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Projects are temporary in nature and have a definite beginning and end date.
Projects are completed when the project goals are achieved or it is determined
the project is no longer viable.
How Unique?
Product characteristics are progressively elaborated.
The product or service is different in some way from other product or services.
How Temporary?
It has a definite beginning and end. effort.
Example
Building a road is an example of a project. The process of building a road
takes a finite amount of time, and produces a unique product.
Initiating
Planning
Executng
Closing
Project managers or the organization can divide projects into above phases
to provide better management control with appropriate links to the ongoing
operations of the performing organization. Collectively, these phases are
known as the project life cycle.
Scope
Schedule
Quality
Resources
Customer Satisfaction
Risk
These all are so intertwined that a change in one will most often cause a
change in at least one of the others
For example:
If time is extended, the cost of the project will increase.
If time extended with the same cost then quality of the product will reduce.
Changes to any of these legs sets off a series of activities that are needed
to integrate the change across the project.
Global competition
Improved performance
Project HR Management
Inputs
Outputs
The PMBOK covers each of the 10 knowledge areas and 47 processes with
their inputs, outputs, and tools & techniques.
These are:
Initiating
Planning
Executing
Closing
A. Expert Judgment
B. Rolling wave
C. Strategic
D. Operational
Answer:B
Hint:In Rolling wave, high level plan is made and detailed plans are made
for activities just a little before they have to be executed.
(2) What is the term used for the area that entails processes and activities
that define, combine, unify and coordinate the processes and project
activities carried out within the various Project Management Process
Groups?
B. Strategic Management
C. Operations Management
Answer: A
A. Unification
B. Consolidation
C. Communication
D. Review
Answer: D
B. Project scope
C. Contract
D. Internal memo
Answer:C
Answer:A
D. Stakeholders skills
Answer: A
B. Project Charter
C. Justifications
D. Memos
Answer: B
D. Strategic Management
Answer: B
Answer: D
Hint: All the requirements must be fulfilled before the closing process
A. Tasks.
B. Milestones
C. Deliverables
D. Life cycles
Answer: C
Answer: C
Answer: A
(13) Murli, a project manager in a Telecom Company got all the project
related information listed and improvised in the Organizational Process
Assets (OPA) along with its communication across the organization. The
process undertaken by him is known as:
Answer: C
B. Project Schedule
C. Risk Register
D. Stakeholder Register
Answer: D
A. Cost Management
B. Time Management
Answer: C
D. Schedule forecasts
Answer: D
A. Project Charter
Answer: B
B. Expert Judgement
D. Meetings
Answer: A
Hint: Change Control Tools are used in Perform Integrated Change Control
process
B. Change Log
C. Change Requests
D. Deliverables
Answer: B
(20) Monitor and Control Project Work is a process that utilizes various
inputs for detecting and correcting the shortcomings in any of the areas to
ensure achievement of the goals of the project. Which of the following
inputs is used for the process?
A. Agreements
D. Accepted Deliverables
Answer: C
Hint: See Monitor and Control Project Work inputs, Page 65, PMBOK 5
B. Collect Requirements
C. Control Scope
D. Validate Scope
Answer:B
D. Project Specifications
Answer: A
C. Should be managed and controlled from the project concept through closing
D. is usually not a problem after the contract or other document authorizing the
project has been approved.
Answer: C
Hint: Scope Management is done from the start till the closing phase
B. The sponsor
D. The customer
Answer:B
Answer:A
D. a and c
Answer: B
A. Solution Requirements
B. Project Requirements
C. Transition Requirements
D. Quality Requirements
Answer: A
A. Product scope
B. Project scope
Answer: D
A. Product ID number
Answer: B
(10) What is the term for the technique that utilizes a decision matrix to
provide a systematic analytical approach for establishing criteria, such as
risk levels, uncertainty, and valuation to evaluate and rank many ideas?
A. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity Diagram
D. Both B& C
Answer: B
(11) What is the term used for the processes required to ensure that the
project include all the work required, and only the work required, to
complete the work successfully.
