Technical Drawing Questions and Answers

1. Traditional Drafting Techniques

1. A half-moon protractor is divided into how many degrees?
A
.

360

B
.

180

C
.

270

D
.

310

2. A line drawn with a long section, short dash, and another long section is a ________.
A
.

hidden feature

B
.

center of a circle

C
.

center axis of a hidden cylinder

D
.

center of a radius

3. Traditional drafters need to be able to create several different line widths because ________.
A
.

different line widths convey different information

B
.

the line width has to do with how dark it appear in the finished drawing

C
.

they seem to transmit better in a fax machine

D
.

it makes no difference

4. Several of the tools used in traditional drafting include the following:

A
.

Parallel straight edge

B
.

45 degree triangle

Circle template

.
D
.

All of the above

5. A civil engineer working on a bridge design would probably rely on his ________ scale for
checking printed drawings.
A
.

engineer's

B
.

metric

C
.

architect's

D
.

none of the above

6. In order to convert fractional inches into decimal inches ________.

A
.

look on a metric conversion chart

B
.

divide the numerator (top number) by the denominator (bottom number)

C
.

check the engineer's scale

D
.

all of the above

An engineer's scale would be used to measure lines on a drawing where the scale factor reads
_______.
A
.

/4" = 1'-0"

B
.

/8" = 1'-0"

C
.

1" = 100'

D
.

/4" = 1'-0"

8. Referring to the fractional inches to decimal inches to millimeter conversion chart on page 55
what is the equivalent mm measurement of 3/16 inch.
A
.

1.906

B
.

4.7625

C
.

5.958

D
.

14.6844

9. Some traditional board drafters preferred the drafting machine over the parallel straight edge
because it could be used without the need for________.
A
.

circle templates

B
.

triangles

C
.

technical pens

D
.

lettering guides

10. The first step in creating a traditional technical drawing is to ________.

A
.

draw a series of guide lines

B
.

set up the miter line

C
.

align the paper so that it will be positioned square to the parallel bar

D
.

sharpen the leads in the technical pens

1A.Traditional Drafting Techniques - True or False

1. With some imagination, traditional drafters could actually produce a true 3-dimensional drawing.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. The parallel straight edge can be used for aligning the paper as well as drawing horizontal lines.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. Both the drafting machine and the parallel straight edge were used on specially designed tables
to aid the drafter in producing technical drawings.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. When using a technical pencil to create a drawing the drafter would usually select a soft lead to
create a very light line.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. A line to be drawn perpendicular to a horizontal line can only be drawn with a 45 degree triangle.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. An architect's scale is divided into 10ths of an inch.

A
.

True

B
.

False

7. A drafter can use the 45 degree triangle to draw a 30 degree line.

A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Every drafter and engineer continues to utilize both the architect and engineer's scales.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Prior to the development of computer aided drafting, drafters relied on drawing boards, paper,
and pencils to create technical drawings.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. A 15 degree line can be easily created by arranging both the 45 degree and 30/60 degree
triangles.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. Layouts and Lettering

1. When lettering a CAD drawing, for clarity you should limit the number of fonts to:
A
.

One

B
.

Two

C
.

Three

D
.

Any number

2. The primary unit of measurement for engineering drawings and design in the mechanical
industries is the:
A
.

Millimeter

B
.

Centimeter

C
.

Meter

D
.

Kilometer

3. These units are based on inch-foot and yard measurements:

A
.

International customary units

B
.

U.S. metric units

C
.

U.S. customary units

D
.

ISO international units

4. This is how axonometric, oblique, and perspective sketches show objects:

A
.

Orthographically

B
.

Pictorially

C
.

Obliquely

D
.

Parallel

5. This type of projection is when projectors are parallel to each other, but are at an angle other
than 90 degrees to the plane of projection:
A
.

Oblique projection

B
.

Perpendicular projection

C
.

Aesthetic projection

D
.

Angular projection

6.There are two main types of projection:

A
.

Parallel and Orthographic

B
.

Station-point and Perspective

C
.

Parallel and Convergent

D
.

Perspective and Parallel

2A.Layouts and Lettering - True or False

1. In orthographic projection objects can be presented at true size or scaled at a proportion of their
true size.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. The same general concepts and drafting standards apply to CAD as to drawings created by
hand.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. The meaning of each line on a technical drawing is indicated by its width and its particular line
style.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. Orthographic projections are a type of parallel projection.

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Drawings that use U.S. customary units do not follow ANSI/ASME standards.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. The main difference between a CAD drawing and a freehand sketch is in the appearance of
lines.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. With regard to lettering, the shapes of letters are not described as part of drawing standards.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Scale is stated as a ratio of the number of drawing units to the number of actual units.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Axonometric, oblique, and perspective sketches show objects pictorially.

A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Drawing units must be clearly stated on the drawing.

A
.

True

B
.

False

11. Drawing scale refers only to the reduction of the size of a drawn object relative to the real object.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. Orthographic projections have projectors that are parallel to the plane of projection.
A
.

True

B
.

False

13. Multiview projection shows one or more necessary views of an object.

A
.

True

B
.

False

14. Three systems are used to arrange orthographic views: first, second, and third angle projection.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3.Orthographic Projection
1. The top, front, and bottom views align in this manner:
A
.

Horizontally

B
.

Vertically

C
.

According to the planar views

D
.

Parallel to the frontal plane

2. If a plane is parallel to the plane of projection, it appears:

A
.

True size

B
.

As a line or edge

C
.

Foreshortened

D
.

As an oblique surface

3. This line pattern is composed of three dashes, one long dash on each end with a short dash in
the middle:

A
.

Object

B
.

Hidden

C
.

Center

D
.

Phantom

4. This is the plane upon which the top view is projected:

A
.

Horizontal

B
.

Frontal

C
.

Profile

D
.

Base

5. An advantage of this type of view is that each view shows the object all the way through as if it
were transparent:
A
.

Planar

B
.

Horizontal

C
.

Auxiliary

D
.

Orthographic

6.This type of surface is tipped to all principal planes of projection and does not appear true size
in any standard view:
A
.

Foreshortened

B
.

Parallel

C
.

Orthographic

D
.

Oblique

3A.Orthographic Projection - True or False

1. Visible lines always take precedence over hidden lines or centerlines.

A
.

True

B
.

False

2. Any object can be viewed from six mutually perpendicular views.

A
.

True

B
.

False

3. A total of three principal views are arranged in a standard way.

A
.

True

B
.

False

4. Height is shown in the left-side, top, right-side, and bottom views.

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. A plane surface always projects either on edge or as a surface in any view.

A
.

True

B
.

False

6. If an edge is perpendicular to a plane of projection, it appears as a point.

A
.

True

B
.

False

7. The depth dimensions in the top and side views do not necessarily correspond.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. The profile plane is the plane upon which the side view is projected.
A
.

True

False

10

.
9. The rear, left-side, front, and right-side views align horizontally.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Width is shown in the rear, top, front, and bottom views.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11. If an angle is in an inclined plane, it may be projected either larger or smaller than the true angle
depending on its position.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. Usually screws, bolts, shafts, tubes, and other elongated parts are drawn in a vertical position in
the front view.
A
.

True

B
.

False

13. A normal surface is perpendicular to a plane of projection.

A
.

True

B
.

False

14. In orthographic views, dashed lines represent features that would be hidden behind other
surfaces.
A
.

True

B
.

False

15. Drawings are two-dimensional representations of objects that allow you to record sizes and
shapes precisely.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11

16. Any principal view shows three of the four principal dimensions.
A
.

True

B
.

False

17. A plane surface that is parallel to a plane of projection appears on edge as a straight line.
A
.

True

B
.

False

18. First-angle projection is primarily used in Europe and Asia.

A
.

True

B
.

False

4. Sectional Views
1. This type of section is limited by a break line:
A
.

Removed section

B
.

Revolved section

C
.

Broken-out section

D
.

Half section

2. Drafters should use a ________ in a section view of a mechanical part that includes the
cylindrical view of a threaded hole.
A
.

Center line

B
.

Hatch line

C
.

Poly line

D
.

Dimension line

3. The section view drawing in which one fourth of an object has been marked for removal is
known as a ________ section.
A
.

full

12

B
.

half

C
.

quarter

D
.

none of the above

4. In offset sections, offsets or bends in the cutting plane are all:

A
.

90 degrees

B
.

180 degrees

C
.

Either 90 or 180 degrees

D
.

30, 60, or 90 degrees

5. When filling an area with a hatch pattern in AutoCAD the drafter needs to be able to ________.
A
.

see the entire bounding area to hatch

B
.

set Ortho on

C
.

turn ISO grid off

D
.

set the layer to Defpoints

6. To avoid having to dimension to a hidden feature the drafter can utilize a ________ section.
A
.

whole

B
.

half

C
.

broken out

D
.

all of the above

7. Objects that are symmetric can be shown effectively using this type of section:
A
.

Quarter section

B
.

Half section

13

C
.

Full section

D
.

Symmetric section

8. This type of section is not in direct projection from the view containing the cutting plane:
A
.

Revolved section

B
.

Removed section

C
.

Broken-out section

D
.

Full section

9. By using a ________ section of a cylindrical mechanical part the drafter should be able to show
only one view of the part.
A
.

half

B
.

whole

C
.

revolved

D
.

broken out

10. In the section view, the areas that would have been in actual contact with the cutting plane are
shown with:
A
.

A cutting plane line

B
.

Section lining

C
.

Visible lines

D
.

Lines and arrows

11. These breaks are used to shorten the view of an object:

A
.

Section breaks

B
.

Aligned breaks

14

C
.

Conventional breaks

D
.

Full breaks

12. In architectural drawing ________ are often used to illustrate and detail structural components.
A
.

Foundation beam detail sections

B
.

Wall sections

C
.

Building sections

D
.

All of the above

13. When only a small section of an interior area needs to be revealed the drafter can use a
________ section.
A
.

half

B
.

quarter

C
.

full

D
.

broken out

14. In this type of section, one quarter of the object is removed:

A
.

Revolved section

B
.

Removed section

C
.

Quarter section

D
.

Half section

15. A ________ section allows the drafter to create a Cutting Plane line which is not in a straight line
across the part.
A
.

Offset

B
.

half

15

C
.

whole

D
.

broken out

16. The ________ is a standard element of a section view in a technical drawing.

A
.

Cutting Plane line

B
.

Section lines

C
.

Material hatch pattern

D
.

All of the above

17. When creating a Cutting Plane line with AutoCAD it is customary to use a ________ to create
the line.
A
.

center line

B
.

polyline

C
.

dashed line

D
.

hatch line

4A.Sectional Views - True or False

1. Hidden lines are typically included in section views.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. The Cutting Plane line reveals the type of material that the object is to be made from.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. Removed sections should be labeled and arranged in order from right to left.
A
.

True

False

16

.
4. When a cutting plane line would obscure important details, just the ends of the line outside the
view and the arrows can be shown.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. The cutting plane is shown in a view adjacent to the sectional view.

A
.

True

B
.

False

6. The pattern used for hatching a section can be something other than diagonal lines.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. In offset sections, the bends in the cutting plane are typically shown in the sectional view.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Omit hidden lines from both halves of a half section whenever possible.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. The visible edges of the object behind the cutting plane are not cross-hatched.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Quarter sections expose the interior of one half of the object and the exterior of the other half.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11. The visible lines adjacent to a revolved section may be broken out if desired.
A

True

17

.
B
.

False

12. When a part is cut fully in half, the resulting view is called a half section.
A
.

True

B
.

False

13. The ANSI 131 hatch pattern is the AutoCAD default hatch pattern.
A
.

True

B
.

False

14. The section lines in all hatched areas for an object must be parallel.
A
.

True

B
.

False

15. One of the outcomes of using section views in a technical drawing is the elimination of hidden
lines.
A
.

True

B
.

False

16. In AutoCAD the Hatch tool is used to designate what pattern is to be used for a section view.
A
.

True

B
.

False

17. The angle of revolution should always be less than 45 degrees for an aligned section.
A
.

True

B
.

False

18. In technical drawing a section view is often used to reveal some or all of an object's internal
features.
A
.

True

False

18

.
19. Section views are only used for mechanical drawings.
A
.

True

B
.

False

20. The Cutting Plane line should be displayed at the same line weight as object lines.
A
.

True

B
.

False

21. When a cutting plane coincides with a centerline, the cutting plane line takes precedence.
A
.

True

B
.

False

22. If you set the ANSI 131 hatch pattern to an angle of 45 degrees the lines will be placed vertically.
A
.

True

B
.

False

23. Ribs, webs, gear teeth, and other similar features are typically not hatched with section lining,
even if the cutting plane slices them.
A
.

True

B
.

False

24. Section views cannot replace the normal top, front, side, or other standard orthographic views.
A
.

True

B
.

False

25. A section-lined area is always completely bounded by a visible outline.

A
.

True

B
.

False

26. The preferred cutting plane line style is made up of equal dashes ending in arrowheads.
A

True

19

.
B
.

False

27. The arrow points on either end of a Cutting Plane line indicate the direction of view.
A
.

True

B
.

False

28. It is not acceptable to use the general-purpose symbol at different angles for different parts.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Multi view Drawing

1. If a designer is developing a plan for a project in which the entire part is made out of " thick
plywood and he only wants to use one view, he should use the ________ view.
A
.

front

B
.

top

C
.

right

D
.

back

2. In developing a multi-view drawing the drafter can use a ________ line to help locate the top
and right side views.
A
.

object

B
.

hidden

C
.

dimension

D
.

miter

3. The type of line that projects from an object for the express purpose of locating a dimension is a
________ line.

20

A
.

visible

B
.

hidden

C
.

extension

D
.

dimension

4. Center lines are used to locate or represent the centers of ________.

A
.

arcs

B
.

circles

C
.

hidden round features

D
.

all of the above

5. Architectural drawings used to construct a house are often plotted with a scale of " = 1'-0".
What scale is this?
A
.

Quarter

B
.

Half

C
.

Full

D
.

Double

6. In multi-view drawing it is common practice to include three views, the front, the top and the right
side. If no dimensions are required on the right side view the drafter can ________.
A
.

leave the view as is

B
.

eliminate the view

C
.

use the left view instead

D
.

none of the above

7. The AutoCAD command used to combine two or more primitive shapes into a single complex 3dimensional model is ________.

21

A
.

add

B
.

union

C
.

attach

D
.

form

8. Most architectural drawings produced for field use by building contractors are printed on
architectural "D" size paper which measures ________.
A
.

24" X 36"

B
.

18" X 24"

C
.

11" X 17"

D
.

34" X 22"

9. Geometric primitives include shapes such as ________.

A
.

boxes

B
.

cylinders

C
.

wedges

D
.

all of the above

10. A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ________.
A
.

1:1

B
.

1:2

C
.

2:1

D
.

1:4

5A.Multiview Drawing - True or False

1. If technical drawings are used to communicate size and shape descriptions, it is not important to

22

worry about either the weight of a line or the type of line being used.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. The ASME Y14.2M line thickness standard for visible lines is .8mm thick.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. A projection plane is an imaginary 2 dimensional plane that needs to be parallel to the surface of
the object.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. A "D" size architectural sheet measures 24" X 36".

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. In a set of architectural drawings the views illustrating the front, back, and side of a house are
called elevations.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. A visible line represents the continuous edge of an object being illustrated.

A
.

True

B
.

False

7. A three dimensional object can be constructed with only the height and width dimensions given.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Short dashed lines can be used to illustrate a visible feature.

A
.

True

23

B
.

False

9. Multi-view drawings are usually comprised of the projected views which illustrate the height,
width, and depth of an object.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. The projection of geometric information such as lines, points, and planes is usually referred to as
orthographic projection.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Dimensioning
1. The condition of a part when it contains the least amount of material is referred to as ________.
A
.

smallest

B
.

LMC

C
.

MMC

D
.

actual size

2. This is used to indicate that a surface is to be machined:

A
.

Finish mark

B
.

Machining mark

C
.

Roughness indicator

D
.

Coordinate mark

3. The ________ tool on the Dimension tool bar places the length of an arch on a drawing.
4. How can the drafter prevent AutoCAD from placing or stacking another center mark on a circle
when adding a diameter dimension to it?
A
.

Explode the dimension and then erase the center mark.

24

B
.

Use the Properties dialog box to turn off the center mark of the dimension.

C
.

It can't be done.

D
.

Use the trim tool to take away the stacked center mark.

5. In this type of dimensioning, allowance must be made for bends:

A
.

Angular

B
.

Tolerance

C
.

Datum

D
.

Sheet metal

6. One way to evenly space dimensions on a drawing is to use the ________.

A
.

Dimension Space tool

B
.

Linear tool

C
.

Continue tool

D
.

Baseline tool

7. The ________ tool on the Dimension tool bar will place several dimensions at one time by using
a selection box placed over several part features.
A
.

Linear

B
.

Continue

C
.

Baseline

D
.

Quick Dimension

8. A circular arc is dimensioned in the view where you see its true shape by giving the value for its:
A
.

Diameter

Arc length

25

.
C
.

Radius

D
.

Chord length

9. This is the total amount that the feature on the actual part is allowed to vary from what is
specified by the dimension:
A
.

Allowance

B
.

Tolerance

C
.

Specification

D
.

Difference

10. The ________ dimension tool will place the length of an angled line.
A
.

Aligned

B
.

Angle

C
.

Linear

D
.

Radial

11. Placement of dimensions on a drawing is controlled by ________.

A
.

ANSI

B
.

The design engineer

C
.

Corporate drafting standards

D
.

All of the above

12. Baseline dimensions are referenced from a common geometric feature known as a ________.
A
.

edge

B
.

corner

26

C
.

datum

D
.

point of reference

13. Given a situation in which the drafter has crossed extension lines in a drawing what can be done
to clean up the point of crossing?
A
.

Use the Modify tool to clean up the extension lines.

B
.

Use the Tolerance tool to clean up the extension lines.

C
.

Use the Break tool to clean up the extension lines.

D
.

Use the stretch tool to clean up the extension lines.

14. This is a thin solid line directing attention to a note or dimension and starting with an arrowhead
or dot:
A
.

Dimension line

B
.

Extension line

C
.

Leader

D
.

Specification

15. The maximum and minimum sizes of a feature are identified by a ________ tolerance.
A
.

Limits

B
.

GD&T

C
.

reference

D
.

allowance

16. This is a line terminated by arrowheads, indicating the direction and extent of a dimension:
A
.

Dimension line

B
.

Extension line

27

C
.

Arrowhead line

D
.

Centerline

17. In U.S. structural and architectural drafting, all dimensions of this length are usually expressed in
feet and inches:
A
.

One inch or over

B
.

One foot or over

C
.

One yard or over

D
.

One rod or over

6A.Dimensioning - True or False

1. The inch is the commonly used unit for most metric engineering drawings.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. Most mechanical drawings will include tolerance information in or near the drawing title block.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. When designing mechanical devices, the designer must consider what the allowable variation in
size between mating parts can be.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. Fillet radii can be given in a general note.

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. An external cylindrical shape is dimensioned where it appears circular.

A
.

True

28

B
.

False

6. Where the decimal-inch dimension is used, a zero is not used before the decimal point of values
less than 1.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. It is always acceptable to dimension to a hidden feature.

A
.

True

B
.

False

8. When a finished part is measured, it may vary slightly from the exact dimension specified.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Tolerance issues are primarily a concern in manufacturing rather than in the design and drafting
process.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Dimensions are given in the form of distances, angles, and notes only when using metric units.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11. The nominal size of a feature is the exact measurement of the feature after the tolerance has
been applied to it.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. Drawings are usually made to a scale, which is indicated in the title block.
A
.

True

B
.

False

29

13. A set of two mutually perpendicular datum planes is required for coordinate dimensioning.
A
.

True

B
.

False

14. Although an engineer has placed dimensions in specific locations the drafter has the freedom to
arrange them as he deems necessary.
A
.

True

B
.

False

15. Typically, all dimension values and notes are lettered horizontally and should read from the
bottom of the sheet.
A
.

True

B
.

False

16. A heavy straight line should be drawn under all dimension values that are to scale.
A
.

True

B
.

False

17. By adding dimensions to a technical drawing the drafter is providing information about the size
and location of features of a part.
A
.

True

B
.

False

18. An extension line is a thin, dark, solid line that extends from a point on the drawing to which a
dimension refers.
19. It is permissible to letter a dimension value over any line on the drawing.
A
.

True

B
.

False

20. It is more difficult to manufacture a part designed using two decimal places than the same part
using four decimal places.
A
.

True

False

30

.
21. In a group of parallel dimension lines, the dimension values should be staggered.
A
.

True

B
.

False

22. When extension lines or centerlines cross visible object lines, gaps should not be left in the lines.
A
.

True

B
.

False

23. The American Society of Mechanical Engineers provides a set of common standards used by
industry for placement of dimensions.
A
.

True

B
.

False

24. Longer dimension lines are nearest the object outline.

A
.

True

B
.

False

25. A metric dimension that is a whole number does not show a decimal point or a zero.
A
.

True

B
.

False

26. Dimension lines should not cross extension lines.

A
.

True

B
.

False

27. Avoid dimensioning to hidden lines.

A
.

True

B
.

False

28. The drafter should always try to dimension to the profile view of an object when possible.
A

True

31

.
B
.

False

7. Tolerance
1. When lines intersect on a drawing at angles of this many degrees, it is customary not to
dimension the angle:
A
.

360

B
.

180

C
.

90

D
.

45

2. This is the term for the range of tightness or looseness resulting from the allowances and
tolerances in mating parts:
A
.

Limits

B
.

Fit

C
.

Specifications

D
.

Allowance

3. This is the measured size of a finished part:

A
.

Actual size

B
.

Dimensioned size

C
.

Production size

D
.

Basic size

4. This means that a feature of a finished product contains the maximum amount of material
permitted by the toleranced dimensions for that feature:
A
.

Maximum material condition

Machined material condition

32

.
C
.

Maximum machined indication

D
.

Machine mark indication

5. This is the theoretically exact size from which limits of size are determined:
A
.

Actual Size

B
.

Dimensioned size

C
.

Production size

D
.

Basic size

6. Acceptable parts must not extend beyond this:

A
.

Boundary limits

B
.

Hole limits

C
.

Specification

D
.

Tolerances

7. This practice considers an individual part's dimensions and tolerances and that part's relation to
its related parts:
A
.

Applying allowances

B
.

Geometric dimensioning and tolerancing

C
.

Creating datum references

D
.

Angular dimensioning tolerances

7A.Tolerancing - True or False

1. Defining the datum reference frame is necessary to apply GDT principles.
A
.

True

33

B
.

False

2. Specific tolerances are based on the part's function and fit.

A
.

True

B
.

False

3. Nominal size is used for general identification and is usually expressed in decimals.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. Unilateral tolerances have traditionally been given on angles.

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Geometric dimensioning and tolerancing can simplify the inspection process.

A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Geometric tolerances state the maximum allowable variations of a form or its position from the
perfect geometry implied in the drawing.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. In reference to geometric tolerancing, the term "geometric" refers to forms such as planes,
cylinders, and squares.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Implied 90 degree angles typically have different general tolerances applied to them than other
angles covered by a general note.
A
.

True

B
.

False

34

9. Datum surfaces and features are used as references to control other features.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Allowance is the maximum clearance or minimum interference specified to achieve a fit between
two mating parts.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11. The ISO has its own system of preferred metric limits and fits.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. Increased precision makes parts less expensive to manufacture.

A
.

True

B
.

False

13. Tolerance is the total amount a specific dimension is permitted to vary.

A
.

True

B
.

False

14. Large batches of parts may use statistical methods to control quality where a sample of parts is
inspected.
A
.

True

B
.

False

15. Tolerances of form and position are typically not used to control straightness.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Working Drawings
1. In these drawings it is necessary to show cut surfaces and distinguish between adjacent parts:

35

A
.

Auxiliary drawings

B
.

Assembly sections

C
.

3D assemblies

D
.

Parts lists

2. These drawings are given to contractors to perform work or manufacture individual parts:
A
.

Assembly details

B
.

3D drawings

C
.

Working drawings

D
.

Skeleton assemblies

3. In working drawings, these show all necessary information not given directly on the drawing with
its dimensions and notes:
A
.

Document strips

B
.

Portable documents

C
.

Formatting forms

D
.

Title and record strips

4. This should show what changes were made, when, and by whom:
A
.

Portable document

B
.

Record of revisions

C
.

Title form

D
.

Revision drawings

5. An accurate record of changes made to released drawings is tracked via this:

36

A
.

A revision block

B
.

The basic title form

C
.

Working drawings

D
.

Portable documents

6. In an assembly section, these parts should have their section lines left out or shown solid black:
A
.

Bolts

B
.

All fasteners

C
.

Thin parts

D
.

Rivets

7. These are groups of components of a larger machine:

A
.

Subassemblies

B
.

External assemblies

C
.

Component assemblies

D
.

