PROMETRIC- NURSE SPECIALIST

DIAGNOSTIC EXAM

NAME: Score: ____/100 Percentage:____%

1. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a clients serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L. The nurse reports
the serum sodium level to the physician and the physician prescribes dietary instructions based on the sodium level.
Which food item does the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A. Nuts C. Cauliflower
B. Processed oat cereals D. Peas

2. A nurse is reading a physicians progress notes in the clients record and reads that the physician has documented
insensible fluid loss of approximately 800 mL daily. The nurse interprets that this type of fluid loss can occur through:
A.Urinary output C. The gastrointestinal tract
B.The skin D. Wound drainage

3.A nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of a client and notes the following: pH 7.45, PCO2 of 30 mm Hg, and
HCO3 of 22 mEq/L. The nurse analyzes these results as indicating which condition?
a. Metabolic alkalosis, uncompensated c. Respiratory acidosis, uncompensated
b. Metabolic acidosis, compensated d. Respiratory alkalosis, compensated

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of cancer who is immunosuppressed. The nurse would consider
implementing neutropenic precautions if the clients white blood cell count was which of the following?
A. 5800 cells/mm3 C. 11,500 cells/mm3
B. 2000 cells/mm3 D. 8400 cells/mm3

5. The nurse has obtained a unit of blood from the blood bank and has checked the blood bag prop- erly with another
nurse. Just before beginning the transfusion, the nurse assesses which priority item?
a. Skin color c. Vital signs
b. Urine output d. Latest hematocrit level

6. A client is being prepared for a thoracentesis. A nurse assists the client to which position for the
procedure?
a. Sims position with the head of the bed flat
b. Lying in bed on the affected side
c. Lying in bed on the unaffected side
d. Prone with the head turned to the side and supported by a pillow

7. A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric tube into a client. The nurse places the client in which position for
insertion?
a. Right side c. Low Fowlers
b. High Fowlers d. Supine with the head flat

8. A nurse is preparing a client for a magnetic resonance imaging (MR) examination. What is the most important action
by the nurse?
a. Have the client remain nothing per mouth (NPO) for at least 12 hours before the test.
b. Make sure the client wears dark glasses during the examination.
c. Make sure that informed consent has been obtained.
d. Make sure the client ingests contrast material 1 hour before the examination.

9. A nurse is providing instructions to a female client regarding the procedure for collecting a midstream urine sample.
Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the procedure.
a. I need to collect the urine in the cup as soon as I begin to urinate.
b. I need to douche before collecting the specimen.
c. I need to cleanse the perineum front to back.
d. I can collect the specimen tonight and drop it off at the clinic in the morning.

10 A nurse is reviewing the results of the electrolyte values of an adult client seen in the health care clinic. The nurse
would determine that the clients potassium level is normal if which of the following is noted?
a. 3 mEq/L c. 5.8 mEq/L
b. 4 mEq/L d. 6 mEq/L

11. A home care nurse is preparing to perform chest physiotherapy (CPT) for a client. Before determining the correct
position in which to place the client, the nurse must ascertain:
a. The clients capability for lung expansion
b. The lung areas involved
c. The clients procedure for performing deep breathing techniques
d. The proximity of the oxygen tank

12. The nurse assists a client who has a renal disorder collect a 24-hour urine specimen. Which does the nurse
implement to ensure proper collection of the 24-hour specimen?
a. Strain the specimen before pouring the urine into the container.
b. Save all urine, beginning with the urine voided at the start time.
c. Have the client void at the start time and discard the specimen.

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d. Once completed, refrigerate the urine collection until picked up by the laboratory

13. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of an adult female client seen in the health care clinic. The nurse
determines that the hemoglobin level is normal if which of the following results is noted on the laboratory report?
a. 8 g/dL c. 22 g/dL
b. 14 g/dL d. 32 g/dL

14. A nurse is caring for a client with liver disease. Laboratory studies are performed, and the clients serum calcium
level is 13 mg/dL. The nurse checks to see which of the following medication supply area on the clinical nursing unit
that may be needed to treat this calcium imbalance?
a. Calcium (Miacalcin) c. Calcium gluconate
b. Vitamin D d. Calcium chloride

15. A patient with pneumonia should have which of the following test performed to determine an appropriate
antibiotics?
a. Arterial blood gas c. Complete blood count
b. Chest x ray d. Sputum culture and sensitivity

