Documente Academic
Documente Profesional
Documente Cultură
A. Routine screening
B. Repeat Pap test in one year
C. Repeat HPV testing in one year
D. Repeat co-testing with Pap and HPV in one year
E. Colposcopy
E. Colposcopy is indicated for all abnormal Pap test results including ASCUS Pap test
when HPV is positive. Reflex HPV testing for high-risk DNA types should be
performed in patients with ASCUS. If negative, then co-testing with cytology and
HPV can be repeated in three years. Repeat cytology in one year is also an
acceptable option for ASCUS if HPV testing cannot be done.
http://www.asccp.org/Portals/9/docs/ASCCP%20Updated%20Guidelines
%20Algorithms%206.3.13.pdf
A 17-year-old G0 high school student is brought in by her mother for her first
gynecologic examination. She began her menses at age 12 and has had regular
periods for the past three years. Her last menstrual period was one week ago. For
privacy, you ask to examine the patient without her mother. Further history is
obtained in the examination room. She admits that she has been sexually active
with her boyfriend for the past three years. She uses condoms occasionally and is
fearful about possible pregnancy. She requests that her mother not be informed
about her sexual activity. On physical examination, she is anxious, but normally
developed. Her pelvic examination reveals no vulvar lesions, minimal non-
malodorous discharge, and a nulliparous appearing cervix. The bimanual
examination reveals a normal size uterus, and her adnexa are non-tender and not
enlarged. Urine pregnancy test is negative. In addition to discussing contraception.
What is the next best step in the management of this patient?
C. Counseling about and screening for sexually transmitted infections is the best
next step. This patient does not require treatment due to a lack of diagnostic
criteria. A serum Beta-hCG is not indicated in the setting of normal menstrual cycles
with last menstrual period a week ago and a negative urine pregnancy test.
Guidelines for initiation of cervical cancer screening is recommended at age 21
regardless of coitarche. A pelvic ultrasound would not be indicated at this time
especially since the pregnancy test is negative and given her lack of menstrual or
pelvic symptoms.
A 68-year-old G2P2 woman who has recently moved in with her daughter (a long-
standing patient of yours) comes in for a health maintenance examination. A
vaginal hysterectomy was done in her fifties for uterine prolapse. She is not sure if
her ovaries were removed. She has never had an abnormal mammogram or Pap
test and has had yearly exams. She stopped hormone replacement therapy 10
years ago. She was recently widowed after being married for 50 years. She does not
smoke or drink. Her diabetes is well-controlled with Metformin; she takes a daily
baby aspirin and is on a lipid-lowering agent. On examination, she is a thin elderly
woman with a dowager's hump. Her breast exam is unremarkable. Her lower genital
tract is notable for atrophy. No masses are noted on bimanual and recto-vaginal
exam. A fecal occult blood test is negative. Which of the following tests is not
necessary?
A. Bone density
B. Colonoscopy
C. Pap test
D. Mammogram
E. Annual bimanual and recto-vaginal exam
C. Pap test screening is not indicated in patients who have had a hysterectomy,
unless it was done for cervical cancer or a high-grade cervical dyspalsia. Patients
with a uterus can discontinue cervical cancer screening between the ages of 65-70
if they have had three consecutive negative smears or two negative consecutive
cotesting in the last 10 years and no history of high-grade cervical intraepithelial
neoplasia or cancer. Patients still need yearly bimanual and rectovaginal exam.
Mammograms are done annually, as breast cancer increases with age. Colon cancer
screening is recommended at age fifty. The patient has an exaggerated thoracic
spine curvature, termed a dowager's hump, likely secondary to thoracic
compression fractures secondary to osteoporosis. If this is confirmed on a bone
density test, she may benefit from the addition of bisphosphonates
C. According to the American Cancer Society (ACS), the American Society for
Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP), and the American Society for Clinical
Pathology (ASCP) guidelines for the Prevention and Early Detection of Cervical
Cancer, women ages 30 to 65 years should be screened with cytology and HPV
testing (''co-testing'') every five years (preferred) or cytology alone every three
years (acceptable). Screening by HPV testing alone is not recommended for most
clinical settings and there is insufficient evidence to change screening intervals in
this age group following a history of negative screens.
A. Colposcopy
B. Cryotherapy
C. Reflex HPV testing
D. Repeat Pap test in one month
E. Repeat Pap test in six months
A 19-year-old G0 woman presents with lower abdominal cramping. The pain started
with her menses and has persisted, despite resolution of the bleeding. She thinks
she may have a fever, but has not taken her temperature. No urinary frequency or
dysuria are present. Her bowel habits are regular. She denies vomiting, but has mild
nausea. A yellow blood-tinged vaginal discharge preceded her menses. No pruritus
or odor was noted. She is sexually active, uses oral contraceptives and states that
her partner does not like condoms. On examination: temperature is 100.2F
(37.9C); pulse 90; blood pressure 110/60. She is well-developed and nourished and
in mild distress. No flank pain is elicited. Her abdomen has normal bowel sounds,
but is very tender with guarding in the lower quadrants. No rebound is present.
