS at which the DP computer
will stop
functioning?
The correct answer is rig specific but participants should readily know the correct answer.
Which equipment would stop functioning if the power supply from the starboard switch-gear
room fails?
The correct answer is rig specific.
How would the DP system on your rig react if the power supply is less than the power
demand of the thrusters?
How does the power management system on your rig prevent a blackout?
What equipment in the control room is powered by which UPS?
Reference Vessel-specific drawings and OPL - Dynamic Positioning book 10.09005.
25. Explain the different classes of DP vessels and your rigs classification.
Referencing the DP operations manual, participants should find the highest DP equipment class for
the rig and for a
particular operation. They should find the equipment class required for the current operation from the
well-specific risk
analysis report. They should include the various classification societies for class 2 and class 3, ABS,
DNV, IMOO, LR,
etc.
Participants should go through the FMEA (failure mode and effect analysis) document and explain its
relationship with
the highest DP equipment class for their rig.
Ask questions such as: How can you determine which equipment class should be used for a
particular
operation?
What is the single worst-case failure for DP equipment class 2 and class 3 on your rig?
26. Explain the limitations applying to DP operations and show information from the capability
plots.
Ask participants to explain the limitations applying to DP operations and show information from the
capability plots.
Observe participants using DP capability plots and explain the concepts of consequence analysis
calculations. Their
answers should include severe weather preparations such as escape routing, limitations imposed by
subsea equipment,
environmental considerations, equipment class, and position reference systems.
Ask questions such as: Can your DP system sustain 45 knot winds at 30 degrees from
starboard?
The correct answer depends on the rig but participants should know.
Can your DP system sustain 60 knot winds in DP equipment class-3 mode?
The correct answer depends on the rig but participants should know the correct answer.
27. Explain and show how to use the DGPS (satellite navigation), acoustics, and INS (inertial
navigation) systems.
Observe participants start up, set up, and use the DGPS (satnav), acoustics, and INS (inertial
navigation) systems.
They should know how these systems function under normal and degraded conditions in the DP
system. Explanations
should include the geodetic system, chart projections, and conversion of latitude and longitude into
northings and
eastings. Participants should explain the principles of operation of DGPS, LUSBL, and INS systems
and the possible
problems that one can encounter if they are not set up accurately. The answers should address how
the DP system is
affected, and how it can degrade or increase accuracy.
Ask questions such as: What is the minimum number of position reference systems required
for DP equipment
class 2 and class 3?
A minimum of three positioning systems need to be simultaneously available for both class 2 and
class 3.
28. Explain and show how to use the gyrocompass, vertical reference unit (VRU), motion
reference unit (MRU) and
the wind sensors.
Observe participants start up, set up, and use the gyrocompass, vertical reference unit (VRU), motion
reference unit
(MRU) and the wind sensors, if possible. They should know how these systems function under normal
and degraded
conditions and how the DP system uses them under both conditions. Participants should explain the
principles of
operation of the gyrocompass, the vertical reference unit, and the wind sensors, and the possible
problems that one can
encounter if they are not set up accurately. Participants should produce and discuss th WSOG. Then
have them explain
how it pertains to the aforementioned components. They should explain why the DP system needs
pitch, roll and
heading and what systems they are applied to.
Ask questions such as: What is the minimum number of gyrocompasses required for DP
equipment class 2
and class 3?
A minimum of two for class 2 and three for class 3.
What is the minimum number of vertical reference units and wind sensors required for DP
equipment class 2
and class 3?
A minimum of two for class 2 and three for class 3.
What would happen if you lost signals from all wind sensors?
How many VRUs onboard measure heave?
These rig-specific answers depend on the DP system being used.
29. Describe the key components and function of the BOP system and how they interact with
DP operations on
your rig.
Ask participants to describe the key components and function of the BOP system and how they
interact with DP operations
on the rig. The answer should include the purpose and configuration of the BOP stack, LMRP, and its
components,
including the pods, connector, and flex joint. They should also explain the importance of having
subsea department
monitor the slip joint/tensioner ring when large heading changes are made. Experience has shown
that well heads have
been compromised during these operations.
Ask a question such as: Why should the DP operator have a good understanding of the
subsea equipment?
To understand how DP operations affect the drill floor, and specifically to provide for timely disconnect
inputs and
information to the drill floor in the event of a loss of position.
30. Describe the components and functions of the riser management system and emergency
disconnect system
(EDS).
Ask participants to describe the components and functions of the riser management system and
emergency disconnect
system (EDS) on the rig. The answer should include electronic riser angle (ERA) and acoustic riser
angle (ARA), lower
flex joint, disconnect limitations, disconnect sequence, slip joint, tensioner wires, and riser recoil
system. Participants
should explain that although ERA and ARA are utilized they are in a degraded condition and should go
to yellow. WSOG
must be understood and followed by all personnel.
Ask questions such as: Should the ERA and ARA be regarded as position reference systems
for the DP
equipment class requirements? No
When would you use the ERA and ARA as position reference systems?
Only after you have lost all other position reference systems. It is the last resort.
How is the riser angle presented on the display of the DP operator panel?
How are the ERA and ARA systems calibrated when the BOP is being run on your rig?
These rig-specific answers depend on the DP system being used.
31. Explain what data the DP system is receiving from the position reference systems and how
the DP system
interprets the data.
Review the data with participants. They should note that DP system receives RAW data from the
position reference
systems and applies pitch, roll and heading corrections and PRS offsets to that position to bring it
back to the center of
gravity. System then offsets the position data using heading to the rotation point which may or may
not be the center of
gravity. They should know prediction test, medium test, validation test, and what the various PRS tests
look for. They
should know PRS weighting including but not limited to LBL, fill ins, or LBL priority if applicable.
32. Show how to calculate and implement the yellow (warning), red (alarm), and maximum riser
limits.
Observe participants calculating and implementing the yellow (warning), red (alarm), and maximum
riser limits. They
should obtain the water depth and the riser angles for yellow, red, and maximum conditions. These
figures should be
used to calculate the alarm settings, using trigonometry. The participant should simulate how to inform
the driller of the
rigs DP status using the different DP status lights. Also address set/drift rates and LMRP disconnect
times. Reference
Emergency Response Manual, Field Operations Manual and Riser Management Program, if installed.
Ask questions such as: What does the yellow riser limit indicate?
The driller has to prepare to disconnect.
What does the red riser limit indicate?
The driller has to disconnect.
What does the maximum riser limit indicate?
It is not possible to disconnect because of equipment limitations.
What horizontal offset distance will result in a yellow riser angle warning?
How does the risers being displaced with mud change the offset distance?
A riser filled with mud causes a greater angle with less horizontal offset distance because of the extra
weight created by
the mud.
33. Explain what constitutes a drift off and what actions to take in the event of an uncontrolled
DP drift off.
Ask participants to explain the course of action to take in case of a drift off. Use various scenarios.
The answer should
include immediate communication with the drill floor and positive action to arrest vessel motion.
Communication with the
drill floor needs to be continuous and information should include rig-offset information until control is
achieved. Participants
should explain the key personnel that need to be notified and how they are notified. They should
discuss the need to
monitor vessel drift and the importance of staying calm. They should keep optimum heading and not
operate outside the
vessels operational parameters. The primary duty of the DPO is to stop vessel motion. Therefore, in
the event of a drift
off, primarily the vessel should be brought back under DP control and then worry about recovering
position. Follow rig
specific procedure.
Ask questions such as: What constitutes a drift off?
A drift off is when there is insufficient thrust to maintain location (i.e. no thrusters on line due to a black
out or all thrusters
on line at 100 percent and still losing location due to excessive environmental forces).
34. Explain what constitutes a drive off and the actions to take in case of a drive off.
Participants should explain that drive offs might occur due to faulty reference systems and thruster
failure (stuck azimuth
in the wrong direction, uncontrolled pitch to 100 percent or uncontrolled RPM to 100 percent. DP
systems can chase two
bad DGPS positions. In that case, remove faulty reference systems from the DP system. Monitor the
DP system to
detect faulty PRS before drive off occurs.
Ask participants to explain the actions to take in case of a drive off. Establish immediate
communication with the drill
floor and take positive action to arrest vessel motion. Actions include activating the yellow and red DP
status light,
confirming to the driller that the rig is in a DP drive-off situation that cannot be recovered, informing
key personnel, trying
to restore control of the rig, informing boats in the vicinity, and taking field control.
Ask a question such as: What are the conditions under which you may consider not giving
the red alert
although the rig has crossed the red riser alarm limits?
None. If you wait, the rig may cross the maximum riser alarm limit and then it would not be possible to
disconnect.
35. Explain and show the functioning of the DP system software on your rig.
Observe participants correctly using DP software. Have them explain steps to take when rebooting
the system on
consoles and controllers. Have them correctly manipulate such information on the screens as
changing from metres to
feet, night mode to day mode, degaussing, help menus, and graph scales. Refer to up-to-date rig
specific procedure.
36. Show how to plan and conduct a self-propelled rig move.
Observe participants preparing a rig move plan in a self-propelled mode. This plan should include a
leaving-location
checklist, switching from auto-DP to manual control-autopilot, navigation, collision rules,
communication, weather
considerations, ballasting and deballasting, maximum vessel speed, radar watch, shutdown and
startup of engines and
thrusters, field information and position of next location, changing parameters of DP and position
reference system for
next wellhead, preparing transponders, prearrival checklist, and switching over from manual to auto
mode. Refer to rig
specific procedure.
Reference OPL - Dynamic Positioning book 10.09005 and Nautical Rules of the Road book
10.08001.
37. Show how to transfer the rig from transit mode, or bridge control, to auto-DP mode.
Observe participants starting extra generators, thruster auxiliaries, and thrusters according to the
operating sequence
stated in the operations manual. They should inform key personnel of the estimated time of arrival
(ETA). Observe them
switching from manual thruster-autopilot mode to manual-DP mode, and then from manual-DP to
auto-DP mode. They
should also explain the importance of setting up their systems so that there is redundancy, i.e.
different VRUs and gyros
on acoustic systems if applicable.
Ask questions such as: What sensors and systems should be activated to set up on auto-DP
mode?
Position reference systems, gyrocompass, VRU, and wind sensor.
How many engines and thrusters should be running to set up on auto-DP mode?
What mode should the switchboards be in when setting up on auto-DP mode?
38. Explain the operation of the DP system under normal, degraded, and emergency
conditions.
Ask participants to explain the operation of the DP system on the rig under normal, degraded, and
emergency conditions.
The answer should include monitoring all the DP control consoles and constantly checking various DP
display pages,
position reference systems, sensors, thruster set points, and power consumption. They should
acknowledge DP warnings
and alarms and take appropriate actions. Participants should complete DP checklists and operate the
DP logging
device. They should also perform operator duties at the same time. Under degraded and emergency
conditions,
participants should explain how to maintain the rigs position and heading. Answers include switching
over to backup
systems, trying to restore normal operations, going over to manual operation, informing the driller and
key personnel,
and activating the yellow or red DP status alarm.
Ask questions such as: What precautions should you take when the DP computer has to be repaired
while the rig is still
connected to the wellhead?
What references would you use when taking over from DP auto mode to manual mode in an
emergency
condition?
Average thruster azimuth and power delivered over the last half-hour, environmental conditions,
gyrocompass, riser
angle, and any sensor or system that is still available.
39. Describe events or causes of blackouts and how to regain control in the event of a
blackout.
Ask participants to describe possible causes of blackouts and how to regain control of the rig in the
event of a blackout.
Answers include items such as activating red DP status light, informing driller and key personnel,
protection against
power surges, UPS, system reboot, acknowledgment of alarms, redefining parameters, start up of
auxiliaries, start up of
thrusters, manual thruster control, and switching over to auto-DP mode.
They should participate in a blackout recovery drill. They should know the importance of bus
assignments and how
thrusters come into play if a bus is lost.
Ask questions such as: How is the DP system of your rig protected against power surges?
Which systems have to be rebooted and which are on auto reboot on your rig?
The correct answer depends on the individual rig but participants should be able to provide the correct
answer.
Which alarms should you acknowledge during system startup after a blackout on your rig?
40. Describe the potential effects of fire, gas, and emergency shutdown (ESD) systems on the
DP operations.
Ask participants to describe the potential effects of fire, gas, and emergency shutdown (ESD) system
levels on the DP
operations on the rig. The answer should include the zone isolation system, ventilation shutdown
system, and other
equipment that may be affected by the hazard or because of ESD system intervention in or around
the affected area.
Ask questions such as: What should you do when there is fire in the main control room?
How does the ESD system intervene if there is hydrocarbon gas in the thruster room?
What should you do when there is fire in the DP computer room?
The correct answers are rig specific but participants should readily know the correct answer.
41. Explain causes of DP vessel oscillation and how to prevent it.
Participant should explain what can cause a DP vessel to oscillate and how to prevent it. Poor
reference systems, poor
heading choice, thruster failure, gain setting too high, and light environment (bias could be used to aid
in this matter).
42. Explain the considerations to make when changing the vessels heading and why.
Ask participants to explain what to consider when changing the vessels heading. Answers should
include available
thrust and power, rotation speed, workboat or ROV operations, vessel motion, wind sensors, gain
settings, and reference
system health. In severe weather when making heading changes the vessel may lose position due to
heading priority.
Monitoring of slip joint and tensioners is required.
Ask questions such as: Who do you need to inform before making a turn of 30 degrees? 180
degrees?
These rig specific answers depend on the DP system being used.
What necessitates a turn?
Change in environment such as wind- or current-direction changes, fire, and vessel ride.
43. Explain the extra items to consider when working with a boat alongside or in close
proximity.
Ask participants to explain the extra items they should consider when a boat is alongside or in close
proximity. Answers
include an increase in calculated current from the DP system if the boat is tied up, limited turning
possibilities, increased
radio traffic, weather forecasts, and possible acoustic reference system degradation. They should also
mention the
people to notify if it becomes difficult to maintain position. Reference rig specific procedures and
simultaneous operations
section in the Field Operations Manual.
44. Explain the considerations to make when an ROV or dive operations are occurring on or
near the vessel.
Ask participants to explain items to consider when ROV or dive operations are occurring on or near
the rig. They should
mention possible degradation of acoustic reference systems and that turning or moving is limited.
They should also
stress importance of communications and mention the people to notify if it becomes difficult to
maintain position. Monitor
drill floor operations and boats working along side. Ensure that everyone understands that a permit to
work is required.
45. Explain and show how to communicate with the driller on issues concerning DP operations
having potential
impact on drilling operations.
Observe participants communicating with the driller on issues concerning DP operations that have an
impact on drilling.
They should perform checks on the DP status alarms and communication equipment in coordination
with the driller. Ask
participants how they communicate with the driller in situations such as a change in environmental
conditions, landing or
retrieving a BOP or Christmas tree, running BHA or casing through stack, changing in heading or
position, DP system
problems, and yellow and red alerts.
Ask a question such as: Why should the driller be informed of heading changes?
Drilling operations require that the driller know the rigs heading during wellhead related operations.
Such operations as
running tension rings, running coiled tubing, carrying out production operations, and landing or
retrieving a BOP or
Christmas tree may be affected by a change in rig heading.
46. Show and explain the steps and considerations required to initialize the DP system when
coming on location.
Observe participants preparing proper logs and checklists for arriving on location. They should
coordinate with other
departments and keep the proper people informed of the rigs status. They should work closely with
surveyors who may
be on board to determine exact position. They should also set up the proper reference systems and
sensors. Reference
rig specific procedures.
47. Show and explain the steps and considerations to change from DP control to joystick
control and back to DP
control.
Observe participants taking the appropriate steps to place the system on joystick control. They should
note the
environmental conditions and available propulsion and understand the different joystick modes, if
applicable. Appropriate
screens should be selected on the DP system as well. The participants should also demonstrate the
ability to properly
place the system back into DP control in a smooth manner, slowing the vessel before placing it in auto
mode. Reference
rig specific procedures. Ensure that personnel know the model and dead reckoning capabilities.
48. Show and explain the operation of the positioning alarm system including times required,
hazards in the moon
pool, and drill floor status.
Participants should properly use and explain how the positioning alarms are activated, what they
mean, and how they
can be reset. Have them calculate time frames for corresponding position alarms for given
environments and operations.
Also, ask them how they should react to hazards in the moon pool and on the drill floor. They should
be able to explain
the actions that are needed on the drill floor when a hazard occurs.
49. Show and explain operation, accuracy, reliability, and hazards of using GPS and DGPS
satellite systems.
Observe participants operating the DGPS system and have them explain the accuracy, reliability, and
hazards of using
the DGPS and the GPS. They should explain the concept of GPS and how a differential correction is
calculated and
used. They should explain the means by which differential correction is sent to the rig and what
conditions could disable
or interfere with this correction. They should explain how the system displays the systems health and
how to troubleshoot
signal problems. They should address problems as complicated as multipath interference and as
simple as birds sitting
on GPS receivers. Solar activity hazards should be explained.
50. Show and explain the operation, accuracy, reliability, and hazards of using LBL, SBL, and
USBL acoustic
systems.
Ask participants to show and explain the operation, accuracy, reliability, and hazards of using the
acoustic reference
systems. They should include the basic properties of acoustics such as absorption, refraction, and
ambient noise.
Participants should discuss the different types of acoustic systems, including LBL, SBL, LSBL, USBL,
and LUSBL and
the advantages and disadvantages of each. They should also explain conditions on the rig that could
cause degradation
of the system and how to predict and avoid such problems.
51. Show and explain hydrophone system operation, selection, and limitations.
Participants should actually lower or set up the hydrophone stem and explain how the transceiver
works and what can
interfere with its operation. Items that may interfere with acoustics include chipping and painting on or
around the stem,
welding on or around the stem, marine growth on the stem, supply boat operations, and ROV and
diving operations.
Also, transceiver alignment may be critical on your rig and they should address why and how proper
alignment is
achieved.
52. Deploy and calibrate an acoustic grid and explain the considerations and actions to take.
Ask participants to deploy, set up, and calibrate an acoustic grid. (Usually a grid is set up once per
well, so this action
does not often happen. Participants should observe at least two grid deployments and calibrations
before attempting to
do one by themselves. Because it is not always possible to observe an actual deployment and
calibration, a thorough
walk through simulation might be required without actual observations.) Participants should explain
what they are doing
to prove their understanding of the process. An example: Im establishing a water column sound
velocity so the range
from the rig to the beacon is as accurate as possible.
Questions during this setup may include: How is a bathymetric chart important to an acoustic
grid?
It is a topographical chart of the ocean floor and shows obstructions or severe slopes that could pose
a problem to an
acoustic grid.
53. Show and explain riser-angle indicator operations, limitations, and calibration.
Ask participants to setup the riser angle monitoring system and explain how it is done. Ask them to
demonstrate a
working knowledge of how the angles are displayed and how the display applies to vessel position.
They should reference
checklists or procedures that apply to this operation. They should understand the importance of
inclinometer locations
and be able to discuss the limitations of an inclinometer. They should explain that as operations
change, watch circles
might change.
54. Show how to check and record reference systems such as a HPR.
Participants should explain other reference systems, such as a HPR, that the rig or vessels working
with the rig use. If
DP supply vessel (OSV) is using a fan bean the OSV will maintain a relative distance way regardless
of what the vessel
is doing. Reference Field Operations Manual.
55. Describe the arrangement and interdependence of the power management system (PMS)
components such as
bus, thrusters or provision motors, generator skids, and software.
Participants should describe the main power generation configuration, including how many generator
skids are available
and how much power each can produce. They should cover special configurations for different vessel
operations such
as working with a split bus or a skid minimum or regenerative capabilities to the drawworks. They
should discuss the
WSOG and its parameters. They should also explain actions to take when propulsion motor SCRs are
being shared.
They must carefully consider which SCR to change or use in such situations.
Ask a question such as: Which bus supplies power to which thruster and why is it set up in
this configuration?
A separate bus supplies power to at least one thruster on either end. For example, bus A may send
power to bow
thruster 6 while bus B supplies bow thrusters 7 and 8. In this manner, the rig can maintain heading
even if a bus is lost.
Participants should explain the reason for load shedding and blackout prevention on a DP vessel and
how their particular
rig accomplishes it. Several systems may be available for load shedding and blackout prevention.
Participants should
know the setting for each system and the logic behind those settings.
Ask a question such as: If a generator dropped off-line while under heavy load, how would
the DP system
prevent the rig from blacking out?
The power demand will be limited and position will most likely by sacrificed.
56. Explain and show how to line up and bring on-line a generator in normal start.
Observe participants starting a generator and bringing it on-line in a normal start mode. They should
explain the items to
consider when doing a generator startup and bring it on-line. Address communications to those
effected as specified on
the vessel.
57. Explain and show how to line up and bring on-line a generator in emergency start.
Observe participants starting a generator and bringing it on-line in emergency start mode. Participants
should also
explain the events or alarms that necessitate an emergency start and how it differs from a normal
start.
58. Explain and show how to drop off-line and stop a generator in normal stop.
Observe participants bringing a generator off-line and stopping it in a normal stop mode. They should
explain the items
they must consider when performing such an operation, such as power load, available generators,
and bus configuration.
59. Explain and show how to initiate and bring on-line a generator in manual start.
Observe participants initiating a manual start of a generator and placing it on-line. Note that they may
have to coordinate
these actions with other departments; therefore, a verbal explanation is adequate.
60. Explain and show how to initiate a manual generator stop.
Observe participants initiating a manual stop of a generator. They should discuss when it might be
needed and who
would do it if they could not.
61. Explain and show how to initiate and bring on-line a thruster or propulsion motor in normal
start.
Observe participants starting and bringing on-line a thruster or propulsion motor in a normal start
mode. They should
explain the power requirements needed and the items they should check before startup such as lube
oil pumps, flow
sensors, and cooling water.
62. Explain and show how to initiate and bring on-line a thruster or propulsion motor in
emergency start.
Observe participants starting and bringing on-line a thruster or propulsion motor in an emergency start
mode. They
should explain the differences between a normal start and an emergency start and what necessitates
an emergency
start.
63. Explain and show how to drop off-line and stop a thruster or prop motor in normal stop.
Observe participants bringing off-line and stopping a thruster or prop motor in a normal stop mode.
They should explain
the things to consider before stopping a thruster or prop motor.