16. A patient with hepatic encephalopathy will have an alteration in which of the following laboratory values?
a. Ammonia c. Lactate
b. Glucose d. Uric acid

17. A hypertonic solution enema is contraindicated for a patient who is:

a. Malnourished c. Febrile
b. Dehydrated d. Recovering from an appendectomy

18. The nurse assist the provider with a liver biopsy performed at the bedside. Which position does the nurse place the
client in after completing the biopsy?
a. Supine with the head elevated on one pillow
b. Semi-fowlers with two pillows under the legs
c. Left side-lying with a small pillow under the puncture site.
d. Right-side lying with a folded towel under the puncture site.

19. A nurse is caring for a client receiving bolus feedings via a Levin type nasogastric tube. ( NGT ). Which position
does the nurse use to administer the feeding?
a. Supine c. Trendelenburgs
b. Semi Fowlers d. Lateral recumbent

20. A 30 year old sexually active female presents with a vaginal discharge and fever. To determine whether the
patient has a sexually transmitted disease ( STD ), which of the following test should be performed?
a. Blood chemistries c. Complete blood count
b. Cervical swab d. Urinalysis

21. A patient on IV heparin should have which of the following laboratory values monitored closely to determine
whether the therapeutic range is maintained?
a. Hemoglobin c. Partial thromboplastin time ( PTT )
b. International normalized ratio d. Prothrombin time ( PT )

22. The nurse understands that a diabetic patient should have which of the following tests performed to determine the
effect of therapy?
a. Complete blood count
b. Hemoglobin A1C
c. Potassium
d. Sedimentation rate

23. A patient receiving diurectics should have which of the following laboratory values closely
monitored?
a. Calcium
b. Glucose
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium

24. A nurse assesses the height of a cane before ambulating a client. The nurse ensures that the top of the cane is
parallel to the clients;
a. waistline
b. Midline between the greater trochanter and the waist
c. Greater trochanter of the femur
d. Upper level of the thigh

25. A nurse is observing a client using a walker. The nurse determines that the client is using the walker correctly if
the client;
a. Puts weight on the hand pieces, moves the walker forward, and then walks into it
b. Puts weight on the hand pieces, slides the walker forward, and then walks into it
c. Puts all four points of the walker flat on the floor, puts weight on the hand pieces, then walks into it
d. Walks into the walker, puts weight on the hand pieces, and then puts all four points of the walker flat on the floor

26. A nurse is preparing to get a quadriplegic client out of bed into a chair. The nurse places which of the following
item on the seat of the chair as the best device for pressure relief?
a. water pad
b. plastic lined absorbent pad
c. pillow
d. air ring

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 27. The nurse prepares to transfer a client who has right sided weakness from the bed to the wheelchair. With the
client dangling on the side of the bed, where should the nurse position the wheelchair?
a. At a right angle the clients right leg
b. Directly in front of the client
c. At a right angle to the clients left leg
d. 90 degrees to the clients right leg

28. 3. A patient with cholelithiasis and obstruction of the common bile duct would most likely exhibit which of the
following manifestation?
a. Straw- colored urine
b. Yellow sclera
c. Dark brown stools
d. Bright red tongue

29. 10. A nurse is instructing a patient about gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following
instructions should the nurse stress?
a. Reduce intake of caffeine beverages
b. Eat three large meals a day
c. Drink milk as a bedtime snack
d. Take antacids directly after a meal

30. A nurse is instructing a patient who has multiple sclerosis. Which of the following instructions should the
nurse stress?
a. Avoid extremes of heat and cold
b. Eat red meat
c. Exercise vigorously daily
d. Avoid eating shellfish

31. A nurse observes a colleague performing an assessment of a child who has a head injury by using the Glasgow
coma scale. Which of the following assessments, if performed by the colleague, indicates the colleague needs
instruction regarding the use of this scale? a. Motor response
b. Deep tendon reflexes
c. Verbal ability
d. Eye opening

32. Which of the following findings would indicate to a nurse that a patient who is administered phenytoin
sodium (Dilantin) is experiencing an adverse effect of the dug?
a. Gingival hyperplasia
b. Tunnel vision
c. Paresthesias
d. Hypertension

