Question Bank Meteorology For ATPL

COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE METEOROLOGY (Typical Questions)
METEOROLOGY
TYPICAL QUESTIONS
JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS - METEOROLOGY PAGE 1 of 102

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1. Minute traces of the atmosphere have been found up to:
a) 800 km above the earths surface

b) 500 km above the earths surface
c) 200 km above the earths surface
2. The atmosphere consists of the following gasses and their percentages by

volume are as follows:
a) Nitrogen 79% Oxygen 20% and Argon 1%

b) Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% and Argon 1%
c) Nitrogen 80% Oxygen 19% and Argon 1%
3. The troposphere extends to about:
a) 52 000 ft above the polar regions

b) 35 000 ft above the tropical regions.
c) 26 000 ft above the polar regions.
4. Large scale horizontal and vertical movement of air masses is a characteristic of

the:
a) Troposphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Ionosphere
5. In the troposphere temperature decreases with an increase in altitude up to a height

of 36 090 ft. Thereafter the temperature remains constant at:
a) + 56 A
b) 24 F
c) 70 F
6. In the lower layers of the troposphere, atmospheric pressure decreases with an

increase in altitude, at a rate of 1 HPa every:
a) 1.98 ft.
b) 27.20 ft.
c) 47.06 ft.
7. The stratosphere is found:
a) Between the stratopause and mesosphere

b) Above the tropopause to an average height of 98 000 ft
c) Above the troposphere with an upper limit in the ozone layer

8. Which of the following statements regarding the stratosphere is false?
a) The stratosphere is free of clear air turbulence

b) Air in the stratosphere is very dry
c) Horizontal movement of air is a common phenomenon
9. Ozone is formed by the absorption of:
a) Intense solar radiation

b) Long wave terrestrial radiation
c) Short wave terrestrial radiation
10. The mesosphere extends up to a height of about:
a) 98 000 ft
b) 162 000 ft
c) 262 000 ft
11. I.S.A. states that at sea level the air density is:
a) 1.225 g/m
b) 122.5 g/m
c) 1225 g/m
12. I.S.A. states that at sea level the gravity is:
a) 9.8 m/s
b) 9.8 m/s
c) 9.8 m/s
13. The atmosphere is divided into layers according to:
a) Pressure
b) Temperature
c) Humidity
14. QNE relates to:
a) Pressure altitude
b) Density altitude
c) True altitude
15. An atmospheric pressure of 1024 HPa is equal to:
a) 30.23 inches
b) 34.67 inches
c) 40.67 inches

16. An atmospheric pressure of 29.88 inches is equal to:
a) 882 HPa
b) 1012 HPa
c) 988 HPa
17. Under standard conditions a layer of 1 HPa equals approximately 14 meters at:
a) 40 000 ft
b) 30 000 ft
c) 20 000 ft
18. Pressure is measured with a:
a) Psycrometer
b) Barometer
c) Hygrometer
19. What setting must be applied for the altimeter to indicate pressure altitude and the
aircraft to fly at flight levels?
a) QFE
b) QNH
c) QNE
20. An aircraft is flying at flight level 70. What actual terrain clearance would the aircraft
have when passing over high ground 4920 ft above mean sea level when the QNH
is 1006.25 hPa?
a) 1870 ft
b) 2290 ft
c) 2080 ft
21. You are flying at flight level 85, the QNH is 1023 hPa. The radio altimeter reads
1850 feet. What is the elevation of the land over which you are flying?
a) 6350 ft
b) 2150 ft
c) 6945 ft
22. An aircraft departs from FACT (elevation 150 feet) with QNH 1016 HPa set. What is
the true height above the airfield when the aircraft arrives at FAPE (elevation 225
feet) at 1000 ft indicated altitude? QFE FAPE 1005.5 hPa.
a) 460 ft
b) 685 ft
c) 865 ft

23. The QFE at FAJS is 844 HPa. The elevation is 5500 feet. What is the QNH?
a) 1027 HPa
b) 830 HPa
c) 661 HPa
24. An aircraft on the ground has QNE set. The altimeter indicates 1800 feet. The local
QNH is 1002 HPa. What is the airfield elevation?
a) 1811 ft.
b) 2300 ft.
c) 1465 ft.
25. The elevation at FALA is 4517 feet. The QNH is 1030 HPa. What is the QFE?
a) 863 HPa.
b) 879 HPa.
c) 1013 HPa.
26. When QNH is set on the subscale of the pressure altimeter, the altimeter indicates:
a) Pressure altitude at airfield elevation

b) True altitude at field elevation
c) Density altitude at field elevation
27. When the QNH setting is changed from 1019 HPa to 1014 HPa the approximate
change in indication will be:
a) 150 feet higher

b) 150 feet lower
c) 50 feet lower
28. Air pressure is:
a) The indication of a barometer

b) The weight of a column of air over a given area
c) W = mg and P1V1 = P2V2
29. An isobar is a line joining places of equal:
a) Temperature
b) Density
c) Pressure
30. True altitude and pressure altitude will be the same when:
a) The outside air temperature is standard for that altitude

b) The atmospheric pressure is 1013.25 HPa.
c) When the air is dry and stable

31. When an altimeter indicates a higher flight level than actually flown, the following
condition is likely:
a) When flying from an area of low pressure to an area of high pressure.

b) When flying from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure.
c) When the air temperature is warmer than standard
32. When the subscale of an altimeter is set from 29.35 inches to 30.06 inches the
approximate change in indication will be:
a) 721,3 feet higher

b) 21 feet higher
c) 6 feet higher
33. When the subscale of the altimeter is set from 29.92 to 30.12, what is the
approximate change in indication?
a) 203 feet higher

b) 6 feet higher
c) 6 feet lower
34. An area of indeterminable weather with light and variable winds can be expected in
a:
a) Secondary depression
b) Saddleback
c) Shallow anti-cyclone
35. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
a) Chinook winds on mountain slopes

b) A stable layer of air
c) An unstable layer of air
36. A temperature inversion will form only:
a) In stable air
b) In unstable air
c) When a stratiform layer merges with cumuliform mass
37. The earths weather changes are primarily due to:
a) Movement of air masses

b) Pressure variations over the earths surface
c) Variations of solar energy received at the surface of the earth.

38. If the actual temperature at 11 000 feet is -14C, what is the ISA deviation (assume
NALR 2C/1000 feet).
a) +1C
b) -8C
c) -7C
39. The most frequent type of surface temperature inversion is that produced by:
a) Advection of colder air under warmer air

b) Advection of warm air over cold air
c) Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night
40. The atmosphere receives its heat:
a) Directly from the sun via short wave radiation

b) From the earth via long wave radiation
c) From the sun via long wave radiation
41. A common type of ground inversion is produced by:
a) Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft by mountainous area

b) Ground radiation on clear, cold nights when the wind is light.
c) Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by
compression
42. If the actual temperature at 13 000 feet is -16C, what is the I.S.A. deviation
(assume 2/1000 feet)?
a) +4C
b) -5C
c) -7C
43. Land warms up faster than water because:
a) There is more insulation over land than over water

b) The same amount of energy has to heat op a lot more
c) The change of state from solid to liquid
44. An aircraft is flying at FL290 where the OAT is -34C. The I.S.A. deviation is:
a) +16F
b) +49F
c) +9F

45. The process involving the transfer of heat from one body to another in contact with it
is called:
a) Convection
b) Conduction
c) Convergence
46. The surface temperature of oceans has a diurnal range of:
a) 2C to 5C
b) 0.2C to 0.5C
c) 10C to 25C
47. When the temperature remains constant with an increase in height it is called:
a) An isothermal layer
b) An inversion layer
c) A positive ELR
48. Temperature decreases at 1.5C per 1000 feet of ascent. The ELR is said to be:
a) Negative
b) Shallow
c) Steep
49. 15C is equal to:
a) 15A
b) 288A
c) 258A
50. 300A is equal to:
a) 80F
b) -16F
c) 9F
51. 86F is equal to:
a) 30C
b) 187C
c) 359C
52. The temperature at 40 000 feet should be:
a) 330A
b) -217A
c) -85F

53. At the same pressure and temperature the density of moist air will be:
a) More than the density of dry air

b) Less than the density of dry air
c) The same as the density of dry air
54. An aircraft operating on a constant flight level flies towards an area of increasing
pressure and decreasing temperature. The density altitude will:
a) Increase because the ambient air pressure is increasing

b) Decrease because the air temperature is decreasing
c) May increase or decrease depending on the percentage change in pressure
versus the percentage change in temperature
55. If the temperature of an airmass increases and the pressure remains constant:
a) The air density will decrease and the density altitude will increase
b) Both the air density and the density altitude will increase
c) The air density will increase and the density altitude will decrease
56. An aircraft is flying at FL180 where the COAT is -8C. The QNH is 1028 HPa. The
actual altitude of the aircraft is:
a) 18 450 feet
b) 20 010 feet
c) 17 440 feet
57. Under what condition will pressure altitude and density altitude be the same?
a) When 1013.25 HPa is set on the subscale

b) When the temperature for the level under consideration is standard
c) When the true altitude equals the density altitude
58. Pressure altitude is 12 000 feet. True temperature is 5C. What is the density
altitude?
a) 13 700 feet
b) 12 600 feet
c) 10 300 feet
59. Density altitude is:
a) Used to calibrate the I.S.A. altimeter

b) Pressure altitude corrected for temperature
c) The indicated altitude when QNH is set

60. An aircraft is flying at 5000 feet indicated altitude with QNH 1022 HPa set, outside
temperature is 15C. What is the density altitude?
a) 6125 feet
b) 6190 feet
c) 5860 feet
61. With QNH 1030 HPa set, the altitude indicated on the altimeter is 6500 feet. OAT is
+9C. What is the density altitude?
a) 7950 feet
b) 7330 feet
c) 6700 feet
62. Density altitude is a:
a) Height
b) Measure for aircraft performance
c) Difference between true altitude and pressure altitude
63. What is meant by the term dew point?
a) The temperature to which the air must be cooled to become saturated

b) The temperature at which dew will always form
c) The spread between actual temperature and the temperature during
evaporation
64. Which of the following conditions will result in the formation of frost?
a) When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing

b) The temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point of
surrounding air and the dewpoint is below freezing
c) Small drops of moisture falling on the collecting surface when the surrounding
air temperature is at or below freezing
65. Which of the following is correct?
a) Sublimation is the process of water changing to vapour

b) The process of ice turning to vapour is called evaporation
c) Evaporation is the process where liquid water in contact with unsaturated air
is absorbed by the air.

