Air Frame and Systems, Electrics,

Powerplant and Emergency

Equipments

AirFrame and Systems

Fuselage

What are the most frequent used materials in a monocoque or semi-monocoque structure?

A) Steel.
B) Aluminium or magnesium alloy.
C) Wood.
D) Composite fibres

A framework of truss type fuselage is used in:

A) Medium range commuter type turbo-props

B) Heavy wide bodied subsonic turbo-fan aircraft
C) Light training aircraft mainly
D) Supersonic aircraft

A semi-monocoque fuselage has... in the longitudinal direction. Together with the frames, they resist...
moments and axial forces. The skin panels are loaded mainly in...

A) Stringers, bending, shear.

B) Stringers, bending, buckling.
C) Bars, buckling, bending.
D) Spars, torsion, shear.

Aircraft structures consists mainly of:

A) Light alloy steel sheets with copper rivets and titanium or steel materials at points requiring high
strength.
B) Magnesium alloy sheets with aluminium rivets and titanium or steel at points requiring high
strength.
C) Aluminium sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.
D) Aluminium alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points requiring high strength.

What is the purpose of the stringers?

A) To produce stress risers.
B) To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses.
C) To support the primary control surfaces.
D) To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin.

The primary purpose of the fuselage is to:

A) Provide access to the cockpit.

B) House the crew and payload.
C) Support the wings.
D) Keep out adverse weather.

Fatigue life of the fuselage is mostly based on:

A) Number of cycles at maximum differential.

B) Number of explosive decompressions.
C) Number of times a certain load factor is exceeded.
D) Number of pressurisation cycles.

A damage tolerant structure:

A) Need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep maintenance.

B) Is a structure which is free of cracks.
C) Is replaced when it reaches its predicted life.
D) Has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area.

In a stressed skin airframe structure for a pressurised aircraft:

A) The rivets and skin are under tensile loads.

B) The rivets and skin are under compressive loads.
C) The rivets are under shear loads and the skin is under tensile loads.
D) The rivets take a shear load and the skin is under compressive loads.

During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin aircraft, certified to FAR 23 requirements was
subjected to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual specifies that the aircraft is
certified in the normal category for a load factor of -1.9 to +3.8. Considering the certification
requirements and taking into account that the manufacturer of the twin did not include, during its
conception, a supplementary margin in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe:

A) rupture of one or more structural components

B) no distortion, permanent or temporary of the structure
C) a permanent deformation of the structure
D) a elastic deformation whilst the load was applied, but no permanent distortion
Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) are:

A) Runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal.

B) Compass alignment markings.
C) A means of locating airframe structure and components.
D) Passenger seat locations.

The Design Ultimate Load is minimum:

A) 1.125 x Design Limit Load.

B) 1.5 x Proof Load.
C) 1.5 x Design Limit Load.
D) 1.125 x Proof Load.

The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of stringers whose purpose is to:

A) Provide sound and thermal isolation.

B) Withstand the shear stresses.
C) Assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-compression stresses.
D) Integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin is subjected and convert them into a
tensile stress.

Aircraft wing construction which employs the principle of the skin taking part of the load is termed:

A) Fail safe.
B) Stressed skin.
C) Monocoque.
D) Semi monocoque.

Which of the following statements about fuselage loading is true?

A) Frames have no structural function. Skin and stringers take the full load.
B) Frames, stringers and skin take the full load.
C) Frames and stringers take the full load. Skin is only used as a cover.
D) Skin and frames take the full load. Stringers are used to prevent skin buckling.

For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts:

1. The mounting principle is parallel mounting.

2. No routine check is necessary.

3. The member is removed at the end of the calculated life cycle.

4. Certain components may not be accessible.

5. The principle is the redundancy of components

6. The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared between the other system components.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

 A) 1,5,6
B) 1,3,4
C) 2,5,6
D) 2,3,4

The stresses present in all aircraft are:

A) Drag, Thrust, Weight, Lift.

B) Tension, Compression, Shear, Bending, Torsion.
C) Tension, Compression, Strain, Shear.
D) Tension, Drag, Shear, Compression, Bending.

Station numbers and water lines are:

A) Passenger seat locations.

B) Runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal.
C) Compass alignment markings.
D) A means of locating airframe structure and components.

The airframe structure must remain substantially intact after experiencing:

A) Three times the safety factor.

B) The design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor.
C) The design limit load times a 1.5 factor of safety.
D) The design limit load plus the design ultimate load.

Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the:

A) Number of explosive decompressions.

B) Number of pressurisation cycles.
C) Number of cycles at maximum differential.
D) Number of landings only.

Strain is defined as the:

A) Yield point
B) Expansion due to temperature rise
C) Deformation due to stress
D) Ultimate load

The skin of a modern pressurised aircraft:

A) Provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out adverse weather.
B) Houses the crew and the payload.
C) Is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural loads.
D) Is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle.

Which of the following is true?

A) Titanium alloy is used in aircraft construction because of its good wear resistance and high
 temperature tolerance.
B Aluminium alloys are used in aircraft construction because it is light, easily machined and has good
) wear resistance.
C) Super alloys are used because of their excellent corrosion resistance.
D) Steel is used in aircraft because it is strong and heavy but has poor corrosion resistance.

Aircraft skin is usually made of Al2024-alloy. This is...

A) Pure aluminium.
B) Pure aluminium with bronze.
C) Pure aluminium with copper.
D) Pure aluminium with zinc.

Repetitive pressurisation cycles induce... stresses which...

A) Differential, are negligible.

B) Differential, cause fatigue cracks.
C) Hoop, cause fatigue cracks.
D) Hoop, are negligible.

DURALUMIN alloys:

1. Have an aluminium-copper base.

2. Have an aluminium-magnesium base.

3. Are easy to weld.

4. Are difficult to weld.

5. Have a good thermal conductivity.

6. Have a poor air corrosion resistance

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1,3,6
B) 1,4,5
C) 2,3,6
D) 2,4,5

Among the different types of aircraft structures, the shell structures efficiently transmit the:

1. normal bending stresses

2. tangent bending stresses

3. torsional moment

4. shear stresses
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 3, 4
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 1, 2, 4

On an aircraft which employs stressed skin construction:

A) The skin of the airplane takes the majority of the structural load.
B) The skin is fabric which is stretched over a structure, which in turn takes all of the load.
C) The skin of the airplane takes no part of the load.
D) Composite material should be used.

The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short
haul flights at higher frequencies is that:

A) in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the aeroplane's
structure in an unacceptable way
B The lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum.
)
C) these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights
D) the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time

The fatigue life of an aircraft's pressure hull is based on:

A) The total number of landings.

B) The total number of explosive decompressions.
C) The total number of pressurisations.
D) The total number of negative differential pressure applications.

'Fail safe construction' is:

A) A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.

B) A simple and cheap type of construction.
C) A type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure
fails.
D) A type of construction for small aircraft only.

Which components do a semi-monocoque fuselage consists of?

A) A stressed skin type of construction in which the stiffness of the skin provides a large measure of
the strength of the structure. No truss or substructure is required.
B) Metal stringers, bulkheads and fabric covering.
C) A stressed skin structure in which the skin is supported by a lightweight framework, such as
longerons, stringers and formers.
D) Steel tubing, longerons and bulkhead wires.

In the construction of airframes, the primary purpose of frames or formers is to:

A) Form the entrance door posts.

B) Oppose hoop stresses and provide shape and form to the fuselage.
C) Provide a means of attaching the stringers and skin panels.
D) Support the wings.

The fatigue life of a pressure hull is mainly based on:

A) The number of explosive decompressions.

B) The total number of landings.
C) The total number of pressurisations.
D) The number of negative differential pressure applications.

In the construction of airframes the primary purpose of frames or formers is to:

A) Support the wings.

B) Oppose hoop stresses and provide shape and form to the fuselage.
C) Provide a means of attaching the stringers and skin panels.
D) Form the entrance door posts.

Of a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending
moments Mx are:

A) Ribs.
B) Spars.
C) Webs.
D) Skin.

When a mechanical shaft or linkage passes through the aft pressure bulkhead it:

A) Needs to be sealed if motion is rotary.

B) Must always be pressure sealed.
C) Needs to be sealed if the motion is linear.
D) Must not be sealed.

Friction clutches are fitted to actuators for:

A) protection against non return valve failure

B) protection against brake on loads
C) protection against supply failures
D) protection against mechanical overload

COCKPIT AND CABIN WINDOWS

Flight deck windows are constructed from:

A) Laminated Acrylic
B) An amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure seals.
C) Strengthened glass with rubber seals.
D) Strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting coat for de-icing and rubber pressure seals.
On a modern wide-body jet the windscreen is heated primarily to:

A) prevent the vinyl from losing strength at low outside air temperature.
B) prevent condensation of water on the windscreen.
C) prevent the vinyl from getting too warm.
D) keep the windscreen free of ice.

In flight, if a windscreen overheat warning light illuminates:

A the windscreen heating will continue to operate satisfactorily at a temperature 10 - 15 degrees C

) higher than normal.
B) windscreen heating will be removed automatically and the windscreen will cool down.
C) immediately switch off all heat to the windscreen.
D) there is no overheat protection for windscreens.

The purpose of a rain repellent system is to:

A) increase the surface tension of the water.

B) decrease the surface tension of the water.
C) prevent the water droplets from freezing when impacting on the cold windscreen.
D) clean the windscreen when used with windscreen wipers.

For maximum strength against impact damage pilots windows are:

A) heated internally to increase their elasticity.

B) specially treated during construction.
C) normally kept to a minimum size.
D) only heated when the IOAT falls below 0 C in precipitation.

Pilots cockpit windows are heated:

A) with a reflective inner coating that prevents fogging.

B) by agitating the window molecules with an AC current.
C) only to prevent condensation occurring.
D) by passing current across an inner conductive electrical coating.

On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by:

A) Vinyl coating.
B) Anti-icing fluid.
C) Rain repellent system.
D) Electric heating.

The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that:

A) wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the cockpit
windows.
B rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is very heavy.
)
C) the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.
D) the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.

Pilots cockpit windows are:

A) constructed by heat treating the outer surface to reduce glare.

B) made of polarised glass.
C) made of sandwich construction with an electrical conductive coating.
D) only heated by air from the de-misting fan.

What is the effect of heating flight deck windows?

A) to protect the windows against ice formation.

B) to protect the windows against bird strike and ice formation.
C) to demist the interior of the window if normal demist does not function correctly.
D) to protect the windows against bird strike.

WING
In flight, a cantilever wing of an airplane containing fuel undergoes vertical loads which produce a
bending moment:

A) highest at the wing root.

B) equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span.
C) lowest at the wing root.
D) equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span.

In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending
moment which is:

A) equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span.

B) equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi span.
C) highest at the wing root.
D) lowest at the wing root.

A wing structure consists primarily of:

A) Ribs and stringers only

B) A front and rear main spar
C) Ribs only to give optimum and cost effective simple construction
D) A front and rear main spar with ribs and stringers

The Control Surfaces on a wing are usually attached to:

A) the torque tube.

B) the wing trailing edge stiffeners.
C) the main spar.
D) the rear spar.
On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending
moments Mx are:

A) the skin.
B) the spars.
C) the ribs.
D) the webs.

Stall fences mounted on an aircraft wing are used:

A) to increase the maximum speed of the aircraft,

B) to avoid the formation of shock waves,
C) to prevent the tendency of the outer portion of the wing to stall first,
D) to increase the lift coefficient in landing,

A lightening hole in a rib:

A) provide a means of passing cables and controls through a pressure bulkhead.

B) prevents lightning strikes damaging the fuselage.
C) lightens and stiffens the structure.
D) collects and disposes of electrical charges.

What is the purpose of the stiffeners which are riveted to the upper and lower skin panels of the wing
torsion box?

A) To prevent yielding.
B) To increase the bending stiffness of the wing.
C) To increase the torsional stiffness of the wing.
D) To prevent buckling of the skin panels.

What is the purpose of the wing main spar:

A) To withstand compressive and torsional loads.

B) To withstand bending and torsional loads.
C) To withstand compressive and shear loads.
D) To withstand bending and shear loads.

A " slot" on a wing is?

A) Another expression for fowler flap.

B A leading edge device that causes some of the high energy air to flow over the upper surface of the
) wing.
C) A leading edge flap.
D) A split flap along the leading edge of the wing.

When do you say that an aircraft has a cantilever wing?

A) When the wing is supported by braces or strut, linked to the fuselage.

B) When the wing planform is other than rectangular.
C) When the wing is attached to the fuselage at or near one end only.
D) When the wing is attached to the lower part of the fuselage.
The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending
moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in:

A) compression, then in tension.

B) tension, then in compression.
C) tension.
D) compression.

What is the purpose of wing ribs:

A) To house the fuel and the landing gear.

B) To withstand the fatigue stresses.
C) To provide local support for the skin.
D) To shape the wing and support the skin.
Wing mounted engines are often mounted on pylons which set them well ahead of the aerofoil (wing)
in order to:

A) Keep the wing clean to improve aerodynamic efficiency.

B) Provide a pitching up moment arm to assist in trimming the aircraft.
C) Move the C of G forward as a way of mass balancing to reduce flutter.
D) Allow gravity feed of fuel in emergency situations.

A cantilever wing:

A) Has both an upper an lower airfoil section.

B) Is externally braced with either struts and/or bracing wires.
C) Is supported at one end only with no external bracing.
D) Folds at the root section to ease storage in confined spaces.

A torsion box:

A) is a structure designed to reduce the weight.

B) is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist bending and twisting loads.
C) is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls and landing gear.
D) is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending and twisting loads.

The component of an aircraft wing which can be considered to be the primary structural member is
called:

A) the rib.
B) the main spar.
C) the control surface spar.
D) the lateral datum.

STABILISING SURFACE
What is the reason for putting the horizontal stabiliser on top of the fin?

A) No need for anti-icing.

B) Create a pitch up by making the aeroplane tail heavy.
C) To be more efficient at high speed.
D) To be out of the way of the wing down wash.
The advantage of mounting the tail plane on top of the vertical stabilizer is:

A) to have greater effectiveness at high speed

B) to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence.
C) to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy situation
D) that it does not require a de-icing system

Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the aircraft about its:

A) Longitudinal axis
B) Vertical axis
C) Longitudinal pivot point
D) Lateral axis

The empennage consists of the:

A) Horizontal stabilizer only

B) Tail plane only
C) Vertical stabilizer only
D) Horizontal and vertical stabilizer

The rudder limiters on several aircraft have a specific function, which is to:

A) Prevent heavy gusts from damaging the rudder.

B) Reduce rudder load during take-off and landing.
C) Prevent large rudder deflections on ground.
D) Prevent excessive loads from acting on the rudder

The function of the rudder limiter on some aircraft is to?

A) Prevent that heavy gust damages the rudder.

B) Prevent excessive loads from acting on the rudder.
C) Prevent large rudder deflections on ground.
D) Reduce rudder load during take-off and landing.

LANDING GEAR

Tyre creep is most likely to occur:

A) when the tyre is worn to its limits.

B) when the tyre shelf life limit is reached.
C) when the tyre is newly fitted.
D) when the tyre is over-inflated

The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is:

1. idle wheel speed (measured)

2. braked wheel speed (measured)

 3. brake temperature (measured)

4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate

5. tire pressure

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 2, 4.
B) 2, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D) 1, 3.

The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are:

A) the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping function.
B the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function.
)
C) the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function.
D) the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat-dissipation
function.

A high pressure tyre would typically be inflated to:

A) between 80 and 180 psi.

B) up to 50 psi.
C) between 50 and 70 psi.
D) between 120 and 250 psi.

If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre are worn, the tyre can be:

A) Never repaired.
B) Used on the nose wheel only.
C) Repaired once.
D) Repaired several times.

When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:

A) 0.1
B) zero
C) 1
D) 0.5

On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived from:

A) the aeroplane's hydraulic system.

B) the brake actuators.
C) the master cylinders.
D) pressure to the rudder pedals
Which formula should be used to calculate the minimum speed in knots at which aquaplaning could
occur?

A) 9 x the square root of the tyre pressure (in psi).

B) 9 x the square root of the tyre pressure (in MPa).
C) 9 x AUW (in pounds) x square root of the tyre pressure (in psi).
D) 19 x the square root of the tyre pressure (in psi).

Tyre wear can be reduced while taxiing by:

A) taxiing at 25 knots or less.

B) taxiing at 50 knots or less.
C) staying on the smooth part of the taxiway.
D) restricting the use of engine reverse.

A green fusible plug is designed to deflate the tyre if a temperature of ... is reached.

A) 199 C
B) 155 C
C) 277 C
D) 177 C

An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi, its minimum aquaplaning speed will be:

A) 145 knots.
B) 135 mph.
C) 135 knots.
D) 145 mph.

Auto brakes are disengaged:

A) by the pilot.
B) when the ground spoilers are retracted.
C) when the speed falls below 20 kts.
D) on the landing roll when the auto-pilot is disengaged.

The " ply rating" of a tire is?

A) A parameter indicating the tire relative strength.

B) The ratio between the section width and the section diameter.
C) The inner liner used as a container for the air.
D) The read design.

The operating principle of an anti skid system. The brake pressure will be:

A) Decreased on the slower turning wheels.

B) Decreased on the faster turning wheels.
C) Increased on the slower turning wheels.
D) Increased on the faster turning wheels.
What is the purpose of a Twin Contact Tyre?