33. An eight- year- old child is admitted to the hospital for acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse would expect the
childs history to reveal which of the following findings?
a. Otitis media
b. Gastroenteritis
c. Strep throat
d. Viral pneumonia

34. To which of the following assessments of a patient who had a recent myocardial infarction would the nurse give the
highest priority?
a. Moderate levels of anxiety
b. Bibasilar rales
c. Chest pain
d. Ventricular dysrhythmias

35. The nurse is assigned to a newly delivered woman with HIV/AIDS. The student asks the nurse about how it is
determined that a person has AIDS other than a positive HIV test. The nurse responds
a. "The complaints of at least 3 common findings."
b. "The absence of any opportunistic infection."
c. "CD4 lymphocyte count is less than 200."
d. "Developmental delays in children."

35. When auscultating the lung fields, a sound described as a rustling, like the wind in the trees, is heard. What is the
correct term for this occurrence?
a. Crackles.
b. Rhonchi.
c. Wheezes.
d. Vesicular.

36. A nurse is suctioning fluids from a client through an endotracheal tube. During the suctioning procedure, the
nurse notes on the monitor that the heart rate is decreasing. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing
intervention?
a. Continue to suction.
b. Notify the physician immediately.
c. Stop the procedure and reoxygenate the client.
d. Ensure that the suction is limited to 15 seconds.

37. An adult is admitted to the coronary care unit to rule out a myocardial infarction. The client states, I am not sure if
it is just angina, and I cannot understand the difference between angina and heart attack pain. Which response is
most appropriate for the nurse to make?

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a. Anginal pain usually stops after resting.
b. Anginal pain produces clenching of the fists over the chest while acute MI pain
does not. c. Anginal pain requires morphine for relief.
d. Anginal pain radiates to the left arm while acute MI pain does not.

38. Dowager's hump is the forward curvature of the spine resulting in a stoop, caused by collapse of the front
edges of the thoracic vertebrae commonly seen in?
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Lumbar fracture

39. An opioid analgesic is administered to a client during surgery. The nurse assigned to care for the client
ensures that which medication is readily available if respiratory depression occurs?
a. Betamethasone
b. Morphine sulfate
c. Naloxone (Narcan)
d. Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol)

40. Which of the following assessments findings should indicate to a nurse that a patient has an active case of
tuberculosis?
a. Reactive tuberculin skin test
b. Productive cough
c. Positive chest x- ray
d. Presence of night sweats

41. After surgery, Johnny develops peripheral numbness, tingling, muscle twitching and spasm. What would you
anticipate to administer?
a. A. Magnesium Sulfate
b. Potassium Iodide
c. Calcium Gluconate
d. Potassium Chloride

42. To which of the following nursing diagnoses would a nurse give priority for a patient whose blood test reveals a
white blood cell count of 3000 mm?
a. Risk for activity intolerance
b. Impaired gas exchange
c. Impaired tissue integrity
d. Risk for infection

43. A nurse should assess a postoperative patient for which of the following early manifestations o of
hypovolemic shock?
a. Hypotension
b. Restlessness
c. Oliguria
d. Dyspnea

44. A woman who is hospitalized because of abruptio placentae would be carefully monitored for which of the following
complications? a. Toxic shock syndrome
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Cerebrovascular accident
d. Disseminated intravascular coagulation

45. When taking a history from a 42-year-old woman, a nurse identifies all of these factors in the patients life.
Which one would indicate a risk factor for developing osteoporosis?
a. Obesity
b. Cigarette smoking
c. African-American ethnicity
d. Childlessness

46. Which of the following measures would a nurse advice a patient who has type 1 diabetes to use to prevent
lipodystrophy?
a. Rotating insulin administration sites
b. Limiting saturated fats in the diet
c. Performing daily passive range of motion exercises
d. Monitoring blood glucose levels accurately

47. .A nurse would explain to a patient who has emphysema that home oxygen should be maintained at a low- flow
rate for which of the following reason?
a. Low serum oxygen concentrations trigger breathing
b. High oxygen flow rates promote combustion
c. Oxygen is drying to the respiratory mucosa
d. Oxygen tolerance can develop

48. When assessing a patient who has hypothyroidism, a nurse should expect the following
manifestations?
a. Intolerance to cold
b. Increased appetite
c. Frequent stools
d. Rapid heart rate

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 49. Which of the following explanations should a nurse give to a patient regarding the primary cause of peptic
ulcer disease?
a. A spicy diet contributes to ulcer development
b. Seasonal changes are associated with ulcer disease.
c. Executive job position predispose people to ulcer formation.
d. Infection with helicobacter pylori causes ulcers.

