RAPID FIRE: USMLE STEP 1 COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW PART

I
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1. 1--Hydroxylase activity is increased in Hypocalcemia and 12. Are sexually abused Yes, by three to four times. Having
response to what two physiologic hypophosphatemia females more likely to multiple sexual partners, being
states? (hint: think of vitamin D activity) have learning overweight, and pelvic pain and/or
2. Abs to what hepatitis B Ag provide Abs to HBsAg disabilities than the inflammatory disorders are also
immunity? general population? likely to be seen in sexually abused
females.
3. According to Freud, what facet of the Superego
psyche represents the internalized 13. Are the following Negative
ideals and values of one's parents? conditions associated
with a negative or
4. After a longstanding left-to-right shunt Eisenmenger's positive nitrogen
reverses, causing cyanosis, and syndrome balance? AA
becomes a right-to-left shunt, what is it deficiency
termed?
14. Are the following Positive
5. After fertilization, what cells of the Theca cells conditions associated
corpus luteum Secrete estrogen? secrete estrogen. with a negative or
After fertilization positive nitrogen
the theca cells balance? Growth
form from the
theca interna. 15. Are the following Negative
conditions associated
6. After fertilization, what cells of the Granulose cells with a negative or
corpus luteum Secrete progesterone? secrete positive nitrogen
progesterone. balance? Infection
After fertilization
the granulose cells 16. Are the following Negative
form from conditions associated
follicular cells. with a negative or
positive nitrogen
7. All AAs have titration plateaus at what pH of 2 and 9 balance?
pH values? Kwashiorkor
8. All primary oocytes in females are They are all 17. Are the following Positive
formed by what age? formed by the fifth conditions associated
month of fetal life. with a negative or
9. Anhedonia, lack of motivation, feelings Unipolar disorder positive nitrogen
of worthlessness, decreased sex drive, (major depression) balance? Pregnancy
insomnia, and recurrent thoughts for at 18. Are the following Positive
least 2 weeks, representing a change conditions associated
from previous level of function, with a negative or
describes what disorder? positive nitrogen
10. Are antibiotics helpful in treating a No. Prions are balance? Recovery
disease caused by a prion? infectious proteins, from injury
so antibiotics are 19. Are the following Negative
useless. conditions associated
11. Are more Abs produced in a primary or More Ab is with a negative or
a secondary immune response? produced in less positive nitrogen
time in a balance? Starvation
secondary immune 20. Are the following Negative
response (shorter conditions associated
lag period). with a negative or
positive nitrogen
balance?
Uncontrolled DM
21. Are the JG cells of the Afferent arteriole 31. At what age do children begin to At 8 to 9 years of age.
nephron a part of the understand the irreversibility of Prior to this age they
afferent or efferent death? view death as a form
arteriole? of punishment.
22. Are the quadrate and Functionally they are part of the 32. At what age does a child develop At birth (reflex)
caudate lobes of the left lobe of the liver because they Endogenous smile?
liver functionally part receive their blood supply from 33. At what age does a child develop 8 weeks (response to
of the left or right the left hepatic artery. Exogenous smile? a face)
lobe? Anatomically they are considered
part of the right lobe of the liver. 34. At what age does a child develop 12 to 16 weeks (in
Preferential smile? response to mother's
23. Are white rami White rami are preganglionic face)
preganglionic or fibers, whereas grey rami are
postganglionic fibers? postganglionic fibers. 35. At what age does IQ stabilize? From age 5 onward IQ
stabilizes.
24. Aroused EEG pattern REM sleep. Remember, awake
36. At what point does the axillary When it crosses the
(fast low voltage and brain in a sleeping body.
desynchronization), artery become the brachial artery? teres major
saccadic eye 37. At what stage of B-cell Mature B cell; the
movements, ability to development can IgM or IgD be memory B cell can
dream, and sexual expressed on the cell surface? have IgG, IgA, or IgE
arousal are all on its surface.
associated with what 38. At what stage of cognitive Formal operations (> 12
general pattern of development (according to Piaget) years)
sleep? do children Have abstract
25. Arrange the following During a lumbar puncture the thinking?
layers in the correct needle passes through the 39. At what stage of cognitive Preoperational (2-6
sequence through interlaminar space in the midline development (according to Piaget) years)
which a needle must of L3-L4, with the tip of the iliac do children Lack law of
pass in a lumbar crest in the flexed position as the conservation and be egocentric?
puncture. Skin landmark. Order of puncture: 1.
40. At what stage of cognitive Concrete operations
Subarachnoid space Skin 2. Superficial fascia 3. Deep
development (according to Piaget) (6-12 years)
Interspinous ligament fascia 4. Supraspinous ligament 5.
do children See death as
Dura mater Deep Interspinous ligament 6.
irreversible?
fascia Epidural space Interlaminar space 7. Epidural
Superficial fascia space 8. Dura mater 9. Arachnoid 41. At what stage of psychosexual Phallic stage (4-6
Interlaminar space mater 10. Subarachnoid space. development (according to Freud) years)
Supraspinous ligament (They ask this in some variation do children fear castration?
Arachnoid mater every year, so know it.) 42. At what stage of sleep is GH output Stage 4
26. As what AAs do Alanine and glutamine elevated?
muscles send nitrogen 43. At what three sites can the HMP 1. Fructose-6-
to the liver? shunt enter into glycolysis? phosphate 2. Glucose-
27. As what compound do Citrate, via the citrate shuttle 6-phosphate 3.
the carbons for fatty Glyceraldehyde-3-
acid synthesis leave the phosphate
mitochondria? 44. At what vertebral level does the C4 (the upper border
28. At ovulation, in what Metaphase II common carotid artery bifurcate? of the thyroid
stage of meiosis II is the cartilage)
secondary oocyte 45. At what vertebral level does the T4 vertebral level
arrested? trachea bifurcate? posteriorly and
29. At the end of each Acetyl CoA, FADH2, and NADH anteriorly at the
round of -oxidation, sternal angle (angle of
what is released? Louis).
30. At the level of rib 6, the Musculophrenic and superior 46. At what vertebral levels does the It both begins and
internal thoracic artery epigastric arteries aortic arch begin and end? ends at T4 (sternal
divides into what two angle [of Louis]).
arteries?
