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1) If a stakeholder has any questions about project deliverables, as the PM, you should direct him to the:
a) WBS
b) Project plan
2) Your construction project was damaged by an earthquake. Your contractor says that he cannot fulfil
the terms of the contract due to a specific clause you both had signed in the contract. He is referring to
the:
3) Your vendor has confirmed in writing that he will not be able to provide the products contracted to
him, in the time mentioned in the contract. You can terminate the contract and sue for damages. This is
a type of:
a) Minor breach
b) Anticipatory breach
c) Material breach
d) Fundamental breach
4) As a PM, you manage multiple projects. One of your projects is over budget while the other is under
budget. You decide to transfer money from the latter to the former and report both projects as within
budget. This is against the PMI code of ethics and is called:
a) Unethical management
b) Budget tampering
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c) Fraudulent reporting
d) Cost leveling
5) Your brother can influence bids in the vendor company that has been contracted for your project. You
should:
a) Disclose the bid price that is most likely to make him win
c) Refrain from the decision-making process and make a full disclosure to stakeholders and wait for their
decision before you proceed
6) A project you are managing is about to be completed. But there is a minor defect in the work
produced by the contractor. You should:
7) As a PM, you have identified some low priority risks. You should:
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8) One of your team members' A's father was sick when you were in the planning stage of your project.
A had informed you that he might have to leave to visit his father if the situation arose. You had planned
for this and spoke to the functional manager of your group to provide a back-up resource, B to be used if
necessary.
Now, A has left to see his father and B is filling in for him. But B is taking more than expected time to get
up to speed and this impacts project cost and schedule.
This is an example of a:
a) Residual risk
b) Secondary risk
c) Contingency plan
9) To motivate your team, you decided to reward a team member who performed well. This hurt
cohesion in the team. You should:
10) Your project uses a vendor who has completed 50% of the contracted work. You are unsure of how
much to pay the vendor. You should refer to the:
b) Contract
c) Response to bid
d) Statement of work
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11) When estimating time for activities, a PM should:
a) Use random guessing and estimate for all activities as there will be changes anyways
c) Estimate for what the cost will allow and not include buffers
12) When there are people from different countries and cultures in a team, the PM should:
13) If your business sponsor has an important but minor change to the scope, and he requests that you
make the change without having to process a change request:
d) Request the client that the change management process has to be followed
14) If a stakeholder directly asks a team member to make changes and the team member accomodates
it:
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a) Admonish the team member during the team meeting so that other team members are also aware
b) Inform the stakeholder that he should not talk to your team member
c) Talk to the stakeholder and team member in private, and emphasise gently that the Integrated
Change Control process should be followed
15) When your client is ready to accept the product your project has produced, you should:
d) Let go off the project resources and assign them to other projects
16) Appreciating a team member's good work in front of the team results in:
b) Encouragement for the team member and motivation for other team members
17) As the project manager of an important project, you learnt many helpful tools and tips. What should
you do?
b) Archive your learning in the project folder and share with other PMs
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d) None of the above
18) You just found out that the company that you were planning to use in your project is known for
being late in delivering their products that can lead to losses to the project. You decide to go with a
different company to ______ the risk.
a) Mitigate
b) Reject
c) Transfer
d) Avoid
19) You are the project manager of a project that involves sensitive information. You are inviting bids
from vendors for some tasks on this project. Since the winning vendor will have access to the sensitive
information, you should:
a) Decide to drop the vendor and instead do the tasks using an internal team
20) A project is behind schedule. Two senior resources are added to help speeden work. The result is:
c) Project may not be completed on time due to increased number of communication channels
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a) Scope planning
b) Scope definition
c) Both a and b
22) Requested changes to scope and recommended corrective action belong to which process:
a) Scope verification
b) Scope definition
c) Scope control
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b) Organizational culture
c) Organization structure
d) Organization type
26) Qualitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Risk Management:
a) Planning
b) Executing
c) Monitoring
d) Controlling
27) Quantitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Risk Management:
a) Planning
b) Executing
c) Monitoring
d) Controlling
a) Risk identification
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c) Risk monitoring and control
c) Risk register
32) A risk is a bad event that will adversely impact the project. This statement is:
a) Always true
b) Always false
c) Sometimes true
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d) Scope, Time, quality
iii) Can be done without impact analysis if the impact is zero or minimal
iv) Should not be done as they were not in the original plan
a) i, ii
b) i, ii, iii
c) i, ii, iv
a) Project schedule
b) WBS
c) Activity time
d) Project plan
