TWI THE WELDING INSTITUTE

Welding Inspection, Steels

Multi - Choice Final Assessment Question Paper (Final Assessment)

1. The toughness and yield strength of steel is improved by:

a. Increasing the grain size
b. Decreasing the grain size
c. They are unaffected by grain size
d. None of the above

2. What is the effect of tempering after quenching?

a. Toughness and strength are increased
b. Toughness and strength are decreased
c. Toughness is decreased, strength is increased
d. Toughness is increased, strength is decreased

3. What is the effect of full annealing compared to normalizing?

a. The grain size will be decreased
b. The grain size will be increased
c. The grain size will be unaffected
d. None of the above

4. The addition of manganese to steel will:

a. Increase the transformation time
b. Decreased the transformation time
c. The transformation time will be unaffected

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5. The crystal structure of pure iron can either be:

a. Body centered cubic and Face centered cubic
b. Face centered cubic and hexagonal closed pack
c. Hexagonal closed pack and Body centered cubic
d. Body centered tetragonal and Hexagonal closed pack

6. If the constituent metal of an alloy are of different structures, what form will the alloy
take?
a. Solid solution
b. Phase mixture

7. If pure iron is alloyed with Nitrogen, the resulting solid solution is:
a. Subsituinonal
b. Interstitial

8. For a binary alloy, what is the maximum number of phases that can generally exist
ether?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

9. Which phases in the iron carbon diagram is Face Centered Cubic?

a. Ferrite (alpha iron)
b. Cementite (Fe3 C)
c. Delta iron
d. Austenite (gamma iron)

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10. Which phase transform to marten site upon rapid cooling?

a. Ferrite
b. Cementite
c. Delta iron
d. Austenite

11. The AR3 temperature is the temperature at which

a. Austenite starts to transform to ferrite
b. Delta iron transform to austenite
c. The metal melts
d. Marten site form

12. Which forming process results in a product containing the greatest elastic stresses?
a. Hot working
b. Cold working

13. Which metallurgical process results in the formation of a fine-grained structure in

steel?
a. Stress relief
b. Re crystallization
c. Grain growth
d. Hardening

14. The hardness of a metal can increased by:

a. Decreased the grain size
b. Increased the grain size
c. The hardness is unaffected by grain size
d. Increasing the temperature

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15. At which temperature will austenite isothermally transform to coarse pearlite in 83%
carbon steel?
a. 700 C
b. 500C
c. Room temperature

16. What is hardening ability a measure of?

a. The rate at which a metal cools
b. The temperature at which austenite transform to pearlite
c. The rate at which austenite can be quenched to martensite without the formation
of pearlite

17. What is the structure of alloying elements that tend to stabilize austenite ?
a. Face centered cubic
b. Hexagonal closed pack
c. Body centered cubic
d. Body centered tetragonal

18. Increasing the carbon content of a steel will:

a. Increase the hardness and toughness
b. Decrease the hardness and toughness
c. Increase the hardness, decrease the toughness
d. Decrease the hardness, increase the toughness

19. What various cause the change in structure across a weld?

a. Cooling rate
b. Composition
c. Grain size

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20. How will the widths of the Heat affected zone tend to vary as the heat input of a weld
is increased?
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Unaffected

21. Which element has the greatest effect upon the hardenability of mild steel?
a. Manganese
b. Chromium
c. Carbon
d. Molybdenum

22. If the heat input is cycled, the Heat Affected Zone microstructure will tend to be
a. Coarsed
b. Refined

23. Which ingot mould design will minimize penetration of pipes into the ingot?
a. Narrow end up
b. Wide end up
c. Wide end up with hot top

24. Maximum segregation will occur:

a. At the ingot walls
b. At centre of the ingot
c. At base of the ingot

25. Fully deoxidized steel is also known as:

a. Killed steel
b. Semi-killed steel
c. Rimmed steel

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26. How can the thermal distortion of a butt weld be reduced?