Major assemblies

8A.Working Drawings - True or False

1. Hidden lines are usually included on assembly drawings.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. In assembly drawings, views should show how the parts fit together and suggest the function of
the unit.
A
.

True

B
.

False

37

3. The U.S. Patent Office has strict requirements for patent drawings.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. Working drawings are not legal documents.

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Patent drawings must be mechanically correct and constitute complete illustrations of every
feature of the invention claimed.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Assembly drawings are usually not dimensioned.

A
.

True

B
.

False

7. When multiple detail drawings are shown on one sheet, it is not always necessary to identify
each part.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. In working drawings, showing two detailed parts per sheet is typically preferred.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. In assembly sections, bolts, nuts, and keys are typically left unsectioned.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Patent applications do not always include line drawings.

A
.

True

38

B
.

False

11. In 3D assemblies, the last part added to the assembly becomes the parent part.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. To simplify drawings, it is permissible to list rather than draw standard parts.
A
.

True

B
.

False

13. Detail drawings are also called piece part drawings.

A
.

True

B
.

False

14. A skeleton assembly can be used to define locations of individual parts in an assembly.
A
.

True

B
.

False

15. Working drawings are a set of assembly and detail drawings.

A
.

True

B
.

False

16. Detail drawings contain all of the necessary information to manufacture a part.
A
.

True

B
.

False

17. With constraint based modeling software, assembly constraints create relationships between
modeled parts.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Axonometric Projection

39

1. In isometric projection, all distances are approximately this percentage of their true size:
A
.

120 percent

B
.

80 percent

C
.

50 percent

D
.

20 percent

2. Angles project true size only when the plane containing the angle and plane of projection are
this:
A
.

Adjacent

B
.

Aligned

C
.

Perpendicular

D
.

Parallel

3. In this type of projection, each of the axes has different ratios of foreshortening:
A
.

Isometric

B
.

Dimetric

C
.

Trimetric

D
.

Parallel

4. Lines of an isometric drawing that are not parallel to the isometric axes are called this:
A
.

Trimetric lines

B
.

Nonisometric lines

C
.

Multiview lines

D
.

Dimetric lines

5. This type of axonometric drawing has equal foreshortening along two axis directions and a
different amount on the third axis:

40

A
.

Dimetric

B
.

Multiview

C
.

Isometric

D
.

Trimetric

6.The edges of a cube in isometric projection make angles of this many degrees with each other:
A
.

30

B
.

60

C
.

90

D
.

120

9A.Axonometric Projection - True or False

1. Nonisometric lines are equally foreshortened.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. In isometric drawings, hidden lines are typically omitted.

A
.

True

B
.

False

3. Isometric sectioning is typically not used when drawing open or irregularly shaped objects.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. In isometric drawings, an angle may project to appear larger, but never smaller than the true
angle depending on its position.
A
.

True

False

41

.
5. If a circle lies in a plane that is not parallel to the plane of projection, the circle projects as an
ellipse.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. If a circle lies in a plane that is not parallel to the plane of projection, it still projects as a circle.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. Dimetric drawings have different foreshortening along all three axis directions.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Isometric drawings, unlike isometric projections, are drawn using the full length measurements
of the actual drawing and lack foreshortening.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Parallel partial ellipses equally spaced at the symbolic thread pitch can be used to represent
screw threads.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. An isometric drawing is about 50% smaller than the isometric projection.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11.Isometric drawings have equal foreshortening along each of the three axis directions.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Perspective Drawings

42

1. Two-point perspective is also known as:

A
.

Two-view perspective

B
.

Regular perspective

C
.

Parallel perspective

D
.

Angular perspective

2. This is the intersection of the ground plane with the picture plane:
A
.

Vanishing point

B
.

Ground line

C
.

Station point

D
.

Horizon

3. In perspective drawings this is placed between the observer and the object:
A
.

Vanishing point / horizon

B
.

Station point

C
.

Ground line

D
.

Plane of projection / picture plane

4. When positioning this feature of perspective projection, the centerline of the cone of visual rays
should be directed toward the approximate center of the object:
A
.

Station point

B
.

Vanishing point

C
.

Horizon

D
.

Ground line

5. Perspective drawings are classified according to their number of these features:

43

A
.

Station points

B
.

Picture planes

C
.

Vanishing points

D
.

Ground lines

10A.Perspective Drawings - True or False

1. Perspective drawings are classified according to their number of ground lines.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. All parallel lines that are not parallel to the picture plane vanish at a point.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. All lines in the picture plane are shown in their true lengths.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. Lines that are parallel to the picture plane remain parallel to one another and do not converge to
a vanishing point.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Shading pictorial drawings may lead to confusion when describing shapes of objects.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Perspective drawings are the least time-consuming types of pictorials to draw by hand.
A
.

True

44

B
.

False

7. The horizon in the perspective view should be drawn at the same level above the ground line as
the height of the station point.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Only vertical lines behind the picture plane are foreshortened.

A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Parallel lines converge toward a single point on the horizon called the vanishing point.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Most CAD programs produce only wireframe, not solid perspective representations.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11. The vanishing point is the intersection of the ground plane with the picture plane.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. Using CAD, you are typically able to select viewing distance, focal point, z-axis convergence,
and arc resolution scale for perspective representations.
A
.

True

B
.

False

13. The picture plane should never be placed behind the station point.
A
.

True

B
.

False

14. The position of the observer's eye is called the station point.
A

45

B
.

False

15. The picture plane can be placed either behind the object or in front of the object.
A
.

True

B
.

False

16. One-point perspective is also known as angular perspective.

A
.

True

B
.

False

11. Electronic Diagrams

1. On typical electronic diagrams, these items need not be shown unless they are needed for
clarification:
A
.

Transmission diagrams

B
.

Operating relays

C
.

Closed relays

D
.

Terminal circles

2. Schematic and single-line diagrams should be arranged so that signal or transmission path from
input to output proceeds in this fashion:
A
.

Right to left and top to bottom

B
.

Right to left and bottom to top

C
.

Left to right and top to bottom

D
.

Left to right and bottom to top

3. Switches and relays should be shown in this position with no operating force or applied energy:
A
.

Normal

B
.

Closed

46

C
.

Offset

D
.

Application

4. These items typically are not used in new designs, but are still common in high-power amplifiers:
A
.

Amplifier tubes

B
.

Electron tubes

C
.

Signal relays

D
.

Switches

5. This type of circuit is a semiconductor wafer or chip:

A
.

Integrated circuit

B
.

Transmission circuit

C
.

Plotted circuit

D
.

Conducted circuit

11A.Electronic Diagrams - True or False

1. On electronic diagrams, you should indicate grouped components by using dashed lines to
enclose them in a box.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. On electronic diagrams, it is typically not necessary to identify each separately replaceable part.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. Symbols should conform to an internationally or nationally approved standard.

A
.

True

False

47

.
4. For clarity, draw sections of multi-element parts separately in a schematic.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. CAD component layout programs allow you to create the best possible parts placement.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Connecting lines for conductors are typically drawn horizontally or vertically to minimize bends
and crossovers.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. Terminals or leads are frequently identified by colors or symbols, which should be indicated on
the diagram.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Interrupted paths are not an acceptable method of simplifying a diagram.

A
.

True

B
.

False

9. When arranging symbols, it is typically not necessary to leave blank spaces adjacent to symbols
to allow for reference designations and notes.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Printed circuit boards are widely used and replace hand-wiring methods.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. Landform Drawings

48

1. These maps are used in planning installations of trees, shrubbery, drives, and other garden
features:
A
.

Landscape maps

B
.

Engineering maps

C
.

Topographic maps

D
.

Cadastral maps

12A.Landform Drawings - True or False

1. A plat is a map of a small area that is plotted from a land survey.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. Hydrographic maps convey information concerning bodies of water.

A
.

True

B
.

False

3. Engineering maps are typically made for special projects as an aid to locations and construction.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. Differential leveling is the process of using a level and a telescope to determine differences in
elevation.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. A plat typically shows elevations.

A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Commonly, elevations are referenced to mean sea level.

A

True

49

.
B
.

False

7. Monuments marking surveying points are typically not intended to be permanent.

A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Hatchures are short, parallel, or slightly divergent lines drawn in the direction of a slope.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. A contour interval is the horizontal distance between horizontal planes passing through
successive contours.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Before highway construction begins, it is usually necessary to plan the horizontal and vertical
location and alignments.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11. An elevation drawing consists of a series of intersecting straight lines of accurately measured
lengths.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. Topography is the science or art of map making.

A
.

True

B
.

False

13. Nautical maps and charts show prominent landmarks used for air navigators.
A
.

True

50

B
.

False

14. The bearing of a line is its angle from magnetic south.

A
.

True

B
.

False

15. On a single contour line, all points have the same elevation.
A
.

True

B
.

False

13. Welding Representation

1. A projection weld is a type of:
A
.

Resistance weld

B
.

Arc weld

C
.

Gas weld

D
.

Fillet weld

2. These weld symbols have no arrow-side or other-side significance:

A
.

Projection or seam weld

B
.

Back or backing weld

C
.

Surface or groove weld

D
.

Flash and upset weld

3. A back or backing weld is a type of:

A
.

Groove weld

B
.

Resistance weld

C
.

Arc and gas weld

51

D
.

Upset weld

4. Welding drawings are a special type of this kind of drawing:

A
.

Symbol

B
.

Perspective

C
.

Assembly

D
.

Isometric

5. Which of the following is one of the basic types of welded joints:

A
.

T-joint

B
.

Rear joint

C
.

Angle joint

D
.

Groove joint

13A.Welding Representation - True or False

1. Welding is often used for large structures that are difficult or impossible to fabricate entirely in a
shop.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. Weldments are composed of a number of separate pieces fastened together as a unit.

A
.

True

B
.

False

3. A seam weld is a type of arc and gas weld.

A
.

True

B
.

False

4. The symbol for the desired weld is attached to the reference line, or shank, of the arrow.

52

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Groove weld size is usually specified on the welding symbol.

A
.

True

B
.

False

6. In a welding drawing, joints are all shown as they would appear before welding.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. A fillet weld is a type of resistance weld.

A
.

True

B
.

False

8. The usual fillet weld has equal legs.

A
.

True

B
.

False

9. In a welding symbol, the arrow points to the joint where the weld is to be made.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. A groove weld is a type of arc and gas weld.

A
.

True

B
.

False

11. Type of weld is typically not specified on the welding symbol.

A
.

True

B
.

False

53

12. Welding is often more expensive when only one or a few identical parts are required.
A
.

True

B
.

False

13. A spot weld is a type of resistance weld.

A
.

True

B
.

False

14. Welding templates can simplify drawing welding symbols by hand.

A
.

True

B
.

False

14. Isometric Drawings

1. Isometric drawings are often used by ________ to help illustrate complex designs.
A
.

mechanical engineers

B
.

piping drafters

C
.

aerospace engineers

D
.

all of the above

14A.Isometric Drawings - True or False

1. By using the F-5 key you can switch from ISO Right to ISO Top to ISO Back.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. The AutoCAD Center Mark tool can be used in an isometric drawing as you would use it in any
conventional orthographic drawing.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. In an isometric drawing all horizontal lines are drawn on a 60 degree angle away from a given
point.

54

A
.

True

B
.

False

4. When creating a circle on an isometric flat surface you need to use the circle tool.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. The Offset command can be used on vertical lines but not on horizontal lines.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. The primary difference between isometric drawings and perspective drawings is that in an
isometric drawing both vertical and horizontal lines remain parallel while in a perspective
drawing both horizontal and vertical lines are in line with an apparent vanishing point.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. Most solid modeling CAD programs will produce pictorial drawings of 3-dimensional objects
using either the isometric, perspective, or both views.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. The bounding box method for creating an isometric drawing works well in both traditional board
drawing and in AutoCAD.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. An isometric drawing is a type of technical drawing used to illustrate a mechanical part in true 3dimensional form.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. When using AutoCAD to create an isometric drawing it is best to set the grid to ISO.
A

True

55

B
.

False

15. Mechanical Working Drawings

1. The typical parts list should include the ________.
A
.

part number

B
.

manufacturing material

C
.

number of parts needed

D
.

all of the above

2. A typical set of mechanical working drawings includes ________.

A
.

exploded assembly

B
.

part details

C
.

parts list

D
.

all of the above

3. The title block used on working drawings should include the ________.
A
.

sheet number

B
.

line type

C
.

layer set

D
.

all of the above

4. One critical issue drafters need to pay close attention to is the ________.
A
.

size of the sheet

B
.

designer's intent

C
.

scale factor

56

D
.

none of the above

5. In the mechanical design process the first step is to ________.

A
.

brainstorm solutions

B
.

prepare rough sketches

C
.

prepare a budget

D
.

identify the problem

6. The text used on a typical detail sheet should be ________.

A
.

placed horizontally

B
.

in bold text

C
.

in an architectural text style

D
.

none of the above

7. In an exploded assembly drawing it is customary for the drafter to use a ________ line to
illustrate how parts fit together.
A
.

Phantom

B
.

hidden

C
.

dashed

D
.

center

8. It is customary for the first sheet of a working drawing set to include ________.
A
.

a parts list

B
.

exploded assembly

C
.

assembled assembly

all of the above

57

.
9. In order to create an accurate assembly drawing the drafter should create the ________
drawings first.
A
.

Detail

B
.

title block

C
.

parts list

D
.

isometric

10. The thread note for a typical bolt will include the ________.
A
.

major diameter of the thread

B
.

material

C
.

center line

D
.

offset distance

15A.Mechanical Working Drawings - True or False

1. A detail drawing of a part is intended to provide the necessary information needed to fabricate
that part.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. Mechanical designers can expect to make several revisions to a design before it is finalized.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. Problem identification has to do with the final stages in the mechanical design process.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. The mechanical engineering industry relies on complex mechanical drawings that are often
referred to as working drawings.

58

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Drafters are often expected to follow the drafting standards as set in the ASME Y14.5M-1994
publication.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Mechanical drafters can revise any drawing at any time without tracking those changes.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. Drafters do not need to worry about the number of decimal places used on dimensioning a
technical drawing.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. An assembly drawing is intended to illustrate a single mechanical part.

A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Designers utilize several methods for solving mechanical design problems including
brainstorming ideas.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. BOM stands for Bill of Materials.

A
.

True

B
.

False

16.3D Modeling Basics

1. The Press-Pull tool will ________ the face of a solid model in the direction it faces.

59

A
.

taper

B
.

extrude

C
.

spiral

D
.

none of the above

2. The View toolbar will position the view of the 3-D solid toward the ________.
A
.

front

B
.

left side

C
.

SE isometric

D
.

all of the above

3. The Free Orbit tool is found on the ____ toolbar.

A
.

rotate

B
.

move

C
.

modify

D
.

3-D Move

4. The default position of the UCS icon is positioned at ________ on the AutoCAD grid.
A
.

0,0,0

B
.

10,10,10

C
.

20,20,20

D
.

None of the above

5. A cylinder can be created by drawing a rectangular shape then the ________ tool.
A
.

Revolve

60

B
.

Sweep

C
.

Extrude

D
.

none of the above

6. The MASSPROP shortcut will provide the following information.

A
.

mass

B
.

volume

C
.

bounding box

D
.

all of the above

7. The 3-D commands on the Modeling toolbar include ________.

A
.

box

B
.

sphere

C
.

extrude

D
.

all of the above

8. CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a system in which the dimensions
control the ________.
A
.

size and shape of the model features

B
.

perspective of the model

C
.

shading used to render the model

D
.

all of the above

9. In order to create one solid model from two or more separate solid shapes the drafter will need
to position them and then ________.
A
.

use Union to join them

61

B
.

use the Join command

C
.

use the Add Parts tool

D
.

none of the above

10. The Conceptual Visual Style tool is located on the ________ toolbar.
A
.

Visual Styles

B
.

Modify

C
.

3-D Modeling

D
.

All of the above

16A.3D Modeling Basics - True or False

1. To create a hole through a 3-dimensional box the drafter can place a 3-dimensional cylinder into
the box and subtract it.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. A useful method for using the grid is to set it to Display Grid Beyond Limits.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. In 2-dimensional drafting we work on the X and Y axis. By adding the Z axis drafters can develop
3-dimensional models.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. The extrude tool will extrude a 2-dimensional shape even if the corners are not closed.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. The union command only works on 2-dimensional objects.

62

A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Drafters using AutoCAD version 2007 and newer will want to use the workspace called 3D
Modeling to create 3D models.
7. UCS stands for Universal CAD Standards.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. The 3-dimensional rotate tool is located on the 3-D View tool bar.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Complex 3-dimensional shapes can be made by combining different 3-D shapes with the union
tool.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. AutoCAD is typical of parametric modeling programs.

A
.

True

B
.

False

17. Graphic Language for Design

1. EDM is the acronym for:
A
.

Enterprise data management

B
.

Engineering drawing management

C
.

Enterprise drawing manipulation

D
.

Engineering data manipulation

2. Technical drawings typically serve one of three purposes:

63

A
.

Visualization, Communication, or Documentation

B
.

Visualization, Dimensioning, or Documentation

C
.

Communication, Documentation, or Installation

D
.

Documentation, Installation, or Engineering

3. The organized and orderly approach to solving problems is known as the:

A
.

Engineering process

B
.

Design process

C
.

Aesthetic process

D
.

Functional process

4. This is the range of digital or hard copy documents that specify the physical function
requirements for a product:
A
.

Product design

B
.

Product definition

C
.

Drawing definition

D
.

Engineering design

5. PDM is the acronym for:

A
.

Project drawing management

B
.

Product drawing manipulation

C
.

Product data management

D
.

Project data manipulation

6.This is a systematic approach that integrates the design and manufacture of products with the
goal of optimizing the process:

64

A
.

Traditional engineering design

B
.

The manufacturing process

C
.

Concurrent design

D
.

Design for recycling

17A.Graphic Language for Design - True or False

1. Personal or cultural expression in design is often referred to as functional design.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. Idea or concept sketches are usually not considered to be technical drawings.

A
.

True

B
.

False

3. Computation and design sketches may be considered to be technical drawings.

A
.

True

B
.

False

4. Traditionally, design and manufacturing activities have taken place in sequential order.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Enhancing product development is considered aesthetic design.

A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Technical drawings require use of standards to communicate worldwide.

A
.

True

False

65

.
7. Before other communication methods developed, people informed themselves through visual
means, including pictures.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Life cycle design means that all aspects of a product are considered simultaneously.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Graphic representation has developed along two distinct lines, engineering and technical.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Traditional, sequential engineering design is a logical approach, but in practice it can often be
wasteful.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11. Product design often involves preparing analytical and physical models of the product.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. In the design process, it is generally never necessary to return to a previous stage and repeat
the process.
A
.

True

B
.

False

13. Drawings and specifications typically do not control details of maintenance.

A
.

True

B
.

False

14. Using drawings to represent the design of objects to be built or constructed is a relatively new

66

concept.
A
.

True

B
.

False

15. The engineering design process can address society's needs.

A
.

True

B
.

False

16.The procedure for designing products typically follows a process.

A
.

True

B
.

False

18. Technical Sketching

1. This type of solid is egg-shaped and can be created by revolving an ellipse around one of its
axes:
A
.

Ellipsoid

B
.

Torus

C
.

Cone

D
.

Cylinder

18A.Technical Sketching - True or False

1. Perspective pictorials approximate the view produced by the human eye.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. It is much easier for a drafter to use a CAD system rather than traditional board drawing
because corrections are much easier to make.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. Solids are bounded by the surfaces that contain them.

67

A
.

True

B
.

False

4. A point represents a location in space and has no width, height, or depth.

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. A designer is likely to brainstorm several ideas before deciding on a final plan.

A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Process piping drafters would likely produce drawings for a water treatment plant.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. Points may be represented by simple dots.

A
.

True

B
.

False

8. An architect does not need to know how many people are going to live in a house before he
begins his design.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Frequently a single view supplemented by notes and dimensions can describe a simple object.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. In cabinet oblique projection, receding lines are drawn at full scale.
A
.

True

False

68

.
11. As you sketch a solid object, you should maintain at least two different viewpoints.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. In a pictorial sketch you can see the width, height, and depth of an object in a single view.
A
.

True

B
.

False

13. The end of an edge is a vertex.

A
.

True

B
.

False

14. All professional engineers are good CAD drafters.

A
.

True

B
.

False

15. An electronics drafter is typically involved in the development of wiring schematics for large
commercial buildings.
A
.

True

B
.

False

16. Leonardo da Vinci did not rely on technical drawings for his many inventions.
A
.

True

B
.

False

17. An angle is formed by two intersecting lines.

A
.

True

B
.

False

18. In cavalier oblique projection, the depth is represented at half scale.

A

True

69

.
B
.

False

19. If the faces of a solid are equal regular polygons, it is a regular polyhedron.
A
.

True

B
.

False

20. In oblique drawing, circles and angles perpendicular to the projection plane are true size and
shape.
A
.

True

B
.

False

21. A polygon is a planar area that is enclosed by either angular or curved lines.
A
.

True

B
.

False

22. A sphere has a double-curved exterior that can be formed by revolving a circle around one of its
diameters.
A
.

True

B
.

False

23. A freehand sketch should show attention to proportion, clarity, and correct line widths.
A
.

True

B
.

False

24. An edge is formed where two surfaces intersect.

A
.

True

B
.

False

25. Sketches are usually made to a specific scale.

A
.

True

False

70

.
26. The most important rule in freehand sketching is to keep the sketch in proportion.
A
.

True

B
.

False

27. The degree of precision of a given sketch depends on its use.

A
.

True

B
.

False

28. A set of written specifications is often included in a set of technical drawings.

A
.

True

B
.

False

29. Drafters usually work alone in their cubical without any interaction with other drafters, designers,
architects, or engineers.
A
.

True

B
.

False

30. Modern computer drafters must have a thorough understanding of industrial drafting standards.
A
.

True

B
.

False

19.2D Drawing Representation

1. This is a conical-shaped recess around a hole, often used to receive a tapered screw head:
A
.

Boss

B
.

Spot face

C
.

Counter bore

D
.

Countersink

19A.2D Drawing Representation - True or False

71

1. If a plane intersects a contoured surface, no line is drawn to represent the edge.

A
.

True

B
.

False

2. Right-hand and left-hand parts are mirror images and are made to be interchangeable.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. A keyway is a small groove cut around the diameter of a cylinder, often where it changes
diameter.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. A plane surface cannot intersect or be tangent to a contoured surface.

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Small curves called run outs are used to represent fillets that connect with plane surfaces
tangent to cylinders.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. A fillet is a rounded exterior blend between surfaces.

A
.

True

B
.

False

7. Knurl is a pattern form on a surface to provide for better gripping or more surface area for
attachment.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. A counterbore is a cylindrical recess around a hole, usually to receive a bolt head or nut.
A

True

72

.
B
.

False

9. Simplified conventional representations that deviate from true orthographic projection may be
used to enhance economy and clarity in a drawing.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. A lug is a flattened collar or rim around a cylindrical part to allow for attachment.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11. When a curved surface intersects a plane surface, an edge is formed.

A
.

True

B
.

False

12. It is not always possible to show all of the drawing views in alignment on a sheet.
A
.

True

B
.

False

13. A boss is a short raised protrusion above the surface of a part.

A
.

True

B
.

False

20. Auxiliary Views

1. The lines used to create the auxiliary view should appear as ________ in the finished view.
A
.

Object lines

B
.

Construction lines

C
.

Reference lines

Construction lines

73

20A.Auxiliary Views - True or False

1. The Offset tool is useful in setting up an auxiliary view.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. Auxiliary views allow principal faces of features that are parallel to the standard planes of
projection to appear true shape and size.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. A ruled surface is one that may be generated by sweeping a generatrix along a path.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. A secondary view is always perpendicular to one of the principal views.

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Solids bounded by warped surfaces have no group name.

A
.

True

B
.

False

6. The American Society of Mechanical Engineers provides a set of standards for using auxiliary
views.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. From primary auxiliary views, a secondary auxiliary view can be drawn.

A
.

True

B
.

False

74

8. Another method used to setup an auxiliary view is to align the UCS with the inclined plane.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. The center line of a hidden cylinder feature appearing in the front view should line up with the
center mark in the corresponding circle which appears in the auxiliary view.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. A single-curved surface is a developable ruled surface that can be unrolled to coincide with a
cylinder.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11. An auxiliary view is used on technical drawings to project features on an inclined plane away
from one of the primary views in such a way that features such as holes appear correctly.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. An intersection drawing is a flat representation or pattern that, when folded together, creates a
3D object.
A
.

True

B
.

False

13. Measurements are always made at right angles to the reference lines or parallel to the projection
lines.
A
.

True

B
.

False

14. If an auxiliary view is symmetrical, and to save space or time, a half auxiliary view may be
drawn.
A
.

True

B
.

False

75

15. A double-curved surface is generated by a curved line and has straight-line elements.
A
.

True

B
.

False

16. The intersection of a plane and a circular cylinder is called a conic section.
A
.

True

B
.