A) for grass runway operation.

B) to reduce shimmy.
C) to deflect surface water away from engine intakes.
D) to reduce hydroplaning.

On large modern transport aircraft, the brake assembly consists of:

A) boosted expander tube type.

B) boosted rotor type.
C) single disk brake type.
D) multiple disk brake type.

Thermal plugs are installed in:

A) cargo compartments
B) wheel rims
C) cabin windows
D) fire warning systems

The purpose of a fusible plug is to:

A) slowly allow the tyre to deflate if the tyre pressure is excessive due to over-inflation.
B) slowly allow the tyre to deflate due to excessive wheel speed.
C) slowly allow the tyre to deflate due to excessive temperature at the tyre.
D) slowly reduce tyre pressure if the tyre pressure becomes excessive.

The inner cylinder of the shock absorber is prevented from rotating inside the outer cylinder by:

A) None of the above since it is designed to be able to rotate to allow steering.

B) Torque Links.
C) Restrictors.
D) The Steering Jacks.

The cause of rather violent vibration of the nose wheel, described as shimmy, is often:

A) Looseness of the nose wheel support mechanism.

B) Tyre imbalance.
C) An uneven surface.
D) Both a and c are correct.

A ribbed tyre is worn to its limits when it is worn to:

A) 2 mm from the bottom of the wear indicator grooves.

B) 4 mm from the bottom of the wear indicator grooves.
C) 2 mm from the bottom of any groove.
D) 4 mm from the bottom of any groove.

If the gas pressure in a brake accumulator is too low:

 A) the energy for braking is low.
B) the energy for braking is high.
C) the brakes cannot be applied at all.
D) the number of brake applications remains unchanged.

During a walk round pre-flight inspection, a main oleo leg is observed to be lower than the other leg
with no sign of leakage and the aircraft is parked on a level pan:

A) the problem is due to sloping ground.

B) check the load extension requirement and have the leg charged with oil.
C) the oleo leg extension is unaffected by the air and/or oil charge.
D) check the load extension requirement and have the leg charged with air.

Landing gear torque links are used to:

A) prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.

B) take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.
C) prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.
D) maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off.

Brake " fade" is:

A) ineffective braking due to worn pads.

B) the reduction in braking as the anti-skid cuts in.
C) ineffective breaking due to worn tyre treads.
D) ineffective braking due to heating.

Apart from the advantage of increased stability the advantages of a nose wheel tricycle landing gear
arrangement include:

A) improved pilot visibility making landing and taxiing easier.

B) easier loading with a level floor line.
C) aerodynamic drag on take off is reduced.
D) all of the above.

With RTO (rejected take-off) selected and armed, the brakes will be automatically applied if:

A) Vr is not reached after a predetermined distance.

B) V1 is not reached after a predetermined distance.
C) one of the thrust levers is returned to idle.
D) reverse thrust is selected at any time.

The autobrake system modulates hydraulic pressure to the brakes to obtain...

A) a constant deceleration during the landing roll.

B) a constant acceleration during the take=off roll.
C) an increasing deceleration during the landing roll.
D) a decreasing deceleration during the landing roll

Lowering the gear using the free fall system will result in the main landing gear doors:
 A) closing hydraulically.
B) remaining open.
C) closing mechanically.
D) being jettisoned.

Which of the following are considered advantages of using tubeless tyre assemblies on aircraft
compared to a tube tyre?

A) they operate at higher temperatures and so provide better grip.

B) they permit easier wheel change.
C) they are not capable of blow-outs during operation.
D) they are cooler in operation when subjected to high speeds and high loads.

An oleo-type landing nose gear shock absorber is often equipped with a torque link, why?

A) To prevent the nose wheel from shimmying

B) Both b and c are correct
C) To allow the piston to move freely in and out the landing gear cylinder
D) To prevent the landing gear cylinder from rotating

Light aircraft brake pad wear is measured by:

A) measuring across the brake calliper with brakes 'OFF'.

B) measuring across the brake calliper with brakes 'ON'.
C) measuring individual pad thickness.
D) measuring the wear indicator pins.

hydraulically operated nose gear steering cylinder has at least two functions. The first is to allow the
pilot to steer the aeroplane, and the second function is?

A) An emergency extension cylinder for the nose gear.

B) Supporting actuator to lower and rise the landing gear.
C) Down lock mechanism for the nose gear.
D) Shimmy dampener.

In the event of an approach to land being made with the throttle levers retarded towards idle and the
flaps down and the gear up , the warning given to the pilot will be a:

A) horn.
B) stick shaker.
C) buzzer.
D) continuous bell.

The advantage of using a tricycle landing gear is:

A) Braking is more efficient as the landing gear can be made stronger.

B) Spoilers can be incorporated into the wings to increase drag to assist braking.
C) Heavy braking will not cause the aircraft to nose over.
D) Fuselages can be made larger to allow the undercarriage to be retracted.
In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted
on the ground. It consists of:

A) A bolt.
B) A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.
C) An aural warning horn.
D) A latch located in the landing gear lever.

Creep (slippage):

A) never occurs on new tyres.

B) can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim.
C) can damage the braking system.
D) may cause excess wear.
The formula which gives the minimum speed (Vp) at which aquaplaning may occur is:

A) Vp = 9 x sqrt(P) where P is psi and Vp is in mph.

B) Vp = 9 x sqrt(P) where P is psi and Vp is in knots.
C) Vp = 34 x sqrt(P) where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in mph.
D) Vp = 9 x sqrt(P) where P is kg/cm2 and Vp is in knots.

In which of the following areas would an overheat/fire warning be provided.

A) Fuel tank.
B) Cabin.
C) Tyres.
D) Wheel/Undercarriage bay.

Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear shock absorber used on larger aircraft?

A) Nitrogen.
B) Springs.
C) Oxygen.
D) Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.

The principle of operation of an oleo pneumatic shock absorber (shock strut) employs:

A) oil only.
B) oil and spring.
C) air and a coil spring.
D) oil and air (or nitrogen).

Creep:

A) refers to the movement of the aircraft against the tyre.

B) is not a problem with tubeless tyres.
C) can rip out the inflation valve and deflate the tyre.
D) can be prevented by painting white lines on the tyre and wheel.
A back-up to the normal landing gear extension system may be:

A) high pressure air from air storage bottles.

B) a mechanical free-fall system.
C) any of these systems.
D) an alternative emergency hydraulic system

After an emergency free fall landing gear extension (extension by gravity), the landing gear doors:

A) will be closed mechanically.

B) will remain open.
C) will take up an intermediate position depending on the airspeed.
D) will be closed hydraulically.

The function of a fusible plug is to:

A) protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature.

B) function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system.
C) protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature.
D) protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.

Aircraft wheels are usually made of:

A) steel or titanium.
B) magnesium or steel.
C) magnesium or aluminium.
D) copper or tin.

The illumination of the green lamp indicator corresponding to a landing gear means that the landing
gear is:

A) locked-down and its door is locked.

B) locked-down.
C) in the required position.
D) not in the required position.

The rated pressure of an aircraft tyre is the:

A) loaded pressure when the tyre is cold.

B) loaded pressure when the tyre is hot.
C) unloaded pressure when the tyre is hot.
D) unloaded pressure when the tyre is cold.

If the normal method of lowering the hydraulic operated retractable landing gear fails, there has to be
an alternate method, this usually works as?

A) A fully mechanical system that replace the hydraulic system if this one fails. Such a system is
activated with separate controls.
B A system integrated with the original that allows the gear, by mean of its own weight and
) aerodynamic resistance, to mechanically lock in place.
C) A fully hydraulic system in parallel with the normal system.
D) A system that is activated by shaking of the aeroplane, by means of abrupt movement of the
 aeroplane controls to lower and lock the landing gear.

When fitting a new tyre to an aircraft, creep:

A) is normal.
B) will only occur when the tyre is over inflated.
C) will only occur if high performance tyres are used.
D) will only occur if tubeless tyres are used.

Main and nose wheel bays are:

A) conditioned.
B) pressurised.
C) unpressurised.
D) different, with the mains being unpressurised and the nose pressurised.
The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is that they:

A) release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.

B) prevent the brakes from overheating.
C) prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.
D) release air from the tyre in case of overheating.

The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on the torsion link in a bogie gear is:

A) Touch down with crosswind

B) Braking with an inoperative anti skid system
C) Taxiing with a small turning radius
D) Gear down selection

Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams:

A) 1 - half fork; 2 - fork; 3 - cantilever; 4 - tandem

B) 1 - cantilever; 2 - dual wheels; 3 - half fork; 4 - fork
C) 1 - half fork; 2 - single trace; 3 - cantilever; 4 - dual wheels
D) 1 - cantilever; 2 - fork; 3 - half fork; 4 - dual wheels

Tyre " creep" may be described as the:

A) the increase in inflation pressure due to decrease in ambient temperature

B) circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange.
C) gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear
D) the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature

Creep is:

A) circumferential movement of the tyre around the flange due to the coriander effect.
B) circumferential movement of the tyre around the fringe of the wheel.
C) lateral movement of the tyre around the flange.
D) increase of tyre diameter due to centrifugal force on take-off and landing.
Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as:

A) the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing.
B) aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear.
C) a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.
D) the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect.

The nose wheel extension of an aircraft is 2 inches more than normal when the aircraft is correctly
loaded, the most likely cause is:

A) a down draught at the tail.

B) too much nitrogen in the oleo strut.
C) too little oil in the oleo strut.
D) too little nitrogen in the oleo strut.

The advantage of tricycle type landing gear over a tail wheel system is that:

A) there is no danger of tipping over when applying brakes with a strong tailwind.
B) the landing speed is much less.
C) the braking system is less complicated.
D) it is lighter and less complicated.

On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for example to
prolonged braking during an aborted take-off, there is:

A a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature (thermal fuse) and
) deflates the tyre.
B) a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.
C) the " Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to the tyre
temperature.
D) water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature.

The shock strut extension of nose landing gear is 2 inches more than normal when the aircraft is
correctly loaded. The most likely cause is:

A) not enough oil in the oleo-pneumatic shock strut.

B) not enough nitrogen in the oleo-pneumatic shock strut.
C) too much nitrogen in the oleo-pneumatic shock strut.
D) a damaged torsion link.

Aircraft nose wheel shimmy is:

A) rapid vertical displacement of the wheel due to uneven ground.

B) rapid oscillation of the wheel about the wheel axis.
C) commonly caused low shock absorber gas pressure.
D) oscillation of the wheel about its track.

On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:

A) will wear at the shoulders.

B) it's tread will deteriorate faster.
C) will have an increased critical hydroplaning speed.
D) will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway.

An emergency air bottle:

A) is primed by the operation of the hand pump.

B) is used to lower the undercarriage.
C) is primarily for use when braking.
D) can lower and raise the undercarriage

What are purpose and placing of a " fusible plug" on the tires?

A It is placed in the wheel and reacts on temperature. At excessive temperatures it melts which
) allows the air to escape from the tire, leaving the tire unpressurised.
B) It is placed in airplane tires to seal holes.
C) It is placed in the wheel and by feeling the tire pressure it automatically regulates the pressure to
the desired.
D) It is placed in the brake assembly and when the brakes are overheated it turns off the hydraulic
pressure fed to the brakes, allowing the brakes to cool.

The anti-skid system would be used:

A) on landing runs only.

B) for take off on icy runways.
C) on take off runs only.
D) for both take off and landing runs

If there is a fluid leakage from a jack:

A) there are air bubbles in the fluid.

B) the jack lubrication system is working normally.
C) an oil seal has failed.
D) the incorrect fluid must have been used.

A tubeless tyre is a tyre:

1. which requires solid or branched wheels

2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations

3. whose mounting rim must be flawless

4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device

5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture

6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 2, 5
B) 3, 4, 5
 C) 2, 3, 6
D) 1, 5, 6

Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised
to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge will read:

A) 2000 psi
B) 1000 psi
C) 500 psi
D) 1500 psi

In a Landing Gear hydraulic system how can emergency operation of actuators be achieved?

A) By pulling a gravity release.

B) By electric emergency actuators.
C) By operating the actuator pneumatically by discharging a pressurised gas bottle into the hydraulic
lines.
D) By any of the above methods.

When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, the pressure indicated on the gauge should read... above the
rated inflation pressure:

A) 4 percent.
B) 10 percent.
C) 10 psi
D) 4 psi

A wheel brake anti-skid unit is sensitive to:

A) aircraft speed.
B) hydraulic system fluid pressure.
C) angular deceleration.
D) hydraulic system fluid pressure, and temperature.

With the antiskid system unserviceable, how should brake application be made?

A) By carefully moderating the pressure on the pedals.

B) Releasing the pressure on the pedals after the wheels have touched the runway.
C) Fully applying the brakes.
D) With an on and off braking action.

To prevent the landing gear from collapsing when the aircraft is parked on the ground by, following
device is used:

A) hydraulic pressure.
B) locking pins with flags.
C) torque links.
D) chocks.

Side loads imposed on an undercarriage unit on landing are absorbed by:

 A) the torque links.
B) the shock absorber.
C) locking pins.
D) the side load strut or link.

A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is:

A) aircraft is overweight.
B) the tyres pressures are too high.
C) a torque link is worn or damaged.
D) the aircraft is incorrectly loaded.

Torque links on an undercarriage come under most stress when:

A) during crosswind landings.

B) making tight turns when taxiing.
C) after take-off.
D) during pushback.

In a modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete
hydraulic system failure.

A) Mechanically.
B) By hydraulic accumulators.
C) Electrically.
D) Pneumatically.

If the braking system shuttle valve gets jammed in the normal position:

A) the brakes will jam when selected.

B) emergency braking would not be available.
C) both systems will operate.
D) main braking would not be availabl

A tubeless tyre has:

1. a built-in-air tube.

2. no built-in-air tube.

3. a crossed side casing.

4. a radial side casing.

The combination of correct statements is:

A) 2, 4.
B) 1,3.
 C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 4.

If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed gear, which of the mentioned factors will differ from a retractable
landing gear?

A) induced drag.
B) horizontal stability.
C) lift.
D) parasite drag.

During maintenance, the main undercarriage of an aircraft is normally prevented from collapsing on
the ground by:

A) a mechanical lock.
B) a hydraulic lock and aerodynamic lock.
C) locking pins with flags.
D) a mechanical lock and hydraulic pressure

The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is:

A) to function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking.

B) to damp pressure fluctuations of the auto brake system.
C) to supply a limited amount of brake energy in case the hydraulic system normally powering the
brakes does not function anymore.
D) to store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti skid system to prevent wheel blocking.

Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground is:

A) the responsibility of the first officer when he is on the aircraft.

B) always a danger after the ground locks have been removed.
C) prevented by the ground/air logic system.
D) not possible because the system is not powerful enough.

The rated pressure of an aircraft tyre is recommended by:

A) the Aviation Authority of the country from which the aircraft operates.
B) the aircraft operator.
C) the European Aviation Authority.
D) the tyre manufacturer.

What is the most probable cause of insufficient extension of an oleo pneumatic shock absorber?

A) low oil level with corrected air pressure.

B) high oil level with air pressure correct.
C) low air pressure.
D) low oil level and low air pressure.

The main purpose of using anti-skid units in the wheel-brake system is to:
 A) increase the landing distance.
B) reduce the landing speed.
C) prevent brake unit heating becoming excessive.
D) reduce tyre wear.

In a HP brake hydraulic system:

A) A PRV is fitted to maintain pressure in the brake system if the aircraft hydraulic system fails
B) The aircraft main hydraulic system is connected to the brake pistons by operation of a dual brake
control valve
C) A NRV is fitted to reduce the pressure of the aircraft hydraulic systems to that of the brake
operating pressure
D) A separate handbrake system is always fitted together with its own accumulator and its own
system components

A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to:

A) lock the landing gear.

B) control the wheels.
C) avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.
D) absorb the spring tension.

Oil is required in an oleo-pneumatic shock strut to:

A) support the weight of the aircraft.

B) limit the speed of extension and compression of the shock strut.
C) limit the speed at which the strut compresses.
D) lubricate the piston within the cylinder.

How is the undercarriage normally locked down on a down selection?

A) by a mechanical loch and hydraulic pressure.

B) by a mechanical lock and overcenter lock.
C) by a mechanical lock and locking pins with flags.
D) by a hydraulic lock with a mechanical locking pin.

Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics:

1. high heating

2. valve fragility

3. lower risk of bursting

4. better adjustment to wheels

The combination containing all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 2, 3.
C) 3, 4.
 D) 2, 4.

The nose wheel assembly must be centred before retraction because:

A) The aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not straight.
B) There is limited space in the nose wheel bay.
C) It will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on take-off.
D) The tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight.

Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during taxiing when:

1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground

2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions

This effect is overcome by means of:

3. the torque link

4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder

The combination of correct statements is:

A) 1, 4
B) 2, 4
C) 1, 3
D) 2, 3

In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is:

A) a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the hydraulic system during high intensity braking.
B) a damping type accumulator designed to take up the pressure fluctuations of the automatic braking
system.
C) an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the event of a hydraulic failure.
D) designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-skid system in order to prevent wheel
blocking.

What is reducing the shocks on the landing gear on an oleo shock absorber?

A) The oil that is forced through a metering orifice.

B) Springs inside the strut.
C) Cushion of compressed air.
D) Compression of the oil.

