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Physiology semester II
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1. RBC general structure, which of the following is wrong

a. No enzymes
b. No mitochondria
c. No organels
d. A bag of Hb
e. Present a glycocalyx
f. Flexability increase with age
2. RBC numbers, which is correct
a. Surface 135 um^2
b. Volum 85um ^2
c. Size 7.8/2.5/1 um
d. Ht is 45 and grater in females
e. Correct count 5 mil in male 4 in female
f. In 1 liter of blood there 14-16g of Hb
g. 1 g of Hb combines with 1.39 ml of o2
h. In 2 years RBC count is > then 2/1cc
3. RBC metabolism
a. Mainly aerobic
b. Mainly anerobic
c. Glycolisis
d. Creb cycle
e. DPG decrease the affinity to O2
f. NADH + H increase the amount of metha-hemoglobin
g. Via the pentos phosphate pathway there is reduction of glutation
which increase the oxidation of sulfahydyl groups in the Hb
4. OCC checks
a. The amount of oxygen in the Hb
b. The amount of oxygen in the RBC
c. The amount of oxygen in the plasma
d. All of the above
e. None of the above.

5. Function of RBC
a. Carries the Hb
b. The protein acts as a boofer
c. The CO2 is transported as a free gas
d. CA buffer CO2 to a weak acid H2CO3

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6. Blood tests, erythrocyte indexes

a. MCV check the volume of the RBC and it is done by the ratio
between the Hc and the count
b. MCH checks the amount of Hb in the total blood and it done by
the ration of the Hb in one cell and the total count
c. MCHC is the ratio between MCV and MCH
d. In anemia MCV would always decrease
e. In anemia MCV would always increase
f. In anemia MCH would always decrease
g. In anemia MCH would always increase.
7. Blood test, others
a. Increase in WBC count is a sign for infection
b. Increase in platelets count my cause bleeding
c. decrease in platelets count my cause thrombus
d. decrease in platelets count my cause purpura.
8. hemoglobin types
a. in adult 2 alpha and 2 beta
b. in fetal 2 alpha and 2 delta HbF
c. in fetal 2 alpha and 2 gama HbF
d. 2.5 % of the Hb in adult is HbA2 meaning 2 alpha 2 delta
e. Hem is C-H-N propherin group with Fe in the periphery.
9. Hemoglobin synthesis
a. In the first step acetic acid changes into acetyl CoA
b. 2 succynyl CoA are combined with glycine to form pyrolle
c. 2 pyrolle are forming protoporphyrin
d. By adding Fe to protoprophyrin we are getting hemoglobin.
10.Hemoglobin function
a. The iron in the center is essential for its function
b. It changes its affinity due to the pressures of gasses in the tissue
c. It has a strong bluish color when it is bound to CO2
d. After the plasma it is the main component in the blood that
carries O2.

11.Iron circuit in the body

a. Apotranferin is the main glubin that absorbes iron
b. Most of the iron in the body is in the liver
c. There is no iron in the cells
d. In the cells iron is bound to hemosiderin
e. The total amount of Fe is 2-3g
f. The Fe has the ability to enter the erythroblast via the cell
membrane.
12.Iron profile
a. Most of the iron is free in the blood
b. In the blood it is bound to feretin
c. In the blood it is bound to transferin

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d. In average 80% of the transferin is saturated

13.Hemoglobin affinity
a. At sea level the O2 pressure is around 80mmHg
b. The curve is linear
c. In normal condition the saturation is around 90%
d. As O2 pressure increase the affinity will decrease
e. The saturation would never be grater then 100%.
14.2,3 DPG
a. Increase the affinity to O2
b. In HbA is bound to dexoyhemoglobin and increase the affinity to
oxygen
c. Have low affinity to HbF
d. High level would move the dissosation curve to the left.
15.O2 transport in the blood
a. 98% is in the plasma
b. Around 1 liter is in the blood
c. The body consume 500cc of oxygen when it rest
d. The ability to carry oxygen is a result of the Hb to bind oxygen
without being depended on the pressure.
16.CO2 transport
a. Most of the CO2 is transported in the form of bicarbonate
b. Carboxihemoglobin carry just 23% of CO2
c. CA is essential for the transport
d. In the capillary CO2 is converted into HCO3 and it release H to
the tissue
e. In the lung bicarbonate leave the RBC and Cl enters into it
17.Which of the following is part of the specific immune respond?
a. Monoctye
b. Macrophage
c. Neutrophils.
d. T lymphocyte
e. B lymphocyte.
f. Complement system.
g. Interpherons.
18.Which of the following is active in the blood?
a. Neutrophil
b. Easonphile
c. Mast cells
d. Basophile
e. Lymphctyes
f. Macrophage.
g. Moncyte.
h. Complement proteins
i. Interferons.
j. Plasma cells.
19.Phagocytosis.
a. Could be done by esnophils.
b. Faster in the presence of C3
c. Neutrophils are limited in the amount.