64. Explain and show how to isolate or lock out a thruster or prop motor to prevent operation.
Observe participants properly isolating a thruster or prop motor using prescribed procedures and the
lockout-tagout
system. Also, ask participants to show extra measures that might apply specifically to the control room
such as hanging
a sign next to the start button for that thruster.
65. Explain and show how to line up and bring on-line a thruster and propulsion motor from
lockout status.
Observe participants properly taking a thruster or prop motor out of lockout status and bringing it online. They should
follow prescribed procedures for lockout-tagout as well as extra measures that may apply to the
control room.
66. Explain and demonstrate generator minimum (skid-min) selection and modification.
Observe participants modifying the generator minimum selections. They should explain the reasoning
for the selections
and the configuration that works best. Refer to well specific operating guidelines (WSOG) as part of
the Field Operations
Manual.
67. Explain and identify power requirements of rig operations such as cementing, drilling, and
BHA in stack.
Have participants identify rig operations that involve special power or manning requirements. Rig
operations such as the
BHA in the stack might require certain areas be manned and a certain number of generators on-line.
They should
explain the reasoning for such requirements.
68. Describe various types of thrusters and thruster operational modes and when they might
be used.
Ask participants to describe the various types of thrusters and operational modes such as pitch, fixed
pitch, tunnel,
azimuth. Bias, fixed, variable, and any other modes the vessel might have should be explained.
69. Describe the design and operating limitations for the rig.
Participants should describe the environmental conditions that are applied to the stability (design
criteria) and operations.
Ask questions such as: What are the environmental conditions the rig is designed to
withstand?
For example, 110-foot waves, 100-knot winds, 2.4-knot currents, and 18.8-seconds wave period.
When is the rig required to go from operating draft to survival draft?
When is the rig required to go from light transit draft to deep transit draft?
When would the rig stop drilling operations?
An example is a 3-knot current and/or 80-knot winds.
Reference both rig specific and contractual agreements. Ensure that stress limits of the vessel are
within the limits as
specified.
Reference OPL - Dynamic Positioning book 10.09005 and The American Practical Navigator book
10.18010.
70. Explain and show the actions to take prior to encountering heavy weather.
Ask participants to explain the actions to be taken prior to encountering heavy weather. Check
stability status to confirm
survival VCG and communicate requirements to the Master. Ensure all watertight doors and hatches
are closed. Prepare
a ballasting and deballasting plan. Observe participants preparing a ballasting and deballasting plan
and simulating the
actions following the rig-specific procedures.
Ask a question such as: Why shouldnt the waves be allowed to contact the underdeck areas
of the rig?
The wave could get trapped between underdeck framing and structural members may be damaged.
Reference vessel specific procedure and manuals.
Reference OPL - Dynamic Positioning book 10.09005 and The American Practical Navigator book
10.18010.

71. Explain and show how to use radar to monitor vessel safety, traffic, and weather.
Observe participants correctly using the radar to monitor vessel safety, traffic, and weather.
Participants should demonstrate
proper tuning of the radar to view weather and to track its approach. They should also demonstrate
tuning of the radar
to see squalls approaching and vessels through heavy weather. Observe participants tracking a target
and retrieving
target information such as speed, course, distance, and direction. Participants should also
demonstrate the ability to
use the radar to monitor their own rigs movements such as reading ranges and bearings from
platforms to verify the rig
is stationary. Observe participants correctly starting up and shutting down the radar unit.
Reference Radar Navigator Manual 10.18020 and The American Practical Navigator book 10.18010.
72. Show how to obtain and interpret weather forecasts.
Observe participants obtaining and interpreting weather forecasts. They should point out key features
of the synoptic
weather chart such as centers of low pressure, centers of high pressure, associated weather fronts,
and general wind
directions around them. They should explain the implications of the weather forecast to the ongoing
and planned operations.
Reference Bowditch for any clarifications.
Ask a question such as: What should be watched when dealing with active centers of low
pressure?
They may change track from that which is forecast.
Reference The American Practical Navigator book 10.18010.
73. Explain the considerations and guidelines for operating in high current conditions.
Ask participants to explain the considerations the rig must take when operating in high currents such
as increase power
requirements, heading change problems and what can be done to reduce VIV (vortex induced
vibration), i.e. displace
riser, increase riser tension, optimize heading, put fairings on the riser. High current operations may
cause increased
drift-off rates, which reduces the available time to implement EDS procedures.
In riser operations, the rig may have to drift in a controlled manner. Ask participants to calculate drift
distance for such
circumstances.
Reference vessel specific procedures.
74. Explain what stability means as applied to the rigs design and construction.
Ask participants to explain stability. Stability is the ability of the rig to return to an upright position after
being inclined by
an external force such as wind and waves. They should describe the basic structure of the rig and its
compartments.
Ask questions such as: Who decides the major rules governing the rigs design with regard
to the stability?
The naval architect takes into account class and flag rules and industry standards. Considerations on
intact condition
and damaged condition are set down for the design.
What is meant by column stabilized?
The rig is afloat on its columns and the columns provide the stability.
What effect does the water plane area have on stability?
When the water plane area is increased, the stability normally increases.
Reference OPL - Stability and Trim book 10.00904 and DV-ROMs 20.0219 and 20.0220.
75. Describe the factors affecting the stability of the rig.
Ask questions such as: How is the stability of your rig maintained?
By maintaining the vertical center of gravity within acceptable limits.
Where would you find detailed information on maintaining the stability of your rig?
Operations manual
What factors affect the stability of the rig?
Load distribution, VCG, TCG, LCG, draft.
How does the VCG affect the rigs stability?
The height of the vertical center of gravity determines the size of the righting arm.
Check their stability report.
Reference OPL - Stability and Trim book 10.00904 and DVD-ROMs 20.0219 and 20.0220.
76. Show how to interpret and apply stability information obtained from the operations manual.
Observe participants checking allowable values for VCG against actual values for the rig. They should
produce the
recent stability report and check the computed values on the report against the maximum allowable
values mentioned
in the operations manual. They should do a hand stability calculation including free surface effect and
damaged stability
calculations.
They should use both allowable VCG tables and curves to determine the allowable VCG for various
drafts such as
survival, transit, and drilling drafts.
Ask a question such as: What do estimated maximum deck load figures tell you?
It is an estimate of maximum variable deck load that the rig may carry for specific conditions. It is for
reference only. The
deck load carried and its distribution is determined solely by the VCG.
Reference Operations Manual.
77. Show how to perform basic ballasting operations.
Observe participants performing basic ballasting operations such as righting the vessel from a list.
Such operations
involve lining up the system with appropriate tanks, starting a pump, and monitoring pump values
such as amps and
suction and discharge pressures. Participants should explain the stability computer for determination
of sheer forces
and bending moments, if applicable.
78. Show how to communicate using proper etiquette over a VHF radio.
Observe participants communicating over the VHF radio following the correct protocol. They should
know the phonetic
alphabet. Prioritize channel allocation according to ongoing operations.
79. Explain and demonstrate how to communicate distress signals on your rig.
Ask participants to describe the emergency signals on the rig and how to activate each one.
Participants should describe
the NAVTEX system and interpret a message. NAVTEX is an FM radio service that broadcasts alerts,
warnings, and
maritime safety messages to the onboard NAVTEX receiver.
Ask questions such as: What is the GMDSS system and what is its role?
The global maritime distress safety system carries a distress signal to shore and to other ships
equipped with a GMDSS
system. It has DSC (digital selective calling) and push button mayday operation.
What other distress signaling and communication devices are incorporated with GMDSS for your sea
area?
What is an EPIRB and where is it located on your rig?
It is an emergency position indicating radio beacon. It must be able to float on its own without
obstructions.
Reference Nautical Rules of the Road book 10.08001.
80. Show how to communicate via phone, sound powered phones, and PA to vital areas of the
vessel.
Observe participants using the phone system, sound powered phones and PA to communicate with all
vital areas on the
vessel. The participants should have working knowledge of all phone numbers to those areas.
81. Show how to record the system status and performance on log sheets.
Observe participants properly recording system status and performance on appropriate log sheets or
log books. Have
them explain the importance of keeping an up-to-date system log. An up-to-date system log allows
proper assessment
of system performance and modifications that have occurred.
Review all vessel specific check lists and logs with participants.
82. Show how to maintain and update the DP operator log.
Observe participants properly maintaining and updating the DP operator log. Ask them for any log
particulars such as:
How often do you record environmental data?
What other information is recorded in the log?
Equipment maintenance and boats arriving on location may be examples.
83. Show how to maintain and update the beacon status log.
Observe participants properly maintaining and updating the beacon status log. Ask them to explain
the importance of
these entries. A beacon log can track battery counts of beacons and allow assessment of remaining
battery life. It can
also flag the operator if there is a problem with one of the beacons.
Ask a question such as: How often do you make entries in the beacon log?
For example, once a month, and when the beacons are deployed and retrieved.
84. Explain and show how to use rig-specific logs such as the sensor status logbook.
Observe participants correctly using other rig-specific logs such as the sensor status logbook and
explain their particulars.
85. Show how to write routine and special technical reports.
Observe participants composing routine and technical reports. They should express the importance of
correctly
communicating thoughts and facts in a clear manner. They must be familiar with typical word
processing programs such
as MS Word.
86. Show how to operate the computer, perform input and output device selections, and load
operation programs,
if applicable.
Observe participants properly operating the computer and performing input and output selections.
Note that a permit to
work should be used when working on the DP system. They should also show how to properly load
operation programs
on the computer(s). Have the participants explain precautions to take when selecting or changing
input and output
devices and what can happen in the field. Also, participants should explain possible hazards of
rebooting a controller or
PCU.
87. Show how to produce a post-process logged-data sample graph of the vessels positionkeeping performance.
Observe participants retrieving logged data and graphing information of vessel position. They should
use the hardware
and software that supports this task including the logging computer and MS Excel. The graphs should
be clearly labeled
and easily understood.
Ask participants a question such as: If you were going to fax this information, what
considerations would
need to be addressed?
Black and white graphs are best for faxing purposes, while color graphs are easier to use when using
multiple sets of
data.
88. Show how to use and interpret system operations manuals.
Ask participants to properly interpret the operations manuals for the equipment in the control room.
They must show the
ability to do researchthat is, to search for information that is not common knowledge.
Ask a question such as: Show me where the manual discusses the auto switch state of the
controllers?
Or ask a question that shows that they are familiar with terminology in the operations manual and
know how it is
structured.
89. Show how to archive data on multiple media storage devices.
Observe participants archiving data on several media storage devices such as floppy disks, Zip
drives, Winzip, tape
drives, or other storage media that is in the control room. Also ask them to explain the benefits of
different storage media
that is in the control room.
Ask a question such as: What is the benefit of using a Zip disk over a 3.5-inch floppy disk?
A Zip disk is faster and stores more data.
90. Describe the preventive maintenance system through the use of EMPAC.
Participants should explain how PMS is structured. They should ensure that all safety instructions are
understood and
followed by the personnel performing the given tasks. These instructions include those printed out
with the task as well
as additional precautions that may be deemed necessary.
91. Show how to use the computerized maintenance management system on the rig.
Observe participants logging onto the computer program and process an associated preventive
maintenance (PM)
task. Participants should extract and print the scheduled PM tasks for the upcoming month and check
for backlogged
PM tasks. They should do a history search on a particular piece of equipment.
92. Explain and show how to perform preventive maintenance tasks on the dynamic
positioning equipment.
Observe participants performing PMS tasks on DP systems in the control room. The job may include
organizing the
necessary tools, preparing the necessary permits, and checking with supervisors for appropriate time.
Participants may
have to coordinate PMS tasks with other departments.
Ask a question such as: What extra precautions should you take when doing PMS on the DP
equipment?
The equipment is important to the rigs stability and safety and, as such, should never be
unnecessarily off-line. To
perform PMS tasks, a safe time should be selected when no conflicting operations are going on.
Workbook Questions and Answers

Section 3
Workbook Question & Answers
Dynamic Positioning OJT Module
Workbook Questions and Answers

Dynamic Positioning OJT Module workbook questions are provided to enhance learning on subjects
covered by the task
list. Workbook questions should be completed as fully as practical.
Completing the workbooks does not exempt a participant from the mandatory task list.
Participants should achieve a score of 70% or more on each workbook. Where scores fall below 70%,
the participant
should review the corresponding books, DVD-ROMS, and/or CD-ROMs. The supervisor should coach
the participant on
any weak points to ensure that subjects are understood.
The following workbooks are provided in this section:
Workbook Page Numbers
1. General Topics 0207
2. Marine Certification 0809
3. General DP Operations 1028
4. Reference Systems 2942
5. Power Management System 4353
6. Environmental Conditions 54-58
7. Case Studies 59-64
8. Stability and Ballast Control 65-68
9. Marine Communications 69-70
10. Computer and Diagnostic Skills 71-74

General Topics- Workbook Questions
1. Which job positions have a responsibility to actively participate in training by enabling individuals to
develop their knowledge, skills and abilities to be able to perform their job and meet their
responsibilities?
A. Crane operator and driller
B. Captain and OIM
C. The person requiring the training
D. all of the answers
2. If a vessel on the radar remains at a constant bearing and has a decreasing range it could mean
that_____
A. the vessel is going to pass well clear of your vessel.
B. a collision situation exist.
C. your radar requires tuning.
D. none of the answers
3. According to the Floating Operations Manual the following should be avoided when making up the
Passage plan.
A. Submarine training areas
B. Area within 20 miles of land
C. neither of the answers
D. both of the answers
4. According to the Floating Operations Manual when entering any restricted pilotage area, all vessels
will take a local pilot whether it is mandatory or not.
A. True
B. False
5. When figuring reserve fuel for a voyage, it is best to calculate by using ______.
A. usable fuel.
B. total fuel remaining on board.
6. Managers and supervisors are required to ensure that people follow on-the-job the practices they
have
learned by ______
A. watching and observing their people.
B. providing feedback on how well their people are performing and developing.
C. sharing learned practical techniques with them.
7. When working in a mud pit tank what is required in addition to a Permit to Work Form?
A. Confined Space Entry Checklist
B. Energy Isolation Certificate
C. Explosion proof flashlights, explosion proof radios and a tripod
8. How long must the original copy of a Permit to Work be kept on board?
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. 36 months

