Sunteți pe pagina 1din 40

1

ABOUT DISHA PUBLICATION


One of the leading publishers in India, Disha Publication provides books and study materials for
schools and various competitive exams being continuously held across the country. Disha's sole
purpose is to encourage a student to get the best out of preparation. Disha Publication offers an
online bookstore to help students buy exam books online with ease. We, at Disha provide a wide
array of Bank / Engg./ Medical & Other Competitive Exam books to help all those aspirants who
wish to crack their respective different levels of Bank / Engg./ Medical & Other Competitive
exams. At Disha Publication, we strive to bring out the best guidebooks that students would find
to be the most useful for all kind of competitive exam.

NDA SOLVED PAPER 2015


7.

MATHEMATICS
1.

Let q be a positive angle. If the number of degrees in q is


divided by the number of radians in q , then an irrational
180
results. If the number of degrees in q is
p
multiplied by the number of radians in q , then an irrational

number

125p
results. The angle q must be equal to
9
30
(b) 45
50
(d) 60

8.

number
(a)
(c)
2.

In a triangle ABC, a = (1 + 3) cm, b = 2 cm and angle


C = 60. Then the other two angles are
(a) 45 and 75
(b) 30 and 90
(c) 105 and 15
(d) 100 and 20

DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follow.


Let a be the root of the equation 25cos2 q + 5cos q 12 = 0,
p
where < a < p.
2
3. What is tan a equal to?
(a)

-3
4

-4
3
What is sin 2 a equal to?

(c)

4.

(a)

24
25

(b)

3
4

(d)

-4
5

(b)

The angles of elevation of the top of a tower standing on a


horizontal plane from two points on a line passing through
the foot of the tower at distances 49 m and 36 m are 43 and
47 respectively. What is the height of the tower?
(a) 40 m
(b) 42 m
(c) 45 m
(d) 47 m
(1 sinA + cos A)2 is equal to
(a) 2 (1 cosA) (1 + sin A)
(b) 2 (1 sin A) (1 + cos A)
(c) 2 (1 cos A) (1 sin A)
(d) None of the above

cos q
sin q
+
equal to?
1 - tan q 1 - cot q
(a) sin q cos q
(b) sin q + cos q
(c) 2 sin q
(d) 2 cos q
DIRECTIONS : For the next three (3) items that follow.
-1 1
-1 1
-1 1
Consider x = 4 tan , y = tan and z = tan .
5
70


99
10. What is x equal to?

9.

What is

(a)

60
tan -1

119

90
tan -1

169
11. What is x y equal to?
(c)

(a)

-24
25

828
tan -1

845

-1 120
(b) tan

119
-1 170
(d) tan

169
-1 8287
(b) tan

8450

8281
-1 8287
tan -1
(d) tan

8450

8471
12. What is x y + z equal to?
p
p
(a)
(b)
3
2
p
p
(c)
(d)
6
4
DIRECTIONS: For the next three (3) items that follow.
Consider the triangle ABC with vertices A (2, 3), B (2, 1) and C
(1, 2).
13. What is the circumcentre of the triangle ABC ?
(a) (2, 2)
(b) (2, 2)
(c) (2, 2)
(d) (2, 2)
(c)

5.

- 21
-5
(d)
25
12
The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point 20
m away from its base is 45. What is the height of the tower?
(a) 10 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 30 m
(d) 40 m

6.

The equation tan1(1 + x) + tan1 (1 x) =

(c)

(a)

x=1

(b) x = 1

(c)

x= 0

(d) x =

1
2

p
is satisfied by
2

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

2
14. What is the centroid of the tirnalge ABC ?
(a)

1
,1
3

1
(b) , 2
3

2
1
(d) ,3
1,
3
2
15. What is the foot of the altitude from the vertex A of the
triangle ABC?
(a) (1, 4)
(b) (1, 3)
(c) (2, 4)
(d) (1, 4)
16. Let X be the set of all persons living in a city. Persons x, y in
X are said to be related as x < y if y is at least 5 years older
than x. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) The relation is an equivalence relation on X
(b) The relation is transitive but neither reflexive nor
symmetric
(c) The relation is reflexive but neither transitive nor
symmetric
(d) The relation is symmetric but neither transitive nor
reflexive
17. Which one of the following matrices is an elementary matrix?
(c)

(a)

1 0 0
0 0 0

0 0 1

1 5 0
0 1 0

(b)
0 0 1

0 2 0
1 0 0
1 0 0
0 1 0

(c)
(d)
0 0 1
0 5 2
18. Consider the following statements in respect of the given
equation :
(x2 + 2)2 + 8x2 = 6x (x2 + 2)
1. All the roots of the equation are complex.
2. The sum of all the roots of the equation is 6.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
19. In solving a problem that reduces to a quadratic equation,
one student makes a mistake in the constant term and obtains
8 and 2 for roots. Another student makes a mistake only in
the coefficient of first-degree term and finds 9 and 1 for
roots. The correct equation is
(a) x2 10x + 9 = 0
(b) x2 10x + 9 = 0
(c) x2 10x + 16 = 0
(d) x2 8x 9 = 0
2 7
20. If A =
then that is A + 3A1 equal to?
1 5
(a) 3I
(b) 5I
(c) 7I
(d) None of these
where I is the identity matrix order 2.
21. In a class of 60 students, 45 students like music, 50 students
like dancing, 5 students like neither. Then the number of
students in the class who like both music and dancing is
(a) 35
(b) 40
(c) 50
(d) 55
22. If log10 2, log10 (2x 1) and log10(2x + 3) are three consecutive
terms of an A.P, then the value of x is

(a)
(c)

1
log2 5

(b) log5 2
(d) log10 5

-4 + i
0
23. The matrix 4
is
0
+i
(a) symmetric
(b) skew-symmetric
(c) Hermitian
(d) skew-Hermitian
24. Let Z be the set of integers and aRb, where a, b Z if and
only if (a b) is divisible by 5.
Consider the following statements:
1. The relation R partitions Z into five equivalent classes.
2. Any two equivalent classes are either equal or disjoint.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. If

z =

-2 (1 + 2i )
3+ i

where

i =

-1, then argument

q ( -p < q p ) of z is
(a)

3p
4

(b)

p
4

5p
3p
(d) 6
4
26. If m and n are the roots of the equation (x + p) (x + q) k = 0,
then the roots of the equation (x m) (x n) + k = 0 are

(c)

1
1
and
p
q
(c) p and q
(d) p + q and p q
27. What is the sum of the series 0.5 + 0.55 + 0.555 + ... to n
terms?

(a)

P and q

(b)

(a)

5
2
1
n - 1 - n
9
9 10

1 2
1
(b) 9 5 - 9 1 - n
10

(c)

1
5
1
n - 1 - n
9
9 10

5
1
1
(d) 9 n - 9 1 - n
10

28. If 1, w , w2 are the cube roots of unity, then the value


of (1 + w)(1 + w2 )(1 + w4 )(1 + w8 ) is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
29. Let A = {1, 2 , 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}. Then the number of
subsets of A containing exactly two elements is
(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 45
(d) 90
30. What is the square root of i, where i = - 1?
(a)

1+ i
2

(b)

1+ i
(d)
2
31. The point on the parabola y2 = 4ax
its abscissa
(a) x = 0
(b)
a
(c) x =
(d)
2
(c)

1-i
2

None of these
nearest to the focus has
x=a
x = 2a

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

3
32. A line passes through (2, 2) and is perpendicular to the line
3x + y = 3. Its y-intercept is
(a)

3
4

4
(b)
3

(c)

1
3

(d) 3

33. The hyperbola

x2
a

y2
b2

= 1 passes through the point

(3 5,1) and the length of its latus rectum is

4
units. The
3

length of the conjugate axis is


(a) 2 units
(b) 3 units
(c) 4 units
(d) 5 units
34. The Perpendicular distance between the straight lines
6x + 8y + 15 = 0 and 3x + 4y + 9 = 0 is
3
3
unit
units
(a)
(b)
10
2
2
3
unit
unit
(c)
(d)
7
4
35. The area of a triangle, whose vertices are (3, 4), (5, 2) and the
point of intersection of the lines x = a and y = 5, is 3 square
units. What is the value of a?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
36. The length of perpendicular from the origin to a line is 5
units and the line makes an angle 120 with the positive
direction of x-axis.The equation of the line is
(a)

x + 3y = 5

(b)

3x + y = 10

(c)
(d) None of these
3x - y = 10
37. The equation of the line joining the origin to the point of
x y
x y
interesection of the lines + = 1 and + = 1 is
a b
b a
(a) x y = 0
(b) x + y = 0
(c) x = 0
(d) y = 0
DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follow.
The projections of a directed line segment on the coordinate axes
are 12, 4, 3 respectively.
38. What is the length of the line segment?
(a) 19 units
(b) 17 units
(c) 15 units
(d) 13 units
39. What are the direction cosines of the line segment?

(a)

12 4 3
, ,
13 13 13

(b)

12 4 3
,- ,
13 13 13

12 4
3
12 4 3
,- ,(d) - , - ,
13 13 13
13 13 13
DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follow.
From the point P(3, 1, 11), a perpendicular is drawn on the line
x y -2 z -3
=
=
. Let Q be the foot of
L given by the equation
2
3
4
the perpendicular.
40. What are the direction ratios of the line segment PQ?
(c)

(a)

1, 6, 4

(b)

-1, 6, -4

(c)

-1, -6, 4

(d)

2, -6, 4

41. What is the length of the line segment PQ?


(a)

(b) 7 units

47 units

(c)
(d) 8units
53 units
DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follow.
A triangular plane ABC with centroid (1, 2, 3) cuts the coordinate
axes at A, B, C respectively.
42. What are the intercepts made by the plane ABC on the axes?
(a) 3, 6, 9
(b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 1, 4, 9
(d) 2, 4, 6
43. What is the equation of plane ABC?
(a) x + 2y + 3z = 1
(b) 3x + 2y + z = 3
(c) 2x + 3y + 6z = 18
(d) 6x + 3y + 2z = 18
DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follow.
A point P (1, 2, 3) is one vertex of a cuboid formed by the coordinate
planes and the planes passing through P and parallel to the
coordinate planes.
44. What is the length of one of the diagonals of the cuboid?
(a)
(b) 14 units
10 units
(c) 4 units
(d) 5 units
45. What is the equation of the plane passing through P(1, 2, 3)
and parallel to xyplane?
(a) x + y = 3
(b) x y = 1
(c) z = 3
(d) x + 2y + 3z = 14
46. The decimal number (127. 25)10, when converted to binary
nunber, takes the form
(a) (1111111.11)2
(b) (1111110.01)2
(c) (1110111.11)2
(d) (1111111.01)2
47. Consider the following in respect of two non-singular
matrices A and B of same order:
1. det (A + B) = det A + det B
2. (A + B)1 = A1 + B 1
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3 - 4
5 2
p q
X =
,B =
A =
and

satisfy
1 -1
-2 1
r s
the equation AX = B, then the matrix A is equal to

48. If

(a)

-7 26
1 -5

7 26
(b) 4 17

(c)

-7 -4
26 13

-7 26
(d)

-6 23

49. What is

n+ rCn

r =0

equal to?

(a) n + 2C1
(b) n + 2Cn
(c) n + 3Cn
(d) n + 2Cn + 1
50. How many words can be formed using all the letters of the
word NATION so that all the three vowels should never
come together?
(a) 354
(b) 348
(c) 288
(d) None of these
51. (x3 1) can be factorised as
(a) (x 1) (x w ) (x + w2 )
(b) (x 1) (x w ) (x w2 )
(c) (x 1) (x + w ) (x + w2 )
(d) (x 1) (x + w ) (x w2 )
where w is one of the cube roots of unity..

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

4
DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follow.

52. What is

p
p
sin 6 + i 1 - cos 6

sin p - i 1 - cos p

6
6

where i = -1, equal to?


(a) 1
(c) i
53. Let

(b) 1
(d) i

y
x + y
2
3
A=
, B = -1 and C = 2
x
x
y
2



If AB = C, then what is A2 equal to?

(a)

6 -10
4 26

-10 5
(b)

4 24

-5 -6
-4 -20

54. The value of

(c)

1 1+ x
1

-5 -7
(d)

-5 20

1
1+ y

is

(a) x + y
(b) x y
(c) xy
(d) 1 + x + y
55. If A = {x : x is a multiple of 3} and
B = {x : x is a multiple of 4} and
C = {x : x is a multiple of 12}, then which one of the following
is a null set?
(a) ( A / B) C
(b) ( A / B) / C
(c) ( A B) C
(d) ( A B) / C
56. If (11101011)2 is converted decimal system, then the
resulting number is
(a) 235
(b) 175
(c) 160
(d) 126
57. What is the real part of (sin x + i cos x)3 where i = -1?
(a) cos 3x
(b) sin 3x
(c) sin 3x
(d) cos 3x
cos q sin q
58. If E ( q ) =
, then E (a) E (b) is equal to
- sin q cos q

(a)

E (ab)

(b) E (a - b)

(c) E (a + b)
(d) - E (a + b)
59. Let A = {x, y, z}and B = {p, q, r, s}. What is the number of
distinct relations from B to A?
(a) 4096
(b) 4094
(c) 128
(d) 126
60. If 2p + 3q = 18 and 4p2 + 4pq 3q2 36 = 0, then what is
(2p + q) equal to?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 10
(d) 20

d 1 + x2 + x4

= Ax + B.
Given that
dx 1 + x + x 2
61. What is the value of A?
(a) 1
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
62. What is the value of B?
(a) 1
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follow.
2 + x2

- Ax - B = 3.
Given that lim
x 1 + x

63. What is the value of A?


(a) 1
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
64. What is the value of B?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 3
65. What is the solution of the differential equation
ydx - xdy

= 0?
y2
(a) xy = c
(b) y = cx
(c) x + y = c
(d) x y = c
where c is an arbitrary constant.
66. What is the solution of the differential equation
dy
sin - a = 0?
dx
(a) y = x sin1 a + c
(b) x = y sin1 a + c
(c) y = x + x sin1 a + c
(d) y = sin1 a + c
where c is an arbitrary constant.
67. What is the solution of the differential equation

dx x
+ - y 2 = 0?
dy y
(a) xy = x4 + c
(b) xy = y4 + c
4
(c) 4xy = y + c
(d) 3xy = y3 + c
where c is an arbitrary constant.

68. What is
(a)

xe x dx

( x + 1)2 equal to?

(x + 1)2 ex + c

(b) (x + 1)ex + c

ex
ex
+c
+c
(c)
(d)
( x + 1)2
x +1
where c is the constant integration.
69. The adjacent sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC are
represented by the vectors -2$i + 3 $j + 2k$ and -4$i + 5 $j + 2k$

respectively. The area of the triangle ABC is


(a) 6 square units
(b) 5 square units
(c) 4 square units
(d) 3 square units
ur
$
$
$
70. A force F = 3i + 4 j - 3k is applied at the point P, whose
r
position vector is r = 2i - 2 $j - 3k$ . What is the magnitude
of the moment of the force about the origin?
(a) 23 units
(b) 19 units
(c) 18 units
(d) 21 units

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

r
ur
71. Given that the vectors a and b are non-collinear. The values
r r ur
of x and y for which u - v = w holds t rue if
r
ur
r r
ur
r
ur
ur r
u = 2 xa + yb, v = 2 ya + 3xb and w = 2a - 5b, are
(a) x = 2, y = 1
(b) x = 1, y = 2
(c) x = 2, y = 1
(d) x = 2, y = 1
r
r
r r
r r
72. If | a | = 7, | b | = 11 and | a + b |= 10 3, then | a - b | is equal
to
(a) 40
(b) 10
(c) 4 10
(d) 2 10
73. Let a, b, g be distinct real numbers. The points with position
vectors a$i + b $j + g k$ , b$i + g $j + a k$ and g$i + a $j + bk$
(a) are collinear
(b) form an equilateral triangle
(c) form a scalene triangle
(d) form a right-angled triangle
r r r r
74. If a + b + c = 0, then which of the following is/are correct?
r r r
1.
a, b, c are coplanar..
r r r r r r
2.
ab = bc = ca
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
r r r r
75. If | a + b |=| a - b |, then which one of the following is correct?
r
r
(a) a = lb for some scalar l
r
r
(b) a is parallel to b
r
r
(c) a is perpendicular to b
r r r
(d) a = b = 0
G ( x ) - G (1)
equal to?
x -1
x 1

76. If G ( x ) = 25 - x 2 , then what is lim


(a)

1
2 6
1

(c)

1.

y=

(b)

(d)
6
77. Consider the following statements:

1
5

1
6

e x + e- x
is an increasing function on [ 0, ) .
2

e x - e- x
is an increasing function on ( -, ) .
2
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2.

y=

x
. The range
78. For each non-zero real number x, let f ( x ) =
|x|
of f is
(a) a null set
(b) a set consisting of only one element

(c) a set consisting of two elements


(d) a set consisting of infinitely many elements
79. Consider the following statements:
1. f (x) = [x], where [.] is the greatest integer function, is
discontinuous at x = n, where n Z .
2. f (x) = cot x is discontinuous at x = np , where n Z .
which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 or 2
1 + x2 - 1
with respect
80. What is the derivative of tan -1
x

to tan1 x?