50. A nurse has just reassessed the condition of a postoperative client who was admitted 1 hour ago to the surgical
unit. The nurse plans to monitor which of the following parameters most carefully during the next hour?
a. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr
b. Temperature of 37.6 C (99.6 F)
c. Blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg
d. Serous drainage on the surgical dressing

51. A postoperative client asks a nurse why it is so important to deep breathe and cough after surgery. When
formulating a response, the nurse incorporates the understanding that retained pulmonary secretions in a
postoperative client can lead to:
a. Pneumonia
b. Fluid imbalance
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Carbon dioxide retention

52. nurse has conducted preoperative teaching for a client scheduled for surgery in 1 week. The client has a history of
arthritis and has been taking acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin). The nurse determines that the client needs additional
teaching if the client states:
a. Aspirin can cause bleeding after surgery.
b. Aspirin can cause my ability to clot blood to be abnormal.
c. I need to continue to take the aspirin until the day of surgery.
d. I need to check with my physician about the need to stop the aspirin before the scheduled surgery.

53. A nurse receives a telephone call from the post- anesthesia care unit stating that a client is being transferred to the
surgical unit.
The nurse plans to do which of the following first on arrival of the
client?
a. Assess the patency of the airway.
b. Check tubes or drains for patency.
c. Check the dressing to assess for bleeding.
d. Assess the vital signs to compare with preoperative measurements.

54. A nurse is monitoring the status of a post- operative client. The nurse would become most concerned with which
of the following signs that could indicate an evolving complication?
a. Increasing restlessness
b. A pulse of 86 beats/min
c. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg
d. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants

55. A nurse assesses a clients surgical incision for signs of infection. Which finding by the nurse would be
interpreted as a normal finding at the surgical site?
a. Red, hard skin
b. Serous drainage
c. Purulent drainage
d. Warm, tender skin

56. Which of the following is most dangerous complication during induction of spinal
anesthesia?
a. Tachycardia
b. Hypotension
c. Hyperthermia
d. Bradypnea

57. To prevent headache after spinal anesthesia the patient should be

positioned:
a. Semi-fowlers
b. Flat on bed for 6 to 8 hours
c. Prone position
d. Modified trendelenburg

58. Which of the following nursing actions should be given highest priority when admitting the patient into the
operating room?
a. Level of consciousness
b. Vital signs
c. Patient identification and correct operative consent
d. Positioning and skin preparation

59. What is the primary reason for the gradual change of position of the patient after
surgery?
a. To prevent muscle injury
b. To prevent sudden drop of BP
c. To prevent respiratory distress
d. To promote comfort

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60.Which of the following is the earliest sign of poor respiratory function?
A.) Cyanosis
B.) Fast thready pulse
C.) Restlessness
D.) Faintness

61.Best time to provide preoperative teaching on deep breathing, coughing and turning exercises is:
A.) Before administration of preoperative medications
B.) The afternoon or evening prior to surgery
C.) Several days prior to surgery
D.) Upon admission of the client in the recovery room

62.Patient has been observed pacing along the hallway, goes to the bathroom frequently and asks questions repeatedly
during preoperative assessment. The most likely cause of the behavior is:
A.) She is anxious about the surgical procedure
B.) She is worried about separation from the family
C.) She has urinary tract infection
D.) She has an underlying emotional problem

63.Which of the following nursing actions would help the patient decrease anxiety during the preoperative period?
A.) Explaining all procedures thoroughly in chronological order
B.) Spending time listening to the patient and answering questions
C.) Encouraging sleep and limiting interruptions
D.) Reassuring the patient that the surgical staff are competent professional

64.The following ensure validity of informed written consent EXCEPT:

A.) The patient is of legal age with proper mental disposition
B.) The consent has been secured within 24 hours before the surgery
C.) If the patient is unable to write, secure the consent from a relative
D.) The consent is secured before administration of any medication that alter the level of consciousness

65.Which of the following drugs is administered to minimize respiratory secretions pre-op?