47. Based on operant conditioning, Positive reinforcement 54. By asking a When a patient closes the eyes while
what type of reinforcement is patient to close standing with feet together, the visual and
described when Adding a the eyes while cerebellar components of proprioception
stimulus reinforces a behavior? standing with are removed, so you are testing the dorsal
48. Based on operant conditioning, Punishment feet together, columns. Swaying with eyes closed is a
what type of reinforcement is what two positive Romberg's sign indicating a lesion
described when Adding a pathways are in the dorsal columns. The cold water
stimulus stops a behavior? you eliminating caloric test mimics a brainstem lesion by
from inhibiting the normal reflex response.
49. Based on operant conditioning, Negative reinforcement proprioception? (COWS: Cold Opposite Warm Same)
what type of reinforcement is
described when Removing a 55. By what age 3 years old
stimulus reinforces a behavior? should children
be able to draw
50. Based on operant conditioning, Extinction the following
what type of reinforcement is figures? Circle
described when Removing a
stimulus stops a behavior? 56. By what age 4 years old
should children
51. Based on the onset of the The onset of symptoms be able to draw
symptoms, how are bacterial for Neisseria gonorrhea the following
conjunctivitis from Neisseria conjunctivitis is 2 to 5 days, figures? Cross
and Chlamydia differentiated? whereas onset of
symptoms for Chlamydia 57. By what age 7 years old
trachomatis is 5 to 10 days. should children
be able to draw
52. Blood and its vessels form Third week; they are the following
during what embryonic week? derived from the wall of figures?
the yolk sac. Diamond
53. Both submandibular and Submandibular gland 58. By what age 4.5 years old (Alphabetic order except
sublingual glands are produces mainly serous should children with a diamond last: circle, cross,
innervated by CN VII (facial) and the sublingual gland be able to draw rectangle, square, triangle)
and produce mucous and produces mainly mucous the following
serous secretions. Which one secretions. figures?
mainly produces serous Rectangle
secretions?
59. By what age 5 years old
should children
be able to draw
the following
figures?
Square
60. By what age 6 years old
should children
be able to draw
the following
figures?
Triangle
61. By which Opsonization
process do Abs
make
microorganisms
more easily
ingested via
phagocytosis?
62. Can advance Yes
directives be
oral?
63. Can a patient refuse life-saving Yes. (Remember, 74.
treatment for religious reasons? Jehovah's witnesses
refuse blood
transfusions.) 75.
64. Can a physician commit a patient? NO!! Remember, only
a judge can commit a
patient. A physician
can detain a patient 76.
(maximum is for 48
hours).
65. Can committed mentally ill Yes. The only civil
patients refuse medical treatment? liberty they lose is the
freedom to come and
go as they please. 77.
66. Can incidence, prevalence, and Case control studies
cause and effect be assessed in cannot assess
Case control studies? incidence or 78.
prevalence, but they
can determine causal
relationships.
67. Can incidence, prevalence, and Cohort studies
cause and effect be assessed in determine incidence
Cohort studies? and causality, not 79.
prevalence.
68. Can incidence, prevalence, and Cross-sectional studies
cause and effect be assessed in determine prevalence,
Cross-sectional studies? not incidence or cause
and effect.
69. Can parents withhold treatment Yes, as long the illness 80.
from their children? does not threaten limb
or life. If illness is
critical or an
emergency, treat the
child. 81.
70. Clarke's nucleus is the second Dorsal spinocerebellar
ascending sensory neuron of which tract; the accessory
spinocerebellar tract? cuneate nucleus is the
second nucleus for the
cuneocerebellar tract.
71. Clue cells are associated with Gardnerella vaginalis 82.
which organism that causes
vaginal discharge?
72. A complete opposite expression of Reaction formation
your inward feeling (e.g., arguing
all the time with someone you are 83.
attracted to when your feelings
are not known)
73. Contracting both medial rectus Convergence
muscles simultaneously makes the
images of near objects remain on
the same part of the retina. What
term describes this process?
Craniopharyngiomas are Rathke's pouch; they can
remnants of what? result in compression of the
optic chiasm.
Cri-du-chat syndrome results Chromosome 5
in a terminal deletion of the
short arm of what
chromosome?
Damage to what nerve will Long thoracic nerve. To
give you winged scapula? avoid confusing long
thoracic nerve and lateral
thoracic artery: long has an n
for nerve; lateral has an a
for artery.
Deficiencies in what enzyme -1, 6 transferase
result in insoluble glycogen
synthesis formation?
Describe the loss for each of Ipsilateral loss below the
the following in a level of the lesion
hemisection of the spinal
cord. (Brown-Sequard
syndrome) Corticospinal
tract?
Describe the loss for each of Ipsilateral loss at and below
the following in a the level of the lesion
hemisection of the spinal
cord. (Brown-Sequard
syndrome) Dorsal column
tract?
Describe the loss for each of Ipsilateral flaccid paralysis
the following in a
hemisection of the spinal
cord. (Brown-Sequard
syndrome) LMN?
Describe the loss for each of Contralateral loss below and
the following in a bilateral loss at the level of
hemisection of the spinal the lesion
cord. (Brown-Sequard
syndrome) Spinothalamic
tract?
Describe the organism based Pneumococcus
on the following information: (Streptococcus pneumoniae)
Alpha-Hemolytic
Streptococcus; lysed by bile;
sensitive to Optochin
Describe the organism based Streptococcus viridans
on the following information:
Alpha-hemolytic
Streptococcus; not lysed by
bile; not sensitive to
Optochin
84. Describe the organism
based on the following
information: Beta-
Hemolytic Streptococcus;
positive cAMP test;
hydrolyzes hippurate
85. Describe the organism
based on the following
information: Beta-
hemolytic Streptococcus
sensitive to bacitracin
86. Development of what T cell
line follows low affinity for
self-MHC class II Ags in the
thymus?
87. DNA replication occurs
during what phase of the
cell cycle?
88. Do alpha-or gamma-motor
neurons innervate
extrafusal muscle fibers?
89. Does alcoholism increase
the rate of suicide?
90. Does a saturated fatty acid
have double bonds?
91. Does being a female
physician increase or
decrease the risk of
suicide?
92. Does light or darkness
regulate the pineal gland?