When the main undercarriage gear is selected 'DOWN' in flight, it is locked down by:

A) spring loaded jacks imposing a geometric lock on the side stays or drag struts.
B) locking pins with warning flags.
C) sequence valves.
D) Hydraulic down locks.
When the main undercarriage gear is selected 'DOWN' in flight, it is locked down by:

A) spring loaded jacks imposing a geometric lock on the side stays or drag struts.
B) locking pins with warning flags.
C) sequence valves.
D) Hydraulic down locks.

The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following landing. The pressures will
have:

A) risen by 15% from their rated value.

B) remained constant.
C) fallen by 15% from their rated value.
D) risen by 10% of their original value.

Multi Disc brake units are assessed for wear:

A) by wear indicators that change colour as brake wear takes place.

B) by wear indicator pins which extend as brake wear takes place.
C) by wear indicator pins that retract into the torque plate as brake wear occurs.
D) by measuring individual brake pad thickness.

The most probable cause of main wheel shimmy is:

A) worn torque links or toggles.

B) low tyre inflation pressure.
C) shock absorber extension low.
D) excessive shock absorber extension

An accumulator may be fitted in a brake system to:

A) Modulate the response when the brakes are initially applied.

B) Prevent thermal expansion from being transmitted from the main system.
C) Provide an emergency reserve of pressure in the event of main system pressure failure.
D) Compensate for fluid loss when the brakes are applied.

Gear retraction systems are classified according to the power source used for retraction and extension.
Which are the most frequently used on larger aircraft?

A) Hydraulic.
B) Electrical and pneumatic.
C) Mechanical.
D) Electrical and hydraulic

If the oleo-pneumatic shock strut extension of a landing gear on the ground is designed to be 6
inches, but it is found to be 2 inches:

A) the nitrogen (or air) pressure is insufficient.

B) the hydraulic fluid pressure is insufficient.
C) the nitrogen (or air) pressure is more than required.
D) the hydraulic fluid pressure is more than required
The disk brakes have more or less replaced the drum brakes. Why?

A) Owing to a loss of braking action due to heat generation problem.

B) Because disk brakes allow a greater dissipation kinetic energy.
C) Because disk brakes allow an antiskid action.
D) Because disk brakes weighted less and lasted longer.

A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to:

A) create the wheel pitch on bogie gears

B) transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement of the
nosewheel
C) make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned through more than 20
D) prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber.

The movement of the gear on lowering is normally damped to:

A) Prevent the hydraulic fluid becoming overheated.

B) Make the lowering time greater than the raising time.
C) Prevent the fluid becoming aerated.
D) Counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear down too fast.

Oil is required in an oleo strut to:

A) support the weight of the aircraft.

B) lubricate the piston within the cylinder.
C) limit the speed at which the strut compresses.
D) limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut.
If the gas pressure is too high in an oleo leg it will:

A) The leg extension will not change.

B) Not affect the functioning as a pressure relief valve will ensure pressure is brought within limits.
C) Cause the leg extension to be more than normal
D) The leg extension will be lower than normal.

A main landing gear is said to be LOCKED DOWN when:

A) the actuating cylinder is at the end of its travel

B) the strut is locked by an overcenter mechanism
C) the corresponding indicator lamp is amber
D) it is in the down position

At an aircraft taxiing speed of l0 mph the antiskid braking system is:

A) inoperative.
B) operative only on the nosewheel brakes.
C) operative only on the main wheel brakes.
D) operative.

The most likely cause of brake fade is:

A) overheating.
 B) worn stators.
C) the pilot reducing the brake pressure.
D) oil or grease on the brake drums.

The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:

A) Multiple disk brake.

B) Drum type brake.
C) Single disk brake.
D) Belt brake

The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft comes from:

A) the aircraft main hydraulic system.

B) the pilots brake pedals.
C) the hydraulic reservoir.
D) a self contained power pack.

Prior to landing, what considerations should be given to the aircraft tyres?

A) tyre pressure, aircraft mass, and rwy surface conditions.

B) aircraft mass, rwy conditions and landing speed.
C) aircraft mass, tyre pressure and type of tyre tread.
D) aircraft mass, landing speed, and tyre pressures.

In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear operating system is usually:

A) Electrically driven.
B) Pneumatically driven.
C) Mechanically driven.
D) Hydraulically driven.

What is an essential requirement in a Nose Wheel Steering System?

A) A follow-up mechanism.
B) Feedback.
C) Triplicate servo operation.
D) An emergency air back up.

The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being disconnected after landing:

A) at a certain low speed

B) automatically
C) the system is always armed
D) by pilot action

A red band painted on the wall of a tyre is a:

A) balance mark.
B) heavy spot.
 C) light spot.
D) creep mark.

Oil is used in an oleo strut to:

A) Support the weight of the aircraft.

B) Limit the speed of compression of the strut.
C) Lubricate the piston within the cylinder.
D) Limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut.

On the brake assembly there is an anti-skid system. From which device does the anti-skid control box
get the information to regulate the brake pressure?

A) From a hydraulic pressure sensor.

B) From the pitot static system.
C) From the airspeed indicator, corrected to ground speed.
D) From a wheel speed sensor.

Control on the ground for small aeroplanes is provided by steering the nose wheel through
connections to the rudder pedals, but large aeroplanes have normally:

A) pneumatic power steering.

B) mechanical power steering.
C) electrical power steering.
D) hydraulic power steering.

During the landing run, when wheel brake anti-skid units are activated:

A) brake fluid pressure is reduced by returning fluid from the brake unit direct to the accumulator.
B) full brake pressure is applied to the brake units.
C) brake fluid pressure is reduced by returning fluid to the reservoir via the brake control valve.
D) brake fluid pressure is reduced by returning fluid from the brake unit direct to return.

FLIGHT CONTROLS (CONSTRUCTION AND OPERATION)

On an aircraft, the Kruger flap is a:

A) trailing edge flap.

B) leading edge flap close to the wing tip.
C) leading edge flap.
D) leading edge flap close to the wing root.

Some aircraft uses a fly by wire system to move the primary flight controls, this system is based on:

A) Mechanical power transmitted by steel wires.

B) Electrical signals from a computer sent to hydraulic actuators.
C) Hydraulic power only.
D) Secondary controls such as speed brakes.
A q feel unit is:

A) used to give the pilot some control feedback dependent on the rate of acceleration.
B) used to give the pilot some control feedback at varying altitudes by sensing static pressure
changes.
C) used to give the pilot some feedback of flap position by sensing the dynamic pressure.
D) also known as an Artificial feel Unit.

Which of the following helps to prevent flutter?

A) Inset Hinges.
B) Horn Balance.
C) Balance Tabs.
D) Mass Balance.

What are " Kruger" flaps?

A) Leading edge flaps

B) Trailing edge flaps.
C) Aileron trim tabs
D) Cowling flaps

The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate switches is:

A) To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.

B To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway.
)
C) Because there are two trim motors.
D) To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at low
speed.

Control surface flutter:

A) is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within the flight envelope.
B) is a means of predicting the critical safe life of the wing.
C) provides additional lift for take-off and landing in the event of engine failure.
D) occurs at high angles of attack.

The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:

A) reduce or to cancel control forces.

B) trim the aeroplane at low airspeed.
C) trim the aeroplane during normal flight.
D) lower manoeuvring control forces.

On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:

A) leading edge flaps close to the wing tip

B) leading edge flaps close to the wing root
C) trailing edge flaps close to the wing root
D) trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip
One type of flap used on aircraft moves down and increases the wing area by moving aft when
lowered. This flap is known as:

A) Slotted flap.
B) Aft moving flap.
C) Fowler flap.
D) Split flap.

What is the name of the control surface that rotates an aeroplane about its longitudinal or roll axis?

A) The trim tabs.

B) The elevator.
C) The ailerons.
D) The rudder.

How do differential ailerons work?

A) equalise the lift on up going and down going wings.

B) increase drag on up going wing and decrease drag on down going wing.
C) equalise the drag on up going and down going wings.
D) Increase lift on down going wing and decrease lift on up going wing.

The advantages of fly-by-wire control are:

1. Reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces

2. Lesser sensitivity to lightning strike

3. Direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems

4. Immunity to different interfering signals

5. Improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1 and 2
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 5
D) 3 and 5

A Yaw Damper is:

A) A rudder damper designed to avoid the " Dutch roll" .

B) A roll trim tab.
C) An elevator augmenter to avoid the nose-down effect at speeds greater than M=0.8.
D) An elevator augmenter.

If an artificial feel unit is fitted, it would be connected:

A) in series with the secondary controls.

 B) in parallel with the primary controls.
C) in parallel with the secondary controls.
D) in series with the primary controls

The elevators of a conventional airline are used to provide rotation about the:

A) Lateral axis.
B) Vertical axis.
C) Longitudinal axis.
D) Directional axis.

An artificial feel unit system:

A) is mounted in parallel on a spring tab.

B) is necessary on a reversible servodyne unit.
C) must be mounted in parallel on an irreversible servo-control unit.
D) must be mounted in series on an irreversible servo-control unit.

To yaw the aircraft to the right:

A) the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left.
B) the left rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left.
C) the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the left.
D) the right rudder pedal is pushed forward and the rudder moves to the right.

The purpose of pulley wheels in cable control systems is:

A) to prevent the cable from slackening.

B) to ensure smooth operation of the system.
C) to change the direction of the control cable.
D) to ensure the cable tensions are equal throughout the system.

The trim tab:

A) increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency.

B) increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
C) reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
D) reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency.

A Kruger flap is:

A) To give the aircraft better short field performance.

B A leading edge flap type which is formed by extending an area of the wing downwards and forward
) at the leading edge.
C) A trailing edge flap which is operating automatically.
D) An anti balanced type of flap with the purpose of making the controls smoother.

An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when:

A) the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.

B) the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.
C) there is a trimmable stabilizer.
D) the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.

If the control stick of an aircraft with properly rigged flight controls is moved rearward and to the left,
the right aileron will move:

A) up and the elevator will move up.

B) down and the elevator will move up.
C) down and the elevator will move down.
D) up and the elevator will move down.

If the control stick of an aircraft is moved forward to the right, the left aileron will move:

A) Down, and the elevator will move up.

B) Down, and the elevator will move down.
C) Up, and the elevator will move up.
D) Up, and the elevator will move down.

On an aeroplane, spoilers are:

A) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.

B) upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.
C) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or asymmetrical.
D) lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.

In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers...

A) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will extend and the left one
will retract.
B) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will retract and the left one
will extend.
C) The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will extend and the left one
will retract.
D) The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will retract and the left one
will extend.

Control surface flutter is minimised by:

A) changing the wings before they reach their critical life.

B) reducing the moment of the critical engine.
C) mass balance of the control surfaces.
D) aerodynamic balance of the control cables.

A servo tab moves?

A) Opposite of the control surface to which it is hinged.

B) In the same direction of the control surface to which it's hinged.
C) According to he airflow that surrounds it.
D) Parallel to the control surface to which it is hinged.
" Feel" units are fitted when:

A) Servo tabs are fitted to the aircraft.

B) Spring tabs are fitted to the control system.
C) Powered controls are fitted to the aircraft.
D) Power assisted controls are fitted to the aircraft.

The purpose of the fairleads in a cable control system is to:

A) to guide the cables on to the pulley wheels.

B) to keep the cable straight and clear of structure.
C) to attach the cables to chain drives.
D) alter the angle of deflection of the cables.

With which system is differential control associated?

A) Aileron system.
B) Rudder system.
C) Trim system.
D) Elevator system.

Trailing edge flaps:

A) Reduce lift at a lower AOA

B) Increase lift at a lower AOA
C) Increase lift at a higher AOA
D) Reduce lift at a higher AOA

If an artificial feel unit is fitted, it would be connected:

A) close to the control column.

B) in series with the primary controls.
C) to the secondary flight controls.
D) in parallel with the primary controls.

The control surface that rotates the aircraft about its longitudinal axis is/are the:

A) Flaps.
B) Rudder.
C) Ailerons.
D) Elevator.

HYDRAULICS

Hydraulic fluid is considered to be:

A) compressible inside it's rated operating temperature range only.

B) compressible at high temperatures only.
C) compressible.
D) incompressible.

Slow, sluggish operation of a hydraulic system is:

A) an indication of water in the hydraulic system.

B) caused by a blocked high pressure filter element.
C) low accumulator charge pressure causing rapid system pressure fluctuations.
D) an indication of air in the system and it requires bleeding.

A circuit utilising a constant volume pump would also require:

A) a hand pump.
B) an automatic cut out and accumulator.
C) an automatic cut out.
D) a relief valve.

A pressure maintaining or priority valve:

A) enables ground operation of services when the engines are off.

B) is used to increase pressure in the sys.
C) is used to control pressure to services requiring less than system pressure.
D) is used to ensure available pressure is directed to essential services.

When a variable volume pump is stationary:

A) the aircraft engines are unserviceable.

B) it is at maximum stroke.
C) it is at minimum stroke.
D) the stroke does not alter.
If one uses the incorrect fluid in a hydraulic system:

A) the hydraulic system will function properly.

B) damage to the seals could result.
C) inspection intervals will decrease.
D) corrosion problems could arise in all affected system components.

In a modern airliner what is hydraulic fluid used?

A) Synthetic.
B) Mineral/alcohol.
C) Mineral.
D) Vegetable.

DTD 585 (MIL-H 5606) is coloured:

A) green.
B) purple.
C) blue.
D) red.
A shuttle valve is used for:

A) preventing fluid loss from a leaking jack.

B) changeover from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure.
C) maintaining fluid pressure when the emergency system fails.
D) selecting the direction of fluid flow to a jack (e.g.: flaps in or out.)

A constant pressure hydraulic pump is controlled by:

A) a control piston which adjusts the swash plate angle.

B) maintaining engine RPM.
C) an automatic cut-out valve in combination with an accumulator.
D) a swash plate that senses fluid temperature.

Hydraulic fluids:

A) Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.
B) Do not require special care.
C) Are irritating to eyes and skin.
D) Cause high fire risk.

The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would lead to:

A) system failure from leaks and blocked filters, high temp and possible corrosion.
B) high operating fluid temperature.
C) normal operation.
D) seal damage and jack corrosion.

A 100lb force is applied to each of two unconnected actuators. The area of one is 2 inch2 and the area
of the other is 4 inch2:

A The pressure inside the small actuator will be 50 psi and the pressure inside the large one will be
) 25 psi.
B) The pressure inside the both actuators will be 200lbf.
C) The pressure inside the small actuator will be 200 psi and the pressure inside the large one will be
400 psi.
D) The pressure inside the both actuators will be 200psi

Hydraulic fluids used in systems of modern airliners are:

A) Phosphate ester base fluids.

B) Water base fluids.
C) Mineral base fluids.
D) Vegetable base fluids.

When air is found in a hydraulic system:

A) expect services to operate faster.

B) have the air bled from the system.
C) ignore it, it has no effect.
D) allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself.
In a hydraulic system fitted with a constant volume pump, when maximum system pressure is
reached:

A) the pump maintains a small leak rate through the pump, whilst in the off load position.
B) an idling circuit is created via the reservoir.
C) the pump is disengaged by a pressure operated clutch.
D) the pump off loads completely.

If the system pressure is 3,000 psi the force provided by a 4 square inch jack compared to the force
provided by a 2 square inch area jack will be:

A) 6,000 Ib greater.
B) the same.
C) 6,000 lb less.
D) 3,000 lb in total.

The function of the selector valve is to:

A) communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator.

B) automatically activate the hydraulic system.
C) select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure.
D) discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high.

The purpose of pressurising some hydraulic reservoirs is to:

A) provide a positive feed to the main pump

B) provide emergency pressure if the pump should fail
C) prevent cavitation at the pressure filter
D) provide a positive pressure to the return line

In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is precharged to 1200 psi. An electrically driven

hydraulic pump is started and provides a system pressure of 3000 psi. The hydraulic pressure gauge
which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, reads:

A) 1800 psi
B) 4200 psi
C) 1200 psi
D) 3000 psi

In a closed cylinder filled with fluid, pressure is:

A) the same in all directions on all surfaces.

B) higher on the piston than on the cylinder walls.
C) higher on the cylinder walls than on the piston.
D) inversely proportional to cylinder volume.

A hydraulic fuse is fitted in a hydraulic system, to prevent excessive fluid loss in the event of a leak:

A) in the reservoir.
B) downstream of the fuse.
C) upstream of the fuse.
D) anywhere in the system.
Assume that piston A has an area of 2 cm 2 and Piston B has an area of 10 cm2. If piston A is
depressed 5cm (input stroke), what will be the corresponding upward movement of piston B?

A) 5 cm

B) 0.5 cm

C) 1 cm

D) 10 cm

Hand pumps are usually fitted to aircraft systems to:

A) Maintain the level of fluid in the reservoir.

B) Ensure that the gas charge in the accumulator remains at the correct value.
C) Provide a ground service facility and for emergency use.
D) Allow the normal operation of in-flight services.

The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:

A) small pressure and large flow.

B) high pressure and large flow.
C) small pressure and small flow.
D) high pressure and small flow.
Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators be installed?

A) In the reservoirs.
B) At the pumps.
C) At actuators.
D) At the coolers.

The purpose of a shuttle valve is to:

A) Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems.

B) Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system pressure.
C) Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure.
D) Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump.

A restrictor valve in a hydraulic system is fitted in the:

A) undercarriage down line and the flap up line.