A.) Valium (Diazepam)
B.) Nubain ( Nalbuphine HCL)
C.) Phenergan (Promethazine)
D.) Atropine Sulfate

66.Which of the following is experienced by the patient who is under spinal

anesthesia?
A.) The patient is unconscious
B.) The patient is awake
C.) The patient experiences amnesia
D.) The patient experiences total loss of sensation

67. The patient who has undergone TAHBSO complains of pain. Which of the following is an initial
nursing action?
A.) Administer the PRN analgesics
B.) Instruct to do deep breathing exercises
C.) Assess the VS
D.) Change the patients position

68. How frequent should the nurse monitor the VS of the patient in the recovery room? A.) Every 15
minutes
B.) Every 30 mins
C.) Every 45 mins
D.) Every 60 mins

69. Which of the following role would be the responsibility of the scrub nurse?
A. Assess the readiness of the client prior to surgery
B. Ensure that the airway is adequate
C. Account for the number of sponges, needles, supplies, used during the surgical procedure. D. Evaluate the type of
anesthesia appropriate for the surgical client

70. As a perioperative nurse, how can you best meet the safety need of the client after administering
preoperative narcotic?
A. Put side rails up and ask the client not to get out of bed
B. Send the client to OR with the family
C. Allow client to get up to go to the comfort room
D. Obtain consent form

71. The OR nurse knows that the correct way to count sponges is
A. Scrub nurse counts singly followed by the circulating nurse
B. Scrub and circulating nurse count by packs of tens
C. Scrub nurse and circulating nurse count audibly by packs of fifties
D. Scrub nurse and circulating nurse count singly, audibly and concurrently

72. When the surgeon asked for suture to close the abdomen, sponge count has not been completed. Which of the
following is the appropriate action of the scrub nurse?
A. Requests the surgeon to recheck the abdomen for sponges, if any
B. Continues to count the sponges
C. Hands obligingly the suture for closure to the surgeon

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D. Informs the surgeon that sponge count has not been completed

Situation I. The nurse noted that baby boy Sergio excessively cried right after delivery, upon suctioning Baby Sergio
coughs and gags actively, the toe nails are noted to be bluish while the lips are somehow pinkish, upper extremities
and lower extremities are well flexed. The nurse attaches Baby Sergio to a pulse oximeter and the saturation is 97%,
RR is 40bpm, temp is 96 Fahrenheit, HR 120. Based on the above situation, answer the following

73. What is the APGAR score of Baby Sergio

a. 9
b. 8
c. 7
d. 6

74. After the first APGAR score, next APGAR should be taken
after a. One minute
b. One hour
c. 10 minutes
d. 5 minutes

Situation: II Bay boy Mario was delivered at 10:30am; he is 7.7lbs and was brought to the nursery unit. Answer the
following questions.

75. Upon full delivery, this takes the highest priority in the care of the
newborn. a. Onset of breathing
b. Prevention of heat loss
c. Proper identification of the baby
d. Take the APGAR score of the baby

76. In establishing the airway of the baby, all of these except one can be done to initiate breathing to the baby

a. Lack of oxygen
b. Increasing levels of carbon dioxide
c. Sudden changes in temperature
d. Slapping the babys butt

77. What is the main stimulus for breathing

a. Increase carbon dioxide
b. Low levels of oxygen
c. High levels of oxygen
d. Decrease carbon dioxide

78. During newborn care the doctor ordered for supplemental oxygen, you observed that the other nurse delivered
the oxygen at 56lpm with a pressure of 60%, what is your best action
a. Ignore the nurse since it is her job
b. Hold giving oxygen since high pressure can cause blindness due to opthalmia neonatorum
c. Reprimand the nurse sine this may cause loss of hypoxic drive of the newborn.
d. Intervene since this can cause retrolental fibroplasia

79. It is necessary to suction the babys oral airways right after delivery to
prevent
a. asphyxia
b. hypoxia
c. cyanosis
d. aspiration

80. After delivery of the baby, the nurse puts the baby on the chest of the mommy this is done to prevent heat
loss through
a. evaporation
b. radiation
c. conduction
d. convection

81. When exposed to cold stress newborns

tends to
a. shiver
b. burn fats
c. develops hypothermia
d. will have recurrent startle reflex

82. Drying and wrapping the baby after delivery prevents heat loss through the
principle of
a. evaporation
b. radiation
c. conduction
d. convection

83. To prevent confusion regarding the identification of a bay, it is

necessary to
a. do footprints of the baby
b. do blood DNA genotyping as ordered

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c. place identification bands
d. perform strict history taking of the identity of the parents

Situation III. Baby Mark was delivered at 39weeks is adjusting to the extrauterine life, upon initial assessment, Baby
mark has a high pitched shrill cry with some flexion of the extremities, her lower extremities are slightly bluish with
pink upper extremities, the heart tone is 115bpm. During suctioning baby mark shows some grimacing. Based on
these assessments, answer the following.