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d. After Monoctye become macrophage they are stable and cant

move.
e. May be stimulated by fever.
20.The 1st cell to respond in inflammation is:
a. Neutrophil
b. Easonphile
c. mast cell
d. basophile
e. lymphocyte.
f. macrophage.
21.Which of the following is singe of inflammation
a. Pain
b. Red color
c. Fever
d. All of the above
e. None of above.
22.The 1st cell that respond to infection is:
a. Lymphocyte
b. Netrophile
c. Mast cell
d. Macrophage.
e. Plasma cell.
23.Eosinophils:
a. Effective against parasites.
b. Suppress allergic response
c. Could phagocitize.
d. Produce MBP.
24.Which of the following is part of the innate immune response?
a. Inflammation
b. Tears
c. Granulocyte
d. Lymphocyte
e. Anti-bodies
f. Complement system.
25.Which of the following is a result of the complement system?
a. Inflammation
b. Oponization
c. Lysis
d. Activation of mast and basophils
e. Agglugation
f. Naturalization
g. Chemotaxis
h. All of the answers.
26.Active and passive immunity.
a. Passive immunity is gained artificially.
b. Active immunity is gained artificially.
c. Both immunities could be gained artificially.
d. Passive is related to AB while active is related to AG.
27.Lymphcyts
a. All of them have AB as surface receptors.
b. Just B lymphocyte have AB as surface receptors.
c. Just T lymphocyte have AB as surface receptors.
d. No AB as surface receptors.

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28.Which of the following is correct about AB?

a. IgE = allergy
b. IgG primary immune respond.
c. IgA in secretion outside of the body.
d. IgM primary immune respond.
29.T lymphocytes
a. Tc react just with MCHII
b. Th reacts with MHCII
c. RBC do not present MHCI
d. NK are effective against tumors and cells that infected from
viruses.
e. NK do not depend on MCH.
30.Which of the following is chemical signal in the immune system?
a. Interlukines
b. Lysosomes
c. Interpherone
d. MHC
e. Antibodies
f. Opsonines
g. Membrane attack complex.
h. Garynes .
i. Pyrogens.
31.Platelet structure.
a. Contain mitochondria and enzymes
b. The lipid membrane participate in the clotting process
32.Platelets granules
a. In the dense granules there are ATP, ADP and coagulation
factors
b. In alpha granules there are PDGF, FV, Ca and serotonin
c. In alpha granules there are PDGF, FV, fibrinogen and
glicoproteins
33.Primary homeostasis
a. occur in minutes
b. begins in platelets aggregation
c. has no connection to 2nd homeostasis
34.platelets receptors
a. iib/ia is the receptor for collagen
b. iib/ia is the receptor to vfw
c. ia/iia is the receptor to vfw
d. ia/iia is the receptor to fibrinogen
e. ic/iia is the receptor to laminin
35.platelet do not adheres when resting
a. due to the glycocalyx that give them a possitve charge
b. due to an enzyme cd39 that convert ATP to ADP
c. due to secretion of NO and prostacylin
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
36.platelet activation, which of the following my signal
a. VFW
b. Collagen
c. Serotonin
d. Adrenalin
e. Posphlipd
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f. Fibrinogen
g. Thrombin
37.Signaling event
a. Hydorlisis of the membrane
b. Decrease in the number of ATP
c. Decrease in the number of ADP
d. Influx of Ca +K
e. Activation of critical proteins
38.Signaling would cause
a. Formation of pseodopodias
b. De-granulation
c. High level of heparin
d. High level of ADP
e. High level of ATP
f. High level of Ca
g. High level of serotonin
h. High level of somostatin
i. Synthesis and release of TXAII
j. Release of some homeostatic factors (V, VFW, fibrinogen)
39.Platelet aggregation
a. Due to ADP, VFW, p2y12,
b. Due to fibrinogen bridges
c. Due to ic/iiia receptor
d. Due to iib/iiia receptor
40.Antiplatelet drugs
a. Acetylsalycilic (Aspirin) activates COX I and II
b. Thionperidine inhibit platelet ADP receptor
c. GP IIb/IIIa prevent PL adhesion
d. Is very useful and wide use for preventing vascular deseases
41.Thrombus
a. Red in arteries, fibrin dominate
b. Red, in veins, fibrin dominate
c. Red in arteries PL dominate
d. Red in veins PL dominate
e. white in arteries, fibrin dominate
f. white - in veins, fibrin dominate
g. white in arteries PL dominate
h. white in veins PL dominate
42.which of the following factors would be inhibited by comadin
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V
f. VI
g. VII
h. VIII
i. IX
j. X
k. XI
l. XII
m. XIII
43.Intrinsic pathway, which of the following is correct
a. Wouldnt occur in the absence of prekilekerin