66. Which of the following statements are correct?
1 Vapour to ice is called deposition

2 During evaporation heat is given out
3 Solid to vapour is called melting
4 During condensation heat is released
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
67. The amount of water vapour the air is holding x 100 the amount of water vapour
the air can hold. This is the equation for:
a) Absolute humidity
b) Vapour pressure
c) Relative humidity
d) Mixing ratio
68. Cloud mist or dew will always form when:
a) Water vapour is present in the atmosphere

b) When the dew point and temperature are equal
c) The air is stable
a) The temperature, dew point spread can be used to determine the cloud base
b) Relative humidity is the ratio of air to water
c) Vapour pressure is high when the relative humidity is low
70. Which of the following lapse rates is not adiabatic?
a) DALR
b) SALR
c) ELR
71. In cold air, what will the approximate SALR temperature be?
a) 2.5/1000
b) 1.5/1000
c) 1.0/1000
72. The ELR is 1.0/1000; the atmosphere condition is:
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Conditionally unstable

73. From which measurement of atmosphere can stability be determined?
a) Surface temperature
b) The dry adiabatic lapse rate
c) The ambient lapse rate
74. Unsaturated air flowing upslope will cool at a rate of about:
a) 3C per 1000 ft
b) 2C per 1000 ft
c) 2.5 per 1000 ft
75. Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?
a) Ambient lapse rate

b) Atmospheric pressure
c) Difference between standard temperature and surface temperature
76. At what height AGL would you expect to find cloud developing if the following
conditions prevail?
Surface temp. +24C; ELR 2.5C/1000; Dew Point 12C; SALR 1.5C/1000
a) 4000
b) 5000
c) 8000
77. Which is not a variable?
a) ELR
b) SALR
c) DALR
78. If the ELR temperature lies between the SALR and the DALR temperatures, the
atmospheric condition is likely to be:
a) Stable
b) Unstable
c) Conditionally unstable
a) For unstable air the ELR must be steeper than the SALR and the DALR
b) For stable air the ELR must be steeper than the SALR and the DALR
c) For conditionally unstable air the ELR must be steeper than the SALR and
DALR

80. During the adiabatic process the following changes:
a) Temperature, pressure and volume

b) Temperature, pressure and absolute humidity
c) Pressure, volume and absolute humidity
81. Temperature changes due to the adiabatic process, mainly because of:
a) Pressure
b) Moisture
c) Insulation
82. Which of the following environmental lapse rate is most likely to lead to instability?
a) 3C/1000
b) 2C/1000
c) 1.5C/1000
83. If the SALR is 1.7C/1000 feet and the ELR is 1.6C/1000 feet, then the air mass is
likely to be:
a) Conditionally unstable
b) Stable
c) Unstable
a) A PIREP is a report made by a pilot the day after the flight

b) An anemometer is used to measure humidity
c) The sunshine recorder is a glass ball which focuses the suns rays and burns
a hole through paper
85. The difference in temperature between the SALR and the DALR is caused by:
a) Specific heat
b) Vapour Absorption
c) Latent heat
86. In a surface depression the air is generally tending to:
a) Settle towards the surface

b) Rise
c) Advect
87. Pressure belts migrate north and south because of:
a) The rotation of the earth

b) The distribution of land and sea masses
c) The earths orbit round the sun

88. Day and night occurs because of:
a) The earths orbit round the sun

b) The rotation of the earth
c) The rotation axis of the earth is at an angle
89. In a low pressure system (southern hemisphere) the winds at 5000 are 270. The
expected surface wind would be:
a) 270
b) 300
c) 240
90. You are flying at an indicated height of 2000 in the southern hemisphere. Your
track is 220 and the wind is 300/25. If you maintain the indicated height and the
wind remains the same, your true height will:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Stay the same
91. Which force, in the southern hemisphere, acts 90 to the wind and deflects it to the
left until parallel to the isobars?
a) Cyclostrophic
b) Pressure gradient
c) Coriolis
92. The easterly winds 15 N/S of the equator are a result primarily to:
a) The ITCZ
b) The thermal equator
c) Upper air moving polewards
93. Jet-streams are usually more predominant in the:
a) Polar regions
b) Equatorial regions
c) Mid-latitudes
94. During a Chinook wind the air on the leeward side of the mountain is warmer
because of:
a) SALR
b) A steep DALR
c) Moisture being lost on the windward side.

95. Coriolis force is greatest at:
a) The poles
b) The mid latitudes
c) The equator
d) 10 N/S of the equator
96. A berg wind is blowing from the interior to the coast. The escarpment is 4500 high
and the temperature on the escarpment is 16.5C. What is the temperature at sea
level?
a) 29.0C
b) 30.0C
c) 30.5C
d) 31.0C
97. The Bora is an example of a:
a) Katabatic wind
b) Anabatic wind
c) Fhn wind
98. A monsoon is a giant:
a) Sea breeze
b) Katabatic wind
c) Berg wind
99. In the Southern Hemisphere, when the winds at 5000 ft above mean sea level are
north-easterly most of the surface winds are easterly. This difference in direction is
primarily due to:
a) A stronger pressure gradient at high altitudes

b) Stronger Coriolis force at the surface
c) Friction between the wind and the surface
100. During the South African summer, the I.T.C.Z.:
a) Moves further north of the Equator, following the region of maximum solar
intensity
b) Moves further south of the Equator, following the region of maximum solar
intensity
c) Remains at, or near, the Equator due to maximum solar intensity, regardless
of the season

101. What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than
parallel to the isobars?
a) Coriolis force
b) Surface friction
c) Greater air density at the surface
102. Anabatic winds are formed when:
a) Air in contact with the ground is cooled and flows downhill

b) The wind is accelerated by orographic funnel effect
c) Air in contact with the surface is heated and therefore ascends the mountain
slopes
103. Clear Air Turbulence is frequently associated with:
a) Jet streams
b) Cb clouds
c) Cold fronts
104. Which of the following statements regarding the seabreeze is true?
a) The seabreeze occurs during the night

b) The seabreeze blows from the land to the sea
c) The seabreeze generally effects a strip of 10 to 15 nautical miles either side
of the coastline
105. A gradient wind is a result of:
a) Centrifugal force and geostrophic wind

b) Coriolis force and pressure gradient force
c) Surface friction and pressure gradient force
106. The Monsoon winds over the Indian Ocean are:
a) South Easterly at all times of the year

b) South Westerly in June
c) North Easterly in June
107. While on final approach the wind sheers from a crosswind to a headwind. This will
cause:
a) The indicated airspeed to increase momentarily and the aircrafts glide path
to steepen
b) The indicated airspeed to decrease momentarily and the aircrafts glide angle
to decrease
c) The indicated airspeed to decrease momentarily and the aircrafts glide to
steepen

108. What are some of the characteristics of unstable air?
a) Turbulence and good surface visibility

b) Nimbostratus cloud and poor surface visibility
c) Nimbostratus cloud and good surface visibility
109. The characteristics if stable air is:
a) Poor visibility and steady precipitation from stratus type cloud

b) Poor visibility and intermittent rain from cumuliform type cloud
c) Good visibility and steady precipitation from cumuliform type cloud
110. Moist stable air flowing upslope may be expected to produce:
a) Stratus type cloud

b) Thunderstorms and showers
c) A temperature inversion
111. A general characteristic of a cold airmass is:
a) Stability
b) Smooth flying conditions above the friction layer
c) Good visibility
112. A property of a cold air mass is:
a) Poor visibility
b) Turbulent conditions
c) Stratus type clouds
113. A property of a warm air mass is:
a) Poor visibility
b) Turbulent conditions
c) Shower type precipitation
114. An air mass is moving slowly over a high plateau in winter and the pressure is high.
The relative humidity will:
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain unchanged
115. The general characteristics of unstable air are:
a) Good visibility, showery precipitation and cumuliform type cloud

b) Good visibility, steady precipitation and stratiform type cloud
c) Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation and cumuliform type cloud

116. Which are the characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface?
a) Cumuliform clouds, turbulence and good visibility

b) Stratiform cloud, smooth air and poor visibility
c) Cumuliform cloud, turbulence and poor visibility
117. A cold air mass moving over a warm land mass will:
a) Become stable
b) Become unstable
c) Will cause poor surface visibility
118. Which weather conditions can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively
warm surface to a colder surface?
a) Stratus layer type cloud

b) Convective turbulence due to surface heating
c) Fog, or mist
119. Which is a characteristic of stable air?
a) Unlimited visibility
b) High ELR
c) Stratiform cloud
120. A parcel of air at sea level has the following temperature/dew point relationship
26/23. What airmass is the air most likely to be part of?
a) TKC
b) PWC
c) TWM
121. An SALR of 1.1C/1000 is likely in which of the following airmasses?
a) PWM
b) TKE
c) TWM
122. Which of the following will not affect the modification of an airmass during its
passage from the source region?
a) Longitude
b) Speed
c) Day/night variations in temperature
123. Land and sea breezes will develop when:
a) Anabatic conditions exist

b) Katabatic conditions exist
c) The gradient wind conditions are suitable

124. Wind speed and direction received from the meteorological office are usually given
in:
a) Knots and degrees from true north

b) Knots and degrees from magnetic north
c) Miles per hour and degrees from true north
125. If the surface wind direction is 220, what do you expect the upper wind direction to
be at 3000 feet?
a) 180
b) 220
c) 240
126. What type of upper winds is dominant over the RSA?
a) Northerly winds
b) Westerly winds
c) Southerly winds
127. What is Zonal upper air wind?
a) A Monsoon type of wind

b) When the winds are due westerly
c) Easterly wind wave
128. What weather is normally associated with upper cut-off low?
a) Heavy rain just east of the low

b) Normally fine and stable weather
c) Thunderstorms to the west of the low
129. Where over the RSA can we expect the Easterly wind wave?
a) Over the Cape Peninsula

b) Along the West Coast
c) Over the northern parts of the RSA
130. On which side of contrasting air masses lies the jetstream?
a) In the cold air

b) Halfway between the cold and warm air
c) In the warm air
131. With reference to jet-streams, CAT is usually found:
a) Approximately 1000 above the tropopause

b) Approximately 1000 below the tropopause
c) In a layer extending 2000 above 6000 and below the tropopause
d) None of the above

132. What type of cloud is most likely to form under conditions of stable moist air?
a) Fair weather cumulus cloud

b) Stratiform cloud
c) Cumuliform type cloud
133. The four groups of cloud types are:
a) Clouds formed by: Thermal uplift, orographic uplift, convective uplift and
frontal uplift.
b) High, middle and low cloud and those formed by extensive vertical
development.
c) Stratus type, nimulus type, cumulus cirrus
134. What determines the type of cloud (structure) which is a result of air being forced to
ascend?
a) The method by which the air is lifted

b) The stability of the air before lifting occurs
c) The SALR temperature
135. The structure and formation of different cloud types which form as a result of air that
is forced to rise depends upon:
a) The stability of the air before it is forced to rise

b) The method by which the air is forced to rise
c) The amount of humidity present after lifting occurs
136. Cumuliform type cloud associated with good visibility, rain showers and possible
clear ice formation is likely to result from:
a) Stable moist air forced to rise orographically

b) Unstable moist air forced to rise orographically
c) Unstable dry air forced to rise orographically
137. With which type of cloud would you expect strong turbulence?
a) Nimbostratus
b) Cumulonimbus
c) Cumulus castellanus
138. The type of cloud expected to form when unstable moist air is forced to rise over a
mountain is most likely to be:
a) Stratified clouds with intermittent showers

b) Layer type cloud with little vertical development
c) Vertical development type cloud

139. Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?
a) Middle clouds
b) High clouds
c) Clouds with extensive vertical development
d) Low clouds
140. Convective clouds are most dangerous from the icing point of view because:
a) Convective clouds indicate a lower freezing level

b) The strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of small supercooled
water droplets will be present
c) The strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of large supercooled
141. With regard to meteorology, virga is:
a) A type of Asiatic fog

b) Precipitation from a cloud not reaching the ground
c) A sea breeze experienced in Portugal
142. Lenticular altocumulus standing clouds are likely to indicate:
a) Jet streams
b) Heavy icing conditions
c) Strong turbulence
143. Cloud formation at small closed lows is an example of:
a) Convective cloud
b) Convergent cloud
c) Frontal cloud
144. Which instrument is used to determine the height of cloudbase?
a) The ceilometer
b) The transmissometer
c) The anemometer
145. At approximately what altitude above the surface would you expect to base of
cumuliform clouds if the surface temperature is 28C and dew point is 13C?
a) 5000 ft
b) 6000 ft
c) 8000 ft