(a)

(c)

1
2
(d) x

(b)

3
1 + x ( ) 3x + x
and g o f (t) =g(f(t)),
81. If f ( x ) = log e
, g x =
1- x
1 + 3x 2

e -1
then what is g o f
equal to?
e +1
(a) 2
(b) 1

1
2
DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follow.
Given a function

(c)

(d)

If
-1

(
)
f x = ax + b If
1
If

x0
0 < x <1
x 1

where a, b are constants. The function is continuous everywhere.


82. What is the value of a?
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
83. What is the value of b?
(a) 1
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 2
84. Consider the following functions:
1. f(x) = x3, x
2. f(x) = sin x, 0 < x < 2p
3. f(x) = ex, x
Which of the above functions have inverse defined on their
ranges?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follow.
The integral

dx

a cos x + b sin x

is of the form

1 x + a
In tan
.
r 2

85. What is r equal to?


(a)

a2 + b2

(b)

a 2 + b2

(c)

a+b

(d)

a2 - b2

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

6
86. What is a equal to?
(a)

2.

a
tan -1
b

-1 b
(b) tan
a

a +b
-1 a - b
tan -1

(d) tan

a
b

a +b
DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follow.

(c)

Consider the function f ( x) =

x2 - 1

, where x
x2 + 1
87. At what value of x does f(x) attain minimum value?
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
88. What is the minimum value of f(x)?

1
2
(c) 1
(d) 2
DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follow.
Consider the function

(a)

(b)

a cos x
p - 2 x
f ( x) =
3

If
If

p
2
p
x=
2

p
, where a is a constant.
2

(b) 3
(d) 1

f (x ) equal to?
90. What is xlim
0

92.

93.

94.

(b) 3

3
6
(d)
p
p
The mean and the variance 10 observations are given to be
4 and 2 respectively. If every observation is multiplied by 2,
the mean and the variance of the new series will be
respectively
(a) 8 and 20
(b) 8 and 4
(c) 8 and 8
(d) 80 and 40
Which one of the following measures of central tendency is
used in construction of index numbers?
(a) Harmonic mean
(b) Geometric mean
(c) Median
(d) Mode
The correlation coefficient between two variables X and Y is
found to be 0 6. All the observations on X and Y are
transformed using the transformations U = 2 3X and V = 4
Y + 1. The correlation coefficient between the transformed
variables U and V will be
(a) -0 5
(b) +0 5
(c) -0 6
(d) +0 6
Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect
of regression coefficients?
1. It measures the degree of linear relationship between
two variables.

(c)

91.

1
2

(b)

1
3

1
2
(d)
6
3
97. Two similar boxes Bi (i = 1, 2) contain (i + 1) red and (5 i 1)
black balls. One box is chosen at random and two balls are
drawn randomly. What is the probability that both the balls
are of different colours?

(c)

89. What is the value of a ?


(a) 6
(c) 2
(a)

1
1
and
3
2
respectively. What is the probability that exactly one of
them hits the target?

96. Two men hit at a target with probabilities

(a)

Which is continuous at x =

It gives the value by which one variable changes for a


unit change in the other variable.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. A set of annual numerical data, comparable over the years,
is given for the last 12 years.
1. The data is best represented by a broken line graph,
each corner (turning point) representing the data of
one year.
2. Such a graph depicts the chronological change and
also enables one to make a short-term forecast.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a)

1
2

(b)

3
10

2
3
(d)
5
5
98. In an examination, the probability of a candidate solving a

(c)

1
. Out of given 5 questions in the examination,
2
what is the probability that the candidate was able to solve
at least 2 questions?

question is

(a)

1
64

(b)

3
16

13
1
(d)
16
2
99. If A B , then which one of the following is not correct?

(c)

(a)

P (A B ) = 0

(b)

P (A | B ) =

(c)

P (B | A ) =

(d)

P (A | (A B )) =

P (A )

P (B )
P (B )
P (A )

P (A )

P (B )

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

7
100. The mean and the variance in a binomial distribution are
found to be 2 and 1 respectively. The probability P(X = 0) is
(a)

1
2

(b)

1
4

1
1
(d)
8
16
101. The mean of five numbers is 30. If one number is excluded,
their mean becomes 28. The excluded number is
(a) 28
(b) 30
(c) 35
(d) 38

(c)

3
102. If A and B are two events such that P (A B ) = ,
4
2
1
P (A B ) = and P ( A ) = , then what is P(B) equal to?
3
4

(a)

1
3

(b)

2
3

1
2
(d)
8
9
103. The less than ogive curve and the more than ogive curve
intersect at
(a) median
(b) mode
(c) arithmetic mean
(d) None of these
104. In throwing of two dice, the number of exhaustive events
that 5 will never appear on any one of the dice is
(a) 5
(b) 18
(c) 25
(d) 36
105. Two cards are drawn successively without replacement from
a wellshuffled pack of 52 cards. The probability of drawing
two aces is

(c)

(a)

1
26

(b)

1
221

4
1
(d)
223
13
DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follows.

(c)

Consider the line x = 3 y and the circle x2 + y2 = 4.


106. What is the area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed
by the x-axis, the line x = 3 and the circle?
(a)

p
3
3 2

(b)

p
3
2 2

p 1
(d) None of these
3 2
107. What is the area of the region in the first quadrant enclosed

DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follow.


Consider the curves y = sin x and y = cos x.
108. What is the area of the region bounded by the above two
curves and the lines x = 0 and x =
(a)

x=

(a)
(c)

p
3
3 2

(b)

(d) None of these

2 +1

p
p
and x = ?
4
2

(a)

(b)

2 1

2 +1

(c)

(d) 2
2 2
DIRECTIONS: For the next two (2) items that follow.
Consider the function
f ( x ) = 0 75x 4 - x 3 - 9x 2 + 7

110. What is the maximum value of the function?


(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 7
(d) 9
111. Consider the following statements:
1. The function attains local minima at x = 2 and x = 3.
2. The function increases in the interval (2, 0).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
DIRECTIONS: For the next three (3) items that follow.
Consider the parametric equation
x =

a 1 -t 2
2

),y =

2at

1+ t
1+t 2
112. What does the equation represent?
(a) It represents a circle of diameter a
(b) It represents a circle of radius a
(c) It represents a parabola
(d) None of the above

113. What is

dy
equal to?
dx

(a)

y
x

(b) -

(c)

x
y

x
(d) - y

114. What is

by the x-axis, the line x = 3 y and the circle?


p
6

(b)

(c)
(d) 2
2
109. What is the area of the region bounded by the above two
curves and the lines

(c)

p
3

2 - 1`

p
?
4

(a)

(c)

d 2y
dx 2

a2
y2
-

a2
x2

y
x

equal to?

(b)

a2
x2

(d) -

a2
y3

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

8
1.

115. Consider the following statements:


1.

dy
= f (x ) + x is of the form y
dx
= g (x) + c, where c is an arbitrary constant.

The general solution of

dy
The degree of = f (x ) is 2.
dx
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

2.

116. What is

dx
x 2 + a2

equal to?
x - x2 + a2
+c
a

(a)

ln

x+ x 2 + a 2
+c
a

(b) ln

(c)

ln

x2 + x2 + a2
+c
a

(d) None of these

where c is the constant of integration.


DIRECTIONS: For the next four (4) items that follow.
Consider the integral I m =

p sin 2 mx

sin x

dx , where m is a positive

integer.
117. What is I1 equal to?
(a)

1
2
(d) 2

(b)

(c) 1
118. What is I2 + I3 equal to?
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0
119. What is Im equal to?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) m
(d) 2m
120. Consider the following:
1. Im Im1 is equal to 0.
2. I2m > Im
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

GENERAL ABILITY
PART- A : ENGLISH
Spotting Errors
DIRECTIONS: In this section, a number of sentences are given.
The sentences are underlined in three parts and each one is
labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether
there is error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than
one error. When you find an error in one of the underlined parts
(a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at
appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a
sentence. In that case letter (d) signify a 'No error' response.

Unless you stop to make noise at once, I will have no option but to
(a)
(b)
bring the matter to the attention of the police. No error.
(c)
(d)
2.
He couldn't but help
(a)
shed tears at the plight of the villagers
(b)
rendered homeless by a devastating cyclone. No error.
(c)
(d)
3.
Since it was his first election campaign, the candidate was
(a)
confused; none could clearly understand
either the
(b)
principles he stood for or the benefits the promise . No error.
(c)
(d)
4.
It is an established fact that the transcendental American
poets and philosophers,
(a)
who lived in the latter half of the nineteenth century,
(b)
were more influenced by Indian philosophy, in particular by
Upanishadic Philosophy. No error.
(c)
(d)
5.
No sooner did I open the door
(a)
when the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in
(b)
making us shiver from head to foot. No error.
(c)
(d)
6.
After opening the door we entered into the room
(a)
(b)
next to the kitchen. No error.
(c)
(d)
7.
When the dentist came in my tooth was stopped aching
(a)
(b)
out of fear that I might lose my tooth. No error.
(c)
(d)
8.
Emphasis on equality of life ensures for the health and
(a)
(b)
happiness of every individual. No error.
(c)
(d)
9.
The students were awaiting for the arrival of the chief
(a)
(b)
(c)
guest. No error.
(d)
10. You will come to my party tomorrow, isn't it? No error.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
11. Having read a number of stories about space travel
(a)
(b)
his dream now is about to visit the moon. No error.
(c)
(d)
12. The meeting adjourned abruptly by the Chairman after
(a)
(b)
about three hours of deliberation. No error.
(c)
(d)
13. Not one of the hundreds of striking workers were allowed
(a)
(b)
to go near the factory. No error.
(c)
(d)

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

9
14. If I had known this earlier I will have helped him. No error.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
15. Mr. Smith was accused for murder but the court found him
(a)
(b)
not guilty and acquitted him. No error.
(c)
(d)
DIRECTIONS: Look at the underlined part of each sentence.
Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for
the underlined part. It one of them, (a), (b) or (c), is better than
the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet
against the corresponding letter (a), (b) or (c). If none of the
substitutions improve the sentence, indicate (d) as your response
on the Answer Sheet. Thus a 'No improvement' response will be
signified by the letter (d).
16. Although India is still by far a poor country, it can become
rich if its natural and human resources are fully utilised.
(a) few and far between
(b) by and large
(c) by and by
(d) No improvement
17. The more they earn, more they spend.
(a) More they earn, more they spend
(b) More they earn, the more they spend
(c) The more they earn, the more they spend
(d) No improvement
18. But in all these cases conversion from one scale to another
is easy because scales have well-formulated.
(a) can be well-formulated (b) are well-formulated
(c) well-formulated
(d) No improvement
19. Five years ago on this date, I am sitting in a small Japanese
car, driving across Poland towards Berlin.
(a) was sitting
(b) sat
(c) have been sitting
(d) No improvement
20. The old man felled some trees in the garden with hardly no
effort at all.
(a) hard effort
(b) hardly any effort
(c) a hardly any effort
(d) No improvement
21. She says she's already paid me back, but I can't remember,
so I'll have to take her word.
(a) to take her word true
(b) to take her at her word
(c) to take her word for it (d) No improvement
22. The workers are hell bent at getting what is due to them.
(a) hell bent on getting
(b) hell bent for getting
(c) hell bent to getting
(d) No improvement
23. You are warned against committing the same mistake again.
(a) to commit
(b) for committing
(c) against to commit
(d) No improvement
24. While we would like that all Indian children to go to school,
we need to ponder why they do not.
(a) that all the Indian children
(b) if all the children of India
(c) all Indian children
(d) No improvement
25. Due to these reasons we are all in favour of universal
compulsory education.
(a) Out of these reasons
(b) For these reasons
(c) By these reasons
(d) No improvement
26. When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain
their freedom from serfdom, the Protestant leaders joined
the princes at crushing them.
(a) into crushing
(b) in crushing
(c) without crushing
(d) No improvement

27. In India, today many of our intellectuals still talk in terms of


the French revolution and the Rights of Man, not
appreciating that much has happened since them.
(a) much has been happening
(b) much had happened
(c) much might happen
(d) No improvement
28. Taxpayers are to be conscious of their privileges.
(a) have to
(b) need
(c) ought to
(d) No improvement
29. I would have waited for you at the station if I knew that
your would come.
(a) had known
(b) was knowing
(c) have known
(d) No improvement
30. No one could explain how a calm and balanced person like
him could penetrate such a mindless act on his friends.
(a) perpetuate
(b) perpetrate
(c) precipitate
(d) No improvement
DIRECTIONS: In items in this section, each passage consists of
six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the
beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have
been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S.
You are required to find out the proper order for the four
sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
31. S1 : At the roadside the driver will be asked to blow through
a small glass tube into a plastic bag.
S6 : The driver will be asked to go to the police station.
P : And if the colour change does not reach the line the
driver cannot be punished under the new law.
Q : Inside the tube are chemically treated crystals which
change colour if the driver has alcohol on his breath.
R : But if the colour change does reach the line, then the
test has proved positive.
S : If the colour change goes beyond a certain line marked
on the tube this indicates that the driver is probably
over the specified limit.
The proper sequence should be
(a) P S Q R
(b) S Q R P
(c) R P S Q
(d) Q S P R
32. S1 : Hope springs eternally in the heart of man.
S6 : This is the central idea of the poem.
P : But hope is everlasting.
Q : Love, friendship and youth perish.
R : It is nursed by the glorious elements of nature.
S : Man derives hope from nature in his gallant struggle
after some noble ideal.
The proper sequence should be
(a) Q P R S
(b) S R Q P
(c) R S Q P
(d) Q P S R
33. S1 : Mr Sherlock Holmes and Doctor Watson were
spending a weekend in a University town.
S6 : It was clear that something very unusual happend.
P : One evening they received a visit from an
acquaintance, Mr Hilton Soames.

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

10
Q : On that occasion he was in a state of great agitation.
R : They were staying in furnished rooms, close to the
library.
S : Mr Soames was a tall, thin man of a nervous and
excitable nature.
The proper sequence should be
(a) P R S Q
(b) R P S Q
(c) P Q R S
(d) R P Q S
34. S1 : The machines that drive modern civilisation derive their
power from coal and oil.
S6 : Nuclear energy may also be effectively used in this
respect.
P : But they are not inexhaustible.
Q : These sources may not be exhausted very soon.
R : A time may come when some other sources have to be
tapped and utilised.
S : Power may, of course, be obtained in future from
forestes, water, wind and withered vegetables.
The proper sequence should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) Q P R S
(c) S R Q P
(d) S P Q R
35. S1 : The body can never stop.
S6 : It comes from food.
P : To support this endless activity, the body needs all
the fuel for action.
Q : Sometimes it is more active than at other times, but it is
always moving.
R : Even in the deepest sleep we must breathe.
S : The fuel must come from somewhere.
The proper sequence should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) P R Q S
(c) Q R P S
(d) S R Q P
36. S1 : American idealism is essentially a belief in the idea of
progress.
S6 : This sense they have inherited from the English.
P : Therefore, he believes that, because of human effort,
the future will be better than the past.
Q : But if American are usually optimistic, they are not
wholly unrealistic.
R : The American tends to view history as a record of
human achievement.
S : They have some common sense practicality.
The proper sequence should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) P Q S R
(c) R P Q S
(d) P R Q S
DIRECTIONS: In the following passage at certain points you
are given a choice of three words marked (a), (b) and (c), one of
which fits the meaning of the passage, Choose the best word out
of the three Mark the letter, viz (a), (b) or (c), relating to this
word on your Answer Sheet. Examples K and L have been solved
for you.