B) undercarriage up line and the flap down line.
C) EDP.
D) supply to the undercarriage retraction actuator.

In an aircraft hydraulic system it is permitted to use:

 A) Any oil that is available.
B) Any oil of the same specific gravity.
C) Any oil of the same colour.
D) Only an oil specified for use in that system.

A hydraulic fluid should possess:

A) A high viscosity at all ambient temperatures.

B) A low viscosity at all ambient temperatures.
C) A low flash point and should remain free flowing.
D) A degree of compressibility with no increase in viscosity at high temperatures.

An Automatic Cut Out Valve is installed in a hydraulic system:

A) to provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is full

B) before the electrically driven pump
C) to prevent excessive pump temperatures
D) before the engine driven pump

An Automatic Cut Out Valve is installed in a hydraulic system:

A) to provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is full

B) before the electrically driven pump
C) to prevent excessive pump temperatures
D) before the engine driven pump

If hydraulic system pressure is 3000 psi and the piston strokes of two actuators are equal, the
pressure on a 4 inch sq. jack compared to the pressure on a 1 inch sq. jack will be:

A) the same.
B) half as much.
C) twice as much.
D) four times as much.

Where in the hydraulic system are the overheat indicators?

A) At the pumps.
B) At the reservoirs.
C) At the coolers.
D) At the using units.

An automatic cut-out valve is used in a:

A) Both of these
B) Constant pressure system
C) Fixed volume pressure control system
D) Neither of these

What is the purpose of a pressure switch in a hydraulic supply system?

A) to operate a warning light in the event of system pressure failure.
B) to switch off the pump when maximum pressure is reached.
C) to operate the pressure gauge.
D) to prevent excess pressure build-up in the system.

The indication of an internal leak in a hydraulic system will be:

A) excessive system pressure.

B) a fall in reservoir fluid level.
C) a rise in reservoir fluid level.
D) a rise in fluid temperature.

When topping up a system with fluid, the correct type can be recognised by:

A) its specific pressure capacity.

B) its smell.
C) its colour.
D) its specific gravity.

The specification of hydraulic fluids (mineral, vegetable or ester based) is:

A) generally distinguishable by colour only if they are from the same manufacturer.
B) not generally distinguishable by colour.
C) always distinguishable by taste and smell.
D) generally distinguishable by colour.

To prevent leakage of a mineral based fluid in two directions which seal is used?

A) a butyl '0' seal.

B) a butyl chevron seal.
C) a natural 'U' seal.
D) a synthetic '0' seal.

In a simple hydraulic system a pressure relief valve is fitted to:

A) The vent side of the system.

B) The return side of the system.
C) The suction side of the system.
D) The pressure side of the system.

Prevention of damage to components in the closed part of a hydraulic system due to heat expansion:

A) Is achieved by the use of expansion joints in the pipelines.

B) Is achieved by pressurising the reservoir.
C) Is achieved by using a pressure release valve.
D) Is achieved by using a thermal relief valve.

An accumulator air charge is 1000 psi. When the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1800 psi, the
accumulator gauge will read:
 A) 800 psi.
B) 1800 psi.
C) 2800 psi.
D) 1000 psi.

In a hydraulic system the master cylinders inner diameter is 10 mm2, and the actuator cylinders inner
diameter is 100 mm2. If you press the master-cylinder 2 cm by using a 100 N force, the actuator
cylinder will move:

A) 2 cm and produce a force of 100 N

B) 1 mm and produce a force of 500 N
C) 2 mm and produce a force of 100 N
D) 2 mm and produce a force of 1000 N

In an enclosed system pressure is felt:

A) the same at both ends between the piston and the cylinder head.
B) more at the piston head than the rest of the cylinder.
C) more at the cylinder end than the piston head.
D) more when the piston is moving than when it is stationary.

A restrictor valve operates to:

A) controls the rate of movement of a service.

B) restrict the number of services available.
C) controls the rate of pressure build up in the system.
D) controls the distance an actuator moves
A restrictor valve in a hydraulic system:

A) restricts the maximum pressure in the system.

B) controls the rate of movement of a service.
C) controls the rate of build-up of pressure in the system.
D) controls the distance the jack moves.

In a modern hydraulic system, " hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their function is:

A) To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution.

B) To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system.
C) To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line.
D) To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without further
damage to the system.

A ... valve is used where two different values of pressure are required in a system.

A) Pressure release.
B) Restrictor.
C) Pressure reducing.
D) Pressure relief.

An accumulator has a gas charge pressure of 800 psi and the aircraft system has a residual hydraulic
pressure of 600 psi. The accumulator gas gauge should read:
 A) 200 psi.
B) 1400 psi.
C) 600 psi.
D) 800 psi.

The colour of hydraulic fluid MIL-H-5606 is:

A) blue.
B) red.
C) green.
D) purple.

The purpose of a pressure maintaining valve is to:

A) ensure essential services operate in an emergency.

B) maintain pressure to the hydraulic reservoir.
C) maintain system pressure at all times.
D) give priority to one system over another.

The main reasons for using pressurised hydraulic reservoirs on jet transport aircraft is/are:

A) To compress the hydraulic fluids.

B) To maintain a minimum system pressure in case of hydraulic pump failure and enabling the pilot to
lower flaps and gear with the help of this reservoir pressure.
C) To assure that an adequate supply of fluid free from foaming always is present at the pump inlet.
D) To increase the output pressure of the system.
Skydrol 7000 is... A ... in colour, requires a...B... seal and is often used because...C...

A) A yellow B Butyl-rubber C has better fire retardant properties.

B) A green B Butyl-rubber C has better fire retardant properties.
C) A straw B Teflon C has better fire retardant properties.
D) A green B Teflon C it is cheap and easily produced.

For calculation purposes, hydraulic fluid is considered to be:

A) compressible at high temperatures only.

B) incompressible.
C) compressible.
D) compressible at low temperatures only.

The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked. They indicate that the reservoir is at the full
level. The system is then pressurised. Will the contents level:

A) remain at the same level.

B) fall to a position marked 'full accs charged'.
C) fall below the " full" mark.
D) rise above the " full" mark.

The hydraulic pressure gauge provides information regarding the pressure of:

A) the proportional pressure in the system.

B) the air and hydraulic fluid pressure in the system.
C) the air in the accumulator.
D) the hydraulic pressure in the system.

Hydraulic fluid should have which of the following properties?

A) High freezing point and low boiling point.

B) High flash point.
C) Low flash point.
D) Freezing point not lower than 0 degrees " C" .

When a hydraulic system is pressurised, the hydraulic quantity in the reservoir:

A) rises.
B) initially falls then rises.
C) falls.
D) remains at the same level.

What is the purpose of a flop tube, as fitted to a hydraulic reservoir?

A) to prevent total loss of fluid in the event of leakage in the main supply.
B) to compensate for changes in aircraft attitude.
C) to compensate for thermal expansion.
D) to pressurize the hydraulic reservoir.

Hydraulic pressure of 3000Pa is applied to an actuator, the piston area of which is 0.02m2 and the
same pressure is exerted on actuator whose area is 0.04m2:

A) both have the same force.

B) the smaller jack will exert a force of 60N and the larger 120N.
C) both jacks will move at the same speed.
D) the smaller jack will exert a force of 600N and the larger 1200N.

What colour is the hydraulic liquid in a modern jet airliner?

A) Purple.
B) Pink.
C) Red.
D) Yellow.

An airspace is provided above the fluid in a reservoir to:

A) Allow the fluid to boil at attitude.

B) Allow for jack ram displacement.
C) Allow for the carriage of extra fluid on a long haul flight.
D) Provide an emergency reserve of air should the accumulator fail.

The reason for the pressure accumulator in the hydraulic system is:
A) The accumulator compensates for fluid-volume variation due to changes in temperature.
B) It works as a backup fluid reservoir, which increases the capacity of the system.
C) The accumulator serves as an internal shock absorber for the hydraulic system.
D) It serves as a water reservoir that collects water from the hydraulic fluid.

Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:

1. thermal stability

2. low emulsifying characteristics

3. corrosion resistance

4. good resistance to combustion

5. high compressibility

6. high volatility

7. high viscosity

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 3, 4, 6
B) 2, 3, 4, 5
C) 1, 2, 5, 7
D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Restrictor valves are fitted:

A) to slow down the operation of a service in one direction.

B) to limit jack travel.
C) to slow down the rate of pressure build-up.
D) to limit pump rotation.
Emergency air bottle may be used for:

A) to charge the accumulators in an emergency.

B) an emergency power supply to raise the undercarriage.
C) an emergency power supply in the event of main system fluid pressure loss.
D) to compensate for a low fluid level in reservoir.

The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is:

A) vegetable oil
B) synthetic oil
C) water and glycol
D) mineral oil

The attached diagram illustrates a jack and selector valve in a typical hydraulic system. Assuming
hydraulic pressure throughout:

A) a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the jack will take place
B) since pressures are equal, the jack is free to move in response to external forces
C) the jack will move to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas
D) the jack will move to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas

A non return valve or check valve:

A) closes if inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure.

B) can only be fitted if provided with a by pass selector.
C) opens if inlet pressure equals outlet pressure.
D) closes if inlet pressure ceases.

The number of hydraulic reservoirs in aeroplanes certified under JAR 25 is:

A) 2.
B) equal to the number of hydraulic systems.
C) 1.
D) 3.

One hydraulic system can be pressurised by another hydraulic system without fluid mixing using a
hydraulic motor-pump device, also called...

A) RAT
B) PTU
C) APU
D) SEC

Hydraulic pressure of 3000psi is applied to a jack whose area is 2sq in. If the same pressure is applied
to a jack of 4sq in:

A) both jacks will move at the same speed.

B) both jacks exert the same force.
C) the smaller jack will exert a force of 6000lb, and the larger jack a force of 12000lb.
D) the smaller jack will exert a force of 50lb, and the larger a force of 25lb.

A constant pressure hydraulic pump is governed by:

A) an automatic cut out.

B) engine RPM.
C) a swash plate that senses the fluid temperature.
D) a control piston.

Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are:

A) blue.
B) purple.
C) red.
D) pink.
Hydraulic accumulators are normally charged to:

A) Half system pressure.

B) 75% of system pressure.
C) 1000 psi.
D) System pressure.

A variable displacement hydraulic pump on start up will always be at:

A) mid stroke.
B) maximum stroke.
C) a position decided by the fluid temperature.
D) minimum stroke.

Total number of hydraulic pumps in this hydraulic system (excluding the PTU pump) is:

A) 6
B) 5.
C) 3.
D) 2.

One of the functions of " automatic cut out valve" in a hydraulic supply system is to:

A) prevent hydraulic lock.

B) limit pump wear.
C) prevent hydraulic hammering.
D) maintain the fluid at a constant viscosity.

The purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is to:

A) allow the engineer to check that enough fluid is in the system.

B) provide a reservoir of pressure for emergency operations.
C) allow for jack movements, thermal expansion and small leaks.
D) pressurise the system.
For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is:

A the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the by-passes, and the fire
) shut-off valve.
B) the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to 210
kg/cm2).
C) the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all hydraulic
services but only those considered as essential.
D) the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a pneumatic
back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.

Cavitation in a hydraulic pump can be discovered by a loud irregular sound. What might be the reason
for a pump to cavitate?

A) There is not enough fluid in the reservoir and the pump picks up too much air.
B) Flaps, landing gear and the primary flight controls are operated at the same time.
C) The fluid is too hot due to frequent employment of the airplane hydraulically operated controls.
D) The pump has an excessive load.
The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a:

A) flow control valve

B) shutoff valve
C) check valve
D) distribution valve

High frequency vibration and hammering in a hydraulic system is:

A) caused by pipe diameter fluctuations.

B) caused by filter clogging.
C) normal and does not affect the system efficiency.
D) is detrimental to the system.

Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately:

A) 1000 psi
B) 3000 psi
C) 2000 psi
D) 4000 psi

A pressure maintaining valve:

A) provides a constant supply of fluid to the EDP inlet.

B) relieves excessive hydraulic system pressure.
C) maintains a supply of fluid to essential services following hydraulic system pressure drop.
D) maintains a supply of fluid to secondary services following hydraulic system pressure drop.

Thermal relief valves are set to:

A) the limiting temperature for the hydraulic fluid.

B) a higher pressure than the ACOV cut-out pressure.
C) the same pressure as the ACOV cut-out pressure.
D) the same pressure as the ACOV cut-in pressure.

In a hydraulic reservoir with a stack pipe fitted, the pipe line to the emergency pump is connected to:

A) the bottom of the reservoir.

B) the return.
C) the top of the stack pipe.
D) the base of the stack pipe

The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to:

A) all of the above.

B) relieve excess pressure.
C) store fluid under pressure.
D) remove air from the system

The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:

 A) by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.
B) by an auxiliary system.
C) by the air conditioning system.
D) in flight only.

The presence of a film of oil on the ram of a hydraulic jack, or actuator, when checked prior to flight:

A) is to prevent ice forming on the ram.

B) is to prevent corrosion taking place.
C) is for lubrication purposes.
D) is an indication of a leaking seal.

A hand pump will draw its supply from:

A) through the U tube to prevent siphoning.

B) the bottom of the reservoir.
C) above the normal level.
D) the stack pipe.

Different diameter actuators supplied with the same pressure at same rate:

A) exert different forces.

B) will move at different speeds.
C) exert the same force.
D) will move at the same speed.

What is the purpose of a one way restrictor valve?

A) To prevent cavitation in the up line of the undercarriage circuit when the undercarriage is selected
down.
B To prevent cavitation in the down line of the undercarriage circuit when the undercarriage is
) selected down.
C) To prevent cavitation in the down line of the undercarriage circuit when the undercarriage is
selected up.
D) To prevent cavitation in the up line of the undercarriage circuit when the undercarriage is selected
up.

The purpose of a reservoir is:

A) to provide a housing for the instrument transmitters.

B) to enable the contents to be checked.
C) to provide a housing for the main system pumps and so obviate the need for backing pumps.
D) to allow for fluid displacements, small leaks, thermal expansion and contents monitoring.

In a hydraulic system utilising a constant delivery pump, essential components are:

A) An accumulator and automatic cut-out valve.

B) A relay valve and jettison valve.
C) A relay valve and accumulator.
D) An accumulator and shuttle valve.
A HYDRAULIC FUSE will:

A) Direct the hydraulic fluid to the proper actuator according to the power pack and sequence valve
B) Activate the actuators after the pilot has used the emergency hand pump
C) In case of a too high pressure in the system, open up and relieve the pressure by dumping the
fluid overboard or back to the reservoir
D) Detect a sufficient pressure drop across itself, or a specified volume of fluid passing through itself,
and then shut off the flow of fluid to prevent the system of emptying itself.

Skydrol 7000 is..(i).. in colour, requires a..(ii).. seal and is often used because..(iii)..

A) green; (ii) Butyl-rubber; (iii) has better fire retardant properties.

B) straw; (ii) Teflon; (iii) has better fire retardant properties.
C) yellow; (ii) Butyl-rubber; (iii) has better fire retardant properties.
D) green; (ii) Teflon; (iii) it is cheap and easily produced.

With a one way check valve (NRV):

A) flow stops when input pressure is greater than output pressure.

B) flow starts when input pressure is less than output pressure.
C) flow stops when the thermal relief valve offloads the hand pump.
D) flow stops when input pressure is less than output pressure.

A hydraulic non-return valve:

A) can only be fitted if provided with a hydraulic by-pass selector.

B) closes if inlet hydraulic pressure drops well below outlet pressure.
C) opens if inlet hydraulic pressure equals outlet hydraulic pressure.
D) closes if inlet hydraulic pressure exceeds outlet hydraulic pressure.

In a hydraulic system, a thermal relief valve is fitted to:

A) prevent convection currents.

B) prevent a leak back of pressure.
C) relieve excess pressure.
D) prevent excess temperature.

The fluid level in the reservoir of the system fitted with an accumulator:

A) will be unaffected by system pressurisation.

B) will fail when the system is depressurised.
C) will fall when the system is pressurised.
D) will rise when the system is pressurised.

A milky appearance at the sight glass of a hydraulic reservoir is an indication of:

A) excessive fluid pressure.

B) pressure bleeding is occurring.
C) water contamination.
D) air in the system fluid.
A hydraulic fuse is used:

A) In the event of a hydraulic leak down stream, the fuse prevents total fluid loss.
B) As protection for an electrically operated hydraulic pump.
C) To operate a hydraulic pump overheat warning light.
D) In the event of a hydraulic leak upstream, to control the leak rate.

Cleanliness of the hydraulic fluid during use is assured by:

A) a pressure filter, a case drain filter and a return filter.

B) a contamination detection valve which opens when the fluid is contaminated.
C) a pressure filter.
D) a return filter.

What type of hydraulic seal will seal in one direction only?

A) 'O' section.
B) chevron.
C) square section.
D) diamond section.

A hydraulic lock is said to exist when there is:

A) no flow, jacks are stationary.

B) flow, but no movement.
C) no flow, but the jacks continues to move under gravity or other external forces.
D) a constant return flow to the hydraulic reservoir.

Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a hydraulic reservoir will:

A) always remain the same

B) fluctuate with jack displacement and accumulator pressure.
C) initially increase with system pressurization
D) increase as ambient temperature decreases

A shuttle valve:

A) allows two supply sources to operate one unit.

B) acts as a non-return valve.
C) is used to replace NRVs.
D) allows one source to operate two units.