9. The ______ will determine if a permit to work is an additional requirement when an isolation
certificate is issued for maintenance or repair of a system or component containing energy.
A. chief engineer
B. ships master
C. OIM
D. toolpusher
10. On an energy isolation it is the responsibility of the ______ to physically try to operate the
equipment or system to confirm positive isolation before work on the system or equipment begins.
A. responsible person
B. OIM
C. competent person
D. person in charge of the work
11. If a Company policy or procedure can not be complied with, operations may proceed only if the
region manager or designee has approved a ______.
A. request for a Permit to Work.
B. Request for Exemption.
C. none of the answers
12. The maximum validity of a Request for Exemption is ______
A. One month.
B. 6 months.
C. 1 year.
D. There is no maximum validity
13. Authorization for a Request for Exemption may be granted verbally in urgent situations but must
be followed up with a formal hard copy approval within 1 day.
A. True
B. False
14. To the extent practical, it is company recommendation that offshore personnel will not be assigned
to the same job position, on the same vessel for longer then five years.
A. True
B. False
15. It is the policy of the Company that request for technical help be controlled in such a way that this
work is properly prioritized, adequate resources provided, progress monitored, and the quality of
resulting services is assured. The Companys internal process for requesting this assistance is called
______.
A. Request for Technical Support (RTS).
B. Request for Engineering Control (REC).
C. Request for Engineering Action (REA).
16. Which precautions should be taken prior to rigging up electrical perforating guns?
A. Establish radio silence, stop welding, and collect all cellular phones
B. Isolate TDS
C. both of the answers
17. Information on the companys policy, procedure and maintenance standards for wire rope can be
found in the______.
A. Minimum Operations Standards (HQS-OPS-001)
B. Maintenance Standard OPT-EMS-905-01 Wire Rope Maintenance
18. According to Transoceans HSE Manual potable water tanks must be cleaned to remove bio films
and sediment at least ______.
A. annually.
B. every two years.
C. every three years.
D. every four years.
19. The limit set by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) for discharge of hydrocarbons to the
sea is______ parts per million.
A. 5 ppm
B. 15 ppm
C. 100 ppm
D. 1000 ppm
20. Who is responsible for informing the approaching helicopter of a green deck?
A. Radio operator
B. Control room operator
C. Medic
D. HLO
21. According to Transocean, who gives the final order to abandon the vessel?
A. OIM
B. Master
C. Rig manager
D. Person in Charge according to the station bill
22. The following emergency response drills must be conducted at least weekly.
A. Fire and abandon
B. Pit drill and blowout drill for each crew
C. H2S (if H2S is anticipated)
23. During an actual emergency (helicopter, fire, flooding) it is best to limit the number of people on
the bridge to licensed mates only.
A. True
B. False
24. During an abandon ship emergency what rules must be adhered to?
A. Town should be notified
B. A proper muster must be taken
25. Vessels shall conduct emergency ballast exercises at intervals not to exceed ______.
A. 30 days.
B. 60 days.
C. 90 days.
D. 28 days.
26. Hazardous materials must be labeled to indicate the name of the material or the trade name and
the Hazardous Materials Identification System (HMIS) information. This information must be in
______.
A. English.
B. the predominant local language.
27. Hazardous materials/waste must appear first on a manifest. The cargo manifest must clearly
indicate ______.
A. the shipping name.
B. hazard class.
C. identification number and package group.
28. Information on ship board garbage management plans and environment-friendly products can be
found in______.
A. Regulation 9(2) Annex V of MARPOL 73/78.
B. HQS-OPS-PR-02 Supply Chain Management.
D. neither of the answers
29. Transocean requires that all of the following drills be held at least weekly except ______.
A. fire and abandon.
B. pit drill and blowout drill.
C. H2S drill (if H2S is anticipated).
D. man overboard drill.
30. An H2S drill is required ______.
A. weekly if H2S is anticipated.
B. every 90 days if H2S is not anticipated.
31. Transocean requires an environmental spill drill ______.
A. weekly.
B. every 30 days.
C. every 60 days.
D. every 90 days.
32. Transocean requires a helicopter emergency drill every ______
A. 7 days.
B. 30 days.
C. 60 days.
D. 90 days.
33. If improvement opportunities are found during an emergency response exercise they may be
entered into the FOCUS database.
A. True
B. False
34. A search and rescue drill must be held ______.
A. every week.
B. at least every 30 days.
C. at least every 60 days.
D. at least every 90 days.
35. When removing a tank top cover it is a good practice ______.
A. to make sure that a barrier of some type is readily available to protect someone from entering the
hole.
B. to loosen but not remove a minimum of two nuts when initially dislodging the cover to check for
pressure.
36. Since a drill is to be conducted in order to prepare for an actual emergency it is Transoceans
policy that any attire is permitted to be worn during drills.
A. True
B. False
37. Where can the names of some IMO documents required by the flag and coastal states be found?
A. MOM
B. Floating Operations Manual in Marine Operations Guidelines
38. If lifting gear is considered dangerous to use it should be ______.
A. color coded red or a different color than the others.
B. destroyed and its certificate should be destroyed too.
C. recertified and accounted for in the lifting gear register.
39. Hand splices are allowed on portable lifting gear providing they have been load tested to 150
percent of the rated load.
A. True
B. False
40. Slings not recorded in the lifting gear register must be ______
A. destroyed.
B. sent to shore.
C. kept separate from those tracked in the register (that is, client or transit slings that do not
belong to
the vessel).
D. none of the answer.
41. Pipe hooks may be used to offload casing from a boat providing the supply vessel and vessel
involved agree to
it and the OIM signs a Permit to Work.
A. True
B. False
42. What should be considered when two vessels are operating in close proximity to one another
while using
acoustic positioning systems?
A. Consider what radio channels each vessel keeps their respective watch
B. Consider the frequencies used on their beacons which are deployed
43. Typically pilots provide advice only and have no liability in the event of a navigational error leading
to a
subsequent incident or loss.
A. True
B. False
44. According to Transoceans policy, during any period of maneuvering or at any time when the
master is conning
the vessel (excluding DP watch keeping) he will not under any circumstances be left alone on the
bridge.
Another competent deck officer shall always be in attendance during these maneuvering navigation
periods.
A. True
B. False
C.
45. At all times whether on Location, on passage, or at anchor an efficient lookout must be kept. This
lookout
should meet the requirements found in the International Rules for Collision Avoidance, without
exception.
A. True
B. False
46. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface
upon
functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?
A. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.
B. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
C. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container.
D. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.
47. When maneuvering in narrow waters, anchors should always be available should one need to be
deployed in an
emergency.
A. True
B. False
48. When undertaking transit between locations it is important to ______
A. complete a passage plan.
B. send the passage plan to the manager for final approval.
C. send a copy to the relevant port authorities.
1. When maintaining standards which authority should be followed?
A. Coastal State Authorities
B. Classification Society Authorities
C. Country of Registry Authorities (the Flag State)
2. Every merchant vessel, no matter what flag it flies, has a document that attests to the nationality
and
ownership of the vessel. This document is known as the ______
A. Certificate of Inspection
B. Certificate of Compliance
C. Certificate of Documentation
D. Certificate of Classification
3. The classification society used by the offshore industry is ______
A. American Bureau of Shipping (ABS)
B. Det Norske Veritas (DNV)
C. Llyods Register of Shipping and Bureau Veritas
4. Classification is a non mandatory process. However, to allow a vessel to engage freely in
international
operations, to operate in certain areas, to obtain a contract, and to obtain isurance coverage,
classification is
required.
A. True
B. False
5. Due to the advances in todays remote-operated diving equipment it is possible to do an
underwater hull
inspection (UWILDD) in any waters.
A. True
B. False
6. All lifting gear in service must have current certification or have been successfully load tested within
______
A. 6 months.
B. the last year.
C. 5 years.
7. The Class Status Report provides an overview of the history and future of the classification and
associated
certificates.
A. True
B. False
8. A typical International Load Line Certificate is valid for:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 5 years
D. does not expire
9. Inspection and proof load test take place after the installation of a new crane, and then every
______ years
during the anniversary month.
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
Marine Certification - Workbook Questions
10. Subject to satisfactory annual surveys, the MODU Safety Certificate is good for ______ years.
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
11. The International Oil Pollution Certificate (IOPP) is valid for ______ years subject to satisfactory
annual
surveys.
A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
12. All vessels regardless of location experiencing any accidental discharge of pollution substance
should
immediately report it to ______
A. USCG
B. flag government and local authorities.
C. ABS.
13. SafetyNET is an international service for the promulgation of ______
A. navigational and meteorological warnings.
B. distress alerts, forecasts, and other safety messages.
14. For immediate local reporting requirements regarding environmental damage, refer to the site
specific ______
A. Emergency Response Plan.
B. SOPEP.
15. According to the Floating Operations Manual it is the responsibility of the ______ to ensure the
accuracy of the
contents of the Oil Record Book.
A. chief engineer
B. master
C. materials person
D. DPO
16. The sense of smell is an excellent way to determine the level of H2S present.
A. True
B. False
17. In an H2S emergency when a person is down, the rescuer should first ______
A. pull the victim to safety.
B. check for a pulse.
C. check for breathing.
D. put on a SCBA.
Marine Certification - Workbook Questions
1. What is the maximum water depth limit to use the DP system?
A. 5,000 feet
B. 7,000 feet
C. 9,000 feet
D. Unlimited
2. When conducting drill stem operations the initial opening of the drill stem tools at night is forbidden
without the
permission of the ______
A. OIM.
B. regional or district manager.
C. client.
3. Any DP system uses a mathematical process to predict vessel movements, this is known as
______
A. the estimated position.
B. the Kongsberg current (Integral).
C. the vessel model.
D. feed forward.
4. Normally, a DP system will be set up for a position priority over a heading priority.
A. True
B. False
5. In a true display, North is usually shown at the top of the screen.
A. True
B. False
6. A vessels draft should have no bearing on its DP response.
A. True
B. False
7. If a system does not report the same message after a specific timeout period, the message
becomes inactive.
In general, inactive alarm and warning messages need to be acknowledged by the DPO before they
are
removed from the active message display list, while information messages are removed automatically
or
changed to a different color when they become inactive.
A. True
B. False
8. The benefits of having a data recording facility include ______
A. provision for documentation for clients.
B. the evaluation of performance of the DP system.
C. utilizing information for incident and fault investigation.
D. rapidly noticing changes to sensor readings.
E. all of the answers
9. In a DP control system, the controlled degrees of freedom are
A. Combined by the model
B. Controlled independently
C. Pitch roll and yaw
General DP Operations- Workbook Questions
10. In a DP control system, the controlled degrees of freedom are ______
A. surge and sway.
B. sway, heading and surge.
C. pitch, sway and heading.
11. Heading control is given priority over surge and sway ______
A. because it takes less thrust and is therefore quickest and easiest to accomplish.
B. to reduce the threat of turning sideways in bad weather.
C. to minimize the overall total thrust and power requirements. (this is true for ships)
12. In a PID control system the integral component or Kongsberg Current ______
A. provides a restoring force proportional to the integrated control loop.
B. maintains the average thrust magnitude and direction of the recent past.
C. assists the return to set point by integrating thrust and power into a resultant.
13. In a PID control system the proportional component ______
A. provides a restoring force proportional to vessel velocity.
B. behaves like a spring.
C. provides a return to set point even against steady state loads.
14. The purpose of wind feed forward is to hold closer position by ______
A. anticipating the wind force and correcting for it.
B. measuring the wind force and providing an opposing thrust.
C. using thrust to move or feed the rig forward from the current position.
15. The thrust required to hold vessel position against a wind of ten knots is 12,000 pounds.
Considering wind
only, and from the same direction, approximately what thrust would be required at 60 knots?
A. 432,000 pounds (36 * 12,000) (wind drag is a squared function, twice the wind required four
times
the force)
B. 360,000 pounds (30* 12,000)

C. 144,000 pounds (12 * 12,000)
16. What does the integral term (or Kongsberg current) on a DP system represent? If you dont know
about DP
systems, what do integral terms on any control system represent?
A. The peak environmental force in the last 30 minutes
B. The average environment acting on the vessel, plus all errors in measurement of thrust and
drag,
minus wind forces.
C. The control system average output over some period of time.
D. The average of all position inputs
17. The vessel model is used (among other things) to estimate the ______based on the
environmental conditions
and thrusters activity.
A. position of the vessel
B. speed
C. heading
18. It is important to quickly figure the drift off speed of a vessel when a drift off happens. Having
figures already
calculated is impossible.
A. True
B. False
19. The mathematical technique of Kalman filtering is to provide a method of combining
measurements of data from
different sources in a statistically optimum manner. In any DP system two principle factors must be
combined.
One of these is the software model of the vessel position. This is determined from knowledge of the
previous
position and velocity of the vessel, and the forces acting on the vessel. The other factor is the position
measured from the ______
A. position reference systems.
B. thrust differential.
C. correction signals.
20. ______ failure could lead to a yellow light failure in a DP system.
A. Thruster
B. Power generation
C. Air conditioning
21. Since many power management systems are now located on bridges it is less important for
engine and bridge
personnel to communicate.
A. True
B. False
22. The difference between setpoint and feedback is the error or offset.
A. True
B. False
23. In DP systems all forces not attributable to direct measurement are labeled current, as this is
what they are
assumed to be, but in reality this is a combination of current, waves, swell, and any errors in the
system. In
some systems such as the Alstom system, this aggregated error is labeled sea force.
A. True
B. False
24. DP systems are considered ______, in which the output from the system has an influence on the
control
function via feedback of information from the controlled variable.
A. closed-loop systems
B. feedback systems
25. Unlike junior DP operators, masters, senior DP operators and electronic technicians are not
denied access to
the DPs operating system and its programming. They may make modifications to the software.
A. True
B. False
26. Fortunately on most drilling vessels the thrusters and propellers are well below the waterline
making nearly
impossible for rope or other debris to foul the thrusters or propellers.
A. True
B. False
27. The concept of ______ is used to detect and isolate faults in sensors, and the DP system itself. If
a fault is
detected in one of the computers, that computer is isolated. Similarly, if a fault is detected in a sensor,
then
that sensor is isolated and data from the remaining sensors is used in the system.
A. setpoint cross check
B. median voting
C. terminal cross check
D. serial voting
28. During helicopter operations, which of the following is the most important thing to consider for
position?
A. Gyro heading
B. Magnetic compass heading
C. ROV dive in progress
D. Selected wind sensors
29. What is the purpose of wind feed forwarding feature in the DP model?
A. To eliminate erroneous wind information
B. To let the operator know of sudden wind shifts
C. To counteract changes in the force of wind as soon as it is detected
D. To account for sudden drops in current
30. A DP system calculates the offsets between the measured values of the position and heading, and
the required
(or setpoint) values, and calculates the forces that the thrusters must generate and order to reduce
those
deviations or offsets to zero. In addition the system calculates the forces of the wind, waves, and
current acting
upon the vessel, and the thrust required to counteract them. These computations make use of the
mathematical modeling techniques.
A. True
B. False
31. Outputs from a DP mathematical model are estimated values for speed, position and heading. If a
vessel is in
auto DP then the required speed is zero, so the estimated speed allows for damping, or reduction of
that
speed to zero.
A. True
B. False
32. If all position sensors fail the DPO should change over to manual and then quickly change back
to auto so
that the system will use the vessel model to hold position
A. True
B. False.
33. A Cartesian coordinate system is based on ______
A. a flat surface two dimensional measurement of the north/south (X) and east/west (Y)
distances from a
locally defined reference origin.
B. a geographic co-ordinate system, such as latitude and longitude.
34. A geodetic system is based on ______
A. a flat surface two dimensional measurement of the North/South (X) and East/West (Y) distances
from a
locally defined reference origin.
B. a geographic co-ordinate system, such as latitude and longitude.

35. A variety of datums are used around the world, examples are WGS84, WGS72, ED50, ED87. It is
important
that a system is configured for the correct datum, as the position relating to a given set of co-ordinates
may
differ by tens of meters. Position reference may be accepted from a DGPS system, with co-ordinates
given in
terms of latitude and longitude referenced to the WGS84 datum.
A. True
B. False
36. The Universal Transverse Mercator (U.T.M.) projection is a grid system ______
A. based upon Northings and Eastings, in meters.
B. that uses sixty zones in total.
C. that uses sixty zones in total with each zone being approximately 6 degrees of longitude in width.
37. The reference point of the first position reference system that is selected becomes the reference
origin, or the
origin with the internal coordinate system.
A. Position reference from any other reference system are calibrated against the reference
origin.
B. Once chosen, the reference origin is the most reliable and most accurate reference available.
38. Without a wind feed forward function, the compensation thrust would be small until the excursion
was
unacceptably large. With the feed forward function an immediate compensation thrust can be
applied in direct
proportion to the change detected in the wind speed and/or direction.
A. True
B. False
39. If a DPO deselects all wind sensors for an incoming chopper he must be aware of hazards
involved in the
reselection such as ______
A. the value of the wind on reselection being different to that contained in the model, the DP
system
will treat the apparent change as an instantaneous gust, and the feed forward may initiate a
drive
off. Unless the wind speed during the selection has been radical, the drive should not be
particularly violent, but it is something the DPO must be prepared for.
B. wind values remaining the same and corrupting the model
40. What is the maximum allowable speed of a vessel when moving with the stack still in the water?
A. 2.0 kts.
B. 1.0 kts.
C. .5 kts.
D. .3 kts.
41. Explain a least-squares position solution.
A. A least square solution identifies a distance, or circle around a position into which some
desired
percentage (usually 95%) of all of the available position data will fit.
B. It is a quality factor for example the software may say that position data does not fit within a 3
meter
circle then the solution is not accepted.
C. The smallest grid in which the vessel can hold position
42. When working with a supply vessel which should take place first?
A. First remove the largest cargo
B. First remove the cargo from the stern
C. First remove the cargo manifest
D. First remove the cargo that the boat captain recommends
43. Before any supply vessel is allowed to operate within the 500-meter zone the status of the
following must be
confirmed.
A. Propulsion and cargo handling equipment

B. Communications equipment
44. Which of the following is part of the requirements when performing an inspection of the hull with
an ROV?
A. Good communication between the vessel and dive company
B. Work Permit
C. Electrical Isolation Certificate for isolating the thrusters
45. Accuracy of the acoustic system can be disturbed due to water aeration by a work boat that
comes alongside.
A. True
B. False
46. What is the main advantage of a triple-redundant DP system?
A. Up to 3 DP-operators may operate the system simultaneously.
B. In case of an error, the system will automatically isolate the faulty data or component and
continue
to position the vessel uninterrupted.
C. You may leave one or two system(s) switched off, thus avoiding unnecessary wear.
D. It will be easier to obtain a symmetrical layout on the bridge.
47. It may be necessary to deselect the wind sensor under what circumstances?
A. When a helicopter is about to land on your vessel
B. When experiencing heavy rolling
C. When not in DP control
D. When moving from one position to another in DP control
48. What is the expected normal accuracy of a DGPS system?
A. Less than 0.1 m.
B. Less than 1 m.
C. Less than 10 m.
D. Less than 100 m.
49. The DP system must be started and allowed time to stabilize. How long before the vessel model is
normally
stable?
A. 5 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 60 minutes
50. Recent innovations such as grills over seachests now protect divers or their umbilical from being
sucked into
the suctions.
A. True
B. False
51. When using divers it is important to ______
A. provide the bridge and dive team with diagrams of the vessel showing all hazards relating to the
vessel
such as seachest, discharges, and propellers.
B. electrically isolate any thrusters where the divers may work. Chose a radio channel which will be
used only
by those personnel involved with the diving operations.
C. not allow work boats or small craft to come alongside. Not allow crane operations over the side of
the
vessel
52. The time to disconnect is roughly the same whether youre engaged in running a large diameter
casing or
drilling ahead.
A. True
B. False
53. If tension is lost in the riser, and it is no longer totally supported from the vessel, the riser will sag,
and some
weight will transfer to the stack. This will ______
A. be compensated for by the buoyancy in the riser.
B. result in the rapid acquisition of excessive riser angles and will always cause the DP system to
perceive
that it has a large positional offset and apply large amounts of thrust to compensate for what it
perceives to
be a positional problem.
C. result in the rapid acquisition of excessive riser angles but not drastically effect the DP
system
unless a riser management system is incorporated into the DP system.
54. It is more important for the vessel to maintain a position directly over the well (ZAP) than it is to
maintain the
flex joint angle at the top and bottom of the riser string.
A. True
B. False
55. If you were in DP mode with BOP latched, and all thruster feedback was suddenly lost, what
would you do?
Assume a DP system with open loop thruster control.
A. Yellow Alert, call the Captain, prepare for disconnect
B. Immediate Red Alert, call the Captain, you cant DP without thrusters
C. Inform the ET you have lost all thruster feedback but there is no danger to DP. Use the
manual
panel for azimuth while it is repaired. (feedback is NOT used for control, only display and
alarm)
D. Call the ET to come to the control room and look at it.
E. Call the Captain so he can arrange an orderly disconnect and repair DP.
56. What is the most likely cause of thruster hunting or windmilling (thrusters azimuth is constantly
changing at
very low thrust) and what is the fix?
A. DP system instability (insufficient gain margin) - increase gain
B. Noisy position reference sensors deselect or change weighting
C. Heading is incorrect change heading
D. Mild environment add bias or manual thruster
57. The function of system redundancy within the DP function is ______
A. to allow an operation to be safely abandoned after part of the DP capability of the vessel has been
lost due
to a hardware or software failure.
B. to ensure that if an operation has an element of criticality about it, that there are safeguards
provided such
that a single failure will not result in the vessel losing her ability to maintain position and/or heading.
C. to ensure that a time frame is provided in which an operation can be safely closed down and the
vessel be
relocated into a position of safety with the DP system operational throughout.
58. According to IMCA (International Marine Contractors Association) a good practice is to have at
least ______
A. two wind sensors and they should be located in the same place.
B. three wind sensors and they should be located in the same place.
C. three wind sensors and they should located in different locations.
D. two wind sensors and they should be located in different locations.
59. A DP system utilizes forces from thrusters or propellers to keep the vessel in position. What
type(s) of
propellers or thrusters can be used?
A. Main propellers and tunnel thrusters
B. Only azimuthing thrusters
C. Main propellers combined with rudder control
D. All units that may contribute to the positioning of the vessel
60. How can you quickly stop a change of position?
A. Switch from DP control to manual lever control on the bridge console.
B. You can not stop until the move is completed.
C. Hit the present position button twice. (depends on the DP system)
D. Select the standby mode.
61. What are the names of the three basic DP operational modes?
A. Standby mode, manual mode, and auto mode (depends on the DP system)
B. Manual mode, auto track mode, and auto pilot mode
C. Surge mode, sway mode, and yaw mode
D. Manual mode, mixed manual or auto mode, and auto mode
62. What is the precision with which the DP system can position the vessel?
A. Within a circle of 1 meter radius
B. The positioning accuracy is dependent on the number of position reference systems.