146. What type of cloud will be formed, if very stable moist air is forced upslope?
a) First stratified clouds, then vertical clouds

b) First vertical clouds, then stratified clouds
c) Stratified clouds with little vertical development
147. The suffix Nimbus, used in naming clouds, means:
a) Cloud with extensive vertical development

b) Raincloud
c) Dark massive, towering cloud
148. Standing lenticular clouds in mountainous areas indicate:
a) An inversion
b) An unstable layer
c) Turbulence
149. Select the incorrect answer. Cloud formation by adiabatic cooling due to lifting can
be caused by:
a) Turbulence
b) Radiation
c) Convection
150. Which of the following is not an example of orographic lifting?
a) Table Mountain table cloth

b) Upslope Fog
c) Col areas
a) The ITCZ is at approximately the 30 latitude

b) The tropical travelling depression contains frontal weather
c) Convergency uplifting is normally found in a col.
152. If a parcel of air at sea level has the following temperature / dewpoint relationship
26/23, at what height do you expect to find the cloudbase?
a) 2000
b) 1500
c) 1000

153. Which of the following are correct? In order to dissipate cloud
1 The temperature must decrease to below the dew point

2 Relative humidity must decrease to below 100 %
3 Dry air must replace moist air (advection)
4 Precipitation will assist
5 Contact heating will have no effect
6 Subsiding air will assist
a) 1, 3, 6
b) 2, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 6
154. At sea level the temperature is 26C; dew point temperature is 23C. Assume ELR
= 2/1000 and SALR = 1.5C/1000. At what height do you expect to find neutral
stability?
a) 3500
b) 1500
c) 4000
155. If the SALR = ELR, what type of clouds are most likely to form?
a) Cb Ci
b) St Cb
c) St Sc
156. At what height AGL would you expect the base of cumuliform type clouds if the
surface temperature is 24C and the dew point is 12C?
a) 4000
b) 5000
c) 6000
157. A strong wind is forming turbulence stratocumulus cloud with a base of 2000 ft
above ground. The surface temperature is +7C. What is the height of the freezing
level above the ground to the nearest 100 ft?
a) 2000 ft
b) 2700 ft
c) 3700 ft
158. The turbulence in stratocumulus clouds can be expected to be:
a) Slight
b) Moderate
c) Severe

159. The following is a requirement for the formation of turbulent cloud:
a) Unstable lapse rate above the turbulent layer

b) Very strong winds near the ground
c) Light winds between 2 kts and 4 kts
160. Conditions most favourable for the formation of radiation fog are:
a) Cold air moving over a warm surface at night

b) Warm, moist air moving over a cold surface
c) Warm, moist air over low flat land areas on clear nights with a light breeze
161. Which conditions favour the formation of radiation fog?
a) Clear skies, 5 to 10 knots wind, small temperature/dew point spread and over
a land surface
b) Cloudy skies, light winds, large temperature/dew point spread and over a
land surface
c) Moist air moving over a cold ground or water surface
162. Under which condition does advection fog usually form?
a) Moist air moving over colder ground or water

b) Warm, moist settling over a cool surface under no wind conditions
c) A land breeze blowing a cold air mass over a warm water current
163. Under which conditions does advection fog usually form?
a) Moist air moving over colder ground to water

b) A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea
c) A land breeze blowing a cold airmass over a warm ocean current
164. In what localities is advection fog likely?
a) Level inland areas

b) Coastal areas
c) Mountain valleys
165. In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
a) A warm, moist airmass on the windward side of mountains

b) An airmass moving inland from the coast in winter
c) Warm moist air settling over a warmer surface under no-wind conditions
166. What types of fog depend upon a wind in order to exist?
a) Advection and upslope fog

b) Steam and downslope fog
c) Tropical air fog

167. Which type of fog persists with stronger winds?
a) Valley fog
b) Upslope fog
c) Radiation fog
168. At times, fog is prevalent in industrial areas because of:
a) An abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products

b) Increased temperatures due to industrial heating
c) A high concentration of steam from industrial plants
169. Steam fog occurs mainly:
a) When the air over the surface is much warmer than the surface itself
b) In the Polar Regions
c) As a thin layer on a water surface
170. Choose the correct statement:
a) Fog visibility more than 1000 m

b) Mist visibility more than 1000 m
c) None of the above
a) Sea fog and advection fog are the same thing

b) During valley fog an anabatic wind blows
c) The Stephenson screen measures mainly pressure
a) In mist the visibility is less than 1 km

b) Radiation fog occurs after horizontal transfer of heat
c) If the wind speed is greater than 10 kts, radiation fog will dissipate and
change into Fs, St or Sc
173. Radiation fog is most likely:
a) Over high ground

b) With cloudy skies
c) On a clear night
174. The type of fog most common over water areas is:
a) Radiation fog
b) Upslope fog
c) Advection fog

175. In regard to the depth of fog:
a) Radiation fog is likely to be the deepest

b) The depth of fog has no relation to its type
c) Advection fog is likely to be deeper than radiation fog
176. Which of the following statements are correct?
a) Tropical air fog is often found over the sea

b) Frontal fog is common with very rapidly moving cold fronts
c) Valley fog is also known as downslope radiation fog
177. RVR is assessed when visibility falls below:
a) 2000 m
b) 1500 m
c) 1000 m
178. RVR will only be reported at an aerodrome if the meteorological visibility is less
than:
a) 10 km
b) 5 km
c) 1.5 km
179. What is the difference between RVR and visibility?
a) No difference (two terms describing the same thing)

b) No difference (RVR is just an old term)
c) No difference except that RVR is measured in a specific direction
180. When poor visibility is due to a layer of mist near the surface, it is possible to see a
greater area of the surface by:
a) Descending to a lower level

b) Climbing to a higher level
c) Looking into the direction of the sun
181. What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?
a) You have flown into an area of thunderstorms

b) You have flown through a cold front
c) Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude
182. The growth of cloud droplets are explained in the following two theories:
a) The convergence and ice particle theory

b) The ice particle and coalescence theory
c) The condensation and ice particle theory

183. The maximum size of a raindrop is 5.5 mm because:
a) It disintegrates if it gets any bigger

b) Larger droplets are classified as showers
c) To grow any larger additional condensation nuclei is required
184. Which of the following statements regarding precipitation is correct?
a) Rain that freezes in stratiform clouds forms snow

b) From an aviation point of view snow produces severe airframe icing
c) Drizzle is tiny water droplets and their individual impact on a water surface
cannot be seen
185. The poorest visibility can be expected in:
a) Hail
b) Snow
c) Rain
186. Ice pellets at the surface is evidence that:
a) There are thunderstorms present

b) A cold front has passed
c) There is freezing rain at higher altitudes
187. If you encounter ice pellets at 8000 ft it would indicate:
a) Thunderstorms are in the area

b) There is freezing rain at higher altitudes
c) High altitude cold front
a) Convergence is the forcing up of air when two airmasses converge

b) Conduction is the transfer of heat by radiation
c) During radiation advection takes place
189. Which one of the following is correct?
a) Thermals always form clouds

b) A thermal can normally be found under a stratus cloud
c) A cold air mass, together with conditional instability and warm land would
cause a convective up current
190. Frontal waves normally form on:
a) Slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts

b) Slow moving warm fronts and strong occluded fronts
c) Rapidly moving cold or warm fronts

191. Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal
system?
a) A wind change
b) An abrupt decrease in pressure
c) Clouds, either ahead or behind the front
d) An abrupt temperature decrease
192. Fronts are a feature of the weather of:
a) Polar regions
b) Tropical regions
c) Temperate regions
d) Sub-tropical regions
193. Fronts are formed in the:
a) South-east trades
b) Arctic front
c) Polar front
d) Sub-tropical high pressure zone
194. Depressions in temperate areas tend to form along the line of:
a) The doldrums
b) The I.T.C.Z.
c) The polar front
195. In a temperature depression the isobars are straight:
a) Ahead of the warm front

b) Ahead of the cold front
c) Behind the cold front
196. After the passage of a cold front at Cape Town the wind veers to NW, this probably
indicates:
a) The bad weather is over

b) A Col.
c) A family depression
197. Choose the correct statement regarding the passage of cold fronts:
a) Temperature drop and dew point temp rise once the front has passed
b) With the advance of the front the pressure rises steadily
c) There is a sharp backing of the wind after the front has passed

198. When crossing a cold front in the southern hemisphere from the warm to the cold
sector there will be:
a) A backing in wind direction

b) A veering in wind direction
c) No change in wind direction
199. A cold front is passing over a station. After the frontal passage:
a) Temperature and pressure will decrease rapidly

b) Poor surface visibility in fog can be expected
c) The wind direction will change and the visibility will improve rapidly
200. In a cold front occlusion (front moving in an easterly direction):
a) The cold air is to the west of the front

b) The cool air is to be west of the front
c) Neither of the above
201. Frontal fog is associated mainly with:
a) Warm fronts
b) Cold fronts
c) Cold occluded fronts
202. Which of the following statements regarding fronts is correct?
a) Cold fronts have shallower slopes than warm fronts

b) Warm fronts are often 200 to 300 nm deep
c) Warm fronts overtaking cold fronts are called warm occlusions
203. When crossing a front at higher altitude the change in the temperature and wind,
direction will be:
a) Greater than the change at a lower altitude

b) Less than the change at a lower altitude
c) The same as the change at a lower altitude
204. If the air behind the warm sector is warmer than the air ahead of the warm sector it
is called a:
a) Cool occlusion
b) Warm occlusion
c) Cold occlusion

205. Which factors determine the weather intensity at any front?
1 Stability of the cold airmass

2 Slope of the front
3 Temperature difference between the two air masses
4 Moisture content of the cold airmass
5 Speed of the overtaking air mass from the rear
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 5
c) 1, 2 and 4
206. What are the requirements for the development of a thunderstorm?
a) Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate and a trigger action

b) Sufficient water vapour and orographic uplifting
c) Cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inversion
207. The conditions necessary for the developments of thunderstorms are:
a) Moist air in the lower layers, instability and a lifting action

b) Moist air in the upper layers, stability and frontal activity
c) Sufficient moisture, instability and static electricity
208. During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterised predominantly
by downdraughts?
a) The mature stage when precipitation begins to fall

b) The dissipating stage with the formation of the anvil
c) The cumulus stage
209. What are the indications that downdraughts have developed and that a
thunderstorm has reached a mature stage?
a) A gust front occurs and thereafter precipitation begins to fall

b) The anvil top completes its development and light rain begins to fall
c) Temperatures drops sharply and pressure begins to rise rapidly
210. Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions such as heavy
hail and destructive winds?
a) Cold front
b) Warm front
c) Air mass
211. Which weather phenomenon is always associated with thunderstorms?
a) Lightning
b) Heavy rain showers
c) Hail

212. Which is the most common hazard of lightning strikes on aircraft?
a) Fuel is ignited in the tanks

b) Structural damage to major components of the aircraft
c) Failure of the entire electrical system
213. Short duration atmospheric electrical effects experienced on radio transmitters

associated with thunderstorms are caused by:
a) Electromagnetic radio waves produced by lightning discharge

b) Precipitation static
c) St Elmos fire
214. What is meant by the term embedded thunderstorms
a) Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers

b) Thunderstorms are predicted to form in stable air
c) Severer thunderstorms lie within a squall line
215. Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? (Choose the most
complete answer)
a) In front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell

b) On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell
c) In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the right of the cell
216. Tornados and destructive winds are generally associated with which thunderstorms?
a) Thunderstorms associated with any type of front which produces

considerable rain
b) Thunderstorms with bases near the surface
c) Large air mass thunderstorms developing in areas where the ground
temperature is warmer than the air above
217. What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has
entered the mature stage?
a) The anvil top has completed its development

b) Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base
c) A gust front forms
218. Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate

embedded thunderstorm activity?
a) Reduce speed to manoeuvring speed and maintain a constant altitude

b) Set power for recommended turbulence penetration speed and attempt to
maintain a level flight altitude
c) Reduce speed to manoeuvring speed and thereafter maintain a constant
airspeed