84. What is the APGAR score of Baby Mark

a. 9
b. 7
c. 6
d. 5

85. Based on the situation above, it is necessary to

a. Closely monitor Baby Mark
b. Call the doctor immediately
c. Document as normal
d. Baby Mark is adjusting well to extrauterine life

86. The nurse noted that the newborn is having periodic cessation of breathing lasting for 5-10 seconds, what is the
best action to do a. Call the doctor
b. Document as normal
c. Further investigate
d. Nothing to worry

87. The nurse knows that the newborn should be able to pass the first urine
and stool
A. within 48 hours
B. Within 24 hours
C. After 24 hours
D. After 48 hours

88. The first stool passed within 24 hours after birth is termed
A. Malaria
B. Meconium
C. Transitional stool
D. Milk stool

89. All of the following are possible ways of transmitting malaria except:
A. Sexual intercourse C. Sharing of IV needles
B. Blood transfusion D. Transplacental

90. A child is diagnosed with dengue fever. The etiologic agent for Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever
(DHF) is:
A. Chikungunya virus
B. Aedes Aegypti
C. Common household mosquito
D. Infected person

91. A client with TB who is taking anti-TB drugs who calls the nurse because of urine discoloration. According to the
client his urine turned reddish-orange. The nurse told the client that the reddish-orange discoloration of urine is the
side effect of which anti-TB drug? A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin
C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol

92. What is the most important nursing role in disaster

planning?
A. Knowing the policy for disasters in the facility.
B. Maintaining contact with community resources.
C. Making a list of the most frequent contacts in the hospital.
D. Attending meetings that discuss the potential for disasters in the community.

93. The nurse instructs student nurses that the Centers for Disease Control (CDC) recommend that isolation be based
on which of the following?
A. Method of disease transmission
B. Severity of client illness
C. Availability of personal protective equipment
D. The clients health care coverage

93. The nurse is working with a group of parents getting ready to send their children to day care for the first time. The
nurse should instruct the parents that immunizations are
A. Improved and stronger, so booster shots are no longer required.
B. safe and without risks.
C. an improved part of health promotion.
D. available in oral form if the client does not like injections.

94. Mother asks the nurse how her child became infected with rotavirus. The most appropriate response by the nurse
is, Rotavirus is primarily spread by
A. the fecal-oral route.
B. inhalation of infected droplets.

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 C. infected blood.
D. sexual contact.

95.Major health complications associated with maternal Zika virus infection?

A. Macrocephaly
B. Microcephaly
C. Rheumatic heart disease
D. Myasthenia gravis .

96. A client is admitted with active tuberculosis. Which form of isolation should the client be
placed on?
A. Contact
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Standard

97. A child with rubeola (measles) should be placed in what type of precaution?
A.Neutropenic
B.Enteric
C.Airborne
D.Protective

98. To help a mother anticipate the safety needs of her nine- year- old son who is
learning to ride a bicycle, the nurse would teach that
A. a helmet will reduce his risk of head injury.
B. the child must never ride without a friend
nearby C. a formal course of instruction is
recommended
D. the child must ride on the sidewalk.

99. As a nurse manager at the area medical center you have been asked to participate as a member of the team to
develop the communitys disaster preparedness plan. As you begin to think through the steps of a sound plan you
identify the following key phases in a disaster management program:
A. Preparedness, mitigation, response, recovery, and evaluation
B. Planning, organizing, leading, controlling
C. Assessment, analyzes planning, implementation, evaluation
D.Prevention, warning, rehabilitation, reconstruction

100. Which precaution measures would be instituted when a client has

shigella?
A. Client is placed in a private, negative airflow pressure room.
B. Client is placed in a private room or with other clients with infection caused by the same organism.
C. Use mask at all times while in the clients room.
D. Use mask when working within 3 feet of the client.

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