False

17. Reference lines are always at right angles to the projection lines between the views.
A
.

True

B
.

False

18. A primary auxiliary view does not need to be parallel to the associated inclined plane.
A
.

True

B
.

False

19. A reference plane appears as a line in an adjacent view.

A
.

True

B
.

False

20. A Secondary Auxiliary view is a projection from the first auxiliary view.
A
.

True

B
.

False

21. Auxiliary views of 3-dimensional parts can be easily created with AutoCAD.
A
.

True

B
.

False

22. Warped surfaces cannot be unrolled or unfolded to lie flat.

A
.

True

False

76

.
23. Generally, hidden lines should be omitted in auxiliary views.
A
.

True

B
.

False

24. Revolution is a method of determining the true length and true size of inclined and oblique lines
and planes.
A
.

True

B
.

False

25. An auxiliary view is an orthographic view that is not a standard projection.

A
.

True

B
.

False

26.Any inclined surface can be shown in true shape when the appropriate auxiliary view is used.
A
.

True

B
.

False

21. Manufacturing Processes

1. This allows the designer to conceptualize objects more easily without having to make costly
illustrations, models, or prototypes:
A
.

Computer-aided manufacturing

B
.

Computer-aided design

C
.

Computer-aided engineering

D
.

Computer-aided prototyping

2. This allows the performance of structures to be analyzed and tested efficiently, accurately, and
quickly:
A
.

Computer-aided manufacturing

B
.

Computer-aided design

77

C
.

Computer-aided engineering

D
.

Computer-aided prototyping

3. This type of rapid prototyping system uses a laser to fuse powdered metals, plastics, or
ceramics:
A
.

Fused deposition modeling

B
.

Stereolithography apparatus

C
.

Solid ground curing

D
.

Selective laser sintering

4. This process recognizes the inherent interrelationships between design and manufacturing:
A
.

Design for manufacture

B
.

Design for manufacture and assembly

C
.

Design for concurrent engineering

D
.

Design for assembly

5. Manufacturing may produce these types of products:

A
.

Discrete or continuous

B
.

Raw material or parts

C
.

Machinery or manufactured

D
.

Processes or operations

6.Approximately this much of the cost of product development and manufacture is determined at
the design stage:
A
.

40-50%

B
.

60-75%

78

C
.

70-80%

D
.

75-85%

21A.Manufacturing Processes - True or False

1. In net-shape manufacturing, the part is made as close to the final specifications as possible to
cut down on the cost of finishing operations.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. Laminated object manufacturing produces solid parts from sheets of material such as paper or
vinyl.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. Fused deposition modeling systems use molten plastic deposited in layers corresponding to
cross sections on the part.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. Cost and availability of raw and processed materials and manufactured components are major
concerns in manufacturing.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Nanotechnology and nanofabrication are terms used to describe extremely large-scale

operations.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Computer-aided manufacturing typically involves all phases of manufacturing.

A
.

True

B
.

False

79

7. Direct shell production casting is used in directly creating molds for metal casting.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Solid ground curing systems are the most common rapid prototyping systems.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. In the design process for a product, it is not necessary that the designer know the functions and
performance expected of that product.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Manufacturing generally does not add value.

A
.

True

B
.

False

11. Recycling or proper disposal of a product has become increasingly important to the design
process.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. Tests of prototypes should simulate the conditions under which the product is to be used.
A
.

True

B
.

False

13. Using computer-aided engineering, designs can be optimized and modified.

A
.

True

B
.

False

14. Manufacturing involves making products from raw materials.

A
.

True

80

B
.

False

15. Design for assembly is not an important part of manufacturing because assembly operations
contribute little to product cost.
A
.

True

B
.

False

16. Concurrent engineering involves all disciplines in the early design stages.
A
.

True

B
.

False

17. Selective laser sintering apparatus uses laser-hardened resins to form models.
A
.

True

B
.

False

18. Rapid prototyping costs about the same, but takes less time than traditional prototyping.
A
.

True

B
.

False

19. Topographic shell fabrication is typically used to mold rapid prototypes of small-scale parts.
A
.

True

B
.

False

22. Dimensioning Architectural Drawings

1. Architectural dimensioning standards allow for the placement of dimensions inside the floor plan.
These inside dimensions locate interior ________.
A
.

door openings and walls

B
.

centers of cabinets

C
.

windows

D
.

all of the above

81

2. When dimensioning architectural drawings architects will utilize both ________ and ________
options.
A
.

Baseline and continuous

B
.

Baseline and linear

C
.

Quick dim and linear

D
.

Linear and continuous

3. Architectural dimensioning is usually done in ________.

A
.

Even numbers

B
.

Feet and inches

C
.

Feet only

D
.

Inches only

4. Some of the standard AutoCAD text styles used in architectural drawings includes ________.
A
.

City Blue print

B
.

Country Blue print

C
.

Stylus BT

D
.

All of the above

5. Dimension text is generally placed above the ________ line.

A
.

Dimension

B
.

extension

C
.

center

D
.

leader

6. The architectural and construction industries use the United States National CAD standard
(NCS) system on many ________ projects.

82

A
.

residential

B
.

commercial

C
.

aerospace

D
.

publicly funded

7. There should be a visible gap between the wall and the ________ line.
A
.

dimension

B
.

extension

C
.

center

D
.

leader

8. Dimensions are used on the elevation plan to describe ________.

A
.

Finished floor elevations

B
.

Roof overhangs

C
.

Roof pitch angles

D
.

All of the above

9. The second line of dimensions out from the plan generally includes ________.
A
.

Centers of doors and windows

B
.

The distances between outside walls and interior walls.

C
.

The measurement from the outside of the brick to the inside of the exterior wall.

D
.

The measurement from one outside corner to the opposite outside corner.

10. The dimension text size is determined by what the architect deems necessary in ________.
A
.

Model space

83

B
.

Paper space

C
.

The Finished plot

D
.

The PDF file

22A.Dimensioning Architectural Drawings - True or False

1. Tolerances in an architectural drawing are just as close as tolerances used in mechanical
drawings.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. Drafters usually begin a set of dimensions from the inside edge of an exterior wall.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. The total dimension of the front side should match the total dimension of the back side.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. The text style used on an architectural drawing is determined by the drafter.

A
.

True

B
.

False

The dimensioning standards used by a typical architectural firm were probably developed by the
architects, designers, and drafters in the firm.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Text and dimensions are aligned on the drawing so they can be easily read from the bottom and
right side of the sheet.
A
.

True

False

84

.
7. Dimensioning to the edges of doors and windows is the preferred method by most architectural
drafters.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Architectural dimensioning usually relies on tick marks or dots rather than arrow points.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Minor errors in dimensioning on an architectural drawing can result in major construction

problems on the job site.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Architectural drafters are usually expected to place dimensions to the CAD standards
established by the firm.
A
.

True

B
.

False

23. Threads, Fasteners and springs

1. These include taper pins, straight pins, dowel pins, clevis pins, and cotter pins:
A
.

Bolts

B
.

General fasteners

C
.

Machine pins

D
.

Rivets

2. The distance a screw thread advances axially in one turn is the:

A
.

Lead

B
.

Pitch

85

C
.

Turn

D
.

Crest

3. The standard number of threads per inch for various diameters is the:
A
.

Series of thread

B
.

Lead

C
.

Major diameter

D
.

Thread pitch

4. This type of fit is high quality and is used for the bulk of interchangeable screw thread work:
A
.

Class 1

B
.

Class 2

C
.

Class 3

D
.

Class 4

5. This type of thread is a thread on the inside of a member:

A
.

Basic thread

B
.

External thread

C
.

Internal thread

D
.

Major diameter thread

6. This is the smallest diameter of a screw thread:

A
.

Internal thread diameter

B
.

Minor diameter

C
.

Major diameter

86

D
.

External thread diameter

7. This is the bottom surface joining the sides of two adjacent threads:
A
.

Lead

B
.

Pitch

C
.

Crest

D
.

Root

23A.Threads, Fasteners and Springs - True or False

1. ANSI has established three classes of fit.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. Keys can be used to prevent movement between shafts and wheels.

A
.

True

B
.

False

3. Doubled threads are composed of two or more ridges running side by side.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. A screw thread is a ridge of uniform section in the form of a helix on the external or internal
surface of a cylinder.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. The major diameter is the largest diameter of a screw thread.

A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Pitch is equal to 12 divided by the number of threads per inch.

87

A
.

True

B
.

False

7. Springs may be classified as either helical springs or flat springs.

A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Rivets are not considered permanent fasteners.

A
.

True

B
.

False

9. A machine pin is a mechanical device designed to store energy when deflected and to return the
equivalent amount of energy when released.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Tap drill depth does not include the cone point of the drill.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11. Thread length, finish, and proportions are some of the standard characteristics of bolts and nuts.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. A torsion spring is a type of helical spring.

A
.

True

B
.

False

13. An internal thread is a thread on the outside of a member.

A
.

True

False

88

.
14. The axis of a screw is the longitudinal centerline through the screw.
A
.

True

B
.

False

15 The root is the top surface joining the two sides of a thread.
A
.

True

B
.

False

16. The form of a thread is the cross section of the thread cut by a plane containing the axis.
A
.

True

B
.

False

17. Multiple threads are composed of one ridge, and the lead is equal to the pitch.
A
.

True

B
.

False

18. A Class 3 fit is exceptionally high quality and recommended only when high cost of precision is
warranted.
A
.

True

B
.

False

24. Drawing Management

1. Using this as a communication and design review tool can help shorten the process and
eliminate productivity barriers:
A
.

Development plans

B
.

Portable document files

C
.

The Internet and e-mail

D
.

Gantt charts

2. If designs require changes, they should be documented with:

89

A
.

Development plans

B
.

Product proposals

C
.

Document reviews

D
.

Engineering change orders

3. Once a drawing is determined to be complete, the title block is used to document the change
from:
A
.

A draft to a finished drawing

B
.

A finished to a working drawing

C
.

An assembly to a finished drawing

D
.

A working drawing to a draft

4. Drawings created with commercial software are typically saved as:

A
.

Rapid prototypes

B
.

Electronic files

C
.

Draft drawings

D
.

Change orders

24A.Drawing Management - True or False

1. To be useful, drawings must be stored electronically in a manner that satisfies the requirements
for a static snapshot of the design at the time of release.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. PERT or Gantt charts are used specifically to track time engineering change orders.
A
.

True

False

90

.
3. Efficient document management is only a minor part of effective concurrent engineering
practices.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. It is a good idea to have a single directory in which all employees store work.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Because electronically stored files can easily be altered, they may not be considered acceptable
for documentation.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Design milestones and reviews help ensure that the design process is timely.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. Legal standards for how long engineering drawings need to be retained are standardized in the
United States.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. It is important to establish a procedure and name files systematically.

A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Electronic files for the most part have replaced the use of microfilm and microfiche.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. After a drawing has been released, an engineering change order is used to document and

91

approve drawing changes.

A
.

True

B
.

False

11. Design databases can be used to streamline the design process.

A
.

True

B
.

False

12. Quality standards in some industries allow for electronic documents to serve as a permanent
record if they are properly controlled.
A
.

True

B
.

False

13. Individual companies often have their own standards of data management.
A
.

True

B
.

False

25. Oblique Projection

1. In oblique projection, important shapes should be in this position relative to the viewing plane:
A
.

Parallel

B
.

Perpendicular

C
.

Adjacent

D
.

Rotated

2. In a CAD system, you can draw an ellipse by specifying these:

A
.

The bounding lines

B
.

The midpoint and end points

C
.

The center and major and minor axes

92

D
.

The center and radius

3. Oblique drawings are dimensioned in a similar fashion as these types of drawings:

A
.

Orthographic

B
.

Isometric

C
.

Angular

D
.

Parallel

4. In an oblique drawing, equally spaced partial circles may be used to show this:
A
.

Symbolic thread pitch

B
.

Ellipses

C
.

Cavalier drawings

D
.

Projection points

5. When the receding lines are true length, and the projectors are at 45 degrees to the plane of
projection, the oblique drawing is called this:
A
.

Cabinet projection

B
.

Cavalier projection

C
.

Axonometric projection

D
.

Isometric projection

6.Oblique sections are useful to show this:

A
.

Foreshortened features

B
.

Oblique lines

C
.

Interior shapes

Projected features

93

25A.Oblique Projection - True or False

1. In oblique projections, the projectors are perpendicular to each other but are not parallel to the
plane of projection.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. Circles, circular arcs, and other curved surfaces may be drawn using offset measurements.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. In general, all types of sections for isometric drawing may be applied to oblique drawing.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. In an oblique drawing, when an angle is specified in degrees in a receding plane, you should
convert the angle into circular measurements.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. In CAD, oblique drawings are difficult to create because you cannot use snap increments or
draw similarly to drawing on grid paper.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. If a complicated pictorial is needed, it may be easier and more accurate to create a 3D model
than an oblique drawing.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. If you are sketching an ellipse in an oblique drawing, you can block in the enclosing rectangle
and sketch the ellipse tangent to its sides.
A
.

True

94

B
.

False

8. In oblique projections, one of the object's principal faces is parallel to the plane of projection.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. When the receding lines are drawn to half size, the drawing is known as a cabinet projection.
A
.

True

B
.

False

26. Gears and Cams

1. Spur gear design normally begins with selecting this:
A
.

Rack size

B
.

Tooth size

C
.

Gear size

D
.

Pitch diameter

2. The most common geometric form used in gears today is this:

A
.

Involute profile

B
.

Convolute profie

C
.

Base circle

D
.

Spur circle

3. This is a curve showing the displacement of the follower as ordinates on a base line that
represents one revolution of the cam:
A
.

Displacement diagram

B
.

Follower

Cam cycle

95

.
D
.

Reciprocation chart

4. Gear teeth formed on a flat surface are called this:

A
.

Pinion

B
.

Rack

C
.

Spur

D
.

Teeth

5. These gears transmit power between shafts whose axes intersect at any angle:
A
.

Worm gears

B
.

Spur gears

C
.

Bevel gears

D
.

Racks

26A.Gears and Cams - True or False

1. Cams are used to produce regular repeating motions.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. In working drawings for worm gears, gear teeth are omitted and the gear blank is represented
conventionally.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. In working drawings with teeth cut to a standard shape, individual teeth typically are not shown.
A
.

True

B
.

False

96

4. On detail drawings, the worm and gear are usually drawn in the same detail drawing.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. When laying out a gear, the number of spaces should be twice the number of teeth.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Working drawings for bevel gears give both the dimensions of the gear blank and the data
necessary for cutting the teeth.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. A worm is a screw with a thread shaped like a rack tooth.

A
.

True

B
.

False

8. The motion of the follower as it rises or falls depends on the shape of the curves in the
displacement diagram.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Teeth are spaced by laying out equal angles.

A
.

True

B
.

False

10. When the follower movement is in a plane parallel to the cam shaft, an irregular cam must be
employed.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11. ANSI/AGMA publishes detailed standards for gear design and drawings.
A

True

97

.
B
.

False

12. Proportions and shapes of gear teeth are not standardized.

A
.

True

B
.

False

13. Gears are used to transmit power and rotating or reciprocating motion from one machine part to
another.
14. Bevel gear teeth have the same involute shape as teeth on spur gears but are tapered toward
the cone apex.
A
.

True

B
.

False

15. Worm wheels are similar to helical gears cut to conform to the shape of the worm.
A
.

True

B
.

False

27. Structural Drawing

1. This is a common method for connecting steel members of buildings and bridges:
A
.

Assembly

B
.

Fabricating

C
.

Riveting

D
.

Welding

2. This type of structural steel drawing shows all dimensions necessary for fabrication:
A
.

Shop drawings

B
.

Design drawings

C
.

Weldment drawings

98

D
.

Application drawings

3. These are joined together in the field to build a structure:

A
.

Riveted members

B
.

Main members

C
.

Steel fabrications

D
.

Assembled fabrications

4. These plans, made by the steel fabricator, are assembly drawings for the steel structure:
A
.

Welding plans

B
.

Assembly plans

C
.

Construction plans

D
.

Erection plans

5. This material is used in masonry construction, most commonly for ornamental facing:
A
.

Face brick

B
.

Clay tile

C
.

Natural stone

D
.

Aggregate

6. This type of weld is the most common in structural steel fabrication:

A
.

Fillet weld

B
.

Beam weld

C
.

Rivet weld

D
.

Structural weld

99

7. In this type of concrete, the steel is pretensioned before the superimposed load is applied:
A
.

Aggregate

B
.

Prestressed

C
.

Reinforced

D
.

Preloaded

27A.Structural Drawing - True or False

1. Many different types of wood are used as structural timber.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. AISC recommends one standard connection for attaching beams.

A
.

True

B
.

False

3. Shop drawings consist of detail drawings of all parts of the entire structure showing exactly how
the parts are to be made.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. Structural steel is available in two standard shapes.

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Structural steel shop drawings are usually calculated to the nearest inch.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Due to wood loss in surfacing, the nominal size of structural timber is larger than its dressed
thickness.
A

True

100

.
B
.

False

7. Brick and tile are some of the less common forms of building construction.
8. Symbols are seldom used to indicate requirements for finished surfaces on wood.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. Riveting is seldom used as a connection method in structural steel.

A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Most CAD programs have structural shapes symbol libraries available.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11. A piece mark should be shown wherever a separately handled member appears on the
drawings.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. Reinforced concrete has embedded steel reinforcing bars.

A
.

True

B
.

False

13. The surface of a wood product is finished by milling or planing.

A
.

True

B
.

False

14. Tolerance stacking has little effect on the fit of steel members.
A
.

True

101

B
.

False

15. Traditionally, brick and tile are built into masonry forms, and units are placed one at a time in a
soft mortar.
A
.

True

B
.

False

28. Piping Drawings

1. This type of pipe is commonly used for water, steam, oil, and gas:
A
.

Wrought iron or copper

B
.

PVC or steel

C
.

Steel or wrought iron

D
.

Copper or PVC

2. These types of pipes are generally connected with bell and spigot joints or flanged joints:
A
.

Soil and waste

B
.

Water and gas

C
.

Water and steam

D
.

Gas and soil

3. When dimensioning piping drawings, you give the lengths of all runs of this type:
A
.

Straight

B
.

Angular

C
.

Filleted

D
.

Transverse

4. In this type of drawing, vertical pipes may be revolved into the horizontal plane:

102

A
.

Standard view

B
.

Elevation view

C
.

Transverse piping

D
.

Developed piping

5. This type of drawing shows two lines representing the pipe diameter:
A
.

Single-line

B
.

Double-line

C
.

Standard piping

D
.

Centerline piping

6. This is used in applications for nonferrous construction:

A
.

Copper tubing

B
.

Steel pipe

C
.

PVC pipe

D
.

Iron tubing

7. This type of pipe is commonly used for water or gas service, and also as soil pipe:
A
.

PVC

B
.

Copper

C
.

Steel

D
.

Cast-iron

28A.Piping Drawings - True or False

1. Piping may also be shown in orthographic projection.

103

A
.

True

B
.

False

2. PVC joints are made with flared joints or solder joints.

A
.

True

B
.

False

3. Valves are used to stop or regulate the flow of fluids in a pipeline.

A
.

True

B
.

False

4. Brass and copper pipe should be joined with fittings of copper-base alloy to avoid corrosion.
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. A wide variety of plastic pipe, both rigid and flexible, is used in construction.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Plastic pipe is lightweight and corrosion proof, but typically is not resistant to chemicals.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. Single-line drawings show the centerline of the pipe.

A
.

True

B
.

False

8. Axonometric drawings are seldom used in piping drawings.

A
.

True

B
.

False

104

9. In a developed piping drawing, horizontal pipes may be revolved into the vertical plane so the
entire installation can be shown on one plane.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Brass and copper pipe is used in plumbing for supply, soil, waste, drain, and vent lines.
A
.

True

B
.

False

11. Joints between pipes, fittings, and valves may be screwed or flanged but not welded or soldered.
A
.

True

B
.

False

12. When dimensioning piping drawings, it is not necessary to indicate the size of each pipe.
13. Copper tubing is not suitable for process work, for plumbing, or heating systems.
A
.

True

B
.

False

14. Copper pipe is brittle, and settling can cause fracture unless the joints are sufficiently flexible.
A
.

True

B
.

False

29. Computer Aided Design Basics

1. Using the Relative Polar Coordinate System to add a 3 inch line that is 45 degrees from the end
point of the line created above the drafter would ________.
A
.

type @3<45 and enter

B
.

type 3 back slash and enter

C
.

type 3 forward slash and enter

D
.

type 3 and try to use the Dynamic Input readout to find the end point

2. A line with a tapering width can be easily created by using the ________ tool.

105

A
.

circle

B
.

eclipse

C
.

line

D
.

polyline

3. Understanding the Cartesian coordinate system will help the beginning drafter ________.
A
.

control the accuracy of the drawing

B
.

produce a visible grid system

C
.

select a different text style

D
.

choose various line types

4. The UCS icon represents the intersection of the ________.

A
.

X axis

B
.

Y axis

C
.

Z axis

D
.

All of the above

5. When using the direct entry method to create a horizontal line exactly three inches long the
drafter should ________ first.
A
.

pull the line from away from the starting point very carefully

B
.

insure that Ortho is on

C
.

enter 3 for the length of the line

D
.

read the coordinate position on the Dynamic Readout

6. In order to set drawing limits for a "C" size architectural drawing the drafter should set the limits
to ________.

106

A
.

0,0 and 2,9

B
.

0,0 and 17,11

C
.

0,0 and 18,24

D
.

0,0 and 34,24

7. One quick way to view the entire drawing area is to use the Zoom command by typing
________.
A
.

type Z enter A enter

B
.

type Z enter E enter

C
.

type SHOWALL enter

D
.

type ALL enter

8. When setting up a mechanical drawing in AutoCAD the drafter should set the units to ________.
A
.

fractional

B
.

decimal

C
.

architectural

D
.

metric

9. When drawing a line using the relative coordinate system a line is created from ________.
A
.

0,0

B
.

the ending point of the last line

C
.

the beginning point of the last line

D
.

none of the above

10. If you use the absolute coordinate system to create a line from a starting point of 0, 0 8 units on
the X axis and 5 units on the Y axis you enter ________ for the second point.

107

A
.

8,5

B
.

5,8

C
.

0,8

D
.

5,0

29A.Computer Aided Design Basics - True or False

1. The version of AutoCAD being used can be checked by reading top blue line or title bar located
above the pull down menu bar.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. When beginning a new drawing in AutoCAD the default start-up layer will be the Defpoints layer.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. In order to create a straight line in the AutoCAD graphics window the drafter is expected to pick
a starting point and ending point.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. One very important tool to learn is the undo tool. It is located on the Standard Tool Bar
A
.

True

B
.

False

5. The line tool icon is located on the Modify Tool Bar.

A
.

True

B
.

False

6. It is very important to learn the relationship between line types, colors, and layers.
A
.

True

108

B
.

False

7. AutoCAD is often referred to as the international standard by which all other CAD programs are
measured.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. UCS stands for User Coordinate System.

A
.

True

B
.

False

9. The two principle components of a CAD system are the computer and the software used to
create technical drawings.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. You cannot use the Offset Tool to enlarge the size of a circle.
A
.

True

B
.

False

30. Blocks
1. An AutoCAD term that refers to a pre-drawn object which is stored in a drawing file and can be
inserted into any other drawing file as needed is a ________.
A
.

Block

B
.

brick

C
.

balloon

D
.

none of the above

2. Most architectural firms and mechanical design companies utilize different categories of blocks.
These sets of blocks are usually housed in ________.
A
.

block vaults

109

B
.

block libraries

C
.

block books

D
.

block references

3. In some circumstances an entire drawing can be inserted into a different drawing as a block.
When this is used the base point will default to ________.
A
.

0,0

B
.

10,10

C
.

20,20

D
.

30,30

4. When creating your own blocks it is important to avoid drawing any portion of the block in the
________ layer.
A
.

B
.

center line

C
.

hatch

D
.

hidden line

5. Newer versions of AutoCAD utilize the ________ to make block library management very easy.
A
.

File / find

B
.

Design Center

C
.

File / search

D
.

None of the above

6. When the drafter types the word BLOCK or selects the Make Block tool from the Draw tool bar
the ________ will appear.
A
.

grid

110

B
.

Block Text Box

C
.

Block Definition Dialog

D
.

None of the above

7. When creating a block the drafter needs to pay particular attention to selecting a base point
because it determines the ________.
A
.

scale

B
.

rotation angle

C
.

insertion point

D
.

color

8. When using versions of AutoCAD prior to Release 2006 it may be necessary to ________ a
block in order to edit it.
A
.

copy

B
.

explode

C
.

offset

D
.

none of the above

9. Some common blocks used by architectural drafters include ________.

A
.

door swings

B
.

ceiling fans

C
.

appliances

D
.

All of the above

10. Inserting blocks into a drawing file usually requires exacting placement. The drafter should
insure that ________ is turned on.
A
.