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b. Lack of factors XII and XI would cause hemophilia

c. Lack of factors XII and XI would not cause hemophilia due to
factor VIIIa
d. Lack of factors XII and XI would not cause hemophilia due to
factor VIIa
e. Factor VIII is a co-factor and there will be no significant changes
in the lack of it
44.Extrinsic pathway, which of the following is correct.
a. Factor VII would go over configuration changes in the presence
of TF and would become VIIa.
b. TF and factor III are the same thing
c. Factor V is the analogues of factor VIII and is accelerating the
conversion of factor X to Xa
d. Factor VII +TF+ Ca are the analogues of tenase in the intrinsic
pathway
45.Common pathway, which of the following is correct
a. Tenase have the ability to convert prothrombin into thrombin
b. Factor V is a co-factor in the conversion of prothrombin into
thrombin
c. Factor VIII is a co-factor in the conversion of prothrombin into
thrombin
d. The conversion of pro-thrombin into thrombin is count as the
2end step in hemostasis
e. Thrombin is factor II
46. which of the following is not one of the functions of thrombin
a. Conversion of pro-thrombin into thrombin
b. Acceleration of the conversion of factor VIII to VIIIa
a. Acceleration of the conversion of factor XI to XIa
b. Acceleration of the conversion of factor IX to XIa
c. Activation of PL
d. Some paracrine action on endothelial cells. (ADP, vWF, NO, PGI)

47.Homeostasis, present view

a. The 2 pathway are linked
b. Due to the effect of factor VII on factor IX, lack on factor XI wont
cause hemophilia.
c. TFPI explains why the extrinsic cant compestate on lack of factor
VIII
d. TF can be exposed inside the vessels.
48.Anti-coagulant drugs
a. Would be given when there is anemia
b. Heparin binds to Ca, and inhibits coagulation.
c. Heparin binds and activating ATIII, and inhibits coagulation.
d. Heparin binds and inhibiting ATIII, and inhibits coagulation.
49.Which of the following factors would be inhibited by comadin?
a. I

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b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V
f. VI
g. VII
h. VIII
i. IX
j. X
k. XI
l. XII
50.Time frame for homeostasis
a. Begins with vasoconstriction
b. Plug formation takes seconds
c. Platelet adhesion take second
d. Platelet aggregation takes second.
e. Activation of coagulation factors takes minuets.
f. Fibronilitic protein would be activated in minutes.
g. Fibrinolisis take hours.
51.Fibronilisis.
a. t-PA u-PA and alpha 2 AP activates plasminogen
b. PAI 1 and PAI2 inhibit tPA and u-PA
c. Begins in parallel to 1st and 2nd homeostasis
d. The only role of plasmin is to brake down fibrin.

52.Which of the following factors is inhibited by plasmin

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V
f. VI
g. VII
h. VIII
i. IX
j. X
k. XI
l. XI
53.Which of the following is not a role of the kidney?
a. Eliminating wastes products
b. Regulating blood pressure
c. Participate in immune respond
d. Synthesis of hormones
e. Acid base regulation
f. Regulation of water and electrolytes.
g. All of the answers
h. None of the answers.
54.Renal blood supply, which of the following is correct?