93. Does REM deprivation
interfere with performance
on simple tasks?
94. Does the direct or indirect
basal ganglia pathway
result in a decreased level
of cortical excitation?
95. Does the zygote divide
mitotically or meiotically?
Streptococcus agalactiae 96.
97.
Streptococcus pyogenes
98.
CD4+T cells
99.
S phase
alpha-Motor neurons
innervate extrafusal muscle
fibers (a motor unit), whereas 100.
gamma-motor neurons
innervate intrafusal muscle
fibers.
Yes. It increases the rate of
suicide to nearly 50 times that 101.
of the general population.
No, unsaturated fatty acids
have double bonds.
Being a female physician
increases the risk of suicide 102.
nearly four times the general
population.
Light regulates the activity of
the pineal gland via the
retinal-suprachiasmatic- pineal
pathway. 103.
No, but it does interfere with
performing complex tasks and
decreases attention to detail.
(Be careful post call!)
Although both pathways are
associated with disinhibition, 104.
the indirect basal ganglia
pathway is associated with a
decreased level of cortical
excitation.
105.
The zygote divides mitotically;
only germ cells divide
meiotically.
106.
Do genomic or cDNA Genomic libraries are made
libraries contain introns, from nuclear DNA, are
exons, promoters, fragmented, and contain all
enhancers, and are they sequences found in the
fragmented? particular genome copied.
Do newborns have a Moving objects, along with
preference for still or large bright objects with
moving objects? curves and complex designs.
Do the duct or the acini Duct cells secrete HCO3-,
cells of the pancreas electrolytes, and water. The
secrete HCO3-? acini secrete the enzymes
necessary for carbohydrate,
nucleic acid, protein cleavage,
and emulsification of fats.
The DSM-IV-TR is scored Axis I
on the basis of five axes of
diagnosis. In what axis
would you place Clinical
disorders (e.g.,
schizophrenia)?
The DSM-IV-TR is scored Axis V
on the basis of five axes of
diagnosis. In what axis
would you place Global
assessment of function?
The DSM-IV-TR is scored Axis III
on the basis of five axes of
diagnosis. In what axis
would you place Medical
or physical ailments?
The DSM-IV-TR is scored Axis II
on the basis of five axes of
diagnosis. In what axis
would you place
Personality and mental
disorders?
The DSM-IV-TR is scored Axis IV
on the basis of five axes of
diagnosis. In what axis
would you place
Psychosocial and
environmental problems
(stressors)?
The duodenal-jejunal Ligament of Treitz
flexure is suspended from
the posterior abdominal
wall by what?
During a prolonged fast, Fatty acids cannot cross the
why is the brain unable to blood-brain barrier;
use fatty acids? therefore, they cannot be
used as an energy source.
During what embryonic Third week
week does the
intraembryonic coelom
form?
107. During what embryonic week do Third week 121. From what embryonic structure are the Bulbus cordis
somites begin to form? following structures derived? The aortic
108. During what stage of B-cell Immature B cells vestibule and the conus arteriosus
development is IgM first seen on the 122. From what embryonic structure are the Truncus
surface? following structures derived? The arteriosus
109. Fact without feeling (la belle Isolation of affect ascending aorta and the pulmonary trunk
indiffrence) 123. From what embryonic structure are the Primitive atrium
110. Failure to accurately recall the past Recall bias. These following structures derived? The right
leads to what form of bias? problems arise in and left atria
retrospective 124. From what embryonic structure are the Primitive
studies. following structures derived? The right ventricle
111. The fibers of nucleus gracilis and VPL nucleus sends and left ventricles
nucleus cuneatus cross at the its fibers to synapse 125. From what embryonic structure are the Sinus venosus
medullary decussation and ascend in the postcentral following structures derived? The sinus
contralateral to what thalamic relay gyrus of the parietal venarum, coronary sinus, and the oblique
nucleus? lobe. vein of the left atrium
112. Fixing impulses by acting out the Undoing 126. From what pharyngeal groove is the First
opposite of an unacceptable external auditory meatus derived? pharyngeal
behavior groove; all
113. Fracture of the fibular neck, resulting Common peroneal others
in foot drop, is an injury of what nerve degenerate.
nerve? 127. From what pharyngeal pouch is the Third M PITS
114. From what aortic arch are the Fourth MS CARD is following structure derived? Inferior for pharyngeal
following structures derived? Arch my mnemonic for parathyroid gland and thymus pouch
of the aorta and right subclavian the aortic arch derivatives
artery derivatives 128. From what pharyngeal pouch is the First M PITS for
115. From what aortic arch are the Third aortic arch MS following structure derived? Middle ear pharyngeal
following structures derived? CARD is my pouch
Common and internal carotid arteries mnemonic for the derivatives
aortic arch 129. From what pharyngeal pouch is the Second M PITS
derivatives following structure derived? Palatine for pharyngeal
116. From what aortic arch are the Fifth MS CARD is my tonsil pouch
following structures derived? mnemonic for the derivatives
Degenerates aortic arch 130. From what pharyngeal pouch is the Fourth M PITS
derivatives following structure derived? Superior for pharyngeal
117. From what aortic arch are the First MS CARD is my parathyroid gland and ultimobranchial pouch
following structures derived? mnemonic for the body of the thyroid derivatives
Maxillary artery aortic arch 131. From where is the energy for -Oxidation of
derivatives gluconeogenesis derived? fatty acids
118. From what aortic arch are the Sixth MS CARD is 132. From which two substances are Diacylglycerols
following structures derived? Right my mnemonic for phospholipids made? and
and left pulmonary arteries and the the aortic arch phosphatidic
ductus arteriosus derivatives acid
119. From what aortic arch are the Second MS CARD is 133. Gas gangrene is associated with which Clostridium
following structures derived? my mnemonic for Clostridium species? perfrigens
Stapes artery the aortic arch 134. HIV's capsid, core nucleocapsid, and gag gene
derivatives matrix proteins are products of what
120. From what do catalase, superoxide Production of structural gene?
dismutase, and glutathione oxygen free radicals
peroxidase defend the cell?