If hydraulic system pressure is 3000 psi and the piston strokes of two hydraulic actuators are equal,
the work done by a 4 inch sq. actuator compared with the work done by a 1 inch sq. actuator will be:

A) the same.
B) twice as much.
C) four times higher.
D) half as much.
In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the hydraulic system is used:

A) as a pressure relief valve.

B) for dampening pressure surges in the system.
C) for fluid storage.
D) for pressure storage.

The arrow on a non-return valve points:

A) in the direction of flow.

B) away from the smaller connection.
C) against the direction of flow.
D) towards the larger connection.

An automatic cut-out valve will:

A) limit pump wear.

B) prevent foaming.
C) prevent hydraulic lock.
D) raise fluid boiling point.

Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised in order to:

A) maintain a constant fluid level.

B) provide a reserve of stored energy.
C) prevent over pressurisation.
D) minimise the possibility of pump cavitation.

Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are generally:

A) hydraulically operated.
B) single acting.
C) double acting.
D) rotary.

When excess pressure is relieved by the pressure relief valve it is:

A) returned to the inlet side of the actuator.

B) returned to the inlet side of the pump.
C) returned to the reservoir return line.
D) vented overboard.

Pascal s law states that:

A) applied force acts equally in all directions.

B) pressure is inversely proportional to load.
C) oxygen can be used to charge the accumulators.
D) liquid is compressible.

Hydraulic pressure in a closed centre system:

 A) varies in direct proportion to system demands.
B) is greater in pipes of large diameters.
C) is greater in pipes of small diameters.
D) increases when a service selection is made.

The pressure filter in a hydraulic system:

A) filters the fluid returning to the tank.

B) can be by passed when maximum flow is required.
C) is fitted down stream of the pump.
D) clears the fluid as it leaves the reservoir.

To allow for failure of the normal method of system pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often
incorporates:

A) auxiliary hydraulic motors.

B) a high pressure relief valve.
C) an accumulator.
D) a stand-by hydraulic pump.

What is the purpose of a " relief valve" in the hydraulic system?

A) To " even out" the pressure in the system.

B) Make sure that the pressure does not exceed the max. permitted pressure in the system.
C) Make sure that the emergency hand pump will produce enough pressure when used.
D) Make sure that the pressure in the system exceeds a certain minimum pressure.

Case drain filters are:

A) to enable pump lubricating fluid to be used to monitor pump condition.

B) fitted to prevent debris from the reservoir reaching the system.
C) fitted in the reservoir outlet.
D) designed to allow hydraulic pump lubricating fluid to drain to atmosphere.

A hydraulic reservoir is installed in a hydraulic system primarily:

A) to maintain fluid between a jack and the accumulator.

B) to provide a volume of fluid to indicate system temperature.
C) to compensate for leaks and expansion, and to serve as a storage tank.
D) to allow a space for extra spare fluid to be stored.

A hydraulic circuit utilising a constant volume pump would also require:

A) an automatic cut-out valve and an accumulator.

B) an automatic cut-out valve.
C) a hand pump.
D) a pressure relief valve.
Should the incorrect hydraulic fluid be used in a system:

A) seal damage will result.

B) any leaks will cause loss of pressure.
C) corrosion will be caused in the jacks.
D) there will be no effect.

Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurised by:

A) engine bleed air from turbine engine.

B) separate helium gas system.
C) air from the air conditioning system.
D) ram air in flight only.

An automatic cut-out valve is installed in some hydraulic systems to:

A) provide an idling circuit when a selection is made.

B) ensure that the pump is always on load.
C) provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is fully loaded.
D) extend the life of the accumulator.

In an aircraft hydraulic system, it is permissible to use:

A) any fluid of the same specific gravity.

B) any hydraulic fluid available.
C) any fluid with equivalent pressure capacity.
D) only the specified fluid.

The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for:

A) nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.

B) flap extension only.
C) flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power.
D) undercarriage selection and automatic brake system.

In an accumulator of the hydraulic system, a separator:

A) removes the dissolved gases from the fluid.

B) maintains the fluid level in the reservoir.
C) reduces the size of the accumulator.
D) isolates the gas from the fluid.

Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause:

A) an increased fluid pressure

B) fluid loss
C) a decreased fluid temperature
D) an increased fluid temperature

When there is no flow in the tubes of a hydraulic system, the hydraulic pressure:
 A) is equal in all the tubes.
B) is lower in the smaller tubes.
C) is higher in the smaller tubes.
D) is lower in the longer tubes.

In a hydraulic system, a selector valve is used to:

A) select between normal and emergency systems.

B) provide a direct air supply back to the reservoir to pressurise the fluid.
C) raise and lower the undercarriage.
D) act as a pressure relief valve.

In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve:

A) allows two units to be operated by one pressure source.

B) regulates pump delivery pressure.
C) allows two possible sources of pressure to operate one unit.
D) is a self-lapping non-return valve.

The colour of fluid DTD 585 is:

A) Red.
B) Green.
C) Purple.
D) Blue.

A variable displacement type hydraulic pump:

A) Moves no fluid when engine runs on idle.

B) Moves a constant flow of fluid.
C) Delivers almost constant pressure independent on system resistance.
D) Moves fluid quantity dependent on the system demand.

Red mineral hydraulic fluid (DTD 585) requires:

A) fibre seals.
B) synthetic rubber seals.
C) natural rubber seals.
D) mineral seals.

A floating separator in a hydraulic system is used to:

A) separate pressurising air and fluid in the reservoir.

B) separate gas and fluid in the accumulator.
C) separate accumulator air from the emergency air bottle.
D) measure the hydraulic reservoir contents.

An ACOV will:

A) ensure the pump is always on load.

B) provide an idling circuit when a selection is made.
C) extend the life of the accumulator.
D) provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is fully charged.

An accumulator is precharged with nitrogen to a pressure of 500 lb.in-2. The hydraulic system is then
pressurised to 1500 lb.in-2. The accumulator gauge will now read:

A) 500 lb.in-2.
B) 1500 lb.in-2.
C) 100 lb.in-2.
D) 2500 lb.in-2.

If it is necessary to refill the hydraulic system and the approved hydraulic fluid is not available, you
may:

A) not use any fluid other than the approved type from a clean container.
B) use any hydraulic fluid.
C) use hydraulic fluid from another aircraft provided that this fluid is filtered first.
D) drain hydraulic fluid from another aircraft and use it.

The oil reservoir in a hydraulic system has the purpose to serve as:

A all of the above alternatives are correct.

)
B) the compartment that stores the fluid.
C) an expansion chamber to provide a space for the fluid when its volume increases due to a high
temperature.
D) a point at which the fluid can purge itself of air.

A hydraulic restrictor valve:

A) is used to limit actuator travel.

B) slows down the build up of hydraulic system pressure.
C) reduces hydraulic system pressure when the pressure is too high.
D) slows down the rate of movement of the actuators and other hydraulic services.

A complex hydraulic system may pressurize the oil reservoir by means of bleed air from the engines,
this is:

A) To secure reliable oil supply to the hydraulic pumps.

B) In case of oil leakage the air might serve as a backup medium.
C) To avoid air from developing in the system.
D) To increase the hydraulic pressure in the system and thereby alter its performance.

One reason for fitting an accumulator in a hydraulic system is to:

A) relieve excess pressure.

B) provide a reservoir of fluid.
C) minimise the possibility of pump cavitation.
D) absorb pressure surges.
In order to control the rate of movement of a service in a hydraulic system a... valve is used.

A) modulating
B) shuttle
C) debooster
D) restrictor

In the case of a failure of a cut-out valve:

A) a full flow relief valve is not required.

B) the terminal pressure will be controlled by adjusting the pump RPM.
C) a full flow relief valve is fitted upstream of it.
D) a full flow relief valve is fitted down stream of it.

A modern aeroplane is equipped with warning lights in the cockpit to monitor the hydraulic system.
What does the illumination of the hydraulic oil temperature light indicate?

A) High fluid temperature in the main pressure line.

B) Overheated hydraulic fluid in one of the pump return lines.
C) Mechanical failure of one engine driven pump.
D) Overheated fluid in either the main or the emergency reservoir.

When air is known to be present in the hydraulic system you should:

A) ignore it because normal operation will remove it.

B) have the air bled from the system.
C) allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself.
D) expect services to operate faster.

AIR DRIVEN SYSTEMS (PISTON ENGINES ONLY)

An engine driven air conditioning blower system will normally include in addition to the blower:

A) a mass flow controller, spill valves, choke heat valve, silencer.

B) spill valves, silencer.
C) a choke heat valve, silencer.
D) a mass flow controller, choke heat valve, silencer.

A combustion heater system is normally supplied from?

A) An inflammable mixture for this particular purpose.

B) Oil from the hydraulic system.
C) An inflammable gas from a pressurised tank.
D) Fuel from the aircraft fuel system.

Cooling in a vapour cycle cooler is achieved by converting:

A) vapour into liquid.

B) gas into liquid.
C) vapour into gas.
 D) liquid into vapour.

A combustion heater works on the principle of:

A) passing ram air over the engine exhaust system to the cabin via a plenum chamber.
B) fuel choke differential.
C) tapping hot gases from the engine exhaust system and passing them through a heat exchanger.
D) passing ram air over an active fuel burning heater and then to the cabin.

A typical refrigerant used in a vapour cycle cooling system is:

A) CO.
B) CO2.
C) Freon.
D) Ozone.

AIR DRIVEN SYSTEMS (TURBINE ENGINE)

An aircraft climbs from sea level to 16,000 ft at 1,000ft per min, the cabin pressurisation is set to
climb at 500ft per min to a cabin altitude of 8,000ft. The time taken for the cabin to reach 8,000ft is:

A) three times the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft.

B) twice the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft.
C) half the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft.
D) the same time as it takes the aircraft to reach 16,000ft.

In the event of failure in one of the cabin air supplies, loss of cabin pressure is prevented by:

A) an automatic stand-by air supply.

B) providing an alternative air supply.
C) the NRVs in the delivery duct opening.
D) the NRVs in the delivery duct closing.

The pack cooling fan provides:

A) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise.
B) cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and ground operation.
C) air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU).
D) cooling air to the pre-cooler.

When the destination field elevation is set on the pressurisation control system:

A) the outflow valves are driven to the full open position automatically to equalise cabin and outside
air pressure.
B the barometric controller adjusts cabin pressure to approximately 0.1psi above ambient pressure
) (at destination).
C) the barometric controller adjusts cabin pressure to approximately 0.1psi below ambient pressure
(at destination).
D) the outflow valves are driven to the full closed position to prevent contaminants entering the cabin
through the outflow valves.

If pressure is manually controlled:

A) the climb rate would be maintained automatically.

B) an extra member is required to monitor system operation.
C) care should be taken to ensure climb/descent rates are safe.
D) climb rate could not be maintained

If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is limited by the pressurized cabin, this limitation is
due to the maximum:

A) Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.

B) Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
C) Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
D) Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.

A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by:

A) expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.

B) a primary and secondary heat exchanger.
C) directing compressed air into a heat exchanger.
D) by-passing the air conditioning heating system.

What is the purpose of the duct relief valve:

A) to prevent damage to the ducts.

B) to relieve excess pressure to compressor return line.
C) to protect the undercarriage bay.
D) to ensure the compressor pressure is regulated.

In the cruise at 30,000ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4,000ft to 6,000ft:

A) cabin differential will increase.

B) cabin differential will decrease.
C) nil.
D) cabin differential will not be affected.

If pressurisation air supply comes from the compressor of the engine, an oil leak from the compressor
bearings will:

A) contaminate the air.

B) not affect the air as it is vented overboard.
C) not contaminate the air.
D) not affect the quality of the air as it is automatically filtered.

High pressure pneumatic services would typically be:

A landing gear and flap extension and retraction, main wheel brakes, piston engine radiator air
) shutter control.
B) landing gear extension and retraction, flap extension and retraction.
C) landing gear emergency lowering only.
D) wheel brakes only.

For the pressurisation system, bleed air is used to drive the turbine of an air cycle machine in order
to:

A) decrease the air velocity.

B) drive the pressurisation system.
C) decrease the bleed air temperature.
D) decrease the bleed air pressure.

Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to exceed:

A) 10.000 ft
B) 4.000 ft
C) 6.000 ft
D) 8.000 ft

In the case of a thermal de-icing system over temperature, this indicated by:

A) temperature gauges.
B) yellow flags.
C) a buzzer.
D) warning lights.

The purpose of a ditching control is to:

A) direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags.

B) open the outflow valve(s).
C) close the outflow valve(s).
D) achieve rapid depressurisation.

Normal cabin ventilation and pressurisation is achieved by a:

A) pressure controller / discharge valve combination

B) pressure controller / inlet valve combination
C) modulating bleed air valve / discharge valve combination
D) modulating bleed air valve / pressure controller

How is the (charge) air cooled in a bootstrap (turbo-compressor) system?

A) Via an air cooled radiator.

B) By expanding over turbine.
C) By passing it through the fuel heater.
D) By expanding over turbine driving compressor.

The tubes in the de-ice boots are usually inflated alternately. Why?
A) Because alternate inflation of de-ice boot tubes keeps disturbance of the airflow to minimum
B) Because alternate inflation of de-ice boot tubes relieves the strain on the attack point
C) Because alternate inflation of de-ice boot tubes does not affect the balance of the aircraft
D) Because alternate inflation of de-ice boot tubes relieves the load on the airpump

A thermal wing de-icing system:

A) feeds the engine exhaust through the leading edge ducts only.
B) relies on heat generated by the kinetic heating effect of the airflow.
C) feeds hot air along the complete upper wing surface.
D) can use air taken from the engine compressor.

The airflow from the air conditioning packs to the cabin is:

A) at a variable rate depending on the cruising altitude

B) regulated by the air mix valves depending on the cabin pressure differential
C) at a constant rate regardless of altitude
D) at a variable rate depending on the cabin altitude

The primary heat exchanger in a turbo-compressor cooling system:

A) cools the bleed air before it enters the passenger cabin

B) pre-cools bleed air before it enters the turbine
C) heats the cold air before it enters the passenger cabin
D) pre-cools bleed air before it enters the compressor

The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern turboprop aeroplanes is:

A) Electrical heating.
B) Pneumatic boots.
C) Fluid de-icing.
D) Thermal anti-icing.

In a turbo cooler system, the cooling air is:

A) cabin air.
B) compressor air.
C) engine by-pass air.
D) ram air.

In level pressurised flight, the outflow valve:

A) alternates between fully open and closed.

B) open to increase mass flow from the packs.
C) is closed.
D) is partially open and regulates cabin pressure.

Which of the following statements are correct?

A) The water extractor is upstream of the air cooling unit to prevent moisture freezing in the system.
B) Water extractor units are only used at very high altitudes.
C) Water extracted by the de-humidifier unit is used by the humidifier to give the required cabin
humidity.
D) The humidifier employs water from the aircraft domestic supply, which is passed through a venturi
to increase relative humidity.

Assuming cabin differential pressure has reached the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight
altitude and air conditioning system setting are maintained:

A) the mass air flow through the cabin is constant.

B) the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
C) the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.
D) the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.

If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure the:

A) outflow valve open completely.

B) negative pressure relief valve will close
C) negative pressure relief valve will open.
D) air cycle machine will stop.

In which sequence does the refrigerant of a vapour cycle refrigeration system pass through the
different components?

A) compressor, evaporator, expansion valve, condenser.

B) compressor, condenser, evaporator, expansion valve.
C) compressor, condenser, expansion valve, evaporator.
D) condenser, evaporator, reservoir, expansion valve.

What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system?

A) Cooling of the APU compartment

B) Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground operation
C) Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight
D) Supplying the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air

With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which afford protection against the formation of ice,
the only correct statement is:

A) The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical device are arranged perpendicular to the
leading edges.
B) The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern aircraft as it is inexpensive and easy to
maintain.
C) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an anti-icing device.
D) The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a de-icing device.

Air for conditioning and pressurisation is taken from:

A) the engine compressor or cabin compressor.

B) the engine compressor or ram air turbine.
C) a ram air turbine.
D) the engine turbine or cabin compressor.
The term " Bootstrap" , when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system,
refers to the:

A) charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.

B) source of the charge air.
C) means by which pressurisation is controlled.
D) cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.

The disadvantage of a HP pneumatic system when compared to a comparable hydraulic system would
be:

A) air leaks are difficult to locate

B) higher maintenance costs
C) all of the above
D) lacks provisions for standby operation

If pressurisation is selected before take-off the cabin rate of change indicator indicates:

A) zero.
B) 14,7 psi.
C) a rate of descent.
D) a rate of climb.

In a Bleed Air (Bootstrap) air conditioning system, where is the water extractor located?

A) upstream of the cold air unit compressor.

B) downstream of the cold air unit compressor.
C) upstream of the cold air unit turbine.
D) downstream of the cold air unit turbine

The term " cabin pressure" applies when an aeroplane:

A) has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
B) has the means to maintain the cabin pressure at a higher level than the ambient pressure.
C) has the ability to maintain constant any cabin differential pressure.
D) is only pressurized in the area of the control cabin.

The picollo duct is part of the:

A) secondary structure of the wing.

B) bleed-air system.
C) slat track mechanism.
D) wing thermal anti-icing system

In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of change is normally controlled by:

A) the difference between the barometric pressure selected on the cabin pressure controller and
ambient barometric pressure
B) the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin pressure controller and the aeroplane
 altitude
C) a rate of change selector
D) the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin differential pressure

A cabin pressurisation system is often installed onboard turbine powered aircraft. If installed, it
normally has:

A) Two modes of operation.