C. The positioning accuracy is dependent on the accuracy of the position reference systems
in use and
the environment.
D. 10 meters
63. Why is a configuration of two sets of HPR systems not a good solution for redundancy in position
measurements?
A. Because of the limited number of frequency channels available for the HPR
B. Because they are using the same transducer
C. Because acoustic noise may block the signals to both systems simultaneously
D. Because of regulatory requirements
64. What are the immediate consequences if a DP system loses the heading reference from the gyro
because the
gyro has lost its power?
A. There are no consequences. The DP system can function without a gyro input.
B. The vessel will drift out of position.
C. The vessel will be driven out of position with full speed.
D. The system will use the estimated heading from the vessel model.
65. What should be considered when two or more vessels are operating in the same area and all of
them are using
the hydro acoustic positioning reference system?
A. The sea current direction
B. The sound velocity
C. The frequency channels used in their acoustics and the radio contact channels that the
vessel is
monitoring.
D. This is no problem if the vessels are more than 250 meters apart.
66. What is the maximum speed when in ordinary AUTO DP control?
A. It depends on the vessel.
B. There are no speed limitations for DP.
C. 2 knots
D. 8 knots
67. What is a common feature of the requirements for a vessel fulfilling the IMO Equipment Classes 2
and 3?
A. Two engine rooms
B. Redundancy of all active components
C. Full diesel-electric thruster system (no direct-driven propellers allowed)
D. Two separate bridges
68. What is the correct meaning of the acronym UPS?
A. United Parcel Service
B. Uninterruptible power supply
C. Unwanted power shortage
D. Underwater positioning system
69. In what mode does the operator control the vessel with the joystick?
A. Standard
B. Auto
C. Manual
70. Which button is used to select auto-heading?
A. Surge
B. Sway
C. Yaw / heading
71. What has to be enabled to go into auto mode?
A. Thrusters
B. A reference system
72. What button is used in auto mode when a new heading is required?
A. Change position
B. Change heading
C. Previous position
73. What reference system suffers from sunspot activity?
A. HPR
B. Artemis
C. DGPS
74. Which of the vessels freedoms of movement does the DP system control?
A. Surge, pitch, heave
B. Surge, sway, yaw
C. Pitch, roll, heave
75. What is the limiting factor to a vessels DP performance?
A. Physical size and number of DP computers
B. Size of the vessel
C. Maximum thruster force available
76. Which force is not directly measured by a sensor in a DP system?
A. Wind
B. Heading
C. Current
77. Which reference system requires a reflective target?
A. Fan beam laser
B. Taut wire
C. Artemis
78. Why does a DP system require a UPS system?
A. To provide extra power to the thrusters
B. To provide extra cooling to the DP computers
C. To provide battery backup to the DP system in case of a main power failure
79. A dual redundant DP system has ______
A. one computer only.
B. two computers plus one on standby.
C. two computers with one of them being on line.
80. What is the R-O in a DP system?
A. Radio officer
B. Reference on-line
C. Reference origin
81. If a reference system shows calibrated on the DP screen, what does this mean?
A. The reference system has passed an annual calibration procedure.
B. The DP has accepted the reference system as being a good signal.
C. The reference system has failed.
82. Sound travels faster in _________
A. warm water and warm air.
B. cold water and warm air.
C. warm water and cold air.
D. cold water and cold air.
83. What is feed forwarding?
A. Immediate compensation for measured external forces
B. Data input from the aft sensors on the rig
C. Meal delivery system
D. Forwarding of backup tape data
84. What can cause a loss in an acoustic signal?
A. Scattering
B. Attenuation
C. Refraction
85. What is the reason for wanting 0 difference between stack angle and riser angle?
A. To reduce any error in the riser angle values
B. To minimize pull on the wellhead
C. Because the Operations Manual says to
D. To prevent key lining the stack
86. What is the purpose of establishing STOPS once the stack is landed on the wellhead?
A. To orient the ERAs to correspond to the vessel offset
B. To keep a reference so the hoses and cables dont get wrapped on the riser
C. Prevent the riser from twisting the wellhead
D. There is no purpose for establishing STOPS
87. What class of DP is required by IMO for drilling vessels?
A. Class 3
B. Class 2
C. Class 2+
D. IMO only sets guidelines for DP class

88. What does HDOP stand for?
A. High Dither Out of Position
B. High Dither Operation
C. Horizontal Dilution of Position
D. High Dilution of Position
89. What does PDOP stand for?
A. Poor Dilution of Position
B. Position Dilution of Precision
C. Precision Dilution of Position
D. Poor Dilution of Precision
90. What is HDOP?
A. Measure of accuracy based upon satellite geometry
B. Measure of noise of a satellite signal
C. Measure of refraction of a satellite signal
D. Measure of noise based upon satellite geometry
91. In regards to DGPS, what is Multi-path?
A. Blocking of a satellite signal by a structure
B. Reflection of a satellite signal off of a structure
C. Receiving signals from two different satellites at the same time
D. Refraction of a satellite signal through the atmosphere
92. What is GLONASS?
A. Global Navigation Satellite System
B. Russian counterpart to GPS
C. System with no Selective availability
93. Under IMO guidelines, a class 2 vessel is defined as a vessel with the ______
A. ability to withstand the loss of all systems in any one compartment.
B. ability to withstand the loss of one complete system.
C. ability to withstand the loss of one DP controller.
D. status not defined by IMO because it does not define class in its guidelines.
94. Under IMO guidelines, a class 3 vessel is defined as what?
A. Ability to withstand the loss of all systems in any one compartment
B. Ability to withstand the loss of one complete system
C. Ability to withstand the loss of one DP Controller
D. IMO does not define class in its Guidelines
95. Why is there no voting on separate wind sensor inputs?
A. Gyros and VRUs are the only sensors that are voted on.
B. Due to shading, the sensors may all read differently.
C. Feed forward will not work if it goes through voting.
D. There is voting on wind sensor inputs.
96. Which of the following can be part of k-current or integral?
A. Wind aspect
B. Thruster set points
C. Feed forward
D. Wind sensor errors
97. What is a software tool used to prevent turning the vessel too far and possibly fouling equipment
such as MUX
cables?
A. Stops
B. ERAs
C. Relative Bearings
D. Azimuth angles
98. How many satellites are required for GPS to compute a 3-dimensional position?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
99. When dealing with acoustic position reference systems a drastic increase in water temperature
would have
which of the following effects?
A. The speed of sound in water would decrease.
B. The amount of acoustic noise detected in the system would decrease.
C. The speed of sound in water would increase.
D. The amount of acoustic noise detected in the system would increase.
100. Turning the Gain control UP on the radar will ______

A. make it easier to detect approaching weather.
B. make it more difficult to detect approaching weather.
C. alert other vessels of your presence.
101. Which of the following is not a component of the mathematical model?
A. Power Generation
B. Thruster Allocation
C. Kalman Filter
D. Gain Control
102. Which of the following could be a contributing factor to the vessels position oscillating?
A. Light environmental conditions.
B. Controller gain set too high.
C. High sea state.
103. What satellite constellation is used for DGPS positioning?
A. COSPAS
B. SARSAT
C. SuperSAT
104. Which of the following is associated with propeller efficiency and thus the k-current?
A. Elevation
B. Slip
C. Fetch
D. Amplitude
105. Some advantages of DP are ______
A. quick set up of vessel on location.
B. ability to work in different water depths.
C. avoidance of risk of damaging seabed hardware from mooring lines.
106. Subsea equipment shall not be run on wellheads at an angle greater than ______ in order to
avoid key seating
damage. (Unless the client accepts responsibility for any and all damage that may occur. This
acceptance
should be in writing.)
A. half of a degree
B. one degree
C. one and one half degree
D. two degrees
107. BOPs should be landed and/or disconnected with the slip joint locked closed using an
appropriate riser landing
joint.
A. True
B. False
108. If the mathematical solution or physical layout of a D.P. system does not make an allowance for
the down
wash of one thruster on to another it will cause ______
A. an increase in the apparent current shown on the DP desk.
B. a decrease in the apparent current shown on the D.P. desk.
C. no change in current.
109. A Yellow Alert ______
A. signifies a degraded operational status.
B. can be initiated by a driller.
C. can be initiated by the DPO.
110. The watch circles for drill stem testing will be same as watch circles for normal drilling operations.
A. True
B. False
111. Drill stem testing ______
A. emergency disconnect requires an extended amount of time in view of the time required to activate
and
disconnect the subsea test tool prior to initiating the normal vessel EDS sequence.
B. watch circles are significantly reduced in view of the test string compensation limitations.
112. In Transocean, the riser management red watch circles are calculated based on an assumption
that the vessel
heading is always within 15 degrees of the DP system preferred heading. It is therefore important
that this be
taken into account when considering drift calculations for a 60 knot squall line coming in on the beam.
A. True
B. False
113. It is always good practice to wait until your vessel reaches the Red Watch Circle before initiating
the EDS.
A. True
B. False
114. It is the responsibility of the ______ to tell the DPO before a BHA or casing that can not be
sheared enters into
the BOP and again when the BHA is clear of the BOP.
A. toolpusher
B. driller
C. OIM
D. client
115. Before any work is to be performed on the DP system the ______must be informed.
A. OIM
B. master
C. DPO and chief engineer/electrical supervisor
116. The electronic technician should be in possession of an IMCA DP logbook that will verify his DP
maintenance
experience.
A. True
B. False
117. DP familiarization should be given to only new hires and it is the master that is responsible for
the development
of the Familiarization Course.
A. True
B. False
118. According to the Floating Operations Manual when a vessel is engaged in DP operations in close
proximity to
another vessel or installation, or when attached to the sea floor by means of riser or similar rigid
system, the
DP desk will be manned by a competent DP watch keeper. A second competent DP operator will be
available in
or near the DP control center.
A. True
B. False
119. When a DP Operator takes over the watch, he/she should confirm to the outgoing watch officer
that he/she has
control with a clear verbal statement such as I have control and at the end of his or her watch sign
over the
watch in the log book to the next watch keeper.
A. True
B. False
120. M117, M151, and M103 are ______
A. CFR publications.
B. IMCA publications.
C. Transocean publications.
121. The Well Specific Operational Guidelines (WSOG) should carry the acceptance of the ______
A. OIM and master.
B. client.
C. rig manager.
122. A Permit to Work should be made when jumping the ROV.
A. True
B. False
123. In an advisory condition, what condition(s) apply?
A. Thruster power and total power consumption is equal to or greater than the maximum thrust and
power that
would be needed after the worst case single failure to avoid exceeding the critical excursion.
B. Installations indicated position and heading are outside of predetermined limits.
124. What conditions apply in a Green Operating Status?
A. Thruster power and total power consumption is equal to or greater than the maximum thrust and
power that
B. Installations indicated position and heading are within predetermined limits.
125. If there is time, which of the following is the most important operation the driller must complete
during a
disconnect?
A. Shear the pipe so that it can easily be fished upon return to the well
B. Secure the wellbore to prevent escape of hydrocarbons
C. Pull the drill pipe off bottom to prevent getting stuck in the hole
126. If an EDS occurs in 2300 meters of water, with a rapid return to drilling operations, which of the
following is
most likely to represent the largest monetary cost to the operator?
A. Time lost from the drilling program
B. Cost of sheared drill pipe
C. Loss of oil based drilling mud in the marine riser
127. Which is the most important of the following purposes for a DP system?
A. Reduce wear and tear on the marine drilling riser
B. Hold the vessel as close as possible to the commanded location
C. Maintain riser angle vertical
128. What is the most likely reason the ROV operator needs to contact DP operator before
commencing or ending
underwater operations?
A. The ROV can pull the rig off location
B. The ROV may interfere with acoustic signals while near surface
C. Propeller wash from the ROV may cause inaccurate surface current readings and result in a
driveoff.
129. The bulls eye ______
A. records must be kept.
B. readings must be taken, prior to landing the stack, and soon after the stack has been landed, and
the
connection tested against overpull.
C. must be checked and recorded against one another each time the ROV is jumped.
130. The log used to record any malfunction of the DP system and its peripherals, e.g. reference
systems, control
systems, propulsion unit software etc, however trivial it may appear, is called the ______
A. DP Anomaly Log.
B. Ships Log.
C. DP desk status log.
131. What condition(s) apply in a Green Operating Status?
A. Thruster power and total power consumption is equal to or less than the maximum thrust and
power that
B. Installations indicated position and heading are within predetermined limits.
132. A vessel could be in Yellow Alert Status when ______
A. system failure results in loss of positioning control.
B. a ship is on a collision course with your vessel.
C. there is a fire on board.
133. A vessel could be in yellow if the vessel ______
A. moved outside the green watch circle.

B. riser system operational limitations are approached.
C. DPO feels a specific condition or situation warrants a yellow alert.
134. A vessel is in Red Alert Status when ______
A. a system failure results in the inability to maintain position control within the yellow watch circle.
B. the DPO believes the specific condition or situation warrants a red alert.
135. A two way communication between the driller and DP operator is standard for performing an
open hole re-entry.
A. True
B. False
136. A yellow alert could indicate ______
A. riser components have reached operational limitations.
B. environmental conditions are approaching operational limitations.
C. another system failure will result in a Red Alert.
137. In normal operations the standby vessel will remain inside the 500 meter zone in order to provide
a speedy
response to any incident that may take place on board a Transocean vessel.
A. True
B. False
138. Any vessels entering Transoceans 500 meter safety zone should receive ______
A. VHF working channels.
B. information regarding acoustic logging program.
C. acoustic transponder channels.
139. When verifying under keel clearances it is possible that a dead ship approach could require less
keel clearance
than a ship using its propulsion.
A. True
B. False
140. A Yellow Alert status will exist when ______
A. there has been a system failure that leaves the vessel with only one suitable back up.
B. the vessels position keeping performance is deteriorating and/or unstable.
141. A Yellow Watch Circle is the distance from the vessel set point at which drilling operations stop
and
preparations are made ______
A. to monitor the situation.
B. to hang off.
142. The Red Watch Circle is the distance from the vessel set point at which disconnect sequence
must be initiated
(activate EDS) in order to properly unlatch the BOP from the well.
A. True
B. False
143. The Red Watch Circle is the distance from the vessel set point at which disconnect sequence
must be initiated
(activate EDS) in order to properly unlatch the LMRP from the BOP.
A. True
B. False
144. Before a Red Alert Status may exist the vessel must have an excursion and cross the Red Watch
Circle.
A. True
B. False
145. A vessel which has three DP control units is considered a Class III DP Unit.
A. True
B. False
146. A vessel which has dual DP control system and another independent system in a fire/flood
segregated
compartment could be a Class III DP unit.
A. True
B. False
147. The Well Planning Information Checklist includes ______
A. administrative checks and well testing DST considerations.
B. site conditions and well control program.
C. mud program.
148. The client should provide ______
A. installation position and field layout.
B. wind, current and wave data.
149. Minimum differential angles are actively maintained on well head operations at all times, with
less than
degree average being considered optimum and acceptable. With ______ degree average differential
angles,
corrective action is recommended by repositioning and/or increasing riser tension.
A. zero to half degree
B. half degree to one degree
C. one degree to one and a half degrees
D. there are no recommendations
150. It is company policy that BOP equipment shall not be run on wellheads at an angle greater than
______ to
avoid key seating damage unless the client accepts responsibility for any and all damages that may
occur.
This acceptance shall be in writing.
A. one half degree
B. one degree
C. one and one half degree
D. two degrees
151. Regardless of the wellhead structure inclination, all rotating operations shall cease when the
average differential
angle between the flex joint and well head structure cannot be managed to ______ or less at which
time
corrective action including respudding the well shall be determined.
A. one degree
B. two degrees
C. three degrees
D. four degrees
152. If operating an 18 wellhead system on a 16 wellhead with a conversion kit, the maximum
allowed vessel
excursion will be reduced from normal operations. The bridge personnel should be made aware of the
situation
to adjust watch circles.
A. True
B. False
153. It is the policy of the Company that all DP vessels will evaluate torque transmitted from the riser
system into
the wellhead caused by heading changes during the well planning period and prior to a change in
heading so as
to avoid possible damage or spin of the wellhead.
A. True
B. False
154. It is the responsibility of the ______ to understand wellhead torque limits and loads applied at the
time of
heading changes so as not to damage the wellhead and sub-mudline casing.
A. master
B. DPO
C. subsea supervisor and OIM
155. Which of the following is true about the relationship of a right triangle and tangent, sine, cosine
functions?
A. The sine of either non-right angle is equal to the length of the opposite side divided by length of the
hypotenuse.
B. The cosine of either non-right angle is equal to the length of the adjacent side divided by length of
the
hypotenuse.
C. The square root of the length of the squares of the two sides is equal to the length of the
hypotenuse
156. The principal purpose of the Failure Modes and Effect Analysis (FMEA) is to ______
A. diagnose DP system failures.
B. disclose single point failures.
C. permit Classification Society approval.
157. It should be kept in mind that a tension ring that has not been functioned/rotated for a period of
time may
require an additional 15 percent breakout torque compared to the theoretical calculated values to
overcome
additional frictional resistance. This could put large stresses on the sheaves of the tensioners and the
tensioner
lines.
A. True
B. False
158. When using the radar for navigating ______
A. the best fix is obtained by using a tangent bearing and a range.
B. and using two radar ranges for a fix, the objects of the ranges should be close to reciprocal
bearings.
C. and using ranges, the most rapidly changing range should be measured last.
D. and crossing a radar range of one object with the visual bearing of a second object, the two objects
should
be 80 to 110 apart.
159. You are underway at 10 knots. At 18:00 you note a radar contact dead ahead at a range of 10
miles. At 18:12
the contact is dead ahead at a range of 8 miles. The estimated speed of the contact is _______
A. dead in the water.
B. 5 knots.
C. 10 knots.
D. 15 knots.
160. Testing a mud motor at shallow depths may interfere with which of the following reference
systems?
A. Acoustics
B. DGPS
C. Fan Beam
D. Taut Wire
161. What is TRUE of the history display of a targets past positions on an ARPA?
A. It provides a graphic display to emphasize which vessel is on a collision course.
B. In the true presentation, it provides a quick visual check to determine if a vessel has
changed
course.
C. The display is one of the primary inputs and must be in use when using the trial maneuver
capability.
D. It provides a graphic display of a target vessels relative course, speed, and CPA.
1. The ______ measures time-phase difference and needs only one beacon for a position fix.
A. ultra short base line (USBL)
B. long ultra short base line (LUSBL)
C. differential global positioning system (DGPS)
2. The input devices used by the DP system include ______
A. gyro compass and anemometer.
B. vertical reference unit and acoustic transceivers.
C. differential global positioning system (DGPS).
3. What can cause the loss or degrading of acoustic signals?
A. A weak beacon battery
B. A work boat alongside
C. An ROV at near the hull
4. Transoceans general philosophy is to configure DGPS reference systems as differently as possible

and use
different software packages, as much as possible, to apply differential correction to GPS inputs. For
example:
Use 1 Thales system and 1 Fugro system.
A. True
B. False
5. Some newer DP systems have the capability of either individually weighting reference inputs or
setting acoustic
priorities. In setting the relative weighting of an acoustic system higher than that of a DGPS system,
the
operator could be decreasing the effect of DGPS position drift; sometimes referred to as signal drift.
The fault
is an apparent slow drift of the DGPS measured position and is interpreted as actual vessel motion by
the DP
system.
A. True
B. False
6. Generally, there are two categories of acoustic interference. Most times, both types result in loss of
position
measurement, but particular equipment circumstances can also result in an erroneous measurement.
Large
magnitude acoustic noise that mask lower level signals from seabed beacons/transponders and result
in loss
of acoustic signal are ______
A. MWD testing above the BOP (sustained).
B. jarring operations (momentary).
C. perforating the wellbore (momentary).
7. If all position reference is lost, the DP system will ______
A. continue to model the references.
B. after a period of time, usually 30 seconds to a minute, abandon its prediction of individual position
references, and give an alarm of position dropout or dead reckoning.
C. probably do a better job of holding position (for about 20 30 minutes, depending on changes in
the
external forces) than a DPO would do if he or she changed over to manual control.
Reference Systems - Workbook Questions
8. Two independent position reference systems would be defined as ______
A. reference systems giving positional data from two hydro acoustic systems.
B. reference systems giving positional information to the DP system based on two different
principles,
i.e. DGPS and Hydro-acoustics.
C. reference systems giving information from two DGPS systems.
9. According to the Floating Operations Manual during periods of scintillation only non-hazardous
operations may
be performed.
A. True
B. False
10. The ______ measures distance and direction (angle) and needs at least three beacons for a fix.
A. ultra short base line (USBL)
B. long base line (LBL)
C. differential global positioning system (DGPS)
11. What does the VRU monitor?
A. Roll
B. Pitch
C. Heave motion
12. You have 3-position reference systems enabled. System no.1 defines your reference origin. If you
lose signals
from system no.1, what will happen?
A. The DP system will lose position signals, and you will have to enter manual mode.
B. The DP system will continue to operate in DP, maintaining the reference origin.
C. The DP system will alert you to manually change reference origin.
13. What can cause the loss or degrading of acoustic signals?