a. By using a single V preparation
b. By using a U preparation
c. By using a double V preparation
d. By increasing the heat input

27. Which of the following edge preparations will have the highest heat flow from the
joint?
a. Close square edge butt joint
b. Single V butt with broad root face
c. Single V butt with thin root face

28. Using Manual Metal Arc welding, which of the following has the shortest ron out
length?
a. 6 mm electrode, arc energy 1 kj/mm
b. 5 mm electrode, arc energy 2 kj/mm
c. 4 mm electrode, arc energy 3 kj/mm
d. 4 mm electrode, arc energy 4 kj/mm

29. Which of the following should be the instruction for fabrication welding?
a. WPS
b. PQR (WPAR)
c. WPQ
d. NDE

30. Which of the bead of C- Mn steel weld is most likely to have the lowest toughness?
a. The root of a weld
b. The HAZ of the root
c. The centre of a weld
d. The HAZ of the cap

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31. Which of to these joint is likely to contain the highest residual stresses after welding?
a. Butt joint
b. Lap joint
c. Cruciform
d. T joint

32. Which of these PWHT temperatures is likely to procedure the best combination of
properties of strength, toughness, and residual stresses in a C - Mn steel joint?
a. 500C
b. 600C
c. 700C
d. 800C

33. Which of these charpy test piece from C - Mn steel high heat input welding
qualification test is likely to have the lowest toughness?
a. Weld metal
b. HAZ
c. Parent metal

34. Which of the following imperfections is more likely to nucleate a fatigue crack in a
welded structure?
a. Volumetric imperfection
b. Planar imperfection

35. Which of the following imperfections is most likely to initiate brittle fracture in a
welded structure?
a. Lack of solid metal
b. Excessive penetration
c. HAZ hydrogen cracking
d. Arc strikes

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36. What action should be taken if a shallow weld defect is found in a welded structure?
a. Surface dressing
b. Weld repair
c. Replace the joint
d. Cut the joint and reweld.

37. The specification of welding positions is important because:

a. The electrode manufacturer needs to define the positions for which the electrodes
are suitable
b. The welder's skill and qualification are to a large extent determined by the
welding position
c. Manual metal arc welding can only be used in certain welding positions

38. The electrode coating: '

A. Improve arc stability
B. Produces a slag blanket
C. Allows alloying elements to be added to the weld metal
D. Increases the weld metal cooling rate

a. Statements A & B is correct

b. Statements B& C is correct
c. Statements A, B and C is correct
d. All statements are correct

39. With DC negative electrode about two thirds of the heat will be at the electrode,
increasing the electrode melting rate, but reducing the penetration
a. True
b. False

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40. Heavy rutile electrodes are usually:

A. Used in any welding position
B. Restricted to flat fillet welds
C. Restricted to flat fillet welds and horizontal - vertical fillet weld
D. Used in the overhead position

a. Statements A & B is correct

b. Statements B& C is correct
c. Statements A, B and C is correct
d. Statements C is correct

41. If the arc length is too short, the arc will:

a. Be erratic
b. Lack direction
c. Lack intensity
d. May short circuit during metal transfer

42. In sub - arc, how is the weld pool shielded from atmosphere?
a. Plain carbon steel
b. Aluminium
c. Stainless steel
d. Non ferrous alloys

43. How many molten pools are produced in a tandem welding head arrangement?
a. Two
b. Four
c. One
d. Three

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44. What are the advantages of fused fluxes?