O Snaps

111

B
.

Ortho

C
.

Grid

D
.

Dynamic Input

30A.Blocks - True or False

1. The drafter can either type the word block or select the Make Block tool in the Draw tool bar to
create a block.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. When creating a block consideration should be given to the base point because it directly relates
to the insertion point.
A
.

True

B
.

False

3. When creating a block the drafter should carefully draw it in the 0 layer.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. The Insert Block tool is inside the Modify tool set.

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. In AutoCAD a block is a symbol or object that can be inserted into a drawing.

A
.

True

B
.

False

6. When inserting a block into a drawing the drafter can easily change the scale to match a
particular scale factor for the drawing.
A
.

True

False

112

.
7. Blocks containing tags or labels of data are called Data Blocks.
A
.

True

B
.

False

8. AutoCAD will allow the drafter to insert an entire drawing as a block.

A
.

True

B
.

False

9. A group of blocks stored in a drawing file is commonly referred to as a block library.

A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Exploding a block will allow the drafter to edit a block.

A
.

True

B
.

False

31. Architectural Working Drawings

1. The building construction industry relies on sets of ________ drawings to construct homes and
commercial buildings.
A
.

mechanical

B
.

isometric

C
.

architectural working

D
.

all of the above

2. The text height for room names should be set to ________for a drawing that will be plotted to a
scale of " = 1'-0".
A
.

4"

B
.

5"

113

C
.

6"

D
.

8"

3. The architectural drafter usually begins a set of working drawings by creating the ________ plan
first.
A
.

foundation

B
.

floor plan

C
.

elevations

D
.

building section

4. Once the architect has finalized the house plans with the client any changes to the design
requested by the client will require a ________.
A
.

change order

B
.

modification slip

C
.

whole new set of drawings

D
.

none of the above

5. The foundation contractor will work with the following architectural plans.
A
.

foundation

B
.

site plan

C
.

floor plan

D
.

all of the above

6. To insure that everyone understands what the electrical symbols represent it is customary to
include a ____ on the electrical sheet.
A
.

list

B
.

part number

114

C
.

electrical legend

D
.

electrical layer

7. On a floor plan the dashed line that appears approximately 24" outside the exterior wall
represents the ________.
A
.

sidewalk

B
.

roof overhang

C
.

plumbing drain lines

D
.

none of the above

8. The site plan illustrates ________.

A
.

the floor plan

B
.

where the house sits on the property

C
.

the roof plan

D
.

where the garage and driveway are located

9. Generally, the units used on an architectural drawing are set to ________.

A
.

Architectural

B
.

engineering

C
.

metric

D
.

civil

10. Elevation drawings will include information about ________.

A
.

roof pitch

B
.

siding

window style

115

.
D
.

all of the above

31A.Architectural Working Drawings - True or False

1. Blocks are not an important element of architectural drawings.
A
.

True

B
.

False

2. The floor plan is a bird's eye view of the house.

A
.

True

B
.

False

3. If the roof pitch for a house is identified as 5/12 the height of the roof rises 2 " for every 14" of
horizontal run.
A
.

True

B
.

False

4. A set of working drawings used to build a house is considered a legal document.

A
.

True

B
.

False

5. Although the drafter creates the working drawings, the accuracy of the set of drawings is most
often the responsibility of the design architect.
A
.

True

B
.

False

6. Developing the foundation plan is probably the starting point for creating a set of architectural
plans.
A
.

True

B
.

False

7. A typical set of architectural working drawings would probably include floor plans, foundation
plans, elevations, section details, and roof framing plans.

116

A
.

True

B
.

False

8. The symbols used on electrical plans represent the standard equipment used in homes and
commercial buildings.
A
.

True

B
.

False

9. AutoCAD's Design Center is used to manage various block libraries used in architectural
drawings.
A
.

True

B
.

False

10. Elevation views generally include the front, right side, back, and left side views.
A
.

True

B
.

False

Engineering Mechanics Questions & Answers

1. General Principles
1. Solve the following equation for the two roots of x: x2 16 = 0
A
.

x = 2i, 2i

B
.

x = 4i, 4i

C
.

x = 4, 4

D
.

x = 2, 2

117

2.

Using the basic trigonomic functions, determine the length of side AB of the right triangle.
A
.

h = 7.07

B
.

h = 10

C
.

h=5

D
.

h = 14.14

3.

Determine the angle :

A
.

= 30

B
.

= 40

C
.

= 60

D
.

= 50

4. Solve the following equation for x, y, and z:

x y + z = 1 x + y + z = 1 x + 2y 2z = 5
A
.

x = 1,

B
.

x = 5/3,

C
.

x = 2/3,

x = 1,

y = 1,

z = 1

y = 7/6,

z = 1/2

y = 2/3,
y = 1,

z = 1

z=1

118

.
5.

Using the basic trigonomic functions, determine the length of side AB of the right triangle.
A
.

h = 5.77

B
.

h = 11.55

C
.

h=5

D
.

h = 8.66

6.

Determine the angles and

and the length of side AB of the triangle. Note that there are two
possible answers to this question and we have provided only one of them as an answer.
A
.

= 46.7,

= 93.3 d = 9.22

B
.

= 50.0,

= 90.0 d = 9.14

C
.

= 40.0,

= 100.0 d = 9.22

D
.

= 48.6,

= 91.4, d = 9.33

7.

119

Determine the length of side AB if right angle ABC is similar to right angle A'B'C':
A
.

AB = 5.42

B
.

AB = 3

C
.

AB = 5

D
.

AB = 4

8.

Determine the angle :

A
.

= 30

B
.

= 40

C
.

= 60

D
.

= 50

9. Solve the following equation for the two roots of x: x2 + 5x = 6

A
.

x = 2, 3

B
.

x = 1, 5

C
.

x = 1, 6

D
.

x = 0.742, 6.74

120

10.

Using the basic trigonomic functions, determine the length of side AB of the right triangle.
A
.

h = 10

B
.

h = 7.07

C
.

h = 14.14

D
.

h=5

2. Equilibrium of a Particle
1.

The joint O of a space frame is subjected to four forces. Strut OA lies in the x-y plane and
strut OB lies in the y-zplane. Determine the force acting in each if the three struts required for
equilibrium of the joint. Set = 45.
A
.

F = 46.4 lb, R = 400 lb, P = 424 lb

B
.

F = 566 lb, R = 424 lb, P = 1000 lb

C
.

F = 11.3 lb, R = 424 lb, P = 577 lb

D
.

F = 1166 lb, R = 424 lb, P = 1000 lb

121

2.

A "scale" is constructed with a 4-ft-long cord and the 10-lb block D. The cord is fixed to a pin
at A and passes over two small pulleys at B and C. Determine the weight of the suspended
block E if the system is in equilibrium when s = 1.5 ft.
A
.

W = 8.01 lb

B
.

W = 14.91 lb

C
.

W = 17.63 lb

D
.

W = 18.33 lb

3.

Determine the magnitudes ofthe forces P, R, and F required for equillibrium of point O.
A
.

R = 238 N, F = 181.0 N, P = 395 N

B
.

R = 1340 N, F = 740 N, P = 538 N

C
.

R = 419 N, F = 181.0 N, P = 395 N

D
.

R = 409 N, F = 504 N, P = 1099 N

122

4.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the resultant force FAB exerted along link AB by the
tractive apparatus shown. The suspended mass is 10 kg. Neglect the size of the pulley at A.
A
.

FAB = 170.0 N,

= 75.0

B
.

FAB = 170.0 N,

= 15.0

C
.

FAB = 98.1 N,

= 75.0

D
.

FAB = 98.1 N,

= 15.0

5.

Determine the tension developed in cables OD and OB and the strut OC, required to support the
500-lb crate. The spring OA has an unstretched length of 0.2 ft and a stiffness of kOA = 350lb/ft.
The force in the strut acts along the axis of the strut.
A
.

Fob = 289 lb, Foc = 175.0 lb, Fod = 131.3 lb

B
.

Fob = 86.2 lb, Foc = 175.0 lb, Fod = 506 lb

123

C
.

Fob = 375 lb, Foc = 0, Fod = 375 lb

D
.

Fob = 664 lb, Foc = 175.0 lb, Fod = 244 lb

6.

Determine the force F needed to hold the 4-kg lamp in the position shown.
A
.

F = 39.2 N

B
.

F = 68.0 N

C
.

F = 34.0 N

D
.

F = 19..62 N

7.

The patella P located in the human knee joint is subjected to tendon forces T1 and T2 and a force
F exerted on the patella by the femoral articular A. If the directions of these forces are estimated
from an X-ray as shown, determine the magnitudes of T1 and F when the tendon force T2 = 6 lb..
The forces are concurrent at point O.
A
.

T1 = 1.042 lb, F = 5.91 lb

B
.

T1 = 5.64 lb, F = 5.64 lb

C
.

T1 = 1.203 lb, F = 5.31 lb

124

D
.

T1 = 4.45 lb, F = 6.82 lb

8.

A continuous of total length 4 m is wrapped around the small frictionless pulleys at A, B,

C, and D. If the stiffness of each spring is k = 500 N/m and each spring is stretched 300 mm,
determine the mass m of each block. Neglect the weight of the pulleys and cords. The springs
are unstretched when d = 2 m.
A
.

m = 153.0 kg

B
.

m = 15.60 kg

C
.

m = 4.75 kg

D
.

m = 30.5 kg

9.

Determine the force in each strut and tell whether it is in tension or compression.

125

A
.

Fab = 1.76 lb T, Fac = 5.00 lb T, Fad = 3.53 lb C

B
.

Fab = 11.47 lb T, Fac = 25.0 lb C, Fad = 14.97 lb C

C
.

Fab = 11.47 lb C, Fac = 25.0 lb T, Fad = 14.97 lb C

D
.

Fab = 1.76 lb C, Fac = 5.00 lb T, Fad = 3.53 lb C

10.

The ends of the three cables are attached to ring at A and to the edge of a uniform 150-kg plate.
Determine the tension in each of the cables for equilibrium.
A
.

Fab = 629 N, Fac = 1030N, Fad = 57.0 N

B
.

Fab = 1116 N, Fac = 1030N, Fad = 429 N

C
.

Fab = 720 N, Fac = 116.1N, Fad = 830 N

D
.

Fab = 858 N, Fac = 0, Fad = 858 N

3. Equilibrium of a Rigid Body

126

1.

The girl has a mass of 17kg and mass center at Gg, and the tricycle has a mass of 10kg and
mass center at Gt. Determine the normal reactions at each wheel for equilibrium.
A
.

NA = 14.77 N, NB = NC = 6.12 N

B
.

NA = 128.8 N, NB = NC = 68.0 N

C
.

NA = 144.9 N, NB = NC = 60.0 N

D
.

NA = 13.15 N, NB = NC = 6.93 N

2.

The sports car has a mass of 1.5 Mg and mass center at G. If the front two springs each have a
stiffness of kA=58 kN/m and the rear two springs each have a stiffness of kB = 65 kN/m,
determine their compression when the car is parked on the 30 incline. Also, what frictional force
FB must be applied to each of the rear wheels to hold the car in equilibrium?
A
.

xA = 16.1 mm, xB = 42.2 mm, FB = 6.37 kN

B
.

xA = 65.9 mm, xB = 39.2 mm, FB = 6.37 kN

C
.

xA = 53.2 mm, xB = 50.5 mm, FB = 3.68 kN

xA = 76.1 mm, xB = 45.3 mm, FB = 3.68 kN

127

.
3.

Determine the tension in the supporting cables BC and BD and the components of reaction at
the ball-and-socket joint A of the boom. The boom supports a drum having a weight of 200 lb.
at F. Points C and D lie in the xyplane.
A
.

Ax = 0, Ay = 150 lb, Az = 562 lb, TBC = 300 lb, TBD = 212 lb

B
.

Ax = 0, Ay = 150 lb, Az = 456 lb, TBC = 150 lb, TBD = 212 lb

C
.

Ax = 0, Ay = 267 lb, Az = 843 lb, TBC = 533 lb, TBD = lb

D
.

Ax = 0, Ay = 150 lb, Az = 500 lb, TBC = 212 lb, TBD = 212 lb

4.

The space truss is supported by a ball-and-socket joint at A and short links, two at C and one
at D. Determine the x, y, z components of reaction at A and the force in each link.
A
.

Ax = -1.050 kN, Ay = 1.050 kN, Az = 0.800 kN, Cy = -1.050 kN, Cz = 0.600 kN, Dx = 1.050
kN

128

B
.

Ax = -1.400 kN, Ay = 1.400 kN, Az = 0.800 kN, Cy = -1.400 kN, Cz = 0.600 kN, Dx = 1.400
kN

C
.

Ax = -2.49 kN, Ay = 1.867 kN, Az = 0.800 kN, Cy = -2.49 kN, Cz = 0.600 kN, Dx = 2.49 kN

D
.

Ax = -1.867 kN, Ay = 1.867 kN, Az = 0.800 kN, Cy = -1.867 kN, Cz = 0.600 kN, Dx = 1.867
kN

5.

The flying boom B is used with a crane to position construction materials in coves and
underhangs. The horizontal "balance" of the boom is controlled by a 250-kg block D, which has a
center of gravity at G and moves by internal sensing devices along the bottom flange F of the
beam. Determine the position x of the block when the boom is used to lift the stone S, which has
a mass of 60 kg. The boom is uniform and has a mass of 80 kg.
A
.

x = 2.500 m

B
.

x = 0.340 m

C
.

x = 1.180 m

D
.

x = 0.600 m

6.

There is a ball and socket connection at A. At point B there is a connection that opposes motion
in the x and z directions only. Determine the unknown force components at A and B. Use a
scalar analysis.

129

A
.

Ax = 5.5 kN, Ay = -1.0 kN, Az = 2.75 kN, Bx = 3.5 kN, Bz = 1.25 kN, FDC = 2.0 kN

B
.

Ax = 1.5 kN, Ay = -1.0 kN, Az = 0.75 kN, Bx = -3.5 kN, Bz = 1.25 kN, FDC = 2.0 kN

C
.

Ax = 5.5 kN, Ay = -1.0 kN, Az = 2.75 kN, Bx = 3.5 kN, Bz = -0.75 kN, FDC = 2.0 kN

D
.

Ax = 1.5 kN, Ay = -1.0 kN, Az = 1.25 kN, Bx = -3.5 kN, Bz = 0.75 kN, FDC = 2.0 kN

7.

Determine the horizontal and vertical components of reaction at the pin A and the reaction at the
roller support Brequired for equilibrium of the truss.
A
.

Ax = 0, Ay = 333 lb, NB = 267 lb

B
.

Ax = 462 lb, Ay = 66.7 lb, NB = 533 lb

C
.

Ax = 267 lb, Ay = 223 lb, NB = 377 lb

D
.

Ax = 154.0 lb, Ay = 333 lb, NB = 308 lb

8.

The crane provides a long-reach capacity by using the telescopic boom segment DE. The entire
boom is supported by a pin at A and by the telescopic hydraulic cylinder BC, which can be
considered as a two-force member. The rated load capacity of the crane is measured by a

130

maximum force developed in the hydraulic cylinder. If this maximum force is developed when the
boom supports a mass m = 6 Mg and its length is l = 40 and = 60, determine the greatest
mass that can be supported when the boom length is extended to l = 50 m and = 45. Neglect
the weight of the boom and the size of the pulley at E. Assume the crane does not overturn.
Note: when = 60 BC is vertical; however, when = 45 this is not the case.
A
.

m = 7.50 Mg

B
.

m = 4.80 Mg

C
.

m = 3.26 Mg

D
.

m = 4.61 Mg

9.

A Russell's traction is used for immobilizing femoral fractures C. If the lower leg has a weight of
8 lb, determine the weight W that must be suspended at D in order for the leg to be held in the
position shown. Also, what is the tension force F in the femur and the distance which locates
the center of gravity G of the lower leg? Neglect the size of the pulley at B.
A
.

x = 1.44 ft, w = 10.8 lb, F = 12.61 lb

B
.

x = 1.33 ft, w = 15.76 lb, F = 20.0 lb

C
.

x = 1.56 ft, w = 9.75 lb, F = 12.69 lb

D
.

x = 0.869 ft, w = 6.44 lb, F = 5.03 lb

131

10.

There is a ball and socket connection at A. At B there is a roller that prevents motion in the z
direction. Corner C is tied to D by a rope. The triangle is weightless. Determine the unknown
force components acting at A, B, and C. Use a scalar analysis.
A
.

Ax = 0, Ay = 0, Az = 267 N, Bz = 150 N, FDC = 283 N

B
.

Ax = 0, Ay = 0, Az = 450 N, Bz = 800 N, FDC = 550 N

C
.

Ax = 0, Ay = 0, Az = 200 N, Bz = 200 N, FDC = 300 N

D
.

Ax = 0, Ay = 0, Az = 467 N, Bz = 350 N, FDC = 117.1 N

11.

If the boom in the previous problem is to remain horizontal when the stone S is removed, what is
x?
A
.

x = 1.180 m

B
.

x = 2.500 m

C
.

x = 0.340 m

D
.

x = 0.660 m

132

12.

Compute the horizontal and vertical components of force at pin B. The belt is subjected to a
tension of T=100 N and passes over each of the three pulleys.
A
.

Bx = 0 N, By = 141.4 N

B
.

Bx = -15.89 N, By = 120.7 N

C
.

Bx = 20.7 N, By = 157.3 N

D
.

Bx = 0, By = 100.0 N

13.

The oil rig is supported on the trailer by the pin or axle at A and the frame at B. If the rig has a
weight of 115,000 lb and the center of gravity at G, determine the force F that must de developed
along the hydraulic cylinder CD in order to start lifting the rig (slowly) off B toward the vertical.
Also compute the horizontal and vertical components of reaction at the pin A.
A
.

Ax = 343 kip, Ay = -172.5 kip, FCD = 447 kip

B
.

Ax = 205 kip, Ay = -57.5 kip, FCD = 268 kip

C
.

Ax = 241 kip, Ay = -172.5 kip, FCD = 375 kip

D
.

Ax = 220 kip, Ay = -70.1 kip, FCD = 288 kip

4. Internal Forces

133

1.

Determine the internal axial force, shear force, and moment at point F of the frame.
A
.

AF = 0, VF = 750 lb, MF = 750 lb-ft

B
.

AF = 1500 lb, VF = 0, MF = 4500 lb-ft

C
.

AF = 0, VF = 1500 lb, MF = 4500 lb-ft

D
.

AF = 750 lb, VF = 0, MF = 750 lb-ft

2.

The work platform supports an 80-kg man having a mass center at G. Determine the axial force,
shear force, and bending moment at point E of the telescopic column AB due to the load of the
man only.
A
.

AE = 785 N C, VE = 0, ME = 785 N-m

B
.

AE = 785 N C, VE = 392 N, ME = 0

134

C
.

AE = 785 N T, VE = 392 N, ME = 0

D
.

AE = 785 N T, VE = 0, ME = 785 N-m

3.

Determine the internal axial force, shear force, and moment at point E of the oleo strut AB of the
aircraft landing gear.
A
.

AE = 9.33 kip C, VE = 8.00 kip, ME = 80.0 kip-in.

B
.

AE = 11.11 kip T, VE = 6.67 kip, ME = 66.7 kip-in.

C
.

AE = 9.33 kip T, VE = 8.00 kip, ME = 80.0 kip-in.

D
.

AE = 11.11 kip C, VE = 6.67 kip, ME = 66.7 kip-in.

4.

A force of 500 N acts at the top of the two-member frame. If the members are in smooth contact

135

with one another at A, B, and C with no fasteners, determine the shear force developed at a
horizontal section through point D of the support. Also, what are the axial force, shear force and
moment at point E?
A
.

VD = 250 N, AE = 250 N, VE = 333 N, ME = 316 N-m

B
.

VD = 333 N, AE = 333 N, VE = 250 N, ME = 267 N-m

C
.

VD = 333 N, AE = 333 N, VE = 250 N, ME = 200 N-m

D
.

VD = 250 N, AE = 250 N, VE = 333 N, ME = 267 N-m

5.

The axial forces act on the shaft as shown. Determine the internal axial force at points A and B.
A
.

AA = 0, AB = 10 lb C

B
.

AA = 0, AB = 10 lb T

C
.

AA = 10 lb C, AB = 0

D
.

AA = 10 lb T, AB = 0

5. Center of Gravity and Centroid

136

1.

Determine the approximate amount of paint needed to cover the surface of the water storage
tank. Assume that a liter of paint covers 2.5 m2. Also, what is the total inside volume of the tank.
A
.

27.6 liters of paint, V = 52.6 m3

B
.

20.1 liters of paint, V = 50.3 m3

C
.

26.4 liters of paint, V = 56.5 m3

D
.

25.1 liters of paint, V = 55.0 m3

2.

Determine the distance to the centroid axis

of the beam's cross-sectional area. Neglect the
size of the corner welds at A and B for the calculation.
A
.

= 75.2 mm

= 97.5 mm

137

.
C
.

= 85.9 mm

D
.

= 102.5 mm

3.

Locate the centroid of the shaded area.

A
.

= 0.667 m,

= 2.40 m

B
.

= 0.500 m,

= 2.80 m

C
.

= 0.800 m,

= 2.00 m

D
.

= 0.600 m,

= 2.60 m

4.

Determine the volume of concrete needed to construct the circular curb.

A
.

V = 1.083 m3

B
.

V = 1.309 m3

V = 1.756 m3

138

.
D
.

V = 8.67 m3

5.

Determine the distance

A
.

= 112.3 mm

B
.

= 125.0 mm

C
.

= 100.0 mm

D
.

= 91.7 mm

to the centroidal axis

of the beam's cross-sectional area.

6.

The truss is made from seven members, each having a mass of 6 kg/m. Locate the position ( ,
) of the center of mass. Neglect the mass of the gusset plates at the joints.
A
.

= 2.36 m,

= 1.286 m

B
.

= 2.33 m,

= 1.333 m

C
.

= 2.43 m,

= 1.308 m

D
.

= 2.79 m,

= 1.757 m

139

7.

Locate the center of gravity of the volume generated by revolving the shaded area about
the z axis. The material is homogeneous.
A
.

= 2.80 ft

B
.

= 2.50 ft

C
.

= 2.67 ft

D
.

= 3.00 ft

8.

Locate the center of gravity of the homogeneous "bell-shaped" volume formed by revolving the
shaded area about the y axis.
A
.

= 3.33 ft

B
.

= 2.80 ft

140

C
.

= 3.20 ft

D
.

= 3.00 ft

9.

Locate the centroid of the exparabolic segment of area.

A
.

= -4a/5,

= -b/4

B
.

= -3a/4,

= -3b/10

C
.

= -2a/3,

= -b/3

D
.

= -5a/7,

= -3b/8

6. Kinematics of Particle (KOP)

1.

A race car starting from rest moves along a straight track with an acceleration as shown in the
graph (where for t 10 s, a = 8 m/s2). Determine the time t for the car to reach a speed of 50
m/s.
A
.

t = 11.25 s

B
.

t = 6.25 s

141

C
.

t = 12.5 s

D
.

t = 3.53 s

2.

A two-stage missile is fired vertically from rest with an acceleration as shown in the graph. In 15
s the first stage A burns out and the second stage B ignites. How fast is the rocket moving and
how far has it gone at t = 20 s? How fast is the missile moving and how far has it gone at t = 20
s?
A
.

v = 430 m/s, s = 4.30 km

B
.

v = 395 m/s, s = 3.69 km

C
.

v = 360 m/s, s = 3.60 km

D
.

v = 500 m/s, s = 5.00 km

142

3.

The cylindrical cam C is held fixed while the rod AB and bearings E and F rotate about the
vertical axis of the cam at a constant rate of = 4 rad/s. If the rod is free to slide through the
bearings, determine the magnitudes of the velocity and acceleration of the guide D on the rod as
a function of . The guide follows the groove in the cam, and the groove is defined by the
equations r = 0.25 ft and z = (0.25 cos ) ft.
A
.
B
.

v = cos ft/s, a = 4.00 sin ft/s2

C
.

v = sin ft/s, a = 4.00 cos

D
.

v = 1.000 ft/s, a = 4.00 ft/s2

ft/s2

143

4.

If the hoist H is moving upward at 6 ft/s, determine the speed at which the motor M must draw in
the supporting cable.
A
.

VP/H = 6 ft/s

B
.

VP/H = 2 ft/s

C
.

VP/H = 12 ft/s

D
.

VP/H = 18 ft/s

5.

A package is dropped from the plane which is flying with a constant horizontal velocity
of vA = 150 ft/s at a height h = 1500 ft. Determine the radius of curvature of the path of the
package just after it is released from plane at A.
A
.
B
.
C
.
D

= 9860 ft

= 3000 ft

= 1500 ft

= 8510 ft

144

.
6.