A. A weak beacon battery
B. A work boat alongside
C. An ROV at near the hull
14. Some operations require three-position reference systems. You have one DGPS, and one HPR
with two
transponders. Will this satisfy the requirement?
A. Yes, if in consequence Class 0 or 1
B. Yes
C. Yes, if visibility is more than 3 N.M
D. No
15. What provides heading information to the DP system?
A. Wind sensor
B. Pitch or roll sensor
C. Gyro
16. Which of the following is a subsea reference system?
A. HPR
B. Artemis
C. DGPS
17. Where should a DGPS antenna be mounted?
A. As close to the bridge as possible
B. On top of the mast, avoiding ships structure and other potential hazards
C. As close to the Artemis antenna as possible
18. Which affects the DP current?
A. Wind
B. Doppler current meter turned off
C. Workboat tied up to the rig
D. ROV in water
19. What does HDOP stand for?
A. High demand output power
B. Hurricane direction outline plot
C. History dependent operating procedure
D. Horizontal dilution of position
20. What is the minimum number of acoustic beacons that are needed for an LBL array?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
21. To which of the following is GPS referenced?
A. NAD27
B. WGS72
C. WGS84
22. The rig is in 2,000 meters of water, what distance off of location would result in a 3 angle at the
well using
straight-line calculations?
A. 105 meters
B. 85 meters
C. 212 meters
23. In regards to a DP system, what is a set point?
A. The position you want to maintain
B. Any value that the system tries to maintain
C. The point that the vessel rotates around
D. Any point or value that the operator inputs
24. Long Baseline acoustic reference system is ______
A. a system that uses 3 or more transducers.
B. a system that uses 3 or more transponders.
C. only accurate in shallow water.
D. only used by drilling vessels.
25. Short Baseline acoustic reference system is ______
A. a system that uses 3 or more transceivers.
B. a system that uses 3 or more transponders.

C. a system with Selective availability.
D. all of the answers.
26. ______ can cause acoustic interference.
A. ROV being deployed in the water
B. Workboat alongside
C. Drilling cuttings
27. Hydro acoustic positioning systems update rate is dependant on the ______
A. speed of processor.
B. speed of sound through water.
C. water depth.
28. In regards to HDOP, ______
A. the lower the value, the better the position accuracy.
B. the higher the value, the better the position accuracy.
C. acoustic noise increases position error.
D. the value is independent of position accuracy.
29. What can cause interference with a fan beam system on a workboat causing an error in their
positioning?
A. A crane load swinging between your vessel and the boat
B. A heavy rain shower
C. A roustabout working by the reflector with reflective tape on his coveralls
30. What can cause interference with a fan beam system on a workboat causing an error in their
positioning?
A. The sun shining directly into lens
B. Bright lights close to target
C. Fog
31. Position reference system voting is applied by using the offsets from the ______
A. median values of each PRS input and checking them against a preset limit. The median is
used and
not the average since if averaging was adopted, the inclusion of data from an erroneous
system
would pollute the average value, and the good systems would show excessive offsets which
might
result in them being rejected too.
B. average values of each PRS input and checking them against a preset limit.
32. The DPO must be aware of the dangers associated with common mode failure because ______
A. voting can be defeated if two PRS suffer common mode failure.
B. voting can be defeated if two PRS become perfect. A perfect reference is one that has failed and
is giving
fixed or frozen data.
33. If a DP system is using three PRS of which two are the same (DGPS) then the DPO is protected
by the DP
voting logic against the system rejecting a good reference and hanging on to a failed reference.
A. True
B. False
34. The basis of position reference by Artemis is that of obtaining a range and bearing of a mobile
station from
some known fixed location. A low power micro link is established between two stations, using
directional
tracking antennae. In general the Artemis system is reliable and accurate. However, a range of failure
modes
have been observed including ______
A. reliability of the DC servo motor (antenna rotation). Interference from a 3 cm X band radar.
Difference in
antenna elevation between the mobile and fixed antenna. Heavy rain, snow and hail causes Artemis
to
suffer efficiency because the microwave energy is absorbed by the water in the atmosphere.
B. interference from vessel personnel by erecting scaffolding or obstructing the antenna. Interference
by other
Artemis units. Radiated heat from a flare boom.
35. For the purposes of DP position reference, the Fanbeam is normally used in a single target auto
tracking
mode. It consists of two units, the laser scanner and the universal display unit. The fan beam projects
a laser
beam configured to diverge through 20 degrees in the vertical. Which of the following are true?
A. The target for the fan beam may be any reflective surface but a Diamond Grade Reflective Tape is
recommended.
B. The target may be as simple as a length of cylindrical pipe covered with adhesive reflective tape
36. For the purposes of DP position reference, the Fanbeam is normally used in a single target auto
tracking
mode. It consist of two units, the laser scanner and the universal display unit. The fan beam projects a
laser
beam configured to diverge through 20 degrees in the vertical. Which of the following are worthy of
consideration when using Fan Beam?
A. Failure of vertical reference sensor, as the systems measurements need compensation for pitch
and roll
within the DP system. A dirty lenses. Line of sight lose.
B. Bright lights, particularly at night or low sun. Loss of a serial link to the DP
37. At any given time and location there will be between 5 and 20 satellites in view of the observer.
A. True
B. False
38. At any given time and location there will be between 5 and 10 satellites in view of the observer.
A. True
B. False
39. The GPS system is referenced to World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS84).
A. True
B. False
40. Pertaining to GPS, selective availability ______
A. was a deliberate degradation in range accuracy, applied to the SPS (Standard Positioning Service).
B. no longer applies as it was switched off in May 2000.
41. The accuracy of GPS fixing will depend upon a number of factors, one of which is the geometry of
the satellite
constellation. If all satellites lie in a similar direction the receiver will give a good value (low value) for
the HDOP
(Horizontal Dilution of Precision).
A. True
B. False
42. The accuracy of GPS fixing will depend upon a number of factors, one of which is the geometry of
the satellite
constellation. If all satellites lie in a similar direction the receiver will give a poor value (high value) for
the HDOP
(Horizontal Dilution of Precision).
A. True
B. False
43. Ideally HDOP (Horizontal Dilution of Precision) values remain below 3, if HDOP creeps about 5,
then the
position fixing is becoming suspect.
A. True
B. False
44. Receivers have different methods for implementing the height aiding feature on a GPS system.
The operator
may select to switch the height aiding off altogether, in which case the system will only give fixes if
more than
3 satellites are being tracked. The system may be selected to auto height aiding, such that height
aiding is
automatically switched in if the number of satellites degrades to three. In general, height aiding
although
somewhat useful is no longer a very important function, as with the full constellation of SVs available,
there is
rarely a shortage of SV visibility or poor HDOP.
A. True
B. False
45. Differential GPS services are available from only the US military.
A. True
B. False
46. Members of the IALA (International Association of Lighthouse Authorities) provide free differential
link micro
wave service using MF 300 KHz band.
A. True
B. False
47. Using MF range is limited to ______ and there are problems during _____, ______ and ______.
A. 250 miles 375 miles (400-600 km) / twilight / nighttime / rain storms.
B. 600 miles (1000 km) / morning / noontime / rain storms.
C. 55 miles (90 km) / sunset / sunrise / rain storms.
D. 55 miles (90 km) / twilight / nighttime / rain storms.
48. Details of the IALA DGPS beacons and radio frequencies are provided in the Admiralty List of
Radio Signals,
Volume 8 (NP 228).
A. True
B. False
49. DGPS experience has shown that position jump may occur at changes in constellation
configuration (picking
up and dropping of satellites). Advanced receivers are able to mitigate the effects of constellation
change by
adjusting the weighting signals from newly acquired satellites, ramping the weighting system from
zero when
the satellite first rises above the elevation mask, up to maximum when a few degrees above it.
Reverse ramping
is applied as the setting satellite approaches the elevation mask.
A. True
B. False
50. A good practice if satellite differential corrections are used is to identify blind spots. This can be
done by
rotating the vessel through 360 degrees and noting the headings when differential signal is lost or
degraded. A
sector diagram can be compiled showing the headings which should be avoided. This should be
displayed by
the DP desk.
A. True
B. False
51. With respect to GPS system, the performance parameters of importance are ______
A. number of satellites, their signal strengths, and their geometry.
B. the pseudorange residuals, the position deviation standard, the HDOP, and the predicted satellite
configuration.
52. GLONASS (Global Navigation Satellite System) is the Russian counterpart to the American GPS.
It ______
A. has 24 satellites in its system however less than half are available.
B. was never subject to Selective Availability.
C. does not give the exact position of DPGS from the US. If no transformations are applied to
GLONASS
positions and GPS positions there will be a difference in positions averaging 5 meters to 15 meters.
53. On a VDU (visual display unit) position is given ______
A. in range/bearing/depth for polar coordinates.
B. in x/y/z offsets for Cartesian coordinates.

54. On a VDU (visual display unit) position is given ______
A. In range/bearing/depth for Cartesian coordinates.
B. in x/y/z offsets for polar coordinates.
55. A ping rate will not deplete the battery of a transponder.
A. True
B. False
56. An estimate of the battery life on a transponder or beacon can be checked while they are on
bottom by _____
A. interrogation of the transponder ping count.
B. measuring the beacons pulse signal on the VDU.
57. Handling of beacons and transponders is not critical since they are now protected by foam
buoyancy and are
manufactured to be more robust.
A. True
B. False
58. Perhaps the biggest source of interference for transponder acoustics is noise and aeration from
the vessels
thrusters and propellers. In this respect it is interesting to note that ______
A. fixed pitch propellers are orders of magnitude noisier than controllable pitch units.
B. controllable pitch propellers are orders of magnitude noisier than fixed pitch units. Fixed
pitched
propellers are normally revolving much slower than maximum revs, thus quieter than
controllable
pitch propellers which are generally running at max revs.
C. controllable pitch propellers are orders of magnitude noisier than fixed pitch units. Controllable
pitched
propellers are normally revolving much slower than maximum revs, thus quieter than fixed pitch which
are
generally running at max revs.
59. As a function of much longer base lines being available, the Long base line (LBL) system has
higher accuracy
than USBL and SBL systems. The coordinate system ______ and there is no real need for a ______.
A. is attached to the seabed, not the vessel / gyro
B. is attached to the seabed, not the vessel / VRU
C. is the vessel and not the seabed / VRU
D. is the vessel and not the seabed / gyro
60. Why should drilling vessel DP operators be familiar with fanbeam limitations?
A. There is no need for drilling vessel operators to be familiar with fanbeam systems.
B. Drilling vessels are using fanbeam more and more.
C. Workboats are using fanbeam more and more while positioning next to drilling vessels.
61. Which reference system can be affected by solar activity?
A. Fanbeam
B. Hydro acoustics
C. DGPS
62. What can be used in the DGPS system to mitigate the unreliability of satellites that have low
altitudes?
A. HDOP
B. Elevation Mask
C. Low Horizon Block
D. PDOP
63. How would you go about resetting the vessel model in the DP system?
A. Do a position drop out
B. Put the system into manual mode
C. Put the system into standby
D. Change controlling computer
64. What vessel motion is not controlled by the DP system?
A. Surge
B. Yaw
C. Heave
D. Sway
65. What is the term feed forward associated with?
A. Gyro Compass
B. K-current sensor
C. Differential GPS
D. Wind Sensors
66. What would be the most detrimental sensor input failure?
A. Gyrocompass
B. Current Meter
C. VRU Sensor
D. Anemometer
67. High solar flare activity is least likely to affect which of the following?
A. INMARSAT differential correction signal
B. Spotbeam differential correction signal
C. GPS
D. IALA differential correction signal
68. Which system is most affected directly by VRU errors?
A. Hydro acoustic position reference system
B. Doppler current meter
C. DP system
D. Motion compensator
69. Which system is most affected directly by VRU errors?
A. USBL
B. LBS
C. DGPS
70. Hydroacoustic transmission is NOT affected by ______
A. Rain
B. Solar activity
C. Schools of fish
71. Which is most likely to cause serious operational problems?
A. 3 GPS satellites become very noisy on all receivers over a 30 minute period
B. One (of five) transponder or beacon becomes intermittent
C. Riser angle increases from 0.1 degree to 2 degrees over a 3 hour period
72. Multipath can be a problem for both acoustic and satellite position sensing by ______
A. confusing the distance and/or direction from the source through reflection.
B. creating a shorter than correct path for the signals.
C. causing the system to listen to the wrong signal source.
73. Acoustic reception is NOT affected by _____
A. bubbles in the water.
B. thruster noise.
C. snow.
74. Acoustic reception is NOT affected by ______
A. waves.
B. wind.
C. mud in the water.
D. heavy rain.
75. Long base line acoustic position is determined by ______
A. round trip time to multiple transponders.
B. phase shift between hydrophones in a single head.
C. difference in time of arrival of signal at separately mounted hydrophones.
76. Ultrashort base line acoustic position is determined by ______
77. Short baseline (3 or more hydrophone) acoustic position is determined by _____
78. How many Global Positioning Satellites are above the horizon at any time?
A. Approximately 10
B. Approximately 6
C. Approximately 3
79. How many Global Positioning satellites are required to fix a position at sea?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 12
D. 24
80. Acoustic systems transfer data to/from beacons via a number of protocols. One of these protocols
FSK
Frequency Shift Keying
A. is accomplished by shifting between two frequencies to indicate 1s and 0s. Both
frequencies
have to be above a quality threshold for acceptance.
B. is accomplished by varying the phase of a frequency to indicate 1s or 0s. Both frequencies have
to be
above a quality threshold for acceptance.
C. is accomplished by varying phase and frequency to one of 2n states Individual states may indicate
other
numbers than 1 or 0
D. is accomplished by comparing received acoustic energy to a known pattern and deriving data from
pattern
matches.
81. Signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) ______
A. is the ratio of the magnitude of the desired received signal to the magnitude of the ambient
noise.
B. is the amplitude of noise times the ambient noise.
C. represents the total amplitude of error in a signal relative to 3 dBM.
82. The decibel (dB) is ______
A. used to measure sound level, but it is also widely used in electronics and signals. The dB is
a
logarithmic unit used to describe a ratio. The ratio may be power, or voltage or intensity or
several
other things, but in all cases is a logarithmic relationship.
B. a linear relationship between two signal levels.
C. used to relate power, voltage, and signal levels of any kind to a standard unit of measurement.
Thisallow
comparison of power and voltage.
E. none of the answers
83. Which of the following are generally true?
A. Radio position reference systems are generally accurate to +/- 1 meter.
B. GPS reference systems are generally accurate to +/- 3 meters.
C. Hydro acoustic systems are generally accurate to 1-2 percent of water depth and laser systems are
accurate to .5 of a meter.
84. Long base line (LBL) is ______
A. the individual interrogation of three or more transponders which give a series of ranges.
B. used in deep water.
85. Short base line (SBL) ______
A. consists of pings emitted by beacons.
B. pings received from beacons are compared for time of arrival differences, from which the geometry
of the
hydrophones determines a relative position of the beacon.
C. is used mainly in shallow water but also in deeper water.
86. Ultra short baseline (USBL/SSBL) ______
A. consists of the interrogation of three or more transponders.
B. is the same principal as SBL but with a much smaller baseline. The water depth input is
required to
determine range in the pinger mode.

87. The advantage of long base line (LBL) is ______
A. very good position accuracy.
B. it does not need an MRU.
88. You are standing watch on a DP 3 system and receive a compass rejected alarm on the DP
system. What is
the correct response?
A. Compare gyros and deselect the gyro with the erroneous data
B. Deselect all gyros and work off the model
C. Go to joystick control on the yaw axis until the bad gyro can be repaired or settles down
D. Disregard the alarm since there are three gyros in the system
89. The disadvantage of long base line (LBL) compared to short base line or ultra short base line is
_____
A. the operational time consumed for deployment and recovery.
B. the comprehensive calibration required at each deployment.
90. The advantage of short base line is ______
A. low system complexity.
B. good update rate.
91. The disadvantage of short base line is ______
A. 3 or more transceivers are required.
B. set up time is long.
92. The advantages of ultra short base line is ______
A. low system complexity.
B. one single transceiver at surface is required.
93. The disadvantage of ultra short base line is ______
A. absolute position accuracy depends on additional sensors (gyro, MRU).
B. minimal redundancy.
94. The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a worldwide radio navigation system formed from a
constellation of 12
satellites and their ground stations.
A. True
B. False
95. Differential GPS (DGPS) ______
A. relies on the concept that the errors in the position at one location are similar to those for all
locations
within a given (local) area.
B. records GPS measurements at a point with known coordinates (reference stations) then quantifies
these
errors so that corrections can be applied to the other locations.
96. Ionospheric interference called scintillation ______
A. causes the degradation and potential loss of GPS signals.
B. is very strong in Brazil, Greenland and West Africa.
97. Solar activity that causes signal delays and disturbances are referred to as scintillations which
______
A. are said to be caused by plasma bubbles.
B. run in 11 year cycles, with the most recent maximum being in 2002.
C. is most troublesome in areas including Brazil, West Africa and parts of the Middle and Far East.
98. It is said that certain techniques help combat the problem of scintillation. Techniques use include
______
A. dual frequency GPS reception at the reference stations.
B. L1 and L2 frequencies and the comparison between the two which allows real time ionospheric
modeling
and a more accurate determination of the signal delays.
C. services provided such as the Thales Skyfix Premier, and the Fugro Starfix-HP service.
99. Problems encountered by users of DGPS include ______
A. shadowing due to crane movements.
B. poor locations of the antennas.
C. plasma bubbles
100. If you lose all position reference systems at the same time, what will your vessel do?
A. Your vessel will go into something called dead-reckoning and drive off.
B. Your vessel will still be able to know where it is based on the vessel model and hold
position for a
certain amount of time which would be dependent on the model and environment changes.
C. Your vessels DP system sensors will put full bias on all thrusters and hold position.
101. GPS satellite orbits are ______
A. geosynchronous.
B. about 20,200 kilometers.
C. low earth orbit, less than 10,000 kilometers.
A. 12 Hours.
B. 6 hours.
C. geosynchronous.
A. on the equator.
B. random variable orbits to maximize coverage.
C. six inclined planes.
104. How many GPS satellites are in operation?
A. 21 plus 3 active spares
B. 15 plus 3 active spares
C. 35 plus 3 active spares
105. In general where are you most likely to see scintillation effects on GPS signals?
A. At high latitude (above 50 degrees)
B. Near the equator
C. In the northern hemisphere
106. What methods are commonly used to improve accuracy of GPS signals on ships?
A. Transmit position corrections from land based reference stations and/or transmit
corrections for
individual satellite signals
B. Average position over a long period of time
C. Average multiple GPS solutions
107. Why is it more desirable to use differential correction data from nearby stations rather than far
away stations?
A. Nearby stations are more likely to experience the same ionospheric delays.
B. Nearby stations provide a signal faster than far away stations.
C. Nearby stations dont provide better data than far away stations. It makes no difference.
108. What is the value of monitoring vessel heading or heading error on a waterfall, chart, or other
analog display?
A. It is a good indicator if heading is optimal and immediate indication of a frozen gyro.
B. It helps to keep the riser angle straight.
C. It provides immediate indication the gyro has frozen.
D. It is of no practical use.
109. Acoustic systems transfer data to/from beacons via sound energy in water. Which of the
following is true of
acoustics?
A. Older systems used pulse detection. Analog pulses had to exceed a quality threshold of frequency
and
amplitude. Variability of acoustic impedance and detection circuits limited accuracy of these systems.
(original Honeywell system)
B. Pulses with phase flips or multiple frequencies in a known pattern are used by modern acoustics to
encode
more data in the signal. This allows transmission of additional data like water depth or temperature
and
improves accuracy by allowing the signal detector to average a series of signals rather than try to
determine the center of one pulse. (all current systems)
C. CDMA Code Division Multiple Access or Spread Spectrum is accomplished by comparing
received
acoustic energy to a known pattern and deriving data from pattern matches. CDMA is used by the
most
modern acoustics systems to extend battery life and operating range, while providing all the
advantages of
multiple frequency signals. (Nautronix RS925)
1. In case of an overload, the load shedding can automatically reduce the load demand by
sequentially limiting
demand from a preselected group.
A. True
B. False
2. What happens if the power consumption is close to the level of available power but the level is not
yet reached?
A. Load shedding may occur depending on the percentage of power used in other areas.
B. The thruster commands will be reduced by the power management to avoid blackout.
C. The DP system will stop one or more thrusters.
D. Nothing. It is the DP operators responsibility to make sure that there is sufficient power available.
3. A DP system is protected against failure by the inclusion of an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS).
This
system provides ______
A. a stabilized power supply not affected by short term interruptions or fluctuations of the ships a.c
power
supply.
B. power to computers, consoles, displays, alarms, position and environment reference systems.
C. power for 30 minutes or more.
4. Adjustment of the efficiency of station and heading control may be affected using gain control
______
A. in low gain where emphasis is placed on economy in fuel consumption and wear and tear on the
propulsion. In low gain the footprint may expand a small amount.
B. in high gain where the emphasis is on the tightest positioning possible. A drawback to high gain is
the
tendency for a vessel to oscillate or hunt the setpoint position after an excursion.
5. The speed that a vessel is commanded to move to another location is operator selectable.
Typically, the vessel
speed is selectable to any value between zero and 2 meters per second. Two meters per second is
about
______
A. 1 knot.
B. 2 knots.
C. 3 knots.
D. 4 knots.
6. Power factor is a ratio of what two parts?
A. Apparent power over absolute power
B. True power over apparent power
C. Absolute power over apparent power
D. Apparent power over true power
7. Capability charts/diagrams are useful but they should be treated only as a guide. With new vessels
there is
little evidence to show that she can actually achieve what the capability diagrams might indicate.
Other factors
which will effect the actual capability are ______