A. They're homogeneous
B. They're less hygroscopic than other types
C. There are no limits to their composition
D. Fine particles can be removed easily
E. They're easily recycled

a. Statements A & B are correct

b. Answer A and C are correct
c. Answer C and D are correct
d. Statements A, B.D and E are correct

45. Which of these operating variables affects the quality of a completed submerged arc
weld?
A. Ambient temperature
B. Type of electrode
C. Welding speed
D. Electrode extension

a. Statements A & B are correct

b. Statements A, B and C are correct
c. Statements B, C and D are correct
d. None of the above is correct

46. When current are less than 200 amps and the voltage is between 15 and 22V,which
metal transfer mode is likely to occur?
a. Spray transfer
b. Short arc and dip transfer
c. Pulsed transfer
d. Globular transfer

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47. What are the characteristics of mixing helium in the shielding gas?
A. It increases the arc voltage
B. It increases wetting
C. It reduces the heat input
D. It stabilizes the arc

a. Statements A & B are correct

b. Statements A, B and C are correct
c. Statements B, C and D are correct
d. Statements A, B and D are correct

48. Generally speaking what are the three effects of an increase in the welding current?
A. It increases the deposition rate
B. It increases the size of the weld bead
C. It increases the depth and the width of the penetration
D. It reduces the welding flux fume

a. Statements A & B are correct

b. Statements A, B and C are correct
c. Statements B, C and D are correct
d. All Statements are not true

49. Excessively high voltages in GMAW may cause:

A. Undercutting
B. Porosity
C. Uncontrollable distortion
D. Excess spatter

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a. Statements A & B are correct

b. Statements A, B and D are correct
c. Statements B, C and D are correct
d. Statements A, C and D are correct

50. In MIG/MAG, compared with MMA welding, which of the following statements are
true?
A. The MIG/MAG process allows greater welding continuity
B. The MIG/MAG process is better suited to outside applications
C. MIG/MAG equipment is more costly and less portable than MMA equipment
D. Deeper penetration is possible with MMA than MIG/MAG

a. Statements A & B are correct

b. Statements A and C are correct
c. Statements B, C and D are correct
d. Statement B and D are correct

51. Which of the following statements are true with regards to TIG process?
A. The TIG process is faster than most other welding processes
B. Generally the best welding results are achieved with DC electrode negative
C. Tungsten may contaminate the weld and create inclusions

a. Statements A & B are correct

b. Statements B and C are correct
c. Statements B, C and D are correct
d. None of the above is correct

52. By adopting twin welding heads what benefits are gained?

A. Welding time is reduced
B. Less consumable are required
C. Assuming the number of passes is reduced, distortion is minimized

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a. Statements A & B are correct

b. Statements B and C are correct
c. Statements A and C are correct
d. None of the above statement is correct

53. Which of the following statements regarding electroslag welding with consumable
guides or nozzle is true?
A. It is possible to weld there when there is access from one side only
B. It is slower than metal arc welding of thick plate
C. There is more spatter compared with other process
D. Joint preparation is cheaper and less complex

a. Statements A & D are correct

b. Statements B and C are correct
c. Statements A and C are correct
d. None of the above is true

54. Where can backing systems be applied to butt-welding

a. For flat welds only
b. For long vertical welds only
c. For circumferential welds only
d. All positions

55. Which of the following are detrimental to consumables?

A. Moisture
B. Oil and grease
C. Sunlight
D. Paint
E. Mechanical impact

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a. All statements are correct

b. Statements A, B.C and D are correct
c. Statements B, C,D and E are correct
d. Statements A, B,D and E are correct

56. Which of the following welding process is constant voltage process?

A. MIG/MAG
B. TIG
C. MMA
D. Electroslag
E. Flux- cored

a. Process A and C
b. Process A, D and E
c. Process C, D and E
d. Process B, C and E

57. In some circumstances it is possible to eliminate arc blow by:

A. Changing the position of the welding return connection
B. Changing the electrode size
C. Changing the shielding gas
D. Welding in different direction
E. Reducing the voltage
F. Straightening the welding cable path

a. All statements are correct

b. Statements A, B.C, D and F are correct
c. Statements A, B, C, D and E are correct
d. Statements A,B,D and E

Multi - Choice Final Assessment Question Paper (Final Assessment)

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Welding Inspection, Steels

Multi - Choice Assessment Question Paper (MSR-AWI-1)

