MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Basic Medical Science

Time: 2 hrs

Pharmacology

Email:sidharta123@yahoo.com
Total Marks: 200 | Pass Mark: 120

Clinical Pharmacology
Please use a dark pencil/pen to complete the test. Read the instructions at the
begining carefully. This is an Sample Test Paper on Medical / Clinical Pharmacology.
Please Note: There is no Negative Marking for incorrect responses.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which of the following H1 receptor blocker is most sedative?
A Clemastine

C Chlorpheniramine

B Pheniramine

D Cetirizine

2. Which of the following phenothiazines has an aliphatic side chain?

A Thioridazine

C Trifluoperazine

B Fluphenazine

D Chlorpromazine

3. Match the following drugs with their correct course of pharmacological responses:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Aldose reductase inhibitors

Methylprednisolone
Terbutaline
Cimetidine
Furosemide

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

cell trafficking
prolactin plasma concentration
diuresis
erythrocyte sorbitol concentrations
plasma potassium concentration

4. The physiological responses elicited by blocking monoamine oxidase (MAO)

include all except:
A CNS depression

C CNS stimulation

B antidepressant action

D orthostatic hypotension

5. The most important adverse effect of Vincristine is:

A haemorrhagic cystitis

C bone marrow depression

B peripheral neuropathy

D renal impairment

6. Anticancer drug effective in the treatment of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML):

A Thiotepa

C Chlorambucil

B Busulfan

D Procarbazine

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

7. What is the advantage of fosphenytoin over phenytoin?

A no vascular complication on i.v.
injection

C can be given orally

D can be injected with glucose
saline

B doesn't require ECG monitoring

8. Cholestatic jaundice is mostly associated with all of the following except:

A Pyrazinamide

C Stanozolol

B Erythromycin estolate ester

D Chlorpropamide

9. Leucopenia as an adverse effect is associated with:

A Cytarabine

C Ketoconazole

B Flucytosine

D Amphotericin B

10. Which of the following drugs have a negative inotropic effect on the
cardiovascular system?
A Diltiazem

C Dobutamine

B Digoxin

D Ivabradine

11. Examples of extended spectrum Ureidopenicillin:

A Methicillin

C Cloxacillin

B Bacampicillin

D Mezlocillin

12. Substrates for human liver P450 CYP1A2 includes all of the following except:
A phenacetin

C theophylline

B clomipramine

D fluvoxamine

13. Which of the following statements about sedatives-hypnotics is/are correct?

A most of them are unionized at
body pH

C most of them are ionized at body

pH

B most of them have low

lipophilicity

D most of them are highly protein

bound

14. Which among the following has the broadest spectrum of anti-fungal activity?
A Flucytosine

C Fluconazole

B Itraconazole

D Ketoconazole

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

15. Which of the following is an inhibitor of fibrinolysis?

A Aminocaproic acid

C Heparin

B Tenecteplase

D Urokinase

16. First dose hypotension is commonly associated with all of the following except:
A Captopril

C Fosinopril

B Losartan

D Prazosin

17. Carbolic acid is also known as:

A Cresol

C Phenol

B Formalin

D Benzene

18. Case Study: A 40 yr old male patient was brought to the ER in deep coma.
Clinical signs observed included dilated pupils and tachycardia. The patient's
relatives mentioned about H/O tricyclic antidepressant medications that the
patient used to take. On ECG, the findings were of broadening of QRS complex.
The patient is hypotensive.
What would be the best choice of treatment at this stage?
A prophylactic potassium

C i.v. magnesium

B i.v. sodium bicarbonate

D DC shock

19. Antihypertensive drugs that must be avoided to manage hypertension during

pregnancy
A Hydralazine

C Captopril

B Methyldopa

D Metoprolol

20. Which of the following intravenous anesthetic agents has the highest effect on
respiratory drive?
A Ketamine

C Thiopentone

B Fentanyl

D Etomidate

21. What contributes to phenytoin's antiepileptic actions?

A decreases neuronal K+
concentration

C restores balance between GABA

and glutmate

B decreases intraneuronal Ca2+

concentration

D increases the electroshock

seizure threshold

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MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