A passenger in the automobile B observes the motion of the train car <a< i="" style="margin:
0px; box-sizing: border-box;">. At the instant shown, the train has a speed of 18 m/s and is
reducing its speed at a rate of 1.5 m/s2. The automobile is accelerating at 2 m/s2 and has a
speed of 25 m/s. Determine the velocity and acceleration of A with respect to B. The train is
moving along a curve of radius <i.r< i="" style="margin: 0px; box-sizing: border-box;">= 300
m.</i.r<></a<>
A
.

vA/B = (25.0i+18.00j) m/s, aA/B = (2.00i-1.500j) m/s2

B
.

vA/B = (25.0i+18.00j) m/s, aA/B = (0.920i-1.500j) m/s2

C
.

vA/B = (-25.0i-18.00j) m/s, aA/B = (-2.00i+1.500j) m/s2

D
.

vA/B = (-25.0i-18.00j) m/s, aA/B = (-0.920i+1.500j) m/s2

7.

The v-s graph for a rocket sled is shown. Determine the acceleration of the sled when s = 100 m

145

and s = 175 m.
A
.

a100 = 3.75 m/s2, a175 = -1.250 m/s2

B
.

a100 = 11.11 m/s2, a175 = -25.0 m/s2

C
.

a100 = 0.333 m/s2, a175 = -1.000 m/s2

D
.

a100 = 33.3 m/s2, a175 = -25 m/s2

8.

From experimental data, the motion of a jet plane while traveling along a runway is defined by
the v-t graph shown. Find the position s and the acceleration a when t = 40 s.
A
.

s = 2.80 km, a = 2.00 m/s2

B
.

s = 2.80 km, a = 0

C
.

s = 2.80 km, a = 2.67 m/s2

D
.

s = 2.80 km, a = 8.37 m/s2

9.

146

The pilot of flighter plane F is following 1.5 km behind the pilot of bomber B. Both planes are
originally traveling at 120 m/s. In an effort to pass the bomber, the pilot in F gives his plane a
constant acceleration of 12 m/s2. Determine the speed at which the pilot in the bomber sees the
pilot of the fighter plane pass at the start of the passing operation the bomber is decelerating at 3
m/s2. Neglect the effect of any turning.
A
.

vF/B = 150 m/s

B
.

vF/B = 367 m/s

C
.

vF/B = 90 m/s

D
.

vF/B = 212 m/s

10.

A car, initially at rest, moves along a straight road with constant acceleration such that it attains a
velocity of 60 ft/s when s = 150 ft. Then after being subjected to another constant acceleration, it
attains a final velocity of 100 ft/s when s = 325 ft. Determine the average velocity and average
acceleration of the car for the entire 325-ft displacement.
A
.

vavg = 80.0 ft/s, aavg = 15.15 ft/s2

B
.

vavg = 45.2 ft/s, aavg = 13.91 ft/s2

C
.

vavg = 80.0 ft/s, aavg = 12.57 ft/s2

D
.

vavg = 55.0 ft/s, aavg = 15.15 ft/s2

11.

The motorcyclist attempts to jump over a series of cars and trucks and lands smoothly on the
other ramp, i.e., such that his velocity is tangent to the ramp at B. Determine the launch
speed vA necessary to make the jump.

147

A
.

vA = 11.90 m/s

B
.

vA = 11.07 m/s

C
.

vA = 16.83 m/s

D
.

vA = 15.66 m/s

12.

If the end of the cable at A is pulled down with a speed of 2 m/s, determine the speed at which
block B arises.
A
.

vB = 4.00 m/s

B
.

vB = 1.000 m/s

C
.

vB = 1.000 m/s

D
.

vB = 4.00 m/s

13.

A package is dropped from the plane which is flying with a constant horizontal velocity
of vA = 150 ft/s at a height h = 1500 ft. Determine the radius of curvature of the path of the
package just before it is released from plane at A.

148

A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.

= 9860 ft

= 3000 ft

= 1500 ft

= 8510 ft

14.

For a short time the position of a roller-coaster car along its path is defined by the equations r =
25 m, = (0.3t) rad, and z = (-8 cos ) m, where t is measured in seconds, Determine the
magnitudes of the car's velocity and acceleration when t = 4s.
A
.

v = 7.83 m/s, a = 2.27 m/s2

B
.

v = 9.74 m/s, a = 2.51 m/s2

C
.

v = 7.50 m/s, a = 2.25 m/s2

D
.

v = 5.26 m/s, a = 1.989 m/s2

149

15.

The flight path of a jet aircraft as it takes off is defined by the parmetric equations x =
1.25 t2 and y = 0.03 t3, where t is the time after take-off, measured in seconds, and x and y are
given in meters. At t = 40 s (just before it starts to level off), determine at this instant (a) the
horizontal distance it is from the airport, (b) its altitude, (c) its speed and (d) the magnitude of its
acceleration.
A
.

x = 2.00 km, y = 1.92 km, v = 100.0 m/s, a = 2.50 m/s2

B
.

x = 2.00 km, y = 1.92 km, v = 144.0 m/s, a = 7.20 m/s2

C
.

x = 2.00 km, y = 1.92 km, v = 175.0 m/s, a = 7.62 m/s2

D
.

x = 2.00 km, y = 1.92 km, v = 32.9 m/s, a = 7.90 m/s2

16.

The slotted link is pinned at O, and as a result of rotation it drives the peg P along the horizontal
guide. Compute the magnitude of the velocity and acceleration of P along the horizontal guide.
Compute the magnitudes of the velocity and acceleration of P as a function of if = (3t) rad,
where t is measured in seconds.
A
.

v = 0.500 sec2

m/s, a = 1.000 sec2

B
.

v = 1.500 sec

m/s, a = 9.00 sec

v = 1.500 sec

tan

tan
tan

m/s, a = 9.00 sec

m/s2
m/s2
tan<sup2< sup="" style="margin: 0px; box-

150

sizing: border-box;">

D
.

v = 1.500 sec2

m/s2</sup2<>

m/s, a = 9.00 sec2

tan

m/s2

17.

A sled is traveling down along a curve which can be approximated by the parabola y =
x 2.
When point B on the runner is coincident with point A on the curve (xA = 2m, yA = 1 m), the speed
if B is measured as vB = 8 m/s and the increase in speed is dvB/dt = 4 m/s2. Determine the
magnitude of the acceleration of point B at this instant.
A
.

a = 8.94 m/s2

B
.

a = 12.00 m/s2

C
.

a = 16.10 m/s2

D
.

a = 8.16 m/s2

18.

A ball thrown vertically upward from the top of a building with an initial velocity of vA = 35 ft/s.
Determine (a) how high above the top of the building the ball will go before it stops at B, (b) the

151

time tAB it takes to reach its maximum height, and (c) the total time tAC needed for it to reach the
ground at C from the instant it is released.
A
.

h = 62.4 ft, tAB = 3.57 s, tAC = 7.14 s

B
.

h = 19.02 ft, tAB = 1.087 s, tAC = 2.17 s

C
.

h = 19.02 ft, tAB = 1.087 s, tAC = 3.30 s

D
.

h = 62.4 ft, tAB = 3.57 s, tAC = 8.56 s

19.

When the motorcyclist is at A he increases his speed along the vertical circular parth at the rate
of v = (0.3t)ft/s2, where t is in seconds. If he starts from rest when he is at A, determine his
velocity and acceleration when he reaches B.
A
.

v = 51.1 ft/s2, a = 9.83 ft/s2

B
.

v = 51.1 ft/s2, a = 8.18 ft/s2

C
.

v = 51.1 ft/s2, a = 10.31 ft/s2

D
.

v = 51.1 ft/s2, a = 8.69 ft/s2

152

20.

A ball is thrown downward on the 30 inclined plane so that when it rebounds perpendicular to
the incline it has a velocity of vA = 40 ft/s. Determine the distance R where it strikes the plane
at B.
A
.

R = 66.3 ft

B
.

R = 99.4 ft

C
.

R = 172.1 ft

D
.

R = 344 ft

21.

A car is traveling along the circular curve of radius r = 300 ft. At the instant shown, its angular
rate of rotation is = 0.4 rad / s, which is increasing at the rate of = 0.2 rad / s2. Determine the
magnitude of the acceleration of the car at this instant.
A
.

a = 108.0 ft/s2

B
.

a = 60.0 ft/s2

C
.

a = 48.0 ft/s2

a = 76.8 ft/s2

153

22.

The mine car is being pulled up to the inclined plane using the motor M and the rope-and-pulley
arragement shown. Determine the speed vp at which a point P on the cable must be traveling
toward the motor to move the the car up the plane with a constant speed of v = 5 m/s.
A
.

VP = 1.667 m/s

B
.

VP = 2.50 m/s

C
.

VP = 15.00 m/s

D
.

VP = 10.00 m/s

23.

A car travels up a hill with the speed shown in the graph. Compute the total distance the car
moves until it stops at t = 60 s. What is the acceleration at t = 45 s?

154

A
.

s = 400 m, a45 = -3.00 m/s2

B
.

s = 450 m, a45 = -0.333 m/s2

C
.

s = 400 m, a45 = -3.00 m/s2

D
.

s = 450 m, a45 = 0.333 m/s2

24.

A car is traveling along the circular curve of radius r = 300 ft. At the instant shown, its angular
rate of rotation is = 0.4 rad / s, which is increasing at the rate of = 0.2 rad / s2. Determine the
magnitude of the velocity of the car at this instant.
A
.

v = 120.0 ft/s

B
.

v=0

C
.

v = 60.0 ft/s

D
.

v = 169.7 ft/s

25. A particle is moving along a straight line through a fluid medium such that its speed is measured
as v = (2t) m/s, where t is in seconds. If it is released from rest at s = 0, determine its positions
and acceleration when t = 3 s.
A
.

s = 9 m, a = 2 m/s2

B
.

s = 2 m, a = 18 m/s2

155

C
.

s = 18 m, a = 2 m/s2

D
.

s = 2 m, a = 9 m/s2

26. A boat is traveling along a circular path having a radius of 20 m. Determine the magnitude of the
boat's acceleration if at a given instant the boat's speed is v = 5 m/s and the rate of increase in
speed is v = 2 m/s2.
A
.

a = 2.00 m/s2

B
.

a = 2.36 m/s2

C
.

a = 1.25 m/s2

D
.

a = 12.50 m/s2

27.

As the instant shown, cars A and B are traveling at speeds of 20 mi/h and 45 mi/h, respectively.
If B is acceleration at 1600 mi/h2 while A maintains a constant speed, determine the magnitudes
of the velocity and acceleration of A with respect to B.
A
.

vA/B = 33.9 mi/h, aA/B = 1600 mi/h2

B
.

vA/B = 60.8 mi/h, aA/B = 1600 mi/h2

C
.

vA/B = 33.9 mi/h, aA/B = 1426 mi/h2

D
.

vA/B = 60.8 mi/h, aA/B = 1426 mi/h2

156

28.

The block B is suspended from a cable that is attached to the block at E, wraps around three
pulleys, and is tied to the back of a truck. If the truck starts from rest when xD is zero, and moves
forward with a constant acceleration of aD = 2 m/s2, determine the speed of the block at the
instant xD = 3 m.
A
.

vB = 0.1715 m/s

B
.

vB = 1.155 m/s

C
.

vB = 0.594 m/s

D
.

vB = 0.515 m/s

29. A train travels along a horizontal circular curve that has a radius of 200 m. If the speed of the
train is uniformly increased from 30 km/h to 45 km/h in 5 s, determine the magnitude of the
acceleration at the instant the speed of the train is 40 km/h.
A
.

a = 0.617 m/s2

B
.

a = 1.037 m/s2

C
.

a = 1.451 m/s2

D
.

a = 0.833 m/s2

157

30. A fly traveling horizontally at a constant speed enters the open window of a train and leaves
through the opposite window 3 m away 0.75 s later. If the fly travels perpendicular to the train's
motion as seen from an observer on the ground, and the train is traveling at 3 m/s, determine the
speed of the fly as observed by a passenger on the train.
A
.

vF/T = 2.65 m/s

B
.

vF/T = 5.00 m/s

C
.

vF/T = 1.000 m/s

D
.

vF/T = 7.00 m/s

31.

The boy throws a snowball such that it strikes the wall of the building at the maximum height of
its trajectory. If it takes t = 1.5 s to travel from A to B, determine the velocity vA at which it was
thrown, the angle of release , and the height h.
A
.

vA = 12.00 ft/s,

B
.

vA = 49.8 ft/s,

= 76.0E, h = 39.7 ft

C
.

vA = 36.3 ft/s,

= 24.4E, h = 18.2 ft

D
.

vA = 48.3 ft/s,

= 65.6E, h = 39.7 ft

= 24.4E, h = 21.7 ft

158

32.

For a short time the missile moves along the parabolic path y = (18 - 2x2) km. If motion along the
ground is measured as x = (4t - 3) km, where t is in seconds, determine the magnitudes of the
missile's velocity and acceleration when t = 1 s.
A
.

v = 5.66 km/s, a = 4.0 km/s2

B
.

v = 16.49 km/s, a = 64.0 km/s2

C
.

v = 16.00 km/s, a = 22.6 km/s2

D
.

v = 4.00 km/s, a = 16.03 km/s2

33. A small metal particle passes downward through a fluid medium while being subjected to the
attraction of a magnetic field such that its position is observed to be s = (15t3 - 3t) mm, where t is
measured in seconds. Determine (a) the particle's displacement from t = 2 s to t = 4 s, and (b)
the velocity and acceleration of the particle when t = 5 s.
A
.

s = 834 mm, v = 1122 mm/s, a = 450 mm/s2

B
.

s = 114 mm, v = 1122 mm/s, a = 450 mm/s2

C
.

s = 114 mm, v = 450 mm/s, a = 1122 mm/s2

159

D
.

s = 834 mm, v = 450 mm/s, a = 1122 mm/s2

34. A car is traveling at a speed of 80 ft/s when the brakes are suddenly applied, causing a constant
deceleration of 10 ft/s2. Determine the time required to stop the car and the distance traveled
before stopping.
A
.

t = 8 s, s = 800 ft

B
.

t = 8 s, s = 320 ft

C
.

t = 4 s, s = 240 ft

D
.

t = 4 s, s = 40 ft

7. KOP: Work and Energy

1.

The elevator E and its freight have a total mass of 400 kg. Hoisting is provided by the
motor M and the 60-kg block C. If the motor has an efficiency of e = 0.6, determine the power
that must be supplied to the motor when the elevator is hoisted upward at a constant speed
of vE = m/s.
A
.

P = 22.2 kW

160

B
.

P = 13.34 kW

C
.

P = 26.2 kW

D
.

P = 30.1 kW

2.

A car having a mass of 2 Mg strikes a smooth, rigid sign post with an initial speed of 30 km/h. To
stop the car, the front end horizontally deforms 0.2 m. If the car is free to roll during the collision,
determine the average horizontal collision force causing the deformation.
A
.

Favg = 4500 kN

B
.

Favg = 9000 kN

C
.

Favg = 347 kN

D
.

Favg = 694 kN

161

3.

When at A the bicyclist has a speed of vA = ft/s. If he coasts without pedaling from the top of the
hill at A to the shore of B and then leaps off the shore, determine his speed at B and the
distance x where he strikes the water at C. The rider and his bicycle have a total weight of 150
lb. Neglect the size of the bicycle and wind resistance.
A
.

vB = 35.0 ft/s, x = 41.2 ft

B
.

vB = 35.0 ft/s, x = 36.1 ft

C
.

vB = 40.1 ft/s, x = 46.5 ft

D
.

vB = 40.1 ft/s, x = 52.0 ft

4.

The firing mechanism of a pinball machine consists of a plunger P having a mass of 0.25 kg and
a spring of stiffness k = 300 N/m. When s = 0, the spring is compressed 50 mm. If the arm is
pulled back such that s = 100 mm and released, determine the speed of the 0.3 kg pinball B just
before the plunger strikes the stop, i.e., s = 0. Assume all sufaces of contact to be smooth. The
ball moves in the horizontal plane. Note that the ball slides without rolling.
A
.

v = 4.47 m/s

B
.

v = 3.30 m/s

162

C
.

v = 2.34 m/s

D
.

v = 3.16 m/s

5.

The block has a weight of 1.5 lb and slides along the smooth chute AB. It is released from rest
at A, which has coordinates of A(5 ft, 0, 10 ft). Determine the speed at which it slides off at B,
which has coordinates of B(0, 8 ft, 0).
A
.

vB = 28.7 ft/s

B
.

vB = 25.4 ft/s

C
.

vB = 26.8 ft/s

D
.

vB = 29.8 ft/s

6.

The roller-coaster car has a speed of 15 ft/s when it is at the crest of a vertical parabolic track.
Compute the velocity and the normal force it exerts on the track when it reaches point B. Neglect
friction and the mass of the wheels. The total weight of the car and the passengers is 350 lb.

163

A
.

vB = 114.5 ft/s, NB = 29.1 lb

B
.

vB = 114.5 ft/s, NB = 284 lb

C
.

vB = 114.5 ft/s, NB = 156.5 lb

D
.

vB = 114.5 ft/s, NB = 440 lb

7.

A motor hoists a 50-kg crate at constant speed to a height of h = 6 m in 3 s. If the indicated

power of the motor is 4 kw, determine the motor's efficiency.
A
.

e = 0.025 (2.5%)

B
.

e = 0.245 (24.5%)

C
.

e = 0.736 (73.6%)

D
.

e = 0.05 (5.0%)

8.

A truck has a weight of 25,000 lb and an engine which transmits a power of 350hp. Assuming
that the wheels do not slip on the ground, determine the angle of the largest incline the truck

164

can climb at a constant speed of v = 50 ft/s.

A
.

2 = 8.86E

B
.

2 = 24.3E

C
.

2 = 8.75E

D
.

2 = 26.8E

9.

The book A having a weight of 1.5 lb slides on the smooth horizontal slot. If the block is drawn
back so that s = 0. Each of the two springs has a stiffness of k = 150 lb/ft and an unstretched
length of 0.5 ft.
A
.

vA = 106.2 ft/s

B
.

vA = 120.4 ft/s

C
.

vA = 160.5 ft/s

D
.

vA = 107.7 ft/s

165

10.

The coefficient of friction between the 2-lb block and the surface is = 0.2. The block is acted
upon by a horizontal force of P. Determine the maximum deformation of the outer spring B at the
instant the block comes to rest. Spring B has a stiffness of KB = 20 lb/ft and the "nested"
spring C has a stiffness of kc = 40 lb/ft.
A
.

xB = 1.154 ft

B
.

xB = 0.790 ft

C
.

xB = 0.923 ft

D
.

xB = 1.137 ft

11.

The car C and its contents have a weight of 600 lb, whereas block B has a weight of 200 lb. If
the car is released from rest, determine its speed when it travels 30 ft down the 20 incline.

166

A
.

vC = 3.55 ft/s

B
.

vC = 3.94 ft/s

C
.

vC = 17.68 ft/s

D
.

vC = 15.94 ft/s

12.

The "flying car" is a ride at an amusement park, which consists of a car having wheels that roll
along a track mounted on a drum. Motion of the car is created by applying the car's brake,
thereby gripping the car to the track and allowing it to move with a speed of vt = 3m/s. If the rider
applies the brake when going from B to A and then releases it at the top of the drum, A, so that
the car coasts freely down along the track to B ( =
rad), determine the speed of the car
at B and the normal reaction which the drum exerts on the car at B. The rider and car have a
total mass of m = 250 kg and the center of mass of the car and rider moves along a circular path
of radius r = 8 m.
A
.

vB = 12.88 m/s, NB = 2.45 kN

B
.

vB = 12.88 m/s, NB = 7.64 kN

C
.

vB = 17.97 m/s, NB = 12.54 kN

D
.

vB = 17.97 m/s, NB = 7.64 kN

167

13.

An electric train car, having a mass of 25 Mg, travels up a 10 incline with a constant speed of 80
km/h. Determine the power required to overcome the force of gravity.
A
.

P = 961 kW

B
.

P = 346 kW

C
.

P = 341 kW

D
.

P = 946 kW

14.

A car, assumed to be rigid and having a mass of 800 kg, strikes a barrel-barrier installation
without the driver applying the brakes. From experiments, the magnitude of the force of
resistance Fr, created by deforming the barrels successively, is shown as a function of vehicle
penetration. If the car strikes the barrier traveling at Vc = 70 km/h, determine approximately the
distance s to which the car penetrates the barrier.
A
.

s = 1.890 m

168

B
.

s = 4.72 m

C
.

s = 2.77 m

D
.

s = 2.52 m

15.

A car is equipped with a bumper B designed to absorb collisions. The bumper is mounted to the
car using pieces of flexible tubing T. Upon collision with a rigid barrier A, a constant horizontal
force F is developed which causes a car deceleration of 3g = 29.43 m/s2 (the highest safe
deceleration for a passenger without a seatbelt). If the car and passenger have a total mass of
1.5 Mg and the car is initially coasting with a speed of 1.5 m/s, compute the magnitude
of F needed to stop the car and the deformation x of the bumper tubing.
A
.

F = 44.1 kN, x = 38.2 mm

B
.

F = 22.1 kN, x = 76.4 mm

C
.

F = 22.1 kN, x = 38.2 mm

D
.

F = 44.1 kN, x = 76.4 mm

8. Planar Kinematics of a Rigid Body (PKRB)

169

1.

Gear A is in mesh with gear B as shown. If A starts from rest and has a constant angular
acceleration of A = 2 rad/s2, determine the tome needed for B to attain an angular velocity of
B = 50 rad/s.
A
.

t = 62.5 s

B
.

t = 250.0 s

C
.

t = 10.00 s

D
.

t = 40.0 s

2.

The 2-m-long bar is confined to move in the horizontal and vertical slots A and B. If the velocity
of the slider block at A is 6 m/s, determine the bar's angular velocity and the velocity of
block B at the instant = 60.

170

A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.

AB

= 3.46 rad/s

, vB = 3.46 m/s 9

AB

= 3.00 rad/s

, vB = 3.00 m/s 9

AB

= 3.00 rad/s

, vB = 6.00 m/s 9

AB

= 6.00 rad/s

, vB = 10.39 m/s 9

3.

Determine the angular acceleration of link BC at the instant = 90 if the collar C has an
instantaneous velocity of vc = 4 ft/s and deceleration of ac = 3 ft/s2 as shown.
A
.
B
.
C
.
D
.

BC

= 36.2 rad/s2

BC

= 36.2 rad/s2

BC

= 27.8 rad/s2

BC

= 27.8 rad/s2

171

4.

During a gust of wind, the blades of the windmill are given an angular acceleration of
= (0.2
) rad/s2, where is measured in radians. If initially the blades have an angular velocity of 5
rad/s, determine the speed of point Plocated at the tip of one of the blades just after the blade
has turned two revolutions.
A
.

vP = 5.60 ft/s

B
.

vP = 19.87 ft/s

C
.

vP = 14.05 ft/s

D
.

vP = 18.81 ft/s

172

5.

The pulley os pin-connected to block B at A. As cord CF unwinds from the inner hub with the
motion shown, cord DE unwinds from the outer rim. Determine the angular acceleration of the
pulley at the instant shown.
A
.

= 80.0 rad/s2

B
.

= 160.0 rad/s2

C
.

= 180.0 rad/s2

D
.

= 53.3 rad/s2

6.

The scaffold S is raised hydraulically by moving the roller at A towards the pin at B. If A is
approaching B with a speed of 1.5 ft/s, determine the speed at which the platform is rising as a
function of . Each link is pin-connected at its midpoint and end points and has a length of 4 ft.

173

A
.

vS = 2.67 sin2 ft/s

B
.

vS = 1.500 cot ft/s

C
.

vS = 1.500 tan

D
.

vS = 2.67 cos

ft/s
ft/s

7.

If rod CD has a downward velocity of 6in/s at the instant shown, determine the velocity of the
gear rack A at this instant. The rod is pinned at C to gear B.
A
.

vA = 6.00 in./s

B
.

vA = 8.00 in./s

C
.

vA = 4.50 in./s

D
.

vA = 3.38 in./s

174

8.

As the cord unravels from the wheel's inner hub, the wheel is rotating at = 2 rad/s at the
instant shown. Determine the magnitudes of the velocities of point A and B.
A
.

vA = 10.77 in./s, vB = 10.00 in./s

B
.

vA = 10.00 in./s, vB = 10.00 in./s

C
.

vA = 10.77 in./s, vB = 14.00 in./s

D
.

vA = 4.00 in./s, vB = 14.00 in./s

9.

175

The rotation of link AB creates an oscillating movement of gear F. If AB has an angular velocity
of AB = 8 rad/s, determine the angular velocity of gear F at the instant shown. Gear E is a part of
arm CD and pinned at D to a fixed point.
A
.

= 26.7 rad/s

B
.

= 16.00 rad/s

C
.

= 32.0 rad/s

D
.

= 27.7 rad/s

10.