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a. High resistance in the afferent, low in the efferent and medulla is

well supplied.
b. High resistance in the afferent, high in the efferent and medulla
is well supplied.
c. High resistance in the afferent, high in the efferent and medulla
is poorly supplied.
d. Low resistance in the afferent, low in the efferent and medulla is
poorly supplied.
55.GFR, if the plasma flow of a person is 500cc/min and his GFR is
120cc/min his FF is
a. Around 0.15
b. Around 0.2
c. Around 0.25
d. There arent enough details.
56.GFR, which of the following is correct?
a. Large molecule would pass easily then small.
b. Small molecule would pass easily then large.
c. Positive charge molecule would pass easily then negative
charge.
d. Negative charge molecule would pass easily then positive
charge.
e. The basement membrane is the first barrier to the plasma
proteins due to is positive charged proteoglican.
57.Net filtration pressure in Bowman capsule.
a. Would increase if the concentration of the proteins in BC
increase
b. Would decrease if the concentration of the proteins in BC
increases.
c. Would increase if the hydrostatic pressure in BC increases.
d. Would decrease if the hydrostatic pressure in BC increases.
58.GFR
a. Increase in afferent arteriole resistance would increase GFR
b. Decrease in afferent arteriole resistance would increase GFR
c. Increase in efferent arteriole resistance would increase GFR
(moderate increase)
d. Increase in afferent arteriole resistance would increase GFR
(sever increase)
e. Increase in the permeability of the glumeral capillary would
increase GFR.
f. Decrease in the permeability of the glumeral capillary would
increase GFR.
59.AGII would be secreted when the blood pressure is low.
(hypovolemia) and thus it would:
a. Increase GFR to eliminate more fluid
b. Decrease GFR to prevent lose of fluid
c. Increase of the pressure in peri-tubular capillaries
d. Decrease of the pressure in peri-tubular capillaries
e. None of the above
60.Which of the following substances increase GFR
a. Epinephrine

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b. NO
c. ATII
d. PG
e. Endothelin.
61.Auto- regulation of GFR
a. Increase in the arterial pressure would increase GFR
b. Increase in the arterial pressure wouldnt increase GFR
c. Increase in the arterial pressure would increase Na reabsorbing
and thus would stimulate release of rennin from the juxtamedullar cell.
d. Increase in the arterial pressure would decrease Na reabsorbing
and thus would stimulate release of rennin from the juxtamedullar cell.
e. Increase in arterial pressure would cause vasoconstriction in the
blood vessels of the kidney.
f. Increase in arterial pressure would cause vasodilation in the
blood vessels of the kidney.
62.Transports
a. Para-cellular, path through the cell.
b. Substance that are passively reabsorbed do not have transport
maximum
c. Water Cl and urea are dependent on Na for their absorption.
63.Re-absorption
a. Water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule
b. Na could be reabsorbed para-cellular
c. Cl could be reabsorbed in para and trans-cellular.
d. Urea could is reabsorbed just trans-cellular.
64.Which of the following is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule
a. AA
b. Proteins
c. Oxalate
d. Bile salts
e. Glucose
f. H
g. HCO3
h. Na
i. K
j. Cl
k. Urea
l. Cathachlamine
m. Drugs
n. water
65.true of false
a. The ascending loop of Henle is permeable to water and urea.
b. The descending loop of Henle is permeable to water and urea.
c. In the thick ascending loop the filtrate become hypotonic
d. In the thick ascending loop the filtrate become hypertonic
e. In the thick ascending loop there is secretion of H
66.Distal and cortical collecting duct, which of the following is correct?
a. In the early there is absorption of water, urea and solutes and it
is a diluting segment.

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b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.

In the late, there is no absorption of urea, but there is of water.

Principle cells secrete H.
Intercalated cells secrete H.
Intercalated cells are influenced by aldosterone.
principle cells are influenced by aldosterone.
Intercalated cells are influenced by ADH.
principle cells are influenced by ADH.

67.The medullar collecting duct, which of the following is correct?

a. Influenced by ADH and aldosterone
b. Diluting the urine
c. Concentrating the urine
d. Diluting of the interstitium.
e. Concentrating of the interstitium.
f. Secretion of H.
68.Regulation of tubular Reabsorption.
a. Increase in the volume in the tubules would increase
Reabsorption.
b. FF would influence the hydrostatic pressure.
c. Afferent and efferent arteriole would influence the colloid
osmotic pressure.
d. Afferent and efferent arteriole would influence the hydrostatic
pressure.
e. Increase in FF would increase Reabsorption.
f. Increase in FF would decrease Reabsorption.
69.Regulation of tubular Reabsorption.
a. ATII stimulate release of aldosterone.
b. ATII stimulate release of ADH.
c. ATII constrict the afferent arteriole.
d. SNS increase Na secretion.
e. ANP increase Reabsorption.
70.Urinary clearance.
a. To check GFR we need a substance that is filtered and absorbed.
b. To check GFR we need a substance that is filtered and secreted.
c. To check plasma flow we need a substance that is filtered and
absorbed.
d. To check plasma flow we need a substance that is filtered and
absorbed.
71.Urine concentration
a. Increase in water uptake will decrease ADH secretion.
b. In the presence of ADH the fluid in the ascending loop of Henle
becomes concentrated.
c. The obligatory urine is .5L per day
d. Urine concentration depends on the interstitial osmolarity.
72.Medulla concentration (interstitial) is formed by:
a. Secretion of ions on the level of the thick ascending loop.
b. Active transport of ions from the thick collecting duct.
c. Diffusion of the urea from the inner medullar collecting duct.
d. Diffusion of high amount of water into the medullar interstitial.
73.The countercurrent mechanism
a. Thin descending loop is permeable to water.
b. Thin ascending loop is permeable to water.
c. Thick ascending loop is permeable to water.