B. Bill of Materials
Answer: A
a. Collect Requirements
c. Define Scope
d. Create WBS
A. a-b-c-d
B. c-d-b-a
C. b-a-c-d
D. a-c-b-d
Answer: C
A. Product Scope
B. Project Scope
C. Both A & B
Answer: C
A. Project Charter
C. EEF
D. Requirements Documentation
Answer: D
C. Stakeholder Register
Answer: C
(16) The various tools and techniques used during the process of Collect
Requirements include all but
A. Prototypes
B. Variance Analysis
C. Benchmarking
D. Document Analysis
Answer: B
(17) Which of the following is not used as an input for the Validate Scope
process?
A. Scope Baseline
B. Verified Deliverables
Answer: A
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Validate Scope
D. Create WBS
Answer: D
(19) The focused sessions that bring key stakeholders together to define
product requirements is known as
A. Interviews
B. Focus Groups
C. Facilitated Workshops
Answer: C
(20) A grid that links product requirements from their origin to the
deliverables that satisfy them is known as
A. Context Diagrams
B. Affinity Diagram
A. Project manager
B. Functional managers
C. The customer
D. Both a and b
Answer:D
Hint: Both Project Manager and Functional Manager are responsible for
project team and working towards achieving project milestones.
(2) The decision to request an increase the resources for a project is the
responsibility of the:
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
D. Customer
Answer: B
A. Conceptual
B. Planning
C. Implementation
D. Design
Answer: B
Hint: Refer Process and Knowledge area mapping on Page 61, PMBOK 5
D. Put extra resources on those tasks that are on the critical path.
Answer:D
B. Control Schedule
C. Develop Schedule
D. Sequence Activities
Answer:A
(6) Which of the following is NOT one of the primary needs for good project
scheduling?
Answer: D
(7) The inputs used in the Define Activities process includes all but
A. Scope baseline
B. EEF
C. OPA
D. Milestone list
Answer: D
Answer: C
C. Reduce the amount of resources so that they can be shared with on other
endeavors.
D. Increase the amount of the project manager's authority so that budget dollars
can be appropriated.
Answer: A
(10) The tools and techniques used in Estimate Activity Durations exclude
which of the following
A. Analogous Estimating
C. Reserve Analysis
Answer: D
a. Define Activities
b. Develop Schedule
d. Sequence Activities
g. Control Schedule
A. a-b-c-d-e-f-g
B. c-a-d-f-e-b-g
C. b-a-c-d-e-f-g
D. b-c-a-d-f-e-g
Answer: B
A. WBS
Answer: C
(13) The representation of the plan for executing the project's activities
including durations, dependencies, and other planning information, used to
produce project schedules along with other scheduling artifacts is known as
A. Schedule Compression
B. Schedule Model
C. Schedule Data
Answer: B
D. Both A & C
Answer: A
(15) Which of the following is the output of the Plan Schedule Management
process?
A. Activity List
C. Activity List
Answer: B
(16) The following inputs are used in both Sequence Activities and Estimate
Activity Resources process, excluding
B. Activity List
C. Risk Register
D. Activity Attributes
Answer: C
(17) What is the term for an iterative planning technique in which the work
to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in
the future is planned at a higher level
A. Decomposition
C. Alternative Analysis
D. Reserve Analysis
Answer: B
Hint: Refer to Rolling Wave planning on Page 152, PMBOK 5
A. Sequence Activities
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
Answer: A
A. Finish-to-start
B. Start-to-finish
C. Predecessor-Follower
D. Only A and B
E. A, B, and C
Answer: D
A. Alternative Analysis
B. Bottom-up Estimating
C. Parametric Estimating
D. Three-point estimating
Answer: B
A. Preliminary
B. Definitive
C. Order of magnitude
D. Conceptual
Answer:B
Hint: Definitive estimates are in range -5% to 10% in accuracy. Page 201,
PMBOK 5
B. Fixed price
Answer: A
A. Highest
B. Lowest
D. Third
Answer: B
Hint: Work package is the lowest unit of work to estimate cost and duration.
A. CV = EV - PV
B. CV = EV - AC
C. CV = EV / AC
D. A and c
Answer:B
A. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of
probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
B. The process of accumulating costs of individual activities to establish a cost
baseline.
Answer:B
D. A and B
Answer: C
A. The process of developing the future trends along with the assessment of
probabilities, uncertainties, and inflation that could occur during the project
B. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life cycle
C. The process of assembling and predicting costs of a project over its life cycle
D. The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project costs and
managing changes to the cost baseline.