135. How can a genetic Uracil and orotic acid levels increase 144. How is sleep affected Decreased REM sleep and REM
deficiency of with ornithine transcarbamoylase in a person with alcohol rebound during withdrawal
carbamoyl deficiency and are normal in intoxication?
phosphate carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 145. How many acetyl CoAs 2 acetyl CoA per glucose,
synthetase be deficiency. per glucose enter into producing 12 ATPs per acetyl
differentiated from the TCA cycle? CoA, resulting in a total of 24
an ornithine ATPs produced from glucose (via
transcarbamoylase acetyl CoA) enter the TCA cycle
deficiency?
146. How many ATPs are 12 ATPs per acetyl CoA that enter
136. How can you Long-term memory is impaired in generated per acetyl the tricarboxylic acid (TCA) cycle
differentiate hippocampal lesions; it is spared in coenzyme A (CoA)? (Krebs cycle)
between a medial medial temporal lobe lesions.
temporal lobe and 147. How many ATPs are 2 ATPs by oxidative
a hippocampal produced from phosphorylation
lesion based on cytoplasmic NADH
memory oxidation using the
impairment? glycerol phosphate
shuttle?
137. How can you Vitamin K deficiency has normal
differentiate bleeding time and increased PT, and 148. How many ATPs are 3 ATPs by oxidative
vitamin K from vitamin C deficiency has increased produced from phosphorylation
vitamin C bleeding time and normal PT. cytoplasmic NADH
deficiency by oxidation using the
bleeding time and malate shuttle?
PT levels? 149. How many ATPs per 2 ATPs, because RBCs use only
138. How do delusions, Hallucinations are sensory impressions glucose are generated anaerobic metabolism.
illusions, and (without a stimulus); illusions are from glycolysis in
hallucinations misperceptions of real stimuli; and RBCs?
differ? delusions are false beliefs that are not 150. How many ATPs per 38 ATPs if aerobic, 2 ATPs if
shared by the culture. glucose are generated anaerobic (36 ATPs[malate
139. How does By causing rebound insomnia and in glycolysis? shuttle] + 4 ATPs[Glycolysis] - 2
ceasation of decrease in REM sleep ATPs[phosphorylate glucose] = 38
barbiturate use ATPs)
affect sleep? 151. How many ATPs per 6 ATPs (remember 2 pyruvates
140. How does L- It increases REM and total sleep time. glucose are produced per glucose are produced, and 2
tryptophan affect by pyruvate NADHs result from production of
sleep? dehydrogenase? acetyl CoA, so 6 ATPs)

141. How do the Normally corticobulbar fiber 152. How many attacks are Need 3 panic attacks over 3
corticobulbar innervation of the CNs is bilateral (the needed over how much weeks (remember, they come out
fibres of CN VII LMN receives information from both time before panic of the blue.)
differ from the rest the left and right cerebral cortex), but disorder is diagnosed?
of the CNs? with CN VII the LMN of the upper face 153. How many base pairs There are two bacterial promoter
receives bilateral input but the lower upstream is the regions upstream. The TATA box
facial LMNs receive only contralateral prokaryotic TATA box is - 10 base pairs upstream, and
input. ------------------------------------ promoter? the -35 promoter site is self-
------------------------------------------- explanatory.
- 154. How many bases There are two eukaryotic
142. How early can a hCG can be detected in the blood by upstream is the upstream promoters. The TATA
pregnancy be day 8 and in the urine by day 10. eukaryotic TATA box box is -25 base pairs upstream; the
detected by hCG promoter? CAAT box is -75 bases upstream.
assays in the 155. How many There are 10 bronchopulmonary
blood? In urine? bronchopulmonary segments on the right and 8 on
143. How far below At least 15% segments are on the the left.
ideal body weight right lung? Left lung?
are patients with
anorexia nervosa?
156. How many codons code for
AAs? How many for
termination of translation?
157. How many covalent bonds per None. Denaturation of
purine-pyrimidine base pairing dsDNA breaks hydrogen
are broken during
denaturation of dsDNA?
158. How many days after the LH
surge is ovulation?
159. How many high-energy bonds
are used to activate an AA?
160. How many high-energy bonds
does the cycle of elongation
cost?
161. How many hydrogen bonds
link A-T? C-G?
162. How many kilocalories per
gram are produced from the
degradation of fat? CHO?
Protein?
163. How many mature sperm are
produced by one type B
spermatogonium?
164. How many NADPHs are used
per addition of acetyl CoA into
a fatty acid chain?
165. How many oogonia are
present at birth?
166. How many pairs of spinal
nerves are associated with
Cervical vertebrae?
167. How many pairs of spinal
nerves are associated with
Coccygeal vertebrae?
168. How many pairs of spinal
nerves are associated with
Lumbar vertebrae?
169. How many pairs of spinal
nerves are associated with
Sacral vertebrae?
170. How many pairs of spinal
nerves are associated with
Thoracic vertebrae?
171. How many pairs of spinal
nerves exit from the spinal
cord?
61 codons code for AAs
and 3 codons (UAA, UGA,
UAG) code for the
termination of translation.
bonds, not covalent bonds.
One day after the LH
surge and 2 days after the
estrogen peak.
2 ATPs, via the amino acyl
tRNA synthase enzyme
Four high energy bonds,
two from ATP in AA
activation and two from
GTP
A-T are linked by 2
hydrogen bonds, C-G by 3
hydrogen bonds.
9 kcal/g from fat
metabolism; 4 kcal/g from
both CHO and protein
metabolism
Four
2 NADPHs per acetyl CoA
None; they are not formed
until a girl reaches puberty.
Eight pairs through seven
cervical vertebrae.
Totaling 31 pairs of spinal
nerves.
One pair with three to five
coccygeal vertebrae.
Totaling 31 pairs of spinal
nerves.
Five pairs through five
lumbar vertebrae. Totaling
31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Five pairs through five
sacral vertebrae. Totaling
31 pairs of spinal nerves.
Twelve pairs through
twelve thoracic vertebrae.
Totaling 31 pairs of spinal
nerves.
31 pairs
172. How many strains of The vaccine contains 23 capsular
Pneumococcus capsular polysaccharides.
polysaccharides are
present in the vaccine?
173. If a lesion occurs before Preoptic area of the
the onset of puberty and hypothalamus; if the lesion
arrests sexual occurs after puberty,
development, what area amenorrhea or impotence will
of the hypothalamus is be seen.
affected?