Pelvic examination reveals a moderate amount of thick yellow discharge. The cervix
is friable with yellow mucoid discharge at the os. Cervical motion tenderness is
present. Uterus and the adnexa are tender without masses. Urine dip is negative for
nitrates. Urine pregnancy test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vulvovaginal candidiasis
B. Acute salpingitis
C. Trichomonas vaginitis
D. Cervicitis
E. Bacterial vaginosis
A 24-year-old G0 woman presents with multiple painful ulcers involving the vulva.
The sores were initially fluid filled, but are now open, weeping and crusted. She
reports a fever and is having difficulty voiding due to pain. She uses a vaginal ring
for contraception. She has multiple sexual partners and uses condoms for vaginal
intercourse. She is distraught that she may have a sexually transmitted infection.
She is healthy and does not smoke or use drugs. On physical exam, she is in
obvious distress. Temperature is 100.2F (37.9C); pulse 100. Examination of the
genital tract is limited due to her discomfort. Multiple ulcers and erosions of variable
size are localized to the perineum, labia minora and vestibule. Swelling is diffuse.
The lesions are eroded, some with a purulent eschar. There is exquisite tenderness
to touch. What further testing should be offered to this patient?
A. RPR (rapid plasma regain)
B. HIV
C. Herpes culture
D. DNA probe for gonorrhea and chlamydia
E. All of the above
E. This patient has classic primary herpes with painful genital ulcerations, fever and
dysuria. Given the presence of one sexually transmitted infection, screening should
be offered for other STIs. Resolution of the acute episode is required before a
speculum can be inserted to allow endocervical sampling for gonorrhea and
chlamydia. If it was a high-risk exposure, prophylactic empiric treatment could be
offered to cover gonorrhea and chlamydia. The patient should be counseled that
primary herpes can be acquired despite condoms and even by oral-genital
inoculation. Hepatitis B vaccination should be offered to protect her against any
future exposures. She should be encouraged to discuss her diagnosis with all sexual
partners and to continue to reliably use latex condoms.
A 38-year-old G0 woman comes to the office because she noted a persistent yellow,
frothy discharge associated with mild external vulvar irritation. She denies any odor.
She tried over the counter anti-fungal medication without success. The discharge
has been present for over three months, gradually increasing in amount. Douching
has resulted in temporary relief, but the symptoms always recur. Pelvic examination
reveals mild erythema at the introitus and a copious yellow frothy discharge fills the
vagina. The cervix has erythematous patches on the ectocervix. A sample of the
discharge is examined under the microscope. What is the most likely finding?
C. This patient most likely has trichomoniasis. The erythematous patches on the
cervix are characteristic of "strawberry cervicitis." Trichomonads are unicellular
protozoans, which are easily seen moving across the slide with flagella. The slide
must be examined immediately. The discharge is mixed with saline and placed on
the slide with a cover slip. Women with trichomonas vaginal infections may have a
frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge. Clue cells are seen on a saline wet mount in
women who have bacterial vaginosis. Clue cells are characterized by adherent
coccobacillary bacteria that obscure the edges of the cells. A drop of KOH releases
amines from the cells and a fishy odor is noted if bacterial vaginosis is present.
Yeast vaginitis is characterized by a thick white clumpy discharge which results in
erythema, swelling and intense pruritus. Multinucleate giant cells and inflammation
may be herpes.
A 23-year-old G0 woman reports having a solitary, painful vulvar lesion that has
been present for three days. This lesion has occurred twice in the past. She states
that herpes culture was done by her doctor during her last outbreak and was
negative. She is getting frustrated in that she does not know her diagnosis. She has
no significant previous medical history. She uses oral contraceptives and condoms.
She has had four sexual partners in her lifetime. On physical examination, a cluster
of three irregular erosions with a superficial crust is noted on the posterior
fourchette. Urine pregnancy test is negative. You suspect recurrent genital herpes.
How do you explain the negative culture?
D. Culture is the gold standard in the diagnosis of herpes. They are highly specific,
yet sensitivity is limited. It is best to culture the lesion very early in the course. The
blister is unroofed and the base is vigorously scraped. The herpes virus can
theoretically be isolated from both primary and recurrent infections. This patient
very likely presented too late in the course for a useful culture. Oral contraceptives
do not affect the growth of viruses. While serum antibody screening can be
performed, it indicates lifetime exposure and would not answer the question as to
the etiology of the specific lesion. Alternatively, DNA studies such as the
polymerase chain reaction can be done, if available.