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d. The different between the concentration in the tubule and

concentration in the interstitium is large. (more than 200
mOsm/L)
e. The different between the concentration in the tubule and
concentration in the interstitium is small. (less than 200
mOsm/L)
f. No different between the concentration in the tubule and
concentration in the interstitium.
g. The reason that ADH decrease the osmolarity of the interstitium
is b/c water from the distal collecting duct dilutes the
interstitium.
h. The reason that ADH increase the osmolarity of the interstitium
is b/c water from the distal collecting duct dilutes the
interstitium.
i. Presence of ADH does not change the osmolarity in the
interstitium.
74.Urea circulation
a. No Reabsorption of urea in the proximal tubule.
b. There is secretion of urea in the descending loop of Henle.
c. In the presence of ADH the cortical collecting tubule is
permeable to urea.
d. In the presence of ADH the medullar collecting tubule is
permeable to urea.
e. In the presence of ADH urea diffuse through the lipid membrane
of the medullar collecting duct.
75.Vasa-recta.
a. Have relatively low pressure.
b. Have relatively high pressure.
c. Have the same pressure.
d. Increase in pressure would increase the urine volume.
e. Increase in pressure would decrease the urine volume.
f. Increase in pressure would not influence urine volume.
76.ADH
a. Is secreted when osmolarity increase.
b. Is more sensitive to increase in osmolarity than to decrease in
arterial pressure
c. Over secretion would cause diabetic incipidus
d. Would increase the permeability to urea in the medullar
collecting duct.
77.Na and extracellular fluid regulation.
a. If the concentration of Na increases the secretion of Na would
increase.
b. If the concentration of Na increases the secretion of Na would
decrease.
c. If the amount of water increases the secretion of water would
increase.
d. If the amount of water increases the secretion of water would
decrease.
e. None of the above.
78.Na and extracellular fluid regulation.
a. Na balance is responsible for the osmolarity equilibrium.

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b. Water balance is responsible for the osmolarity equilibrium.

c. Na balance is responsible for the ECF balance.
d. Water balance is responsible for the ECF balance.
79.Na and extracellular fluid regulation.
a. Increase in Na intake would increase the ECF.
b. Increase in Na intake would increase the Na excretion.
c. Decrease of ECV would decrease Na secretion.
d. Decrease of ECV would decrease water secretion. (directly)
80.Which of the following would be inhibited in low ECV
a. ANP
b. ATII
c. SNS
d. Aldosterone
e. ADH
f. None of the above
g. All of the above.
81.Which of the following stimulate release of rennin?
a. Low pressure in renal artery.
b. Low pressure in right atrium.
c. Decrease in NaCl concentration in the renal tubule.
d. Sympathetic stimuli on juxa-glumural apparatus.
82.Which of the following is not effect of ATII?
a. Stimulate release of aldosterone
b. Stimulate release of ADH
c. Constrict afferent artery in the kidney glumeroly.
d. Increase exchange of Na and H in the renal tubule
e. Hypotrophy of the renal tubule cells.
f. Decrease of FF.
83.Pressure diuresis
a. Is controlled by the SNS
b. Is stimulated by ADH
c. Is stimulated by ATII
d. None of the above
84.Pressure diuresis
a. Increase Na filtration.
b. Short term regulation of arterial pressure.
c. Inhibit of rennin secretion
d. Decrease pressure in vasa-recta
e. Decrease number of Na-H exchangers.
f. Increase colloid osmotic pressure in the peri-tubular capillaries.
85.High Na intake, which is correct?
a. Would increase the blood pressure.
b. Would inhibit sympathetic stimuli, decrease Na Reabsorption.
c. Would stimulate pressure diuresis.
d. Would stimulate the release of ATII.
e. Would stimulate the release of ANP .
86.K regulation by the kidney.
a. K is secreted by the principle cells.
b. K is absorbed by the principle cells.
c. K is absorbed by the intercalated cells.
d. K is secreted by the intercalated cells.
87.Increase in plasma potassium.
a. Stimulate Na/K pumps.