The mechanism is used to convert the constant circular motion of rod AB into translating motion
of rod CD. Compute the velocity and acceleration of CD for any angle of AB.
A
.

vCD = 6 sin ft/s, aCD = 24 cos2 ft/s2

B
.

vCD = 1.5 sin ft/s, aCD = 1.5 cos2 ft/s2

C
.

vCD = 6 sin ft/s, aCD = 0

D
.

vCD = 6 cos ft/s, aCD = 0

176

11.

If the block at C is moving downward at 4 ft/s, determine the angular velocity of bar AB at the
instant shown.
A
.

TAB = 2.00 rad/s

B
.

TAB = 1.155 rad/s

C
.

TAB = 0

D
.

TAB = 0.870 rad/s

12.

The sphere starts from rest at = 0 and rotates with an angular acceleration of
= (4 ) rad/s2,
where is measured in radians. Determine the magnitudes of the velocity and acceleration of
point P on the sphere at the instant = 6 rad.

177

A
.

vP = 96.0 in./s, aP = 1168 in./s2

B
.

vP = 135.8 in./s, aP = 2310 in./s2

C
.

vP = 83.1 in./s, aP = 1011 in./s2

D
.

vP = 117.6 in./s, aP = 2000 in./s2

13.

Due to an engine failure, the missile is rotating at = 3 rad/s, while its mass center G is moving
upward at 200 ft/s. Determine the magnitude of the velocity of its nose B at this instant.
A
.

vB = 214 ft/s

B
.

vB = 125.0 ft/s

C
.

vB = 275 ft/s

D
.

vB = 185.4 ft/s

178

14.

Arm ABCD is printed at B and undergoes reciprocating motion such that = (0.3 sin 4t) rad,
where t is measured in seconds and the argument for the sine is in radiaus. Determine the
largest speed of point A during the motion and the magnitude of the acceleration of point D at
this instant.
A
.

vAmax = 0.0600 m/s, aD = 1.002 m/s2

B
.

vAmax = 0.300 m/s, aD = 0.960 m/s2

C
.

vAmax = 0.0600 m/s, aD = 0.916 m/s2

D
.

vAmax = 0.300 m/s, aD = 0.288 m/s2

15.

At the instant shown, gear A is rotating with a constant angular velocity of A = 6 rad/s.
Determine the largest angular velocity of gear B and the maximum speed of point C.
A
.

Bmax

= 3.00 rad/s, vCmax = 0.212 m/s

B
.

Bmax

= 6.00 rad/s, vCmax = 0.424 m/s

C
.

Bmax

= 8.49 rad/s, vCmax = 0.600 m/s

179

D
.

Bmax

= 4.24 rad/s, vCmax = 0.300 m/s

16.

The disk rolls without slipping such that it has an angular acceleration of
= 4 rad/s2 and
angular velocity of = 2 rad/s at the instant shown. Determine the accelerations of
points A and B on the link and the link's angular acceleration at this instant. Assume point A lies
on the periphery of the disk, 150 mm from C.
A
.

aA = (1.200i - 0.600j) m/s2, aB = 1.650i m/s2, "AB = 1.500 rad/s2

B
.

aA = (1.200i - 0.600j) m/s2, aB = 1.650i m/s2, "AB = 1.500 rad/s2

C
.

aA = (1.200i - 2.40j) m/s2, aB = 3.00i m/s2, "AB = 6.00 rad/s2

D
.

aA = (1.200i - 1.200j) m/s2, aB = 2.10i m/s2, "AB = 3.00 rad/s2

17.

Knowing the angular velocity of link CD is

links BC and AB at the instant shown.
A
.

AB

CD

= 4 rad/s, determine the angular velocities of

= 4.00 rad/s TBC = 1.200 rad/s

180

B
.

AB

= 2.65 rad/s TBC = 1.985 rad/s

C
.

AB

= 4.00 rad/s TBC = 1.200 rad/s

D
.

AB

= 1.600 rad/s TBC = 2.29 rad/s

18.

The safe is transported on a platform which rests on rollers, each having a radius r. If the rollers
do not slip, determine their angular velocity if the safe moves forward with a velocity v.
A
.

= v/(2r)

B
.

= v/r

C
.

= 3v/r

D
.

= 2v/r

181

19.

The oil pumping unit consists of a walking beam AB, connecting rod BC, and crank CD. If the
crank rotates at a constant rate of 6 rad/s, determine the speed of the rod hanger H at the
instant shown.
A
.

vH = 17.76 ft/s

B
.

vH = 16.20 ft/s

C
.

vH = 18.00 ft/s

D
.

vH = 16.42 ft/s

20.

Rod CD presses against AB, giving it an angular velocity. If the angular velocity of AB is
maintained at = 5 rad/s, determine the required speed v of CD for any angle of rod AB.

182

A
.

vCD = 10 csc2

B
.

vCD = -10 csc2

C
.

vCD = -10 sin

D
.

vCD = 10 sin

21.

Gear C is rotating with a constant angular velocity of c = 3 rad/s. Determine the acceleration of
the piston A and the angular acceleration of rod AB at the instant = 90. Set rc = 0.2 ft and rd =
0.3 ft.
A
.

aA = 5.88 ft/s2 6, "AB = 4.00 rad/s2

B
.

aA = 5.88 ft/s2 7, "AB = 4.00 rad/s2

C
.

aA = 0.245 ft/s2 6, "AB = 0.816 rad/s2

D
.

aA = 0.245 ft/s2 7, "AB = 0.816 rad/s2

22.

The automobile with wheels 2.5 ft in diameter is traveling in a straight path at a rate of 60 ft/s. If
no slipping occurs, determine the angular velocity of one of the rear wheels and the velocity of
the fastest moving point on the wheel.

183

A
.

= 48 rad/s, vmax = 84.9 ft/s

B
.

= 24 rad/s, vmax = 84.9 ft/s

C
.

= 48 rad/s, vmax = 120.0 ft/s

D
.

= 24 rad/s, vmax = 120.0 ft/s

23.

If the rim of the wheel and its hub maintain contact with the three stationary tracks as the wheel
rolls, it is neccessary that slipping occurs at the hub A if no slipping occurs at B. Under these
conditions, what is the speed at A if the wheel has an angular velocity ?
A
.

vA = (r2-r1)

B
.

v A = r1

C
.

vA = (r2-r1)

D
.

v A = r1

9. PKRB: Work and Energy

184

1.

A man having a weight of 180 lb sits in a chair of the Ferris wheel, which has a weight of 15,000
lb and a radius of gyration of ko = 37 ft. If a torque of M = 80(103) lb ft is applied about O,
determine the angular velocity of the wheel after it has rotated 180. Neglect the weight of the
chairs and note that the man remains in an upright position as the wheel rotates. The wheel
starts from rest in the position shown.
A
.

= 0.888 rad/s

B
.

= 0.836 rad/s

C
.

= 0.874 rad/s

D
.

= 0.849 rad/s

2.

The uniform slender rod has a mass of 5 kg. Determine the magnitude of the reaction at the
pin O when the cord at A is cut and = 90
A
.

O = 42.0 N

B
.

O = 91.1 N

185

C
.

O = 122.6 N

D
.

O = 67.4 N

3.

The spool of cable, originally at rest, has a mass of 200 kg and a radius of gyration of kG = 325
mm. If the spool rests on two small rollers A and B and a constant horizontal force of P = 400 N
is applied to the end of the cable, compute the angular velocity of the spool when 8 m of cable
has been unraveled. Neglect friction and the mass of the rollers and unraveled cable.
A
.

= 10.00 rad/s

B
.

= 12.31 rad/s

C
.

= 17.41 rad/s

D
.

= 40.0 rad/s

186

4.

A chain that has a negligible mass is draped over a sprocket which has a mass of 2 kg and a
radius of gyration of kO = 50 mm. If the 4-kg block A is released from rest in the position
shown, s = 1 m, determine the angular velocity which the chain imparts th the sprocket when s =
2 m.
A
.

= 44.3 rad/s

B
.

= 39.6 rad/s

C
.

= 41.8 rad/s

D
.

= 59.1 rad/s

187

5.

The beam having a weight of 150 lb is supported by two cables. If the cable at end B is cut so
that the beam is released from rest when = 30, determine the speed at which end A strikes
the wall. Neglect friction at B. Consider the beam to be a thin rod.
A
.

vA = 5.87 ft/s

B
.

vA = 7.43 ft/s

C
.

vA = 10.18 ft/s

D
.

vA = 6.95 ft/s

188

6.

A motor supplies a constant torque or twist of M = 120 lb ft to the drum. If the drum has a
weight of 30 lb and a radius of gyration of k0 = 0.8ft, determine the speed of the 15-lb
carte A after it rises s = 4 ft starting from rest. Neglect the weight of the cord.
A
.

v = 49.1 ft/s

B
.

v = 29.6 ft/s

C
.

v = 26.7 ft/s

D
.

v = 44.3 ft/s

189

7.

The small bridge consists of an 1,800-lb uniform deck EF (thin plate), two overhead
beams AB (slender rods), each having a weight of 200 lb, and a 2,400-lb counterweight BC,
which can be considered as a thin plate having the dimensions shown. The weight of the tie
rods AE can be neglected. If the operator lets go of the rope when the bridge is at an at-rest
position, = 45, determine the speed at which the end of the deck E hits the roadway step
at H, = 0. The bridge is pin-connected at A, D, E, and F.
A
.

vE = 5.91 ft/s

B
.

vE = 8.21 ft/s

C
.

vE = 6.12 ft/s

D
.

vE = 6.36 ft/s

190

8.

If the 3-lb solid sphere is released from rest when = 30, determine its angular velocity when
= 0, which is the lowest point of the curved path having a radius of 11.5 in. The sphere does not
slip as it rolls.
A
.

= 15.17 rad/s

B
.

= 18.13 rad/s

C
.

= 21.5 rad/s

D
.

= 17.15 rad/s

9.

191

An 800-lb tree falls from the vertical position such that it pivots about its cut section at A. If the
tree can be considered as a uniform rod, pin-supported at A, determine the speed of its top
branch <i.b< i="" style="margin: 0px; box-sizing: border-box;">just before it strikes the
ground.</i.b<>
A
.

vB = 69.5 ft/s

B
.

vB = 80.2 ft/s

C
.

vB = 139.0 ft/s

D
.

vB = 56.7 ft/s

10.

THe 500-g rod AB rests along the smooth inner surface of a hemispherical bowl. If the rod is
released from the position shown, determine its angular velocity at the instant it swings
downward and becomes horizontal.
A
.

AB

= 11.70 rad/s

B
.

AB

= 3.04 rad/s

C
.

AB

= 3.90 rad/s

D
.

AB

= 3.70 rad/s

10. Force Vectors

192

1.

The cord is attached between two walls. If it is 8 m long, determine the distance x to the point of
attachment at B.
A
.

x = 7.75 m

B
.

x = 7.68 m

C
.

x = 6.93 m

D
.

x = 7.94 m

2.

Determine the magnitude of the resultant force by adding the rectangular components of the
three forces.
A
.

R = 29.7 N

B
.

R = 54.2N

C
.

R = 90.8 N

193

D
.

R = 24.0 N

3.

Express force F as a Cartesian vector; then determine its direction angles.

A
.

F = (-2i +j+2k) kN,

= 48.2,

B
.

F = (-2i +j+2k) kN,

= 131.8,

C
.

F = (-4i +j+4k) kN,

= 48.2,

D
.

F = (-4i +2j+4k) kN,

= 131.8,

= 70.5,
= 70.5,
= 70.5,
= 70.5,

= 48.2
= 48.2
= 48.2
= 48.2

4.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the resultant force.

A
.

R = 80.3 lb,

= 106.2 CCW

B
.

R = 80.3 lb,

= 73.8 CCW

194

C
.

R = 72.1 lb,

= 63.6 CCW

D
.

R = 72.1 lb,

= 116.4 CCW

5.

Force F acts on peg A such that one of its components, lying in the x-y plane, has a magnitude
of 50 lb. Express F as a Cartesian vector.
A
.

F = (43.3 i + 25.0 j + 25.0 k) lb

B
.

F = (43.3 i + 25.0 j + 28.9 k) lb

C
.

F = (43.3 i - 25.0 j + 25.0 k) lb

D
.

F = (43.3 i - 25.0 j + 28.9 k) lb

6.

If F1 = F2 = 30lb, determine the angles and

so that the resultant force is directed along the
positive x axis and has a magnitude of FR = 20 lb.
A
.

= 70.5

B
.

= 41.4

195

C
.

= 19.47

D
.

= 18.43

7.

Express the Force F2 in Cartesian vector form.

A
.

F2 = (155 i + 155 j + 300 k) lb

B
.

F2 = (212 i + 212 j - 519 k) lb

C
.

F2 = (155 i + 155 j - 300 k) lb

D
.

F2 = (367 i + 367 j - 300 k) lb

8.

The antenna tower is supported by three cables. The forces in these cables are as follows: FB =
520 N, FC = 680 N, and FD = 560 N. Write the resultant of these three forces as a vector.

196

A
.

R = (4i +16j-72k) N

B
.

R = (-120i +40 j-960k) N

C
.

R = (560i +720j+1440k) N

D
.

R = (80i +320j-1440k) N

9.

The cable AO exerts a force on the top of the pole of F = {120i 90j 80k} lb. If the cable
has a length of 34 ft, determine the height z of the pole and the location (x,y) of its base.
A
.

x = 16 ft, y = 16 ft, z = 25 ft

B
.

x = 12 ft, y = 9 ft, z = 8 ft

C
.

x = 20 ft, y = 10 ft, z = 14 ft

D
.

x = 24 ft, y = 18 ft, z = 16 ft

10.

The ball joint is subjected to the three forces shown. Find the magnitude of the resultant force.
A
.

R = 5.30 kN

197

B
.

R = 5.74 kN

C
.

R = 5.03 kN

D
.

R = 6.20 kN

11.

Express the force F1 in Cartesian vector form.

A
.

F1 = (200 i - 200 j + 283 k) lb

B
.

F1 = (200 i + 200 j + 283 k) lb

C
.

F1 = (-200 i + 200 j + 565 k) lb

D
.

F1 = (-200 i + 200 j + 283 k) lb

198

12.

Determine the projection of the position vector r along the aa axis.

A
.

raa = 35.3 m

B
.

raa = 6.28 m

C
.

raa = 5.42 m

D
.

raa = 5.61 m

13.

What is the projection of the force F2 along the positive axis?

A
.

F2y = 170.0 N

B
.

F2y = 80.0 N

C
.

F2y = 90.0 N

D
.

F2y = 120.0 N

199

14.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the position vector r which points from point A to point
B.
A
.

r = 12 ft,

= 70.5,

B
.

r = 12 ft,

= 109.5,

C
.

r = 12 ft,

= 70.5,

D
.

r = 12 ft,

= 109.5,

= 48.2,
= 131.8,
= 48.2,
= 131.8,

= 131.8
= 48.2
= 48.2
= 131.8

15.

Determine the magnitude of the x and y components of the 700-lb force.

A
.

Fx = -350 lb, Fy = 606 lb

B
.

Fx = -404 lb, Fy = 571 lb

C
.

Fx = -606 lb, Fy = 350 lb

D
.

Fx = -571 lb, Fy = 404 lb

200

16.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the resultant force.

A
.

R = 251 N,

= 85.5 CCW

B
.

R = 251 N,

= 94.5 CCW

C
.

R = 421 N,

= 67.7 CCW

D
.

R = 421 N,

= 112.3 CCW

17.

The gusset plate G of a bridge joint is subjected to the two member forces at A and B. If the
force at B is horizontal and the force at A is directed at = 30, determine the magnitude and
direction of the resultant force.
A
.

R = 458 N,

= 97.5 CCW

B
.

R = 252 N,

= 82.5 CCW

C
.

R = 252 N,

= 97.5 CCW

D
.

R = 458 N,

= 82.5 CCW

201

18.

If = 20 and
= 35, determine the magnitudes of F1 and F2 so that the resultant force has a
magnitude of 20 lb and is directed along the positive x axis.
A
.

F1 = 20.0 lb, F2 = 22.9 lb

B
.

F1 = 25.6 lb, F2 = 26.6 lb

C
.

F1 = 28.5 lb, F2 = 11.91 lb

D
.

F1 = 14.00 lb, F2 = 8.35 lb

19.

Determine the angle

A
.

= 131.8

B
.

= 70.5

C
.

= 109.5

D
.

= 48.2

between the pole AC and the wire AB.

202

20.

Two forces act on a block. Determine the angle

A
.

= 135.0

B
.

= 65.1

C
.

= 45.0

D
.

= 114.9

between them.

21.

Determine the magnitude of the x and y components of the 2kN force.

A
.

Fx = -1.414 kN, Fy = -1.414 kN

B
.

Fx = -1.000 kN, Fy = -1.732 kN

C
.

Fx = -1.732 kN, Fy = -1.000 kN

D
.

Fx = -4.000 kN, Fy = -2.312 kN

203

22.

Cable BC exerts a force of F = 28 N on the top of the flagpole. Determine the projection of this
force along the positive z axis of the pole.
A
.

F = 24 N

B
.

F = -24 N

C
.

F = 12 N

D
.

F = 12 N

23.

Determine the magnitudes of the resultant force and its direction measured from the
positive x axis.
A
.

R = 12.49 kN,

B
.

R = 13.6 kN,

= 43.9 CW
= 21.5 CW

204

C
.

R = 14.00 kN,

= 60.0 CW

D
.

R = 10.80 kN,

= 68.2 CW

24.

Determine the design angle ( <90) bretween the two struts so that the 500-lb horizontal
force has a component of 600lb directed from A toward C. That is the component of force acting
along member AB?
A
.

FAB = 321 lb,

= 40.0

B
.

FAB = 383 lb,

= 36.9

C
.

FAB = 171.1 lb,

D
.

FAB = 215 lb,

= 20.0
= 52.7

25.

Determine the magnitude and direction of F so that this force has components of 40 lb acting
from A toward Band 60lb acting from A toward C on the frame.
A
.

F = 44.7 lb,

= 22.9

205

B
.

F = 80.3 lb,

= 46.2

C
.

F = 62.9 lb,

= 37.1

D
.

F = 72.1 lb,

= 56.3

26.

Express each force in Cartesian vector form.

A
.

F1 = (2.50 i + 3.54 j + 2.50 k) kN, F2 = -2 j kN

B
.

F1 = (4.33 i + 3.54 j + 4.33 k) kN, F2 = -2 j kN

C
.

F1 = (2.17 i + 3.75 j + 4.33 k) kN, F2 = -2 j kN

D
.

F1 = (4.33 i + 3.75 j + 2.17 k) kN, F2 = -2 j kN

27.

Determine the magnitude and direction angles of F2, so that the resultant of the two forces
acts upward along the z axis of the pole and has a magnitude of 275 N.

206

A
.

F2 = 246 N,

= 54.9,

= 114.0,

= 44.7

B
.

F2 = 200 N,

= 45.0,

= -60.0,

= 29.0

C
.

F2 = 200 N,

= 45.0,

= 120.0,

= 29.0

D
.

F2 = 246 N,

= 54.9,

= 66.0,

= 44.7

28.

Determine the design angle for connecting member A to the plate if the resultant force is to be
directed vercially upward. Also, what is the magnitude of the resultant?
A
.

R = 400 N,

= 53.5

B
.

R = 250 N,

= 30.0

C
.

R = 300 N,

= 36.9

D
.

R = 640 N,

= 38.6

11.Force System Resultants

1.

The main beam along the wing of an airplane is swept back at an angle of 25. From load
calculations it is determined that the beam is subjected to couple moments aMx = 25,000 lb ft
and My = 17,000 lb ft. Determine the equivalent couple moments created about
the x' and y' axis.

207

A
.

Mx' = 26.0 kip-ft, My' = 29.8 kip-ft

B
.

Mx' = 29.8 kip-ft, My' = -4.84 kip-ft

C
.

Mx' = 26.0 kip-ft, My' = 15.47 kip-ft

D
.

Mx' = 29.8 kip-ft, My' = 4.84 kip-ft

2.

Determine the moment of force F1 about point A on the beam.

A
.

M1 = 1600 ft-lb

B
.

M1 = 100 ft-lb

C
.

M1 = 100 ft-lb

D
.

M1 = 1600 ft-lb

3.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the moment of the force of the movement if the force
at A about point P.

208

A
.

Mp = 400 Nm

B
.

Mp = 400 Nm

C
.

Mp = 200 Nm

D
.

Mp = 200 Nm

4.

Replace the force at A by an equivalent force and couple moment at P.

A
.

F = 15 kN @

= 36.9

, Mp = 67.1 kN-m

B
.

F = 15 kN @

= 36.9

, Mp = 30 kN-m

C
.

F = 15 kN @

= 143.1

, Mp = 67.1 kN-m

D
.

F = 15 kN @

= 143.1

, Mp = 30 kN-m

5.

Determine the magnitude of the projection of the moment cause by the force about the aa axis.
A
.

Maa = 80.0 N-m

209

B
.

Maa = 56.6 N-m

C
.

Maa = 28.3 N-m

D
.

Maa = 100.0 N-m

6.

The bricks on top of the beam and the supports at the bottom create the distributed loading
shown in the second figure. Determine the required intensity w and dimension d of the right
support so that the resultant force and couple moment about point A of the system are both
zero.
A
.

w = 175.0 N/m, d = 1.5 m

B
.

w = 138.2 N/m, d = 1.9 m

C
.

w = 125.0 N/m, d = 2.1 m

D
.

w = 154.4 N/m, d = 1.7 m

210

7.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the moment of the force of the movement if the force
at A about point P.
A
.

Mp = 1440 Nm

B
.

Mp = 600 Nm

C
.

Mp = 1440 Nm

D
.

Mp = 600 Nm

8.

The boys A, B and C stand near the edges of a raft as shown. Determine the location (x, y) of
boy D so that all four boys create a single resultant force acting through the raft's center O.
Provided the raft itself is symmetric, this would keep the raft afloat in a horizontal plane. the
mass of each boy is indicated in the diagram.
A
.

x = 4.5 m, y = 1.5 m

B
.

x = 3.0 m, y = 3.0 m

C
.

x = 1.5 m, y = 4.5 m

211

D
.

x = 3.0 m, y = 4.0 m

9.

Replace the loading by an equivalent force and couple moment acting at point O.
A
.

R = 90 kN, M = 473 kN-m CW

B
.

R = 90 kN, M = 338 kN-m CW

C
.

R = 45 kN, M = 203 kN-m CW

D
.

R = 135 kN, M = 270 kN-m CW

10.

Replace the force and couple system by an equivalent single force and couple acting at point P.
A
.

F = (-0.0858i-1.184j) kN, M = 36.6 kN-m

B
.

F = (-0.0858i-1.184j) kN, M = 21.6 kN-m

C
.

F = (-0.0858i-1.184j) kN, M = 13.61 kN-m

D
.

F = (-0.0858i-1.184j) kN, M = 35.7 kN-m

212

11.

Determine the moment of force F3 about point A on the beam.

A
.

M3 = 6930 ft-lb

B
.

M3 = 6000 ft-lb

C
.

M3 = 3000 ft-lb

D
.

M3 = 4000 ft-lb

12.

Replace the force at A by an equivalent force and couple moment at P. Express the results on
Cartesian vector form.
A
.

F = (-50i+20j+30k) N, M = (50i-130j+170k) N-m

B
.

F = (-50i+20j+30k) N, M = (-50i+60j+60k) N-m

C
.

F = (50i-20j-30k) N, M = (-50i+130j-170k) N-m

D
.

F = (50i-20j-30k) N, M = (50i-60j-60k) N-m

213

13.

Replace the force at A by an equivalent force and couple moment at P. Express the results on
Cartesian vector form.
A
.

F = (60j-80k) lb, M = (20i+160j+120k) lb-ft

B
.

F = (60j-80k) lb, M = (300j+560k) lb-ft

C
.

F = (60j-80k) lb, M = 20i lb-ft

D
.

F = (60j-80k) lb, M = (-160i-400j+120k) lb-ft

14.

A force and couple act on the pipe assembly. Replace this system by an equivalent single
resultant force. Specify the location of the resultant force along the y axis, measured from A. The
pipe lies in the x-y plane.
A
.

R = 25k lb, y = -0.9 ft

B
.

R = 25k lb, y = 0.9 ft

214

C
.

R = 25k lb, y = 3.9 ft

D
.

R = 25k lb, y = -3.9 ft

15.

Determine the couple moment. Use a vector analysis and express the result as a Cartesian
vector.
A
.

M = (800i-4800j-800k) lb-ft

B
.

M = (4000i-2000j+4000k) lb-ft

C
.

M = (-4000i+7000j-4000k) lb-ft

D
.

M = (-800i-4800j-800k) lb-ft

16.

Replace the loading system acting on the post by an equivalent force and couple system at
point O.
A
.

F = (-8i-66j) lb, M = 220 lb-ft

B
.

F = (-8i-66j) lb, M = 160 lb-ft

215

C
.

F = (4i78j) lb, M = 220 lb-ft

D
.