A. Informed consent is valid if the doctor-patient discussion occurred soon after the
patient received intravenous morphine for pain relief
B. Informed consent is unnecessary in an emergency situation if a delay in
treatment would risk the patient's health/life
C. Informed consent is only required for invasive procedures
D. Informed consent would not have been valid anyway because the patient
sustained a head laceration
E. In an emergency situation, informed consent documents can be signed after the
procedure is over and the patient is stable
B. Informed consent needs to be obtained for all procedures while patient is fully
alert and has not received any narcotics or other medications that may affect her
decision-making. The only exception is in true emergency situations that would risk
the patient's life. Obtaining informed consent does not necessarily protect the
provider from lawsuits and should never be signed after a procedure is already
completed.
A 36-year-old G3P2 woman presents in active labor at full term with a known
placenta previa. She reports brisk vaginal bleeding. Evaluation shows that fetus and
patient are currently hemodynamically stable. She has had two normal vaginal
deliveries in the past. She declines your recommendation to undergo Cesarean
section. Which of the following is not advisable during your initial management of
this patient?
C. You should not perform any procedure on the patient without her consent. It is
best in these situations to explain your reasons for the recommended Cesarean
section and elicit the patient's reasons for not wanting to undergo the procedure. A
court order should only be obtained as a last resort.
A 27-year-old G1P0 woman at 12 weeks gestation presents for first prenatal care
visit. She is previously healthy and takes no medications. An ultrasound is
performed and a viable pregnancy is confirmed. At the end of the visit, the patient
discusses with you her desire to have a Cesarean section for delivery, as she does
not wish to go through the pain of labor. Her husband, an orthopedic surgeon,
expresses concerns as they desire to have at least three children and he is worried
about potential complications with repeated Cesarean sections. What is the most
appropriate next step in the counseling of this patient?
A. Agree with her decision after proper counseling and perform a Cesarean section
at 39 weeks gestation
B. Agree with her decision after proper counseling and perform a Cesarean section
at 41 weeks gestation if she has not gone into labor by then
C. Advise her that it is not possible to plan a Cesarean section for delivery
D. Advise her to listen to her husband and plan for a vaginal birth
E. Refer her to psychiatric counseling
A. Elective Cesarean section on demand has been getting more popular among
women for a variety of reasons. Although, it might sound unreasonable to undergo a
Cesarean section for being afraid of pain, the patient has the right to request it and
the physician's duty is to make sure she understands all the risks and potential
complications associated with such a decision. Elective delivery should not be
scheduled prior to 39 weeks due to risks associated with prematurity. Her husband
is appropriately concerned, but it is up to her to make the decision regarding an
elective procedure.
A. Jim
B. All of them together
C. Mary's doctor in consultation with Jim
D. Mary
E. If Jim and Mary cannot agree, consult the hospital ethics committee
D. Since Mary is still competent, she can make her own decisions despite the fact
that her husband has power of attorney.
A 72-year-old G3P1 woman has progressive ovarian cancer. She and her husband
have already completed a medical power of attorney form. However, the patient did
not complete a living will or any other documents expressing her wishes for the
initiation of mechanical ventilation or cardioversion in the event of a respiratory or
cardiac arrest. Unfortunately, the patient is brought into the hospital after suffering
an incapacitating seizure. She is not arousable when she reaches the oncology unit.
Her husband Jim is present and willing to act as Mary's surrogate decision-maker.
When he decides on the proper course of care, the husband should make decisions
based primarily on which of the following?
A. Patient autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Justice
D. Physician autonomy
E. Non-malfeasance
C. Justice requires that we treat like cases alike. It is the physician's duty to educate
the patient about all her treatment options in a non-judgmental way regardless of
the nature of the treatment and her socioeconomic status.
You are asked to give a lecture on a new chemotherapy drug that has demonstrated
a reasonable efficacy in women with advanced cervical cancer. The day before
giving the lecture, you realize that you own stock in the company that makes the
drug. Which of the following statements about conflict of interest is true?
A 23-year-old G1P0 comes into the office after having some light inter-menstrual
spotting and cramping. She is currently sexually active and has had unprotected
intercourse with two different partners over the past three months. A urine
pregnancy test is positive. She does not desire to keep the pregnancy and, after an
ultrasound scan in the office reveals a six-week viable intrauterine pregnancy, the
patient asks about an abortion, but has no health insurance. What is the most
appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. You inform her that state Medicaid programs are not allowed to cover this
service; therefore, you cannot perform the procedure
B. You recommend against the procedure due to potential complications with future
infertility
C. You request she seeks the opinion of both of her partners before undergoing the
procedure
D. You support her decision for abortion after appropriate counseling
E. e. You inform her that abortion should only be performed after six weeks
gestation
A 17-year-old female comes to your office for her first gynecologic visit. She has
been sexually active for the last year and always uses condoms. What is the most
appropriate management regarding Pap smear screening for this patient?