K
L
The (a) boy was in the school (a) She was home sick.
in Simila.
(b) horse
(b) It
(c) dog
(c) He
Explanation: Out of the list given in item K, only boy is the
correct answer because usually, a boy, and not a horse or a dog,
attends school. So (a) is to be marked on the Answer Sheet for
item K. A boy is usually referred to as he, so for item L, (c) is the
correct answer. Notice that to solve the first item K you have to
read the rest of the sentence and then see what first best.
Passage
After having slept for an hour, Bond decided to go out into the
city and try to find his contact. After changing his suit, he carefully
locked his room and stepped out of the hotel. No one was around.
But he had walked only for a few minutes when it suddenly
37. (a) felt/ (b) occurred/ (c) happened to him that he was
being 38. (a) followed/ (b) shot/ (c) looked by someone. There
was really no 39. (a) reason/ (b) cause/ (c) evidence for it except
a very slight 40. (a) weight/ (b) sound./ (c) hurting. of footsteps.
He was now walking 41. (a) from/ (b) down/ (c) over the main
street, which was crowded 42. (a) with/ (b) by/ (c) in people.
He became extremely aware of the danger of people threatening
him.
DIRECTIONS : Each item in this section consists of a sentence
with an underlined word followed by four words or group of
words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in
meaning to the underlined word.
43. He was fired for negligence on duty.
(a) relieved of his job
(b) scolded
(c) rebuked
(d) attacked
44. Democracy is not the standardising of everyone so as to
obliterate all peculiarity.
(a) demolish
(b) extinguish
(c) erase
(d) change
45. Divine grace is truly ineffable.
(a) that which cannot be rubbed out
(b) incapable of being understood
(c) that which is too great to the expressed in words
(d) too powerful to be defeated
46. The convocation address was very edifying.
(a) tedious
(b) in need of editing
(c) instructive
(d) exciting
DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence
with an underlined word, followed by four words. Select the
word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined
word.
47. John is always shabbily dressed.
(a) decently
(b) beautifully
(c) extravagantly
(d) scantily
48. The new manager of the Bank is urbane in his manners.
(a) civilised
(b) slow
(c) rude
(d) foolish
49. It is necessary to develop thrifty habits to be able to lead a
comfortable life.
(a) expensive
(b) extravagant
(c) economical
(d) good
50. Many people suffer because of pride.
(a) lowliness
(b) submission
(c) humility
(d) obedience

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

11
PART- B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
DIRECTIONS : The following 8 (Eight) items consist of two
statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine
these two statements carefully and select the answers to these
items using the code given below :
Code :
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement
II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement
II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is true
51. Statement I : Growth of plants is smooth with a complete
fertilizer.
Statement II : A complete fertilizer always contains N, P, K.
52. Statement I : The granules of modern gunpowder (also called
black powder) are typically coated with Graphite.
Statement II : Graphite prevents the build-up of electrostatic
charge.
53. Statement I : Colour of nitrogen dioxide changes to
colourless at low temperature.
Statement II : At low temperature Nitrogen tetroxide (N2O4)
is formed which is colourless.
54. Statement I : Diamond is very bright.
Statement II : Diamond has very low refractive index.
55. Statement I : Oxygen gas is easily produced at a faster rate
by heating a mixture of potassium chlorate and manganese
dioxide than heating potassium chlorate alone.
Statement II : Manganese dioxide acts as a negative catalyst.
56. Statement I : A body weighs less on a hill top than on earth's
surface even though its mass remains unchanged.
Statement II : The acceleration due to gravity of the earth
decreases with height.
57. Statement I : While putting clothes for drying up, we spread
them out.
Statement II : The rate of evaporation increases with an
increase in surface area.
58. Statement I : Due to diffused of irregular reflection of light,
a closed room gets light even if no direct sunlight falls inside
the room.
Statement II : Irregular reflection, where the reflected rays
are not parallel, does not follow the laws of reflection.
59. Ultrasonic waves of frequency 3 105 Hz are passed through
a medium where speed of sound is 10 times that in air (Speed
of sound in air is 300 m/s). The wavelength of this wave in
that medium will be of the order of
(a) 1 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 0.1 cm
60. If radius of the earth were to shrink by 1%, its mass remaining
the same, g would decrease by nearly
(a) 1%
(b) 2%
(c) 3%
(d) 4%
61. The displacement-time graph of a particle acted upon by a
constant force is
(a) a straight line
(b) a circle
(c) a parabola
(d) any curve depending upon initial conditions

62. Which one of the following is not a result of surface tension?


(a) Nearly spherical drop of rain
(b) Capillary rise
(c) Removal of dirt by soap or detergent
(d) Flow of a liquid
63. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists :
List I
List II
(Compound)
(Nature)
A. Sodium hydroxide
1. Strong acid
B. Calcium oxide
2. Alkali
C. Acetic acid
3. Weak acid
D. Hydrochloric acid
4. Base
Code:
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
3
4
1
(b) 2
4
3
1
(c) 1
4
3
2
(d) 1
3
4
2
64. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(a) Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India
(b) Neyveli is an important thermal power generating area
of Tamil Nadu
(c) Ratnagiri Bauxite mining area is located in Karnataka
(d) Assam is the largest tea producing state in India
65. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists :
List I
List II
(Paper industry centre)
(State)
A. Kamptee
1. Karnataka
B. Rajahmundry
2. Maharashtra
C. Shahdol
3. Andhra Pradesh
D. Belagola
4. Madhya Pradesh
Code :
A
B
C
D
(a) 1
4
3
2
(b) 2
3
4
1
(c) 1
3
4
2
(d) 2
4
3
1
66. The newly formed state of Telengana is surrounded by
(a) 5 States
(b) 4 States
(c) 6 States
(d) 3 States
67. Energy is required for maintenance of life. It is obtained by
a process called
(a) Metabolism
(b) Phagocytosis
(c) Photorespiration
(d) Decomposition
68. All life forms contain "molecules of life". These are
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Nucleic acids
(d) All of these
69. If a charged particle (+q) is projected with certain velocity
parallel to the magnetic field, then it will
(a) trace helical path
(b) trace circular path
(c) continue its motion without any change
(d) come to rest instantly

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

12
70. Optical fibres, though bent in any manner, allows light to pass
through. What is the inference that one can draw from it ?
(a) The concept that light travels in straight path is wrong
(b) Light can flow through the optical fibres
(c) Light can travel through the fibres because of their
ductility
(d) Light can travel through the fibres due to multiple total
internal reflections
71. Which one among the following happens when a swing
rises to a certain height from its rest position ?
(a) Its potential energy decreases while kinetic energy
increases
(b) Its kinetic energy decreases while potential energy
increases
(c) Both potential and kinetic energy decrease
(d) Both potential and kinetic energy increase
72. Which one among the following is used in making
gunpowder ?
(a) Magnesium sulphate (b) Potassium nitrate
(c) Sodium stearate
(d) Calcium sulphate
73. The cleaning action of soap and detergent in water is due to
the formation of
(a) Micelle
(b) Salt
(c) Base
(d) Acid
74. The chemical used as a fixer/developer in photography is
(a) Sodium sulphate
(b) Sodium sulphide
(c) Sodium thiosulphate (d) Sodium sulphite
75. Rain shadow effect is associated with
(a) Cyclonic rainfall
(b) Orographic rainfall
(c) Convectional rainfall (d) Frontal rainfall
76. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists :
List I
List II
(Place)
(Industry)
A. Jabalpur
1. Petro-chemical industry
B. Bengaluru
2. IT industry
C. Mathura
3. Paper industry
D. Ballarpur
4. Automobile industry
Code :
A
B
C
D
(a) 4
1
2
3
(b) 3
2
1
4
(c) 4
2
1
3
(d) 3
1
2
4
77. Which one of the following irrigation canals is the most
important in terms of area coverage in Haryana ?
(a) Bhakra canal
(b) The Western Yamuna canal
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru canal
(d) Gurgaon canal
78. Which one of the following is the smallest unit showing the
properties of life such as capacity for metabolism, response
to the environment, growth and reproduction ?
(a) Gene
(b) Chromosome
(c) Nucleus
(d) Cell
79. In plants, which one of the following gases is released during
Photosynthesis ?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Oxygen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Methane

80. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists :
List I
List II
(Physical quantity)
(Unit)
A. Distance
1. Mole
B. Amount of material 2. Coulomb
C. Amount of electrical 3. Light year
change
D. energy
4. Watt hour
Code :
A
B
C
D
(a) 3
1
2
4
(b) 3
2
1
4
(c) 4
2
1
3
(d) 4
1
2
3
81. A ray of light when refracted suffers change in velocity. In
this context, which one among the following statements is
correct ?
(a) Velocity increases as the ray passes from a rarer to a
denser medium
(b) Velocity decreases as the ray passes from a denser to a
rarer medium
(c) Velocity decreases as the ray passes from a rarer to a
denser medium
(d) Change of velocity does not depend on the nature of
medium
82. An object placed 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal
length 15 cm. The image produced will be
(a) Real and magnified
(b) Virtual and magnified
(c) Virtual and reduced in size
(d) Real and reduced in size
83. Why is Graphite used in electrolytic cells ?
(a) Graphite is soft and can be easily moulded into
electrodes
(b) Graphite is made of layers of carbon atoms which can slide
(c) Graphite is inert to most of the chemicals and remains
intact in electrolytic cells
(d) Graphite is a good conductor of electricity
84. Washing Soda is the comon name for
(a) Calcium Carbonate
(b) Magnesium Carbonate
(c) Sodium Carbonate
(d) Potassium Carbonate
85. Which one of the following Indian states has the highest
proportion of area under forest cover ?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Sikkim
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Mizoram
86. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists :
List I
List II
(National Park/
(State)
Wildlife Sanctuary)
A. Chandra Prabha
1. Uttarakhand
B. Silent Valley
2. Chhattisgarh
C. Valley of flowers
3. Uttar Pradesh
D. Indravati
4. Kerala
Code :
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
1
4
3
(b) 3
4
1
2
(c) 2
4
1
3
(d) 3
1
4
2

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

13
87. To a perpendicular to the plane of ecliptic, Earth's axis of
1
degrees. Had this angle
2
been zero degree, which one among the following would
result ?
(a) There would have been no season
(b) The length of day and night would have been the same
throughout the year
(c) The length of the day and night would have been the
same all over the earth
(d) All of the above
88. Gametophytes of sexually reproducing flowering plants are
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Tetraploid
(d) Polyploid
89. The seeds of flowering plants are made up of
(a) Ovary and ovary wall
(b) Embryo, food reserves and coat
(c) Cotyledons
(d) Zygotes
90. A person stands on his two feet over a surface and
experiences a pressure P. Now the person stands on only
one foot. He would experience a pressure of magnitude
(a) 4 P
(b) P

rotation makes an angle of 23

1
P
(d) 2 P
2
91. A solid is melted and allowed to cool and solidify again. The
temperature is measured at equal intervals of time. The graph
below shows the change of temperature with time.

(c)

94.

95.

96.
97.

98.
99.

Temp.

100.

Time

The part of the curve that is practically horizontal due to


(a) latent heat given away by the liquid
(b) specific heat given away by the liquid
(c) thermal capacity changes with time keeping
temperature constant
(d) change in density during transformation
92. A deep sea diver may hurt his ear drum during diving because
of
(a) lack of oxygen
(b) high atmospheric pressure
(c) high water pressure (d) All of these
93. When you walk on a woolen carpet and bring your finger
near the metallic handle of a door an electric shock is
produced. This is because
(a) charge is transferred from your body to the handle
(b) a chemical reaction occurs when you touch the handle

101.

102.
103.

(c) the temperature of the human body is higher than that


of the handle
(d) the human body and the handle arrive at thermal
equilibrium by the process
Which one among the following does not wet the walls of
the glass vessel in which it is kept ?
(a) Water
(b) Alcohol
(c) Mercury
(d) Phenol
Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of
(a) sulphates of sodium and potassium
(b) sulphates of magnesium and calcium
(c) carbonates of sodium and magnesium
(d) bicarbonates of magnesium and calcium
In the reaction ZnO + C Zn + CO, C acts as
(a) an acid
(b) a base
(c) an oxidising agent
(d) a reducing agent
Which of the following are the characteristics of organic
farming ?
1. Use of chemical fertilizers to improve soil fertility.
2. Frequent decomposing and fallowing.
3. Use of herbs to control pests.
4. Higher productivity per hectare.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
'Yakuts' are the nomadic herders of
(a) Gobi
(b) Sahara
(c) Tundra
(d) Kalahari
A farmer in a semi-arid area claims that his farming practice
is very environment friendly. Which of the following
practices on his farm can justify his claim ?
1. Planting a tree belt.
2. Practising crop rotation.
3. Carrying out a large scale irrigation system.
4. Using organic fertilizers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only
The luxuriant growth of natural vegetation in tropical
rainforest is due to
1. fertile soil.
2. hot and wet climate throughout the year.
3. intense sunlight for photosynthesis.
4. seasonal change to facilitate nutrient absorption.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which endocrine gland requires iodine to synthesize a
particular hormone whose deficiency may cause goitre
disease ?
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Pancreas
(c) Thymus
(d) Thyroid gland
Which one of the following is not a part of nerves?
(a) Axons
(b) Connective tissues
(c) Schwann cells
(d) Smooth muscles
The product of counductivity and resistivity of a conductor
(a) depends on pressure applied
(b) depends on current flowing through conductor
(c) is the same for all conductors
(d) varies from conductor to conductor

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

14
104. We use CFL to save electrical energy and to provide
surfficient light. The full form of CFL is
(a) Condensed filament light
(b) Compact filament lamp
(c) Condensed fluorescent lamp
(d) Compact fluorescent lamp
105. When the sun is 30 above the horizon, shadow of one tree
is 17.3 m long. What is the height of this tree ?
(a) 20 m
(b) 17.30 m
(c) 10 m
(d) 1.73 m
106. When heat rays are reflected from Earth, gases like Carbon
dioxide, Nitrous oxide do not allow them to escape back to
the space causing our planet to heat up. These gases are
known as
(a) Noble gas
(b) Green-house gas
(c) Hot gas
(d) Blue gas
107. A spring can be used to determine the mass m of an object in
two ways: (i) by measuring the extension in the spring due
to the object; and (ii) by measuring the oscillation period for
the given mass. Which of these methods can be used in a
space-station orbiting Earth ?
(a) Both
(b) Only the extension method
(c) Only the oscillation method
(d) Neither
108. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists :
List I
List II
(Region)
(Vegetation)
A. Selvas
1. Conifers
B. Savannas
2. Mosses and Lichens
C. Taiga
3. Epiphytes
D. Tundra
4. Grasses and trees
Code :
A
B
C
D
(a) 4
1
2
3
(b) 3
2
1
4
(c) 3
4
1
2
(d) 4
2
1
3
109. Which of the following statements with regard to the western
coastal plain of India are correct ?
1. It is a narrow belt.
2. It is an example of submerged coastal plain.
3. It provides natural conditions for development of ports.
4. It has well developed deltas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
110. Which one of the following weather conditions indicates a
sudden fall in barometer reading ?
(a) Stormy weather
(b) Calm weather
(c) Cold and dry weather (d) Hot and sunny weather
111. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists :
List I
List II
(Island)
(Location)
A. Continental island
1. Mauritius
B. Coral island
2. Madagascar
C. Volcanic island
3. Andaman and Nicobar
islands
D. Mountain island
4. Maldives