B) Four modes of operation.
C) One mode of operation.
D) Three modes of operation.

A drop in temperature by a cold air unit is produced by:

A) expanding the hot air in a compressor, increasing pressure and driving the unit's turbine
B expanding the hot air in a turbine, reducing pressure and driving the unit's compressor
)
C) expanding the hot air in a turbine, reducing pressure and driving the unit's freon refrigeration unit
D) expanding the hot air in a compressor, increasing pressure and driving the unit's freon refrigeration
unit

In level pressurised flight does the outflow valve:

A) open to increase air conditioning.

B) adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally almost closed.
C) adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally partially open.
D) close.

The pneumatic system accumulator is useful:

A) to offset for the starting of some devices.

B) to eliminate the fluid pressure variations.
C) to eliminate the fluid flow variations.
D) in emergency cases.

A pressurisation system works by:

A) essentially constant input mass flow and variable output.

B) supplying hot gases from the engine exhaust unit to the mass flow control system.
C) essentially constant output mass flow and variable input.
D) does not start until an altitude of 8,000ft has been reached.

The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is located at the cooling unit:

A) outlet and uses a centrifugal process.

B) inlet and uses an evaporation process.
C) outlet and uses an evaporation process.
D) inlet and uses a centrifugal process.

The cabin altitude selector on the flight deck works in conjunction with:
 A) the cabin pressure control valve.
B) the inward/outward vent valve.
C) the cabin pressure discharge valve.
D) the cabin safety valve.

A typical MP pneumatic main system pressure would be:

A) 3,000 psi.
B) 400 psi.
C) 1,000 psi.
D) 3,500 psi.

Main cabin temperature is:

A) controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.

B) Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.
C) controlled by individual passenger.
D) not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.

In a bootstrap air cooling system the secondary heat exchanger:

A) further reduces temperature of the air supply from the primary heat exchanger.
B) raises the heat of the turbine inlet air to increase the pressure drop across the turbine.
C) removes heat from the compressor discharge air.
D) cools the turbine discharge air before it enters the cabin.

In an air conditioning system, a pack valve is used to:

A) connect the pneumatic source to the air cycle system inlet.

B) control the mass air flow.
C) prevent negative differential pressure.
D) bleed air from the engines.

Water collected by the water separator may be sprayed into the ram air duct. This has the effect of:

A) none of the above

B) increasing the efficiency of the heat exchanger(s) through condensation cooling
C) increasing the efficiency of the heat exchanger(s) through evaporation cooling
D) increasing the efficiency of the heat exchanger(s) through sublimation cooling

What is the purpose of the duct relief valve?

A) To prevent excess cabin temperature.

B) To protect the undercarriage bay.
C) To prevent damage to the pneumatic ducts.
D) To relieve excess pressure to compressor return line
Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing devices, one can
affirm that:

1. They prevent ice formation.

2. They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible.

3. A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.

4. There are more than ten cycles per second.

The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:

A) 2-3
B) 2 -4
C) 1-4
D) 1-3

In pressurised aircraft, temperature control is mainly achieved by:

A) adding heat to the bleed air.

B) varying cabin pressure.
C) extracting heat from bleed air.
D) adding cold ram air to the cabin.

The vapour cycle cooler works on the principle of changing:

A) liquid into vapour.

B) gas into liquid.
C) vapour into liquid.
D) vapour into gas.

Assume that during cruise flight with air-conditioning packs ON, the outflow valve(s) would close. The
result would be that:

A) the skin of the cabin would be overstressed

B) the air supply would automatically be stopped
C) the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure
D) the pressure differential would go to the maximum value

In a climatisation system, an air to air heat exchanger is provided to:

A) provide an emergency ram air supply.

B) increase the mass air flow.
C) increase the air supply pressure.
D) reduce the air supply temperature.

During normal descent, the discharge valve (outflow valve) position is:

A) at a position pre-set before take-off.

B) fully open.
C) partially open.
 D) closed until selected altitude is reached.

The main elements of a vapour cycle cooling system are?

A) reservoir, compressor, expansion valve, evaporator.

B) compressor, condenser, dryer, expansion valve, evaporator.
C) turbine, water separator, heat exchanger, compressor.
D) compressor, dryer filter, distribution nozzles.

The air-cycle cooling system produces cold air by:

A) Extracting heat energy across an expansion turbine.

B) Passing heated air through a compressor.
C) Passing air through cooling coils than contain a refrigerant.
D) Routing conditional air through the cooling fan

If the discharge or outflow valve closes:

A) the safety valve would limit the positive pressure difference.

B) the safety relief valve would limit the negative pressure difference.
C) the inward relief valve would assume control.
D) pressure will drop inside the cabin.

Most of the cabin pressurisation systems have two modes of operation:

A) The isobaric mode and the constant pressure differential mode.

B) The cabin mode and the external mode.
C) The differential mode and the pressure mode.
D) The differential pressure and the constant pressure mode.

If an aircraft is descending, what will happen to the cabin pressure differential?

A) it will remain constant.

B) it will remain constant until the aircraft reaches 8000 ft.
C) it will reduce.
D) it will increase.

When pressurising the cabin of an aircraft, the cabin pressure controller operates the:

A) outflow valve.
B) dump valves.
C) discharge valves.
D) differential valve.

During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even at this flight
level), the cabin outflow valves are:

A) Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.

B) fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.
C) Partially open.
D) At the pre-set position for take-off

Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressurisation ground test?

A) Continuously.
B) Occasionally.
C) No.
D) Yes.

The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. This is more important:

A) during descent
B) the same importance during climb and descent
C) during the climb
D) during the initial climb

If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:

A) increases
B) decreases
C) remains constant
D) may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is taken.

One advantage of a pneumatic system is:

A) the reservoirs used are of lighter construction.

B) air is considered as being virtually incompressible.
C) leaks can be easily detected.
D) no return lines or pipes are required.

An aircraft with pressurised cabin has maximum cabin altitude of 8000 feet, which equals 10.9 PSI.
Present flight altitude is 30.000 feet, which equals 4.36 PSI. Pressure at sea level equals 14.7 PSI.
Calculate the difference pressure that influence the cabin structure:

A) 10.34 psid.
B) 10.9 psid.
C) 4.36 psid.
D) 6.54 psid.

The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for:

A) propellers.
B) pitot tubes.
C) wings.
D) engine intakes.

A pressurisation circuit (normal operation) is designed so that the:

A) outflow valve operates before the safety valve opens.

B) outflow valve operates in combination with the safety valve.
C) safety valve operates when the system has stabilised.
D) outflow valve operates after the safety valve opens.

If the cabin pressure increases in level flight, the cabin VSI shows:

A) a positive rate of climb.

B) no change unless the aircraft climbs.
C) no change.
D) a negative rate of climb.

The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft is obtained from:

A) hot air coming from the engine's compressors.

B) hot air coming from the engine's turbines.
C) an electrical heater system
D) a fuel heater system

State the function of a heat exchanger:

A) Mixing ram air and cabin air.

B) Removing static charges from conductive fluids.
C) Assist the battery on a cold day (hot battery).
D) Cooling or heating of a fluid through convection and conduction, without mixing the fluids.

At max differential phase, the discharge valve is:

A) controlled manually by the pilot.

B) closed.
C) partly open.
D) open.

In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed via the:

A) compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
B) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit.
C) secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.
D) turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.

At maximum cabin differential pressure the:

A) discharge valve opens

B) negative pressure relief valve opens
C) engine bleed valves close
D) the outflow valve drives to fully closed position

On landing, the cabin pressure is equalized with atmospheric pressure by the operation of:

A) squat switches which open the outflow or discharge valves at touch down.
B) alighting gear down selection.
C) the alighting gear reaching the fully extended position.
D) squat switches which open the dump valves at touch down.

After take-off during a normal pressurised climb:

A) the cabin ROC is more than ambient ROC.

B) the differential pressure is constant.
C) cabin ROC is the same as the ambient ROC.
D) the cabin ROC is less than ambient ROC

The term " pressurisation cycle" means:

A) air discharged from the fuselage, above 15 psi.

B) air introduced into a fuselage under pressure only.
C) air introduced into a fuselage under pressure until the time the air is released.
D) the frequency in Hertz the pressure cycles from the roots blowers enter the fuselage.

To maintain a steady and constant airflow regardless of altitude or cabin pressure:

A) a duct relief valve is installed.

B) a thermodynamic relief valve is installed.
C) a flow controller is installed.
D) a thermostatic relief valve is installed

The boots of a pneumatic de-icing system are normally made of:

A) synthetic rubber.
B) neoprene rubber.
C) porous metal.
D) plastic.

Choke valves in a mechanically driven cabin air compressor provide extra heating by:

A) requiring higher compressor input pressure

B) requiring lower compressor input pressure
C) requiring lower compressor output pressure
D) requiring higher compressor output pressure

Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between:

A) cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL

B) actual cabin pressure and selected pressure
C) cockpit and passenger cabin
D) cabin pressure and ambient air pressure

With reference to a vapour cycle cooling system, which statement is correct:

A) All of the above

B) This system uses a refrigerant fluid in a closed circuit
C) Vapour cycle cooling systems have a greater cooling capacity than air cycle systems
D) This system requires mechanical energy for operation
In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primarily supplied by:

A) turbo compressors.
B) the APU.
C) ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
D) bleed air from the engines.

When would negative differential be exceeded?

A) During a ground pressure run.

B) Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs.
C) When changing to manual operation.
D) Rapid descent when aircraft descends below cabin altitude

If in flight a door warning light illuminates:

A) none of the above.

B a crew member should make a careful check of the door to make certain that the door locking bolts
) are correctly extended.
C) crew members must be extremely careful when checking an inward opening plug type door.
D) no action is required unless the warning is accompanied by a loss of cabin pressure.

What controls cabin pressurisation?

A) Inflow valve.
B) ECS pack mass flow controller.
C) Outflow valve.
D) Engine bleed valve.

In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for:

A) pressure
B) humidity
C) purity
D) temperature

A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated..

A) When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edges.

B) When entering areas with icing conditions.
C) Only at take-off and during approach.
D) When there is approximately 1,5 cm of ice on leading edges

A turbo-fan cold air unit will:

A) not affect the charge air pressure.

B) increase charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.
C) decrease charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.
D) cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air.
If in cruise at 30000ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4000ft to 6000ft:

A) cabin differential will not change

B) cabin differential will decrease
C) cabin differential will increase
D) none of the above - pressurization level can only be pre-selected on the ground before takeoff

Rate of change of cabin altitude is shown on a:

A) cabin altitude rate of change indicator.

B) altimeter.
C) aircraft vertical speed indicator (VSI).
D) pitot/static indicator.

Conditioned" air is air that has:

A) had any moisture removed from it.

B) been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure.
C) had the oxygen content reduced.
D) had the oxygen content increased.

Ditching Cocks are operated:

A) to direct pressure into flotation bags.

B) for rapid depressurisation.
C) automatically when the soluble plugs dissolve.
D) to shut all outflow valves.

The mass flow delivery from the engine driven mechanical compressors is controlled by:

A) spill valves.
B) engine speed variations.
C) choke valves.
D) automatic control devices.

Cabin altitude means the:

A) flight level the aircraft is flying at.

B) difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.
C) flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure.
D) cabin pressure expressed as altitude.

In a Bootstrap Bleed Air air-conditioning system, if the cabin temperature is reduced:

A) pressure at the outlet of the cold air unit will increase.

B) pressure at the cold air unit compressor inlet will increase.
C) the boot strap compressor rpm will increase.
D) the flow rate at the mass flow controller outlet will increase.
The pneumatic actuators are normally of the:

A) rotary type only.

B) linear and rotary type.
C) linear undamped type.
D) linear damped type.

The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. Is this more important:

A) in periods when the dehumidifier is in use.

B) in climb.
C) in cruise.
D) in descent.

The function of spill valves is to control:

A) cabin pressure differential.

B) hydraulic fluid pressure.
C) cabin temperature.
D) cabin pressure.

Safety valves and inward relief valves operate:

A) To control cabin altitude in conjunction with the cabin pressure gauge.

B) To control cabin altitude.
C) When an aircraft ditches.
D) To control maximum positive and negative pressure differentials.

De-icer boots consist of layers of... and... between which are disposed flat inflatable tubes... at the
ends.

A) plastic, rubber, open.

B) nylon, steel, closed.
C) natural rubber, nylon, closed.
D) natural rubber, rubberised fabric, closed.

Safety valves operate:

A) whenever differential pressure exceeds 7.9 psi

B) whenever differential pressure exceeds a certain value
C) whenever differential pressure exceeds 6.9 psi
D) whenever maximum negative pressure differential is reached

Which statement is true about the pressurisation system?

A) The pressurisation system always uses pressurised air stored in bottles to pressurise the cabin.
B) Partial oxygen pressure in the cabin is independent of cabin altitude.
C) To maintain a constant pressure in the cabin, the total amount of airflow from the air conditioning
system is equal to the mass flow passing through the outflow valve and small leaks (e.g. exit
doors).
D) A pressurisation system is not required by law for flights below 31000ft.
Some pressure controllers have a ditching control. When activated:

A) water is allowed to enter special flotation devices.

B) all outflow valves are closed.
C) the airplane enters into a vertical dive.
D) cabin is depressurised immediately.

In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary
to reduce the differential pressure to 5 psi. The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same
cabin altitude is:

A) FL 230.
B) FL 340.
C) FL 180.
D) FL 280.

The power source for hot air in de-ice / anti ice systems on jet A/C is:

A) the APU
B) turbo compressors.
C) ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
D) bleed air from the engines' compressor.

During a normal take-off and climb:

A) the cabin pressure falls at a maximum rate of 0.4ft/sec.

B) cabin pressure falls more slowly than atmospheric pressure.
C) cabin pressure rises more slowly than atmospheric pressure.
D) the pressurisation system is ineffective until altitude exceeds 8000m.
When taking off and when pressurisation is initiated, cabin rate of climb will show:

A) a continuous gradual increase

B) an increase
C) a decrease
D) a continuous gradual decrease

With a gas turbine engine, should engine anti-icing be selected " ON" :

A) whenever the ice detector system warning light comes on.

B) whenever the igniters are on.
C) whenever the IOAT is +10 C or below and the air contains visible moisture.
D) whenever the TOAT is +10 C or below and it is raining.

In normal operation, the maximum cabin altitude for a large passenger aircraft is:

A) 10.000ft
B) 20.000ft
C) 14.000ft
D) 8.000ft
The function of an air cycle machine is to:

A) pump the conditioned air into the cabin.

B) decrease the pressure of the bleed air.
C) remove the water from the bleed air.
D) cool the bleed air.

Cabin altitude in pressurised flight is:

A) always equal to 8000ft.

B) the altitude at which cabin temperature equals ambient temperature.
C) the altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure.
D) the altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height.

The aircraft inhibiting switch connected to the A/C landing gear:

A) cancels out the safety valve on the ground.

B) ensures that the discharge valve is closed.
C) stops pressurising on the ground and ensures that there is no pressure differential.
D) allows the aircraft to be pressurised on the ground.

A humidifier is fitted to:

A) extract the moisture content in the air.

B) increase the moisture content in the air when operating at high altitude.
C) filter the air.
D) to ensure the cabin air is saturated at high altitude

An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level. During the flight, a malfunction of the
pressure controller is detected by the crew and the cabin rate of climb indicator reads -200ft/min.

Given that:

DELTA P = Differential pressure

Zc = Cabin altitude

A) DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to open.
B) The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce Zc to its initial value.
C) A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when Zc reaches 14000ft.
D) The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero Zc.

Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if
flight altitude is maintained:

A) the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
B) the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.
C) the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
D) a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.

Cabin altitude in pressured flight is:

A) the altitude corresponding to cabin pressure regardless of aircraft height.

B) altitude corresponding to cabin pressure in relation to MSL ISA conditions.
C) is presented on a second needle on the aircraft altimeter.
D) altitude at which cabin pressure equals ambient pressure.

A heat exchanger functions by:

A) mixing the various vapours inside the heat exchanger.

B) passing charge air through ducts and cool air around ducts.
C) removing the static charge.
D) combining ram and charge air.

Essential information whether to use the engine anti-ice system or not, is?

A) Reported temperature when airborne, and ram air temperature when on ground.
B) Reported temperature, always.
C) Reported temperature when on ground, and ram air temperature when airborne.
D) Ram air temperature, only.

What must be isolated when carrying out a cabin pressurisation ground tests?

A) pressure relief valve.

B) pressure regulator or controller.
C) pitot static flow valve.
D) pressure discharge valve.

Pressurisation control ensures that:

A) at normal flying altitudes the cabin altitude is at or below 8,000ft

B) at normal flying altitudes the cabin altitude is at or below 8,500ft
C) at normal flying altitudes the cabin altitude is at or below 10,000ft
D) at normal flying altitudes the cabin altitude is at or below 12,000ft

The term " pressure differential" can be defined as the pressure difference between:

A) the cabin pressure level and it's rate of change.

B) the pressure at sea level and at the altitude at which the aircraft is flying.
C) the inside and the outside of the aircraft.
D) the pressure of the cabin and the pressure of any non-pressurised zone.

An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310. Following a malfunction of the pressure
controller, the outflow valve runs to the open position.

