1.

The intensity of the dome light in the cockpit can be varied through a lighting control knob:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

2. The galley service door is hydraulically operated:

a. TRUE

B. FALSE

3. The height of the pilot seats can be adjusted mechanically:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

4. WARNING SERVICE DOOR OPEN means service door open or not properly locked either on
the ground with engine one running or in flight:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

5. How many persons should be standing on the doors step simultaneously:

a. 2

b. 4

c. 1

d. None of above

6. The accumulator has sufficient capacity for ___ complete door operation cycle:

a. 2

b. 4

c. 1

d. None of above

7. No smoking and fasten belts sign may also activated by oxygen relay activation whenever
sudden cabin depressurization occurs above_________ cabin altitude:

a. 14.900 ft

b. 14.500 ft
 c. 14.000 ft

d. 15.000 ft

8. There are two PBE onboard the aircraft:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

9. That stations have three mask in the double seat?

a. jump seat 1, galley, lavatory.

b. 3,5,7,11 y 18.

c. 1,3,9,12 y 15.

d. None of above.

10. The only difference between the life vest of the crew and passengers is the color

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

11. Emergency Frequencies:

a. 121.5,124,9 y 243,00 MHz

b. 406,00, 121.5 y 245,00 MHz

c. 121,5, 243,00 y 406,00 MHz

d. 130,6, 130,2 y 121,5 MHz

12. If IC 600 #2 fails, the RMU #1 displays the first engine page automatically:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

13. In case of a display failure, information may be presented on the:

a. EICAS

b. MFD

c. RMU

d. PFD
14. The central data collection points for the EICAS are:

a. PFD

b. FADEC

c. DAU

d. IC-600

15. If IC-600 #2 fails, the RMU #1 displays the first engine page automatically.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

16. In the approach-landing phase the inhibition logic is valid from the point when airplane
crosses:

a. 100 ft radio altitude

b. 300 ft radio altitude

c. 200 ft radio altitude

d. 400 ft radio altitude

17. DAU #1 is dedicate to collect data from left engine and aft airplane system:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

18. Provides images to display units:

a. HDG

b. EICAS

c. SG

d. None of above

19. How many modes has the GPWS/EGPWS:

a. 5 modes

b. 7 modes
 c. 8 modes

d. 3 modes

20. T/O phase the inhibition logic is valid when the airplane crosses:

a. V2-15Kt

b. V1+15Kt

c. V1-15 Kt

d. V1 -10Kt

21. Electrical System management is performed by:

a. Bus tie contactors

b. EDL and GCU

c. Both A and B

d. None of the above

22. The AC System is powered by the Inverter #2?

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

23. Which of the following is NOT powered by the Ground Service Bus:

a. Passenger cabin lights

b. Galley lights

c. Navigation lights

d. Baggage/service compartment lights

24. Which of the following is required to keep all the DC buses energized on the ground?

a. At least three generators on.

b. GPU on and connected on the airplane.

c. At least one generator on and the Shed Buses Selector Knob set to OVRD position.

d. All of the above

25. The Electrical Distribution Logic is different when the airplane is on the ground than when
the airplane is in flight:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

26. External lighting consists of navigation, anticollision (strobe and red beacon), landing, taxi,
inspection and logotype lights:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

27. The batteries power is sufficient to supply all internal and external emergency lights for
approximately 10 minutes:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

28. The navigation lights in case a green or red light become inoperative, the standby wing tip
lamps are activated through a switch located on the cockpit maintenance panel:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

29. The emergency lighting consist of internal and external lights that provide proper illumination
for emergency cabin evacuation:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

30. Two landing lights are fitted in the wing leading edge close to the fuselage. A third landing
light is mounted on the nose landing gear strut:

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

31. Which of the following must occur to indicate the Fire Detection System Test is successful?

(A) The EICAS fire detection messages are displayed.