A. sail area at the time of the reading and testing
B. sea state and tidal conditions may be different from the diagram
C. the vessel may not be in the same physical state (draft, list, trim, mass) as when the model was
done.
8. A thruster or propeller suddenly begins running at 100 percent and your vessel starts moving off
location. What
should you do?
A. Nothing, the DP system will take care of it.
B. Put another thruster on line.
C. Call the chief engineer or chief electrician.
D. Hit the emergency stop button for that thruster.
Power Management System - Workbook Questions
9. Different authorities and classification societies define dynamic positioning systems to comprise a
number of
sub systems, which again is divided into system components. The International Maritime Organization
(IMO)
divides a dynamic positioning system into three sub systems. They are ______
A. power system, thruster systems, and control systems.
B. gyro system, DP operator, and control system.
C. DP operator, control systems, and power system.
10. On Class II and Class III DP units there should be sufficient thrusters on line at any time to
maintain vessel
position on location in the event of loss of worst case bus bar.
A. True
B. False
11. In an AC variable speed motor (as used in thrusters) the speed is varied by changing the ______
A. hertz.
B. volts.
C. feedback.
12. Why should power be reserved for the driller during a station keeping incident?
A. To allow driller to keep on drilling
B. To allow the driller to sound the alarm in the moonpool
C. To allow the driller to hang off and shear
D. Drill floor does not need any reserve power in this situation
13. DP capability plots should provide ______
A. expected vessel performance for an assortment of weather criteria and thruster configuration.
B. vessel performance in the event of a worst case failure condition, i.e. in the event of the failure of
the most
significant thrusters or in the event of the failure of the most significant bus bar section.
14. A vessel operating within the requirements for Class 2 gets a blackout on one of two
switchboards. What will
happen with the positioning of the vessel?
A. The vessel will drift out of position.
B. The DP system will deselect heading control.
C. The vessel will stay in position.
D. The DP system will change to manual control.
15. What does the variable thruster mode button (KS, Nautronics and Alstom) do? This may be called
something
different on some systems.
A. It allows the DP to control various thrusters.
B. It allows azimuthing thrusters to rotate to give optimum DP control.
C. It allows variable pitch thrusters to go to 100 percent.
16. What does the thruster allocation module do?
A. Measures thruster feedback
B. Compares thruster feedback and thruster command
C. Distributes force demand to thrusters
D. Allocates feedback from thrusters
17. Loss of position due to a lack of power or propulsion is called what?

A. Drive Off
B. Dead Reckoning
C. Advance and Transfer
D. Drift Off
18. A serious DP event that is brought under control, before an unscheduled disconnect occurs is
called a ______
A. DP incident.
B. DP anomaly.
C. DP upset.
D. DP interrupt.
19. A thruster suddenly loses control and begins running 100 percent. What can be done to minimize
the
consequences?
A. Nothing, the DP system will handle the situation.
B. Immediately take the thruster off line and put another one on line.
C. Start another thruster
20. What task does the thruster allocation logic (TAL) perform?
A. Allocates thrusters to generators that have sufficient available power
B. Monitors available generator power and divides it among online thrusters equally
C. Monitors vessel position and wind forces and allocates thrusters to maintain location
D. Commands thruster RPM and azimuth based upon wind, estimated current, hydrodynamic
model,
required restoring forces, and online thruster array
21. What is a thruster exclusion zone?
A. An area under the rig where thrusters cannot be installed because of noise and geometry
B. Azimuth regions within which thruster RPM is limited to reduce noise or inflow degradation
of
other thrusters
C. Areas where the thrusters cannot operate due to mechanical limitations of the design
D. Certain operating conditions in which thrusters are not allowed to be run, such as coming into
shallow
water to dock the vessel
22. Thruster modulation refers to fixed azimuth thrusters changing RPM up and down - or even
reversing direction
constantly in a repeatable oscillatory manner with no apparent reason. What is most true about this
phenomenon?
A. There is usually no apparent cause and the weather is probably calm.
B. In order to resist noisy power circuits, thruster commands are encoded, or modulated to ensure
accuracy
over the long distance from DP to the thruster.
C. Thruster modulation is the technique of modulating, or smoothing out thruster commands so that
power
plant load is less peaky.
23. What is thruster hunting or windmilling?
A. DP keeps starting and stopping thrusters attempting to select the optimum configuration
B. DP keeps rotating thrusters around and around at high loads; this is typically caused by noisy
position
reference sensors
C. DP keeps rotating the thrusters around and around at almost zero thrust
24. Of the following situations, when is thruster modulation most likely to occur?
A. 2 knots of current from the STBD side
B. Flat calm seas with no wind or current
C. While changing heading
25. Of the following, which is the most likely cause of thruster modulation and how do you respond?
A. Modulation indicates a computer failure. Change computers and call for a technician.
B. Thruster modulation indicates a limit cycle. Change almost anything (control gain, thruster
array,
sensors, heading, position) to break the loop.
C. Modulation indicates the DP system has not kept the rig on location properly and is having trouble
getting
back to location. Increase DP system gain until it becomes stable again.
26. Explain the effects if a thruster drive fails such that thruster RPM falls to 50% of commanded RPM
on a
thruster that is pushing the rig to STBD (assume that this DP system does not use thruster RPM or
KW
feedback for control purposes).
A. Initially the rig will move off location to PORT. The differential control loop will correct for
the error
by pushing harder with the remaining thrusters to STBD. After a few minutes the DP system
will
calculate an increased current from STBD. Remember, feedback is not used for control, only
display
and alarm so even DP sounds an alarm that the thruster is running incorrectly, it makes an
attempt
to compensate until the rig moves away from location, which DP sees as increased current.
B. Initially the rig will move off location to STBD. The differential control loop will correct for the error
by
pushing harder with the remaining thrusters to PORT. After a few minutes the DP system will calculate
an
increased current from PORT.
C. No effect, the DP system control will increase the other thrusters to compensate. No errors will be
introduced. The calculated current will remain unchanged.
27. Which of the following statements is most true about a controllable pitch fixed RPM thruster?
A. Starting currents are high, power consumption is about 25% at zero thrust, and certain types of
control
failures may cause the thruster to run at 100%.
B. Starting currents are minimal, power consumption is about zero at zero thrust, and almost
all
control failures cause the thruster to shut down.
C. Starting currents usually require an extra engine online, power consumption is constant regardless
of RPM,
and all failure modes shut down the thruster.
28. Which of the following statements is most true about a fixed pitch variable speed thruster (assume
the feeder
breaker is closed and the thruster ready to rotate)?
A. Starting the propeller to rotate requires high current, power consumption is about 25% at zero
thrust, and
certain types of control failures may cause the thruster to run at 100%.
B. Starting currents are small, power consumption is about zero at zero thrust, and most
control
failures cause the thruster to shut down.
C. Starting currents usually require an extra engine online, power consumption is constant regardless
of RPM,
and all failure modes shut down the thruster.
29. Which thruster configuration would most likely use the least kW, assuming fixed pitch variable
speed
thrusters? (refer to propeller curves).
A. One thruster running at 90% of rated thrust
B. Two thrusters running at 45% of rated thrust each (for controllable pitch thrusters this answer would
be
correct, CP is most efficient at mid-range)
C. Six thrusters running at 15% of rated thrust each each (propellers are more efficient at low
RPM so
you get the most thrust per kW running them slow)
30. Which fixed pitch variable speed thruster configuration would most likely produce the least noise
effects on
hydrophones?
B. Two thrusters running at 45% of rated thrust each (for controllable pitch thrusters this answer would
be
correct, CP is most quiet at mid-range)
C. Six thrusters running at 15% of rated thrust each (lower RPM is quieter even with 6
thrusters
running)
31. Which variable speed thruster configuration would produce the most thrust?
A. One thruster running at 90% of rated RPM (20% of Thrust is achieved in the final 10% of
RPM
though kW consumption goes way up)
B. Two thrusters running at 45% of rated RPM each
C. Six thrusters running at 15% of rated RPM each
32. Which thruster configuration would most likely produce the least noise effects on hydrophones?
B. Two thrusters running at 45% of rated thrust each
C. Six thrusters running at 15% of rated thrust each
33. Can a DP operator set up DC thrusters to improve the rigs power factor? If so, how?
A. Yes, run fewer thrusters at higher RPM to improve power factor. (higher RPM means higher
power
factor for DC or Alstom AC)
B. Yes, run more thrusters at lower RPM to improve power factor
C. No, any configuration gives the same power factor
34. Which thruster configuration would produce the most thrust?
A. One thruster running at 90% of rated RPM
35. Which thruster configuration would produce the most thrust?
A. One thruster running at 90% of rated RPM
36. Can a DP Operator set up DC thrusters to improve the rigs power factor? If so, how?
A. Yes, run fewer thrusters at higher RPM to improve power factor.
B. Yes, run more thrusters at lower RPM to improve power factor
C. No, any configuration gives the same power factor
37. When comparing fixed pitch to controllable pitch propellers the following is true.
A. Fixed pitch are 2 to 4 percent more efficient
B. Controllable pitch are heavily stressed
C. Controllable pitch are more complex and their problems expensive to cure
38. The basic requirement for a vessel of equipment class 2 or 3 is that the POWER SYSTEM should
be able to
withstand the effects of a single fault.
A. True
B. False
39. Abnormal power conditions might be any of the following: earth fault, overload, short circuit, under
of over
frequency or voltage or excitation failure. Equipment which detect, locate, indicate, and remove these
faults are
______
A. fuses and timers.
B. protection relays.
C. circuit breakers.
40. Reverse power protection is provided to prevent a diesel engine/alternator against motoring which
may result
from load management or governor failure. A loss of excitation relay will protect the alternator against
the
effects of such an event. Loss of excitation in an alternator can impose a large reactive current which
may
result in the overloading of parallel generators.
A. This is not a major concern.
B. Effective tripping of the faulty alternator is essential to prevent the overload trip of
otherwise healthy
generators.
C. Should this fail there will definitely be a blackout.
D. all of the answers.
41. In order to prevent blackouts it is normal to split the switchboard system into two or more parts,
connected by
means of bus ties.
A. True
B. False
42. Blackouts ______
A. may occur from the correct operation of the protection system on a faulty generator causing this
machine
to trip. This causes the remaining machines to operate in a transient fluctuating condition while
attempting
to return the system to normal. These transient conditions may cause the healthy machines to trip due
to
operating conditions being outside acceptable limits.
B. may arise where installed protection systems are unable to discriminate, resulting in the trip of a
healthy
machine or machines because of faults relating to a malfunctioning alternator. In general, the greater
the
amount of generating capacity the lower the risk of total blackout.
43. A typical diesel electric power network has two HV busbars connected by means of a bus tie.
Which
statement below is correct?
A. Ideally, each busbar should be supplied by one half the generators and in turn supply half
the
thruster, propulsion and other HV consumers.
B. Ideally, each busbar should be supplied by all the generators and in turn supply all the thrusters,
propulsion
and other HV consumers.
C. This is illegal.
44. In a network operated with the bus-tie closed, ______
A. less generators are required. It is more economical if nothing goes wrong.
B. load shedding is not normally necessary. There is a small risk of single point failure leading to total
loss of
power.
45. In a network operated with the bus-tie open, the two sections are essentially independent. If the
system is
design correctly then in THEORY, no single point failure should result in a loss of total power. The
following can
be said.
A. A failure mode does however exist, in which one side of the board can be lost due to an overload
trip.
B. This type of network means that more engines are required in order to maintain reserve power.
46. When configuring UPSs (uninterruptible power supply) it is important that they be set up so that in
the
distribution units, VRUs remain on one UPS while the gyros remain on another UPS.
A. True
B. False
47. Which might best help station keeping performance in a power limit situation?
A. Shut off thrusters until all remaining thrusters are running at over 90%.
B. Turn on all thrusters
C. Open all buss tie breakers to isolate thrusters and generators
D. Drop all manual or automatic thruster bias, adjust heading for minimum thrust, and adjust
thruster
configuration so that all thrusters work in the same direction.
48. What is the most likely reason a variable speed fixed pitch thruster that is being commanded to
run at 45%
would only show 20% feedback and what effect would this have on station keeping?
A. Bad command from DP. No effect because DP would compensate.
B. Failure in the motor drive. Calculated current would be incorrect. (the feedback devices are
usually
correct motor drives fail more often than feedback devices).
C. Actual DP need is really 20%. No effect on DP, nothing wrong.
49. If one thruster has been running for hours at 45%, thrusting to hold station (no bias), still has 45%
command
but suddenly begins showing 20% feedback and a drop in kW, what effect should this have on station
keeping
ability? Assume the DP system uses open loop thruster control.
A. DP systems automatically compensates for thruster RPM so it will have no effect.
B. The rig will initially move off location away from the environment, then slowly return as the
integral
ramps up in the direction of net environment. (The drop in both RPM and kW indicates the
thruster
has really slowed down but DP assumes it is OK, so you would move off location and current
would
increase. However, some DP systems display a fake kW looked up in a table from RPM, in
which
case there would be an alarm but NO EFFECT on station keeping what does YOUR DP
system
do?)
C. The rig will initially move off location into the environment, then slowly return as the integral ramps
down in
the direction of net environment.
50. If one thruster that is thrusting to hold station (no bias) is being commanded 45% RPM and over
12 hours still
runs at 45% RPM but slowly changes to where it is only showing 20% RPM feedback, would this
affect station
keeping ability? Assume the DP system uses open loop thruster control.
A. The integral term will be artificially higher in the direction of net environmental forces but there will
be no
immediate effect on the DPs ability to hold location.
B. The rig will slowly move off location over the 12 hour period.
C. There would be no effect at all except a compare alarm on that thruster. (The question
states that it
is RUNNING OK, so all you get is an alarm).
51. If one thruster is being commanded 45% but suddenly began showing 20% feedback, what
immediate action
should you take? Assume mild environment and plenty of spare thruster capacity is available.
A. If Station Keeping is stable, notify appropriate personnel and start troubleshooting the
problem. If
DP is losing station, immediately remove or replace the thruster. (If it isnt affecting DP,
always,
every time, try to troubleshoot the problem, narrow down the failure yourself you can
probably
tell if the RPM sensor is bad or motor drive from the data you have available, then tell the ET
what
you found. Otherwise the ET has to come to DP and restart the thruster to do exactly what you
could have done.)
B. Dont take action unless there is an alarm or an effect on station keeping ability.
C. Remove the thruster from service immediately. Make a note in the log book and at tour change be
certain
to tell your relief not to use the suspect thruster.
52. If one thruster that is running 45% suddenly starts showing 20% feedback, what is the fastest
method to
troubleshoot it from DP?
A. Watch station keeping and apparent current (integral terms) while putting the suspect thruster into
and out
of the solution.
B. Compare kW reading with other thrusters running the same RPM. (Or maybe you have a
secondary RPM meter almost all DP systems have two independent feedbacks, and several
that
are calculated. Do you know which feedback signals are independent on your system?)
C. You cannot troubleshoot thruster feedback from DP, call the technician.
D. Measure feedback at the interface.
53. Can a DC thruster have a zero or near-zero power factor for an extended period?
A. Yes, if operated at full amps and zero RPM for a long time.
B. No, DC motors have power factor of about 0.6 at all times.
C. Yes, at full power the magnetic field saturates and power factor goes to zero.
D. No, thruster motors never stall; power factor is about 0.4 at low RPM and approaches 1.0 at
full
RPM.
54. Fixed speed, variable pitch propellers ______
A. are inherently more efficient at generating thrust at all power levels.
B. are least efficient at full thrust.
C. use up to thirty percent of power at low thrust.
55. The Coanda effect (the tendency of a moving fluid to follow a curving surface) causes ______
A. an increase in net thrust by the Bernoulli lowering of pressure on the downstream side of the hull.
B. a decrease in net thrust from drag as propeller wash bends upward at the edge of the hull.
(This is
why the thrusters will have more efficiency when pushing water into clean water rather than
along
the hull.)
C. a sometimes dangerous pulsating force from interaction of the propeller blades and the hull.
56. For a given fixed-pitch propeller, thrust is directly proportional to ______
A. propeller speed.
B. shaft input power.
C. shaft torque.
57. At what speeds and loads do DC thruster motors (or AC thruster motors with Alstom drives) have
their best
power factor and how high should it be?
A. At full amps and full RPM it should achieve 0.8 or higher.
B. At low RPM DC motors achieve 0.8 power factor or higher.
C. Power factor of a DC thruster motor is about 0.6 at any RPM.
58. What is power factor?
A. Power factor equals generator kW divided by kVA. (on rigs with mostly DC motors the p.f.
may be
below 0.7 which may lead to overload and blackout, is your p.f. > 0.7)
B. Power factor equals kVA divided by kW
C. The percentage of generator power that is lost as heat
59. In general, which configuration would be the least likely to experience a complete rig blackout?
A. Two-way split buss with one skid per buss
B. Four-way split buss with three generators per buss (A dive boat will run this way because
they have
human lives in the water. They are willing to trade partial failure for the reduction of risk of
total
failure. For this to be a practical way to operate you must have 100% capability with one buss
blacked out.)
C. Unified buss
60. In general, which configuration is most likely to experience a partial rig blackout?
A. Split buss with one skid per buss
B. Split buss with multiple skids per buss
C. Unified buss
61. For a variable speed fixed-pitch propeller, thrust is directly proportional to ______
A. propeller speed.
B. shaft input power.
C. shaft torque. (Torque is thrust Do you have a torque readout on your system?)
62. At full rated thrust a fixed pitch variable speed thruster will produce about 30 pounds of thrust per
shaft
horsepower. At half of rated thrust, the same thruster will produce about ______
A. 15 pounds per horsepower.
B. 30 pounds per horsepower.
C. 42 pounds per horsepower. (Lower RPM is more efficient, so we know thrust per kW will be
greater
than 30.)
63. In general, which configuration is least likely to experience a partial rig blackout?
A. Two-split buss with one generator per buss
B. Three-split buss with one generator per buss
C. Unified buss with six generators and six thrusters
64. In general, which configuration is most likely to provide the highest level of equipment
redundancy?
A. Split buss with one skid per buss
B. Split buss with multiple skids per buss