219. If you fly into severe turbulence, which condition should you attempt to maintain?
a) Constant altitude
b) Level flight altitude
c) Constant altitude and airspeed
220. What is the best procedure for controlling an aircraft in a thunderstorm, if

thunderstorm penetration is unavoidable?
a) Maintain altitude and manoeuvring speed dont turn back

b) Maintain a constant attitude and safe operating range power setting dont
turn back
c) Reduce airspeed to manoeuvring speed turn 180 as soon as possible
221. What precaution, in addition to controlling the aircraft, should you take if you cannot
avoid thunderstorm penetration?
a) Tighten safety belts, turn on autopilot to altitude hold mode, turn on cockpit
lights and pitot heat
b) Turn on pitot heat, carburettor heat or alternate air, de-icing and anti-icing
equipment, and turn cockpit lights to highest intensity
c) Tighten safety belts, turn on pitot heat, turn on carburettor heat or alternate
air, and turn cockpit lights to highest intensity
222. Which is the most common hazard of lightning strikes on aircraft?
a) Temporary blindness of the pilot

b) Failure of entire electrical system
c) Structural damage of major components of the aircraft
223. Which one of the following is correct?
a) During frontal uplift the slope at the cold front is steeper than that at the warm
front
b) The warm sector is the area ahead of the warm front
c) A warm front is associated with an anti-cyclone
224. The atmosphere moves at:
a) 2 hours per 6 of longitude

b) 6 hours per 2 of latitude
c) West to Ease
a) The position of the sun has no effect on insolation

b) Advection is the lateral transfer of heat
c) Heat can be transferred by advection, convection, expansion and radiation

226. Which of the following give rise to the formation of CAT?
1 Anti-cyclones
2 Jetstreams
3 Mountain standing waves
4 Surface Troughs
5 Strong upper air troughs
6 Seasonal upper air winds
a) 2, 4 and 6
b) 2, 3 and 5
c) 1, 2, 3 and 6
227. Which statement about low-level wind shear, as it relates to frontal activity, is
correct?
a) With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the
airport
b) With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the
airport
c) With a cold front, the problem ceases to exist after the front passes the
airport
228. Where does wind shear occur?
a) Primarily in the lower altitudes in mountainous areas

b) Where there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature
c) With either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the
atmosphere
229. What is an important characteristic of wind shear?
a) It occurs exclusively at lower levels and is associated with strong horizontal

temperature inversions
b) It usually exists in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a
strong temperature inversion
c) It may be associated with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any
level of the atmosphere

230. What are the three correct favourable conditions for the formation of standing
waves?
A Wind blowing parallel to the mountain

B Wind speed increasing with height
C Wind blowing perpendicular to the mountain
D Strong wind with little or no change in direction with height
E An unstable layer above the mountain
F Precipitation on the windward side of the mountain
G Rotor streaming on the lee of the mountain
a) A, F, G
b) B, C, D
c) A, B, E
231. Weather information indicates a strong wind blowing perpendicular to a mountain

range. Other information confirming the existence of mountain waves in the area
will be:
a) Station down-wind from the mountain range reporting patches of Cu clouds

b) Stations up-wind of the mountain range reporting Cu clouds
c) Stations on both sides of the mountain range reporting no clouds but good
visibility
232. Which one of the following statements best describes the action required by a light
aircraft landing behind a departing heavy transport aircraft?
a) Aim to touch down and stop before reaching the point of rotation of the heavy
transport aircraft
b) Aim to touch down past the point of rotation of the heavy transport aircraft
c) Aim to touch down before the rotation point of the heavy transport aircraft and
continue rolling through this point
233. The correct method to avoid wake turbulence during take-off and landing is to:
a) Take-off and land beyond the touchdown of arriving aircraft

b) Take-off and land beyond the point of rotation of departing aircraft
c) Maintain a lower glide path than the aircraft ahead and land beyond its
touchdown point
234. CAT is found in:
a) Surface troughs
b) Mountainous areas
c) Seasonal upper air winds

235. When an aircraft encounters a rapid increase in headwind component on the final
phase of the approach to land, the aircraft will:
a) Overshoot the required glide slope

b) Undershoot the required glide slope
c) The glide slope will remain constant as the I.A.S. remains constant
236. When an aircraft encounters a rapid decrease in headwind component on the final
phase of the approach to land, the aircraft will:
a) Overshoot the required glide slope

b) Undershoot the required glide slope
c) The glide slope will remain constant as the I.A.S. remains constant
237. Turbulence is defined as random fluctuations of wind:
a) In the vertical plane only

b) In the horizontal plane only
c) And is made up of gusts
238. You are approaching an aerodrome for landing, the control tower warns you that you
might experience wind shear on final approach, you fly the final approach:
a) With full flap selected down

b) After delaying landing with 30 minutes, in the normal configuration
c) Using a flatter approach path
239. Clear Air Turbulence is associated with:
a) Low level turbulence

b) Windshear turbulence
c) Wake turbulence
d) Mechanical turbulence
240. Conditions favourable for the formation of standing waves are:
a) The wind to blow within 20 of the mountain range

b) Windspeed not less than 10 kts
c) A fairly deep layer of uniform wind
d) Lenticular cloud
241. The strength and magnitude of mechanical turbulence depends on:
a) Windspeed and frictional surface

b) Windspeed and stability
c) Stability and the frictional surface
d) All of the above

242. Wake turbulence vortices may, under calm conditions persist up to:
a) 4 min.
b) 5 min.
c) 3 min.
d) 2 min.
243. Which procedure is recommended when operating in an area of suspected or known

icing?
a) The de-icing system should be engaged as soon as light accumulation of ice

has formed on the leading edges
b) If unable to maintain airspeed due to icing, altitude should be traded for
airspeed
c) As icing builds up increases, angle of attack should be increased and power
reduced to maintain level flight
244. The most likely temperature range for carburettor icing to occur is:
a) -4C to -18C
b) +20C to -5C
c) -10C to -30C
245. The conditions for severe icing are:
1 Ns
2 Cu and Cb
3 14F to 32F
4 Wet snow
5 Large droplets
6 High speed
7 High water content
a) 2, 3, 5, and 7
b) 1, 3, 5 and 7
c) 3, 4, 5 and 6
246. When flying from an area with temperatures below freezing to a warmer air mass, in
clear air, the expected type of icing would be:
a) Hoar frost
b) Rime ice
c) Glazed ice
d) A combination of a, b and c
247. The primary danger of glazed ice is:
a) Its weight
b) Because it breaks off in large chunks
c) Vibration when present on propellers

248. Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operations?
a) The increased weight requires a greater take-off distance

b) Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift
c) Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the aerofoil
249. In which temperature range is opaque rime ice most commonly found?
a) -15C to -40C
b) 0C to -15C
c) +15C to -10C
250. The most dangerous type of icing is regarded as being:
a) Hoar frost
b) Rime ice
c) Glazed ice
d) Rain ice
251. Convective clouds are most dangerous from the icing point of view because:
a) Convective clouds indicate a lower freezing level

b) The strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of small supercooled
c) The strong vertical currents mean that a predominance of large supercooled
252. The only type of airframe icing which occurs in clear air is:
a) Translucent rime ice

b) Hoar frost
c) Opaque rime ice
253. In which environment is aircraft icing most likely to have the highest rate of
accumulation?
a) Heavy wet snow

b) Cumulonimbus clouds
c) High humidity and freezing temperatures
254. Ice formation will be most severe in:
a) Cumulus type clouds

b) Stratus type clouds
c) Very high clouds at low temperatures

255. Heavy ice accretion in nimbostratus clouds can be expected in the temperature
range:
a) 0 to -10C
b) -10 to -20C
c) -15 to -25C
256. Which minimum temperature range is most conducive to aircraft icing in Stratiform
cloud?
a) -2C to -15C
b) 0C to -15C
c) 0C to -10C
257. Ice formation in carburettors due to evaporation of fuel will occur at:
a) -25C to +13C
b) -25C to +10C
c) -10C to +25C
258. Strong winds in a humid airstream have caused the formation of an extensive layer
of turbulent clouds, the base of which is reported to be at 1000 ft above MSL and
the tops at 5000 ft. Airfield elevation is 330 ft and the air temperature at take-off is
5C. The estimated depth of the airframe icing layer in the Sc is:
a) Between 1000 and 3000 ft above MSL

b) Between 1330 and 3670 ft above MSL
c) Between 3000 ft and the top of the clouds
259. The most severe throttle icing in the carburettor occurs at:
a) +13C Outside free air temperature

b) +13C Cylinder heat temperature
c) +13C Carburettor mixture temperature
d) +13C Dewpoint temperature
260. Rime ice can form when the temperature is anywhere from:
a) -10C to +27C
b) 0c to -40C
c) 0C to -10C
d) +5C to +27C
261. Carburettor icing may result in:
a) An engine cut due to an excessively rich mixture

b) Rough running die to early airflow separation in the venture
c) Increased RPM indications in piston aircraft fitted with a C.S.U.

262. The requirements for the formation of a tropical cyclone are:
a) Within 30 of the equator over warm oceans

b) Within 10 and 30 of the equator over warm oceans
c) Within 15 and 35 of the equator over warm oceans
d) Within 5 and 25 of the equator over warm oceans
263. Give the three correct options with regard to tropical cyclones:
1 They never cross the equator

2 They travel in an easterly direction
3 They originate within 5 - 25 north and south of the equator
4 Due to their destructive winds they often cause severe damage for inland
over continental regions
5 They occur mainly during winter and spring in the southern hemisphere
6 They do not occur in the North Atlantic Ocean
7 The winds in tropical cyclones blow clockwise in the northern hemisphere
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2, 6 and 7
c) 1, 3 and 5
d) 1, 2 and 3
264. Common features of high pressures are:
a) Strong surface winds near the centre

b) Clouds of vertical development
c) Good visibility
d) Stability
265. Give three correct characteristics of a cold anti-cyclone:
1 Airflow at the 500 mb level is similar to that at the surface resulting in slow
movement of the system
2 Fog seldom occurs or of short duration
3 Circulation is limited in height, seldom above 3000 m
4 They are normally found on the equatorial side of the polar front
5 Moves fast at an average speed of 25 knots
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2, 3 and 5
c) 1, 2 and 3

266. During the South African summer:
a) The Indian and Atlantic low pressure move northwards causing westerlies to
blow over the southern part of the continent
b) The Atlantic high pressure is a source of dry subsiding air, having its centre
fairly near the west coast
c) Moisture laden North Easterly tradewinds invade the southern regions
causing torrential rains over the Southern Cape
267. Under which climatic zone does Cape Town fall?
a) Temperate low pressure zone

b) Sub-tropical dry zone
c) Transitional sub-tropic zone
d) Transitional tropic zone
268. During the South African winter:
a) A cell of low pressure usually forms over the Transvaal interior resulting in
clear skies and calm conditions
b) Mid Atlantic depressions linked with cold fronts invade the southern regions
of South Africa
c) A strong low forming closely behind a front
269. The Buster is characterized by the following phenomena:
a) Strong South Westerly winds following in the wake of a coastal low; stratiform
cloud type with intermittent drizzle
b) Strong South Easterly winds accompanied by overcast conditions and rain
showers
c) Strong South Easterly winds accompanied by generally clear skies giving a
health effect on the environment
270. The disastrous torrential rains that affected Laingsburg in 1981 was partly due to:
a) The Cape Doctor

b) The South Westerly Buster
c) The Black South Easter
d) The Wet North Western
271. The Cape Doctor:
a) Occurs frequently during the winter over the Cape Peninsula

b) Is a strong south westerly wind usually accompanied with clear skies
c) Blows when there is a well developed high pressure system west of Cape
Town