22. Which of the following antihypertensives have a negative inotropic effect?

A nifedipine

C nimodipine

B diltiazem

D verapamil

23. Following agents are used to suppress epileptic seizures except:

A Diazepam

C Clozapine

B Phenobarbitone sod

D Phenytoin

24. Which of the following is a major active metabolite of diazepam?

A prazepam

C temazepam

B nordazepam

D demoxepam

25. Selective agonist of 1-adrenoceptor:

A Clonidine

C Phenylephrine

B Dobutamine

D Prazosin

26. Match the following oral hypoglycaemics with their correct plasma T half-lives:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Tolbutamide
Gliclazide
Glimepiride
Pioglitazone
Glibenclamide

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

3-5 hrs
8-20 hrs
6-8 hrs
2-4 hrs
5-7 hrs

27. Which of the following is direct factor Xa inhibitor?

A Dabigatran etexilate

C Rivaroxaban

B Streptokinase

D Alteplase

28. Which of the following is not a nonselective -blocker?

A Bisoprolol

C Carvedilol

B Propranolol

D Labetalol

29. The most important dose-related adverse effect of pyrazinamide (Z) is

A peripheral neuropathy

C hepatotoxicity

B nephrotoxicity

D pancreatitis

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MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

30. Adverse effect associated with long term Linezolid therapy:

A Nerve deafness

C Optic neuritis

B Pseudomembranous colitis

D rhabdomyolysis

31. Not true regarding cellular -responses of adrenaline:

A hypokalemia

C inhibition of triglyceride lipase

B hyperkalemia

D inhibition of glycogen synthase

32. Which of the following drugs have the lowest plasma protein binding?
A Valproic acid

C Flurazepam

B Alprazolam

D Diazepam

33. Substrates of monoamine oxidase (MAO) includes all except:

A N-methylhistamine

C histamine

B tyramine

D serotonin

34. A deoxybarbiturate that has anti-epileptic activity:

A Valproic acid

C Phenobarbitone

B Primidone

D Phenytoin

35. Bioavailability of ___________ is low due to first pass metabolism:

A Amlodipine

C Omeprazole

B Bumetanide

D Domperidone

36. Refractory cases of Psoriasis are treated with:

A Calcitriol

C Acetretin

B Salicylic acid

D Dithranol

37. Match the following cytotoxic agents with their respective adverse effects:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Etoposide
Methotrexate
Busulfan
Cisplatin
Oxaliplatin

Basic Medical Sciences

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

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pulmonary fibrosis
renal impairment
megaloblastic anemia
peripheral neuropathy
alopecia

2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

38. Conversion of (tetraiodothyronine) T4 to (triiodothyronine) T3 is carried out by the

enzyme:
A thyroid peroxidase

C tyrosine hydroxylase

B iodothyronine deiodinase

D iodide peroxidase

39. Drug with highest abuse potential:

A -Hydroxybutyric acid (GHB)

C Cocaine

B Morphine

D Amphetamine

40. Ketoconazole inhibits all of the following CYP450 isoenzymes except:

A CYP2C9

C CYP3A4

B CYP2C19

D CYP2D6

41. Cytotoxic anti-malignancy drug not effective in solid tumors:

A Cytarabine

C Cisplatin

B Fluorouracil (5-FU)

D Vincristine

42. Which of the following is a volatile anesthetic agent?

A Propofol

C Etomidate

B Halothane

D Nitrous oxide

43. The combined oral contraceptive pill is absolutely contraindicated in:

A Porphyria

C Uterine leiomyoma

B Migraine

D Diabetes

44. Most important severe adverse effect of -blockers:

A Congestive cardiac failure

C Constipation

B Raynaud's phenomena

D Atrial fibrillation

45. Which of the following is an example of ethylenimine?

A Thio-TEPA

C Melphalan

B Busulfan

D Mechlorethamine

46. Not an analeptic:

A Modafinil

C Metrazol

B Doxapram

D Pimozide

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MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