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b. Stimulate back leakage.

c. Stimulate ADH secretion.
d. Stimulate aldosterone secretion.
88.K regulation by the kidney.
a. Decrease secretion when tubular flow increase
b. High Na intake increase K secretion.
c. High Na intake decrease K secretion.
d. High Na intake dose not influence K secretion.
e. Acute acidosis would cause hyper-kalmia
f. Chronic acidosis would cause hyper-kalmia
89.Micturitaion
a. Sympathetic stimulation inhibits peristalsis in the ureters.
b. Para- Sympathetic stimulation inhibit peristalsis in the ureters.
c. Ureter renal reflex constrict the ureters when it is blocked.
d. Micturitaion reflex is stimulated by the stretching of the UB walls
and then begins to fatigue.
e. When the reflex is strong enough it would contract the external
sphincter.

90.Low pH would
a. Activate some enzymes
b. Increase the level of K
c. Decrease the level of K
d. Would cause excitability in nerve cells.
e. Inhibit excitability in nerve cells.
91.pH
a. little bit higher in the arteries
b. little bit higher in the veins
c. no different between veins and interstitial pH
d. no different between arteries and interstitial pH
e. Can change dramatically in the urine.
92.Buffers
a. Increase in HCO3 would cause alkalosis.
b. Decrease in HCO3 would cause alkalosis.
c. Increase in PCO2 would cause alkalosis.
d. Decrease in HCO3 would cause alkalosis.
93.In the body pK = 6.1
a. A big advantage, easy to keep normal pH
b. Would be weaker buffer if PK was closer to 7.4
c. Would be more power full buffer if PK was closer to 7.4
d. The body compensate by being a close system.
e. The body compensate by being an open system.
94.The phosphate buffer system
a. Is weaker then bicarbonate
b. Its PK is closer to normal pH, explain why it is a good buffer.
c. Its PK is closer to normal pH, explain why it is weak buffer.
d. Works in a close system.
e. Works as an open system

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95.Proteins as a buffer
a. Very effective
b. PK close to 7.4
c. After HCO3, it is the most power full buffer in the body.
d. Hemoglobin is the main protein buffer.
96.Hemoglobin as a buffer
a. Release HCO3 to the plasma
b. In the tissue Cl leave the RBC and HCO3 enter.
c. In the tissue HCO3 leave the RBC and Cl enter.
d. In the alveoli CO2 together with H2O forms HCO3 + H
e. In the tissue CO2 together with H2O forms HCO3 + H
97.Tissue as a buffer
a. Most in the muscle.
b. Most in the bone.
c. Bone loose Ca by neutralizing strong basses.
d. Bone loose Ca by neutralizing strong acids.
98.Respiratory buffer.
a. RR increase in acidosis
b. Would compensate respiratory acidosis, (by increasing RR)
c. Would compensate metabolic alkalosis, (by increasing RR)
d. Low pH would increase RR.
99.Which of the following reaction would produce non-violate acids?
a. Oxidation of carbohydrates and fats.
b. Oxidation of anionic amino acids.
c. Oxidation of cationic amino acids.
d. Oxidation of organic anions.
e. Production of none metabolized organic acids.
100.
The kidney as a buffer.
a. Filter HCO3
b. Secret HCO3
c. Filter H
d. Secret H
e. Reabsorb HCO3
f. Reabsorb H
g. Work fast and Correct completely abnormalities in pH
101.
H secretion and HCO3 Reabsorption.
a. In normal conditions all of the HCO3 that filtered is reabsorbed.
b. HCO3 cant be absorbed in that form from the tubule.
c. Complete titration is the way the kidney corrects acidosis or
alkalosis.
d. For every H that is secreted there is a HCO3 that is absorbed.
102.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.

H secretion and HCO3 Reabsorption.