a) The time it takes to finish the project completing only the critical activities
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37) When there are multiple critical paths in a project:
b) Activity decomposition
c) Activity list
39) Software Project A took 5 months to complete. Project B, very similar to Project A will probably take
about 5 months to complete. This expert judgement technique is:
a) Analogous estimating
b) Critical path
c) Expert estimation
d) Compression
40) Crashing:
b) Increases cost
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a) Is a schedule compression technique
a) i, iii, iv
d) ii, iii
a) Fishbone diagrams
b) Causal diagrams
c) Stick diagrams
d) Bone diagrams
44) Some managers believe that people do not work willingly and must be watched and managed
continuosly. They are of type:
a) Theory X
b) Theory Y
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c) Theory XY
d) Theory V
45) When an individual's lower level needs are met, the next level's needs are his motivation. This forms
the basis of:
a) Theory Y
b) Maslow's hierarchy
c) Theory X
a) War room
b) Collocation
c) Teleconferencing
d) Telecommuting
b) False information
48) A project manager manages a team of 5. The number of communication channels is:
a) 15
b) 10
c) 5
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d) None of the above
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
b) Quality check
c) Issue list
d) Defect review
51) A bar graph that shows resource assignments over time is:
a) Resource leveling
b) Resource histogram
c) Resource chart
d) Gantt chart
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a) i, ii, iii
b) i, iv
c) ii, iii, iv
d) iii, iv
a) Non-zero float
a) Scope planning
b) Scope definition
c) Both a and b
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56) Earned value=100, Planned value=110, the schedule performance index is:
a) 1.1
b) 0.91
c) -10
d) 10
57) Earned value=100, Actual cost=120, the cost performance index is:
a) 0.01
b) 20
c) 0.833
d) -20
a) Are self-motivated
b) Have to be micro-managed
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a) Added to a watch list and the risk register updated
b) Risk ranking
d) Risk response
a) Risk register
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c) Cost management plan
a) Expert judgement
c) Modeling
d) Only A
67) Examine the statement-"A detailed risk response plan should be prepared no matter how huge or
trivial the risk is, irrespective of whether the effort is cost-effective or not, as this is the process." This
statement is:
a) Always true
b) Always false
c) Sometimes true
d) Sometimes false
a) Good risks
b) Opportunities
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c) Advantages
d) Project plusses
69) The four strategies used to deal with negative threats are:
d) Can't say
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c) is the same for vendor and buyer
d) Can't say
a) Avoiding
b) Transferring
c) Mitigating
d) Working around
a) Risk analysis
b) Risk register
c) Risk monitor
75) The four strategies used to deal with positive threats are:
76) How to define, monitor and control risks in a project is documented in:
b) Risk register
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d) Workshops
b) Expert judgement
c) Contract types
78) Unclear scope definition in a project using Fixed price contract can lead to losses for:
a) the buyer
b) the vendor
79) Request for proposal, Request for Information, Invitation for bid are broadly called:
a) Procurement documents
b) Vendor documents
c) Bidding documents
d) Contract documents
a) Initiating
b) Executing
c) Closing
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81) Closing a Project involves:
b) Closing contract
c) Setting higher than possible expectations that introduce risk to the project
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d) Price-free contracts
c) Planning process
86) A tool/rechnique used in the Develop Human Resource plan process is:
a) Political factors
b) Organization chart
c) Personnel policies
d) Interpersonal factors
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
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d) All of the above
a) Cost-benefit analysis
b) Control charts
c) Benchmarking
a) Prevention
b) Correction
c) Conformance
92) Juran's fitness for use theory of cost of quality can be summarized as:
a) Continuous improvement
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d) Making a product with zero defects
a) Actual cost
c) Earned value
a) Infinite duration
b) Zero duration
c) No importance
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97) Residual risk is a risk:
99) A room used for project planning, and where team members work on issue resolution is called:
a) Conference room
b) Resolution room
c) War room
a) EAC-AC
b) BAC-EAC
c) Both a and b
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d) Neither a nor b
a) Meetings
b) Issue resolution
c) Managing stakeholders
d) Risk analysis
102) The cost of a contractor is $25 per hour. Two contractors working for 10 hours will cost $500. This
is an example of:
a) Analogous estimating
b) Parametric estimating
c) Three-point estimating
d) Bottom-up estimating
103) Using PERT, calculate the time it takes for a task with the following information:
Pessimistic time=5 hours, Optimistic time=2 hours, Most likely time=5 hours. The answer is:
a) 4.5 hours
b) 3 hours
c) 5 hours
d) 1.5 hours
a) Control thresholds
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105) The revenue earned from doing a project is $1000. The costs involved sum to $500. The benefit
cost ratio is:
a) 2
b) 0.5
c) 500000
c) Cannot be determined
107) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Budgeted cost of work scheduled=$2000. The schedule
performance index is:
a) 0.5
b) 2
c) 1000
108) Earned value=$2000. Planned value=$2500. The schedule performance index is:
a) 0.8
b) 1.25
c) 500
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109) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Actual cost of work performed=$2000. The cost
performance index is:
a) 0.5
b) 2
c) 1000