(B) WARNING/CAUTION lights flash.
(C) Aural warning sounds.
(D) All of the above.
REF: AOM 2-07-10 7
32. A lavatory smoke detector signals smoke by activating a:

(A) Red alarm

(B) Horn on the Smoke Detector panel
(C) Warning Message on the EICAS
(D) All of the above
REF: AOM 2-07-15 1

33. In the event of an engine fire or overheat, the pilots can cancel the aural warnings.

(A) TRUE
(B) FALSE
REF: AOM 2-07-10 1

34. The fire protection system consists of:

(A) Overheat detection and extinguishing for the engines

(B) Fire/overheat detection and extinguishing for the engines.
(C) Extinguishing for the engines and APU.
(D) Fire/overheat detection and extinguishing for the engines and APU.
REF: AOM 2-07-05 1

35. The engine fire extinguishing handle when pulled, it closes:

(A) The fuel, hydraulic, oil and bleed air shut off valves of the associated engine.
(B) The fuel, hydraulic and bleed air shut off valves of the associated engine.
(C) The hydraulic, oil, bleed air and lip anti-icing shut off valves of the associated engine.
(D) The fuel, hydraulic, bleed air and lip anti-icing shut off valves of the associated engine
REF: AOM 2-07-10 7

36. The XFEED shall be OFF during takeoff and go-around operations.

(A) TRUE
(B) FALSE
REF: AOM 2-08-05 3

37. The purpose of the ejector pump is to

(A) Boost system fuel pressure

(B) Help keep the collector box filled
(C) To dump (eject)
(D) None of the above
REF: AOM 2-08-05 2

38. The EICAS message "FUEL IMBALANCE" will be displayed if one tank differs by _____ lbs.
from the other tank. The message will disappear when the difference decreases below
______ lbs.

(A) 1000; 500

(B) 800; 800
(C) 800; 500
 (D) 800; 100
REF: AOM 2-08-05 7

39. If the fuel pressure in the #1 engine inlet drops below 6.5 psi, what will happen?

(A) An EICAS message

(B) The remaining pumps in the left fuel tank will automatically come on
(C) The pumps in the left fuel tank will begin to cycle, until the pilot selects one of them to
be continuously on
(D) All of the above
REF: AOM 2-08-05 3

40. Engine-driven fuel pumps will provide suction feed if the electric fuel pumps operation is not
available limited up to a ceiling altitude of:

(A) 18000 ft.

(B) 37000 ft.
(C) 10000 ft.
(D) 25000 ft.
REF: AOM 2-08-05 3

41. If a failure in the control system occurs, associated with an APU over speed, the Model T-
62T-40C14 APU will automatically shut down after the rotating parts reach _____% speed.

(A) 102%
(B) 105%
(C) 104%
(D) 106%
REF: AOM 2-09-05 8

42. The maximum altitude for continuous APU operation is ______ feet.

(A) 12,000
(B) 18,000
(C) 37,000
(D) 30,000
REF: AOM 1-01-38 1

43. The maximum altitude for APU start is _______ feet.

(A) 12,000
(B) 18,000
(C) 25,000
(D) 30,000
REF: AOM 1-01-38 1

44. The APU is started using

(A) Electrical or pneumatic power

(B) Electrical power only
(C) Pneumatic power only
 (D) Electric on the ground, pneumatic in the air
REF: AOM 2-09-05 8

45. The APU fuel supply normally comes from the

(A) Right wing tank

(B) Left wing tank
(C) Auxiliary fuel tank
(D) None of the above
REF: AOM 2-09-05 4

46. The FADEC will select T/O mode when the gear transitions from up to down and locked
below 15,000 feet.

(A) True
(B) False
REF: AOM 2-10-50 4

47. Which of the following is required in order for an engine to be ATTCS?

(A) Alt T/O-1 mode selected

(B) Airplane on ground
(C) Engine running
(D) All of the above.
REF: AOM 2-10-50 10

48. If the thrust lever is forward of the IDLE position and the START/STOP knob is placed in the
STOP position, the engine will shutdown.

(A) TRUE
(B) FALSE
REF: AOM 2-10-50 15

49. The ignition system is activated during a start at about ______ % N2 and the fuel solenoid
valve is activated during a start at about ______ % N2 if the Ignition Selector Knob is set to
AUTO or ON position.

(A) 10 and 28.5 %

(B) 14 and 31.5 %
(C) 28 and 56.4 %
(D) 53 and 63 %
REF: AOM 2-10-50 14

50. N1 Target, as determined by the FADEC is indicated on the EICAS as

(A) An amber bug

(B) A digital readout
(C) Cyan bug
(D) B and C
REF: AOM 2-10-60 5
RESPUESTAS

1. A
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. C
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. C
21. B
22. B
23. C
24. D
25. A
26. A
27. B
28. B
29. A
30. A
31. D
32. D
33. A
34. D
35. D
36. A
37. B
38. D
39. D
40. D
41. C
42. C
43. D
44. B
45. A
46. A
47. D
48. B
49. B
50.C