272. The special or routine meteorological reports made by aircraft crew are known as:
a) AIREPS
b) NOTAMS
c) SPECIS
d) METARS
273. The elements contained in an AIREP and their order shall be:
a) Operational and Meteorological information

b) Meteorological and Positional information
c) Positional, Operational and Meteorological information
d) Operational, Positional and Meteorological information
274. Weather satellites generally operate in either a:
a) Polar or equatorial orbit

b) Geographical or solar orbit
c) Solar or stationary orbit
d) Geostationary or polar orbit
275. Which weather satellites orbits at a height of about 36 000 km?
a) Equatorial satellites
b) Geostationary satellites
c) Geographical satellites
d) Polar satellites
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol A:
276. The wind direction is:
a) 125T
b) 025T
c) 320T
277. The wind strength is:
a) 05 kts
b) 05 m/s
c) 05 km/m
278. The atmospheric sea level pressure or GPM is:
a) 1003,9 HPa
b) 1028,0 HPa
c) 1015.0 HPa

279. The pressure tendency in the last three hours was:
a) Rising
b) Falling steadily
c) Remaining steady
280. The dewpoint temperature is:
a) 25C
b) 09C
c) 12.5C
281. The visibility is
a) 5600 m
b) 6000 m
c) 600 m
282. The amount of low cloud is:
a) 6 Octas
b) 4 Octas
c) 8 Octas
283. The present weather is:
a) Hail
b) Rain
c) Freezing Rain
284. The cloud type is:
a) Large Cumulus and Nimbostratus

b) Dense Cirrus and Altocumulus
c) Stratus and Thick Altostratus
285. The cloudbase is:
a) 260 ft
b) 700 ft
c) 1500 ft
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol B
a) 220T
b) 120T
c) 030T

a) 30m/s
b) 3.0 m/s
c) 7 m/s
a) 1000.0 HPa
b) 1013.8 HPa
c) 1010.0 HPa
a) Not recorded
b) Rising
c) Fluctuating
a) -12.0C
b) +2.0C
c) +12.0C
291. The visibility is:
a) 450 m
b) 45 km
c) 4500 m
a) 4 Octas
b) 1 Octa below 6000 ft
c) 3 Octas
a) Showers of rain
b) Very good
c) Unmeasurable
a) Small cumulus
b) Strands of Cirrus
c) Cumulus and Stratocumulus

a) 800 ft
b) 7000 to 9000 ft
c) 150 to 300 ft
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol C:
a) Calm
b) 270 Magnetic
c) 270 True
a) 0 kts
b) 5 m/second
c) 5 km/hour
a) 1099.8 HPa
b) 99.8 HPa
c) 999.8 HPa
a) Falling or steady, then rising

b) Rising then falling
c) Falling steadily
a) +16.2C
b) +11.1C
c) +3.1C
a) 8 Octas
b) 3 Octas
c) 7 Octas
a) Slight intermittent rain

b) Fog
c) Ice needles

a) Stratus
b) Cirrus or Cirrostratus, altocumulus and large Cumulus
c) Cumulus and Stratocumulus, altocumulus and Cirrocumulus
a) 600 to 1000 ft
b) 50 to 150 ft
c) 1000 to 2000 ft
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol D:
a) 215T
b) 230T
c) 020T
a) 25 kts
b) 30 kts
c) 55 kts
a) 984.0 GPM
b) 1000.2 HPa
c) 1028.0 HPa
a) To rise with 2.8 HPa

b) To drop with 2.2 HPa
c) To drop with 5.6 HPa
a) +20.1C
b) +11.0C
c) +6.0C
310. The past weather is:
a) Nil
b) Rain
c) Showers

a) 6 Octas
b) 3 Octas
c) 8 Octas
a) Dust storm
b) Continuous drizzle
c) Rain
a) Stratocumulus, Cirrus and Stratus

b) Small Cumulus, Stratocumulus and Stratus
c) Cumulonimbus
a) 3000 to 5000 ft
b) 2000 to 3000 ft
c) 1000 to 2000 ft
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol E:
a) 110T
b) 110M
c) 110C
a) 10 kts
b) 10 km/hr
c) 10 m/sec
a) 1125 HPa
b) 1025 GPM
c) 1002.5 HPa
a) Steady rise of 6 HPa

b) Steady rise of 0.3 HPa
c) Steady rise of 0.06 HPa

a) -3C
b) -0.3C
c) +3C
a) 120 m
b) 1 200 m
c) 12 000 m
a) Obscured
b) Six Octas
c) Seven Octas
a) Snow
b) Freezing snow
c) Fog in patches
a) Cirrostratus
b) Altocumulus
c) Stratus or Nimbostratus
a) 0 to 150 ft
b) 150 to 300 ft
c) 300 to 600 ft
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol N
a) 209T
b) 300T
c) 010T
a) 20 kts
b) 40 kts
c) 80 kts

a) 1005.2 HPa
b) 1052.2 HPa
c) 1522.0 GPM
a) Rise 0.3 HPa

b) Rise 1 HPa
c) Rise 3 HPa
a) +0C
b) +4C
c) +5C
330. The past weather is:
a) Drizzle
b) Clear skies
c) Thunderstorms
a) 5 Octas
b) 2 Octas
c) 1 Octa
a) 80 km
b) 50 km
c) 4 km
333. The low cloud type is:
a) Cumulonimbus
b) Moderate to large cumulus
c) Thin altostratus
a) 2000 ft
b) 5000 ft
c) 8000 ft

The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol G:
a) 360T
b) No direction
c) 360M
a) 0 kts
b) 20 km/h
c) 20 m/s
337. The atmospheric sea level pressure of GPM is:
a) 1025.0 HPa
b) 1002.5 HPa
c) 1025.5 HPa
338. What was the atmospheric pressure three hours ago?
a) 1023.7 HPa
b) 1017.5 HPa
c) 1001.2 HPa
a) 6C
b) 25C
c) 2C
a) 800 m
b) 8000 m
c) 80 km
341. The amount of medium cloud is:
a) 8 Octas
b) 3 Octas
c) 2 Octas
a) Haze
b) Slight freezing rain
c) Moderate or heavy freezing rain

343. The cloudtype is:
a) Altocumulus with Altostratus or Nimbostratus

b) Altocumulus and Cirrus
c) Cirrostratus not covering the whole sky
a) Not given
b) Below 10 000 ft
c) Above 10 000 ft
The following ten questions refer to the coded synoptic Symbol H:
a) 320T
b) 250T
c) 010T
a) 5 kts
b) 50 kts
c) 15 kts
a) 1021.0 HPa
b) 1008.3 HPa
c) 983.0 HPa
a) Falling steadily or unsteadily

b) Falling then rising
c) Falling steadily then rising rapidly
a) + 6C
b) + 5C
c) - 5C
350. The visibility at the time of the message is:
a) 35 km
b) 350 m
c) 3500 m

a) 2 Octas
b) 8 Octas
c) 3 Octas
352. The amount of total cloud is:
a) 8 Octas
b) 2 Octas
c) 4 Octas
353. The cloudtype is:
a) Stratus
b) Cumulus
c) Predominantly fog
a) 600 ft
b) 6000 ft
c) 7000 ft
The following eight questions refer to synoptic chart No 1:
355. Berg wind conditions can be expected at:
a) The Namibian west coast

b) The Mozambique south coast
c) Cape Town
356. The visibility at Walvisbay is:
a) 40 km
b) 4 km
c) 0.4 km
357. The base of the low cloud at Cape Town is:
a) 300 ft
b) 800 ft
c) 1200 ft
358. The medium cloud at Pretoria is:
a) Stratocumulus
b) Altocumulus
c) Small cumulus

359. The present weather at Durban is:
a) Visibility reduced due to smoke

b) 4 Octas cloud
c) Not significant enough to be included
360. The atmospheric pressure or GPM at Bloemfontein is given as 519, meaning:
a) 1051.9 HPa
b) 819.0 HPa
c) 1519 GPM
361. The windspeed and direction at Mosselbay is:
a) 270 True heading at 10 kts

b) 270 Magnetic heading at 10 kts
c) 270 Magnetic heading at 5 kts
362. Regarding the weather at Walvisbay, which statement regarding the fog is true:
a) The fog is either radiation or tropical steam fog

b) If the wind strengthens the fog will be blown inland
c) If the wind veers through 90 the fog will be blown inland
The following eight questions refer to synoptic chart No 2
363. You are flying from ship F to ship E.
a) The cloudbase will drop significantly

b) The altimeter will overread on arrival at ship E
c) Severe rime icing can be expected at 1500 AGL
364. The visibility at ship D is:
a) 7000 m
b) 20 000 m
c) 5000 m
365. The base of the low cloud at ship A is:
a) 2500 ft
b) 1500 ft
c) 500 ft
366. The low cloud at ship C is most likely to be:
a) Stratus Fractus
b) Cumulus
c) Cumulonimbus

367. The present weather at station ship C is:
a) Intermittent rain
b) Stratus cloud
c) Moderate continuous rain
368. The atmospheric sea level pressure or GPM at ship C is:
a) 980.0 HPa
b) 898.0 HPa
c) 1011.2 HPa
369. The windspeed and direction at ship E is:
a) 220/30 kts
b) 170/30 kts
c) 120/30 kts
370. In the next two hours the wind and pressure at ship C will respectively:
a) Back and drop

b) Back and rise
c) Veer and rise
The following eight questions refer to synoptic chart No 2.
371. The wind direction at Cape Town is:
a) Typical of the Cape doctor providing cloud over Table Mountain.

b) North at 25 kts
c) South-east at 25 kts
372. The visibility at Durban (station 588) is:
a) 7000 m
b) 700 m
c) 20 000 m
373. The base of the low cloud at Durban (station 588) is:
a) 1000 to 2000 ft
b) 2000 to 3000 ft
c) 3000 to 5000 ft
374. The medium clout at Bloemfontein (station 442) is:
a) Dense cirrus
b) Altostratus
c) Altocumulus castellanus

375. The present weather at Cape Town (station 816) is:
a) Continuous rain
b) Low fractostratus cloud
c) Cold and windy
376. The atmospheric sea level pressure or GPM at Port Elizabeth (station 842) is:
a) 1015.8 HPa
b) 1146 GPM
c) 1216 HPa
377. The windspeed and direction at Upington (station 424) is:
a) Easterly at 10 kts
b) Light and variable
c) North-Easterly at 15 kts
378. In the next 3 hours Durban (station 588) will experience:
a) A sharp backing of the wind and a temperature drop

b) Slight showers
c) A drop in pressure and a veering of the wind
a) Cape Town (station 816)

b) Port Elizabeth (station 842)
c) Maputo (station 341)
380. The visibility at Cape Town is:
a) 160 meters
b) 1600 meters
c) 16 000 meters
381. The base of the low cloud at Cape Town (station 816) is:
a) 300 ft
b) 800 ft
c) 1600 ft
382. The medium cloud at Beaufort West (station 728) is:
a) Altocumulus
b) Altocumulus or Nimbostratus
c) Altocumulus in chaotic layers