F = (4i78j) lb, M = 100 lb-ft

17.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the moment of the force of the movement if the force
at A about point P.
A
.

Mp = 17.86 kNm

B
.

Mp = 1.072 kNm

C
.

Mp = 9.86 kNm

D
.

Mp = 14.93 kNm

216

18.

Determine the moment of the force at A about point P. Use a vector analysis and express the
result in Cartesian vector form.
A
.

MP = (-6i+6j-4k) N-m

B
.

MP = (24i+8j+9k) N-m

C
.

MP = (-6i-6j-4k) N-m

D
.

MP = (24i-8j +9k) N-m

217

19.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the couple shown.

A
.

M = 1200 N-m CW

B
.

M = 400 N-m CCW

C
.

M = 400 N-m CW

D
.

M = 1200 N-m CCW

218

20.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the moment of the force at A about point P.
A
.

Mp = 0.707 kN-m

B
.

Mp = 5.66 kN-m

C
.

Mp = 5.70 kN-m

D
.

Mp = 4.50 kN-m

21.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the couple shown.

219

A
.

M = 22.6 kN-m CCW

B
.

M = 22.6 kN-m CW

C
.

M = 21.9 kN-m CCW

D
.

M = 21.9 kN-m CW

22.

Three parallel forces act on the rim of the tube. If it is required that the resultant force FR of the
system have a line of action that coincides with the central z axis, determine the magnitude
of FC and its location on the rim. What is the magnitude of the resultant force FR?
A
.

Fc = 361 lb,

= 56.3, R = 861 lb

B
.

Fc = 500 lb,

= 54.0, R = 1000 lb

C
.

Fc = 500 lb,

= 36.0, R = 1000 lb

D
.

Fc = 361 lb,

= 36.9, R = 861 lb

220

23.

A force of 50 N is applied to the handle of the door as shown. Determine the projection of the
moment of this force about the hinged axis z. Neglect the size of the doorknob. Suggestion: Use
a scaler analysis.
A
.

Mz = 15.9 N-m

B
.

Mz = -15.9 N-m

C
.

Mz = -27.6 N-m

D
.

Mz = 27.6 N-m

24.

The wind has blown sand over a platform such that the intensity of load can be approximated by
the function
. Simplify this distributed loading to a single concentrated force
and specify the magnitude and location of the force measured from A.
A
.

R = 1250 N, x = 6.67 m

B
.

R = 2500 N, x = 6.67 m

221

C
.

R = 1250 N, x = 8 m

D
.

R = 2500 N, x = 8 m

25.

The pole supports a 22-lb traffic light. Using Cartesian vectors, determine the moment of the
weight of the traffic light about the base of the pole at A.
A
.

MA = 216k lb-ft

B
.

MA = (-132i-229j-216k) lb-ft

C
.

MA = (-229i+121j) lb-ft

D
.

MA = (-132i+229j) lb-ft

26.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the couple moment.

A
.

M = 3900 lb-ft CW

M = 3900 lb-ft CCW

222

.
C
.

M = 3120 lb-ft CW

D
.

M = 3120 lb-ft CCW

27.

A twist of 4 N-m is applied to the handle of the screwdriver. Resolve this couple moment into a
pair of couple forces F exerted on the handle.
A
.

P = 20 N

B
.

P = 10 N

C
.

P = 800 N

D
.

P = 1600 N

28.

Replace the force F, having a magnitude of F = 40 lb and acting at B, by an equivalent force and
couple moment at A.
A
.

F = (32i-24k) lb, M = (-120i+96j-160k) lb-ft

B
.

F = (32i-24k) lb, M = 233k lb-ft

C
.

F = (32i-24k) lb, M = -72k lb-ft

223

D
.

F = (32i-24k) lb, M = (-120i+160j+40k) lb-ft

29.

The resultant force of a wind loading acts perpendicular to the face of the sign as shown.
Replace this force by an equivalent force and couple moment acting at point O.
A
.

F = -120i lb, M = (-3000j+1800k) lb-ft

B
.

F = -120i lb, M = 3500i lb-ft

C
.

F = -120i lb, M = -3500j lb-ft

D
.

F = -120i lb, M = 3500k lb-ft

30.

Determine the magnitude and direction of the moment of the force at A about point P.

224

A
.

Mp = 143.5 ft-lb

B
.

Mp = 1191 ft-lb

C
.

Mp = 1104 ft-lb

D
.

Mp = 1200 ft-lb

31.

Determine the moment of the force at A about point P. Use a vector analysis and express the
result in Cartesian vector form.
A
.

MP = (160i+240j+40k) N-m

B
.

MP = (380i+160j+400k) N-m

C
.

MP = (280i+200j+400k) N-m

D
.

MP = (40i+80k) N-m

225

32.

The man at B exerts a force of 140N on the rope attached to the end of beam AC as shown.
Determine the moment of this force about the base of the beam at A.
A
.

MA = (720i-360k) N-m

B
.

MA = (-720i+360k) N-m

C
.

MA = (-720i-360k) N-m

D
.

MA = (720i+360k) N-m

33.

The three forces acting on the water tank represent the effect of the wind. Replace this system
by a single resultant force and specify its vertical location from point O.

226

A
.

R = 600 lb, d = 65.0 ft below O

B
.

R = 600 lb, d = 130.4 ft below O

C
.

R = 600 lb, d = 65.0 ft above O

D
.

R = 600 lb, d = 130.4 ft above O

34.

Determine the moment of the force at A about point P. Use a vector analysis and express the
result in Cartesian vector form.

35.

This structural connection is subjected to the 8,000-lb force. Replace this force by an equivalent
force and couple acting at the center of the bolt group, O.
A
.

F = (6400i+4800j) lb, M = (-3.20i+7.20j) kip-ft

227

B
.

F = (-6400i-4800j) lb, M = -400k kip-ft

C
.

F = (-6400i-4800j) lb, M = (-3.20i-7.20j) kip-ft

D
.

F = (6400i+4800j) lb, M = 400k kip-ft

36.

Express the moment of the couple acting on the pipe on Cartesian vector form. What is the
magnitude of the couple moment?
A
.

Mc = (37.5i-25j) N-m, Mc = 45.1 N-m

B
.

Mc = (25i-37.5j) N-m, Mc = 45.1 N-m

C
.

Mc =45.1kN-m, Mc = 45.1 N-m

D
.

Mc =-45.1kN-m, Mc = 45.1 N-m

37.

Determine the direction (0

180) of the 30-lb force F so that the moment of F about
point A has the maximum magnitude.
A
.

= 36.9

B
.

= 53.1

C
.

= 127.0

228

D
.

= 90.0

38.

Determine the moment of force F2 about point A on the beam.

A
.

M2 = 800 ft-lb

B
.

M2 = 50 ft-lb

C
.

M2 = 600 ft-lb

D
.

M2 = 37.5 ft-lb

39.

The distributed loadings of soil pressure on the sides and bottom of a spread footing are shown.
Simplify this system to a single resultant force and couple moment acting at A. What is the
resultant force F and the couple moment M?
A
.

F = (72i + 125j)N, M = 83.5 N-m CCW

B
.

F = (144i + 125j)N, M = 135.7 N-m CCW

C
.

F = (144i + 125j)N, M = 83.5 N-m CCW

229

D
.

F = (72i + 125j)N, M = 102.1 N-m CCW

40.

Replace the two forces acting on the tree branches by an equivalent force and couple moment
acting at point O.
A
.

R = (60i+198j-36k) N, M = (747i+18j-924k) N-m

B
.

R = (60i+18j-324k) N, M = (747i+18j-924k) N-m

C
.

R = (60i+198j-36k) N, M = (360i+1260j-414k) N-m

D
.

R = (60i+18j-324k) N, M = (360i+1260j-414k) N-m

41.

Determine the magnitude of the projection of the moment cause by the force about the aa axis.

230

A
.

Maa = 16.97 kN-m

B
.

Maa = 12.00 kN-m

C
.

Maa = 6 kN-m

D
.

Maa = 8.48 kN-m

42.

Replace the force and couple system by an equivalent single force and couple acting at point P.
A
.

F = (-8.66i-15.00j) N, M = 50.0 N-m

B
.

F = (8.66i-15.00j) N, M = 42.0 N-m

C
.

F = (8.66i-15.00j) N, M = 50.0 N-m

D
.

F = (-8.66i-15.00j) N, M = 42.0 N-m

43.

A twist of 4 N-m is applied to the handle of the screwdriver. Resolve this couple moment into a
pair of couple forces F exerted on the handle.

231

A
.

F = 133 N

B
.

F = 120 N

C
.

F = 60 N

D
.

F = 266 N

12. Structural Analysis

1.

Determine the force in each member of the truss and indicate whether the members are in
tension or compression.
A
.

CB = 447 N C, CD = 200 N T, DB = 800 N C, DE = 200 N T,

BE = 447 N T, BA = 894 N C, AE = 800 N T

B
.

CB = 447 N T, CD = 200 N C, DB = 800 N T, DE = 200 N C,

BE = 447 N C, BA = 894 N T, AE = 800 N C

C
.

CB = 894 N T, CD = 800 N C, DB = 800 N T, DE = 800 N C,

BE = 894 N C, BA = 1789 N T, AE = 800 N C

D
.

CB = 894 N C, CD = 800 N T, DB = 800 N C, DE = 800 N T,

BE = 894 N T, BA = 1789 N C, AE = 800 N T

2.

The principles of a differential chain block are indicated schematically in the figure. Determine
the magnitude of force P needed to support the 800-N force. Also compute the distance x where
the cable must be attached to bar AB so the bar remains horizontal. All pulleys have a radius of
60 mm.

232

A
.

P = 80 N, x = 240 mm

B
.

P = 80 N, x = 180 mm

C
.

P = 40 N, x = 180 mm

D
.

P = 40 N, x = 240 mm

3.

Determine the magnitude of the forces in pins B and D of the four-member frame.
A
.

B = 503 lb, D = 225 lb

B
.

B = 225 lb, D = 503 lb

C
.

B = 56.3 lb, D = 125.8 lb

D
.

B = 125.8 lb, D = 112.5 lb

233

4.

Determine the force in members FF, FB, and BC of the Fink truss and indicate whether the
members are in tension or compression.
A
.

BF = 693 lb T, FG = 1800 lb C, BC = 1212 lb T

B
.

BF = 8660 lb C, FG = 3600 lb C, BC = 1212 lb T

C
.

BF = 3810 lb T, FG = 3600 lb C, BC = 1212 lb T

D
.

BF = 1732 lb T, FG = 2400 lb C, BC = 1212 lb T

5.

The floor beams AB and BC are stiffened using the two tie rods CD and AD. Determine the force
along each rod. Assume the three contacting members at B are smooth and the joints at A, C,
and D are pins.
A
.

T = 480 lb

B
.

T = 520 lb

C
.

T = 1248 lb

D
.

T = 1152 lb

234

6.

A crane is constructed from two side trusses. If a load of 4 kN is suspended from one of these
trusses as shown, determine the force in members FG, GK, and <KJ. State whether the
members are in tension or compression. Assume the joints are pin-connected.
A
.

KG = 2.66 kN C, KJ = 4.00 kN C, FG = 5.96 kN T

B
.

KG = 5.66 kN T, KJ = 4.00 kN C, FG = 17.89 kN T

C
.

KG = 0, KJ = 4.00 kN C, FG = 8.94 kN T

D
.

KG = 1.886 kN C, KJ = 4.00 kN C, FG = 5.96 kN T

7.

Determine the force in members GF, CF, CD of the symmetric roof truss and indicate whether
the members are in tension or compression.
A
.

CD = 1.783 kN C, CF = 0, GF = 1.427 kN T

CD = 3.48 kN C, CF = 00904 kN T, GF = 1.783 kN T

235

.
C
.

CD = 2.79 kN C, CF = 0.723 kN T, GF = 1.427 kN T

D
.

CD = 2.23 kN C, CF = 0, GF = 1.783 kN T

8.

The Warren truss is used to support a staircase. Determine the force in members CE, ED,
and DF, and state whether the members are in tension or compression. Assume all joints are
pinned.
A
.

ED = 3.60 kN T, DF = 1.70 kN C, CE = 6.22 kN C

B
.

ED = 2.00 kN C, DF = 2.26 kN C, CE = 2.26 kN T

C
.

ED = 0.800 kN C, DF = 1.131 kN T, CE = 2.83 kN C

D
.

ED = 0.400 kN C, DF = 2.26 kN T, CE = 4.53 kN C

236

9.

Determine the horizontal and vertical components of force at pins A and C of the two-member
frame.
A
.

Ax = -212 N, Ay = 388 N, Cx = 212 N, Cy = 212 N

B
.

Ax = -300 N, Ay = 300 N, Cx = 300 N, Cy = 300 N

C
.

Ax = -849 N, Ay = 149 N, Cx = 849 N, Cy = 849 N

D
.

Ax = -1200 N, Ay = 1200 N, Cx = 1200 N, Cy = -600 N

10.

A tower used in an electrical substation supports a power line which exerts a horizontal tension
of T = 500 lb on each side truss of the tower as shown. Determine the force in members BC,
CM, and LM of a side truss and indicate whether the members are in tension or compression.
A
.

CM = 833 lb T, CB = 3330 lb C, LM = 2670 lb T

B
.

CM = 581 lb T, CB = 2050 lb C, LM = 2000 lb T

237

C
.

CM = 325 lb T, CB = 3040 lb C, LM = 2670 lb T

D
.

CM = 58 lb T, CB = 1646 lb C, LM = 1600 lb T

11.

The Pratt bridge truss is subjected to the loading shown. Determine the force in members CD,
CL and ML, and indicate whether these members are in tension or compression.
A
.

CL = 100 kN T, ML = 150 kN T, CD = 150 kN C

B
.

CL = 50 kN C, ML = 112.5 kN C, CD = 112.5 kN T

C
.

CL = 100 kN C, ML = 150 kN C, CD = 150 kN T

D
.

CL = 50 kN T, ML = 112.5 kN T, CD = 112.5 kN C

12.

Compute the force in each member of the Warren truss and indicate whether the members are
in tension or compression. All the members are 3 m long.
A
.

AB = CD = 8.00 kN C, AE = DE = 6.92 kN T, BE = CE = 8.00 kN T, BC = 6.92 kN C

B
.

AB = CD = 4.62 kN C, AE = DE = 2.31 kN T, BE = CE = 4.62 kN T, BC = 2.31 kN C

C
.

AB = CD = 8.00 kN T, AE = DE = 6.92 kN C, BE = CE = 8.00 kN C, BC = 6.92 kN T

D
.

AB = CD = 4.62 kN T, AE = DE = 2.31 kN C, BE = CE = 4.62 kN C, BC = 2.31 kN T

238

13.

The scissors lift consists of two sets of symmetrically placed cross members (one in front that is
shown and one behind that is not shown) and two hydraulic cylinders (front [labeled DE] and
back [not shown]). The uniform platform has a mass of 60 kg with a center of gravity at G1. The
85 kg load (center of gravity at G2) is centered front to back. Determine the force in each of the
hydraulic cylinders necessary to maintain equilibrium. These are rollers at B and D.
A
.

DE = 1.067 kN C

B
.

DE = 1.139 kN C

C
.

DE = 0.606 kN C

D
.

DE = 1.207 kN C

14.

The jack shown supports a 350-kg automobile engine. Determine the compression in the
hydraulic cylinder C and the magnitude of force that pin B exerts on the horizontal member BDE.
A
.

FC = 8.75 kN, FB = 5.43 kN

B
.

FC = 5.15 kN, FB = 5.15 kN

FC = 8.58 kN, FB = 5.15 kN

239

.
D
.

FC = 5.25 kN, FB = 7.36 kN

15.

A sign is subjected to a wind loading that exerts horizontal forces of 300 lb on joints B and C of
one of the side supporting trusses. Determine the force in members BC, CD, DB, and DE of the
truss and state whether the members are in tension or compression.
A
.

CB = 720 lb C, CD = 780 lb T, DB = 0, DE = 780 lb T

B
.

CB = 720 lb T, CD = 780 lb C, DB = 0, DE = 780 lb C

C
.

CB = 125 lb T, CD = 325 lb C, DB = 0, DE = 325 lb C

D
.

CB = 125 lb C, CD = 325 lb T, DB = 0, DE = 325 lb T

16.

Determine the horizontal and vertical components of force at pin A.

A
.

Ax = -46.7 lb, Ay = 45.0 lb

B
.

Ax = -53.3 lb, Ay = 40.0 lb

240

C
.

Ax = 13.3 lb, Ay = 10.0 lb

D
.

Ax = -106.7 lb, Ay = 80.0 lb

17.

The hoist supports the 125-kg engine. Determine the force the load creates in member DB and
in member FB, which contains the hydraulic cylinder H.
A
.

FB = 5.82 kN C, BD = 7.80 kN T

B
.

FB = 1.939 kN C, BD = 2.60 kN T

C
.

FB = 1.839 kN C, BD = 2.47 kN T

D
.

FB = 1.839 kN C, BD = 2.60 kN T

13. Friction
1.

The boy at D has a mass of 50 kg, a center of mass at G, and stands on a plank at the position
shown. The plank is pin-supported at A and rests on a post at B. Neglecting the weight of the
plank and post, determine the magnitude of force P his friend (?) at E must exert in order to pull
out the post. Take B = 0.3 and C = 0.8.

241

A
.

P = 360 N

B
.

P = 264 N

C
.

P = 229 N

D
.

P = 293 N

2.

A uniform beam has a mass of 18 kg and rests on two surfaces at points A and B. Determine the
maximum distance x to which the girl can slowly walk up the beam before it begins to slip. The
girl has a mass of 50 kg and walks up the beam with a constant velocity.
A
.

x = 0.678 m

B
.

x = 0.508 m

C
.

x = 1.005 m

D
.

x = 0.712 m

3.

Determine the minimum force F needed to push the two 75-kg cylinders up the incline. The force
acts parallel to the plane and the coefficients of friction at the contacting surfaces are A = 0.3,

242

= 0.25,

= 0.4. Each cylinder has a radius of 150 mm.

A
.

F = 919 N

B
.

F = 735 N

C
.

F = 1.051 kN

D
.

F = 981 N

4.

The refrigerator has a weight of 200 lb and a center of gravity at G. Determine the
force P required to move it. Will the refrigerator tip or slip? Take = 0.4.
A
.

P = 75 lb Slips

B
.

P = 80 lb Tips

C
.

P = 80 lb Slips

D
.

P = 75 lb Tips

5.

A 17-kg ladder has a center of mass at G. If the coefficients of friction at A and B are A = 0.3
and B = 0.2, respectively, determine the smallest horizontal force that the man must exert of the
ladder at point C in order to push the ladder forward.

243

A
.

F = 120.2 N

B
.

F = 288 N

C
.

F = 166.8 N

D
.

F = 204 N

14. Moments of Inertia

1.

Determine the radius of gyration ky of the parabolic area.

A
.

ky = 76.5 mm

B
.

ky = 17.89 mm

C
.

ky = 78.6 mm

D
.

ky = 28.3 mm

2.

Determine the inertia of the parabolic area about the x axis.

A
.

Ix = 11,430 in.4

B
.

Ix = 32,800 in.4

C
.

Ix = 13,330 in.4

244

D
.

Ix = 21,300 in.4

3.

The composite cross section for the column consists of two cover plates riveted to two channels.
Determine the radius of gyration k with respect to the centroidal
axis. Each channel has a
cross-sectional area of Ac = 11.8 in.2 and moment of inertia (I )c = 349 in.4.
A
.

k = 7.74 in.

B
.

k = 6.29 in.

C
.

k = 5.44 in.

D
.

k = 4.25 in.

4.

The irregular area has a moment of inertia about the AA axis of 35 (106) mm4. If the total area is
12.0(103) mm2, determine the moment of inertia if the area about the BB axis. The DD axis
passes through the centroid C of the area.
A
.

IBB = 5.00(106 ) mm4

B
.

IBB = 17.00(106 ) mm4

IBB = 16.80(106 ) mm4

245

.
D
.

IBB = 55.4(106 ) mm4

15. KOP: Force and Acceleration

1.

Rod OA rotates counterclockwise with a constant angular rate of = 5 rad/s. The double
collar B is pin-connected together such that one collar slides over the rotating rod and the other
slides over the horizontalcurved rod, of which the shape is a limacon described by the equation r
- 1.5(2 - cos ) ft. If both collars weigh 0.75 lb, determine the normal force which the curved path
exerts on one of the collars, and the force that OAexerts on the other collar at the instant =
90.
A
.

FOA = 0.873 lb, Fcurve = 1.953 lb

B
.

FOA = 0, Fcurve = 1.953 lb

C
.

FOA = 1.747 lb, Fcurve = 0

D
.

FOA = 2.87 lb, Fcurve = 6.41 lb

2.

The 30-lb crate is being hoisted upward with a constant acceleration of 6 ft/s 2. If the uniform
beam AB has a weight of 200 lb, determine the components of reaction at A. Neglect the size

246

and mass of the pulley at B.

A
.

Ax = -48.3 lb, Ay = 248.3 lb, MA = 258 lb-ft CCW

B
.

Ax = -48.3 lb, Ay = 248.3 lb, MA = 741 lb-ft CCW

C
.

Ax = -35.6 lb, Ay = 236 lb, MA = 678 lb-ft CCW

D
.

Ax = -30.0 lb, Ay = 230 lb, MA = 650 lb-ft CCW

3.

The 300-kg bar B, originally at rest, is being towed over a series of small rollers. Computer the
force in the cable when t = 5s, if the motor M is drawing in the cable for a short time at a rate of v
= (0.4t2) m/s, where t is in seconds (0
t 6 s). How far does the bar move in 5 s? Neglect the
mass of the cable, pulley P, and the rollers.
A
.

T = 5.00 kN, s = 0.300 m

B
.

T = 1.200 kN, s = 1.25 m

C
.

T = 5.00 kN, s = 4.00 m

D
.

T = 1.200 kN, s = 16.67 m

247

4.

A 1.5-lb brick is released from rest A and slides down the inclined roof. If the coefficient of friction
between the roof and the brick is = 0.3, determine the speed at which the brick strikes the
gutter G.

5.

A ball having a mass of 2 kg slides without friction within a vertical circular slot. If it is released
from rest when = 10, determine the force it exerts on the slot when it arrives at points A and
B.
A
.

NA = 38.6 N, NB = 96.6 N

B
.

NA = 30.9 N, NB = 61.8 N

C
.

NA = 30.9 N, NB = 81.2 N

D
.

NA = 38.6 N, NB = 77.3 N

248

6.

The 2-kg shaft CA passes through a smooth journal bearing at B. Initially, the springs, which are
coiled loosely around the shaft, are unstretched when no force is applied to the shaft. In this
position s = s = 250 and the shaft is originally at rest. If a horizontal force of F = 5 kN is applied,
determine the speed of the shaft at the instant s = 50 mm, s = 450 mm. The ends of the springs
are attached to the bearing at B and the caps at C and A.
A
.

v = 31.6 m/s

B
.

v = 14.14 m/s

C
.

v = 44.7 m/s

D
.

v = 30.0 m/s

7.

A boy twirls a 15-lb bucket of water in a vertical circle. If the radius of curvature of the path is 4 ft,
determine the minimum speed the bucket must have when it is overhead at A so no water spills
out.
A
.

v = 11.35 ft/s

249

B
.

v=0

C
.

v = 6.26 ft/s

D
.

v = 2.83 ft/s

8.

Determine the acceleration of block A when the system is released. The coefficient of friction
and the weight of each block are indicated in the figure. Neglect the mass of the pulleys and
cords.
A
.

aA = 7.50 ft/s2 Up the slope

B
.

aA = 7.50 ft/s2 Down the slope

C
.

aA = 4.28 ft/s2 Up the slope

D
.

aA = 4.28 ft/s2 Down the slope

250

9.

A tobbogan and rider have a total mass of 100 kg and travel down along the (smooth) slope
defined by the equation y = 0.2x2. At the instant x = 8 m, the toboggan's speed is 4 m/s. At this
point, determine the rate of increase in speed and the normal force which the toboggan exerts
on the slope. Neglect the size of the toboggan and rider for the calculation.
A
.

at = 8.32 m/s2, N = 520 N

B
.

at = 8.32 m/s2, N = 537 N

C
.

at = 9.36 m/s2, N = 310 N

D
.

at = 9.36 m/s2, N = 293 N

10.

A block having a mass of 2 kg is placed on a a spring scale located in an elevator that is moving
downward. If the scale reading, which measures the force in the spring, is 20 N, determine the
acceleration of the elevator. Neglect the mass of the scale.
A
.

a = 10.00 m/s2

B
.

a = 0.1900 m/s2

a = 0.1900 m/s2

251

.
D
.

a = 10.00 m/s2

11.

The pendulum bob B has a weight of 5 lb and is released from rest in the position shown, =0.
Determine the tension in string BC just after the bob is released, = 0, and also at the instant
the bob reaches point D, = 45.
A
.