1. What is the Arc energy for the following welding process parameters? Amps 140,
Volts 21, Travel speed 250mm/min.
a. 0.7 KJ/mm
b. 0.6 KJ/mm
c. 0.01 KJ/mm
d. 0.7J/mm

2. What is the effect of tempering after quenching?

a. Toughness and strength are increased.
b. Toughness and strength are reduced.
c. Toughness reduced and strength increased
d. Toughness increased and strength reduced
e. Toughness increased and hardness increased

3. What is the ratio between the leg length and the design throat thickness on a mitre
fillet weld with equal leg lengths?
a. 1 to 1
b. 2 to1.
c. 1.414 to 1.
d. All of the above it depends upon the leg length size.

4. The toughness and yield strength of steel is reduced by:

a. Reducing the grain size
b. Increasing the heat input.
c. Reducing the heat input.
d. Both a and b.

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5. Which of the following statements is true if applicable to a charpy vee notch impact
test
a. It's a destructive test used to assess materials ductility in the weld zone.
b. It's a mechanical test used to determine a welds resistance to creep.
c. It's a dynamic test, which is used to give a measure of notch toughness.
d. It's a static test used to determine materials toughness in the notch region.
e. Both a and c.

6. How can you tell the difference between an EN/ISO weld symbol and a BS weld
symbol?
a. The EN/ISO weld symbol will always have the arrow side weld at the top of the
reference line.
b. The EN/ISO symbol has the welds elementary symbol placed on a dashed line
lying above or below the solid reference line to indicate a weld on the other side.
c. The EN/ISO symbol has a fillet weld leg length identified by the letter "a".
d. The EN/ISO symbol has a fillet weld throat thickness identified by the letter "z".
e. Both b and d.

7. What is the possible effect of having the heat input too low during welding?
a. Low toughness, entrapped hydrogen and low hardness.
b. High hardness, lack of fusion and entrapped hydrogen.
c. Entrapped hydrogen, low toughness and high ductility.
d. Lack effusion, low toughness and a reduction in ductility.

8. An MMA electrode classified as E7018 is:

a. A basic low hydrogen electrode containing iron powder.'
b. A rutile electrode containing iron powder.
c. A cellulose electrode suitable for welding in all positions.
d. A basic electrode depositing welds metal with yield strength of a least 70,000 psi.
e. Both a and d.

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9. The number 135 is placed at the end of the reference line on a weld symbol.
According to ISO 2553 what does this number indicate?
a. The welding process is stated as MMA
b. The welding process is stated as TIG
c. The welding process is stated as SAW
d. NDT is to be carried out after welding
e. None of the above

10. Which of the following is the most likely to be considered an essential variable for a
welder qualification test?
a. A change from an electrode classified to BS EN 499 as an E46 3 INI B to an
electrode classified to AWS A5.1 as an E7018.
b. A change of pipe wall thickness by at least 15 mm.
c. A change in pre-heat temperature from 50C to 100C.
d. A change from PC welding position to PA welding position.
e. All of the above.

11. What would be a typical appearance of a ductile fracture surface?

a. Rough randomly torn and a reduction in area.
b. Smooth fracture surface displaying beach marks
c. Step like appearance
d. Bright crystalline fracture with very little reduction in area
e. Both a and b.

12. In EN 499, what does the number 50 represent in the following electrode
classification? E5031NiB16001 H5.
a. A minimum of 50 N/mm2 yield strength.
b. A minimum of 500 N/mm2 tensile strength.
c. A minimum of 50000 psi yield strength
d. A minimum of 50000 psi tensile strength
e. None of the above.

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13. Increasing the carbon content of steel will:

a. Increase the hardness and toughness
b. Decrease the hardness and toughness
c. Increase hardness, decrease toughness
d. Decrease hardness, increase toughness

14. Which of the following is applicable for the HAZ on a C/Mn steel weld if the heat
input increases:
a. Both hardness and width is increased.
b. Hardness decreases, width increases.
c. Both hardness and width decreases.
d. Hardness increases, width decreases.