174. If a patient asks you a Absolutely not! Answer any
question and you do not question you are asked.
know the answer, do you
tell a white lie or simply
not respond?
175. If a patient cannot pay, No, you never refuse to treat a
can you refuse services? patient simply because he or she
can't pay. You are a patient
advocate.
176. If a patient with a The fast component is directed
cerebellar lesion has toward the affected side of a
nystagmus, which way is cerebellar lesion.
the fast component
directed, toward or
away from the lesion?
177. If a sample of DNA has Solved as 30% T + 30% A = 60%;
30% T, what is the therefore, C + G = 40%; then C =
percent of C? 20% and G = 20% (example of
Chargaff's rule)
178. If a virus has positive Positive sense RNA can be used
sense RNA, can it be as mRNA. Negative sense RNA
used as mRNA or is a cannot be used as mRNA; it
template needed? requires special RNA-dependent
RNA polymerases.
179. If inserting a needle to The superior border of the
perform a pleural tap or inferior intercostal rib is your
insertion of a chest tube, landmark for a pleural tap
do you use the inferior because along the inferior
or the superior border of border of each rib is the
a rib as your landmark? neurovascular bundle, and you
Why? would risk injury if you went
below the rib.
180. If no fertilization occurs, 12 days after ovulation
how many days after
ovulation does the
corpus luteum begin to
degenerate?
181. If one event precludes Addition (They are mutually
another event, their exclusive.)
probabilities are
combined by what
method?
182. If the family member of a
patient asked you to
withhold information, would
you?
183. If the occurrence of one
event had nothing to do
with the occurrence of
another event, how do you
combine their
probabilities?
184. If the pH is more acidic than
the pI, does the protein
carry a net positive or net
negative charge?
185. If the P value is less than or
equal to .05, what do you
do to the null hypothesis?
186. If you report a suspected
case of child abuse and are
wrong, are you protected
from legal liability?
187. In a diabetic patient, to Sorbitol (resulting in
what does aldose cataracts)
reductase convert glucose?
188. In an adult, where does the
spinal cord terminate and
what is it called?
189. In a negatively skewed
curve is the mean greater
than the mode?
190. In a topographical
arrangement of the
cerebellar homunculus
map, what area or lobe
Controls balance and eye
movements?
191. In a topographical
arrangement of the
cerebellar homunculus
map, what area or lobe
Controls distal
musculature?
192. In a topographical
arrangement of the
cerebellar homunculus
map, what area or lobe
Controls the axial and
proximal musculature of
the limbs?
For the USMLE Step 1 the 193.
answer is no, but if the
information would do more
harm than good, withhold.
This is very rare but it does 194.
occur.
Since they are independent
events, their probabilities 195.
would be multiplied.
When the pH is more acidic 196.
than the pI, it has a net
positive charge, and when the
pH is more basic than the pI, it
has a net negative charge.
Reject it 197.
Yes. This is done to help
prevent underreporting out of 198.
fear of lawsuit. Remember
that it is your duty to protect
the child first, not worry about 199.
legal responsibility.
200.
The conus medullaris
terminates at the level of the
second lumbar vertebra.
Yes. In a negatively skewed
distribution the mean is 201.
greater than the median is
greater than the mode.
Flocculonodular lobe (one of 202.
my favorite words in all of
medicine!)
203.
Intermediate part of the
hemispheres
204.
The vermis
205.
In a topographical arrangement Lateral part of the
of the cerebellar homunculus hemispheres
map, what area or lobe Is
involved in motor planning?
In biostatistics, what are the three 1. Large sample size 2.
criteria required to increase Large effect size 3.
power? Type I error is greater
Increased levels of what Increased GABA levels
neurotransmitter, in the decrease the likelihood
hippocampus, decrease the of learned
likelihood of learned helplessness.
helplessness?
Increased self-esteem, flight of Bipolar disorder
ideas, decreased sleep, increased (manic-depressive
libido, weight loss, and erratic disorder)
behavior are all symptoms of
what disorder?
In eukaryotes, what transcription Transcription factor IID
factor binds to the TATA box
before RNA polymerase II can
bind?
The inferior mesenteric artery The splenic vein
drains into it.
In men, at what embryonic week Week four, and they
do the primordial germ cells remain dormant there
migrate to the indifferent gonad? until puberty.
In MHC class II molecules, what Invariant chain. This is
chain blocks access to the essential because the
peptide-binding groove during CD4 T cells have
transportation within the cell, antigen receptors only
ensuring that the MHC class II- for peptides bound to
peptide complex is transported the MHC II molecule.
to the surface? (MHC restriction)
In Parkinson's disease, what area Substantia nigra
of the basal ganglia has a
decreased amount of dopamine?
In prokaryotes, what is the name Shine-Dalgarno
of the RNA sequence that sequence
ribosomes bind to so translation
can occur?
In prokaryotes, what is the term Operon
for a set of structural genes that
code for a select group of
proteins and the regulatory
elements required for the
expression of such gene?
In regard to motor development Palms-up before
during infancy, choose the motor palms-down maneuvers
response that happens first.
Palms up or down
In regard to motor development Proximal to distal
during infancy, choose the motor progression
response that happens first.
Proximal or distal progression
206. In regard to motor Ulnar to radial progression
development during infancy,
choose the motor response
that happens first. Radial
or ulnar progression
207. In regard to motor Grasp proceeds release
development during infancy,
choose the motor response
that happens first. Release
or grasp
208. In the alveoli, what cell type
is for gas exchange?
209. In the alveoli, what cell type
is part of the mononuclear
phagocytic system?
210. In the alveoli, what cell type
is responsible for
producing surfactant?
211. In the classical conditioning
model, when a behavior is
learned, what must occur to
break the probability that a
response will happen?
212. In the elderly, what happens
to total sleep time,
percentage of REM sleep,
and percentage of NREM
sleep?
213. In the mitochondria, what
complex is needed for
pyruvate carboxylase to
catalyze the reaction from
pyruvate to OAA?
214. In the window phase of a
hepatitis B infection, which
Abs do you see?
215. In what compartment of the
thigh is the profundus
femoris artery found?