110) Budgeted cost of work performed=$1000, Actual cost of work performed=$2000. The cost variance
is:
a) -1000
b) 2
c) 1000
111) Actual cost=$1000, Budget at completion=$800, cost performance index=0.5, Earned value= $600,
the variance can occur again. The estimate at completion is:
a) $1000
b) $1400
c) $800
112) Actual cost=$1000, Budget at completion=$800, cost performance index=0.5, Earned value= $600,
the variance will not occur again. The estimate at completion is:
a) $1000
b) $1200
c) $800
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d) None of the above
a) Phase exits
b) Stage gates
c) Kill points
a) It is higher inthe beginning as uncertainty is high and gets lesser as the project continues
c) It is lesser inthe beginning as uncertainty is high and gets better as the project continues
a) Little or none
b) Limited
c) Low
d) Moderate
b) Limited
c) Low to moderate
d) Moderate to high
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117) In a projectized organization structure, the PM's authority is:
a) High
b) Limited
d) Moderate to high
a) Functional manager
b) Project manager
c) Mixed
119) Deming's cycle is used for continuous improvement of processes. The four-step management
method is:
a) Plan-Do-Check-Act
b) Plan-Act-Check-Do
c) Plan-Act-Do-Check
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121) Administer procurements belongs to:
a) Problem
b) Market
c) Opportunity
a) Authorizes a project
a) Business needs
b) Risks
c) Quality plan
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a) WBS
b) WBS dictionary
a) Cost-benefit analysis
b) Payback period
129) WBS:
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b) Is the basis for estimates
c) Provides the team with an understanding of where their pieces fit in the project plan
b) Poor planning
c) Poor control
b) A value-adding change
c) An external event
a) Brainstorming
b) Risk identification
d) Powerpoint presentations
133) WBS includes all project work. Which of the following is also true about WBS?
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c) Total of work at lowest levels need not always roll up to higher levels as some extra work may be
completed
134) Critical chain method and critical path method are tools and techniques used in which process of
the Project TIme management area?
b) Control schedule
c) Develop schedule
135) Resource leveling is a tool/technique used in which process in Project Time Management
overview?
a) Develop schedule
b) Control schedule
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
137) The outputs of 'Activity Definition' and 'Create WBS' respectively are:
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c) Schedule activity and deliverable
a) Float
c) Lag
d) Activities
a) Preferential logic
b) Soft logic
c) Preferred logic
a) Acceleration
b) Deceleration
c) Tracking
d) Regression
a) Acceleration
b) Delay
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c) Tracking
d) Regression
a) Known unknowns
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
a) Unknown unknowns
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
c) Requested changes
a) Project management
b) Cost reduction
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c) Schedule compression
d) Schedule estimation
b) A time-phased budget
147) The difference between maximum funding and the end of cost baseline is:
a) Management reserve
b) Cost baseline
c) Cost overrun
148) Identifying quality standards relevant to the porject and determing how to satisfy them is:
a) Quality planning
b) Quality assurance
c) Quality control
d) Quality management
149) Applying planned, systematic quality activities to ensure that proejct employs all processes needed
to meet requirement is:
a) Quality planning
b) Quality assurance
c) Quality control
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d) Quality management
150) Monitoring specific project results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality
standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance is:
a) Quality planning
b) Quality assurance
c) Quality control
d) Quality management
a) Scatter diagram
b) Statistical sampling
c) Inspection
d) Defect repair
a) Product reviews
b) Audits
c) Walkthroughs
a) Staff acquisition
b) Release criteria
c) Training needs
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154) Tannenbaum and Schmidt continuum proposes:
b) Model-telling
a) Leadership styles
c) Planning style
a) Schedule
b) Project priorities
c) Resources
157) Power that a PM has on the basis of the special skills he possesses is:
a) Referent
b) Expert
c) Reward
d) Penalty
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158) A conflict management technique that involves incorporating viewpoints from everyone is?
a) Smoothing
b) Collaborating
c) Recognizing
d) Withdrawal
a) Confrontation
b) Accomodation
c) Compromise
d) Smoothing
160) The motivational theory that focuses onteam, lifetime employment and collective decision making
is:
a) Theory X
b) Theory Y
c) Theory Z
161) Expectancy theory is based on motivation in terms of expectations people have about:
162) In a communication model, the method used to convey the message is:
a) Email
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b) Medium
c) Language
d) Decoding
a) Formal written
b) Informal written
c) Formal verbal
d) Informal verbal
b) Physical distance
c) Environmental factors
165) The management style that cultivates team spirit, rewards good work, and encourages team to
realize their potential is:
a) Facilitating
b) Promotional
c) Conciliatory
d) Authoritarian
166) A management skill that establishes direction, aligns people, motivates and inspires team is:
a) Communicating
b) Leading
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c) Influencing the organization
d) Problem solving
a) Delphi technique
b) Brainstorming
c) Interviewing
b) Risk categories
a) Project Planning
b) Communication
c) Risk management
d) Tracking
b) Project planning
c) Quality control
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d) Risk management
a) Project plan
d) Deliverables
172) At what stage of your current project should you use the techniques you learnt on your previous
projects as PM?