Code:
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
4
1
3
(b) 2
1
4
3
(c) 3
1
4
2
(d) 3
4
1
2
112. Consider the following diagram :

D
In which one among the following lettered area of the diagram
would erosion most likely change the shapes of the riverbad?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
113. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using
the code given below the Lists :
List I
List II
(Cloud)
(Characteristic)
A. Cirrus
1. Rain giving
B. Stratus
2. Feathery appearance
C. Nimbus
3. Vertically growing
D. Cumulus
4. Horizontally spreading
Code :
A
B
C
D
(a) 3
1
4
2
(b) 3
4
1
2
(c) 2
4
1
3
(d) 2
1
4
3
114. The concept of demographic transition provides a model
for
(a) analyzing government responses to changing pattern
of population growth
(b) explaining major patterns of global population
movement throughout the history
(c) analyzing spatial variations in the distribution, growth
and movement of population over time
(d) examining the relationship between economic
development and natural population change
115. Precursor of which one of the following vitamins comes
from b-carotene ?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Vitamin K
116. Lub-dup sound is produced due to action of
(a) Large intestine
(b) Lungs
(c) Heart
(d) Oesophagus

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

15
117. The sun is observed to be reddish when it is near the horizon,
i.e., in the morning and the evening. This is because
(a) red light is least scattered by atmosphere
(b) red light is most scattered by atmosphere
(c) it is the colour of the Sun in the morning and evening
(d) Earth's atmosphere emits red light
118. Thermal conductivity of aluminium, copper and stainless
steel increases in the order
(a) Copper < Aluminium < Stainless Steel
(b) Stainless Steel < Aluminium < Copper
(c) Aluyminium < Copper < Stainless Steel
(d) Copper < Stainless Steel < Aluminium
119. Perspiration cools the body because
(a) presence of water on the skin is cooling
(b) evaporation requires latent heat
(c) water has a high specific heat
(d) water is a poor conductor of heat
120. The radius of the Moon is about one-fourth that of the
Earth and acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is about
one-sixth that on the Earth. From this, we can conclude that
the ratio of mass of Earth to the mass of the Moon is about
(a) 10
(b) 100
(c) 1,000
(d) 10,000
121. Which of the following country/countries successfully
inserted a spacecraft into Mars orbit by maiden attempt ?
(a) USA
(b) USA and Russia
(c) India
(d) China
122. The European Space Agency (ESA) successfully landed a
spacecraft on a speeding comet that lies 310 million miles
away from Earth. As a result, the scientists may find out
(a) the age of the Sun
(b) the age of the Universe
(c) new fundamental atomic particles
(d) the role of the comets in bringing organic matter and
water to Earth
123. Who among the following Nobel laureates has recently
announced to put his Nobel Medal under auction ?
(a) Kailash Satyarthi
(b) J D Watson
(c) Mikhail Gorbachev (d) Jody Williams
124. Which one among the following statements with regard to a
climate deal adopted between USA and China in November
2014 is not correct?
(a) China committed to cap its output of carbon pollution
by the year 2030 or earlier
(b) China committed to increase its use of zero emission
energy to 20% by the year 2030
(c) USA agreed to reduce its emissions by 26% 28%
below its year 2005 levels in the year 2025
(d) Both the countries agreed to completely phase out coal
technologies by the year 2020
125. Which one among the following books is centered around
environment ?
(a) The Late, Great Planet Earth
(b) Silent Spring
(c) Here I Stand
(d) And Then One Day
126. Who among the following cricket players has not died while
playing a match ?
(a) Wasim Raja
(b) Phillip Hughes
(c) Raman Lamba
(d) Vijay Hazare

127. Which one among the following films was conferred the
Golden Peacock award in the 45th International Film
Festival of India (2014) ?
(a) Ek Hazarachi Note
(b) A Short Story
(c) Leviathan
(d) Ajeyo
128. Which one among the following films was awarded the best
motion picture (Drama) in the 72nd Golden Globe Awards ?
(a) The Theory of Everything
(b) Boyhood
(c) Still Alice
(d) Birdman
129. East Zone won the prestigious Deodhar Trophy cricket
tournament 2014-15 by defeating
(a) South Zone
(b) Central Zone
(c) West Zone
(d) North Zone
130. Which one of the following books won the Man Booker
Prize 2014 ?
(a) History of the Rain
(b) The Lives of Others
(c) The Narrow Road to the Deep North
(d) How to be Both
131. The Second Five Year Plan that called for the establishment
of Socialist pattern of society was commonly referred to as
the
(a) Harrod-Domar Plan (b) Mahalanobis Plan
(c) Nehru Plan
(d) Peoples Plan
132. Harappan crafts display an amazing degree of
standardization. According to Kenoyer, what was the
possible reason for such an achievement ?
(a) Availability of raw materials at local level
(b) Centralized markets for crafts
(c) Specialized training centres for craftsmen
(d) State control
133. Consider the following statements about Ashokan rock
edicts :
1. Major Rock Edict XIII records Ashoka's remorse at the
sufferings caused by his Kalinga campaign.
2. Major Rock Edict X records Ashoka's visit to Lumbini.
3. Major Rock Edict XII refers to Dhamma Mahamattas
as a new category of officers instituted by Ashoka.
4. Major Rock Edict XII speaks about showing tolerance
towards all sects.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
134. Which one of the following is the common element among
Rajagriha, Vaishali and Pataliputra ?
(a) Pali canon of the Sthaviravadins was compiled there
(b) Ashokan Major Rock Edicts were found there
(c) Places where Buddhist Councils were held
(d) Places associated with the compilation of Buddhist
canons of the Mahasanghikas
135. Which one among the following sects was associated with
Gosala Maskariputra ?
(a) Vajrayana
(b) Ajivikas
(c) Sthaviravadins
(d) Mahasanghikas
136. Consider the following statements about the early modern
technology in India :
1. The Portuguese brought European movable metal
types to Goa in 1550.

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

16
2.

137.

138.

139.

140.

141.

142.

The first Indian script of which types were prepared


was Tamil.
3. The English Company's first experiment with printing
press was at Calcutta.
4. The English Company imported printing press to India
in 1674-75 at the request of Bhimji Parak.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for Olympe
de Gouges ?
1. She was one of the most important politically active
woman in revolutionary France.
2. She was one of the memebers of the Committee that
drafted the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen.
3. She wrote the Declaration of the Right of Woman and
Citizen.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1 and 3
Arrange the following inventions in the field of cotton
industry in chronological order (starting with the earliest) :
1. James Hargreaves's Spinning Jenny
2. John Kay's Flying Shuttle
3. Samuel Crompton's Mule
4. Richard Arkwright's Water Frame
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 3, 4, 2
(b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 4, 1, 3, 2
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3
While opposing the Public Safety Bill ,1928 who among the
following said that it was a direct attack on Indian
nationalism, on the Indian National Congress and as the
Slavery of India, Bill No. 1 ?
(a) Motilal Nehru
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) T Prakasam
(d) Diwan Chaman Lal
Soon after the formation of Indian National Congress, the
British became suspicious of nationalists. Who among the
following called Congress representing only the elite a
microscopic minority ?
(a) Lord Napier
(b) Lord Dufferin
(c) Lord Ripon
(d) Lord Lytton
What is the common element among Ram Prasad Bismil,
Roshan Singh and Rajendra Lahiri ?
(a) They threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly
on 8 April, 1929
(b) They were the founder members of Swaraj Party
(c) They were the founders of Hindustan Republican
Association
(d) They were associated with Kakori Conspiracy case
Which of the following is/are not fundamental right(s) under
the Constitution of India ?
1. Right to education.
2. Right to work.
3. Right to form associations.
4. Right to practise any profession.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3

143. Mahatma Gandhi's Hindu Swaraj is essentially


(a) a critique of Western modernity
(b) an outline of his philosophy of Satyagraha
(c) an invocation to Indians to free themselves from the British
(d) a blueprint of Gram Swaraj
144. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains
(a) provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(b) the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List
(c) a list of recognized languages
(d) provisions about the disqualification of Members of
Legislatures on grounds of defection
145. Pochampally in Nalgonda district of Telengana became
famous in April, 1951 because
(a) the Bhoodan movement was launched there by Vinoba
Bhave
(b) the landless peasants rose up in arms against the
landlords
(c) it witnessed violent anti-Hindi agitation
(d) Silk weavers cooperative was formed for the first time
in India
146. Who among the following was not associated with the
Sarvodaya movement ?
(a) Jaya Prakash Narayan (b) Acharya Vinoba Bhave
(c) Dhirendra Mazumdar (d) G V Apparao
147. Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with
(a) the powers of the Parliament of India to amend the
Constitution
(b) financial emergency
(c) reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha
(d) Official Language of the Union of India
148. Which among the following is not a basic feature of the
Constitution of India ?
(a) Fundamental rights
(b) Independence of judiciary
(c) Federalism
(d) The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend
any part of the Constitution
149. Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty ?
(a) To abide by the Constitution of India and respect the
national flag and national anthem
(b) To safeguard public property
(c) To protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India
(d) To render compulsory military service
150. Which of the following are the basic features of the
Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act ?
1. Provides for a three-tier structure of panchayats in the
village, intermediary and district levels.
2. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes and women in all the tiers of
panchayats.
3. Election to panchayats under the supervision of the
State Election Commissions.
4. Introduction of the 11th Schedule to the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

17

HINTS & SOLUTIONS


MATHEMATICS
1.

(c)

From going by the options,


option (a), q = 30, as we know that
180 = p radian

sin A sin B
=
a
b

30 p
radian
180
Now according to question,

30 =

sin A
1+ 3

45 p
radian
180
Now according to question,

Now number of degree in q is multiplied by number of


radian in q.

1+ 3

45 p 45p 125 p
=

180
4
9
From option (c),
q = 50
As we know that 180 = p radian

4 + 3

45

cos a =
Here,

50p
radian
180
Now according to question

50 =

1
2 2

3
4
or cos a =
5
5

p
<a<p
2

cos a =

4
5
(Q In 2nd quadrant, cos a value is negative)

Now, sin a = 1 cos2 a = 1

50 p 2500 p 125 p
=
=
180
180
9
Option (c) is correct.

sin a =

tan a =

sin a 3 5 3
=
=
cos a 5 4
4
Option (a) is correct.

(b)

sin 2a = 2 sin a . cos a

50

b = 2 cm

3 4
= 2
5 5

60

(a)

a = (1 + 3 cm

16
25

3
5

4.

2.

sin 45
2

4+ 4 3 =4+ 4 3
\ Option (a) is correct.
For (3-4):
3. (a) Here a is the root of equation
25 cos2 q + 5 cos q 12 = 0
25 cos2 a + 5 cos a 12 = 0
25 cos2 a + 20 cos a 15 cos a 12 = 0
5 cos a (5 cos a + 4) 3(5 cos a + 4) = 0
(5 cos a 3) (5 cos a + 4) = 0

Now number of degree in q is multiplied by number of


radian in q.

sin B
2

2 12 + 4 = 4 + 4 3

50 180 180
=
50 p
p

6+ 2

30p 900p 10 p
125p
=
=
= 5p
180
180
2
9
From option (b),
q = 45

45 180 180
=
45 p
p

sin 75

30

45 =

From option (a),

30 180 180
=
30 p
p
Now number of degree in q is multiplied by number of
radians in q.

Now as a > b
A > B
Now from Sine Rule,

6 4 24

=
5
5
25
Option (b) is correct.

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

18
5.

(b)

In DABC,
AB = h
BC = 20 m
C = 45

tan 47. cot 47 =

45
B

6.

\
\

h
1=
[Q tan 45 = 1]
20
h = 20 m
Height of the tower = 20 m
Option (b) is correct.

(c)

tan1 (1 + x) + tan1 (1 x) =

20 m

8.

7.

\
(b)

\
(b)

p
2

(1 + x ) + (1 x ) p
tan 1
=
1 (1 + x ) (1 x ) 2

\
9.

1+ x +1 x
p
= tan
1 (1 + x ) (1 x )
2

(b)

2
1
=
1 (1 + x ) (1 x ) 0
1 (1 + x) (1 x) = 0
(1 + x) (1 x) = 1
1 x2 = 1
x2 = 0
x= 0
Option (c) is correct.
AB = h (height of the tower)
BD = 36 m
BC = 49 m
D = 47
C = 43

\
10. (b)

43

47
36 m

D
49 m

h
36 m

... (i)

cos q
sin q
+
sin q
cos q
1
1
cos q
sin q

cos 2 q
sin 2 q
+
cos q sin q sin q cos q

cos 2 q
sin 2 q

cos q sin q cos q sin q

cos 2 q sin 2 q (cos q sin q) (cos q + sin q)


=
cos q sin q
cos q sin q

= cos q + sin q
Option (b) is correct.
1
x = 4 tan1
5

= 2 2 tan 1 = 2 tan 1

= 2 tan1

and in DABC,
tan 43 =

h
49 m

tan(90 47) =

= tan1
h
49

h h
h2

=1 =
36 49
36 49

cos q
sin q
+
1 tan q 1 cot q

Now, in DABD,
tan 47 =

... (ii)

h = 6 7 = 42 m
Option (b) is correct
(1 sin A + cos A)2
= 1 + sin2 A + cos2 A 2 sin A
2 sin A . cos A + 2 cos A
= 2 2 sin A 2 sin A cos A + 2 cos A
= 2(1 sin A) + 2 cos A(1 sin A)
= 2(1 + cos A) (1 sin A)
Option (b) is correct.

h
49

Multiplying equations (i) and (ii)

AB
tan 45 =
BC

cot 47 =

2
1


5

25
5

1 10
1 5
24 = 2 tan 24 = 2 tan 12

12 = tan1 120 .

25
119
1

144

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

19
11. (c)

= tan

= tan

1
= tan

\
12. (d)

1
120
tan 1
x y = tan 1
119
70

suur
Now, equation of ED is y

120 1

119 70
120 1
1+

119 70

\
\

1
= tan

8281
8281
1
tan 1
+ tan 1
99
8450
8450

\
14. (b)

13. (a)

32
1
=
2 1
3

Slope of EF = 3

5
1

= 3 x +
2
2

2y 5 = 6x + 3
... (ii)
From equations (i) and (ii),
x = 2 and y = 2
Hence, circumcentre of DABC is (x, y) = (2, 2)
Option (a) is correct.
Centroid of the triangle
x1 + x 2 + x 3 y1 + y 2 + y 3
,
=

3
3

8281 1
+
8450 99
8281 1

1
8450 99

A
(x2y1) (2, 3)

828269
836550
=1
828269
836550

(x2y2)

A circumcentre is a point at which perpendicular


bisectors meet each other.
Here, E represents circumcentre

(2, 3)

1 5
(x, y) F 2 , 2
E

B
(2, 1)

C (1, 2)
(x3y3)

B (2, 1)

p
4
Option (d) is correct.

tan1 = (1) =

... (i)

sur
Now, equation of EF is y

option (c) is correct.