47. Adverse effects common to both diethyl ether and cyclopropane:

A cardiac arrhythmias

C laryngospasms

B respiratory depression

D convulsions

48. Which of the following drugs has an active metabolite?

A Lorazepam

C Fluoxetine

B Fluvoxamine

D Mizolastine

49. Luminal amoebicide:

A Metronidazole

C Diloxanide furoate

B Paromomycin

D Dehydroemetine

50. __________ is indicated for management of poisoning with disopyramide

A Charcoal haemoperfusion

C Gastric lavage

B Haemodialysis

D Alkaline diuresis

51. The anti-emetic action of chlorpromazine is due to:

A serotonin (5HT3)-receptor
antagonism

C blocking of Chemoreceptor
Trigger Zone

B depression of the vomiting center

D H1 receptor antagonism

52. The most effective drug for prevention and management of graft rejection reaction:
A Azathioprine

C Mycophenolate mofetil

B Tacrolimus

D Cyclosporine

53. Which of the following is a major cytokine for T-cell multiplication and
differentiation?
A TNF

C IL-1

B IL-2

D TGF

54. A drug that lowers seizure threshold and may precipitate fits:
A Phenobarbitone

C Zotepine

B Chlorpromazine

D Ethosuximide

55. The enzyme diamine oxidase (DAO) is involved in the catabolism of

A dopamine

C noradrenaline

B serotonin

D histamine

Basic Medical Sciences

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MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

56. Treatment with ACE inhibitors causes

A blockage of Angiotensin II
production

C blockage of Angiotensin I
production

B feedback decrease in renin

release

D feedback increase in renin

release

57. Elimination of low molecular weight (LMW) heparin occurs by:

A faeces

C renal excretion

B hepatic metabolism

D both hepatic metabolism and

renal excretion

58. Drugs that are rapidly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract:
A Olestra

C Physostigmine

B Gentamicin

D Neostigmine

59. The mechanism by which Sitagliptin exerts its hypoglycaemic action:

A enhances glucose uptake in
skeletal muscle

C selective inhibitor of DPP4

D selective agonist of PPAR

B suppresses hepatic
gluconeogenesis

60. Drug that is a MT1 and MT2 melatonin receptor agonist:

A Reboxetine

C Mianserin

B Ramelteon

D Flumazenil

61. Of the following antianginal drugs, which one blocks cardiac pacemaker funny ('f')
cation channels?
A Oxyphedrine

C Ranolazine

B Ivabradine

D Trimetazidine

62. Drug which is derived from a plant glycoside podophyllotoxin

A Miltefosine

C Etoposide

B Methysergide

D Physostigmine

63. Retrobulbar neuritis is the adverse effect of

A Ethambutol

C Amodiaquone

B Methacholine

D Phenothiazine

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

64. Which of the following agents is a derivative of thienamycin?

A Carbenicillin

C Imipenem

B Amikacin

D Clofazimine

65. 2 selective-adrenergic blocking drug:

A Ritodrine

C Yohimbine

B Phenylephrine

D Prazosin

66. A drug that elicits its action by helping to inactivate 'calcineurin'

A Chlorambucil

C Cyclophosphamide

B Cisplatin

D Cyclosporine

67. Topical corticosteroids with highest potency:

A Dexamethasone phosphate

C Hydrocortisone

B Dexamethasone acetate

D Cortisone

68. Drug metabolized by monoamine oxidase (MAO):

A Mescaline

C Moclobemide

B Dobutamine

D Isoproterenol

69. Which of the following is not a potassium sparing diuretic?

A Eplerenone

C Triamterene

B Diazoxide

D Amiloride

70. Recommended INR for indications of oral anticoagulants for prosthetic heart
valves:
A 3-3.5

C 2-2.5

B 2-3

D 4

71. Drug of first choice for the treatment of status epilepticus:

A i.v. Lorazepam

C i.v. Diazepam

B i.v. Midazolam

D i.v. Fosphenytoin

72. Which of the following is an oxazolidinone antibiotic?

A Lincomycin

C Linezolid

B Tyrothricin

D Furazolidone

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

73. Adverse effect of imipramine:

A postural hypotension

C bradycardia

B bronchospasm

D psychological dependence

74. Which of the following is not an antitussive?

A Diphenhydramine

C Dextromethorphan

B Bromhexine

D Noscapine

75. Citrovorum factor is given in certain malignancies to rescue the normal cells after
high dose injection of:
A methotrexate