a) Executing phase
b) Planning phase
174) If you are implementing the risk response plan, you are in:
a) Planning phase
b) Initiating phase
c) Implementation phase
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d) Closing phase
b) Report performance
c) Distribute information
d) Plan communications
176) The tool that assigns a numeric weight, rates sellers based on total weight is:
a) Weighting system
b) Independent estimates
c) Screening system
d) Expert judgement
a) Meet with prospective sellers and ensure there is a clear understanding of procurement needs
b) Screen contractors
178) You send a formal request to each vendor for a service. This is used as the basis upon which the
vendor prepares a bid for the requested service. The formal request you sent is called:
a) Contract
b) Purchase Order
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179) Monitor and control project work is essential to
d) Prepare WBS
180) Correspondence, Payment Schedules and Requests, Seller performance evaluation documentation
are examples of:
c) a, b
d) a, b, c
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182) A contract can end by:
a) Successful performance
b) Mutual agreement
c) Breach of contract
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
a) Material
b) Minor
c) Fundamental
i) Business need
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a) All of the above
b) i, ii, iii
c) i, ii
d) ii only
b) iii only
c) iv only
d) ii, iii, iv
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c) Pay, Promotion, Job satisfaction
189) Variance analysis compares actual results to planned results. This can be done for:
a) Cost
b) Schedule
c) Quality
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
191) The longest path through the network that shows the shortest duration in which the project can be
completed is:
a) Critical path
b) Project schedule
a) Project manager
b) Team members
c) Project sponsor
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d) Functional manager
a) 80-20 rule
a) If a point lies outside of the control limits, or seven consecutive points are on one side of the mean
but within control limits, the process is out of control
b) If a point lies outside of the control limits, or seven consecutive points are on either side of the mean
but within control limits, the process is out of control
c) If all but seven points lie within the control limits, and seven consecutive points are on one side of the
mean but within control limits, the process is in control
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196) Projects can end due to:
c) i, ii, iii
d) ii, iii, iv
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199) Using which of the below can you predict future performance of team:
a) Trend analysis
b) EMV
c) Control limits
d) Risk analysis
200) Salary of full-time employees and cost of hardware bought specially for your project count as:
a) Direct costs
b) Indirect costs
c) Project costs
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
a) Analogous estimating
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b) Parametric estimating
c) Three-point estimating
d) PERT estimating
203) Payback period is the time it takes to get back money invested in a project. Hence:
a) The longer the payback period, the better it is for the project
b) The shorter the payback period, the better it is for the project
a) Board of directors
b) Group of stakeholders, team leads, executives who decide on which changes to accept/reject
b) Risk response
c) Risk analysis
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a) 1000
b) 500
c) 2000
1a
2a
3b
4b
5c
6b
7b
8b
9b
10b
11b
12c
13d
14c
15c
16b
17b
18d
19c
20d
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21b
22c
23b
24b
25a
26a
27a
28a
29d
30d
31a
32c
33a
34a
35a
36c
37b
38a
39a
40d
41d
42a
43a
44a
45b
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46b
47a
48a
49b
50a
51b
52a
53c
54b
55a
56b
57c
58a
59a
60a
61a
62b
63d
64d
65d
66c
67b
68b
69a
70d
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71a
72b
73b
74b
75a
76c
77d
78c
79a
80d
81d
82b
83c
84a
85a
86b
87c
88d
89b
90d
91a
92b
93d
94d
95c
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96b
97b
98a
99c
100a
101a
102b
103a
104d
105a
106b
107a
108a
109a
110a
111b
112b
113d
114a
115a
116d
117c
118c
119a
120d
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121d
122d
123d
124a
125d
126d
127d
128d
129d
130d
131d
132a
133d
134c
135c
136a
137c
138c
139d
140a
141b
142c
143c
144d
145c
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146d
147a
148a
149b
150c
151b
152d
153d
154c
155a
156d
157b
158b
159a
160c
161d
162b
163b
164d
165b
166b
167d
168d
169b
170a
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171d
172c
173b
174c
175a
176a
177a
178c
179a
180a
181b
182d
183c
184d
185b
186a
187d
188a
189d
190c
191a
192a
193d
194a
195a
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196a
197c
198d
199a
200a
201c
202a
203b
204b
205a
206a
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