Answer: D
Hint: Control Costs, Page 193, PMBOK 5
(8) The PV = $250, the AC = $350, and the EV = $200. Calculate the Cost
Variance.
A. -$150
B. $150
C. -$50
D. $50
Answer: A
Hint: CV=EV-AC
(9) One of the types of cost estimation is Rough Order of Magnitude. This
estimate:
D. Usually made before the project is designed, and must therefore rely on the cost
data of similar projects built in the past.
Answer: D
(10) The sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed is
known as:
A. Planned Value
D. Estimate at Completion
Answer: C
Answer: A
A. Control Costs
B. Estimate Costs
D. Determine Budget
Answer: C
A. Determine Budget
B. Control Costs
C. Estimate Costs
Answer: B
a. Determine Budget
c. Estimate Costs
d. Control Costs
A. a-b-c-d
B. c-a-b-d
C. b-c-a-d
D. a-c-b-d
Answer: C
A. Estimate Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Both A & B
Answer: A
(16) Which one of the following is not an input used in the process of
Estimate Costs?
A. Scope Baseline
Answer: D
(17) The tools and techniques used in the process of Determine Budget
includes all but
A. Cost Aggregation
B. Cost of Quality
C. Expert Judgement
D. Historical Relationships
Answer: B
(18) Which of the following output of Determine Budget process is not used
as an input in the Control Costs Process?
B. Cost Baseline
C. Both A & B
Answer: B
(19) Which of the following is not an output of the Control Costs process?
A. Cost Forecasts
B. Change Requests
Answer: C
(20) The tools and techniques used in Control costs includes all but
C. Reserve Analysis
D. Cost Aggregation
Answer: D
Answer:C
Answer: A
B. Control Quality
D. Both A & B
Answer: A
A. Audit
B. Peer Review
C. Process Analysis
D. Walkthrough
Answer:C
Hint: Process Analysis is done to identify the root causes of a problem and
suggest preventive actions.
B. Quality Assurance
C. quantitative measurement
D. quantitative assessment of the project
E. a and b
Answer:E
(6) The term for the process and activities of the performing organization
that determine quality policies, objectives and responsibilities so that the
project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken is :
Answer: C
(7) Which of the following has the greatest effect on product's reliability
and maintenance characteristic?
A. quality
B. product design
C. pricing
D. a and b
Answer: D
Answer: B
Hint: PMBOK 5 page 233, Sec 8.1.1 Plan Quality Management: Inputs
(Project scope statement)
A. using the process of monitoring project results to decide if the outputs meet the
requirements
B. a production system
C. an inspection system
Answer: A
A. all costs incurred to assure the production and delivery of acceptable products
and services.
C. Only the cost of scrap, rework due to defects, customer returns and warranty
costs.
D. The expense of upper management
Answer: A
(11) The common tools and techniques used in both Plan Quality
Management and Control Quality is:
A. Cost-Benefit Analysis
B. Benchmarking
D. Inspection
Answer: C
Hint: PMBOK 5, Page 230, Fig 8-1 Project Quality Management Overview
(12) Which of the following outputs of the Plan Quality Management is not
used as an input in the Perform Quality Assurance process?
C. Quality Metrics
D. Quality Checklists
Answer: D
Hint: PMBOK 5, Page 230, Fig 8-1 Project Quality Management Overview
(13) The tools and techniques used in the process of Perform Quality
Assurance includes all except:
C. Inspection
D. Process Analysis
Answer: C
(14) All of the following are the outputs of the Control Quality Process
excluding:
A. Change Requests
B. Quality Metrics
Answer: B
(15) Which of the following are used to identify the vital few sources that
are responsible for causing most of a problem's effects?