15. What is the main reason for the application of pre-heat?

a. To change the chemical composition of the weld and parent material.
b. The control the hydrogen and prevent cracking.
c. To remove residual stresses.
d. Both a and b.
e. All of the above

16. Which of the following is most likely to increase the chance of solidification
cracking?
a. Reduction in sulphur content of the parent material
b. Increased restraint on the Joint during welding.
c. Increase in weld hydrogen content from 15-ml/100 g to 25-ml/100 g.
d. Poor through thickness ductility in the materials being welded.
e. Both a and b.

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17. What is the effect of full annealing compared to normalizing?

a. A reduction in grain size.
b. An increase in grain size.
c. An increase in toughness
d. The grain size will not be affected.
e. None of the above

18. Which of the following elements may cause cold shortness

a. Sulphur.
b. Phosphorous
c. Manganese.
d. Silicon

19. When considering the advantages of site radiography over ultrasonic inspection
which of the following applies?
a. A permanent record produced, good for detecting lack of sidewall fusion in a
single U butt weld and defect identification.
b. A permanent record produced, good for the detection of all surface and sub-
surface defects and assessing the through thickness depths of defects.
c. Permanent record produced, good for defect identification and not as reliant upon
surface preparation.
d. No controlled areas required on site, a permanent record produced and good for
assessing pipe wall thickness reductions due to internal corrosion.
e. Both a and c

20. Which of the following materials are the most susceptible to HICC in the weld zone
a. Carbon Manganese steel
b. Micro alloyed steel (HSLA)
c. Austenitic steel
d. Both a and b
e. All of the above

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21. Lamellar tearing is:

a. A product defect caused during the manufacturing of certain steels
b. A crack type, which occurs in the parent material due to welding strains acting in
the short transverse direction of the parent material.
c. A type of hot crack associated with impurities (sulphur, carbon and phosphorous).
d. A type of crack that occurs in the weld or parent material due to cyclic stresses.

22. Which of the following statement maybe considered correct when dealing with
agglomerated fluxes?
1. Easy addition of additive
2. They're less hygroscopic than other types
3. Flaky appearance
4. Need to bake, prior to their use
5. Less dust tendency

a. Statements 1 & 4 are correct

b. Answer 1 and 3 are correct
c. Answer 4 and 5 are correct
d. Statements 1, 2,4 and 5 are correct

23. Which of the following is applicable to the heat treatment process of normalizing
carbon-manganese steel
a. It is always carried out below the lower critical limits
b. It is carried out to ensure the material has maximum tensile strength.
c. It is carried out to ensure the material is of maximum ductility and malleability in
preparation for extensive cold working operations.
d. It is carried out at approximately 910C for the purpose of grain refinement

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24. A tee joint on a support bracket is to be welded both sides using 5 mm leg length fillet
welds, each weld is to be intermittent 50 mm in length, and the gap between each
weld is to be 25 mm. In accordance with EN 22553 which of the following symbols
gives the correct representation?
a. b.

5 x 50 (25)
5 50 (25)
5 50 (25) 5 x 50 (25)

b. d

5 25 (50) 5 x 50 (25)

5 25 (50) 5 x 50 (25)

25. Austenitic stainless steel can be identified by:

a. Very shiny appearance.
b. Lack of magnetic attraction.
c. Its extreme hardness.
d. None of the above

26. Ultrasonic testing is preferable to radiographic testing due to:

a. Its ability to detect all defects.
b. Lower amount of operator skill required.
c. Its ability to detect laminations.
d. Its ability to detect both sub-surface and surface defects in Austenitic
stainlesssteel.

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27. Which of the following flame types would you expect to be used for the cutting of
mill steel?
a. Carburising flame.
b. Oxidizing flame.
c. Reducing flame.
d. Neutral flame.

28. The heat affected zone of a carbon steel fusion weld

a. Usually has the highest tensile strength and highest toughness values
b. Usually has the lowest toughness values and cannot be avoided
c. Is usually gamma iron phase and cannot be avoided
d. Both a and c.
e. All of the above.