383. The present weather at Cape Town (station 816) is:
a) Continuous rain
b) Dust in the air
c) Severe dust storm
384. The atmospheric sea level pressure or GPM at Port Elizabeth (station 842) is:
a) 842 HPa
b) 858 HPa
c) 1016 HPa
385. The windspeed and direction at Cape Town is:
a) 360 True/25 kts

b) 180 Magnetic/25 kts
c) 180 True/25 kts
386. What is the total cloud cover at Alexander Bay (station 406):
a) Sky obscured
b) 8 Octas
c) 7 Octas
387. What weather do you expect at ship C in about 3 hours
a) Slight rain showers

b) Intermittent rain
c) Squalls
388. The visibility at Ship A is:
a) 20 km
b) 7 km
c) 15 km
389. The base of the low cloud at Ship E is:
a) 400 feet
b) 800 feet
c) 1500 feet
390. The medium cloud at Ship E is:
a) There is no medium cloud

b) Cumulus
c) Stratocumulus

391. The past weather at Ship D is:
a) Showers
b) Slight rain showers
c) Squalls
392. The atmospheric pressure at Ship C in the next three hours is likely:
a) To continue dropping after the passage of the cold front

b) To continue dropping before and after the passage of the cold front
c) To continue dropping until the passage of the cold front and then start rising
393. The windspeed and direction at Ship E is:
a) 15 kts 045T
b) 30 kts 045T
c) 30 kts 225T
394. You are flying from Cape Town to Ship B. The wind will:
a) First veer then back

b) Back twice during the flight
c) Only back when passing through the cold front
The following five questions refer to the METAR as listed below:
METAR FACT 120500Z 34032G 44 KT 5000 + RA SCT005 OVC013 14/13 Q 1008

TEMPO 2000 =
395. Which of the following statements regarding TEMPO is correct?
a) The visibility will reduce to 2000 m for less than one hour
b) The visibility will reduce to 2000 m within the next hour
c) The visibility will increase to 5000 m within the next two hours
396. The lowest cloud is:
a) Scattered stratocumulus
b) The low cloud is at 5000 ft
c) Between 3 and 4 Octas
397. The wind direction and strength is:
a) 340T, 32 kts gusting 44 kts

b) 340T at 44 kts
c) Varying between 340T and 320T at 44 kts

398. At 07h00 bravo time the visibility is:
a) 2000 m
b) 5000 m
c) Unknown
399. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) The QNH is 1008 HPa

b) The QFE is 1008 HPa
c) The temperature is 14C gusting 13C
The following five questions refer to the METAR as listed below.
METAR FACT 220500Z 01018 G 32 KT 9999 SCT020 BKN035 12/09 Q1020 NOSIG
400. The wind speed and direction is:
a) 010 True at 32 kts

b) 018 True at 32 kts
c) 010 True at 18 kts gusting 32 kts
401. NOSIG means:
a) No significant weather
b) No significant change
c) No significant dangers
402. The atmospheric pressure is:
a) 1002.0 HPa
b) 1020.0 HPa
c) 1000.2 HPa
403. The visibility:
a) Is 9999 m
b) Is greater than 10 000 m
c) Was not recorded
404. The low cloud is:
a) Scattered stratocumulus
b) 3 to 4 Octas at 200 ft
c) 3 to 4 Octas at 2000 ft

FAMM 070500Z 15008KT CAVOK 06/00 Q 1026 =
405. The wind direction is in degrees from:
a) Magnetic north
b) True north
c) Compass north
406. CAVOK indicates that:
a) There are no clouds visible

b) There are no low cloud present
c) The visibility is greater than 10 000 feet
407. Which of the following is true regarding the term CAVOK?
a) CAVOK may apply during sandstorms

b) CAVOK may apply during frost
c) CAVOK may apply during tornados
408. The time of the report is:
a) 0700 Bravo time

b) 0500 Bravo time
c) 0300 Bravo time
a) The weather will become CAVOK at 06h00Z

b) FAMM is somewhere in Namibia
c) The dewpoint temperature is 0C
METAR EGLL 020800Z 01008KT 0400N R03/0400D R21/0350N FG BKN006 SCT015

14/13 Q1020 BECMG 7000 BCFG
410. The horizontal visibility is:
a) 1020 m
b) 400 m to the North
c) 350 m to the North
411. The wind direction and speed is:
a) 210 True/35 kts

b) 030 True/40 kts
c) 010 True/8 kts

a) Temperature is between 13 and 14 Celsius

b) The airfield is presently experiencing fog
c) The atmospheric pressure is 1510.2 geopotential meters
413. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The RVR to the North is 350 m

b) The RVR is 400 m on runway 03
c) The RVR is 210 m on runway 35
414. What is the trend of the WX?
a) Vis improving to 7000 m in fog patches

b) Either precipitation, shallow fog or low drifting snow will follow
c) The sky will be clear within two hours
METAR FAOB 170600Z 01020G35KT 8000 SCT040 20/15 Q0999 BECMG FM07 3000 +
RA 18/15
415. What is the cloud height at 0630 Zulu?
a) 3000 ft
b) 1500 ft
c) 4000 ft
416. What is the QNH?
a) 1999.0 HPa
b) 1099.9 HPa
c) 999.0 HPa
417. The visibility will be 3000 m after:
a) 0700Z to 0800Z
b) 0600Z and before 0700Z
c) 0800Z
418. You can expect that the height of the cloud base, two hours after the METAR was
sent will:
a) Rise slightly
b) Drop slightly
c) Stay 400 feet

419. The weather after 0700Z will be:
a) Slight rain
b) Heavy rain
c) No rain
METAR FACT 070500Z 34032G44 KT 9000 RA BKN020 SCT050 14/08 Q1012 BECMG
9999 SCT 035
420. Present weather is:
a) Heavy rain
b) Rain
c) Light rain
421. Windspeed at FACT is:
a) 32 kts gusting 44 kts

b) 40 kts
c) 34 kts
422. The visibility at 0700 Bravo time is:
a) 9 km
b) 9.999 km
c) Greater than 10 000 meters
423. Wind direction is:
a) 340 True
b) 340 Magnetic
c) 340 Compass
a) A METAR has the same format as a TAF

b) A SPECI has the same format as a METAR
c) A METAR is a weather forecast

The following four questions refer to the METAR as listed below.
METAR FAWK 090500Z 27005 KT 0500 FG OVC 001 09/09 Q1022 BECMG FM06
26010KT 9999 SCT015
425. The visibility at 0645Z is:
a) 500 m
b) More than 10 000 m
c) 1000 m
426. What time was the METAR compiled for?
a) 0500 Bravo time

b) 0700 Bravo time
c) 0300 Bravo time
427. Cloudcover between 0500Z and 0600Z will be:
a) 1 Octa
b) 4 Octas
c) 8 Octas
428. The rapid change in weather will take place:
a) Within an hour
b) After one hour
c) Within the following two hours
The following four questions refer to the METAR as listed below:
METAR FACT 170800Z 35005KT 4000 FZRA OVC020 06/00 Q1008 BECMG FM09
0800 OVC004
429. What type of precipitation is occurring at 0800Z?
a) Light freezing rain

b) Heavy freezing rain
c) Fog
430. What happens to the visibility between 0800Z and 0930Z?
a) Decreases to 700 meters

b) Decreases to 800 meters
c) Decreases to 900 meters in Fog or Mist

431. The cloudbase at 0930Z will be:
a) 400 meters
b) 400 feet
c) 400 HPa
a) 6C
b) 2C
c) 0C
METAR FAPE 060500Z 25003KT 1500S MIFG SCT090 09/09 Q1025 NOSIG
433. MIFG means that the visibility at two meters above ground level shall be:
a) Less than 1000 m

b) 1000 m or more
c) 2000 m or more
a) The RVR on runway 18 is 1500 meters

b) The visibility at Port Elizabeth is 1500 feet
c) The visibility is 1500 meters towards the sea
435. The wind is:

c) 025 True at 3 kts
a) QNE 1025 HPa

b) QNH 1025 HPa
c) QFE 1025 HPa
437. NOSIG means:
a) No significant change is expected in the next 2 hours

b) No significant change is expected in the next 3 hours
c) No significant change is expected in the next 6 hours

METAR FADN 220500Z 26004KT 3000 FU SCT 025 17/15 Q1018
438. What is the visibility?
a) 500 meters
b) 3000 feet
c) 3 km
439. FU is used to indicate:
a) Fog
b) Smoke
c) Funnel clouds
440. The cloud cover is:
a) 4 Octas
b) 6 Octas
c) None of the above
441. The QNH is:
a) 1018 HPa
b) 1001.8 HPa
c) 851.8 HPa
442. The wind direction is given in degrees from:
a) Compass North
b) Magnetic North
c) True North
The following five questions refer to the TAF as listed below.
TAF FACT 120000Z 120312 02010KT 9999 SCT 035 TEMPO 0307 36025G35KT
PROB30 TEMPO 0810 BKN 020 T10/12Z =
443. The forecast was made at:
a) 0200Z
b) 1200Z
c) 0000Z
444. The wind will increase to 360/25 kts gusting 35 kts:
a) After 0600Z
b) Between 0300Z and 0700Z
c) If the 30 % probability comes about

445. The cloudbase at 0700Z is forecast to be:
a) 3500 ft
b) 2000 ft
c) Between 2000 and 3500 ft
446. The cloud cover at between 0800Z and 1000Z is:
a) Between 7 and 5 Octas

b) Between 4 and 7 Octas
c) Scattered stratocumulus
447. Which of the following statements are true?
a) The temperature is 11C

b) The forecast period is from 0800Z to 1000Z
c) The forecast period is from 0300Z
The following five questions refer to the TAF as listed below:
TAF FADN 270300Z 270615 21016 KT 9999 SCT 030 BKN120 FM12 14012 KT BKN 020
T26/12Z =
448. The forecast is valid:
a) From 0600Z to 1500Z

b) On the 6th of the month at 1500Z
c) At 0615Z
449. The visibility is measured from:
a) 1.5 meters above the ground

b) 15 meters above the ground
c) 50 meters above the ground
450. The cloudbase at 1430Z is forecast to be:
a) 3000 feet
b) 2000 feet
c) Between 2000 and 3000 feet
a) Greater than 10 km
b) Not measurable
c) 9.9999 km

452. Which of the following statements are true:
a) The wind will back during the forecast period

b) The temperature is 12C
c) The forecast ends at 1400 Bravo time
TAF FAGG 120000Z 120312 VRB05KT 9999 SCT 012 PROB40 TEMPO 0810 26010KT
5000 RA OVC 020 FM11 21015KT 8000 BKN040 T09/10Z =
453. The time for the forecast period is:
a) Between 12H00 and 01H00 Zulu time

b) Between 05H00 and 14H00 Bravo time
c) Between 03H00 and 11H00 Zulu time
454. A requirement for CAVOK is:
a) The visibility is not less than 10 000 m

b) Low cloud is less than 4 Octas
c) No cloud below the minimum sector altitude
455. The forecast visibility at 0900Z is:
a) Greater than 10 000 m

b) 5000 m
c) 8000 m
456. The cloudbase after 1100Z is forecast to be:
a) 2000 ft
b) 3000 ft
c) 4000 ft
457. The wind is forecast to:
a) Veer between 0800Z and 1000Z

b) Back after 1300 Bravo time
c) Fluctuate in strength between 0300Z and 1200Z

TAF FALW 020000Z 020312 27005KT 4000 VC FG BKN020 BECMG 0911 OVC 010
T12/11Z =
458. The weather at 0500 Bravo time is:
a) Fog
b) Fog in the vicinity of the aerodrome
c) Rain showers
459. When will the cloud become overcast?
a) Before 1100Z time

b) After 1500Z time
c) At 1700Z time
460. At what time was this TAF compiled?
a) 0000Z
b) 0200Z
c) 0300Z
461. The QNH will decrease to 1008 HPa:
a) No QNH given
b) Between 0600 and 0800 Zulu
c) Between 0700 and 1400 Zulu
462. The visibility at 1100Z will be:
a) 1000 meters
b) 4000 meters
c) Greater tan 10 km
TAF FAUT 040300Z 040615 03007KT 9999 BKN 035 BECMG 0709 SCT045 BECMG
1012 CAVOK T33/13Z =
463. The wind is:
a) 300 at 7 kts
b) 030 at 7 kts
c) Measured in degrees from magnetic north