= tan 1

2y 3 = 2x 3
x= y

Slope of AC =

8281
8281
8330
= tan 1
8450
8450
8330

x y = tan

3
3

= 1 x
2
2

2 + 1 3 + 2 1 5
,
Now, mid-point of AC =
= ,
2
2 2 2

8400 119
8330
120
1+
8330

Slope of DE = 1

D
3 3
,
2 2

C
(1, 2)

2 +1 1+ 2 3 3
,
Mid-point of BC =
= ,
2
2 2 2
2 1
Slope of BC = 1 2 = 1

\
15. (d)

2 + 2 + 1 3 + 1 + 2 1
,
=
= , 2
3
3
3
Option (b) is correct.
Slope of BC =

2 1
= 1
1 2

(2, 1)
B

(2, 3)

D
(x, y)

Slope of AD = 1

suur
Now, equation of BC is
y 2 = 1(x 1)

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

C (1, 2)

20
\
\

\
\
\
16. (b)

17. (b)

y 2 = x + 1
x + y 3 = 0
... (i)
suur
and equation of AD is
(y 3) = 1(x + 2)
x y+ 5 = 0
... (ii)
From equations (i) and (ii),
x = 1 and y = 4
Foot of altitude from the vertex A of the triangle ABC is
(1, 4)
Option (d) is correct.
Given that x < y if y x + 5
For Reflexive:
x </ x
Hence, relation is not reflexive.
For Symmetry:
if x < y,
then y </ x
Hence, relation is not symmetry.
For Transitive:
if x < y and y < z,
then x < z
Hence, relation is transitive.

b
b
= 10
a
a
Quadratic equation according to second student
ax2 + b1 x + c = 0 and roots are 9 and 1

8+2=

c
c
=9
a
a
Putting value in original equation

(9) ( 1) =

b
c
x + =0
a
a
x2 10x + 9 = 0.

x2 +

20. (c)

6x 36x 2 32x 2
2

6x 2x
y=
= 3x x
2
y = 4x, 2x
At y = 4x,
x2 + 2 = 4x
x2 4x + 2 = 0
Discriminant, D = 16 8 = 8 > 0
Roots are real.
Sum of roots = (4) = 4
At x = 2x,
x2 + 2 = 2x
x2 2x + 2 = 0
D=48=4<0
Roots are complex.
Sum of roots = 2
Sum of all roots = 4 + 2 = 6
only statement 2 is correct.
Correct option is (b)

2 7
A=

1 5

Now, A1 =

1
adj (A)
A

1
5 7
(10 7) 1 2

1 5 7
3 1 2

5 7
3A1 =

1 2
2 7 5 7
Now, A + 3A1 =
+

1 5 1 2

(x2 + 2)2 + 8x2 = 6x(x2 + 2)


Let x2 + 2 = y
y2 + 8x2 = 6xy
y2 6xy + 8x2 = 0
y=

Let correct equation is ax2 + bx + c = 0


According to first student, equation is:
ax2 + bx + c1 = 0 and roots are 8 and 2

1 5 0
0 1 0

0 0 1
An elementary matrix has each diagonal element 1. So,
option (b) is correct answer.

18. (b)

19. (a)

7 0
1 0
=
= 7

= 7I where I is Identity Matrix.


0 7
0 1

21. (b)

Dancing

Music
45 x

\
\
22. (c)
\

50 x

Let x be the number of students who likes both music


and dance.
5 students likes neither music nor dancing.
Hence, total number of remaining students
= 60 5 = 55
Now from Venn diagram,
45 x + x + 50 x = 55
95 x = 55
x = 95 55 = 40.
log10 2, log10 (2x 1) and log10 (2x + 3) are in A.P.
Hence, common difference will be same.
log10 (2x 1) log10 2 = log(2x + 3) log10 (2x 1)

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

21
\

2x + 3
2x 1
log10

= log10 x
2 1
2

2x 1 2x + 3
=
2
2x 1

(2x 1)2 = 2(2x + 3)


22x 2x + 1 + 1= 2x + 1 + 6
22x 2x + 2 = 5
Let 2x = y, then
y2 4y 5 = 0
y2 5y + y 5 = 0
y(y 5) + 1(y 5) = 0
y = 1, y = 5
Therefore, 2x = 5
x = log2 5.
23. (d)

\
\

\
\

4 + i
0
The given matrix A =
0
4 + i
Now, from options:
From option (a): For Symmetric matrix
AT = A
4 + i
0
Now, AT =
A
0
4 + i
The given matrix is not symmetric
option (a) is wrong.
From option (b): For Skew-symmetric matrix
AT = A
4 + i
0
=
A
0
4 + i
Given matrix is not skew-symmetric
option (b) is wrong.
From option (c): For Hermitian matrix

AT = A, where A is conjugate of matrix A

\
24. (b)
25. (b)

4 i
0
T
A =
A
4

i
0

option (c) is wrong.


From option (d): For Skew-Hermitian matrix
The diagonal element of a skew-hermitian matrix are
pure imaginary or zero.

6 10i 4 10 10i
=
= 1 i
10
10
z = 1 i = r (cos q + i sin q)
On comparing real and imaginary part on both sides,
we get
r cos q = 1
...(i)
r sin q = 1
...(ii)
On dividing eq. (ii) by (i), we get

r sin q 1
=
r cos q 1

tan q = 1 = tan

q=

q=

\
26. (c)

\
\
\
27. (d)

4 + i
0
A=
0
4 + i
Here, diagonal element indicates that the given matrix
is skew-hermitian matrix.
option (d) is correct.

z=
=

2 (1 + 2i )
3+i

2 4i 2 4i 3 i
=

3+i
3+i
3i

6 + 2i 12i + 4i 2
10

p
4

p
4

p
4
Option (b) is correct.

Here m and n are the roots of equation.


(x + p) (x + q) k = 0
x2 + x (p + q) + pq k = 0
... (i)
If m and n are the roots of equation, then
(x m) (x n) = 0
x2 (m + n) x + mn = 0
... (ii)
Now equation (i) should be equal to equation (ii),
(m + n) = (p + q) and mn = pq k
Now, we have to find roots of (x m) (x n) + k = 0
x2 (m + n) x + mn + k = 0
x2 + (p + q) x + (pq k) + k = 0
x2 + (p + q) x + pq = 0
x2 + px + qx + pq = 0
x (x + p) + q (x + p) = 0
x + q = 0 or x + p = 0
x = q and x = p
Option (c) is correct.
Given 0.5 + 0.55 + 0.555 + ..... to n
= 5 [0.1 + 0.11 + 0.111 + ..... to n terms]
=

5
[0.9 + 0.99 + 0.999 + ..... to n terms]
9

5 9
99
999

+
+
+ ..... to n terms

9 10 100 1000

5
1
9

1
5
1
9
10

1
1
1

+ 1
+ 1
+ .....
10 100 1000

to n terms

1
1

+ 1 2 + 1 3 + .....
10 10

1 n
10

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

22
1
5
1
1
= 9 n 10 + 2 + .... n
10
10

31. (a)

1 n

1
5
1 10
= n

1
9
10
1

10

5
1
n
9
9

=
28. (c)

\
29. (c)

30. (c)

\
\
32. (b)

Let

A line passes through (2, 2) and is perpendicular to the


line 3x + y = 3
Slope of line 3x + y = 3 is 3
1
3
Equation of line passes through (2, 2) and having slope

1
(x 2)
3
3y 6 = x 2
x 3y + 4 = 0
In order to find y-intercept of the line
Put x = 0 in x 3y + 4 = 0
3y = 4

y=

(y 2) =
\
\

\
33. (c)

4
3
Option (b) is correct.

x2
a2

y2
b2

=1

Hyperbola passes through 3 5, 1

... (i)
... (ii)
\

(3 5 )
a

45

1
1
x=
2
2

1
1
y = y=
2
2
1
1
i =
+
i
2
2

abscissa of O (0, 0) is x = 0
Option (a) is correct.

1
is
3

90
=
= 45
2

10 9
= 45
2 1

i = x + iy
i = (x + iy)2
x2 y2 + 2xyi = 0 + i
x2 y2 = 0; 2xy = 1
Now, (x2 + y2)2 = (x2 y2)2 + 4x2 y2
(x2 + y2)2 = 0 + 1
x2 + y2 = 1
x2 y2 = 0
x2 + y2 = 1

S(a, 0)

Slope of line which passes through (2, 2) is

1
b2

1
b2

=1

=1

Now length of latus rectum =

O
(0, 0)

2
Option (c) is correct
Alternate Method
The number of subsets of A containing exactly two
elements is:

x2 =

Here, S represents focus O(0, 0) is a point which is on


parabola y2 = 4ax and nearest to focus (a, 0)

9 (9 + 1)

2x2 = 1

(1 + i).

A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
Number of subsets of A containing two elements
=9+8+7+ 6+5+ 4+3+2+1

C2 =

y = 4ax

Here cube root of unity is 1, w, w2


Now as we know that 1 + w + w2 = 0 and w3 = 1
w8 =(w3)2. w2 = w2
w4 = (w3). w = w
Now, (1 + w) (1 + w2) (1 + w4) (1 + w8)
= ( w2) ( w) (1 + w) (1 + w2)
= w3 (1 + w2 + w + w3)
= w3 (w3)
= (1) (1) = 1
Option (c) is correct.

10

(1 + i) or

1 n
10

= 45

... (i)
2b2
a

4 2b2
=
3
a

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

23

3b2
a=
2

2 b2
=
3 a

... (ii)

Putting the value of a from equation (ii) in


equation (i),

\
\

45 4
9b

20

1
b2

\
36. (b)

=1

=1
b4 b2
20 b2 = b4
b4 + b2 20 = 0
b4 + 5b2 4b2 20 = 0
b2 (b2 + 5) 4(b2 + 5) = 0
(b2 4) (b2 + 5) = 0
b2 = 4, b2 = 5
b2 = 4 b = 2
Now length of conjugate axis
= 2b = 2(2) = 4
Option (c) is correct.

C
5
O

sin 60 =
... (i)
... (ii)

5
5 2
AO =
= 10
AO
1
Normal form of line AB
X
Y
+
=1
OB OA

Multiply equation (ii) by 2, we get


6x + 8y + 18 = 0
Distance between the straight lines
a +b

35. (d)

18 15

( 6)

+ (8)

3
unit
10

Option (b) is correct.

3X Y
+
=1
10
10

37. (a)

Area of DABC = 3 sq. unit


A

and

(3, 4)

\
B(5, 2)

3 4 1
1
5 2 1 =3
2
a 5 1
3 4 1

5 2 1 =6
a 5 1

52

sin 30 =

6x + 8y + 18 = 0

5
5
OB =
sin 60
OB

10
=
3
3
In DACO,
OAC = 30

OB =

In DOCB,

6x + 8y + 15 = 0

c2 c1

120

60

34. (b) 6x + 8y + 15 = 0
and 3x + 4y + 9 = 0

3(2 5) 4(5 a) + 1(25 2a) = 6


9 20 + 4a + 25 2a = 6
2a = 10
a=5
Option (d) is correct.

C (a, 5)

3X + Y = 10.
x y
+ =1
a b

x y
+ =1
... (ii)
b a
From solving equations (i) and (ii), we get the
intersection point.
bx + ay = ax + by
(b a)x = (b a)y
x= y
... (iii)

x x
+ =1
a b
x(a + b) = ab

x=

... (i)

ab
ab
and y =
from equation (iii)
a+b
a+b
Now, equation of lin e joining (0, 0) and

ab
ab
a + b , a + b

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

24
\
\
\
38. (d)

\
\

Here, slope of line = 1


y= x
xy=0
Option (a) is correct.

The projection of a directed line segment on the


co-ordinate axes are 12, 4, 3, respectively.

Length of the line segment = 12 2 + 42 + 32

= 144 + 16 + 9 = 169 = 13 unit


Option (d) is correct.

39. (a)
\
40. (b)

12 4 3
,
Direction cosine of line segment = ,
13 13 13
Option (a) is correct.
Equation of line passing through P(3, 1, 11) and
perpendicular to

Now x2 x1 = 1
x2 3 = 1
\ x2 = 2
Similarly,
y2 y1 = 6
y2 + 1 = 6
\ y2 = 5
and z2 z1 = 4
z2 11 = 4
z2 = 4 + 11 = 7
\ Co-ordinate of Q is (2, 5, 7)
\ Length of segment PQ

41. (c)

\
42. (a)

\
\

x y2 z3
=
=
is:
2
3
4

x 3 y 1 z 1
=
=
1
6
4
The direction ratio are (1, 6, 4)
Option (b) is correct.

43. (d)

\
\

\
44. (b)

The plane passes through the point A (3, 0, 0), B(0, 6, 0)


and C(0, 0, 9). So, it should satisfy the equation given
in option for all the three points.
From option (a)
For point A (3, 0, 0)
x + 2y + 3z = 1
3+0+01
option (a) is wrong.
From option (b)
For point A(3, 0, 0)
3x + 2y + z = 3
3(3) + 0 + 0 3
option (b) is wrong.
From option (c)
For point A(3, 0, 0)
2x + 3y + 6z = 18
2(3) + 0 + 0 18
option (c) is wrong.
From option (d)
For point A (3, 0, 0)
6x + 3y + 2z = 18
6(3) + 0 + 0 = 18
For point B(0, 6, 0)
6x + 3y + 2z = 18
0 + 3(6) + 0 = 18
For point C (0, 0, 9)
6x + 3y + 2z = 18
0 + 0 + 2 9 = 18
Option (d) is correct.
Length of one of the diagonal of cube
=

(2 3)2 + (5 + 1)2 + (7 11)2

(1)2 + (2)2 + (3)2

= 1 + 4 + 9 = 14 units
\

= 1 + 36 + 16 = 53 units.
Option (c) is correct.

45. (c)
\

x1 y1 z1
,
Centroid = ,

3 3 3

x1 = 3, y1 = 6 and z1 = 9
Intercept made by plane on the axes are 3, 6 and 9,
respectively.
Option (a) is correct.

46. (d)

(x, 0, 0)

Option (b) is correct.


Equation of plane passing through (1, 2, 3) and parallel
to xy-plane is z = 3.
Option (c) is correct.
(127.25)10
Now,
2 127
2 63 1
2 31 1

C
B (0, y, 0)
x1 y1 z1
,
(1, 2, 3) = ,

3 3 3

(0, 0, z)

2 15 1
2 7 1
2 3 1
11

127 = (1111111)2

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

25
Now,
0.25 2 =
0.5 2 =
\
\
47. (d)

0.5

1.0

Non-singular matrix is a matrix whose determinate Value


is non-zero.

Now det (A) =


and det (B) =

1 1
=1
1 2
2 1
=3
1 2

Now, det (A + B) = 4 det (A + B)


Statement 1 is wrong.
Now from Statement 2:
(A + B)1 =
=

48. (a)

49. (d)

1
adj (A + B)
A+B

1
adj (A) =
A

and B1 =

1 2 1
1
adj (B) =
3 1 2
B

... (i)
... (ii)
... (iii)
... (iv)

n+r

Cn = nC + n + 1C
n
n

r =0

=1+

(n + 1)!
(n + 1 n )! n!
(n + 1) (n!)

n!
=1+ n+1= n+2

1 2 1
1 1 1

and A1 =

=1+

1 4 2
8 2 3

2
2
1

3
Now, A1 + B1 =
+
1 1 1
3

\
\

p q 7 26
Hence, A =
=

r s 1 5
Option (a) is correct.

(127.25)10 = (1111111.01)2
Option (d) is correct.

1 1 2 1 3 2
A+B=
+
=

1 2 1 2 2 4
det (A + B) = 12 4 = 8

3p + q 4p q 5 2
3r + s 4r s = 2 1

3p + q = 5
4p q = 2
3r s = 2
4r s = 1
From equations (i) and (ii), we get
p = 7
p = 7
q = 5 3(7)
q = 26
From equations (iii) and (iv),
r = 1
r=1
s = 2 3 = 5
s = 5

1 1
2 1
Let A =
and B =

1 2
1 2
Here, A and B are non-singular matrix
Now from Statement 1:

p q 3 4 5 2
r s 1 1 = 2 1

n+2

1
3

2
3

Cn + 1 =
=

\
50. (c)

8 4
3
3
= 4 5 (A + B)1

3
3
Statement 2 is wrong
Option (d) is correct.

(n + 2)!

(n + 2 n 1)! (n + 1)!

(n + 2) (n + 1)!
(n + 1)!

=n+2

Option (d) is correct.


The given word is NATION.
Total number of words that can be formed from given
word NATION
6! 6 5 4 3 2!
=
= 360
2!
2!
Now numbers of words that can be formed from given
word NATION, so that all vowels never come together.

3 4
5 2
p q
X=
and A =
, B =

1
1

2 1
r s
Now, AX = B

3!

= 360 4!
2!

= 360 [24 3]
= 360 72 = 288
Option (c) is correct.

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

26
51. (b)
\
\

As we know that cube root of unity is 1, w and w2

x3 1 = (x 1) (x w) (x w2)
Option (b) is correct.