C doxorubicin

B cyclophosphamide

D 6-mercaptopurine

76. The principal prostaglandin synthesized in the stomach:

A Prostaglandin E1

C Prostaglandin E2

B Prostaglandin F2

D Prostaglandin D2

77. The major toxicity of anti cancer drug Docetaxel is

A neutropenia

C alopecia

B peripheral neuropathy

D megaloblastic anemia

78. Cytotoxic drugs with high emetogenic potential includes all of the following except:
A Actinomycin D

C Cyclophosphamide

B Busulfan

D Cisplatin

79. Cytotoxic drugs with mild/low emetogenic potential:

A Cyclophosphamide

C Cisplatin

B Actinomycin D

D Chlorambucil

80. Hyoscine differs from atropine on being

A more potent on eye

C a depressant

B more potent on bronchial

muscles

D a longer acting alkaloid

81. Which of the following drugs is chemically related to imipramine?

A carbamazepine

C domperidone

B methadone

D amoxapine

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

82. Of the following agents, which one is dangerous for patients who have
hypertension and IHD?
A fentanyl

C etomidate

B propofol

D ketamine

83. First line anti-tubercular drugs include all except:

A Para-aminosalicylic acid

C Streptomycin

B Pyrazinamide

D Rifampin

84. All of the following drugs are claimed to prolong Q-Tc interval except:
A Gatifloxacin

C Moxifloxacin

B Prulifloxacin

D Sparfloxacin

85. A drug devoid of -adrenergic blocking activity:

A Ergometrine

C Yohimbine

B Prazosin

D Ergotoxin

86. Contraceptive failure may occur when all of the following drugs are used
concurrently except:
A sulfonamides

C rifampin

B primidone

D carbamazepine

87. Which among the following is an active blocker of both and adrenoceptors?
A Esmolol

C Pindolol

B Labetolol

D Atenolol

88. Which of the following drugs may cause arousal from hepatic coma?
A Bromocriptine

C Acetazolamide

B Thioperamide

D Physostigmine

89. Which of the following teratogenic agents/drugs has the potential to cause
hydrocephalus in the fetus/neonate?
A Alcohol

C Isotretinoin

B Phenytoin

D Thalidomide

90. Which of the following benzodiazepines is also known as 'Ativan' by trade name?
A Lorazepam

C Diazepam

B Triazolam

D Alprazolam

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

91. True about blood:gas partition coefficient of volatile anesthetic agents:

A slow recovery for low blood:gas
partition coefficient

C requires low blood solubility for

quick action

B requires high blood solubility for

quick action

D low blood solubility promotes

faster elimination

92. Ionic inhibitors that inhibit iodide trapping:

A Methimazole

C Carbimazole

B Propylthiouracil

D Perchlorate

93. Free Plasmin is inactivated by

A Plasminogen activator inhibitor-1

C Plasminogen

B Streptokinase

D 2-antiplasmin

94. Which of the following is a neuroleptic?

A Dronabinol

C Prochlorperazine

B Promethazine

D Metoclopramide

95. Chloramphenicol inhibits metabolism of all of the following drugs except:

A Phenobarbitone

C Cyclophosphamide

B Phenytoin

D Chlorpropamide

96. A broad spectrum microbiocidal agent:

A Boric acid

C Sodium hypochlorite solution

B Iodine

D Calamine

97. The National Formulary of India (NFI, 2010) approved a regimen of 1 week for
eradication of H. pylori. The regimen is:
A Omeprazole + Amoxicillin +
Clarithromycin