In the principle cells H is primary secreted.
Buffering with phosphate and ammonia forms new HCO3
The amount of phosphate for buffering is unlimited.
Most of the H in the urine is free.
The source of ammonium is glutamine.
For every glutamine there is one de novo HCO3

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g. In high pH there will be high metabolism of glutamine in the

kidney.
h. In chronic acidosis ammonia ammonium buffer is the major
buffer in chronic acidosis.
103.
Regulation of tubular H secretion, in which of the cases the H
secretion would increase.
a. Increase in ECF
b. Increase in ATII
c. Increase in aldosterone.
d. Increase in K.
104.
Anion gap, Increase in the Cl means that
a. Anion gap increased.
b. Anion gap decreased.
c. Anion gap didnt change.
d. Na didnt change.
105.
Anion gap. When would be hyper-chloric acidosis?
a. DKA
b. Diarrhea
c. Chronic renal failure
d. Tubular acidosis
e. Carbonic anhidrase inhibitor.
106.
A 68 years old patient that suffers from COPD is admitted to
the ER with a sever attack and difficulty to breath. The attack began
2 hours ago. In the blood examination.
a. HCO3 high and PCO2 low.
b. HCO3 high and PCO2 high.
c. HCO3 high and PCO2 low.
d. HCO3 low and PCO2 low
107.
A 54 years old female that suffers from NIDDM stopped
taking her medications and didnt take care on her diet. She was
brought to the ER with sever DKA (diabetic keto-acidosis). In her
blood test.
a. HCO3 high and PCO2 low.
b. HCO3 high and PCO2 high.
c. HCO3 high and PCO2 low.
d. HCO3 low and PCO2 low
108.
Movement along the nerve
a. Antro-grade use kinesine and move from the soma to the axon.
b. Retro-grade use kinesine and move from the soma to the axon.
c. Antro-grade use dynein and move from the soma to the axon.
d. Antro-grade could be fast and slow.
e. Retro-grade could be fast and slow.
109.
Classification of neurons could be
a. due to the axonal projection
b. Due to the dendritic paten.
c. Due to the neurotransmitter.
d. Due to the number of process.
110.
Which of the following is a characteristic of neuron cell?
a. Excitable
b. Amitotic
c. High metabolism
d. Long life

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e. All of the above.

111.
Which of the following is role of astrocyte?
a. Form support for CNS.
b. Secrete K
c. Brake down of neuro-trophic factors.
d. Participate in BBB.
112.
Nernst potential, if one ion has a higher EMF then the other it
means that:
a. The ion with the higher EMF would be able to move more inside
and outside the cell.
b. The ion with the lower EMF would be able to move more inside
and outside the cell.
c. There will be no difference between the ions.

113.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Which of the following is not correct about the ionic channels:

It can be not gated
It can be gated
It can use ATP
It can be time dependent
It can be activated by an extra cellular agonist or intra cellular
messenger
f. It can move ion against the gradient.
g. All of the channels have a specific ion that pass through.

114.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Which of the following is correct about ionic channel:

There is connection between the ICL and ECL via the channel
The channels are fast and selective for ions and small molecules
some of the channels need ligan to open them
all of the ionic channels are voltage gated channels.

115.
which of following is wrong about ionic exchanger:
a. It move ions with the gradient thus the exchanger does not use
ATP
b. In the Na/Ca co-transporter: Na from the interior of the cell is
exchanged with Ca from the exterior to allow the long AP
c. Digoxin inhibits the Na/Ca co-transport to prolong the AP
d. In some cases its activity might be depended on an ATP pump
that would allow an electrochimy gradient.
116.
What is correct about ionic pump
a. Na/K ATPs' exchange 2 Na from the exterior with 3 K from the
interior of the cell
b. The only distribution of Ca pumps is in the sarcolma
c. A pump would always work against the gradient
d. The pumps are very specific the ions it pumps and work very fast
117.
Nerenst equation
a. Describes the effect of the chemical gradient on the permeability
of a single ion
b. Describes the effect of the electrical gradient on the
permeability of a single ion
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c. Describes the effect of the chemical gradient and electrical

gradient on the permeability of a single ion.
d. The EMF of Na is equal to 1
118.
The main ion that influence the potential of resting cell
membrane is:
a. Na
b. K
c. Ca
d. All of the ions above together
119.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.

Inotropic channel
Is directly gated ion channel.
Work together with G protein.
Allow amplification of the signal
Work very fast.
NMDA is iontropic channel.
AMPA is iontropic channel.
The same NT cant be iontropic and metabotrpic.