54. (c)

1 1+ x
1

52. (c)

sin

sin

+ i 1 cos

6
p

i 1 cos

p
p

2 p
2 sin 12 cos 12 + i 2 sin 12

=
2 sin p cos p i 2 sin 2 p

12
12
12
3

p
p
ip

cos 12 + i sin 12
e 12
=
=

p
p
p
cos
i sin
i 12
e

12
12

3
ip
e 6

p
i3
6
e

55. (d)
\

\
\

53. (a)

56. (a)

p
i
e 2

p
p
+ i sin
=i
2
2
Option (c) is correct.

57. (b)

y
x + y
A=
x y
2x
3
2
B = and C =
2
1
Here AB = C

y 2 3
x + y
=
2x
x y 1 2

y 3
2 (x + y)

=
x + y 2
4x

2x + y = 3
3x + y = 2
From equations (i) and (ii), we get
x = 1 and y = 5
\

4 5
A=

2 6
4 5 4 5
Now, A2 =

2 6 2 6

16 10 20 30 6 10
=
=

8 + 12 10 + 36 4 26
Option (a) is correct.

1
1
1+ y

= [(1 + x) (1 + y) 1] 1(1 + y 1) + 1(1 1 x)


= 1 + x + y + xy 1 y x
= xy
Option (c) is correct.
A = {x : x is a multiple of 3}
A = {3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 24, .....}
AB
C
B = {x : x is a multiple of 4}
B = {4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32, .....}
C = {x : x is a multiple of 12}
C = {12, 24, 36, 48, 60, 72, 84, 96, .....}

A B = {12, 24, .....} =

= cos

\
... (i)
... (ii)

58. (c)

AB
.
C

(11101011)2
= (1 27 + 1 26 + 1 25 + 0 24 + 1 23
+ 0 22 + 1 21 + 1 20)10
= (128 + 64 + 32 + 8 + 2 + 1)10
= (235)10
Option (a) is correct.
(sin x + i cos x)3
= sin3 x + (i)3 cos3 x + 3i (sin x) (cos x) (sin x + i cos x)
= sin 3 x i cos3 x + 3i sin2 x cos x 3 sin x cos2 x
= sin 3 x 3 sin x cos2 x + i cos x (cos2 x + sin2 x)
= sin x (sin2 x 3 cos2 x) + i cos x
Real part of (sin x + i cos x)3
= sin x (sin2 x 3 cos2 x)
= sin x [sin2 x 3 (1 sin2x)]
= sin x [4 sin2 x 3]
= 4 sin3 x 3sin x
= (3 sin x 4 sin3 x)
= sin 3x
Option (b) is correct.
cos q sin q
E (q) =

sin q cos q

cos a sin a
Now E (a) =

sin a cos a
cos b sin b
and E (b) =

sin b cos b
cos a sin a cos b sin b
Now E (a) E(b) =

sin a cos a sin b cos b

cos a sin b
cos a cos b
sin a sin b + sin a cos b
= sin a cos b sin a sin b

cos a sin b + cos a cos b

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

27

\
59. (a)

\
\
60. (c)

cos (a + b ) sin (a + b )
=

sin (a + b ) cos (a + b )
= E(a + b)
Option (c) is correct.

A = {x, y, z}
B = (p, q, r, s)
n(A) = 3
n(B) = 4
Number of distinct relations
= 2n(A) n(B) = 23 4
= 212 = 4096
option (a) is correct.
4p2 + 4pq 3q2 36 = 0
(4p2 + 4pq + q2) 4q2 36 = 0
(2p + q)2 = 4q2 + 36
2p + 3q = 18
18 3q
p=
2
2

18 3p

2 + q = 4q2 + 36
2

2
(18 3q + q)
(18 2q)2 = 4q2 + 36
324 + 4q2 72q = 4q2 + 36
72q = 324 36 = 288
288
=4
72
Putting the value of q in 2p + 3q = 18
2p + 3 4 = 18
2p = 18 12

q=

6
=3
2
(2p + q) = 2 3 + 4 = 10
Option (c) is correct.

p=
\

d
1 + x 2 x = 2x 1
... (i)

dx
Now comparing equation (i) with AX + B, we get
A = 2 and B = 1.

61. (c)
62. (a)
For (63-64):
2 + x2

lim
Ax B = 3
x 1+ x

2 + x 2 Ax B Ax 2 Bx
lim
=3
1+ x
x

(1 A ) x 2 ( A + B) x + 2 B
lim
=3
1+ x
x

Applying LHospital rule,


2x(1 A) (A + B) = 3
Comparing coefficients
2(1 A) = 0
\ A = 1 and
(A + B) = 3
\ B = 3 1 = 4
A + B = 3
A = 1, B = 4
63. (b)
64. (c)
65. (b)
\
\

For (61-62)
Given

d 1 + x 2 + x4

dx 1 + x + x 2

d
dx

1 + x + x 2 + x 4 x

1 + x + x2

d
dx

x x
1 + 2

x + x + 1

x x3 1
d

1+ 2
dx
x + x + 1

d
1 + x ( x 1)
dx

y dx x dy

=0
y2
y dx x dy = 0

dy dx
=
y
x
Now integrating both sides,
dy
dx
=
y x
log y = log x + log c
log y = log c x
y = cx
Option (b) is correct.

\
\
66. (a)

dy
sin a = 0
dx
dy
sin = a
dx

dy
= sin 1 a
dx
dy = sin1 a dx
Now integrating both sides,

dy = sin

a dx

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

28
\
67. (c)

y = x sin1 a + c
Option (a) is correct.

70. (a)

$i

dx x
+ y2 = 0
dy y

dy

x . y = y 2 y dy + c

dy + c

y4
+c
4
4xy = y4 + c
Option (c) is correct.

xy =

\
68. (c)

1
1
dx
= ex

1 + x (1 + x )2

{ e

69. (d)

Area of DABC =
$i $j
1
2 3
=
2
4 5

) (

... (i)
... (ii)

r
r
r r
a = 7, b = 11 and a + b = 10 3

(10 3 )

r
= a

r
+ b

r
+2 a

r
b cos q

= 49 + 121 + 2 7 7 cos q

300 = 170 + 154 cos q


300 170
= cos q
154

(f ( x ) + f ( x )) dx = ex f (x )}

k$
2
2

1 $
i (6 10) $j ( 4 + 8) + k$ ( 10 + 12)
2

1 $ $
4i 4j + 2k$
2

1
1
1
16 + 16 + 4 =
36 = 6
2
2
2
= 3 square units
Option (d) is correct.

1 uuur uuur
AB AC
2

529 = 23 units.

e
+C
1+ x

r r
Now a + b

(1 + x )2 dx

(18)2 + ( 3)2 + (14)2

r r uur
uv=w
ur
r
ur
r
ur
r
2x a + y b 2y a + 3x b = 2 a 5 b
ur
r
ur
r
( 2x 2y) a + ( y 3x ) b = 2 a 5 b
\ 2x 2y = 2
and 3x y = 5
Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
x = 2 and y = 1
\ Option (a) is correct.

72. (d)

x ex

71. (a)

P dy
= e y = elog y = y
I.F. = e
So, required solution is

xy =

k$

= $i (6 + 12) $j ( 6 + 9) + k$ (8 + 6)
= 18 $i 3 $j + 14 k$

dx
+ P1 x = Q1
dy
1
and Q = y2
y

$j

m = 2 2 3
3 4 3

dx x
+ = y2
dy y
This is a linear differential equation of the form

Here, P =

ur uur
Moment of force, m = r F

65
= cos q
77
r r
Now, a b

r
= a

r
+ b

= (7)2 + (11)2 2 7 11

= 49 + 121 2 65
= 170 130 = 40
r r
a b = 40 = 2 10

Option (d) is correct.

73. (a)

r
2 a

r
b cos q

65
77

a, b and g be distinct real numbers


a $i + b $j + g k$
b $i + g $j + a k$
g $i + a $j + b k$
r r
r
a, b and c are collinear

If a = a, b = b, c = g
Hence, the option (a) is correct.

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

(Q a = i + j + k)

29
74. (c)

75. (c)

According to statements (1) and (2),


r r r r
when a + b + c = 0, then both statements are correct.
r r r r r r
r r
r
If a b = b c = c a = 0, then a, b and c are
collinear.
Therefore, option (c) is correct.

From Statement -2

r r
r r
If a + b = a b

Now equating

r r r r
r
We know that when a + b a b = 0, then a is
r
perpendicular to b.
rr rr rr rr
= a.a a.b + b.a b.b = 0
r
r
a is perpendicular to b
Option (c) is correct.

\
76. (a)

)(

2
G(x) = 25 x

y=

dy 1 x x
= [e e ]
dx 2

ex + ex = 0
\
\
\
\
\
78. (c)

G ( x ) G (1)

lim

25 x 2 24
x 1

x 1

3
2
1
1
2

( form)

Applying LHospital rule,

( 2x )

lim

x 1

2 25 x

2
2 25 x 2
\
79. (c)

=
=
2 24
24 2 6
\ Option (a) is correct.
For (77-79)
77. (c) From statement -1
=

y=
\

dy 1 x
= [e e x ]
dx 2

\
\
\
\
\

e x + e x
2

Now equating

dy
to zero we get,
dx

e e =0
ex = ex
ex

=1

e
2x
e =1
2x = 0
x= 0
The given function is increasing on interval [0, ]
x

x
|x|

x
domain f (x) = | x | range

x 1

lim

dy
to zero, we get.
dx

=0
ex
e2x + 1 = 0
e2x = 1
Hence, the given function is increacing from [ , ]
Both statement are correct
Option (c) is correct.
For a non-zero real number x

ex +

f (x) =

Now,
x 1

e x e x
2

80. (b)

1
+1

Here we can not take


value of x as zero as
(x) is non zero real number

for any value of x in domain a set consisting of two


elements i.e. ( 1, + 1)
Option (c) is correct.
From statement-1
From the definition of greatest integer function
f (x) = [x] is discontinuous at x = n for any value of nZ
Statement1 is correct
From statement-2
f (x) = cot x
for x = p = cot p =
for x = 2p
f (2p) = cot 2p =
Hence the function f (x) = cot x is discontinuous at
x = np where nZ.
Option (c) is correct.
1 + x 2 1
and u = tan 1 x
Let y = tan 1

Put x = tan q q = tan1 x


1 + tan 2 q 1

Then, y = tan 1

tan q

1 sec q 1
tan
=
tan q

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

30
lim f ( x ) = lim f ( x )

1 sec q 1
1 cos q
= tan
= tan sin q

tan q
cos q

= tan

2 sin 2
cos q
1
2

= tan
q
sin
q

2 sin , cos

1 1

a(1) + b = 1
a=1b=1+1
a = 2.

Q 1 cos q = 2 sin 2 and

x
x

sin x = 2 sin cos

2
2
1
= tan tan

y=

\
81. (b)

83. (a)

85. (b)

Given that,

dx

1
1
cosec ( x + a ) dx = ln

r
r

a = r sin a a2 = r2 sin2 a
b = r cos a b2 = r2 cos2 a
Adding (i) and (ii), we get
r2 = a2 + b2

[Q q = tan1 x]

dy 1
=
du 2
Option (b) is correct.

x + a
ln tan
2

r sin a cos x + r cos a sin x = r sin (x + a)


=

u
2

dx

a cos x + b sin x = r

Let a = r sin a, b = r cos a

86. (a)

r=

x + a
tan 2

... (i)
... (ii)

a 2 + b2 .

a = r sin a
b = r cos a
Dividing (i) from (ii),

... (i)
... (ii)

a
= tan a
b

For (82-83):
,
x0
1

F(x) = ax + b , 0 < x < 1


1
,
x 1

At x = 0,
L.H.L. = R.H.L.

a
a = tan1 .
b

87. (b)

lim f ( x ) = lim f ( x )

1 = lim (ax + b)
x0

1 = b
Since the given function is also continuous at x = 1
L.H.L. = R.H.L.
lim f ( x ) = lim f ( x )
x 1+

x 1

Given f(x) =

a+b=1
a1=1
a = 1 + 1 = 2.

x2 + 1
In order to find the value of x, where f(x) is maximum

d
d
x 2 + 1)
x 2 1) ( x 2 1)
x 2 + 1)
(
(
(
dx
dx
f (x ) =
2
(x 2 + 1)
x 2 + 1) ( 2x ) ( x 2 1) (2x )
(
f (x ) =
2
(x 2 + 1)

Function is continuous at x = 0

2x x 2 + 1 x 2 + 1

lim f ( x ) = lim f ( x )

x 0

x 0+

1 = a(0) + b b = 1
Now, f(x) is also continuous at x = 1

x2 1

or minimum; equation f (x ) equal to zero.

x 0+

x 0

82. (d)

From solution 82, b = 1.

84. (c)

q
2

q
tan 1 x
y= y=
2
2

x 1+

x 1

f (x ) =

(x2 + 1)

2x [ 2 ]

(x 2 + 1)

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

31

\
\
88. (c)
\
\
\

89. (a)

Now equating f (x ) to zero, we get


4x = 0
x= 0
Hence, f (x) attain minimum value at x = 0
Option (b) is correct.

p
Also, f = 3
2
Since, f(x) is continuous at x =

1
f (0) =
= 1
1
minimum value of f(x) is 1
Option (c) is correct.
a cos x
p 2x
f (x) =
3

if
if

L.H.L. =

Put x =

lim

p
x
2

p
2
a cos x
p 2x

f(x) = lim

p
x
2

p
p
h where x , then h 0
2
2

2 a sin h a
sin h
=
lim
2h
2 h0 h

a
a
. 1=
=
2
2

and R.H.L. =

sin q
Q lim q = 1
q0

lim
x

Put x =

p
2

f(x)

lim
x

p
2

a cos x
p 2p

p
p
+ h when x , then h 0
2
2

a cos + h
a ( sin h )
2

R.H.L. = lim
= lim
h0
p
h 0 p p 2h
p 2 + h
2

= lim
h0

a sin h
2h

p
L.H.L. = R.H.L. = f
2

x=

90. (d)

\
91. (c)

Q cos 2 + q = sin q

p
.
2

lim f (x ) =

x0

a (cos 0 )
p 2 (0 )

a cos x
p 2x

6
p

Option (d) is correct.

( )

Mean X = 4
Variance (X) = 2
Number of observations = 10
New average =

Q cos 2 q = sin q

h0

p
2

a a
= =3
2 2
a=6
Hence, for a = 6, the given function (f) is continuous at

p
x
2
p
x=
2

a cos h
2

a sin h
= lim
L.H.L. = lim
h0
p
h 0 p p + 2h
p 2 h
2

= lim

sin q
= 1
Q qlim

0 q

a
sin h a
=
lim
2 h0 h
2

f (x) is minimum at x = 0

For continuity at x =

\
92. (b)
\
93. (a)
94. (a)

\
95. (a)

\
96. (a)

(4 10) 2

=8
10
New variance = (2)2 Variance (X)
=4 2=8
Option (c) is correct.
Geometric mean is used in construction of
index numbers.
option (b) is correct.
Regression coefficients measures the degree of linear
relationship between two variables and does not give
the value by which one variable changes for a unit
change in the other variable.
option (a) is correct.
The annual numerical data for comparable for last 12
years is represented by broken line graph, where each
turning point represent the data of a particular year,
while such graph do not depict the chronological
change.
Option (a) is correct.

( ) ( )

P = P(E1) P E 2 + P E1 P(E2)

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

32

\
97. (b)

1
+ 1
3

1
2

1 2 1 1
+
2 3 2 3

( )

P A =

\
\
103. (a)

1 1 1
= + =
3 6 2
Option (a) is correct.
2

98. (d)

11

2 3

1 1
P = 5C2 + 5C3
2 2

\
104. (c)
3

1 1

2
2
4

3 1 1 9 4+3 8 2
=
+ =
=
4 3 4
12
12 3
Option (b) is correct.
The less than ogive curve and the more than ogive
curve intersect at median.
Option (a) is correct.
n(S) = 6 6 = 36
P(B) =

1 1
1 1
+ 5C4 + 5C5
2 2
2 2

= 2 [10 + 10 + 5 + 1]
3

1
13
= 2 26 = .
16
3

\
102. (b)

4
4
4
4
4
4

1,6
2, 6
3, 6
4, 6
5, 6
6, 6

1, 5
2, 5
3, 5
4, 5
5, 5
6, 5

Required number of exhausistance events


= (6 1) (6 1) = 5 5 = 25
Option (c) is correct.
4
C
4
1
=
P(A) = 52 1 =
C1 52 13

Required probability =

1
1
1

=
13 17 221

x2 + y2 = 4 and x = 3y
P

n=4

1
C0 =
2

1,
2,
3,
4,
5,
6,

\ Option (b) is correct.