C Omeprazole + Metronidazole +
Amoxicillin

B Lansoprazole + Amoxicillin +
Clarithromycin

D Lansoprazole + Metronidazole +
Clarithromycin

98. A bipyridine derivative that is a selective phosphodiesterase 3 (PDE3) inhibitor:

A Sildenafil

C Sibutramine

B Nitrendipine

D Amrinone

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

99. A local anesthetic agent with high plasma protein binding but low PKa
A Ropivacaine

C Xylocaine

B Bupivacaine

D Etidocaine

100. A drug which is highly effective in the treatment of meningeal tuberculosis:

A Pyrazinamide

C Streptomycin

B Rifampin

D Ethambutol

101. A -blocker having intrinsic sympathomimetic activity:

A Esmolol

C Sotalol

B Labetalol

D Pindolol

102. Corneal microdeposits are seen in patients due to adverse effects of

A Amiodarone

C Sildenafil

B Busulfan

D Digoxin

103. The primary site of action of Furosemide:

A collecting duct

C late Distal tubule

B thick AscLH

D proximal tubule

104. Anti-cancer drug whose dose should be reduced when given concurrently with
allopurinol:
A Methotrexate

C Fluorouracil (5-FU)

B Mercaptopurine (6-MP)

D Fludarabine

105. The effects of Pilocarpine include all except:

A mydriasis

C miosis

B ciliary muscle contraction

D fall in intraocular pressure

106. The blood brain barrier (BBB) is deficient at:

A the CTZ in the medulla oblongata

C the CTZ in the choroid plexus

B the CTZ in the corpus callosum

D the CTZ in the periventricular

white matter

107. Which of the following is a non-steroidal selective estrogen receptor modulator

(SERM)?
A Dienestrol

C Onapristone

B Ormeloxifene

D Exemestane

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

108. Of the following drugs, which one is not useful in treating schizophrenia?
A Haloperidol

C Clozapine

B Chlorpromazine

D Bromocriptine

109. Class III antiarrhythmic drug:

A Diltiazem

C Amiodarone

B Lidocaine

D Esmolol

110. A drug having spasmolytic activity

A Halofantrine

C Dantrolene

B Phenytoin

D Nitrates

111. Alkaline diuresis is indicated for management of poisoning with

A lithium

C quinine

B theophylline

D phenobarbital

112. A drug that blocks the axonal uptake of noradrenaline (NA) by blocking
norepinephrine transporter (NET) pump:
A desipramine

C reserpine

B corticosterone

D tyramine

113. Which of the following hypoglycaemic agents have the longest duration of action?
A Glipizide

C Metformin

B Glimeperide

D Tolbutamide

114. Why dantrolene have little or no effect on cardiac muscles?

A it acts on different subtype
(RyR2) of Ca2+ channels

C it only acts on skeletal muscles

D none of the above

B there are no Ryanodine

receptors on cardiac muscles

115. A drug which is a microfilaricidal as well as a slow acting macrofilaricidal:

A Niclosamide

C Diethylcarbamazine

B Levamisole

D Ivermectin

116. Which of he following is a heterocyclic benzofuran?

A Amphotericin B

C Furazolidone

B Thiacetazone

D Griseofulvin

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

117. A centrally acting muscle relaxant:

A Dantrolene

C d-Tubocurarine

B Succinylcholine

D Baclofen

118. Which of the following aminoglycoside antibiotics is preferred in the regimen for
multidrug-resistant (MDR-TB) tuberculosis during the intensive phase?
A Tobramycin

C Kanamycin

B Aureomycin

D Gentamicin

119. All of the following are effective in eradicating urinary tract infections except:
A Nitrofurazone

C Methenamine

B Nitrofurantoin

D Nalidixic acid

120. By inhibiting CYP450 enzymes, ketoconazole raises the blood levels of:
A Omeprazole

C Hydrocortisone

B Rifampin

D Phenobarbitone

121. Which of the following conditions decrease iron absorption?

A Antacids

C Rheumatoid arthritis

B Gastric acids

D Ingestion of meat

122. All of the following intravenous anaesthetics reduces Cerebral blood flow (CBF)
except:
A ketamine

C etomidate

B thiopentone

D propofol

123. A drug that blocks the vesicular uptake of noradrenaline (NA) by blocking the
'vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT-2) pump:
A Guanethidine