216. In what cycle does glucose
go to the muscle, where it is
converted to pyruvate and
then into alanine before
being taken back to the
liver?
217. In what disease is there a
genetic absence of UDP-
glucuronate transferase,
resulting in an increase in
free unconjugated bilirubin?
218. In what form are
triglycerides sent to adipose
tissue from the liver?
222.
Type I pneumocytes
Alveolar macrophages (dust
cells)
Type II pneumocytes
224.
Stimulus generalization must
stop. (Pairing of the
unconditioned stimulus and
the conditioned stimulus
must cease.)
Total and NREM sleep
decrease considerably as we
age, but REM sleep remains
relatively constant (20%) up
to age 80, then begins to
decline.
Biotin, ATP, and CO2
HBcAb and HBeAb. You see
the antibodies c and e.
Anterior compartment (it's
the blood supply to the
posterior compartment)
Alanine cycle
Crigler-Najjar syndrome
VLDLs
219. In what form is excess folate N-5-methyl THF
stored in the body?
220. In what layer of the epidermis is Stratum spinosum
melanin transferred from
melanocytes to keratinocytes?
221. In what organelle does the TCA Mitochondria
cycle occur?
In what organ system would you Look for broken blood
attempt to localize a sign for vessels in the baby's
shaken baby syndrome"? What eyes.
do you look for?
223. In what pathway of the basal Direct pathway; a good
ganglia do lesions result in an example is Parkinson's
underactive cortex with disease.
hypokinetic, slow, or absent
spontaneous movement?
In what pathway of the basal Indirect pathway
ganglia do lesions result in (Tourette syndrome for
hyperactive cortex with example)
hyperkinetic, chorea, athetosis,
tics, and dystonia?
225. In what stage of psychosexual Latency stage (6-12
development, according to years)
Freud, do children resolve the
Oedipus complex?
226. In what stage of sleep is it During REM sleep
easiest to arouse a sleeping
individual?
227. In what stage of sleep is it During stage 3 and 4
hardest to arouse a sleeping (remember, it is called
individual? deep sleep.)
228. In what study, for ethical Crossover study
reasons, is no group left out of
intervention?
229. In what tract does pain, Spinothalamic tract
temperature, and crude touch (anterolateral system)
sensory information ascend to
the postcentral gyrus of the
parietal lobe?
230. In what trimester is the fetus The first trimester
most vulnerable to congenital
rubella syndrome?
231. In which syndrome does a Mnchhausen's
person present with syndrome (factitious
intentionally produced physical disorder)
ailments with the intent to
assume the sick role?
232. Is a membranous septal defect Membranous septal
more commonly interventricular defects are
or interatrial? interventricular; a
persistent patent ovale
results in an interatrial
septal defect.
233. Is an afferent or efferent
pupillary defect described
as B/L pupillary constriction
when light is shined in the
unaffected eye and B/L
paradoxical dilation when
light is shined in the
affected eye?
234. Is a subdural hematoma an
arterial or venous bleed?
235. Is it acceptable to lie, even
if it protects a colleague
from malpractice?
236. Is linolenic acid an omega-3 Omega-3; linoleic is omega-6
or omega-6 fatty acid?
237. Is marital satisfaction
higher for couples with or
without children?
238. Is masturbation considered
an abnormal sexual
practice?
239. Is nystagmus defined by
the fast or slow
component?
240. Is spousal abuse a
mandatory reportable
offense?
241. Is suicidal ideation a
component of normal
grief?
242. Is the carotid sinus sensitive The carotid sinus is a
to pressure or oxygen?
243. Is the coding or the
template strand of DNA
identical to mRNA
(excluding the T/U
difference)?
244. Is the hydroxyl (-OH) end
of DNA and RNA at the
3' or the 5'
end?
Afferent pupillary defect (CN
II lesion); in an efferent
pupillary defect (CN III), B/L
constrict when light is shined
in the unaffected eye and
consentual pupil constriction
occurs when light is shined in
the affected eye.
Subdural hematoma is a
rupture of the cerebral veins
where they enter the superior
sagittal sinus.
No, it is never acceptable to
lie.
Without children (but don't
think about this one for too
long)
No. It is abnormal only if it
interferes with normal sexual
or occupational function.
Nystagmus is named by the
fast component, which is the
corrective attempt made by
the cerebral cortex in
response to the initial slow
phase.
No, it is not a mandatory
reportable offense (if you can
believe it). Child and elderly
abuse are mandatory
reportable offenses.
It is rare with normal grief;
however, it is relatively
common in depression
pressure-sensitive (low)
receptor, while the carotid
body is an oxygen-sensitive
(low) receptor. (Remember
"Sinus Pressure").
The coding strand is identical
to mRNA, and the template
strand is complementary and
antiparallel.
3' end. Phosphate (PO4) is at
the 5' end.
245. Is the Lac operon activated or Inactivated; glucose
inactivated in the presence of both results in decreased
glucose and lactose? cAMP levels and
therefore blocks
protein binding
between cAMP and
CAP.
246. Is the pH of CSF acidotic, alkalotic, The pH of CSF is
or neutral? 7.33, acidotic.
247. Is the Salk polio vaccine Yes
inactivated?
248. Kaiser-Fleischer rings, abnormal Wilson's disease
copper metabolism, and (Remember
ceruloplasmin deficiency chromosome 13 and
characterize what disease, which hepatolenticular
may include symptoms of dementia degeneration)
when severe?
249. The left subclavian artery is a The left is a branch
branch of what artery? of the aortic arch,
while the right is a
branch of the
brachiocephalic
trunk.
250. Mandibular hypoplasia, down- Treacher Collins
slanted palpebral fissures, syndrome
colobomas, malformed ears, and
zygomatic hypoplasia are
commonly seen in what pharyngeal
arch 1 abnormality?
