1. D.

1, 2 and 4 Deoxygenated blood from the vena cava enters the right atrium (2), then the right ventricle (1), and then enters the
pulmonary arteries (4). The left atrium (5), left ventricle (6), and aorta (3) all carry oxygenated blood.
2. D. This question tests your ability to trace the neural pathway of a motor (effector) neuron. The nerve conduction will travel from the spinal
cord (where interneurons are located) to the muscle.
3. D. Because the brain is destroyed, it is not associated with the movement of the leg. (A), Reflex actions are automatic. (B) and (C), Both of
these statements are true but are not supported by the experiment. (E), We do not have enough information from the passage to determine if
this statement is true.
4. C. Neurotransmitters are released from the axonal bulb of one neuron and diffuse across a synapse to activate a second neuron. The second
neuron is called a postsynaptic neuron. A neurotransmitter can either excite or inhibit the postsynaptic neuron. (A), the myelin sheath speeds
up the conduction in a neuron. (B), (D), and (E), Both sodium and potassium channels open during an action potential. Neurotransmitters are
not involved in actions related to the axon membrane. They do not force potassium ions to move against a concentration gradient.
5. E. During transcription, the G, C, U, and A nucleotides of RNA base-pair with the C, G, A, and T nucleotides, respectively, of DNA. Note that
for RNA, U pairs with A (unlike in DNA, where T pairs with A). (C, G, A, T, and U represent the cytosine, guanine, adenine, thymine, and uracil
nucleotides.)
7. B. The initial rate of reaction is the slope of the plotted curve at the beginning of the reaction. Since the straight line portion of the curve
from 0 to 2 seconds indicates a constant rate of reaction, the slope at any point along this portion of the line will provide the initial rate. For
the entire interval from 0 to 2 seconds, the slope, determined by the change in product formed divided by the change in time, is (8 mg 0
mg)/(2 sec 0 sec) = 4 mg/sec.
8. B. An enzyme that is heated to 100C will be structurally damaged. The reaction will still occur, but at a much slower rate (perhaps an
extremely slow rate).
9. C. Since enzyme-mediated reactions are reversible (they convert product back to substrate), increasing the concentration of the product
will slow the forward direction of the reaction and accelerate the reverse reaction. Conversely, an increase in the substrate concentration will
increase the forward rate of the reaction. Increasing the enzyme concentration will not slow the reaction rate but may increase it if the
substrate concentration is high enough to utilize additional enzyme. An increase in pH or temperature may change the rate of reaction, but the
nature of the enzyme must be known in order to determine whether the rate is increased or decreased.
10. C. The plasma membrane consists principally of proteins embedded a phospholipid bilayer. 11. A. When there is a concentration gradient,
water will move across a membrane unassisted by ATP or channel proteins. In contrast, solutes (the dissolved substances) cannot cross the
membrane unassisted. 12. D. Note that this question asks about solutes moving down a concentration gradient across a plasma membrane
and without ATP. 13. C. Note that this question asks about water moving down a gradient.
14. E. If the solute concentration is higher outside than inside the cell, water moves out of the cell (by osmosis),
resulting in the collapse of the cell.
15. B. The movement of urine through the urinary tract is by bulk flow, a collective movement of all substances
moving in the same general direction. This is in contrast to diffusion, osmosis, and other molecular motions, in
which the motion of particular molecules with respect to other molecules is being described.
16. A. The energy requirement indicates active transport.
17. C. At the end of meiosis I, each daughter cell would have two chromosomes, each comprised of two chromatids.
At metaphase II, these two chromosomes would line up on the metaphase plate. When anaphase II begins, each of
the chromosomes would split into two chromatids. One of each of these chromatids (now called chromosomes)
would migrate to one or the other pole.
18. D. This figure is late telophase II. The nuclear membrane is reappearing. Only one daughter cell is shown,
suggesting that cytokinesis has been completed.
19. B. If the cell began with four chromosomes, then after meiosis I, each daughter cell would have two complete
chromosomes. At metaphase II, the two chromosomes would align, unpaired, on the metaphase plate.