C Cocaine

B Reserpine

D Ephedrine

124. The major muscarinic M2 receptors are located in

A Exocrine glands

C Myocardium

B Vascular endothelium

D Postganglionic neurons

125. Which among the following is not a cardio-selective -blocker?

A Timolol

C Metoprolol

B Acebutolol

D Esmolol

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

126. Which of the following drugs do not cross the blood-brain barrier?
A Physostigmine

C Erythromycin

B Lomustine

D Praziquantel

127. Which of the following is an example of dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker?

A verapamil

C diltiazem

B amplodipine

D lisinopril

128. Regarding iron absorption:

A iron circulates in plasma bound
to haemosiderin

C total plasma iron content is 3

mg

B low iron status stimulate

apoferritin synthesis

D iron circulates in plasma bound

to ferritin

129. Megaloblastic anemia as a side effect is associated with:

A Chloramphenicol

C Phenytoin

B Carbamazepine

D Colchicine

130. Which of the following drugs is/are derived naturally from an alkaloid?
A Noscapine

C Galantamine

B Neostigmine

D Arterolane

131. Match the following drugs with their corresponding teratogenic effects:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Isotretinoin
Warfarin
Carbamazepine
Valproate sod.
Lithium

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

spina bifida
growth retardation
neural tube defects
fetal goiter
hydrocephalus

132. Selective monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) include:

A Isocarboxazid

C Tranylcypromine

B Phenelzine

D Moclobemide

133. Both the enzymes (D1 & D2) type 1 and type 2 iodothyronine deiodinase are
blocked by:
A carbimazole

C perchlorate

B amiodarone

D propylthiouracil

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

134. Long acting barbiturates:

A secobarbital

C pentobarbital

B amobarbital

D phenobarbital

135. Second line anti-tubercular drugs include:

A Ethambutol

C Pyrazinamide

B Streptomycin

D Ethionamide

136. The most common non-traumatic cause of neurologic disability in the early
adulthood:
A Parkinson's disease

C Myasthenia gravis

B Alzheimer's disease

D Multiple sclerosis

137. A selective GABAB receptor agonist:

A Tizanidine

C Baclofen

B Methocarbamol

D Dantrolene

138. A psychostimulant popular with night shift 'call centre' workers to keep them alert
and awake:
A Buspirone

C Modafinil

B Clozapine

D Aripiprazole

139. Irreversible MAO-B inhibitor

A Carbidopa

C Selegiline

B Phenezine

D Moclobemide

140. Which of the following is replaced in desflurane to form isoflurane?

A chlorine

C fluorine

B bromine

D both a & c

141. Pyrantel pamoate is active against all except:

A Enterobius

C Trichuris

B Ascaris

D Necator

142. None of the following drugs penetrates the brain except:

A cetirizine

C fexofenadine

B azelastine

D loratidine

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

143. Which of the following is an anti-obesity drug?

A Lorcaserin

C Mecasermin

B Dabigatran

D Octreotide

144. Which of the following cranial nerve is particularly susceptible to toxicity from
aminoglycosides:
A 10th cranial nerve

C 8th cranial nerve

B 9th cranial nerve

D 5th cranial nerve

145. The most important dose-dependent adverse effect of didanosine therapy is

A pancreatitis

C peripheral neuropathy

B nephrotoxicity

D hepatotoxicity

146. A lipid neurotransmitter:

A Anandamide

C Kyotorphin

B Neurokinin A

D Neuropeptide Y

147. Liver function needs to be monitored with all of the following except:
A Febuxostat

C Ciclosporin

B Tolcapone

D Metformin

148. Which of the following is a substrate for hepatic isoenzyme CYP3A4?

A paracetamol

C diazepam

B nifedipine

D haloperidol

149. Which of the following drugs is useful to treat ventricular arrhythmias due to
digitalis toxicity?
A Propranolol

C Procainamide

B Quinidine

D Lidocaine

150. Which of the following drugs can be categorized under nitrosoureas?

A Carmustine

C Melphalan

B Busulfan

D Dacarbazine

151. A 'glucocorticoid receptor antagonist' used in Cushing's syndrome to decrease

corticosteroid production:
A Ketoconazole

C Aminoglutethimide

B Mitotane

D Mifepristone

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

152. An aromatse inhibitor:

A Ormeloxifene

C Letrozole

B Fomepizole

D Aripiprazole

153. Treatment of choice for extrapyramidal side effect called akathisia unresponsive
to benzodiazepines:
A Bromocriptine