A. Pareto Diagrams
B. Check sheets
C. Scatter Diagrams
D. Control Charts
Answer: A
A. Scatter Diagrams
B. Histograms
C. Cause-and-effect diagrams
D. Pareto Diagrams
Answer: A
(17) The statistical method for identifying the factors that may influence
specific variables of a product or process under development or in
production is called
A. Statistical Sampling
C. Benchmarking
D. Cost-Benefit Analysis
Answer: B
(18) The technique used as an additional quality planning tool and allow
ideas to be brainstormed in small groups and then reviewed by a larger
group is known as
A. Brainstorming
Answer: B
A. Quality Checklists
D. Quality Metrics
Answer: D
(20) The name for the tool used in Perform Quality Assurance to represent
decomposition hierarchies such as the WBS (work breakdown structure),
RBS (risk breakdown structure), and OBS (organizational breakdown
structure) is:
A. Tree Diagrams
C. Affinity Diagrams
D. Matrix Diagrams
Answer: A
D. Feedback sessions
E. Both b and c
Answer:E
Hint: PMBOK 5, Page 264 Sec 9.1.3 Plan Human Resource Management:
Outputs
(2) Expert power is the power that comes from the amount of knowledge a
person has obtained in a specific area. This type of power is:
C. Important if the project manager wants to maintain the respect of the project
team
Answer: D
Hint: PMBOK 5, Page 16, Sec 1.7 Role of the Project Manager
Answer: D
(4) To successfully manage a project, the project manager must play both
a manager and leadership role. In a manager's role, the project manager
will do all but which of the following:
E. Both b and d
Answer:B
A. Referent power
B. Formal authority
Answer:A
(6) Which form of power is the LEAST effective from the project manager's
viewpoint in terms of influencing functional managers?
A. Formal power
B. Expert power
C. Penalty power
D. Referent power
Answer: C
Hint: Penalty is the least effective forms of influencing and should not be
used at all, if possible.
(7) The Project manager should be able to fulfill the role of:
A. an integrator
B. a functional manager
C. a line manager
D. a sponsor
Answer: A
Hint: A project manager is responsible for collective project success. Refer
PMBOK 5, Page 16, Sec 1.7 Role of the Project Manager
A. Work their way up from assistants in the project office to full-fledged project
managers, supplementing that experience with formal education.
B. Comes right from Harvard's MBA program into managing very large projects.
Answer: A
(9) Which of the following is an important action that must be taken by top
management when implementing project management in an organization?
Answer: D
Hint: It is important for project success that all stakeholders agree on the
importance of project management concepts and theories.
A. Project expediter
B. Matrix
C. Projectized organization
D. Functional
Answer: C
(11) The process that organize, manage, and lead the project team for the
completion of a project is called
Answer:C
A. 1-2-3-4
B. 3-2-1-4
C. 2-1-3-4
D. 1-3-2-4
Answer:D
(13) Which of the following techniques is not used in the process of Plan
Human Resource Management?
A. Networking
B. Pre-assignment
C. Organizational theory
D. Meetings
Answer:B
(14) The various inputs used while executing the process of Develop
Project Team includes all but
D. Training
Answer:C
A. Issue Log
B. Resource Calendars
Answer:A
Answer:C
(17) The information used for the development of the human resource
management plan includes all except
Answer:D
(18) The concept that provides information regarding the way in which
people, teams, and organizational units behave is known as
A. Networking
B. Organizational Theory
C. Expert Judgment
Answer:B
(19) The phase of team building where the team begins to address the
project work, technical decisions, and the project management approach is
known as
A. Performing
B. Storming
C. Forming
D. Norming
Answer:B
(20) The Conflict Management approach that is used for emphasizing upon
the areas of agreement rather than areas of differences conceding one's
position to the needs of others to maintain harmony and relationships is
called
A. Collaborate/Problem Solve
B. Compromise/Reconcile
C. Smooth/ Accommodate
D. Withdraw/Avoid
Answer:C
Answer:D
A. Written documents
B. Oral communication
C. Tactile contact
D. Informal contact
Answer: A
A. Progress report
B. Project directive
C. Project manager
D. Customer
Answer: C
Hint: Project manager is responsible for executing and facilitating all the
project-related communication.
B. Is not a big problem for people with normal speech, sight and hearing
C. Involves the sender, the message, the medium and the receiver
D. Preparing an agenda
Answer:C
B. Depends on selecting the right method for each message and avoiding
duplication, since everyone is overloaded with information
E. a, b and c
Answer:E
B. Non-verbal/ visual
C. Telepathy
D. only A and B
E. A, B and C
Answer: D
Answer: D
(8) The process of communication contains four major parts. Which part is
the vehicle or method used to convey the message?
A. Communicator
B. Message
C. Medium
D. Recipient
Answer: C
A. Conflict is bad
Answer: D
Hint: Conflicts can help arrive at better solutions. : PMBOK 5, Page 518
X3.10 Conflict Management
(10) Approximately what percentage of the project manager's time is spent
in some form of communication, such as: conferences, meetings, writing
memos, reading and preparing reports, and talking with project team
members, upper management, and all other stalk holders?