464. CAVOK will apply from:
a) 0700Z
b) 0900Z
c) 1000Z
465. The forecast period terminates at:
a) 1000Z
b) 1200Z
c) 1500Z
466. CAVOK indicates:
a) No clouds
b) No low and medium clouds
c) No low clouds
467. During the forecast period the amount of cloud will:
a) Increase and the base will rise

b) Decrease and the base will rise
c) Remain the same and the base will rise
TAF FAWM 270300Z 270615 15008KT CAVOK BECMG 0810 36010KT T28/14Z =
468. The wind direction will change to 36010KT:
a) At 0800Z
b) At 0810Z
c) Between 0800 and 1000Z
a) Greater than 10 km
b) Greater than 5 km
c) Greater than 50 km
470. A TAF is a:
a) Routine weather report

b) Special message sent when requested by pilots
c) Routine weather forecast

471. The wind direction at 0700 Zulu time:
a) Will be 015 True

b) Will be 036 True
c) Will be south easterly
a) The TAF was compiled at 0615Z time

b) There will be no cloud overhead FAWM throughout the forecast period
c) The wind strength at 0900 Bravo time will be 8 kts
TAF FACT 090300Z 090615 35025G45KT 8000 SCT008 BCN030 TEMPO 0612 2000 RA
OVC008 BECMG 1415 26015G25KT =
473. The forecast period is from:
a) 0900Z
b) 0600Z
c) 0400Z
474. The visibility at 1400Z will be:
a) 2000 m
b) 8000 m
c) Greater than 10 000 m
475. The wind strength at 1200Z will be:
a) 15 kts
b) 25 kts gusting 45 kts
c) 45 kts
476. The wind direction will:
a) Veer
b) Back
c) Change temporarily
477. The cloudbase of the overcast cloud is:
a) 800 feet
b) 80 meters
c) 800 meters

The following five questions refer to the TAF as listed in the Exam Aid Page: Exam-15
478. On what synoptic chart was the TAFS based?
a) 1200Z
b) 0600Z
c) 0300Z
479. At Johannesburg International, there is a 30 % probability that:
a) The cloud base will be 2000 feet at 1200B

b) The wind will gust up to 35 kts after 0800B time
c) Thunder showers and rain will occur between 1300Z and 1500Z
480. The forecasts are valid from:
a) 0900Z
b) 0312Z
c) 0600Z
481. TEMPO means:
a) Change after time given

b) Cause the influx of cold moisture laden air
c) Temporary change for less than half the period given
482. Which statement regarding TAFs is correct?
a) Units of wind strength is always in knots (nautical miles per hour)

b) If cumulonimbus is present it will be included in the TAF
c) NSC means no significant cirro clouds
The following five questions refer to the TAF from Margate as listed on page 98:
483. The forecast:
a) Is from 0200 to 1000Z

b) Is from 0900 to 1800Z
c) Is form 1000 to 2400Z
484. The predicted weather between 1400Z and 1800Z is:
a) Freezing rain
b) Rain in the vicinity of the airfield
c) Light rain

485. The visibility at 1200 local time:
a) Is 6000 meters
b) Will be greater than 10 km
c) Is not given in this specific TAF
486. The cloudbase will:
a) Temporarily lower during the forecast period

b) Rise during the forecast period
c) Initially be lower then rise during the latter part of the forecast period
487. Forecast wind direction:
a) Is given in degrees magnetic heading

b) Is predicted to change after 17H00 local time
c) Is measured from true north
TAF FACT 010300Z 010615 VRB03KT 2000 FG OVC015 PROB40 TEMPO 0810
28015G30KT 5000 +RA OVC 020 FM11 29020KT 8000 RA OVC 025 T17/11Z =
488. The visibility at 0900B time will be:
a) 2000 m
b) 5000 m
c) 8000 m
489. The TAF is valid for the period:
a) 0100Z to 1100Z
b) 0300Z to 1400Z
c) 0600Z to 1500Z
490. TEMPO means:
a) The forecast weather will be interrupted

b) The weather as forecast will occur in the interim period
c) The weather as forecast will occur for less than half the period stated
491. The weather at 1200Z will be:
a) Fog
b) Light rain
c) Heavy rain

492. The abbreviation VRB as used in the TAF means:
a) Variable
b) Voice rotating beacon
c) VFR flight rules must be obeyed
Refer to significant weather charts valid 0600 UT 1998-01-13
493. You are flying from Cape Town to Port Elizabeth at F110. You are most likely to
experience:
a) 5 to 7 Octas cloud
b) Severe carburetor icing
c) Lightning
For the following two questions refer to significant weather charts

valid 0600 UT 1998-01-13:
494. You are flying from East Londen to Cape Town. You are likely to encounter:
a) Clear air turbulence at FL130

b) Strong westerly winds exceeding 280 kts
c) Icing above 1000 ft at times
495. The temperature at Port Elizabeth at 0800 local time:
a) 34C
b) 14C
c) 26C
For the following two questions refer to significant weather charts

valid 0600 UT 1998-01-13:
496. You have to fly VFR from Overberg to Langebaanweg. At what level will you
experience the safest flight?
a) FL060
b) FL100
c) Should not fly at all
497. At what level will the temperature increase with height above Cape Town?
a) 50 000 ft
b) 42 000 ft
c) 35 000 ft

For the following two questions refer to significant weather chart valid 0600 UT 1998-01-13
498. You are flying from Overberg to Cape Town at 1500 ft AMSL. The weather en route
is:
a) Rain
b) Showers
c) Hail
499. The visibility en route to Nelspruit (flying from Durban at 4000 ft AMSL):
a) Will progressively deteriorate to 1000 m

b) Will be poor when precipitation and fog occurs
c) Will remain 3000 m due to fog on the escarpment
For the following two questions refer to significant weather chart valid 0600 UT 1998-01-13:
500. You are flying in the South-Western Cape at FL360. You can expect:
a) Thundershowers
b) Icing
c) C.A.T.
501. En route from Maputo to Pretoria at FL075 you can expect:
a) Fog on the escarpment

b) High turbulence
c) Severe turbulence
For the following two questions refer to significant weather chart valid 0600 UT 1998-01-13:
502. You expect the lowest temperatures at:
a) Port Elizabeth
b) Durban
c) Cape Town
503. The cloud tops at Johannesburg:
a) Was not measured

b) Below FL170
c) FL090

Refer to significant weather chart valid 0600 UT 1998-01-13:
504. You are flying from Alexander Bay to Cape Town, you are most likely to experience
icing at:
a) Above FL140
b) FL100 to FL140
c) Below FL100
For the following two questions refer to the upper winds chart based on 0600 UT 1998-01-
07. You are flying from 30S 30E to 30S 20E at FL130.
505. Which of the following is true?
a) Groundspeed will be greater than Indicated Airspeed

b) You can expect to drift left of track
c) Your altimeter will underread at destination if QNH setting is not adjusted
506. The wind direction and speed at 30S 28E is:
a) 290/20 kts at FL170

b) 160/10 kts at FL100
c) 195/15 kts at FL210
For the following two questions refer to the upper winds chart based
on 0600 UT 1998-01-07.
507. What is the wind speed and direction at FL100 at 33S 22E?
a) 110/15 kts
b) 075/15 kts
c) 300/15 kts
508. You fly from 20S 30E to 20S 25E, at what altitude is carburetor icing most likely?
a) 8000 ft
b) 14 000 ft
c) 19 000 ft
For the following two questions refer to upper wind and temperature chart valid at 0600 UT
1998-01-07.
509. What is the wind direction and strength at FL100 at 22S 25E?
a) 300/15 kts
b) 030/10 kts
c) 355/10 kts

510. What is the wind strength and direction at FL90 at 25S 25E?
a) 110/10 kts
b) 020/08 kts
c) 180/30 kts
For the following two questions refer to upper winds and temperature chart valid at 0600
UT 1998-01-07.
511. The wind direction and speed at FL110 at 33S 26E is:
a) 200/35 kts
b) 185/20 kts
c) 300/15 kts
512. The temperature at 30S and 30E is:
a) -21C at FL150
b) -5C at FL170
c) -6C at FL070
Refer to upper winds and temperature charts valid at 0600 UT 1998-01-07
513. The density altitude at 25S 20E at FL170 is:
a) 18 800 feet
b) 16 000 feet
c) 14 700 feet
For the following three questions refer to Actual Upper Wind Chart 950411 12H00.
514. What is the wind direction and speed overhead Durban at FL230?
a) 190/35 kts
b) 230/65 kts
c) 220/50 kts
515. From FL170 to FL350, on which side of the country is the High situated?
a) Cannot calculate from the given chart

b) To the West of the country
c) To the East of the country
516. You are flying from Waterkloof to Windhoek at FL150. What wind can you expect
en route?
a) A head wind of 15 kts

b) A vector wind of 090/20 kts
c) A tail wind of 35 kts

For the following three questions refer to Actual Upper Wind Chart 950411 12H00.
517. What is the wind direction and speed overhead Cape Town at FL050?
a) 250/20 kts
b) 290/10 kts
c) 360/05 kts
518. You are flying form Cape Town to Durban at FL270. Without adjusting your
altimeter after take-off, will it
a) Overread at Durban
b) Underread at Durban
c) Cant calculate from given chart
519. Which level will be the most favourable to fly from Pietersburg to Bloemfontein?
a) FL100
b) FL170
c) FL080
520. Refer to Synoptic Chart 2. You fly from A to B, the altimeter will overread.
a) True
b) False
521. The trend attached to a METAR and SPECI is valid for:
a) 2 hours
b) 6 hours
c) 9 hours
522. A sudden significant change in visibility, low cloud, surface wind or weather is
provided for in one of the following:
a) SPECI
b) METAR
c) TAF
a) A TAF is an area forecast whilst a METAR and SPECI are aerodrome

forecasts
b) METARs and SPECIs are issued as routine whilst TAFs are issued on an as
required basis
c) A METAR is issued on a routine basis whilst a SPECI is issued when
significant deteriorations or improvements occur in the weather

a) Maputo (station 341)

b) Cape Town (station 816)
c) Alexander Bay (station 406)
525. The visibility at Ship G is:
a) 7000 m
b) 70 000 m
c) 20 000 m
526. The base of the low cloud at Ship G is:
a) 500 feet
b) 700 feet
c) 2500 feet
527. The medium cloud at station Ship G is:
a) Nil
b) Cumulus
c) Stratocumulus
528. The present weather at Upington (station 424) is:
a) Precipitation at the station

b) Precipitation near the station
c) Precipitation for from the station
529. The atmospheric sea level pressure or GPM at Ship G is:
a) 822.2 HPa
b) 1022.2 HPa
c) 1222.0 HPa
530. The windspeed and direction at Ship G is:

c) 260 True at 15 kts
531. You fly from ship G to ship E. At ship G you set the correct QNH, after landing at
ship E (QNH 1004 on arrival) the altimeter:
a) Will indicate 540 feet

b) Will indicate 420 feet
c) Will indicate 60 feet

a) Durban
b) Cape Town
c) Maputo
533. The visibility at Windhoek is:
a) 8 km
b) 30 km
c) 80 km
534. The base of the low cloud at Windhoek (station 110) is:
a) 2000 ft
b) 4500 ft
c) Above 9000 ft
535. The medium cloud at Windhoek (station 110) is:
a) Altocumulus
b) Altocumulus castellanus
c) Cumulus
536. The present weather at Beaufort West is:
a) Rain
b) Showers
c) No significant weather
537. The sea level pressure or GPM at Walvis Bay 68104 is:
a) 1156.0 HPa
b) 1156 GPM
c) 1015.6 HPa
538. The windspeed and direction at Grootfontein (station 012) in Namibia is:
a) South Easterly at 10 kts