C Propranolol

B Promethazine

D Clozapine

154. Suppression of lactation is associated with

A Bromocriptine

C Corticosteroids

B Metoclopramide

D Leuprolide

155. Dose and duration dependent toxicity of ethambutol:

A peripheral neuritis

C visual impairment

B ototoxicity

D hepatotoxicity

156. Calamine contains all of the following except:

A zinc oxide

C ferric oxide

B boric acid

D zinc carbonate

157. The primary site of action of the diuretic Xipamide:

A Proximal Tubule

C loop of Henle

B Distal tubule

D Collecting tubule

158. Which of the following drugs is transported by the Organic base transporter (OCT)
of the proximal renal tubules?
A indomethacin

C methotrexate

B probenecid

D furosemide

159. All of the following antifungal agents can be administered i.v. (intravenous) for
systemic mycoses except:
A Voriconazole

C Caspofungin

B Ketoconazole

D Flucytosine

160. A drug not useful in extraintestinal amoebiasis:

A Quiniodochlor

C Metronidazole

B Dehydroemetine

D Chloroquine

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

161. Which of the following drugs is transported by the Organic acid transporter (OAT)
of the proximal renal tubules?
A nitrofurantoin

C triamterene

B amiloride

D procainamide

162. Which of the following drugs interact with 5-HT1a serotonin receptors?
A Risperidone

C Sumatriptan

B Ondansetron

D Buspirone

163. Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker:

A Doxacurium

C d-tubocurarine

B Decamethonium

D Dantrolene sodium

164. Which of the following drugs is a selective 1- agonist?

A Methoxamine

C Clonidine

B Isoprenaline

D Isoxsuprine

165. Apparent volume of distribution of digoxin is

A 4 L/kg

C 5 L/kg

B 3.5 L/kg

D 6 L/kg

166. Which of the following hypoglycaemic agents have the shortest duration of action?
A Sitagliptin

C Glipizide

B Nateglinide

D Metformin

167. Tricyclic antidepressant that has the highest anticholinergic effects:

A Imipramine

C Amitriptyline

B Trazodone

D Bupropion

168. The dose-limiting toxicity of anticancer drug ifosfamide is

A renal impairment

C haemorrhagic cystitis

B bone marrow depression

D pulmonary fibrosis

169. The mechanism of action of Vancomycin

A cause leakage from cell
membranes

C inhibit bacterial cell wall

synthesis

B inhibit microtubule assembly

D inhibit protein synthesis

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

170. A drug that prolongs T life of xylocaine by reducing hepatic blood flow:
A Propranolol

C Erythromycin

B Imipramine

D Verapamil

171. Which of the following statements is true regarding Meyer and Overton hypothesis
about anesthetic agents?
A correlation between potency in
vivo and solubility in oil

C correlation between solubility in

alcohol and its efficacy in vivo

B correlation between blood:gas

partition coefficient

D correlation between potency in

vivo and solubility in water

172. 'Drug fever' is associated with all of the following drugs except:
A Dapsone

C Artesunate

B Chloroquine

D Sulfonamides

173. All of the following are Calcium channel blockers except:

A Nifedipine

C Nicorandil

B Diltiazem

D Verapamil

174. Which of the following among these have the highest oral bioavailability?
A Levofloxacin

C Ciprofloxacin

B Pefloxacin

D Norfloxacin

175. Genetic deficiency of thiopurine methyl transferase (TPMT) predisposes

individuals to enhanced toxicity from
A Methotrexate

C Allopurinol

B Citarabine

D Azathioprine

176. The best treatment for febrile convulsions in children under 5 years of age:
A phenobarbitone

C diazepam

B paracetamol

D valproate

177. Antibiotics obtained from actinomycetes include all of the following except:
A Chloramphenicol

C Erythromycin

B Polymyxin B

D Nystatin

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

178. The function of 2- antiplasmin

A inactivates plasminogen

C activates plasminogen activator

inhibitor-1

B inactivates tissue plasminogen

activator (t-PA)

D none of the above

179. A highly selective 2 agonist:

A Astemizole

C Isoprenaline

B Salbutamol

D Propranolol

180. Bimodal distribution in plasma concentration is observed with all except:

A Phenytoin

C Procainamide

B Isoniazid

D Hydralazine

181. Regarding drug metabolism by rapid acetylators, spot the incorrect statements:
A rapid metabolism is autosomal
dominant