A. 10-20%
B. 50-70%
C. 75-90%
D. 21-45%
Answer: C
(11) What is the term used for processes that are required to ensure timely
and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage,
retrieval, management , control monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of
project information?
Answer: A
Answer: B
B. Stakeholder Register
C. OPA
Answer: D
B. Communication Technology
C. Communication Models
Answer: D
Hint: PMBOK 5, Page 288, Section 10.2
(15) The output of the Control Communications Process includes all except
A. Change Requests
C. Project Communications
D. OPA Updates
Answer: C
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
A. Project Environment
Answer: B
(18) The type of Communication Methods tool that uses very large volume
of information ,or for very large audience, and requires the recipients to
access the communication content at their own discretion is called
A. Interactive Communication
B. Pull Communication
C. Push Communication
Answer: B
A. Manage Communications
C. Control Communications
D. Both A & C
Answer: A
A. Performance Reporting
C. Expert Judgment
Answer: B
(1) The process under Process Risk Management that prioritizes risks for
further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of
occurrence and impact is called
Answer:A
(2) The inputs used in the process of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
includes all except
A. Scope Baseline
B. Risk Register
Answer: C
A. indefinite, probabilities
B. uncertain, objectives
C. sure, goals
D. definite, uncertainties
Answer: B
(4) When is the risk and uncertainty in a project's life cycle at the highest?
A. start
B. design
C. closing
D. implementation
Answer:A
A. fixed price
Answer:A
Hint: A fixed bid project has lesser risk for the firm that gives high-risk work
on contract
(6) The process of Control Risks does not have one of the following as an
output. Which one is it?
B. Change Requests
C. OPA updates
D. Risk Register
Answer: D
Answer: B
A. Determining the interaction of the amount at stake and the expected value
C. Calculating the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or
may not happen
D. A flow chart which determines the standard deviation of the risk event
Answer: C
(9) The total amount of risk that is calculated for a project is found by
A. Multiplying the sum of each the risk times the amount at stake
B. Calculating the cumulative sum of the probability for each risk and multiplying
this value times the consequence of occurrence of the risk events
Answer: B
A. Share
B. Accept
C. Enhance
D. Exploit
Answer: C
3. Identify Risks
6. Control Risks
A. A.1-2-3-4-5-6
B. B.1-3-2-4-5-6
C. C.1-3-4-2-5-6
D. D.3-1-2-4-5-6
Answer:B
Hint: PMBOK 5, Page 309
B. Control Risks
C. Identify Risks
Answer:B
(13) The measure along the level of uncertainty or the level of impact at
which a stakeholder may have a specific interest. Below that, the
organization will accept the risk, and above this measure the organization
will not accept the risk. It is known as
A. Risk Threshold
B. Risk Appetite
C. Risk Tolerance
Answer:A
(14)
Which of the following tools and techniques is not used in the process of Identify Risks
A. SWOT Analysis
B. Diagramming Techniques
C. Checklist Analysis
D. Risk Categorization
Answer:D
(15) The tools and techniques used in the process of Plan Risk Responses
includes all except
D. Expert Judgment
Answer:B
A. Meetings
B. Expert Judgment
C. Analytical Techniques
D. Both B& C
Answer:C
A. Methodology
C. Budgeting
D. Tracking
Answer:D
(18) The technique used under the Quantitative Risk Analysis which is a
statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future
includes scenarios that may or may not happen is known as
A. Sensitivity Analysis
D. Expert Judgment
Answer:B
(19)
The technique used under the Quantitative Risk Analysis that translates the specified
detailed uncertainties of the project into their potential impact on project activities is
called
D. Sensitivity Analysis
Answer:B
(20) A risk response strategy used under tool of Strategies for negative
Risks or Threats through which the project team decides to acknowledge
the risk and not take any action unless the risk occurs is called
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. Avoid
Answer:C
(1) The fixed price contract is advantageous to the buyer because it:
Hint: Read about Fixed-price contracts under Sec 12.1.1.9, Page 362
PMBOK 5
A. funding management
C. performance control
Answer: D
A. express
B. implied
C. negotiated
D. A and B
E. A, B, and C
Answer: D
C. the supplier with a fixed price for delivered performance plus a predetermined
fee for superior performance
D. a fixed price where the supplier agrees to furnish goods and services at unit
rates and the final price is dependent on the quantities needed to carry out the
work.