20. A. Only in mitosis would you see four chromosomes spread out, unpaired, on the metaphase plate. If this were
metaphase I, the chromosomes would be paired in tetrads; if metaphase II, there would be only two chromosomes.
21. E. The pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs only in meiosis and at metaphase I.
22. C. It is not usually practical to make a Punnett square for genotypes involving more than two genes. In this problem, you are asked about
the frequency of one specific offspring, AABbCcDd. To solve this problem, look at each gene separately. Looking at the first gene, the parents
are AA AA and all offspring will be AA (frequency
of 1). For the second gene, BB bb, all offspring will be Bb (1). For the third gene, the parents are CC Cc, which produces 12 CC and 12 Cc
(do a Punnett square to confirm this). Finally, a cross of the fourth gene, Dd Dd, produces 14 DD, 12 Dd, and 14 dd. To find the probability
of AABbCcDd, first find the frequency for each gene separately. The probability of AA is 1, of Bb is 1, of Cc is 12, and of Dd is 12. Then find the
product of these frequencies. For AABbCcDd the product is 1 1 12 12 = 14.
23. B. At the end of meiosis I, the two homologous chromosomes, one with D and one with d, would separate and migrate to opposite poles
which will form separate cells. During meiosis II, each chromosome separates into two chromatids (both of which will have exactly the same
allele, assuming no crossing over) which migrate to opposite poles and become separate gametes. Thus, the cell containing the D
chromosome, will produce two gametes, each with a D chromosome (previously a chromatid). Similarly, the cell containing the d chromosome
will produce two gametes, both with a d chromosome. At the end of meiosis II, then, there will be two gametes with a D chromosome and two
gametes with a d chromosome.
24. A. Black is the phenotype of the sheep. That is given to you in the question. Without further information, you cannot identify the genotype
of a black sheep because it could be either BB or Bb. The possible genotypes of the parents of a black sheep could be BB BB, BB Bb, BB
bb, or Bb Bb. Thus, there is no one single genotype for either parent. Answer choice E is incorrect because although one parent would
always be black, you cannot be certain whether the second parent is black or white.
25. D. Since ATP contains the adenine nitrogen base, the sugar ribose (not deoxyribose), and three phosphate groups,
it is equivalent to the adenine RNA nucleotide with two extra phosphate groups. In contrast, an adenine DNA nucleotide with two extra
phosphates contains a deoxyribose sugar and would be written as dATP.
26. A. Translation is the process in which ribosomes conduct the matching of tRNA with mRNA, producing an amino acid chain, or polypeptide.
27. E. The mRNA is a sequence of nucleotides. Each triplet of nucleotides codes for a particular amino acid. The sequence of triplets on the
mRNA corresponds to the sequence of amino acids in an entire polypeptide, or protein.
28. B. A class contains closely related orders, which, in turn, contain closely related families. A family contains closely related genera, and a
genus contains very closely related species. Since a class contains many different genera, some of which may be closely related (within the
same family) or some of which may be distantly related (in different families or even different orders), it contains organisms at least some of
which may be very distantly related. However, there must be some general characteristic shared by all organisms in a class that allows them
to be grouped at the class level.
29. A. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes use the same four nucleotides (adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine) to construct DNA. In
contrast, the flagella of prokaryotes are made of the globular protein flagellin, whereas those of eukaryotes are made of the protein tubulin.
The plasma membranes in prokaryotes consist of unbranched, esterlinked phospholipids (bacteria) or ether-linked phospholipids (archea), but
in eukaryotes they consist of branched, ester-linked phospholipids. A prokaryotic chromosome consists of a circular DNA molecule;
chromosomes of eukaryotes are linear. The cell division of eukaryotes consists of mitosis (or meiosis), which divides the chromosomes and the
nucleus, followed by cytokinesis. Since they have no nucleus, cell division in prokaryotes is by binary fission (chromosome replication followed
by invagination of the plasma membrane). Note that replication of DNA in prokaryotes occurs during cell division, whereas in eukaryotes it
occurs when the cell is not dividing (interphase).
30. E. Only angiosperms produce fruits, which originate from ovarian tissue. Characteristics given in all the other answers are shared with
many gymnosperms and some other phyla.