A. Pap smear at age 21
B. Pap smear at this visit and then anually
C. Pap smear now and then every 3 years
E. Pap smear at age 18
D. Pap smear now and then every other year
A.
A 51-year-old G4P4 woman presents for her health maintenance examination. She
has not seen a physician for the past two years as she was caring for her sick
husband who passed away two months ago. Her last menstrual period was four
years ago and she denies any bleeding since that time. Her past medical and
surgical histories are negative. Her mother was diagnosed with ovarian cancer and
died at age 54. Her Pap smears have always been normal. Her last one was two
years ago and it was negative for high-risk HPV types. Her exam is normal. Which of
the following is the most appropriate screening test for this patient?
A. Pelvic ultrasound
B. Endometrial biopsy
C. Colonoscopy
D. DEXA scan
e. Pap smear
C. Women should be offered colorectal cancer screening starting at age 50. Options
include yearly hemoccult testing, flexible sigmoidoscopy every five years, or
colonoscopy every 10 years. Ultrasound is not a good screening modality for pelvic
pathology. An endometrial biopsy is indicated if a patient is experiencing irregular
bleeding. A DEXA scan is only recommended in patients with risk factors for
osteoporosis prior to age 65. This patient's history does not indicate that she is high
risk. A Pap smear is not indicated as she has no recent history of abnormal Pap
smears, and her last one with HPV testing was two years ago.
A 40-year-old G2P2 woman presents for her first health maintenance examination.
She denies any new complaints or symptoms. She has no history of any gynecologic
problems. Family history is significant for a father with hypertension and a mother,
deceased, with breast cancer diagnosed at age 56. A paternal aunt has ovarian
cancer which was diagnosed at age 83. A physical exam is unremarkable. What
screening test should be offered to this patient next?
A. Breast MRI
B. Mammogram
C. Transvaginal pelvic ultrasound
D. Breast ultrasound
E. BRCA-1/BRCA-2 testing
B. ACOG recommends that women aged 40 years and older be offered screening
mammography annually. Ultrasonography is an established adjunct to
mammography. It is useful in evaluating inconclusive mammographic findings, in
evaluating young patients and other women with dense breast tissue, and in
differentiating a cyst from a solid mass. Breast ultrasound is not recommended as a
primary screening modality for women at average risk of developing breast cancer.
A combination of first and second-degree relatives on the same side of the family
diagnosed with breast and ovarian cancer (one cancer type per person) increases
the risk of BRCA mutation. Based on the limited history provided, this patient does
not meet the criteria published by ACOG for genetic cancer risk assessment. A more
detailed family history regarding risk factors should be obtained to determine
whether the patient should be referred for genetic counseling.
A. For patients with average risk for colon cancer, the recommended screening is to
begin colonoscopy at age 50 and then every 10 years, if normal. Despite having a
grandfather who passed away from colon cancer, this patient is not necessarily at
increased risk and does not need to be screened at different intervals than the
general population. If there is a history of a first degree relative with colon cancer
before age 60, then begin screening with colonoscopy at age 40, or 10 years before
the youngest relative diagnosis, and repeat every five years. Although a
sigmoidoscopy can be an acceptable screening procedure, it would still begin at age
50 and repeat every five years, if normal.
D. Contraceptive methods with <1% pregnancy rates (typical use) are Depo-
Provera, IUD, sterilization (male or female), and Implanon. Oral contraceptives have
a 3-5% pregnancy rate with typical use, and the male condom has a 12% pregnancy
rate. Eight percent of women will experience an unintended pregnancy after one
year of typical use with a contraceptive ring. Of the methods listed, the diaphragm
with spermicide has the highest failure rate (18%) with typical use.
A. Measles-Mumps-Rubella (MMR)
B. Pneumococcus
C. Hepatitis B
D. Polio
E. Influenza
B. The patient is obese, with a BMI of 33. In addition, the skin changes are
consistent with acanthosis nigricans, which is closely associated with insulin
resistance. Given these risk factors, she should be tested for diabetes.
A. Folate lowers homocysteine levels. The Nurses Health Study showed fewer
nonfatal MIs and fatal coronary events in women with adequate intake doses of
folate and vitamin B6. Folate can also help prevent neural tube defects. Studies
have shown that diet alone is not effective in achieving adequate levels, and routine
folate supplementation is therefore recommended. Women of reproductive age
should take a daily 400-microgram supplement. Adequate levels are especially
important prior to pregnancy and during the first four weeks of fetal development.
Folic acid levels may be used to diagnose B12 or folate deficiency and are not
routinely check to guide folic acid supplementation prior to pregnancy unless a
patient is suspected to have a deficiency.