T0 = 0, T45 = 10.61 lb

B
.

T0 = 0.1551 lb, T45 = 10.61 lb

C
.

T0 = 0, T45 = 7.07 lb

D
.

T0 = 0.1551 lb, T45 = 7.07 lb

252

12.

A truck T has a weight of 8,000 lb and is traveling along a portion of a road defined by the
lemniscate r2 = 0.2(106) cos 2 , where r is measured in feet and is in radians. If the truck
maintains a constant speed of vr = 4 ft/s, determine the magnitude of the resultant frictional force
which must be exerted by all the wheels to maintain the motion when = 0.
A
.

F = 29.2 lb

B
.

F = 859 lb

C
.

F = 87.5 lb

D
.

F = 26.7 lb

253

13.

A smooth can C, having a mass of 2 kg, is lifted from a feed at A to a ramp at B by a forked
rotating rod. If the rod maintains a constant angular motion of = 0.5 rad/s, determine the force
which the rod exerts on the can at the instant = 30. Neglect the effects of friction in the
calculation. The ramp from A to B is circular, having a radius of 700 min.
A
.

F = 19.62 N

B
.

F = 11.33 N

C
.

F = 10.63 N

D
.

F = 12.03 N

14.

The spool, which has a weight of 2lb, slides along the smooth horizontal spiral rod, r = (2 ) ft,
where is in radians. If its angular rate of rotation is constant and equals = 4 rad/s, determine
the tangential force P needed to cause the motion and the normal force that the spool exerts on

254

the rod at the instant

= 90.

A
.

P = 0.499 lb, N = 5.03 lb

B
.

P = 5.50 lb, N = 15.65 lb

C
.

P = 3.35 lb, N = 2.43 lb

D
.

P = 1.677 lb, N = 4.77 lb

15.

Each of the three barges has a mass of 30 Mg, whereas the tugboat has a mass of 12 Mg. As
the barges are being pulled forward with a constant velocity of 4 m/s, the tugboat must
overcome the frictional resistance of the water, which is 2 kN for each barge and 1.5 kN for the
tugboat. If the cable between A and B breaks, determine the acceleration of the tugboat.
A
.

a = 0.1667 m/s2

B
.

a = 0.1042 m/s2

C
.

a = 0.0278 m/s2

D
.

a = 0.01961 m/s2

A particle having a mass of 1.5 kg, moves along a three-dimensional path defined by the

255

equations r = 94 + 3t) m, = (t2 + 2) rad, and z = (6 - t3) m, where t is in seconds, and the zaxis is vertical. Determine the r, , and z components of force which the path exerts on the
particle when t = 2 s.
A
.

Fr = 0, F2 = 30 N, Fz = -18.00 N

B
.

Fr = -240 N, F2 = 66.0 N, Fz = -3.29 N

C
.

Fr = 0, F2 = 3 N, Fz = -18.00 N

D
.

Fr = -160.0 N, F2 = 44.0 N, Fz = -12.00 N

16. KOP: Impulse and Momentum

1.

A golf ball having a mass of 40 g is struck such that it has an initial velocity of 200 m/s as shown.
Determine the horizontal and vertical components of the impulse given to the ball.
A
.

Impx = 4.00 N-s, Impy = 6.93 N-s

B
.

Impx = 6.93 N-s, Impy = 4.00 N-s

C
.

Impx = 6.93 N-s, Impy = 4.39 N-s

256

D
.

Impx = 4.00 N-s, Impy = 7.32 N-s

2.

The drop hammer H has a weight of 900 lb and falls from rest. H has a weight of 900 lb and falls
from rest h = 3 ft onto a forged anvil plate P that has a weight of 500 lb. The plate is mounted on
a set of springs which have a combined stiffness of kT = 500 lb/ft. Determine (a) the velocity
of P and H just after collision and (b) the maximum compression in the springs caused by the
impact. The coefficient of restitution between the hammer and the plate is e = 0.6. Neglect
friction along the vertical guide posts A and B.
A
.

vH2 = 3.97 ft/s, vP2 = 17.87 ft/s, x = 4.15 ft

B
.

vH2 = 8.94 ft/s, vP2 = 8.94 ft/s, x = 2.57 ft

C
.

vH2 = 5.96 ft/s, vP2 = 14.30 ft/s, x = 3.52 ft

D
.

vH2 = 20.8 ft/s, vP2 = 12.51 ft/s, x = 3.20 ft

3.

A basket and its contents weigh 10 lb. A 20-lb monkey grabs the other end of the rope and very
quickly (almost instantaneously) accelerates by pulling hard on the rope until he is moving with a
constant speed of vm/r = 2 ft/s measured relative to the rope. The monkey then continues
climbing at this constant rate relative to the rope for 3 seconds. How fast is the basket rising at
the end of the 3 seconds? Neglect the mass of the pulley and the rope.

257

A
.

vbasket = 33.5 ft/s

B
.

vbasket = 32.2 ft/s

C
.

vbasket = 96.6 ft/s

D
.

vbasket = 97.9 ft/s

4.

In cases of emergency, the gas actuator can be used to move a 75-kg block B by exploding a
charge C near a pressurized cylinder of negligible mass. As a result of the explosion, the
cylinder fractures and the released gas forces the front part ofthe cylinder, A, to move B and the
floor is = 0.5, determine the impulse that the actuator must impart to B.
A
.

Imp = 147.2 N-s

B
.

Imp = 132.2 N-s

C
.

Imp = 15.00 N-s

D
.

Imp = 162.2 N-s

258

5.

Two coins A and B have the initial velocities shown just before they collide at point O. If they
have weights of WA= 13.2(10-3) lb and WB = 6.6(10-3) lb and the surface upon which they slide is
smooth, determine their speed just after impact. The coefficient of restitution is e = 0.65.
A
.

vA2 = 1.856 ft/s, vB2 = 3.18 ft/s

B
.

vA2 = 1.871 ft/s, vB2 = 2.76 ft/s

C
.

vA2 = 1.772 ft/s, vB2 = 2.88 ft/s

D
.

vA2 = 1.755 ft/s, vB2 = 2.92 ft/s

6.

The motor M pulls on the cables with a force F that has a magnitude which varies as shown on
the graph. If the 15-kg crate is originally resting on the floor such that the cable tension is zero

259

when the motor is turned on, determine the speed of the crate when t = 6s.
A
.

vcrate = 23.2 m/s

B
.

vcrate = 70.0 m/s

C
.

vcrate = 11.14 m/s

D
.

vcrate = 58.0 m/s

7.

A stunt driver in car A travels in free flight off the edge of a ramp at C. At the point of maximum
height he strikes car B. If the direct collision is perfectly plastic (e = 0), determine the required
ramp speed vC at the end of the ramp C, and the approximate distance s where both cars strike
the ground. Each car has a mass of 3.5 Mg. Neglect the size of the cars in the calculation.

8.

A toboggan and rider, having a total mass of 150 kg, enter horizontally tangent to a 90 circular
curve with a velocity VA and the angle of "descent," measured from the horizontal in a
vertical x z plane, at which the toboggan exits at B. Neglect friction in the calculation. The
radius rB equals 57 m.
A
.

vB = 21.9 m/s,

= 20.9

B
.

vB = 23.4 m/s,

= 29.0

260

C
.

vB = 20.7 m/s,

= 8.84

D
.

vB = 20.3 m/s,

= 7.37

9.

The projectile having a mass of m = 3 kg is fired from a cannon with a muzzle velocity of vO =
500 m/s. Determine the projectile's angular momentum about point O at the instant it is at the
maximum height of its trajectory.
A
.

H0 = 15.11(106) kg- m2/s CCW

B
.

H0 = 6.76(106) kg- m2/s CCW

C
.

H0 = 15.11(106) kg- m2/s CW

D
.

H0 = 6.76(106) kg- m2/s CW

261

10.

The two handcars A and B each have a mass of 80 kg. Both cars are initially at rest. Both cars
start from rest before the man jumps. If the man C has a mass of 70 kg and jumps from A with a
horizontal relative velocity of vC/A = 2 m/s and lands on B, determine the velocity of each car after
the jump. Neglect the effects of rolling resistance.
A
.

vA = 0.933 m/s vB = 0.498 m/s

B
.

vA = 1.750 m/s vB = 0.933 m/s

C
.

vA = 0.498 m/s vB = 1.750 m/s

D
.

vA = 1.750 m/s vB = 1.750 m/s

262

11.

Determine the velocities of blocks A and B 2 s after they are released from rest. Neglect the
mass of the pulleys and cables.
A
.

vA = 21.5 ft/s 8, VB = 21.5 ft/s 9

B
.

vA = 64.4 ft/s 8, VB = 64.4 ft/s 9

C
.

vA = 64.4 ft/s 8, VB = 32.2 ft/s 9

D
.

vA = 21.5 ft/s 8, VB = 10.73 ft/s 9

263

12.

A 0.6-kg brick is thrown into a 25-kg wagon which is initially at rest. If, upon entering, the brick
has a velocity of 10 m/s as shown, determine the final velocity of the wagon.
A
.

vwagon = 0.203 m/s

B
.

vwagon = 0.208 m/s

C
.

vwagon = 0.240 m/s

D
.

vwagon = 0.234 m/s

13.

A 30-lb block is initially moving along a smooth horizontal surface with a speed of v1 = 6 ft/s to
the left. If it is acted upon by a force F, which varies in the manner shown, determine the velocity
of the block in 15 s. The argument for the cosine is in radians.

264

A
.

v2 = 91.4 ft/s 7

B
.

v2 = 79.4 ft/s 6

C
.

v2 = 91.4 ft/s 6

D
.

v2 = 79.4 ft/s 7

14.

A man wearing ice skates throws an 8-kg block with an initial velocity of 2 m/s, measured relative
to himself, in the direction shown. If he is originally at rest and completes the throw in 1.5 s while
keeping his legs rigid, determine the horizontal velocity of the man just after releasing the block.
What is the average vertical reaction of both his skates on the ice during the throw? The man
has a mass of 70 kg. Neglect friction and the motion of his arms.
A
.

vman = 0.1776 m/s, Navg = 765 N

B
.

vman = 0.1979 m/s, Navg = 771 N

C
.

vman = 0.1776 m/s, Navg = 771 N

D
.

vman = 0.1979 m/s, Navg = 765 N

265

15.

Plates A and B each have a mass of 4 kg and are restricted to move along the frictionless
guides. If the coefficient of restitution between the plates is e = 0.7, determine (a) the speed of
both plates just after collision and (b) the maximum deflection of the spring. Plate A has a
velocity of 4 m/s just before striking B. Plate B is originally at rest.
A
.

vA2 = 0.857 m/s, vB2 = 4.86 m/s, x = 0.434 m

B
.

vA2 = 0.600 m/s, vB2 = 3.40 m/s, x = 0.304 m

C
.

vA2 = 0, vB2 = 4.00 m/s, x = 0.358 m

D
.

vA2 = 0.327 m/s, vB2 = 3.67 m/s, x = 0.329 m

16.

A girl having a weight of 40 lb slides down the smooth slide onto the surface of a 20-lb wagon.
Determine the speed of the wagon at the instant the girl stops sliding on it. If someone ties the
wagon to the slide at B, determine the horizontal impulse the girl will exert at C in order to stop
her motion. Neglect friction and assume that the girl starts from rest at the top of the slide, A.
A
.

vwagon = 20.7 ft/s Imp = 38.6 lb-s

B
.

vwagon = 31.1 ft/s Imp = 38.6 lb-s

C
.

vwagon = 31.1 ft/s Imp = 57.9 lb-s

D
.

vwagon = 20.7 ft/s Imp = 57.9 lb-s

266

17.

A hockey puck is traveling to the left with a velocity of v1 = 10 m/s when it is struck by a hockey
stick and given a velocity of v2 = 20 m/s as shown. Determine the magnitude of the net impulse
exerted by the hockey stick on the puck. The puck has a mass of 0.2 kg.
A
.

Imp = 6.00 N-s

B
.

Imp = 2.00 N-s

C
.

Imp = 2.78 N-s

D
.

Imp = 5.68 N-s

18.

A rifle has a mass of 2.5 kg. If it is loosely gripped and a 1.5-g bullet is fired from it with a muzzle
velocity of 1400 m/s, determine the recoil velocity of the rifle just after firing.
A
.

vrifle = 0.840 m/s

B
.

vrifle = 0.525 m/s

C
.

vrifle = 2.33 m/s

D
.

vrifle = 1.400 m/s

267

19.

The two blocks A and B each have a mass of 500 g. The blocks are fixed to the horizontal rods
and their initial velocity is 2 m/s in the direction shown. If a couple moment of M = 0.8 N m is
applied about CD of the frame, determine the speed of the block in 4 s. The mass of the
supporting frame is negligible and its free to rotate about CD.
A
.

v2 = 10.67 m/s

B
.

v2 = 23.3 m/s

C
.

v2 = 22.3 m/s

D
.

v2 = 12.67 m/s

20.

A boy, having a weight of 90 lb, jumps off a wagon with a relative velocity of vb/w = 6 ft/s. If the
angle of jump is 30, determine the horizontal velocity (vw)2 of the wagon just after the jump.
Originally both the wagon and the boy are at rest. Also, compute the total average impulsive
force that all four wheels of the wagon exert on the ground of the boy jumps off in t = 0.8s. The
wagon has a weight of 20 lb.

268

A
.

vwagon = 23.4 ft/s Nwheel = 110.0 lb

B
.

vwagon = 23.4 ft/s Nwheel = 120.5 lb

C
.

vwagon = 4.25 ft/s Nwheel = 120.5 lb

D
.

vwagon = 4.25 ft/s Nwheel = 110.0 lb

17. PKRB: Force and Animation

1.

The slender 200-kg beam is suspended by a cable at its end as shown. If a man pushes on its
other end with a horizontal force of 30 N, determine the initial acceleration of its mass center G,
the beam's angular acceleration, and the tension in the cable AB.
A
.

aG = 0,

B
.

aG = 0.0750 m/s2,

C
.

aG = 0,

= 0.225 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN

= 0.1125 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN

= 0.1125 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN

269

D
.

aG = 0.1500 m/s2,

= 0.225 rad/s2, T = 1.962 kN

2.

A clown, mounted on stilts, loses his balance and falls backward from the position, where it is
assumed the = 0 when = 07deg;. Paralyzed with fear, he remains rigid as he falls. His mass
including the stilts is 80 kg, the mass center is at G, and the radius of gyration about G is kG =
1.2 m. Determine the coefficient of friction between his shoes and the ground at A if it is
observed that slipping occurs when = 30.
A
.

= 0.833

B
.

= 0.468

C
.

= 0.243

D
.

= 0.400

270

3.

The dragster has a mass of 1.3 Mg and a center of mass at G. If a braking parachute is attached
at C and provides a horizontal braking force FD, determine the maximum deceleration the
dragster can have upon releasing the parachute without tipping the dragster over backwards
(i.e., the normal force under the wheels and assume that the engine is disengaged so that the
wheels are freely rolling.
A
.

a = 16.35 m/s2

B
.

a = 8.46 m/s2

C
.

a = 2.75 m/s2

D
.

a = 35.0 m/s2

271

4.

The sports car has a mass of 1.5 Mg and a center of mass at G. Determine the shortest time it
takes for it to reach a speed of 80 km/h, starting from rest, if the engine only drives the rear
wheels, whereas the front wheels are free rolling. The coefficient of friction between the wheels
and road is = 0.2. Neglect the mass of the wheels for the calculation.
A
.

t = 17.49 s

B
.

t = 18.12 s

C
.

t = 18.76 s

D
.

t = 22.7 s

272

5.

The disk has a mass of 20 kg and is originally spinning at the end of the massless strut with an
angular velocity of = 60 rad/s. If it is then placed against the wall, for which A = 0.3,
determine the time required for the motion to stop. What is the force in strut BC during this time?
A
.

t = 3.11 s, FBC = 193.1 N

B
.

t = 2.65 s, FBC = 227 N

C
.

t = 5.30 s, FBC = 227 N

D
.

t = 6.21 s, FBC = 193.1 N

273

6.

The 10-kg block rests on the platform for which = 0.4. If at the instant shown link AB has an
angular velocity = 2 rad/s, determine the greatest angular acceleration of the link so that the
block doesn't slip.
A
.

= 6.35 rad/s2

B
.

= 2.62 rad/s2

C
.

= 1.016 rad/s2

D
.

= 3.46 rad/s2

7.

274

If the cable CB is horizontal and the beam is at rest in the position shown, determine the tension
in the cable at the instant the towing force F = 1500 N is applied. The coefficient of friction
between the beam and the floor at Ais A = 0.3. For the calculation, assume that the beam is a
uniform slender rod having a mass of 100 kg.
A
.

TCB = 636 N

B
.

TCB = 1206 N

C
.

TCB = 1016 N

D
.

TCB = 347 N

8.

The 15-lb rod is pinned and has an angular velocity of = 5 rad/s when it is in the horizontal
position shown. Determine the rod's angular acceleration and the pin reactions at this instant.
A
.

= 16.1 rad/s2, Ax = 17.47 lb, Ay = 3.75 lb

B
.

= 64.4 rad/s2, Ax = 17.47 lb, Ay = 30.0 lb

C
.

= 16.1 rad/s2, Ax = 17.47 lb, Ay = 15.00 lb

D
.

= 64.4 rad/s2, Ax = 17.47 lb, Ay = 15.00 lb

275

9.

Bar AB has a weight of 10 lb and is fixed to the carriage at A. Determine the internal axial
force Ay, shear force V , and moment MA at A if the carriage is descending the plane with an
acceleration of 4 ft/s2.
A
.

Ay = 8.92 lb 8, Vx = 0.621 lb 7, MA = 0

B
.

Ay = 9.38 lb 8, Vx = 1.076 lb 7, MA = 1.076 lb-ft

C
.

Ay = 8.92 lb 8, Vx = 0.621 lb 7, MA = 0.621 lb-ft

D
.

Ay = 9.38 lb 8, Vx = 1.076 lb 7, MA = 0

276

10.

A cord wrapped around the inner core of a spool. If the cord is pulled with a constant tension of
30 lb and the spool is originally at rest, determine the spool's angular Velocity when s = 8 ft of
cord have unraveled. Neglect the weight of the cord. The spool and cord have a total weight of
400 lb and the radius of gyration about the axle A is kA = 1.30 ft.
A
.

= 6.73 rad/s

B
.

= 3.38 rad/s

C
.

= 4.78 rad/s

D
.

= 11.43 rad/s

277

11.

If the support at B is suddenly removed, determine the initial reactions at the pin A. The plate
has a weight of 30 lb.
A
.

Ax = 22.5 lb, Ay = 7.5 lb

B
.

Ax = 0, Ay = 30.0 lb

C
.

Ax = 11.25 lb, Ay = 18.75 lb

D
.

Ax = 11.25 lb, Ay = 41.3 lb

278

12.

A woman sits in a rigid position on her rocking chair by keeping her feet on the bottom rungs
at B. At the instant shown, she has reached an extreme backward position and has zero angular
velocity. Determine her forward angular acceleration
and the frictional force at A necessary to
prevent the rocker from slipping. The woman and the rocker have a combined weight of 180 lb
and a raduis of gyration about G of kG = 2.2 ft.
A
.

= 1.185 rad/s2, F = 19.87 lb

B
.

= 1.143 rad/s2, F = 19.16 lb

C
.

= 1.163 rad/s2, F = 19.51 lb

D
.

= 3.16 rad/s2, F = 5301 lb

279

13.

The wheel has a weight of 30 lb, a radius of r = 0.5 ft, and a radius of gyration of kG = 0.23 ft. If
the coefficient if friction between the wheel and the plane is = 0.2, determine the wheel's
angular acceleration as it rolls down the incline. Set = 12.
A
.

= 59.5 rad/s2

B
.

= 8.93 rad/s2

C
.

= 11.05 rad/s2

D
.

= 63.3 rad/s2

18. PKRB: Impulse and Momentum

1.

The uniform rod AB has a weight of 3 lb and is released from rest without rotating from the
position shown. As it falls, the end A strikes a hook S, which provides a permanent connection.

280

Determine the speed at which the other end B strikes the wall at C.
A
.

vB4 = 14.74 ft/s

B
.

vB4 = 20.3 ft/s

C
.

vB4 = 22.0 ft/s

D
.

vB4 = 12.69 ft/s

2.

Gear A has a weight of 1.5 lb, a radius of 0.2 ft, and a radius of gyration of ko = 0.13ft. The
coefficient of friction between the gear rack B and the horizontal surface is = 0.3. If the rack
has a weight of 0.8 lb and is initially sliding to the left with a velocity of (vB)2 = 8 ft/s to the left.
Neglect friction between the rack and the gear and assume that the gear exerts only a horizontal
force on the rack.
A
.

M = 0.01425 lb-ft

B
.

M = 0.00630 lb-ft

C
.

M = 0.0622 lb-ft

D
.

M = 0.0560 lb-ft

281

3.

The 50-kg cylinder has an angular velocity of 30 rad/s when it is brought into contact with the
horizontal surface at C. If the coefficient of friction is c = 0.2, determine how long it takes for the
cylinder to stop spinning. What force is developed at the pin A during this time? The axis of the
cylinder is connected to two symmetrical links. (Only AB is shown.) For the computation, neglect
the weight of the links.
A
.

t = 1.529 s, A = 0

B
.

t = 3.06 s, A = 0

C
.

t = 1.529 s, A = 49.1 N

D
.

t = 3.06 s, A = 49.1 N

4.

The uniform pole has a mass of 15 kg and falls from rest when = 90 until it strikes the edge
at A, = 60. If the pole then begins to pivot about this point after contact, determine the pole's
angular velocity just after the impact. Assume that the pole does not slip at B as it falls until it

282

strikes A.
A
.

= 1.146 rad/s

B
.

= 0.537 rad/s

C
.

= 2.15 rad/s

D
.

= 1.528 rad/s

5.

The 12-kg disk has an angular velocity of = 20 rad/s. If the brake ABC is applied such that the
magnitude of force P varies with time as shown, determine the time needed to stop the
disk. The coefficient of friction at B is = 0.4.
A
.

t = 13.00 s

B
.

t = 7.00 s

C
.

t = 8.92 s

D
.

t = 5.08 s

283

6.

A constant torque or twist of M = 0.4N m is applied to the center gear A. If the system starts
from rest, determine the angular velocity of each of the three (equal) smaller gears in 3 s. The
smaller gears (B) are pinned at their centers, and the mass and centroidal radii of gyration of the
gears are given in the figure.
A
.

= 1975 rad/s

B
.

= 5830 rad/s

C
.

= 1520 rad/s

D
.

= 1022 rad/s

284

7.

The square plate, where a = 0.75 ft, has a weight of 4 lb and is rotating on the smooth surface
with a constant angular velocity of 1 = 10 rad/s. Determine the new angular velocity of the plate
just after its corner strikes the peg P and the plate to rotate about P without rebounding.
A
.

= 6.67 rad/s

B
.

= 2.50 rad/s

C
.

= 10.00 rad/s

D
.

= 5.00 rad/s

8.

The flywheel A has a mass of 30 kg and a radius of gyration of kc = 95 mm. Disk B has a mass
of 25 kg, is pinned at D, and is coupled to the flywheel using a belt which is subjected to a
tension such that it does not slip at its contacting surfaces. If a motor supplies a counterclockwise torque or twist to the flywheel, having a magnitude of M = (12t) N m, where t is
measured in seconds, determine the angular velocity of the disk 3 s after the motor is turned on.
Initially, the flywheel is at rest.
A
.

= 232 rad/s

= 77.2 rad/s

285

.
C
.

= 115.9 rad/s

D
.

= 276 rad/s

9.

A cord of negligible mass is wrapped around the outer surface of the 50-lb cylinder and its end is
subjected to a constant horizontal force of P = 2 lb. If the cylinder rolls without slipping at A,
determine its angular velocity in 4 s starting from rest. Neglect the thickness of the cord.
A
.

= 34.3 rad/s

B
.

= 17.17 rad/s

C
.

= 8.59 rad/s

D
.

= 11.45 rad/s

286

10.

A horizontal circular platform has a weight of 300 lb and a radius of gyration about the z axis
passing through its center O of kz = 8 ft. The platform is free to rotate about the z axis and is
initially at rest. A man, having a weight of 150 lb, begins to run along the edge in a circular path
of radius 10 ft. If he has a speed of 4 ft/s and maintains this speed relative to the platform,
compute the angular velocity of the platform.
A
.

= 0.313 rad/s

B
.

= 0.1754 rad/s

C
.

= 0.225 rad/s

D
.

= 1.429 rad/s

A cord of negligible mass is wrapped around the outer surface of the 2-kg disk. If the disk is
released from rest, determine its angular velocity in 3 s.
A
.

= 183.9 rad/s

B
.

= 735 rad/s

C
.

= 245 rad/s

287

D
.

= 263 rad/s

288