29. A welding process where the welding plant controls the travel speed and the arc gap,
but under constant supervision using a shielding gas mixture of 80% argon - 20%
carbon dioxide is termed:
a. A manual MAG process.
b. A semi-automatic MAG process.
c. A mechanized MIG process.
d. A mechanized MAG process.

30. The main reason for toe blending on certain welded components is:
a. Corrosion considerations.
b. Fatigue life.
c. Appearance.
d. All of the above

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Welding Inspection, Steels

Multi - Choice Assessment Question Paper (MSR-AWI-2)

1. What is the ratio between the leg length and the design throat thickness on a mitre
fillet weld with equal leg lengths?
a. 1:1
b. 2:1
c. 1.414:1.
d. It depends on the fillet welds dimensions and fit up requirements.

2. Which of the following charpy test pieces form a carbon manganese steel weld,
welded with a high heat input is likely to have the lowest toughness value?
a. Test piece taken from parent metal.
b. Test piece taken from weld metal.
c. Test piece taken from HAZ.
d. All of the above values will be the same.

3. Why is the arc shielded, when using an arc welding process?

a. To eliminate hydrogen from the arc.
b. To retard the cooling rate of the solidifying metal.
c. To excluded the atmosphere from the arc region.
d. The arc is not always shielded when using an arc welding process.

4. Which of the following is applicable for a none planar defects?

a. They are always repaired.
b. Their existence will result in the removal of the entire weld.
c. They are not usually as significant as planar defects.
d. They can only be detected using radiography.

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5. Lamellar tearing is:

a. A product defect caused during the manufacturing of certain steels
b. A crack type, which occurs in the parent material due to welding strains acting in
the short transverse direction of the parent material.
c. A type of hot crack associated with impurities (sulphur, carbon and phosphorous).
d. A type of crack that occurs in the weld or parent material due to cyclic stresses.

6. Which of the following additions to an electrode flux acts as a stabilizer?

a. Sodium silicate.
b. Silicon.
c. Phosphorous.
d. Sulphur.

7. Which of the following elements if present in significant quantities in steel may lead
to cold shortness.
a. Sulphur.
b. Phosphorous.
c. Silicon.
d. Copper.

8. A black triangular flag used in conjunction with a weld symbol as to EN 22553

means:
a. A specific welding process is required.
b. The weld is to be made under constant supervision of a qualified welding
inspector.
c. Welding to be carried out on site (field weld).
d. The weld must be subjected to NDT.

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9. Austenitic stainless steel can be readily identified by:

a. Lack of magnetic attraction.
b. Its extreme hardness.
c. Very shinny appearance.
d. None of the above.

10. Which of the following is likely to be considered an essential variable on a welder

qualification test?
a. A change from an electrode classified to AWS E6011 to an electrode E6012.
b. A change in preheats temperature from 50C to 100C.
c. A change in welding position from PA to PF.
d. All of the above

11. Which of the following is applicable if the heat input is to high during the deposition
of a weld made using the MMA welding process?
a. Low toughness
b. High susceptibility to hydrogen entrapment.
c. High hardness.
d. High susceptibility to lack of fusion.

12. Which of the following will influence the amount of distortion on a component
during and after welding?
a. Heat input.
b. Lack of restraint.
c. Material properties.
d. Both a and b.
e. All of the above.

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13. When welding with the MIG welding process using pure argon as the shielding gas
on carbon steel, which of the following problems are likely to occur?
a. Copper inclusions and excessive cap heights.
b. Excessive root penetration and porosity.
c. Slag inclusions and crater pipe.
d. Lack of fusion and poor cap profiles.

14. It is a requirement to excavate a crack in a low carbon steel welded component; the
defect is at least 25 mm in depth, which of the following would you expect to be done
to remove the defect?
a. Arc air, ground finish and check with DPI
b. Thermal gouging, ground finish and check with MPI.
c. Oxy-gas cutting, ground finish and checked with crack detection.
d. Both a and b.
e. All of the above.