C heterozygotes are rapid

acetylators

B rapid metabolism is autosomal

recessive

D homozygotes are slow acetylators

182. 'Neuroleptic syndrome' is generally associated with:

A Pentobarbital

C Valproic acid

B Alprazolam

D Chlorpromazine

183. Which of the following anticancer drugs is/are effective in the treatment of brain
cancer?
A Cyclophosphamide

C Busulfan

B Carmustine

D temozolomide

184. The dose-limiting toxicity of Carboplatin is

A neutropenia

C megaloblastic anaemia

B thrombocytopenia

D peripheral neuropathy

185. List the following barbiturates in correct order from shortest acting to longest
acting barbiturates: (1 to 4)
A.
B.
C.
D.

Amobarbital
Phenobarbital
Methohexital
Pentobarbital

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

186. The mechanism of action of dobutamine:

A 1- sympathomimetic

C 1 + 2 sympathomimetic

B 1- sympathomimetic

D 2- sympathomimetic

187. Regarding oral contraceptive pills (OCP), spot the incorrect statements:
A proportion of cholic acid is
decreased

C proportion of chenodeoxycholic
acid is decreased

B they increase the flow of bile

D increase the incidence of

cholelithiasis

188. Besides brain, the dopamine D4 receptors are also found in

A Skeletal muscle neuromuscular
end plates

C Platelets
D Juxtaglomerular apparatus of
renal tubules

B Cardiovascular system

189. Which of the following agents reduces Calcium reabsorption and may lead to
hypocalcemia?
A Phenytoin

C Glucocorticoids

B Indapamide

D Calcitriol

190. Drugs contraindicated (C/I) during breastfeeding:

A Streptomycin

C Famotidine

B Metformin

D Omeprazole

191. Intravenous anesthetics with highest cerebral vasodilation potency:

A Halothane

C Sevoflurane

B Isoflurane

D Enflurane

192. Which of the following is not a prodrug?

A Amoxicillin

C Dipivefrine

B Minoxidil

D Famciclovir

193. Analeptics should not be given to a patient intoxicated with alcohol because it can:
A precipitate Torsades de pointes

C depresses respiration

B precipitate acute hepatic necrosis

D precipitate convulsions

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

194. Drug that prevents degradation of acetylcholine:

A tubocurarine

C neostigmine

B scopolamine

D atropine

195. Factors decreasing the effects of oral anticoagulants:

A Nephrotic syndrome

C Chronic alcoholism

B Hyperthyroidism

D Malnutrition

196. Which of the following is an uterine relaxant and vasodilator?

A Isoxuprine

C Methoxamine

B Xylometazoline

D Sibutramine

197. Which of the following benzodiazepines has the highest protein binding?
A lorazepam

C alprazolam

B flurazepam

D diazepam

198. Which of the following statements about GABA is/are incorrect?

A constitutes cerebellar Purkinje
cells

C synthesized by GABA
transminase

B degraded by GABA transminase

D synthesized by glutamic acid

decarboxylase

199. Anti-malarial drug classified as 8-Aminoquinoline:

A Chloroquine

C Amodiaquine

B Primaquine

D Mefloquine

200. Arterial dilator that primarily decreases afterload:

A Isosorbide dinitrate

C Nitroprusside sod.

B Amrinone

D Nicorandil

Basic Medical Sciences

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2017

MCQ-Series

Practice Test -II

Pharmacology

Disclaimer: Every attempt has been made to validate each and every question/answer.
All remaining errors are deeply regretted. Author will not be held responsible for any
errors. Please consult the standard textbooks given in the reference section for any
discrepancy. Questions with wrong answers may better be left unanswered. This is a
practice series available free to download, and designed for the benefit of prospective
PG candidates and UG medical students alike.
Reference Textbooks:
1. Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th Edition, KD Tripathi
2. Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 13th Edition, Katzung & Trevor
3. A Textbook of Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics, 5th Edition, Ritter, Lewis,
Mant & Ferro

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2017