Answer:D
B. Control Procurements
C. Close Procurements
D. Conduct Procurements
Answer:B
A. acquisition process
B. contract administration
C. ecological environment
D. offer, acceptance, and consideration
E. a and b
Answer: E
(7) The tools and techniques used in the process of Plan Procurement
Management includes all but
A. Make-or-buy analysis
B. Market Research
C. Bidder Conferences
D. Expert Judgment
Answer: C
(8) Which contract type places the most risk on the seller?
Answer: E
Hint: Read about types of contracts under Sec 12.1.1.9, Page 362 PMBOK 5
(9) Decisions made in developing the procurement management plan can
also influence the project schedule and are integrated with Develop
Schedule, Estimate Activity Resources, and make-or-buy analysis. The
statement is
A. True
B. False
C. Not sure
D. Incomplete Information
Answer: A
(10) What is the last item a project manager must do to finalize the project
closing?
B. Contract completion
Answer: B
(11) The process that includes the contract management and change
control processes required to develop and administer contracts or purchase
orders issued by authorized project team members is known as:
Answer: A
2. Control Procurements
3. Conduct Procurements
4. Close Procurements
A. A. 1-2-3-4
B. B. 1-3-2-4
C. C. 1-4-3-2
D. D. 3-1-2-4
Answer: B
(13) The inputs used in the process of Conduct Procurements includes all
except
A. Seller Proposals
Answer: D
Answer: A
(15) 15. The contractual agreement under Fixed Price Contracts ,which
influences the Plan Procurement project and gives the buyer and seller
some flexibility in that it allows for deviation from performance, with
financial incentives tied to achieving agreed upon metrics is called
Answer: A
Answer: C
Answer: B
(18) The component of the project management plan that describes how a
project team will acquire goods and services from outside the performing
organization is called
A. Procurement Management Plan
C. Procurement Documents
Answer: A
A. Market Research
B. Make-or-buy Analysis
C. Expert Judgment
Answer: B
(20) The type of hybrid contracts which influences the Plan Procurement
project is called
B. Cost-reimbursable Contracts
D. Both B & C
Answer: A
Hint: PMBOK 5, Page 364
(1) Which of the following knowledge area deals with identifying people,
groups or organizations that could impact or be impacted by a project that
required building a 3-mile long bridge connecting two island cities of a
country?
D. Communication Plan
Answer:B
(2) Which of the following process would apply if you had to communicate
with the project team members to understand their expectations from the
outcome of their project?
A. Manage Communications
Answer: C
A. Stakeholder register
B. Procurement documents
E. A and C
Answer: B
(4) Which of the following is/are not required for manage stakeholder
engagement process?
D. Change log
Answer:A
A. Supplier
B. Customer
C. PMO
D. Competitor
Answer:D
A. Managerial grid
B. Johari window
C. Performance grid
D. Salience model
Answer: D
(7) Which one of the following is the best way to manage stakeholders?
Answer: C
Hint: All stakeholders must be kept informed about the project progress
A. Leading
B. Supportive
C. Active
D. Neutral
Answer: A
D. Only A and B
E. A, B and C
Answer: D
Hint: The matrix helps map the difference between Desired and Actual
engagement level.
B. Half-way through
Answer: A
C. A, B
Answer: C
C. Procurement Documents
D. A and B
Answer: D
Answer: C
A. Delphi Technique
B. Management Skills
C. Interpersonal Skills
D. Communication Methods
Answer: A
B. Stakeholders hobbies
D. Communication skills
Answer: C
B. Aware/Unaware
C. Optimistic/Pessimistic
D. Supportive/Resistant
Answer: C
Answer: C
(18) In an analytical process, what could be a sign that indicates the need
of some actions or communications directed to manage a stakeholder's
engagement level?
B. The stakeholder's current engagement level varies from the desired level
Answer: B
Hint: Unmatched Desired and Actual engagement level is an indicator of the
need to assess the expectations and concerns of s stakeholder.
(19) Stakeholder Management Plan includes all except one of the following:
Answer: D
Answer: B