For (106-107)

1
n =2
2

1, 3
2, 3
3, 3
4, 3
5, 3
6, 3

3
C1
3
1
P(B/A) = 51 = =
51
17
C1

1 1
P=1 =
2 2

nP = 2
n Pq = 1
1
2
P+q=1

101. (d)
\

105. (b)

q=

1, 2
2, 2
3, 2
4, 2
5, 2
6, 2

1,1
2, 1
3,1
4,1
5,1
6,1

1 5
5
5
5
= C2 + C3 + C4 + C5
2

99. (c)
100. (b)

1
2
, P(A) =
3
3

40

3
4

1
P(A B) =
4

3, 1 = First quadrant

1
.
16

Mean of 5 numbers = 30
Total sum of 5 numbers = 30 5 = 150
After excluded one number
Mean of 4 numbers will be = 28
Total sum of 4 numbers = 4 28 = 112
Thus, excluded number
= (sum of 5 numbers sum of 4 numbers)
= 150 112 = 38
Option (d) is correct.
P(A B) =

2=

+y

x = 3y

(0, 0)

B
3,0

3, 1
(2, 0)
X
A

Y
The point of intersection of the line and the circle in the first
quadrant is ( 3,1).

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

33
Area of D OPA = Area of D OPB + Area PAB

f (x ) = 3x3 3x2 18x

1
1
3
= OB PB = 3 1 =
2
2
2

Now, f (x ) = 9x2 6x 18
For x = 2,

f ( 2) = 9(2)2 6(2) 18
= 36 + 12 18 = 48 18
= 30 > 0
For x = 3,

Area of PAB y dx
3

x
2
2 4
1 x
4 x dx = 2 4 x + 2 sin 2 3
3

p
3
3
[ 4 3] 2sin 1
2

2
2 2

=p

3 2p p
3

=
2
3 3 2

f (3) = 9(3)2 6(3) 18


= 81 36 = 45 > 0
Statement 1 is correct
From Statement 2:
+

2
0
3
The function increases in the interval (2, 0)
Option (c) is correct.

106. (a)
107. (a)

Area enclosed by x-axis, the line = 3y , and the circle


x2 + y2 = 4 in the first quadrant

112. (b)

3 p
3 p
+
=
2 3 2 3

a 1 t2
2
2
x +y =
1 + t2

a 2 1 t2

108. (a)

y = sin x

0
=

(1 + t 2 )
(

Area of shaded region =


= [sin x + cos x ]

(cos x sin x ) dx

p
4
0

1
+
=
(0 + 1)

2
2

=
109. (a)
110. (c)

\
\
111. (c)

2 1 sq. units.

f(x) = 0.75x4 x3 9x2 + 7


f(0) = 7
f(2) = 0.75(2)4 (2)3 9(2)2 + 7
= 2 + 8 36 + 7 = 9
f(3) = 0.75(3)4 (3)3 9(3)2 + 7
= 60.75 27 81 + 7 = 40.25
maximum value of f(x) is 7
Option (c) is correct.
From Statement 1:
Function attain local minima at x = 2 and x = 3
As we have,

\
113. (d)
\
\
\

114. (d)

2at
+

1 + t

4a 2 t 2

(1 + t 2 )

)
2
(1 + t 2 )

a 2 1 + t 4 2t 2 + 4a 2 t 2

y = cos x
p
4
0

) = a 2 (1 + t 2 )
2
2
(1 + t 2 )
(1 + t 2 )

a 2 1 + t 4 + 2t 2

= a2

Hence, the given equation represent a circle of


radius (a)
Option (b) is correct.
Here, x2 + y2 = a2
2x + 2y

dy
=0
dx

dy 2x
x
=
=
dx 2y
y
Option (d) is correct.
d2 y
dx 2

d
dy
( x ) ( x )
dx
dx
2
y

dy y + x x
y
dx =
y2
y2

y + x

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

34

=
\
115. (c)

y2 x 2
y3

x 2 + y2
y3

) = a2

y3

Option (d) is correct.

Statement 1:
dy
The general solution of
= f(x) + x
dx
Now integrating on both side
dy

Im =

I1 =

p sin

p 2 sin x cos x
2x
dx =
dx
0
sin x
sin x

\
118. (d)

2
dy
= (f ( x ) + c )
dx

= 2(0) = 0
Option (a) is correct.
I2 =

p sin

p 2 sin 2x cos 2x
4x
dx =
dx
0
sin x
sin x

= 2

p 2 sin

x cos x cos 2x
dx
sin x

116. (a)

2 mx
dx
sin x

= 2 cos x dx = 2 [sin x ] 0 = 2 [sin p sin 0 ]

y = f(x) + C
Statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2:
dy
= f(x) + c
dx
Squaring both sides,

\
\

p sin

117. (a)

dx = f ( x ) + x dx
\
\

x + x2 + a 2
+c
= ln

Option (a) is correct.

dy
2
= f (x ) + 2c f ( x ) + c2

dx

2
= 4 cos x 1 2 sin x dx

Hence, the differential equation is of order 1 and


degree 2.
both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Option (c) is correct.

2
= 4 cos x dx 8 cos x sin x dx = 0

x +a

I3 =

Let x = a tan u
dx = a sec2 u du
=

=a

a 2 + tan 2 u + a 2

sec 2 u du
2

a 1 + tan u

a
a

sec2 u du
sec u

sec2 u du
sec u = sec u du

= ln[tan (u) + sec (u)] + c

Q sec x dx = tan x

6x
dx
sin x

p 2 3 sin

x 4 sin 3 x cos 3x

dx
sin x

0 2 (3 4 sin

0 6 cos 3x dx 0 8 sin

6 sin 3x p
1 p
8 sin x (sin 4x sin 2x ) dx

0
3
2 0

=6
=

x
x2
+ 1+ 2 + c
= ln
a2
a

a2 + x2
x
+c
= ln +
a
a

p sin

a sec2 u du

Let sin x = t
cos x dx = dt
= 4(sin p sin 0) 0 = 0

dx

x cos 3x dx
p

x cos 3x dx

8 p
(sin x sin 4x sin x sin 2x ) dx
2 0

8 1
2 2

0 cos 3x cos 5x cos x + cos 3x dx


p

2 sin 3x sin 5x

sin x = 0
= 2
5
3
0

Hence, I2 + I3 = 0 + 0 = 0
Option (d) is correct.

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

35
119. (a)

19.

2mx
dx
sin x

p sin

2m ( p x )

p sin

(2mp 2mx )

Im =

p sin

sin ( p x )

20.
21.

dx

sin x

22.
dx

sin 2mx
dx
sin x

Im =

p sin

2mx
dx
sin x

23.
24.
25.
26.

2Im = 0 Im = 0.
120. (a)

I2m > Im is wrong statement


Because, Im = Im 1 = ..... = In
Thus,
Im Im 1 = 0 is the only correct statement.
Option (a) is correct.

27.

GENERAL ABILITY

30.

28.
29.

PART- A: ENGLISH
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.

(a) Unless you stop making noise at once I will have no


option but to bring the matter to the attention of the
police.
(b) Instead of shed it should be shedding.
(c) Whether the principles he stood for or the benefits .....
(b) Later half of the nineteenth century.
(b) No sooner did I open the door than the rain, heavy and
stormy, rushed in making us shiver from head to foot.
(b) After opening the door we entered the room next to the
kitchen.
(b) When the dentist came in my tooth stopped aching
out of fear that I might lose my tooth.
(b) Emphasis on equality of life ensures the health and
happiness of every individual.
(b) The students were awaiting the arrival of the chief guest.
(c) You will come to my party, won't you?
(c) Having read a number of stories about space travel he
now dreams of visiting the moon.
(a) The meeting was abruptly adjourned by the Chairman
after about three hours of deliberation.
(c) Not one of the hundreds of striking workers was
allowed to go near the factory.
(c) If I had known this earlier I would have helped him.
(a) Mr.Smith was accused of murder but the court found
him not guilty and acquitted him.
(b) Although India is still by and large a poor country, it
can become rich if its natural and human resources are
fully utilised.
(c) The more they earn, the more they spend.
(b) But in all these cases conversion from one scale to
another is easy because scales are well-formulated.

31.

32.

33.

34.
35.

(b) Five years ago on this date, I sat in a small Japanese


car, driving across Poland towards Berlin.
(b) The old man felled some trees in the garden with hardly
any effort at all.
(c) She says she's already paid me back, but I can't
remember, so I 'll have to take her word for it.
(a) The workers are hell bent on getting what is due to
them.
(d) You are warned against committing the same mistake
again.
(c) While we would like all Indian children to go to school,
we need to ponder why they do not.
(b) For these reasons we are all in favour of universal
compulsory education.
(b) When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and
gain their freedom from serfdom, the protestant leaders
joined the princes in crushing them.
(d) In India today many of our intellectuals still talk in
terms of the French Revolution and the Rights of Man,
not appreciating that much has happened since then.
(a) Taxpayers have to be conscious of their privileges.
(a) I would have waited for you at the station if I had
known that you would come.
(b) No one could explain how a calm and balanced person
like him could perpetrate such a mindless act on his
friends.
(d) The correct sequence is QSPR. The sentence S1 tells
us about a small glass tube. The next sentence should
be a description about the tube and hence Q. Now S
should come next because it gives the introduction of
the color change followed by Sentence P. Sentence S6
is in sync with Sentence R because they tell what will
happen if the line is crossed. Thus R should come
before S6.
(c) The correct sequence is RSQP. The sentence S1
describes how hope springs eternally in the heart of
man. The next sentence should be R because it
describes the elements of hope and how they are
nursed by nature. Thus the next sentence should be S
which describes the nature and ideal of hope. The
following sentence should be Q because it describes
love, friendship and youth perish and is in continuation
of S. The next sentence should be its continuity that all
these perish but hope remains and hence P. It is in
continuation of S6.
(b) The correct sequence is RPSQ. The sentence S1
describes that Mr. Sherlock Holmes and Dr. Watson
are spending a weekend in University town. The next
sentence should be R because it is in continuation of
S1 and describes where they are staying. The next
sentence should be P because it describes the event
that they get visited by Mr. Soames. Next sentence
should be S because it describes Mr. Soames. The next
sentence should be Q because it describes his state of
mind and is in continuation of the S6 sentence.
(c)
(c) The correct sequence is QRPS. The sentence S1 talks
about how our body never stops. The next sentence

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

36

36.

37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.

(c)

(b)
(a).
(c)
(b)
(b)
(a)
(a)

44.

(c)

45.
46.

(c)
(c)

47.

(a)

48.

(c)

49.

(b)

50.

(c)

should be Q because it describes that the body is


continuously moving. The next sentence should be R
because it describes that even while we are sleeping
our body moves when we breathe. Following this
sentence should be P which tells that fuel is needed for
all these activities. Sentence S and S6 are in sync and
continuation.
The correct sequence is RPQS. The sentence S1 talks
about the American idealism. The next sentence should
be a continuation of the same describing the American
idealism and hence R. The next sentence should be in
continuance and thus P because it describes the
idealism of American. The next sentence should be Q.
Sentence S and S6 are in sync and continuation.
Occurred is the most appropriate word.
Followed is the most appropriate word.
Evidence is the most appropriate word.
Sound is the most appropriate word.
down is the most appropriate word.
With is the most appropriate word.
Fired means dismiss (an employee) from a job. Its
synonym is relived from the job. Rebuke and scolded
means express sharp disapproval or criticism of
(someone) because of their behaviour or actions.
Attacked means criticize.
Obliterate means destroy utterly; wipe out. Its synonym
is erase. Demolish means to destroy( it is used generally
for buildings). Extinguish means to wipe out.
Ineffable means too great for words.
Edifying means providing moral or intellectual
instruction. Therefore its synonym is instructive.
Tedious means monotonous. Exciting means appealing.
Shabbily means showing signs of wear and tear;
threadbare or worn-out. Its antonym is decently
dressed meaning appropriately. Extravagant means
indulgent and scantily means hardly dressed.
Urbane means courteous and refined in manner,
civilised. Its antonym is rude meaning uncivilised and
disrespectful. Foolish means stupid. Slow means dumb.
Thrifty means economical. Its antonym is extravagant
meaning indulgent and wasteful. Expensive means
costly. Good means fine.
Pride means consciousness of one's own dignity. Its
antonym is humility meaning humbleness. Lowliness
means bashfulness, submission means compliance and
obedience means good behaviour.

53.

(a)

54.
55.

(c)
(c)

56.

(a)

57.
58.

59.

52.

(b) Complete fertilisers are usually defined as fertilizers


containing all three macronutrients: nitrogen,
phosphorus and potassium (N, P, K)
(a) Commercial black powder looks black because the little
lumps of the stuff are coated with graphite. In the
manufacturing process, the powder's mixed with water
or some other liquid binder, pressed into cakes and
dried, then crushed and screened into powders of
various particle size, larger particles producing a slower
burn. The graphite serves no chemical purpose, but it

h
gheight = g / 1+ .
R
Hence body weighs less on hill top than on earth's
surface.
(a) An increased surface area means that more liquid will
be exposed to air at one time, and therefore, more water
can evaporate in a given time period.
(a) Diffuse reflection is the reflection of light from a rough
surface such that an incident rays are reflected at many
angles rather than at just one angle. In diffused
reflection reflect rays are not parallel but obey laws of
reflection
(a) Given : Frequency, f = 3 105HZ
Speed of sound in medium = 10 Vair
= 10 300 = 3000 m/s
As we know, V = f l
3000
= 102 m = 102 100 = 1cm
3 105
(*) If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent,
mass remaining the same, the value of g will increase
by 2%.

or, l = V/f =

60.

g=

GM
R2

If mass remains constant, then g

PART- B: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE


51.

lubricates the particles, and also makes the bulk powder


electrically conductive enough that it is unlikely to
initiate proceedings unexpectedly because of a staticelectricity spark.
NO2 exists in equilibrium with the colourless gas
dinitrogen tetroxide
(N2O4). At higher temperature NO2 is favoured while at
low temperature N2O4 predominates.
The refractive index of diamond is very high (2.417) .
Heating a mixture of potassium chlorate and manganese
dioxide produces oxygen gas and manganese dioxide
acts as a positive catalyst.
Mass is an invariant quantity. Acceleration due to
gravity (g) decreases with altitude as one rises above
the Earth's surface because greater altitude means
greater distance from the Earth's centre.
Weight , w = mass (m) acc. due to gravity (g)

61.
62.
63.

R2
% increase in g = 2 (% decrease in R)
= 2 1% = 2%
Therefore value of g will increase by 2%.
(c) Constant force means constant acceleration.
Now s = ut +1/2 at2.
It represents a parabola.
(d) Surface tension is the elastic tendency of liquids which
makes them acquire the least surface area possible. (a)
(b) and (c) are due to surface tension.
(b) Sodium hydroxide is an alkali hydroxide. Calcium oxide
is a base. Acetic acid is a weak acid and hydrochloric
acid is a strong acid.