b) South Westerly at 10 kts
c) North Westerly at 10 kts
539. The total cloud cover at Windhoek is:
a) 2 Octas
b) 3 Octas
c) 4 Octas

a) Maputo
b) Durban
c) Port Elizabeth
541. The visibility at Bashee (station 768) is likely to:
a) Decrease to 4000 m within the next 3 hours

b) Decrease to 7000 m within the next 3 hours
c) Decrease to 10 000 m within the next 3 hours
542. The base of the low cloud at Port Elizabeth (station 842) is likely to:
a) Drop in the next hour

b) Stay approximately at the same height for the next hour
c) Rise significantly in the next hour
543. The low cloud at Port Elizabeth (station 842) is:
a) Small cumulus
b) Strato cumulus
c) Cumulus and strato cumulus
544. The present weather at Durban (station 588) is:
a) Dry haze
b) Fog
c) No significant weather
545. The atmospheric pressure at Bashee (station 768) will:
a) Rise after the passage of the front

b) Drop after the cold front has passed
c) Rise slightly and then drop within the next three hours
546. The windspeed and direction at Bashee, after the passage of the cold front will:
a) Increase and veer

b) Decrease and back
c) Increase and become south westerly
547. The upper air at Bloemfontein is:
a) Stable and moist

b) Unstable and moist
c) Saturated at 6000 above mean sea level

The following seven questions refer to synoptic chart No 2.
548. What wind changes can be expected at Ship E in the next 3 hours?
a) The wind will back and increase in strength

b) The wind will back twice and increase in strength
c) The wind will back once due to the existence of the surface occlusion
549. The visibility at Ship E is:
a) 200 meters
b) 2000 meters
c) 2500 meters
550. The base of the low cloud at Ship E is:
a) 300 feet
b) 500 feet
c) 800 feet
551. The medium cloud at station 323 on the Mosambique coast is:
a) Altocumulus from spreading cumulus

b) Large cumulus
c) Small altocumulus
552. The present weather at ship D is:
a) Slight rain
b) Showers
c) Rain showers
553. The atmospheric pressure at Ship D two hours ago was:
a) 1001 HPa
b) 1002 HPa
c) 1005 HPa
554. What wind conditions would you expect to find at sea level at 35S 11E?
a) Light westerly wind

b) Light northerly wind
c) Light easterly wind

ANSWERS
1 A 46 B 91 C
2 B 47 A 92 B
3 C 48 B 93 C
4 A 49 B 94 C
5 C 50 A 95 A
6 B 51 A 96 B
7 B 52 C 97 A
8 A 53 B 98 A
9 A 54 B 99 C
10 C 55 A 100 B
11 C 56 B 101 B
12 B 57 B 102 C
13 B 58 A 103 A
14 A 59 B 104 C
15 A 60 C 105 A
16 B 61 C 106 B
17 C 62 B 107 A
18 B 63 A 108 A
19 C 64 A 109 A
20 A 65 C 110 A
21 C 66 C 111 C
22 B 67 C 112 B
23 A 68 B 113 A
24 C 69 A 114 B
25 B 70 C 115 A
26 B 71 A 116 A
27 B 72 A 117 B
28 B 73 C 118 C
29 C 74 A 119 C
30 B 75 A 120 C
31 B 76 B 121 C
32 A 77 C 122 A
33 A 78 C 123 C
34 B 79 A 124 A
35 B 80 A 125 A
36 A 81 A 126 B
37 C 82 A 127 B
38 C 83 B 128 A
39 C 84 C 129 C
40 B 85 C 130 C
41 B 86 B 131 C
42 B 87 C 132 B
43 B 88 B 133 B
44 B 89 B 134 B
45 B 90 B 135 A

136 B 181 C 226 B

137 B 182 B 227 C
138 C 183 A 228 C
139 B 184 C 229 C
140 C 185 B 230 B
141 B 186 C 231 A
142 C 187 B 232 A
143 B 188 A 233 A
144 A 189 C 234 B
145 A 190 A 235 A
146 C 191 A 236 B
147 B 192 C 237 C
148 C 193 C 238 C
149 B 194 C 239 B
150 C 195 B 240 C
151 C 196 C 241 D
152 C 197 C 242 A
153 C 198 A 243 A
154 B 199 C 244 B
155 C 200 A 245 A
156 B 201 A 246 A
157 B 202 B 247 C
158 B 203 B 248 B
159 B 204 B 249 A
160 C 205 B 250 D
161 A 206 A 251 C
162 A 207 A 252 B
163 A 208 B 253 B
164 B 209 A 254 A
165 B 210 A 255 A
166 A 211 A 256 C
167 B 212 C 257 C
168 A 213 A 258 C
169 B 214 A 259 A
170 B 215 B 260 B
171 A 216 C 261 A
172 C 217 B 262 D
173 C 218 B 263 A
174 C 219 B 264 D
175 C 220 B 265 B
176 A 221 C 266 B
177 B 222 B 267 C
178 C 223 A 268 B
179 C 224 C 269 A
180 B 225 B 270 C

271 C 316 A 361 A

272 A 317 C 362 C
273 C 318 B 363 B
274 D 319 A 364 B
275 B 320 B 365 A
276 C 321 B 366 A
277 A 322 A 367 A
278 A 323 C 368 C
279 A 324 C 369 A
280 B 325 B 370 B
281 B 326 A 371 B
282 B 327 C 372 C
283 B 328 A 373 B
284 C 329 A 374 C
285 C 330 C 375 A
286 A 331 A 376 A
287 C 332 C 377 C
288 B 333 A 378 B
289 B 334 A 379 C
290 C 335 B 380 B
291 C 336 A 381 B
292 A 337 B 382 B
293 A 338 C 383 A
294 C 339 A 384 C
295 A 340 B 385 A
296 A 341 C 386 A
297 A 342 A 387 A
298 C 343 B 388 A
299 A 344 C 389 C
300 B 345 C 390 A
301 A 346 C 391 A
302 B 347 B 392 C
303 A 348 A 393 C
304 B 349 B 394 B
305 C 350 C 395 A
306 B 351 B 396 C
307 B 352 A 397 A
308 B 353 A 398 B
309 B 354 B 399 A
310 A 355 B 400 C
311 A 356 B 401 B
312 A 357 B 402 B
313 C 358 B 403 B
314 B 359 A 404 C
315 A 360 C 405 B

406 B 451 A 496 C

407 B 452 A 497 B
408 A 453 B 498 A
409 C 454 A 499 B
410 B 455 B 500 C
411 C 456 C 501 A
412 B 457 B 502 C
413 B 458 B 503 C
414 A 459 A 504 B
415 C 460 A 505 B
416 C 461 A 506 A
417 A 462 B 507 C
418 B 463 B 508 A
419 B 464 C 509 A
420 C 465 C 510 B
421 A 466 B 511 C
422 A 467 B 512 B
423 A 468 C 513 A
424 B 469 A 514 C
425 B 470 C 515 B
426 B 471 C 516 B
427 C 472 C 517 B
428 B 473 B 518 A
429 A 474 B 519 C
430 B 475 B 520 A
431 B 476 B 521 A
432 C 477 A 522 A
433 B 478 B 523 C
434 C 479 C 524 A
435 B 480 A 525 C
436 B 481 C 526 C
437 A 482 B 527 A
438 C 483 B 528 C
439 B 484 C 529 B
440 A 485 B 530 C
441 A 486 A 531 A
442 C 487 C 532 C
443 C 488 A 533 B
444 B 489 C 534 C
445 A 490 C 535 B
446 A 491 B 536 C
447 C 492 A 537 C
448 A 493 A 538 A
449 A 494 C 539 B
450 B 495 A 540 A

541 A 547 B 553 B

542 B 548 B 554 A
543 C 549 B
544 A 550 C
545 A 551 A
546 C 552 A

PAGE 1 SYNOPTIC SYMBOLS

PAGE 2 PRESENT WEATHER SYNOPTIC SYMBOLS

PAGE 3 STATION MODEL 1

PAGE 4 STATION MODEL 1

PAGE 5 SYMBOLS FOR SIGNIFICANT WEATHER

PAGE 6 SIGNIFICANT PRESENT WEATHER

PAGE 7 SIGNIFICANT WEATHER LOW

PAGE 8 SIGNIFICANT WEATHER MEDIUM

PAGE 9 SIGNIFICANT WEATHER HIGH

PAGE 10

PAGE 11

PAGE 12 UPPER LEVEL WINDS

PAGE 13 AERODROME ACTUALS

PAGE 14 AERODROME FORECASTS

PAGE 15 SYNOPTIC CHART 1

PAGE 16 SYNOPTIC CHART 2

PAGE 17 SYNOPTIC WEATHER CHART 3

PAGE 18


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COMMERCIAL PILOTS LICENSE METEOROLOGY (Typical Questions)

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS - METEOROLOGY PAGE 1 of 102

1. Minute traces of the atmosphere have been found up to:

a) 800 km above the earths surface

2. The atmosphere consists of the following gasses and their percentages by

a) Nitrogen 79% Oxygen 20% and Argon 1%

3. The troposphere extends to about:

a) 52 000 ft above the polar regions

4. Large scale horizontal and vertical movement of air masses is a characteristic of

5. In the troposphere temperature decreases with an increase in altitude up to a height

6. In the lower layers of the troposphere, atmospheric pressure decreases with an

7. The stratosphere is found:

a) Between the stratopause and mesosphere

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS - METEOROLOGY PAGE 2 of 102

8. Which of the following statements regarding the stratosphere is false?

a) The stratosphere is free of clear air turbulence

9. Ozone is formed by the absorption of:

a) Intense solar radiation

10. The mesosphere extends up to a height of about:

12. I.S.A. states that at sea level the gravity is:

13. The atmosphere is divided into layers according to:

14. QNE relates to:

15. An atmospheric pressure of 1024 HPa is equal to:

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS - METEOROLOGY PAGE 3 of 102

16. An atmospheric pressure of 29.88 inches is equal to:

18. Pressure is measured with a:

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS - METEOROLOGY PAGE 4 of 102

a) Pressure altitude at airfield elevation

a) 150 feet higher

28. Air pressure is:

a) The indication of a barometer

29. An isobar is a line joining places of equal:

a) The outside air temperature is standard for that altitude

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS - METEOROLOGY PAGE 5 of 102

a) When flying from an area of low pressure to an area of high pressure.

a) 721,3 feet higher

a) 203 feet higher

35. What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

a) Chinook winds on mountain slopes

36. A temperature inversion will form only:

37. The earths weather changes are primarily due to:

a) Movement of air masses

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS - METEOROLOGY PAGE 6 of 102

a) Advection of colder air under warmer air

40. The atmosphere receives its heat:

a) Directly from the sun via short wave radiation

41. A common type of ground inversion is produced by:

a) Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft by mountainous area

43. Land warms up faster than water because:

a) There is more insulation over land than over water

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS - METEOROLOGY PAGE 7 of 102

46. The surface temperature of oceans has a diurnal range of:

49. 15C is equal to:

50. 300A is equal to:

51. 86F is equal to:

52. The temperature at 40 000 feet should be:

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS - METEOROLOGY PAGE 8 of 102

a) More than the density of dry air

a) Increase because the ambient air pressure is increasing

a) When 1013.25 HPa is set on the subscale

59. Density altitude is:

a) Used to calibrate the I.S.A. altimeter

JANUARY 2004 TYPICAL QUESTIONS - METEOROLOGY PAGE 9 of 102