120.
Phases of depolarization and repolarization, which is correct?
a. During rest the cell is permeable to K that enters the cell.
b. The 1st channel that opens is a voltage gated Na channel.
c. The main channel participates in depolarizing the cell is voltage
gated Na channel.
d. Na channels could be inactive even if there is a stimulus.
e. Na channels are fast and lasting for long time.
f. K channels are fast and lasting for long time.
g. In high level of Ca it will be easier to Na channel to open and to
propagate AP.
121.
a.
b.
c.
122.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
123.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
h.
124.

What is the location of the following channels?

Non gated ionic channels
Ligand gated channels.
Voltage gated channels.
AP generation, which of the following is correct?
The threshold is the same in all parts of the neuron.
The density of the Na channels is the same in all parts of the
neuron.
It easy to generate AP on the axon hillock.
As the AP would reach the axon hillock the Vm would increase.
The reason that AP dose not move backward is b/c the Na
channels are in inactive state.
Electrical synapse
Faster than chemical
Dendro-dentritic
More common in the fetause
Axon-axonic.
Connect neurons and glial cells.
Allows synchronized activity.
May be influenced from high levels of H.
May be inhibitory.
Chemical synapse.

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a.
b.
c.
125.
a.
b.
c.
d.
126.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Have a delay.
Decay in time.
May be inhibitory.
Organization of synapse. Which is the most common?
axon-axon.
Axon somatic.
Axon spinous.
Axon dendritic.
Chemical synapse.
The Ca channels are slow voltage gated.
T he Ca channels allow the Vm to rise above the threshold.
The vesicles unite with the cell membrane due to SNEAR protein.
All of the vesicles are released during excitation of the presynaptic neuron.
127.
The important research about hemostatic pre-synaptic
suppression was done in:
a. The Hebrew university of Israel.
b. The Tehnion university, in Haifa Israel.
c. In the Weitzman institute, in Rehovot Israel.
d. In the Tel Aviv university.
e. In the Ben Gurion university in Beer-Sheva Israel.
f. All of these universities make important researches that improve
the quality of life all over the world.
128.
Post synaptic activity.
a. The kind of NT would decide if it will be inhibitory or excitatory
signal.
b. The kind of the receptor, iontropic or metabotrpic, would decide
if will be inhibitory or excitatory signal.
c. The kind of the ion would decide if it will be inhibitory or
excitatory signal.
d. In any synapse could be just one kind of NT.
e. All of the above.
129.
Control of transmitter activity.
a. Is done just by breaking the NT.
b. In some cases the regulation occurs by the T half of the NT.
c. Pirodistegmine would inhibit the activity of AchE.
d. COMT brakes down nor epinephrine.
e. Glutamate is braked down via a Na linked transport.
130.
Slow vs fast synapse.
a. In fast the vesicle are located close to the plasma membrane.
b. In the slow vesicles are small.
c. In the fast vesicles are small.
d. Ach and amines are NT is fast synapse.
e. NE is NT in fast synapse.
f. Slow NT reacts slow and for short time.
g. Fast NT reacts fast and for short time.
131.
Acetylcholine NT.
a. All of its receptors are cholinergic.
b. Muscarine receptros are metabotrpic.
c. Nicotine receptors are metabotropic.
d. Skeletal muscle are ionotropic.
e. Cardiac muscle are iontropic.
f. Do not participate in the sympathetic NS.

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132.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
133.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
g.
134.
a.
b.
c.
d.
135.
a.
b.
c.
d.
136.
a.
b.
c.
d.
137.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
f.
138.

Adrenergic receptors.
Alpha 1 cause vasoconstriction
Alpha 2 cause vasodilatation.
Beta 1 increase heart rate.
Beta 2 cause vasodilatation.
Beta 2 on the blood vessels of the straighter muscles.
Serotonin
Has inhibitory effect.
Induce awakens
Secreted from the median raphe.
Control mood.
Just iontropic
Just metabotropic.
Is site for the activity of some anesthetic drugs.
Glutamate
Work just on NMDA
Work just AMPA
Work on both
KA is metabptropic.
GABA
Inhibitory
The iontropic allow Cl to enter the cell.
Theionotropic allow K to leave the cell.
Is site for the activity of some anesthetic drugs.
Astrocyte.
Could regulate synaptic transmitter by breaking it.
Could increase the strength of the synapse but cannot decrease
it.
Communicate with neighboring cell via ATP.
None of above.
NMJ which of the following is correct?
A model of 1 nerve one motor unit
The post-synaptic folds increase the surface for the entrance of
Ca
In the cleft high amount of AchE to brake the Ach.
The receptors are muscarinic.
In the pre-synaptic neuron Ach is exchanaged with H.
In each AP most of the vesicles released.

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