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

37
64. (c) Ratnagiri Bauxite mines are located in Maharashtra.
65. (b) Kamptee is a city and a municipal council in Nagpur
district in the Indian state of Maharashtra. Rajahmundry
is one of the major cities in the Indian state of Andhra
Pradesh. Shahdol is a city in Shahdol district in the
Indian state of Madhya Pradesh. Belagola is a village
in the southern state of Karnataka, India.
66. (b) Telangana is bordered by the states of Maharashtra,
Chhattisgarh to the north, Karnataka to the west, and
Andhra Pradesh to the south, east and north east.
67. (a) Metabolism refers to all the physical and chemical
processes in the body that convert or use energy, such
as breathing, circulating blood, controlling body
temperature, food digestion etc.
68. (d) The basic types of molecules are carbohydrates, lipids,
proteins and nucleic acids.
69. (c) If the charged particle is moving along the magnetic
field parallel or antiparallel to the magnetic fieldthen
there would be no force on it as F = qv B sin q
70. (d) Once the light enters the end of the tube or fibre, it
experiences total internal reflection because of the large
angle of incidence.
71. (b) As the swing rises, its kinetic energy changes to
potential energy; as with height potential energy
P.E. = mgh increases. And according to law of
conservation of energy total energy E = K.E + P. E
constant.
72. (b) Gunpowder is a mixture of sulfur, charcoal, and
potassium nitrate (saltpeter).
73. (a) A spherical aggregate of soap molecules in the soap
solution in water is called micelle. When soap is
dissolved in water, it forms a colloidal suspension in
which the soap molecules cluster together to form
spherical micelles.
74. (c) Fixation is commonly achieved by treating the film or
paper with a solution of thiosulfatesalt. Popular salts
are sodium thiosulfate-commonly called hypo-and
ammonium thiosulfatecommonly used in modern rapid
fixer formulae.
75. (b) The condition exists because warm moist air rises by
orographic lifting to the top of a mountain range. As
atmospheric pressure decreases with increasing
altitude, the air has expanded and adiabatically cooled
to the point that the air reaches its adiabatic dew point.
At the adiabatic dew point, moisture condenses onto
the mountain and it precipitates on the top and
windward sides of the mountain.
76. (c) Jabalpur is the place of commercial automobiles.
Bangalore is the IT hub. Mathura is famous for its petrochemical industries. Ballarpur has paper industries.
77. (b) The total length of the canal along with its
distributaries is 3,200 km and it irrigates about 4 lakh
hectares in Ambala, Kurukshetra, Kamal, Panipat,
Rohtak, Hissar, Sirsa, Faridabad and Jind districts. It's
important branches are, the Delhi, the Hansi and the
Sirsa branch.
78. (d) Cells are the smallest unit of life that can replicate
independently, and are often called the building blocks
of life

79. (b) In photosynthesis, oxygen is also released as a waste


product.
80. (a) Large distance is measured in light year. Amount of a
material is measured by mole. Amount of electrical
charge is measured in coulomb. Energy is measured in
watt hour.
81. (c) As we know refractive index

m=

82. (b)
83. (d)
84.

(c)

85. (d)

86. (b)

87. (a)

88. (a)

89. (b)
90. (d)
91. (a)
92. (c)
93. (a)

velocityof light in vaccum . The velocity of light


velocityof light in medium

decreases as the ray passes from a rarer to a denser


medium.
When the object is located between F and optical
centre, the image produced is virtual and magnified.
Graphite contain free electrons in their structures and
is thus a good conductor of electricity.
Sodium carbonate is also known as washing soda, soda
ash and soda crystals.
In terms of percentage of forest cover with respect to
total geographical area, Mizoram with 90.38 percent
had the highest forest cover in terms of percentage of
forest cover to Geographical area
The Chandra Prabha Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in
the eastern region of Uttar Pradesh. Silent Valley
National Park is in Kerala. Valley of flowers is in
Uttarakhand. Indravati National Park is the finest and
most famous wildlife parks of Chhattisgarh.
In astronomy, axial tilt (also called obliquity) is the angle
between an object's rotational axis and the
perpendicular to its Orbital plane, both oriented by the
right hand rule. At an obliquity of 0, these lines point
in the same direction i.e. the rotational axis is
perpendicular to the orbital plane. Axial tilt differs from
inclination. Over the course of an orbit, the angle of
the axial tilt does not change, and the orientation of the
axis remains the same relative to the background stars.
This causes one pole to be directed toward the Sun on
one side of the orbit, and the other pole on the other
side, the cause of the seasons on the Earth.
The gametophyte is the multi-cellular structure (plant)
that is haploid, containing a single set of chromosomes
in each cell. The gametophyte produces male or female
gametes (or both) by a process of cell division called
mitosis.
Seeds are the package of food. It contains embryo and
is covered with a coat.
Pressure, P= F/A; P' = F/A/2 = 2F/A; P' = 2P
Latent heat is the energy absorbed or released at
constant temperature per unit mass for change of state.
As you descend, water pressure increases, and the
volume of air in your body decreases. This can cause
problems such as sinus pain or a ruptured ear drum.
All materials are made up of negatively- and positivelycharged particles. These usually exist in equal amounts,
balancing each other out. But when two materials come
into contact, one may 'steal' negatively-charged
electrons from the other. One material ends up with
more negative charges than positive ones, meaning

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

38

94.

95.
96.

that it becomes negatively-charged overall, whilst the


other becomes positively-charged. If the charges
cannot move away as they are produced, they
accumulate in the material as static charge, or electricity.
Once you have built up a big enough static charge, an
electric shock is almost inevitable. The moment you
touch a conducting material such as metal, the excess
electrons jump between your hand and the conductor,
giving you a shock.
(c) Mercury in a glass flask is a good example of the effects
of the ratio between cohesive and adhesive forces.
Because of its high cohesion and low adhesion to the
glass, mercury does not spread out to cover the top of
the flask, and if enough is placed in the flask to cover
the bottom, it exhibits a strongly convex meniscus,
whereas the meniscus of water is concave. Mercury
will not wet the glass, unlike water and many other
liquids, and if the glass is tipped, it will 'roll' around
inside.
(b) Permanent hardness of water is usually caused by the
presence of calcium sulfate and/or magnesium sulfates
in the water.
(d) 'C' acts as a reducing agent in this reaction. A reducing
agent is a substance that loses electrons, making it
possible for another substance to gain electrons and
be reduced. The oxidized substance is always the
reducing agent.

Reduction
+2

ZnO + C
97.

98.
99.
100.

101.
102.

103.

+2

Zn + CO

Oxidation
(c) In organic farming, weed and pest control is based on
methods like crop rotation, biological diversity, natural
predators, organic manures and suitable chemical,
thermal and biological intervention.
(c) Yakuts are the nomadic reindeer herder of Tundra.
(b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
(b) What makes humid tropical forests so productive is
the combination of high temperatures, light, and rainfall
year-round (good growing conditions) coupled with
especially efficient nutrient recycling.
(d) Thyroid gland requires iodine to produce its hormone.
(d) A nerve is an enclosed, cable-like bundle of axons (the
long, slender projections of neurons) in the peripheral
nervous system. Neurons are sometimes called nerve
cells, though this term is potentially misleading since
many neurons do not form nerves, and nerves also
include non-neuronal Schwann cells that coat the axons
in myelin. Finally, the entire nerve is wrapped in a layer
of connective tissue called the epineurium.
(c) Conductivity (s) is the reciprocal of resistivity.
i.e., s =

1
r

104. (d) Compact Fluorescent Lamp is the energy saving lamp,


designed to reduce the electric power consumption.

105. (c) From trigonometry tan 30 =


\

height of free AB
BC

Height of tree, AB = tan 30BC =

1
3

17.3

= 10 cm
Sun
A

Tree

30
17.3m

106. (b) A greenhouse gas (sometimes abbreviated GHG) is a


gas in an atmosphere that absorbs and emits radiation
within the thermal infrared range. This process is the
fundamental cause of the greenhouse effect. The
primary greenhouse gases in the Earth's atmosphere
are water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous
oxide, and ozone.
107. (*)
108. (c) Selva is dense equatorial forest, in the Amazon basin,
characterized by tall broad-leaved evergreen trees,
epiphytes, lianas, etc Taiga also known as boreal forest
or snowforest, is a biome characterized by coniferous
forests consisting mostly of pines, spruces and larches.
In Tundra, the vegetation is composed of dwarf shrubs,
sedges and grasses, mosses, and lichens. A Savannah
or Savannah is a grassland ecosystem characterised
by the trees being sufficiently widely spaced so that
the canopy does not close.
109. (b) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
110. (a) A rapid fall of barometer reading means stormy
conditions.
111. (a) Maldives consists of 1,192 coral islands. The island of
Mauritius is relatively young geologically, having been
created by volcanic activity some 8 million years ago.
Madagascar is a special type of continental island is
the microcontinental island, which results when a
continent is rifted.
112. (d)
113. (c) Cirrus is a genus of atmospheric cloud generally
characterized by thin, wispy strands. Stratus clouds
are a genus of low-level cloud characterized by
horizontal layering with a uniform base, as opposed to
convective or cumuliform clouds that are formed by
rising thermals. nimbus indicates a precipitating cloud.
Cumulus clouds, being low-stage clouds, are generally
less than 1,000 m (3,300 ft) in altitude unless they are
the more vertical cumulus congestus form. Cumulus
clouds may appear by themselves, in lines, or in clusters.
114. (c) Demographic transition (DT) refers to the transition
from high birth and death rates to low birth and death
rates as a country develops from a pre-industrial to an
industrialized economic system.

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

39
115. (a) The human body converts beta-carotene into vitamin
A (retinol) - beta-carotene is a precursor of vitamin A.
116. (c) In healthy adults, there are two normal heart sounds
often described as a lub and a dub (or dup) that occur
in sequence with each heartbeat. These are the first
heart sound (S1) and second heart sound (S2) produced
by the closing of the AV valves and semilunar valves,
respectively.
117. (a) Tiny molecules in our atmosphere cause light to scatter.
That's why our sky looks blue: it's because the
atmosphere scatters the bluish component of white
sunlight. And it's why the sun looks reddish when it's
near the horizon. Sunlight encounters more air molecules
when the sun is low in the sky than when the sun is
overhead. Even more blue light is scattered away,

118. (b)

119. (b)

120. (b)

121. (c)

122. (d)

123. (b)

124. (d)

1
leaving mostly the reddish scattering 4 component
l
of white sunlight to travel the straighter path to your
eyes. So the setting and rising sun looks red.
Among the three aluminium, copper and stainless steel
copper is the best conduction of heat. Thermal
conductivity (in W/m K) for copper, aluminium and
stainless steel is 385, 205 and 50.2 respectively.
This is because when we sweat, the liquid (sweat)
present on our body takes the heat equivalent to the
latent heat of vaporisation from our body and therefore
we feel cool.
Rm = Re /4 ; gm = ge /6
g = GM/R2
ge / gm = (Me/ Re2) / (Mm / Rm2)
ge / gm = (Me/ Mm) / (Rm/ Re)2
(Me/ Mm) = (ge / gm ) X (Re / Rm)2
= (6 gm/ gm) X (4 Rm / Rm)2
= 6 X 4 X 4 = 96 100
India scripted space history as the Indian Space
Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully inserted
its low-cost Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) spacecraft,
or Mangalyaan, into an orbit around the Red Planet in
its very first attempt.
The scientific goals of the mission focus on "elemental,
isotopic, molecular and mineralogical composition of
the cometary material, the characterization of physical
properties of the surface and subsurface material, the
large-scale structure and the magnetic and plasma
environment of the nucleus.
James Watson, one of the scientists credited with
discovering the structure of DNA, recently made
history when he became the first-ever living Nobel
laureate to put his prize medal up for auction. On Dec.
4, 2014 his little gold medal is sold for a record-breaking
$ 4.76 million.
The two countries have created the U.S.-China Clean
Energy Research Center, which facilitates collaborative
work in carbon capture and storage technologies,
energy efficiency in buildings, and clean vehicles. It

125. (b)

126. (d)

127. (c)

128. (b)
129. (c)

130. (c)

131. (b)

132. (d)

133. (a)
134. (c)

135. (b)

136. (d)
137. (d)

includes continued funding for three existing tracks


on building efficiency, clean vehicles and advanced
coal technology and launching a new track on the
energy-water nexus.
The Late, Great Planet Earth is a religious book of
Christianity. Silent Spring is an environmental science
book written by Rachel Carson. Here I stand has been
described as part manifesto, part autobiography of
writer Paul Robeson. And then One day is the
autobiography of Naseerudin Shah.
Vijay Hazare died in December 2004 following prolonged
illness caused by intestinal cancer. Wasim Raja died of
a heart attack in Marlow, Buckinghamshire, England in
August 2006 while playing cricket for the Surrey over50s side. Phillip Hughes died because of sport-related
blunt cerebro-vascular injury during the match at the
Sydney Cricket Ground on 25 November 2014. Raman
Lamba died after slipping into coma due to internal
haemorrhage, three days after being hit on the temple
by a cricket ball while fielding in Bangladesh's league
cricket.
Russian film Leviathan won the prestigious Golden
Peacock Award for the best film at the 45th International
Film Festival Of India.
Boyhood, wins the Best Motion Picture Drama award
at the 72nd Golden Globe Awards.
East Zone won the Deodhar Cricket tournament after
beating the defending champions West Zone in the
final by 24 runs.
Richard Flanagan on 14 October 2014 was announced
as the winner of the 2014 Man Booker Prize for Fiction
for The Narrow Road to the Deep North, published by
Chatto & Windus.
The Second Plan was particularly in the development
of the public sector. The plan followed the Mahalanobis
model, an economic development model developed by
the Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis
in 1953.
Kenoyer has suggested that state control may have
been responsible for high level of standardisation in
crafts that were considered to have a value in
maintaining the socio-economic or ritual order and
which used non-local raw materials and highly complex
technologies.
The statements 1 and 4 are correct.
The First Buddhist council immediately following the
death of the Buddha and the Second Buddhist council
in the reign of Ashoka occurred in Patliputra and
Rajgira. The Second Buddhist Council occurred in
Vaisali.
Makkhali Gosala (Pali; Sanskrit Gosala Maskariputra,
c. 484 BCE) as the founder of the Ajivika sect; other
sources state that Gosala was only a leader of a large
Ajivika congregation of ascetics, but not the founder
of the movement himself.
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
The statements (1) and (3) are correct.

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

40
138. (b) James Hargreaves spinning jenny was invented in 1764.
John Kay's flying shuttle was invented in 1733. Samuel
Crompton's mule was invented in 1779. Richard
Awkwart's water frame was patented in 1769.
139. (a) Motilal Nehru narrated his experiences in the Soviet
Union and condemned anti-soviet propaganda. He
described the Public Safety Bill as' a direct attack on
the Indian nationalism, on Indian National Congress'
and as ' Slavery of India, Bill No.1".
140. (b) Lord Dufferin initially called Congress as representative
of "microscopic minority of India" but later in the fourth
session of Allahabad, the Government servants were
disallowed to take part in the proceedings of the
Congress.
141. (d) Kakori Revolution was a train robbery plan executed
by Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, Rajendra
Lahiri, Chandrashekhar Azad, Sachindra Bakshi,
Keshab Chakravarty, Manmathnath Gupta,Murari
Sharma (fake name of Murari Lal Gupta) Mukundi Lal
(Mukundi Lal Gupta) and Banwari Lal. Roshan Singh
had not taken part in the Kakori conspiracy, yet he was
arrested and confined to capital punishment of death
sentence by the then British Government.
142. (c) The seven fundamental rights are Right to equality,
Right to freedom, Right against exploitation, Right to

143. (a)

144. (b)

145. (a)

146. (d)

147. (a)
148. (d)

149. (d)
150. (c)

freedom of religion, Cultural and Educational rights,


Right to constitutional remedies and Right to life.
Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule is a book written by
Mohandas K. Gandhi in 1909. In the book Gandhi gives
a diagnosis for the problems of humanity in modern
times, the causes, and his remedy .
The Seventh Schedule is given under Article 246 and
includesThe union (central government) state, and
concurrent lists of responsibilities.
On 18 April 1951, Vinoba Bhave started his land donation
movement at Pochampally of nalgonda district
Telangana, the Bhoodan Movement.
Acharya Vinoba Bhave, Jaya Prakash Narayan, Dada
Dharmadhikari, Dhirendra Mazumdaar, Shankarrao Deo,
K. G. Mashruwala were active members of the Sarvodaya
movement.
The Article 368 deals with power of Parliament to amend
the Constitution and its procedure.
The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend
any part of the Constitution is not a basic feature of
the Constitution of India.
To render compulsory military service is not a
fundamental duty of the Indian Citizens.
All of these are correct.

Buy books : http://www.dishapublication.com/entrance-exams-books/upsc-exams/nda-exams.html

S-ar putea să vă placă și