C. Unified buss
65. Which statement is most true about emergency starts of main generators?
A. During normal operations, an emergency start should never happen.
B. During normal operations, an emergency start is common if there are squalls in the area.
C. During normal operations, an emergency start should be initiated weekly to make sure the system
works
properly.
66. One of the main functions of the Power Management System is to ______
A. prevent blackouts.
B. reduce operator workload.
C. reduce engine loads.
67. Why should emergency starts be avoided?
A. Emergency starts are hard on the equipment
B. Emergency starts cause alarms and require reports to be written
C. Emergency starts only occur during a blackout
D. none of the answers, emergency starts are part of normal operations
68. Why should power be reserved for the driller during a station keeping incident?
A. To allow the driller to hang off and shear
B. To allow the driller to keep drilling
C. To allow the driller to safely evacuate the drill floor
D. Power should not be reserved for the driller because DP needs it all.
69. How does a PID closed loop controller work?
A. The PID controller has a setpoint or goal, a measured parameter, and generates an error
from the
difference between the setpoint and error. The proportional loop (P) generates a response that
varies
linearly with the magnitude of the error. The integral loop (I) generates a response that varies
with
the average, or integral of the error, over a period of time. The differential loop (D) generates a
response that varies with the rate of change of the error.
B. A PID controller uses Planned Intelligent Design (PID) to model the rig and forces on the rig and
generate a
thruster allocation that will exactly balance the outside forces on the rig and maintain station within a
designed radius.
C. A PID controller measures the environment, examines operator inputs, and derives a model of
vessel
position and environment. This model is compared to operator settings and modified to match actual
performance. Position data (P) is received from position sensors. Input data (I) are the operator
settings.
Derived data (D) is calculated from measured data and used to build the model.
70. Given that a ship is so massive that thrusters cant move it fast, which type of control (position,
velocity, or
historical average) would you expect to dominate a DP system, and why?
A. Since a ship is very massive compared to the available thrust, the main goal of any DP
system is to
prevent motion. Thus, the integral or Kongsberg Current and response to velocity will be
stronger
than response to position error. (A DP system mainly tries to keep from moving, secondly it
tries to
do whatever it was doing, thirdly it tries to stay on location.)
B. The response to position error is the main control, as the main control function is always to try to
move to
the origin.
C. All control factors are equal, none dominates
71. In a closed loop DP control system the control component that responds to velocity ______
A. will resist the return to set point from an offset.
B. provides the return to set point even against steady state loads.
C. provides a restoring force proportional to the derivative of vessel velocity.
72. One of the first things to do if the rig experiences a total blackout is ______
A. turn off all displays to save power.
B. contact the driller and engine control room.
C. shut down crane operations.
73. What is the most likely drill floor response to a blackout?
A. Immediately space out and hang off the drill pipe
B. Immediately shear the drill pipe
C. Continue normal operations until instructed otherwise
74. What is the best description of the purpose of a Kalman filter?
A. Automatically reduces all system gains as vessel motion slows down, and slows thrusters. Filters
dont
operate thrusters.
B. Automatically increases all system gains as position data becomes noisier, and starts more engines
if
necessary. Filters dont start engines.
C. Estimates state of a vessel based upon noisy measurements of position and environment
D. Provides a restoring force proportional to the derivative of vessel velocity. The derivative of velocity
is
acceleration, acceleration is not controlled by DP systems.
75. What would you expect if you increased the Kalman filter gain setting for a position reference
sensor?
A. DP would follow measured position more than predicted position. All the Kalman filter gain
settings
are used for is to change how much DP depends on its estimated position vs. new position
measurements.
B. DP would follow predicted position more than measured position.
C. Thrusters would run harder and additional engines might start
D. DP would hold station more tightly
76. Which part of the DP system is most likely to stop functioning during a blackout?
A. DP Computers
B. Sensors (wind/position/attitude)
C. Thrusters
77. In a closed loop DP control system with the vessel 20 meters off location but returning to setpoint,
the control
component that responds to velocity ______
A. will resist the return to set point from an offset. DP always tries to limit velocity.
B. provides the return to set point even against steady state loads.
C. provides a restoring force proportional to the derivative of vessel velocity.
78. What does thruster drive frequency spillover or thruster phaseback accomplish (Alstom
cycloconverter thruster
drives).
A. Reduces power generated by main engines to prevent buss overload
B. Modifies thruster demand in response to changes in buss frequency
C. Reduces thruster RPM when buss load exceeds 100%
1. What can reset the DP current?
A. Turn off Doppler current meter
B. Disable wind sensors
C. Cycle to manual mode and back to auto mode
2. It is a Transocean policy to shut in drill stem operations from floating vessels when the vessels
motions
exceed ______-foot total (double amplitude) heave.
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 10
3. Cumulus cloud thunder storms can drop cold air and may generate surface winds in excess of
______
A. 20 knots.
B. 60 knots.
C. 120 knots.
4. It is against Transoceans policy to allow a vessel to work on the weather side of a Transocean
vessel.
A. True
B. False
5. For the purposes of risk mitigation regarding dual DP operations Transocean defines close
proximity as
______
A. 50 meters.
B. 100 meters.
C. 500 meters.
D. 1000 meters.
6. Which direction does a low pressure rotate?
A. Clockwise in the northern hemisphere
B. Clockwise in the southern hemisphere
C. Counterclockwise in the southern hemisphere
7. What type of thruster may create the most acoustic noise?
A. Fixed pitch, variable speed, azimuthing
B. Controllable pitch, constant speed, tunnel
C. Main propulsion screw.
D. Thrusters do not affect acoustics
8. The vessels fog signal must be sounded in which of the following conditions?
A. Rain
B. Darkness
C. Reduced Visibility
9. While each storm requires its own analysis and frequent or continual resurvey of the situation, the
general
rule for a vessel in the Northern Hemisphere which finds itself in the right or dangerous semicircle of a
hurricane is that safety lies in placing the wind on the ______. (This information can be found in
Bowditch.)
A. starboard bow (45 degrees relative)
B. port bow
C. stern
D. starboard quarter (135 degrees relative)
Environmental Conditions - Workbook Questions
10. Which of the following could affect wind sensors?
A. Other vessels in close proximity
B. Rain
C. Helicopter operations
11. Operations with supply vessels should be carried out down-current of our vessels.
A. True
B. False
12. If you are maneuvering to escape from the navigable semicircle of a hurricane in the northern
hemisphere, you
should steer a course that puts the wind on your ______ (This information can be found in Bowditch.)
A. port bow.
B. starboard bow.
C. port quarter.
D. starboard quarter.
13. What is required if a DP supply vessel is going to work on the weather/current side and within 20
meters of one
of our vessels?
A. Three people on the bridge
B. Environment under .5 knot of current and 15 knots of wind
C. It is never allowed
D. A risk assessment
14. What weather phenomenon would not be expected in advance of a cold front?
A. The presence of altostratus altocumulus and nimbostratus clouds
B. Moderate to rapid barometric pressure drops
C. Continuous rain or snow
D. Increasing wind becoming squally
15. Which is TRUE concerning the speed of fronts?
A. Cold fronts move faster than warm fronts.
B. Cold fronts move slower than warm fronts.
C. Cold fronts and warm fronts move with equal speed.

D. Cold fronts move slower at the northern end and faster at the southern end.
16. Fog generally clears when the ______
A. wind speed increases.
B. wind direction changes.
C. temperature increases.
17. In general, station keeping ability is maximized by keeping the wind ______
A. on the bow or stern.
B. on the stern.
C. on the beam.
D. It doesnt matter
18. In general, station keeping ability is maximized by keeping the current ______
A. on the bow or stern.
B. on the stern.
C. on the beam.
D. it doesnt matter
19. Which would you expect to have the greater effect on station keeping ability?
A. 3 knots of current
B. 30 knots of wind
C. 5 meter seas
D. Rain
20. If, relative to the current vessel heading, 30 knots of wind started on the bow and rotated one
direction and 3
knots of current started on the bow and rotated the other direction, which force do you think you would
be
forced to follow?
A. The current
B. The wind
C. Neither
D. Both
21. Consequence analysis ______
A. is a function required for DP systems conforming to requirements of IMO Equipment Classes 2 and
3.
B. continually performs analysis to determine a vessels ability to maintain its position under a variety
of
failures.
C. examines the effects of predefined worst-case failures under the existing environmental conditions
and
under the present system status for thrusters and power generation.
22. Capability analysis and consequence analysis are the same thing.
A. True
B. False
23. Capability analysis predicts the maximum weather conditions in which a vessel would be able to
continue DP
operations, and allows the DPO to select the optimum heading for safe operation. Some vessel
situations
which are evaluated are ______
A. present condition in regard to thrusters and generators. Loss of one or more generators.
B. loss of one or more thrusters and loss of power bus (switch board failure).
24. Controllable pitch thrusters have failures within the electro-hydraulic control unit which may result
in failure to
full pitch either way (irrespective of the failsafe mode) or to fail-as-set. In view of this the DPO must
monitor
his propeller ______ and if failure occurs must shut down or trip that thruster immediately.
A. voltage
B. feedback
C. azimuth bearing
25. Controllable pitch propellers are ______ irrespective of the ______
A. sometimes running at full RPMs / thrust demand.
B. never running at full RPMs / weather.
C. always running at full RPMs / thrust demands.

D. never running at full RPMs / thrust demands.
26. In recent years, major advances have been made in areas of variable-speed drives for AC motors.
A variablespeed
drive on an AC motor allows variable rpm, fully reversible and controllable, on a fixed-pitch propeller.
This
could help reduce the reliance on controllable pitch propellers and eliminate many of the failure
modes.
A. True
B. False
27. On an azimuth type thruster ______
A. it is normal to have ahead and astern directions of operation.
B. the ahead direction is the most efficient. The propeller design is optimized for this direction, as is
the
nozzle design.
C. when operating in the astern direction, the amount of thrust available drops off to typically 60
percent.
28. Many vessels have a function called fixed azimuth or a name which means that the thrusters can
be
configured so that they push against one another. This option is useful when _____
A. there is little environment and the thrusters are hunting.
B. in high current conditions.
C. thrusters are down for repair.
29. Vibrations in a thruster may result in over heating leading to a bearing failure. Damaged bearing
may result in
fragments of metal migrating to other parts of the unit and cause further damage.
A. True
B. False
30. Overloading will occur if a controllable pitch propeller is started with the blade pitch not set at zero.
A. True
B. False
31. The biggest single failure of thruster failures is ______
A. high voltage.
B. under voltage.
C. water ingress.
D. high oil pressure.
32. Seals used in controllable pitch propellers (blade O-rings, propeller shaft seals, and the steering
gear seal on
an azimuth thruster) are manufactured by one company and sometimes installed by another company
or
shipyard specialist. This can sometimes lead to damage or failure within a short period of time due to
improper
fitting or installation.
A. True
B. False
33. Seals for a propeller are made so that they are ready to go once they are installed and tested.
There is no
concern about a proper run in after installation.
A. True
B. False
34. When the vessel is in DP it is important that any thruster actually running be taken into DP control.
A. True
B. False
35. If a thruster is running but not enabled then, _____
A. the DP system is not monitoring the feedback of the thruster.
B. the DP system thinks it is stopped and generating zero thrust.
36. If a thruster is running but not enabled then, _____
A. when it fails (particularly if the failure is to full pitch), the DP system will not know about the failure
and
thus can not properly compensate for the unwanted thrust.
B. the vessel will drive off location because the only compensation resulting from the vessel will be
from the
positional and velocity errors detected.
1. On a vessel with two bow tunnel thrusters, No. 1 fails to full pitch thrusting to starboard. The DP
system rapidly
assesses the situation including the feedback thrust from No. 1, and correctly applies full thrust from
No. 2
thrusting to port in an attempt to compensate for the No. 1 thruster. The DPO must ______
A. recall what the thrusters were doing before the failure and turn off both thrusters.
B. recall what the thrusters were doing before the failure, carefully check his setpoint
(command)feedback values on each thruster, then together with alarms which will have been generated,
make
a decision.
C. shut off the thruster with the most power on it.
D. shut off the thruster with the least power on it.
2. On a vessel with two bow tunnel thrusters, No. 1 fails to full pitch thrusting to starboard. The DP
system rapidly
assesses the situation including the feedback thrust from No. 1, and correctly applies full thrust from
No. 2
thrusting to port in an attempt to compensate for the No. 1 thruster. This type of error may be
generated
______
A. simply because of an error in the transmission of the feedback. Thus the thruster is operating
correctly but
feedback is wrong. In this case, the position keeping capability of the vessel is downgraded since the
DP
system will be reacting to the (incorrect) feedback assuming that feedback represents the thruster
state.
B. because of a thruster failure; the thruster is not correctly answering the command signal but the
feedback
is accurately telling the DP and the DPO the thruster status.
3. If rudders are not included in any DP function, then it is important that prior to any DP operations,
______
A. the rudder is placed amidships.
B. any auto pilot be disengaged.
4. You are working in DP with the rig drilling ahead and BOP latched. Current (1 kt) and wind (12 kts)
are coming
from 45 degrees on your port bow. A supply boat is tied up with two lines to the STBD side,
transferring fuel
and water. The boat suddenly blacks out and begins swinging towards the STBD AFT column. What
would
you do?
A. Yellow alert and change heading 45 degrees to STBD
B. Red alert disconnect
C. Send somebody to cut the boat loose
D. Change heading 45 degrees to PORT
E. Offset the rig to PORT
F. Offset the rig to STBD
Case Studies - Workbook Questions
5. You are working in DP, drilling ahead with the BOP latched. Rig heading is 020, wind 12 knots from
the north,
current 1.6 knots going to 190 degrees. You receive a call advising you that there is a 65 ft steel
hulled fishing
boat in trouble with 22 persons on board. The fishing boat is 0.17 mile up current of the rig, has a
large net
fouled around its propeller, and cannot maneuver. How much time do you have to react?
A. 2 minutes
B. 6 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 30 minutes
What action might you take? (chose those that apply)
A. Call the fishing boat and sternly order it to keep its distance
B. Ask whoever called you to keep supplying information
C. Immediate Red alert, no time to do anything
D. Yellow alert
E. Start additional engines and thrusters
F. Inform the driller and ECR of the situation
G. Call the Captain
H. Estimate drift speed and vector on radar
I. Offset rig out of path of drifter
J. Change heading to present a narrower cross section (ship shape rig)
K. Disconnect and move away
You are working in DP with the following situation:

F/A Integral = +30
P/S Integral = + 35 or Kongsberg Current = 2.7 knots from 0300 relative
YAW Integral = +3
A steady 30 knot wind is hitting the rig from about 0300 relative and has been pretty stable for 8
hours. The barometer
is constant. The rig is heading right into a large swell of long period and pitching a fair amount but not
much roll.
Suddenly, the wind stays at 30 knots but swings quickly from 0300 relative around to 45 degrees on
the port bow. You
notice one small rain squall cell on the radar off to port approaching slowly.
1. What immediate effect would you expect on DP power?
A. DP power will not change much and might even decrease. Because wind and current on the
same
side uses more power, wind and current on opposite sides balances out.
B. DP power will increase slightly to handle the increased wind.
C. DP power will saturate and another generator will start.
2. What action should you take at this time?
A. Leave all generators online and maybe start another if the squall cell looks intense. Tell the
driller
rain is coming. Advise ECR (if there is an ECR on the rig).
B. Release one generator because power has dropped off. Advise ECR (if there is an ECR on the rig).
Tell
the driller rain is coming
C. Warn the drill floor to go to Yellow Alert, turn quickly 45 degrees to port, and start another engine,
maybe
two. Monitor situation and keep driller advised if you approach red alert
D. Initiate a red alert and disconnect from the wellhead while you still can
3. Would you want to do a heading change at this time, and if so, which direction and how far would
you turn?
A. No turn is needed
B. Turn 45 degrees to PORT
C. Turn 45 degrees to STBD
4. What is the likely result of a turn 45 degrees to port?
A. The required thrust may exceed available thrust. Also, the rig might roll a lot.
B. The rig should ride better and hold station better with the bow into the wind.
C. There is no way of telling.
You walk into DP and notice the following situation:

F/A Integral = +30
P/S Integral = +19 or Kongsberg Current = 2.0 knots from 0350 relative
YAW Integral = +7
The on-duty DPO tells you that a steady wind has been hitting the rig from 45 degrees on the
starboard side for
about 8 hours and has slowly increased to 40 knots. You look at the charting barometer and notice it
has been
falling steadily and rapidly for 8 hours. The rig is riding OK but you are starting to see some roll.
1. What effect would you expect on ASK (positioning) power over the next hour?
A. It should keep going up
B. No change
C. It should drop off
A. Check seas for hidden swell. Advise driller, subsea supervisor, and engine control room.
Turn
slowly to STBD. After you find the best heading, advise driller, subsea supervisor, and engine
control room.
B. Watch the situation closely in case it gets worse. Inform the driller you have 40 knots of wind and
building
environment. Take no action unless it gets worse.
C. Notify driller, subsea supervisor, and engine control room that you are changing heading. Monitor
thrusters
and power and turn to port 40 degrees in 5 degree steps.
3. Would you want to do a heading change at this time?
A. Yes
B. No
4. If yes, which direction and how far would you turn?
A. 30 degrees to STBD
B. 20 degrees to PORT
C. No change
5. If yes, how fast would you turn?
A. As fast as possible
B. 20 degrees a minute
C. No faster than 5 degrees a minute, slower if possible
6. Why might you change heading?
A. The wind will probably continue to build, so will the swell
B. Never change heading unless you have to
C. The rig is doing fine, changing heading could cause problems
You are working in DP with the following situation:

F/A Integral = +30
P/S Integral = + 17 or Kongsberg Current = 1.7 knots from 0300 relative
YAW Integral = +3
A steady 30 knot wind is hitting the rig from about 0200 relative and has been pretty stable for 8
hours. The
barometer is constant. The rig is riding well, not much motion. Suddenly, the wind swings to 30 knots
from 45
degrees on the port bow and you notice a small squall cell on the radar.
1. What immediate effect would you expect on DP power?
A. DP power will probably decrease.
B. DP power will increase slightly to handle the increased wind.
C. DP power will saturate and another generator will start.
A. No
B. Yes
3. If so, which direction and how far would you turn?
A. No turn is needed
B. Turn 45 degrees to PORT
C. Turn 45 degrees to STBD
4. What is the likely result of a turn 45 degrees to port?
A. The required thrust may exceed available thrust and result in a loss of location.
B. The rig should ride better and hold station better with the bow into the wind.
C. There is no way of telling.
A. Advise engine control that the power reduction is temporary. Leave all skids online and
maybe
start another if the squall cell looks intense.
B. Release one skid because power has dropped off.
C. Warn the drill floor to go to Yellow Alert.
D. Disconnect from the wellhead.

You walk into DP and notice the following situation.