Given:

VZc = Cabin rate of climb indication

Zc = Cabin pressure altitude
DELTA P = Differential pressure

This will result in a:

A) VZc decrease Zc increase DELTA P decrease.

B) VZc decrease Zc decrease DELTA P increase.
 C) VZc increase Zc increase DELTA P increase.
D) VZc increase Zc increase DELTA P decrease

In a climatisation system, temperature control is achieved by:

A) regulating the ambient airflow through the heat exchanger.

B) controlling the humidity of the air supply.
C) controlling the air pressure.
D) regulating the amount of air by-passing the cooling system.

The pressure relief valve operates:

A) to maintain optimum cabin pressurisation.

B) above system pressure when the normal relief device fails.
C) below system pressure in an emergency.
D) at system pressure.

A cabin humidifier is sometimes used:

A) at high altitude.
B) on the ground in high ambient temperatures.
C) to prevent corrosion.
D) at low altitude.

An air cycle cooling system uses the principle of:

A) heat dissipation by evaporation.

B) heat dissipation by primary, secondary and tertiary heat exchangers.
C) expanding air through a turbine and dissipating heat in a heat exchanger.
D) gas pressure reduction and heat radiation.

Cabin air for modern airplanes is usually taken from:

A) the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure compressor if necessary.
B) the low pressure compressor.
C) the second fan stage.
D) the high pressure compressor

When an aircraft has reached a flight level where pressure differential is at its maximum, the pressure
controller:

A) switches off the cabin air supply.

B) maintains a constant mass flow.
C) closes the outflow valve immediately.
D) opens the outflow valves so that all pressurising air is spilled overboard.

Typically, icing does not occur above about...

A) 12000 ft.
B) 8000 ft.
 C) 40000ft.
D) 25000 ft.

In level pressurised flight the outflow valve:

A) alternates between fully open and closed.

B) remains closed.
C) adjusts to provide constant flow and is normally partially open.
D) opens to increase air conditioning.

Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by:

A) engine rpm.
B) pressurisation duct relief valve(s).
C) inward relief valve(s).
D) regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).

The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine):

A) drives the compressor which provides pressurisation.

B) drives the compressor in the unit and causes a pressure increase in the conditioning air.
C) increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.
D) drives the compressor in the unit, creating a temperature drop in the conditioning air.

Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between:

A) local ambient pressure and mean sea level pressure.

B) ISA conditions and aircraft altitude.
C) cabin pressure and ambient pressure.
D) 8,000ft pressure altitude and cabin pressure.

Inward vent valves operate when:

A) aircraft altitude exceeds cabin altitude.

B) depressurising after descent.
C) pressurising after a rapid climb.
D) cabin altitude exceeds aircraft altitude.

An ACM produces a drop in temperature by:

A) directing compressed air into a heat exchanger.

B) a primary and secondary heat exchanger.
C) expanding hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.
D) by-passing the air conditioning heating system.

If the forward oil seal in an axial flow compressor fails, compressed air:

A) becomes highly flammable.

B) will not be contaminated if mineral oil was used.
C) will not be contaminated if synthetic oil was used.
 D) will be contaminated with oil.

The maximum differential pressure of a transonic transport category airplane is approximately:

A) 13.5 psi.
B) 3.5 psi.
C) 9.0 psi.
D) 15.5 psi

The purpose of a spill valve in a cabin air supply system is:

A) to spill overboard excess air delivered at low altitudes

B) to provide an emergency source of outside air in case of a complete failure of all bleed valves
C) to provide conditioned air distribution throughout the passenger cabin
D) to spill overboard excess air delivered at high altitudes

When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content is:

A) dependent on the degree of pressurization

B) unaffected.
C) decreased
D) increased

A Vapor Cycle Cooling system may be fitted to enhance the cooling cycle of an aircraft air conditioning
system.
On leaving the evaporator, in the correct sequence, which components does the gas pass through?

A) Condenser and Compressor.

B) Liquid Receiver and Compressor.
C) Condenser, Liquid Receiver and Expansion valve.
D) Compressor and Condenser.

In an air cycle type air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature and pressure is achieved by:

A) an expansion turbine.
B) an evaporator.
C) a compressor.
D) a condenser.

Which is the most suitable relative humidity for an environmental control system to maintain in an
aircraft?

A) 10%.
B) 60%.
C) 30%.
D) 80%.

In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by expansion:

A) in the turbine.
 B) of Freon in a heat exchanger.
C) in a pressure relief valve.
D) of Freon in the turbine.

Engine bleed-air which is used for pressurisation of the cabin is:

A) its temperature is relatively high and must be cooled by a heat exchanger unit just before it enters
the passenger cabin
B warmer than cabin temperature
)
C) its temperature is approximately the same as the outside air temperature
D) colder than cabin temperature

In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:

A) passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger.
B) compressed, then goes through a heat exchanger, and across an expansion turbine.
C) compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine through a heat exchanger.
D) passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.

NON PNEUMETIC OPERATED ICING AND DEICING SYSTEMS

The methods used to provide de-icing in flight can be:

A) electrically heated or air heated or oil heated.

B) pneumatic or thermal or fluid.
C) centrifugally forced or ram air heated.
D) mechanical or pneumatic or fluid.

When an aircraft is de-iced prior to departure, if the temperature is 0 C in precipitation, which type of
fluid and application method will provide the longest holdover period:

A) Type I fluid @ 100% cold spray application.

B) Type II fluid @ 100% cold spray application.
C) Type I fluid diluted to 50% hot spray application.
D) Type II fluid diluted to 50% hot spray application.

The hot rod ice detector:

A) is automatically heated approximately every 2 minutes during flight.

B) is heated at all times during flight.
C) may be heated and illuminated by the pilot operating the appropriate switches.
D) cannot be seen at night.

Propeller blade heating elements are:

A) fitted only to the thin outer sections where maximum ice accretion occurs.
B) fitted only to the thick inner section where minimum ice accretion occurs.
C) usually fitted to the thick section but sometimes a second element is fitted to a mid section.
D) fitted to the complete leading edge.

Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is:

A On modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent icing on small
) surfaces (pitot-static, windshield...)
B) On modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices for pitot-
tubes, static-ports, windshield...
C) On modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore they only
need little energy.
D) On modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is often used
for large surfaces de-icing.

The effect of frost on an aircraft:

A) is to cause an increase in boundary layer energy and so delay the onset of the stall.
B) causes an increase in the surface roughness which in turn increases skin friction drag.
C) has no significant effect on the aerodynamic contour or lift coefficient.
D) can be generally ignored.

The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:

A) used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.

B) harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike.
C) used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely affect the useful life
of the components.
D) only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.

The probe heater operates:

A) automatically, when the probe detects ice.

B) when the switch is ON and both engines are running.
C) automatically, underneath a present temperature.
D) automatically when airborne.

Generally, for large aeroplanes, electrical heating for ice protection is used on:

A) Slat leading edges.

B) Fin leading edges.
C) Elevator leading edges.
D) Pitot tubes.

An aircraft is to be de-iced and then enter the line up for departure. Which de-ice fluid will have the
best holdover time at 0 C with precipitation:

A) a 50%/50% solution of type II fluid hot spray.

B) type II fluid at 100% cold spray.
C) type I fluid at 100% cold spray.
D) a 50%/50% solution of type I fluid hot spray
Propeller electrical de-icing systems:

A) use a cyclic timer.

B) convert electrical energy to mechanical energy.
C) use only continuous loads to the elements.
D) transfer power to the elements via a commutator in DC systems.

The electrical power which is supplied to the propeller blades for de-icing purposes:

A) must be taken directly from the APU generator.

B) is continuously supplied to all propeller blades.
C) is controlled to give an intermittent supply.
D) must only be selected ON for short periods.

Modern Turboprop aircraft are anti-iced by which method:

A) thermal.
B) electrical.
C) none of the above.
D) mechanical.

When anti-icing fluid is applied to an aircraft, which of the following icing conditions would give the
longest holdover times?

A) Frost.
B) Rain on a cold soaked wing.
C) Freezing fog.
D) Snow.

Fluid is delivered to a propeller by:

A) a small reservoir contained within the spinner.

B) a slinger ring and pipes.
C) integral passages within the propeller dome.
D) a centrifugal slipper ring and pipes

In order to prevent/eliminate ice build-ups on a pitot tube on light aircraft, the pilot can use:

A a heating system consisting of an electric resistor inside the tube itself

)
B) a heating system consisting of an electric resistor element wrapped around the root of the tube
C) a heating system consisting of a hot air duct routed from the heat exchanger to the root of the
pitot tube
D) anti-ice system using glycol-based anti-freeze liquid being sprayed onto the pitot tube

Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on:

A) Engine intakes.
B) Pitot tubes.
 C) Wing and stabilizer leading edges.
D) Pitot tubes and engine intakes

A typical electrical anti-icing/de-icing system would consist of the following components:

A) a controlled frequency alternator, and electrical elements bonded to the surfaces.

B) none of the above.
C) an uncontrolled frequency alternator, a two speed cyclic timer and electrical elements bonded to
the surfaces.
D) an uncontrolled frequency alternator, a cyclic timer and electrical elements bonded to the surfaces.

Ice detectors are used primarily to warn the crew:

A) that they are approaching engine icing conditions.

B) that they are approaching airframe icing conditions.
C) that engine icing conditions now warrant the initiation of the engine system.
D) that airframe icing conditions exist.

The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are:

1. engine air intake and pod.

2. front glass shield.

3. radome.

4. pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.

5. leading edge of wing.

6. cabin windows.

7. trailing edge of wings.

8. electronic equipment compartment.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

A) 1, 4, 5, 7
B) 1, 2, 5, 6
C) 1, 2, 4, 5
D) 1, 2, 3, 8

The accurate method of removing snow and ice that has accumulated on the aircraft during parking,
is:

A) The aeroplane's own de-ice equipment for five minutes.

B) Hot water that melts the contamination.
C) De-ice all surfaces with approved de-ice fluid.
D) Hot air from the engines.
The electrical supply to the propeller blades for de-icing purposes:

A) is continuous to all blades.

B) must be taken directly from the APU generator.
C) must only be selected on for short periods.
D) is controlled to give an intermittent supply.

The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works:

A) with anti-icing fluid.

B) with hot air.
C) electrically.
D) pneumatically.

Freezing point depressant (FPD) is supplied in two types:

A) Type 1 fluid (unthickened) - Type 2 fluid (thickened)

B) Type 1 fluid (unthickened) - Type 2 fluid (unthickened)
C) Type 1 fluid (thickened) - Type 2 fluid (thickened)
D) Type 1 fluid (thickened) - Type 2 fluid (unthickened)

Regarding carburettor ice, state the environmental caution areas for the formation of this type of ice.

A) Temperature less than 0 C, and clouds present.

B Temperature between 5 C and + 18 C, visible moisture or relative humidity greater than 60 %.
)
C) Temperature between + 5 C and 18 C, visible moisture or relative humidity greater than 60 %.
D) Temperature between + 5 C and 18 C and clouds present.

In flight airframe icing does not occur:

A) above 40 000 feet.

B) above 25 000 feet.
C) above 35 000 feet.
D) above 30 000 feet

To prevent propeller elements overheating:

A) use only when all other services are switched off.

B) carry out a load check before starting engines.
C) use only when in flight.
D) use only when the propellers are rotating

When ice forms on the Vibrating Rod ice detector:

A) the frequency of vibration increases above 40KHz.

B) the frequency of vibration remains unchanged at 40KHz.
C) the frequency rises to the natural harmonic of the ice at approximately 40KHz.
D) the frequency of vibration decreases below 40KHz.
FUEL SYSTEMS

What pressure does booster pump supply fuel at?

A) 15-20 psi.
B) 3000-5000 psi.
C) 5-10 psi.
D) 300-500 psi.

The vent pipe of an aircraft's fuel tank must not become blocked because:

A) it is used to connect the fuel to the inlet manifold, so equalising the pressure
B) pressure will fall in the tank when fuel is used
C) pressure will not change in the tank when fuel is used
D) pressure will rise in the tank when fuel is used

VAPOR LOCK is the phenomenon by which:

A) burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust manifold following an overheat and thereby
disturbing the exhaust
B heat produces vapour plugs in the fuel line
)
C) abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an inappropriate use of
carburettor heat
D) water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water in fuel
tanks which have not been drained properly

In a compensated capacitance fuel contents system what happens to a fuel weight of 8000lbs if its
volume increases by 5%?

A) Remains the same.

B) Increases by 5% for every degree rise in temperature.
C) Decreases by 5%.
D) Increases by 5%.

Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a modern jet aircraft are:

A) electro-mechanical wobble pumps, with self-regulated pressure

B) centrifugal pumps, driven by an electric motor
C) mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox
D) removable only after the associated tank has been emptied

A fuel booster pump, which is used to provide positive fuel flow to the engine, can also be used for:

A) fuel dumping and fuel jettison.

B) fuel jettison and fuel transfer.
C) fuel jettison and fuel heating.
D) fuel transfer and fuel heating.
The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are:

A) Combined fuel tanks.

B) Cell tanks.
C) Integral tanks.
D) Fixed built-in tanks.

The flash point of a fuel is:

A the lowest temperature at which fuel produces sufficient vapour to be ignited by a small flame or
) spark.
B) the temperature to which it must be heated in order to give off vapour which will burn continuously
when brought into contact with a small flame.
C) the temperature at which the viscosity of fuel changes suddenly.
D) the boiling temperature of the fuel.

The fuel crossfeed system:

A) is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing.
B) allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.
C) is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
D) is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another.

In flight, with center tank empty and APU operating, a fuel unbalance is detected (quantity in tank 1 <
quantity in tank 2).

Rebalancing of the two tanks is:

A) possible with " CROSSFEED" open and tank 1 pumps " OFF" and tank 2 pumps " ON"
B) impossible because there is no fuel in center tank
C) impossible without causing the APU stop
D) possible with " CROSSFEED" open and tank 2 pumps " OFF"

Drain cocks are fitted:

A) between the pump and a selector.

B) to enable water to be drained from the system.
C) at the highest point in the system so that any fluid drained is not contaminated with water.
D) at the lowest point in the system.

Baffles can be mounted inside the tanks to:

A) direct the fuel towards the fuel pumps

B) prevent fuel sloshes
C) provide partitions between individual segments of an integrated fuel tank
D) none of the above

The purpose of the fuel cooled oil cooler is to:

A) heat the fuel and cool the oil.

B) cool the oil.
C) heat the oil and cool the fuel.
 D) heat the fuel.

The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to:

A) increase the fuel level at the boost pump location.

B) distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling.
C) ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure.
D) trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank.

The vapour lock is:

A) The effect of the water vapour bubbles in the induction manifold caused by the condensation.
B) The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine overheating.
C) The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the carburettor.
D) A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapour bubble

Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. The most practical way to minimize this when a
plane is used every day or so is to:

A) drain tanks at end of each day's flight

B) keep tanks topped off when plane is not in use
C) use only high octane gasoline
D) keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight

AVGAS 100LL is:

A) coloured green and has a higher octane rating than 100L.

B) coloured green and contains less lead than 100L.
C) coloured blue and has the same octane rating as 100L.
D) coloured green and has the same resistance to detonation as 100L.

On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are supplied with electric
power of the following type:

A) 28 V AC
B) 115 V DC
C) 115 V AC
D) 28 V DC

Refuelling a fixed wing aircraft with passengers embarking is permissible:

A) only if there is a member of the cabin staff manning the exit door.
B) under no circumstances whatsoever.
C) only if the seating capacity is less than 20.
D) only if the seating capacity is more than 20, there are at least two exits, and other safety
precautions.

In an aircraft low pressure refuelling system, what is fitted to prevent a fuel tank from becoming over
pressurised?
 A) high level float switches.
B) vent valves.
C) fuel hose pressure relief valves.
D) low level float switches.

The LP fuel pump is driven by:

A) The electrical system

B) The engine
C) Air pressure
D) Hydraulic pressure

If a fuel sample appears cloudy or hazy, the most probable cause is:

A) anti-microbiological additives.
B) oil in the fuel.
C) mixing different fuel grades.
D) water contamination.

In a typical fuel/oil heat exchanger:

A) heat is transferred from fuel to ram air.

B) heat is transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the water system.
C) fuel and hydraulic fluid are mixed for efficient heat transfer.
D) heat is transferred from the hydraulic fluid to the fuel.

The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to:

A) Prevent overpressure in the tank.

B) Prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid.
C) Prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines.
D) Prevent the fuel from flowing to the wing tips during abnormal manoeuvre (side slipping...).

The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel tank is to:

A) Prevent overpressure in the tank.

B) Prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid.
C) Prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines.
D) Prevent the fuel from flowing to the wing tips during abnormal manoeuvre (side slipping...).

When fuelling an aircraft, what action may be taken to reduce the build up of static electricity?

A) To increase the flow rate of the fuel.

B) To keep the fuelling hose as short as possible.
C) To use a long fuelling hose.
D) To reduce the flow rate of the fuel

During fuel jettison, the aircraft is protected against running out of fuel by:

A) low level float switches.

 B) high level float switches.
C) preset jettison quantity switches.
D) the crew remaining alert.

Fuel dump systems are required:

A) on aircraft with a Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW) higher than 5.7 tons.
B) on all transport category aircraft.
C) on all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats.
D) on all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTWO) is significant higher
than the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW).