15. The heat affected zone associated with a fusion weld:

a. Usually has the highest tensile strength.
b. Always exists in a fusion-welded joint.
c. Is usually the area of a welded joint that is the most susceptible to HICC?
d. All of the above.

16. Which of the following welding processes would be the most suited for the welding
of carbon steel in excess of 100 mm thickness
a. Tungsten inert gas
b. Electro-slag
c. Manual metal arc.
d. Plasma arc.

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17. A welding process where the welding plant controls the travel speed and arc gap, but
under a constant supervision using a shielding gas mixture of 80% argon - 20%
carbon dioxide is termed as:
a. A manual MAG process.
b. A semi automatic MAG process.
c. A mechanized MIG process.
d. A mechanized MAG process.

18. The purpose of normalizing steel:

a. To modify the grain structure by making it more uniform in order to improve
mechanical properties.
b. To soften a material for extensive machining.
c. To reduce fracture toughness.
d. To reduce ductility.

19. Hot cracking in steel weldment occurs:

a. Along the fusion line
b. In the last metal to solidify.
c. Weld center line
d. In the area of lowest dilution.

20. Generally the most suitable method of detecting lack of sidewall fusion on a single-V
butt weld (30 to 35 bevel angles) would be:
a. Ultrasonic testing.
b. Radiographic testing
c. Magnetic particle testing
d. Both a and b.
e. All of the above

Multi - Choice Final Assessment Question Paper (Final Assessment)

TWI THE WELDING INSTITUTE

21. Ultrasonic testing is preferable to radiographic testing due to:

a. Ability to find all defects.
b. Lower amount of operator skill required
c. Ability to detect laminations.
d. None of the above

22. Lamellar tearing has occurred in a steel fabrication BEFORE welding, which of the
following test methods could have detected it?
a. Radiographic testing.
b. Ultrasonic testing.
c. Magnetic particle testing.
d. It could not be found by any testing method.

23. In x-ray radiography, if the kilo voltage is increase:

a. The radiographic sensitivity will increase.
b. The depth of penetration will reduce.
c. The depth of penetration will increase.
d. Kilo voltage has very little effect on penetration.

24. You are to oversee the arc welding of some machined fittings and find that they are
cadmium plated. What would you do in this situation?
a. Permit the welding to proceed.
b. Permit the welding to proceed with fume extraction.
c. Stop the operation at once.
d. Advise the welders to drink milk then proceed.

Multi - Choice Final Assessment Question Paper (Final Assessment)

TWI THE WELDING INSTITUTE

25. On a single-V butt weld, the distance through the center of the weld from root to face
is called:
a. Reinforcement.
b. Penetration
c. Throat thickness.
d. None of the above.

26. Which of the following flame types would you expect to be used for the cutting of
mild steel?
a. Carburising flame
b. Oxidizing flame.
c. Reducing flame.
d. Neutral flame.

27. The need for pre-heat for steel will increase if:
a. The material thickness reduces.
b. Faster welding speeds
c. The use of a larger welding electrode
d. All of the above.

28. The main reason for toe blending on certain welded steel components is:
a. Corrosion considerations.
b. Fatigue life.
c. Appearance.
d. All of the above.

Multi - Choice Final Assessment Question Paper (Final Assessment)

TWI THE WELDING INSTITUTE

29. Which of the following welding process require a drooping characteristic power
source
a. TIG and MMA.
b. MIG/MAG and MMA.
c. TIG and SAW (less than 500 amps)
d. All of the above.

30. When considering the MIG/MAG welding process which of the following metal
transfer modes would be the best suited to the welding of thick plates over 25mm, flat
welding position.
a. Dip transfer.
b. Pulse transfer.
c. Spray transfer.
d. Globular transfer.

Multi - Choice Final Assessment Question Paper (Final Assessment)