F/A Integral = +30
P/S Integral = +18 or Kongsberg Current = 1.7 knots from 0350 relative
YAW Integral = +7
The on-duty DPO tells you that a steady wind has been hitting the rig from 45 degrees on the
starboard side for
about 8 hours and has slowly increased to 40 knots. You look at the charting barometer and notice it
has been
falling steadily and rapidly for 8 hours. The rig is riding OK but has some motion.
1. What effect would you expect on ASK power over the next hour?
A. It should keep going up.
B. No change
C. It should drop off.
A. Yes
B. No
3. If yes, which direction and how far would you turn?
A. 30 degrees to STBD.
B. 20 degrees to PORT
C. No change
4. If yes, how fast would you turn?
A. As fast as possible
B. 20 degrees a minute
C. No faster than 5 degrees a minute, slower if possible
5. If not, why not?
A. The wind looks like it is about to change to STBD.
B. Never change heading unless you have to.
C. The rig is doing fine. Changing heading could cause problems.
A. Look at the seas to verify there is no hidden swell that will cause roll. Let the driller and
subsea
supervisor know you are changing heading to improve rig motion. Let the engine room know
you
are changing heading and may need more power in the short term but power should drop off
after
the turn. Turn slowly to STBD, no more than 5 degrees at a time, checking DP parameters and
ride
between each change. After you find the best heading, tell the driller and engine room that you
are
done.
B. Watch the situation closely in case it gets worse. Inform the driller you have 40 knots of wind and
building
environment. Take no action until it gets worse.
C. Notify the driller that you are changing heading. Monitor thrusters and power and turn to port 40
degrees in
5 degree steps.
1. What would not cause a change in the heel/list of a vessel?
A. A large wind shift
B. Ballasting a forepeak tank
C. A swinging crane
D. Ballasting a wing tank
2. A copy of the updated Lightship Alteration Log should be forwarded to engineering to the attention
of the marine
and structural engineering group ______
A. at least annually.
B. should the total modifications to lightship particulars exceed 5 percent of the variable load as
shown in the
approved rig/vessel operating manual.
3. Addition of weight to a vessel will ALWAYS ______
A. reduce reserve buoyancy.
B. increase righting moments.
C. increase GM.
4. When determining free surface corrections, what has the largest effect?
A. Length of the tank
B. Location of the tank
C. Width of the tank
D. Ratio of the specific gravity of the liquid in the tank compared to the specific gravity of the water the
vessel
is floating in
5. Rigs with secondary deballast pumps should keep the tanks which the pumps serve ______
A. partially full.
B. empty.
C. slack.
D. full.
6. Intact buoyancy is the intact space ______ the surface of the flooded area or ______ the water line.
A. below/below
B. above/above
C. below/above
D. above/below
7. Reserve buoyancy is the volume of all intact space _____ the waterline of a floating vessel.
A. below
B. above
C. below or above
8. The amount of freeboard a vessel possesses is an indication of reserve buoyancy.
A. True
B. False
9. The calculation of the height of metacenter (KM) is ______
A. calculated on board.
B. calculated by a naval architect.
Stability and Ballast Control - Workbook Questions
10. Metacentric Height (GM) ______
A. is used as a measure of initial stability (stability at small angles of inclination).
B. as GM decreases, a vessels initial stability decreases.
11. A stiff vessel ______
A. is very stable and has a large GM.
B. is top heavy and has a small GM.
C. has a large KG.
D. has a long slow roll.
12. A tender vessel ______
A. is top heavy and has a small GM.
B. has a small KG.
C. has a short, fast roll.
13. The bigger the GM the bigger the righting arm.
A. True
B. False
14. As KG decreases ______
A. GM increases.
B. a longer righting arm(GZ) results with a greater righting moment (RM).
15. If you were at the Angle of Loll with no worry of deck edge immersion you would ______
A. pump out from the low side.
B. add weight symmetrically to lower tanks to lower the draft and KG.
C. both of the answers.
D. neither of the answers.
16. The difference between the starboard and port draft marks caused by shifting a weight
transversely is ______
A. list.
B. heel.
C. trim.
D. pitch.
17. The difference between the starboard and port draft marks due to wind or sea is called ______
A. list.
B. heel.
C. trim.
D. pitch.
18. If the cause of a sudden severe list or trim is negative initial stability, counter flooding into an
empty tank may
______
A. bring the unit to an upright GM.
B. cause the unit to flop to a greater angle.
C. cause in increase in the righting arm.
D. increase the righting moment.
19. The order of importance in addressing damage control on a MODU is ______
A. control flooding, control fire, repair structural damage.
B. restore vital services, control fire, control flooding.
C. control fire, restore vital services, control flooding.
D. control fire, control flooding, repair structural damage.
20. What may decrease the rolling if caught in a synchronous rolling situation?
A. Change of speed
B. Alter course
C. Lower G to change GM
21. The purpose of the inclining experiment is to determine ______
A. lightship weight and lightship center of gravity.
B. position of center of buoyancy.
C. position of metacenter.
D. the maximum load line.
22. The TPI / TPC curve, one of the hydrostatic curves in a vessels plans, gives the number of tons
______
A. necessary to change the angle of list 1 at a given draft.
B. necessary to change trim 1 inch at a given draft.
C. pressure per square inch on the vessels hull at a given draft.
D. necessary to further immerse the vessel 1 inch / 1 centimeter at a given draft.
23. Correcting a negative GM can be accomplished by ______
A. removing weights with a VCG higher than the vessels KG, symmetrically about the vessels
centerline.
B. shifting weights vertically downward, preferably from a VCG higher than the vessels KG to a VCG
lower
than the vessels KG, avoiding as much as possible a change in LCG or TCG.
C. adding weight low on the vessel symmetrically about the vessels centerline.
24. The hook load is considered part of the lightship value.
A. True
B. False
25. In general for damage control during a flooding situation, it is advisable to first ______
A. make a PA announcement telling everyone to stay at their work stations.
B. begin deballasting from the tank nearest the damaged area.
C. determine the extent of the damage and then take corrective measures.
D. tell the ballast control operator or engineers to isolate all valves on that side of the vessel.
26. In a flooding situation ______
A. a disadvantage to counter ballasting is that the draft of the vessel will increase in addition to an
increase of
draft from the flooding.
B. counter ballasting is faster than deballasting and can be accomplished by free flooding through
pumps.
27. If a tank is flooding you may be able to ______
A. ascertain this by air rushing from the vent.
B. slow the rate of flooding by sealing the vent to the tank.

28. The amount of freeboard which a ship possesses has a tremendous effect on its ______
A. initial stability.
B. free surface.
C. Permeability.
D. stability at large angles of inclination.
29. Which of the following must be available on board?
A. Allowable VCG against the draft curve
B. Capacity plan showing location and capacity of every tank and cargo space on the vessel
C. Hydrostatic tables for a full range of drafts
1. When a vessel is in DP mode it is usually considered restricted in her ability to maneuver. What
lights and day
shapes would be displayed to show this?
A. Three balls in a vertical line, and three red lights in a vertical line.
B. Two Diamonds in a vertical line, and two white lights in a vertical line.
C. A ball diamond and ball in a vertical line, and a red white and red light in a vertical line.
D. Three balls in a vertical line, and a white, red and white light in a vertical line
2. A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a(n) ______
A. routine message.
B. urgent message.
C. distress message.
D. safety message.
3. Which statement concerning GMDSS Radio Operator requirements is FALSE?
A. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed GMDSS Radio Operators at all times
while at
sea.
B. Each compulsory vessel must carry at least two licensed Radio Operators at all times while at sea
and
may elect to carry a GMDSS Radio Maintainer as well.
C. Communications involving safety of life at sea do not have to be logged as long as the
compulsory
vessel was not involved in such communications.
D. While at sea, adjustments to, and the maintaining of, GMDSS equipment may be performed by the
GMDSS radio operator as long as the work is supervised by an onboard licensed GMDSS radio
maintainer.
4. Where is the GMDSS Radio Logbook kept aboard ship?
A. Attached to the Deck Logbook
B. At the principal radio operating location
C. In the Chief Mates office
D. In the Masters office
5. Which frequencies and modes are allocated for distress alerting in GMDSS?
A. 406 MHz via EPIRB
B. 1626.5-1645.5 via INMARSAT
C. Channel 70 DSC plus six (6) MF/HF DSC frequencies
6. Which GMDSS control selection may result in limited receiving range?
A. Setting the squelch control to its minimum level
B. The power switch is set to the high output position resulting in receiver over loading.
C. Setting the squelch control to its maximum level
D. Setting the channel selection switch midway between channels 6 and 16
7. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate
assistance. You
would preface a message advising other vessels of your situation with ______
A. mayday-mayday-mayday.
B. pan-pan (3 times).
C. securite-securite-securite.
D. SOS-SOS-SOS.
8. Which of the following is not a distress Frequency?
A. 4125 kHz
B. 2182 kHz
C. 500 kHz
D. 156.8 KHz
Marine Communications - Workbook Questions

9. GMDSS is primarily a system based on ______
A. ship-to-ship distress communications using MF or HF radiotelephony.
B. VHF digital selective calling from ship to shore.
C. distress, urgency and safety communications carried out by the use of narrow-band direct printing
telegraphy.
D. the linking of search and rescue authorities ashore with shipping in the immediate vicinity
of a ship
in distress or in need of assistance.
Marine Communications - Workbook Questions
1. What could corrupt the DP network?
A. Swapping command consoles
B. Connecting offline console to network
C. Swapping command controllers
D. Changing wind sensors
2. Demodulators are used in many pieces of equipment in a control room. What is a demodulators
function?
A. To alter an electromagnetic wave to carry information
B. To measure the speed of an electromagnetic wave
C. To deciphers an electronic signal and allows it to be seen visually on a screen
D. To extract information from an electromagnetic signal
3. How does a network work?
A. Networks transmit data in a standard format along a communications path that is common
to many
devices. Dedicated software and hardware layers serve to make the data transfer transparent
to the
final devices, so that equipment from numerous manufacturers can exchange data reliably.
The
learning point here is layers. Layers are how Engineers conceptualize networks. There is a
copper layer - the wires that run between machines. Next there is an interface layer - the
board
that has the Ethernet jack. Then inside the machine there is a software layer to move data
from
the board to the processor. There are roughly 7 layers between two machines. The key point
is
any of these layers can fail, but not all of these layers will sound an alarm. If a dumb layer
fails
the smarter layer above or below it may not be able to tell.
B. Individual wires run from a central computer to dozens of remote devices, used to carry commands
to each
device as needed. This net of wires is used to get work done, hence the name network.
C. All electronic devices on the rig are connected by a multiple interconnect that represents a
fishermans net,
with cables running via multiple crossing paths between all machines so that numerous connections
have
to be broken to cause failure.
D. Networks are used to translate data into formats recognizable by different devices on the network.
4. What does the term collisions refer to on Ethernet networks?
A. Two or more devices transmitting at the same time, so that messages collide at the
receiver and
cannot be decoded. Collisions are normal, but too many collisions will stop the network.
B. Data from a device is routed to the wrong destination, so that it collides when it arrives.
C. A collision occurs when an Ethernet device attempts to transmit data at the same time.
5. What is a data timeout?
A. Data fails to arrive within the expected time frame. It is almost always caused by a collision
on an
Ethernet network, by an overloaded computer on proprietary networks.
B. Data is received OK, but not accessed and processed within the expected time frame
C. Data packets collide and have to be retransmitted because of errors
6. How does Ethernet handle collisions?
A. The devices immediately retransmit the lost data.
B. The devices resynchronize their clocks and then retransmit.
C. The devices wait a random time and then retransmit.
7. Does Ethernet allow a percentage of data loss, or does it make sure all data gets through securely?
A. Ethernet has a setting for allowable data loss, which is usually set to 5%.
B. Ethernet doesnt allow data loss.
C. Ethernet allows for different data loss for every application.

D. Ethernet doesnt know or care about data loss.
Computer and Diagnostic Skills - Workbook Questions
8. A network hub or switch may be used in a DP system ______
A. to actively monitor network traffic and determine the fastest of multiple available paths for a unit of
data to reach
its destination. One example is sending thruster data directly to the DP computers without incurring
time
delays by first passing though other remote units that arent involved with thruster control.
B. to detect computer failure and switch to the backup DP system without having to disconnect
cables. One
example is the device used to auto-switch between DP systems.
C. to combine data from several devices in an area onto one cable. (Hubs dumbly repeat
whatever comes
in to all other ports, including if data arrives at the same time the Hub will just repeat it.
Switches
alternate one port after the other, somewhat better because they prevent some collisions.
Routers can
identify which port is allowed to talk to which other port and act as traffic cops to route data
where it
needs to go and nowhere else.)
D. to separate subsections of a network in order that data can be shared but maintain separation of
unrelated
devices. One example is allowing the DP system to receive data from drilling, power, or BOP
networks but not
allowing any unwanted data transfer from these outside systems that might crash DP.
9. A router may be used in a DP system ______
A. to actively monitor network traffic and determine the fastest of multiple available paths for a unit of
data to reach
its destination. One example is sending thruster data directly to the DP computers without incurring
time
delays by first passing though other remote units that arent involved with thruster control.
B. to detect computer failure and switch to the backup DP system without having to disconnect
cables. One
example is the device used to auto-switch between DP systems.
C. to store data from several devices on a network for delivery late at night by satellite.
D. to separate subsections of a network in order that data can be shared but maintain
separation of
unrelated devices. One example is allowing the DP system to receive data from drilling, power,
or BOP
networks but not allowing any unwanted data transfer from these outside systems that might
crash DP.
10. TCP/IP is the protocol used on the internet and most DP networks. Which statement best
describes TCP/IP?
A. TCP or Transmission Control Protocol is the unique address used to identify devices on a
network. TCP
numbers are issued by a central authority so that manufacturers world wide each have unique
numbers on their
devices. IP or Internet Protocol is the error-correcting data transfer method used by the internet to
move data
between devices. TCP/IP refers to the result of both protocols.
B. TCP or Time Control Protocol assures that data arrives at the destination at the expected time. IP
or Internet
Protocol performs error checking functions and reassembles data that has arrived. TCP/IP refers to
the result
of both protocols.
C. TCP or Transmission Control Priority is used to direct data along the network. Essentially, TCP
acts like a
mail delivery system. TCP makes sure the data goes the right direction but doesnt make sure that
data arrives.
IP or Inspection Priority makes sure that data is reassembled in the correct order. TCP/IP refers to
the result
of both protocols used to transfer data and reassemble it. Because hardware is so much faster than
software,
TCP/IP intentionally ignores error checking. Error checking is a performed by the network devices
themselves
and has nothing to do with TCP/IP.

D. TCP or Transmission Control Protocol is responsible for verifying the correct delivery of
data from
client to server. Data can be lost in the intermediate network. TCP adds support to detect
errors or lost
data and to trigger retransmission until the data is correctly and completely received. IP is
responsible
for moving packet of data from node to node. IP forwards each packet based on a four byte
destination
address (the IP number). IP doesnt make sure that the data arrives. TCP/IP refers to the result
of both
protocols.
11. One DP computer has a sticker on it that says 207.123.123.001. The second computer has a
sticker that
says 207.123.123.002. The remote I/O has a sticker that says 207.123.123.003. What are these
numbers
and why are they important?
A. These are factory part numbers and must be included when ordering spare or replacement parts,
or if
installing an onboard spare. The replacement part must have the same sticker.
B. These are the IP or network addresses of the network interface circuit boards. (If a device is
replaced it will have a different address. All the other devices on the network will need to be
updated to know the address of the new device, or the new device set to the address of the old
device.)
C. These are IP security codes. If a replacement is installed its decoder must be programmed with
this
number to decode network protocols.
12. What does a computer operating system (OS) do?
A. The computer operating system operates the DP system.
B. The computer operating system acts as the interface between the computer program(s) and
machinery hardware.
C. The computer operating system defines the screen graphics used to operate the computer.
13. Which is the best description of remote Input / Output (I/O)?
A. The DP system sending commands down long pairs of wires, one pair of wires per device. The
ports that
send signals to remote devices are called Remote I/O.
B. Remote I/O refers to data ports built into individual pieces of remote equipment. (Remote
I/O is
used to reduce the capital cost of the DP system, but it provides opportunities for loss of a
large
number of equipment with a single failure, so it requires careful design. Remote I/O allows a
manufacturer to put in one set of electronics that monitors everything in an area, and then
sends the
information on a network to the main DP computer. The learning point is that the DPO should
understand how remote I/O works and keep a map of the data blocks handy so that if a failure
occurs he/she will know what is lost. For example, one brick may carry signals from two
thrusters, or one thruster and a generator, or wind and gyro. The DPO should keep a map of
the
system handy for reference. Weak power supplies more often cause intermittent alarms than
absolute loss of equipment. DPOs need to watch for spurious alarms and look at other items
on the
same I/O block.)
C. A main controller sends identical commands to a number of remote controllers. The remote
controllers
identify what to do by the address of the network packet.
D. all of the above
14. RS232 serial communications using twisted shielded pair wires ______
A. can transfer data between up to 10 devices a kilometer apart.
B. is the most error-free method known to transfer data.
C. is error-prone and no longer used to transfer data.
D. is only rated to link devices over short distances, typically less than 30 meters.
E. is interchangeable with RS422.
15. RS422 serial communications using twisted shielded pair wires ______
A. can transfer data between up to 10 devices a kilometer apart.
B. is the most error-free method known to transfer data.
C. is error-prone and no longer used to transfer data.

D. can only link two devices over short distances, typically less than 30 meters.
E. is interchangeable with RS232.
16. RS422 and RS232 serial communications ______
A. are incompatible but close enough that short term operation may be possible. (RS232 uses
3 wires
to operate a single device a short distance away. RS422 was designed as an upgrade to
RS232, it
uses 4 wires to operate up to 10 devices over a kilometer. The two protocols are similar
enough
that you can usually get them to talk to each other by MISWIRING one or the other. The
problem
is the electronics may talk but the designs are incompatible, the RS232 design uses
plus\minus
12V, RS422 uses 5V, over time the RS232 can damage or destroy the RS422. A system that
works
fine at installation may quit after a year or five. Both Nautronics and Kongsberg have been
known
to do this. The learning point is if you have a new DGPS or anything else installed that uses a
serial
port, make sure they have the same protocol at each end of the wire or you may have a
successful
install but it quits working 5 years later and the ET wont find anything wrong with the
connectors
or wiring.)
B. can be interconnected with no problems as long as there are no more than two devices on the
circuit
C. are two names for the same serial protocol.
17. Fiber or copper networks are used in DP to interconnect computers and sensors. What is a
network?
A. Computers in different locations that need to transfer data
B. A system of distributed devices controlled by a central computer
C. A common set of rules for computers to use for sharing data
D. A set of devices interconnected by a communication path
Transocean 2005
Issue Date: 01 January 2005

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Dynamic Positioning

Task List Evaluation Guide

1. Describe the OJT system and how it works.

Reference Equipment manuals.

Dynamic Positioning Operator Task List Evaluation Guide

Workbook Questions and Answers

Workbook Questions and Answers

Dynamic Positioning OJT Module

Dynamic Positioning OJT Module

B. 360,000 pounds (30* 12,000)

Dynamic Positioning OJT Module

A. Propulsion and cargo handling equipment

B. The positioning accuracy is dependent on the number of position reference systems.

D. IMO only sets guidelines for DP class

100. Turning the Gain control UP on the radar will ______

A. moved outside the green watch circle.

4. Transoceans general philosophy is to configure DGPS reference systems as differently as possible

13. What can cause the loss or degrading of acoustic signals?

B. a system that uses 3 or more transponders.

B. in x/y/z offsets for Cartesian coordinates.

C. both of the answers

which will effect the actual capability are ______

17. Loss of position due to a lack of power or propulsion is called what?

B. Split buss with multiple skids per buss

C. Cold fronts and warm fronts move with equal speed.

C. always running at full RPMs / thrust demands.

You are working in DP with the following situation:

You walk into DP and notice the following situation:

You are working in DP with the following situation:

Dynamic Positioning OJT Module

You walk into DP and notice the following situation.

Page: 4.68 Rev. 02: January 2005

Page: 4.70 Rev. 02: January 2005

C. Ethernet allows for different data loss for every application.

and has nothing to do with TCP/IP.

C. is error-prone and no longer used to transfer data.

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