The disadvantage of refuelling the aircraft to " tanks full" the night before a departure in the heat of
the day is that:

A) the change in the specific gravity may cause the aircraft to be overweight.
B) the change in calorific value may reduce engine power to below sufficient.
C) the change in the volume of the fuel may cause it to spill through the vent system.
D) the R.P.M. governor will be rendered inoperative

Un-dissolved water in a fuel sample:

A) will appear as droplets on the side of the container, or as bulk water on the bottom.
B) will appear as free floating droplets in the fuel.
C) will change the colour of AVTUR.
D) will cause the fuel to appear cloudy

Booster pumps as fitted in a fuel system are:

A) Electrically driven.
B) Engine driven.
C) Used solely to provide an emergency pressure in the event of an engine driven pump failure.
D) Only fitted to piston engine fin systems.

The colour of AVGAS 100 is:

A) red.
B) blue.
C) light straw.
D) green.

Fuel tank booster pumps are:

A) gear type, low pressure.

B) centrifugal, high pressure.
C) gear type, high pressure.
D) centrifugal, low pressure

Fuel tank booster pumps are:

 A) gear type, low pressure.
B) centrifugal, high pressure.
C) gear type, high pressure.
D) centrifugal, low pressure.

Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are:

A All bonding and connections to the earth terminal between ground equipment and the aircraft
) should be made before filler caps are removed.
B) Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF radio equipment under test.
C) Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated.
D) Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone) providing suitable fire extinguishers
are readily available.

The Low Pressure engine driven pump:

A) backs up in case the engine High Pressure Pump fails.

B) assists in the refuelling operation if only low pressure refuelling systems are available.
C) pressurises the fuel tanks to assist flow to the booster pumps.
D) backs up in case of a double booster pump failure.

Fuel tanks are vented so that:

A) a vacuum will not form as fuel is used

B) fuel can be jettisoned in an emergency
C) excess fuel can drain away rapidly after over filling
D) a large positive pressure is maintained

To what distance should a fuelling zone extend from a fuelling point or vent point?

A) 6m
B) 50 m
C) 16 m
D) 15 m

Refuelling with passengers on board is not permissible:

A) if the aircraft has more than twenty seats and the ratio of cabin attendants to passengers is
greater than 1:50 and it is a wide bodied jet.
B) on a fixed wing aircraft.
C) in any of the above cases.
D) if AVGAS is being used.
Cloudiness of a sample of AVTUR is an indication of:

A) iron-oxide particles in suspension.

B) fungus growth.
C) water in suspension.
D) waxing.

Capacitive fuel quantity measurement systems compensate for fuel movement in the tanks by:

A) measuring fuel mass, rather than volume.

 B) measuring fuel volume, rather than depth.
C) measuring the specific gravity of the fuel.
D) using more than one measuring probe per tank.

The fuel cross feed valves are fitted in order to facilitate:

A) transfer of fuel between the main fuel tanks.

B) the use of fuel from any tank to any engine.
C) refuelling when only one bowser is in use.
D) isolation of the engine from the fuel system in the case of an engine fire.

An integral fuel tank:

A) is mounted externally beneath the wing or at the wingtips.

B) is part of the aircraft wing structure.
C) is made from re-enforced rubber sheeting and attached to the aircraft structure.
D) is an essential component of an integrated fuel measurement system.

AVTUR or JET A1:

A) is a wide cut fuel which is not normally used in civilian transport aircraft.
B) is a 97 octane fuel which prevents detonation in gas turbine engines.
C) varies in colour between clear and straw yellow.
D) is a gasoline type fuel with a high flash point.

The aircraft cannot be refuelled while:

A) passengers are walking through the refuelling zones.

B) the APU is running.
C) a ground power unit is operating on the ramp.
D) passengers are boarding.

When checking the fuel for possible water content, the presence of water will be indicated by:

A) The water will be found at the bottom of the strainer, because it is heavier than the fuel.
B) Impossible to tell because they will mix.
C) The water will be on top of the fuel in the fuel strainer because it is lighter than the fuel.
D) Change in the colour of the fuel.

Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:

A) centrifugal high pressure type pumps

B) high pressure variable swash plate pumps
C) low pressure variable swash plate pumps
D) centrifugal low pressure type pumps

Adjustment may have to be made to an aircraft fuel system if it has been refuelled with JET B instead
of its normal JET A1 fuel. These adjustments are to cater for:

A) the change in specified gravity of the fuel

 B) the change in flash point of the fuel

C) the change in combustion efficiency of the fuel

D) the change in freeze point of the fuel

The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring the:

A) dielectric change between fuel and air.

B) density variation of the fuel.
C) resistivity variation of the fuel.
D) electrical resistance change

Why are baffles fitted to aircraft fuel tanks?

A) to equalize fuel pressure within the tank, so preventing surge.

B) to assist in heating the fuel tank.
C) to direct fuel to the main supply.
D) to assist in cooling the fuel tank.

The automatic fuelling shut off valve:

A) cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.

B) stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank.
C) stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.
D) stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the ventline.

The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the main fuel filter
so as to:

A) prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude.
B) ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity.
C) prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel.
D) maintain and improve fuel heating power.

The Maximum Zero Fuel Weight:

1. Is a limitation set by regulation.

2. Is designed for a maximum load factor.

3. Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root.

4. Requires to empty external tanks first.

5. Requires to empty internal tanks first.

The correct combination of true statements is:

 A) 1,2,3.
B) 2,5.
C) 2,4.
D) 1,3,5.

During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will switch off the fuel supply system when:

A) the surge vent tank is filled.

B) the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass.
C) there is fire.
D) fuelling system has reached a certain pressure.

On an aircraft equipped with a compensated capacitance type fuel quantity indication system
graduated to read in kg, the temperature increases just after the tanks are half filled with fuel. If the
fuel expands by 10%, the gauges will show:

A) the same amount.

B) an increase of 10%.
C) a decrease of 10% of the volume factored by the new specific gravity.
D) a decrease.

Fuel is heated:

A) to maintain a constant viscosity.

B) to stop cavitation in the High Pressure Fuel Pump.
C) to prevent water contamination.
D) to stop ice blocking the Low Pressure fuel filter.

Baffles are fitted in aircraft fuel tanks:

A) to prevent fuel surging during aircraft manoeuvres.

B) to prevent the static build up in the tank during refuelling.
C) to channel fuel to the vent valve.
D) to assist in correct fuel distribution.

From the statements below, which aircraft should have a fuel dumping system?

A) Aircraft that have a maximum landing weight limitation above the maximum take off weight.
B) Aircraft which have a Maximum Zero Fuel Weight which exceeds the Maximum Take Off weight.
C) Aircraft with a maximum landing weight which will exceed the maximum brake efficiency speed.
D) Aircraft that have a maximum landing weight limitation below the maximum take off weight

If the specific gravity of a fuel is known to be 0.7 the weight of 20 imperial gallons of that fuel would
be:

A) 14 lb
B) 210 lb
C) 140 lb
D) 20 kg
What is the ratio between the litre and the US gallon?

A) 1 litre = 4.55 USG.

 B) 1 USG = 3.78 litres.
C) 1 USG = 4.55 litres.
D) 1 litre = 3.78 USG

The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps (BP) of the fuel supply system is within the
following range:

A) 20 to 50 psi
B) 300 to 500 psi
C) 3000 to 5000 psi
D) 5 to 10 psi

The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel:

A) top off unit.

B) tank drains.
C) dump system.
D) vent system.

While refuelling with passengers on board, when a loading bridge is in use:

A) two sets of extra steps must be provided, one of which must be at the rear of the aircraft.
B) catering and cleaning must not be carried out.
C) ground servicing must not be carried out.
D) the rear left or right door must be manned constantly by a cabin attendant ready for use as an
emergency exit using the inflatable escape slide.

The fuel required for a planned flight is 28,000kg. The fuel in the tanks is 24,000 litres (SG of the fuel
is 0,8).
The required fuel volume is:

A) 880 imperial gallons.

B) 24,200 imperial gallons.
C) 8,800 imperial gallons.
D) 2,420 imperial gallons

How much fuel can be jettisoned?

A) All.
B) A specified amount must remain.
C) A specific amount.
D) The captain decides.

Waxing is:

A) the depositing of heavy hydrocarbons from the fuel at high temperatures.

B) the depositing of water from the fuel at high temperatures.
C) the depositing of heavy hydrocarbons from the fuel at low temperatures.
D) the depositing of water from the fuel at low temperatures.
An integral type fuel tank is:

A) a special tank fitted in the fuselage

B) a bag which is in the wings of the aircraft
C) a permanent external gravity tank
D) a fuel tight cavity incorporated in a box spar wing construction

Fuel is pressurized to:

A) prevent fuel icing.

B) prevent vapour lock.
C) prevent cavitation.
D) keep constant fuel flow in negative G.

In the event an APU is required to be running during fuelling operations, which of the following
precautions must be observed?

A) the APU must be started before fuel tank caps are removed.
B) the APU must be started after fuel tank caps are removed.
C) the APU can only be run if it is fitted with an exhaust extension, 6m in length.
D) the APU must be shut down (switched off) while fuel is being transferred to the aircraft.

The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel :

A) to cool the pumps

B) to prime the pumps
C) because their efficiency is greater
D) to shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses

When baffles are fitted to aircraft fuel tanks, the purpose is to:

A) separate air from the fuel during fuelling operations

B) reduce fire risk when fuelling
C) prevent surge of fuel within the tank during flight
D) control the fuel flow to the main feed

What are the advantages of a Flexible Fuel Tank over an Integral Tank?

A) There is a greater tank capacity.

B) Flexible tanks do not suffer from the corrosion problems of an integral tank.
C) There is a weight saving as the tanks are made from a flexible plastic.
D) Leaks are easier to locate.

Unusable fuel is:

A) fuel in the inboard wing tanks which is used for centre of gravity control.
B) fuel required for diversion and holding.
C) fuel in the outboard wing tanks to compensate for excessive wing flexure in flight.
D) remaining fuel in the tanks and fuel lines which cannot be used for combustion.
AVTUR Jet A1:

A) is coloured clear to light straw (pale yellow).

B) is coloured blue.
C) is red in colour.
D) is always light straw in colour

On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:

A) piston pumps.
B) diaphragm pumps.
C) gear type pumps.
D) centrifugal pumps.

What will be the effect on the indicated fuel contents if a capacitive system fuel contents gauge fails in
flight?

A) the gauge will indicate full scale deflection low.

B) the gauge will fluctuate between high and low contents.
C) the gauge will remain in the last fixed position.
D) the gauge will remain in the high position.

A one way check valve will:

A) stop flow when input pressure is greater than output pressure.

B) stop flow when input pressure is less than output pressure.
C) start flow when input pressure is less than output pressure.
D) stop flow when the thermal relief valve opens.

Adjustments may have to made to an aircraft's engine fuel system if it has been refuelled with JET B
instead of its normal JET Al fuel, these adjustments are to cater for:

A) the change in the viscosity of the fuel.

B) the change in the specific gravity of the fuel.
C) the lack of HITEC lubricant in the fuel.
D) the change in the calorific value of the fuel.

If a fuel tank with a capacitive quantity system was filled with water instead of fuel, the gauge would
indicate:

A) it would freeze at the last known indication.

B) it would indicate the same as if it were filled with fuel.
C) full scale low (zero).
D) full scale high (max).

During refuelling operations:

A) Radio transmissions are not forbidden

B) The aircraft should be bonded to the refueller before refuelling pipes are coupled
C) Passengers are forbidden to remain on the aircraft regardless of the type of fuel being replenished
D) A refuelling zone is to be established to at least 100 m
On A/C with a fuel pressure gauge, where is the pressure normally measured? (Aircraft with fuel
injection)

A) At the tank outlet.

B) At the injection nozzles.
C) At the selector valve outlet.
D) At the inlet of the fuel injection metering unit.

The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to:

A) maintain the correct weight fuel to air ratio when the altitude increases
B) reduce the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases
C) increase the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases
D) maintain a constant fuel metering whatever the altitude

A failed capacitance fuel contents gauge would:

A) fluctuate between high and low readings.

B) show full deflection high.
C) remain fixed on the last contents noted before failure.
D) show full scale deflection low.

On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through:

A) A pressure regulator in the wing tip.

B) Bleed air from the engines.
C) The return lines of the fuel pumps.
D) Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.

When refuelling a swept-wing aircraft, the order of filling the fuel tanks should be:

A) outer tanks, inner tanks, centre tanks.

B) centre tanks, outer tanks, inner tanks.
C) based on pilot's judgement.
D) centre tanks, inner tanks, outer tanks

JET A1:

A) has a lower freezing point than JET A fuel.

B) conforms to British Standard BS4040.
C) is normally used in piston engine aircraft.
D) is used as a rocket propellant.

Prior to fuelling an aircraft, which of the following precautions must be carried out?

A) The fuelling hose must be bonded to the aircraft immediately after fuel tank caps are removed.
B) The fuelling hose must be earthed to ground at all times.
C) The fuelling hose must be earthed to the nose undercarriage before tank caps are removed.
D) The fuelling hose must be bonded to the aircraft structure prior to removal of fuel tank caps.
Fuel jettisoning is:

A) dumping fuel in an emergency.

B) producing a jet spray for combustion.
C) transferring fuel to the trim tank.
D) venting fuel to the atmosphere.

Special fuel consumption schedules during flight are designed due:

A) to ensure fastest rate of fuel dumping in case of emergency where time is critical
B) to minimise the wing G-loads and preserve main tank fuel for landing.
C) to keep fuel from freezing during high level cruise for a longer period of time
D) to keep wing fuel as low as possible in event of a crash-landing

The cross-feed fuel system is used to:

A) feed every engine from any fuel tank.

B) allow the unusable fuel elimination.
C) automatically fill every tank up to the desired level.
D) allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of emergency.

The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to:

A) damp out movement of the fuel in the tank

B) close the vent lines in case of turbulence
C) prevent fuel movement to the wing tip
D) prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank

The advantage of a capacitor type fuel contents gauging system is that the circuit:

A) responds automatically to extremely low temperatures.

B) compensates for high altitude flight.
C) responds to changes in specific gravity.
D) compensates for aircraft attitude changes.

The fuel tanks in small aircraft are mainly located:

A) In the fuselage.
B) Close to the engine.
C) In the wings.
D) In the tail section of the aircraft.

On a jet aircraft, when installed, fuel heaters are:

A) not necessary at all.

B) installed in each tank.
C) located on the engines.
D) installed only in the centre tank.

The refuelling in a transport jet aircraft is made...

A) Through the refuelling cap of every tank.
B) By means of the aircraft suction pumps.
C) By means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique point (an underwing refuelling centre).
D) Through a unique point (an underwing refuelling centre).

The CROSS-FEED fuel system enables:

A) only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks
B) the supply of the outboard jet engine from any outboard fuel tank
C) the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing
D) the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank

The attached diagram represents a jet fuel system. The fuel-flow measurement is carried out:

A) after high pressure valve

B) after high pressure pump first stage
C) after low pressure valve
D) in the fuel control unit

An aircraft using MOGAS:

A) will suffer from a loss of power during take-off.

B) is likely to be affected by detonation at cruise power.
C) is more likely to be affected by vapour locking and carburettor icing.
D) must have booster pumps fitted in the fuel tanks.

To indicate that a refuelling bowser carries JET Al aviation kerosene:

A) JET Al would be painted in 30cm high symbols on the side of the container.
B) the driver wears a straw yellow water and fuel proof jacket.
C) JET Al is printed in white on a black background label positioned prominently on the vehicle.
D) yellow and black stripes are marked on the refuelling hose.

How much fuel is required for a retained sample?

A) 1.5 litres.
B) 5 litres.
C) 2 litres.
D) 2.5 litres.

A fuel system booster pump other than pumping fuel to the engine may also be used for:

A) jettisoning the fuel and as an emergency pump in the event of main pump failure.
B) transfer and jettison of the fuel.
C) jettisoning and heating of the fuel.
D) transfer and heating of the fuel.

In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge of a half-full fuel
tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If a temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the
indicated fuel weight would:
 A) increase by 5 %.
B) remain the same.
C) increase by 10 %.
D) decrease by 5 %.

Fuel booster pumps are necessary in large aircraft:

A) to prevent cavitation of the engine driven pump.

B) to maintain fuel supply to the engines during critical flight phases.
C) to maintain fuel supply to the LP pumps at all times.
D) to maintain supply to the HP pumps at low altitude.

The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with the jettisoning system is:

A) 15 tons.
B) All fuel.
C) All fuel until the maximum landing weight is reached.
D) All up to a defined reserve quantity.

During fuelling operations:

A) only external yellow hazard lights should be on.

B) all external lights should be off.
C) Nav lights should be off and strobe lights on.
D) all external lights should be on.

An electrically activated and operated fuel valve is called a(n):

A) Solenoid valve.
B) Electronically valve.
C) Emergency valve.
D) Motor valve.

Why is the capacitance-type fuel quantity gauge system the system that is most often used on large
turbine aircraft?

A) Because it is a lot simpler and it's weight are less than other systems.
B) Because it measures the mass of fuel rather than the volume of fuel in the tank.
C) Because it measures the volume of fuel more accurately.
D) Because it is more cost efficient in the way it is constructed and installed.

The fuel system boost pumps are used to:

A avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a
) positive pressure.
B) feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.
C) avoid the bubbles accumulation.
D) feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel into the engine.