251. Match the chromosome and haploid Spermatid
number with the stage of sperm
development, spermatid,
spermatocyte (primary or
secondary), spermatogonia (type A
or B): 23/1n
252. Match the chromosome and haploid Secondary
number with the stage of sperm spermatocyte
development, spermatid,
spermatocyte (primary or
secondary), spermatogonia (type A
or B): 23/2n
253. Match the chromosome and haploid Spermatogonia (type
number with the stage of sperm A)
development, spermatid,
spermatocyte (primary or
secondary), spermatogonia (type A
or B): 46/2n (divide meiotically)
254. Match the chromosome and haploid Spermatogonia (type
number with the stage of sperm B)
development, spermatid,
spermatocyte (primary or
secondary), spermatogonia (type A
or B): 46/2n (divide mitotically)
255. Match the chromosome Primary spermatocyte
and haploid number with
the stage of sperm
development, spermatid,
spermatocyte (primary or
secondary), spermatogonia
(type A or B): 46/4n
256. Methylating uracil
produces what pyrimidine
base?
257. The most frequent number
occurring in a population is
what?
258. Most sleep time is spent in
what stage of sleep?
259. A motor lesion to the right A right CN V lesion results in
CN V results in deviation of weakened muscles of
the jaw to which side? mastication, and the jaw
deviates to the right.
260. Movement disorders are
associated with what
dopamine pathway (what
part of the brain)?
261. Myelin is produced by
which cells in the PNS? In
the CNS?
262. Name at least three
bacteria that use capsules
to prevent immediate
destruction from the host's
defense system.
263. Name the 10
retroperitoneal organs.
264. Name the aphasia based
on these characteristics:
Both Broca's and
Wernicke's areas damaged
by lesion in the presylvian
speech area; trouble
repeating statements; poor
comprehension with
telegraphic speech
Thymine
Mode
Stage 2, which accounts for
approximately 45% of total
sleep time, with REM
occupying 20%.
Nigrostriatal pathways (basal
ganglia)
In the PNS, myelin is produced
by Schwann cells, in the CNS
by oligodendrocytes.
Streptococcus pneumoniae,
Klebsiella pneumoniae,
Haemophilus influenzae,
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and
Neisseria meningitidis; also
Cryptococcus neoformans, a
fungus
1. Duodenum (all but the first
part) 2. Ascending Colon 3.
Ureters 4. Pancreas 5. Supra
renal glands (adrenals) 6.
Descending colon 7. Aorta 8.
Kidneys 9. Rectum 10. IVC D
CUPS DAKRI is the mnemonic,
everything else is covered
with peritoneum
Global aphasia
265. Name the aphasia based on these Wernicke's
characteristics: Lesion in Brodmann area aphasia
22; impaired comprehension; incoherent
rapid, fluent speech; verbal paraphrasias;
trouble repeating statements
266. Name the aphasia based on these Transcortical
characteristics: Lesion in the prefrontal aphasia
cortex; inability to speak spontaneously;
unimpaired ability to repeat
267. Name the aphasia based on these Conduction
characteristics: Lesion is in the parietal aphasia
lobe or arcuate fibers because the
connection between Broca's and Wernicke's
area is severed; word comprehension
preserved; inability to write or speak the
statement (can't tell you what you said)
268. Name the aphasia based on these Broca's
characteristics: Nonfluent speech, aphasia
telegraphic and ungrammatical; lesion in
Brodmann's area 44; unimpaired
comprehension
269. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Dominant
affected by the description of the effects, parietal lobe
symptoms, and results of the lesion. (Gerstmann's
Agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, right- syndrome)
left disorientation
270. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Limbic
affected by the description of the effects, system
symptoms, and results of the lesion.
Apathy, aggression, inability to learn new
material, and memory problems
271. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Dorsal
affected by the description of the effects, prefrontal
symptoms, and results of the lesion. cortex
Apathy, poor grooming, poor ability to
think abstractly, decreased drive, poor
attention span (Hint: if the lesion is in the
dominant hemisphere, the patient will
develop Broca's aphasia)
272. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Nondominant
affected by the description of the effects, parietal lobe
symptoms, and results of the lesion.
Denial of illness, hemineglect, construction
apraxia (can't arrange matchsticks)
273. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Occipital
affected by the description of the effects, lobe (Anton's
symptoms, and results of the lesion. syndrome if it
Denies being blind, cortical blindness is due to
bilateral
posterior
cerebral
artery
occlusions)
274. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Nondominant 285. Name the B-cell CD marker: CD21; it is a
affected by the description of the effects, temporal Receptor for EBV complement receptor
symptoms, and results of the lesion. lobe for cleaved C3
Dysphoria, irritability, musical and visual 286. Name the B-cell CD marker: CD40
abilities decreased Required for class switching
275. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Dominant signals from T cells
affected by the description of the effects, temporal 287. Name the B-cell CD marker: CD19
symptoms, and results of the lesion. lobe Used clinically to count B cells in
Euphoria, delusions, thought disorders, blood
Wernicke's aphasia, auditory hallucinations
(Hint: the lesion is in the left hemisphere) 288. Name the bony articulations of Humerus with ulna
the following sites. Be specific. (major) and radius
276. Name the area of the cerebral cortex Orbitomedial Elbow (minor)
affected by the description of the effects, frontal lobe
symptoms, and results of the lesion. 289. Name the bony articulations of Clavicle, acromion, and
Withdrawn, fearful, explosive moods, the following sites. Be specific. glenoid fossa of the
violent outbursts, and loss of inhibitions Shoulder scapula and the
humerus
277. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Pons
the function described: Important for REM 290. Name the bony articulations of Radius with scaphoid
sleep; origin of NE pathway the following sites. Be specific. and lunate and ulna
Wrist with triquetrum and
278. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Basal ganglia pisiform (Remember,
the function described: Initiation and for major articulations,
control of movements wrist/radius and
279. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Parietal lobe humerus/ulna = elbow)
the function described: Intellectual 291. Name the cluster B personality Histrionic
processing of sensory information, with the disorder: Colorful, dramatic,
left (dominant) processing verbal extroverted, seductive, and
information, the right processing visual- unable to hold long-term
spatial orientation relationships
280. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Temporal 292. Name the cluster B personality Antisocial
the function described: Language, lobe disorder: Criminal behavior;
memory, and emotion (Hint: herpesvirus lacking friends, reckless, and
infects here commonly) unable to conform to social
281. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Limbic norms
the function described: Motivation, system 293. Name the cluster B personality Narcissistic
memory, emotions, violent behaviors, disorder: Grandiose sense of
sociosexual behaviors, conditioned self-importance; demands
responses constant attention; fragile self-
282. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Occipital esteem; can be charismatic
the function described: Recall of objects, lobe 294. Name the cluster B personality Borderline
distances, and scenes; visual input disorder: In a constant state of
processed here crisis, promiscuous, unable to
283. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Cerebellum tolerate anxiety-causing
the function described: Skill-based situations, afraid of being alone,
memory, verbal recall, balance, refined and having intense but brief
voluntary movements relationships
284. Name the area of the cerebral cortex with Frontal lobe 295. Name the cluster C personality Dependent
the function described: Speech; critical for disorder: Gets others to assume
personality, concentration, initiating and responsibility, is subordinate, and
stopping tasks (do one thing and begin a is fearful of being alone and
new without completion of the first), caring for self
abstract thought, and memory and higher-
order mental functions
296. Name the cluster C personality disorder: Obsessive- 309. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
Orderly, inflexible, perfectionist; makes compulsive associated with the following thoracic and
rules, lists, order; doesn't like change, has a structures: Esophagus posterior
poor sense of humor, and needs to keep a 310. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Middle
routine associated with the following thoracic
297. Name the cluster C personality disorder: Avoidant structures: Heart and pericardium
Sensitive to criticism, shy, anxious; socially 311. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Middle
isolated but yearns to be in the crowd associated with the following thoracic
298. Name the compartment of the lower Medial structures: IVC
extremity and the nerve based on its compartment 312. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
movements. Adduct the thigh and flex the of the thigh, associated with the following thoracic
hip obturator structures: Left common carotid artery
nerve
313. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
299. Name the compartment of the lower Anterior associated with the following thoracic
extremity and the nerve based on its compartment structures: Left subclavian artery
movements. Dorsiflex the foot, extend the of the leg,
toes, and invert the foot deep 314. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
peroneal associated with the following thoracic and
nerve structures: Phrenic nerve middle

300. Name the compartment of the lower Posterior 315. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Middle
extremity and the nerve based on its compartment associated with the following thoracic
movements. Extend the hip and flex the of the thigh, structures: Pulmonary artery and veins
knee tibial nerve 316. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Posterior
301. Name the compartment of the lower Anterior associated with the following thoracic
extremity and the nerve based on its compartment structures: Splanchnic nerves
movements. Flex the hip and extend the of the thigh, 317. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
knee femoral associated with the following thoracic and
nerve structures: SVC middle
302. Name the compartment of the lower Lateral 318. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
extremity and the nerve based on its compartment associated with the following thoracic and
movements. Plantar flex the foot and of the leg, structures: Thoracic duct posterior
evert the foot superficial 319. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
peroneal associated with the following thoracic and
nerve structures: Thymus anterior
303. Name the compartment of the lower Posterior 320. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
extremity and the nerve based on its compartment associated with the following thoracic
movements. Plantar flex the foot, flex the of the leg, structures: Trachea
toes, and invert the foot tibial nerve
321. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Posterior
304. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior associated with the following thoracic
associated with the following thoracic structures: Vagus nerve
structures: Aortic arch
305. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Middle
associated with the following thoracic
structures: Ascending aorta
306. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior and
associated with the following thoracic posterior
structures: Azygos vein
307. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Superior
associated with the following thoracic
structures: Brachiocephalic vein
308. Name the compartment of the mediastinum Posterior
associated with the following thoracic
structures: Descending aorta
322. Name the components of the NAVEL: Femoral 336. Name the RNA polymerase I
femoral canal, working laterally to Nerve, Artery, Vein, eukaryotic RNA
medially. Empty space, and polymerase
Lymphatics/Lacunar based on the
ligament following:
323. Name the correct artery. The left Arch of the aorta Synthesizes 28S,
recurrent laryngeal nerve passes 18S and 5.8S
around it. rRNAs

324. Name the correct artery. The right Right 337. Name the RNA polymerase II
recurrent laryngeal nerve passes brachiocephalic eukaryotic RNA
around it. artery polymerase
based on the
325. Name the DNA virus: Circular Papovavirus following:
dsDNA; naked; icosahedral; Synthesizes
replicates in the nucleus hnRNA, mRNA,
326. Name the DNA virus Linear Poxvirus and snRNA
dsDNA; enveloped; virion- 338. Name the RNA polymerase III
associated polymerases; replicates eukaryotic RNA
in the cytoplasm : polymerase
327. Name the DNA virus: Linear Adenovirus based on the
dsDNA; naked; replicates in the following:
nucleus Synthesizes tRNA,
328. Name the DNA virus Linear Herpes virus snRNA, and the 5S
dsDNA; nuclear envelope; rRNA
icosahedral; replicates in the 339. Name the form of Myeloschisis All except occulta cause
nucleus spina bifida. An elevated-fetoprotein levels.
329. Name the DNA virus: Partially Hepadnavirus open neural tube
dsDNA circular; enveloped; virion- lying on the
associated polymerases; has RNA surface of the
intermediate; replicates in the back
nucleus 340. Name the form of Occulta All except occulta cause
330. Name the DNA virus: ssDNA; Parvovirus spina bifida. elevated-fetoprotein levels.
naked; icosahedral; replicates in the Defect in the
nucleus vertebral arch

331. Name the end product or products: Acetyl CoA and 341. Name the form of Meningomyelocele All except occulta
Fatty acid oxidation propionyl CoA (in spina bifida. cause elevated-fetoprotein levels.
odd chain fatty acids) Meninges and
spinal cord
332. Name the end product or products: Palmitate
project through a
Fatty acid synthesis
vertebral defect
333. Name the eukaryotic DNA DNA polymerase-
342. Name the form of Meningocele All except occulta cause
polymerase based on the following
spina bifida. elevated-fetoprotein levels.
information: Replicates
Meninges project
mitochondrial DNA
through a
334. Name the eukaryotic DNA DNA polymerase- vertebral defect
polymerase based on the following
343. Name the four 1. Sleep paralysis 2. Hypnagogic
information: Synthesizes the
components of hallucinations (while falling asleep) 3.
lagging strand during replication
the narcoleptic Sleep attacks with excessive daytime
335. Name the eukaryotic DNA DNA polymerase- tetrad. sleepiness 4. Cataplexy
polymerase based on the following (pathognomonic) Narcolepsy is a
information: Synthesizes the disorder of REM sleep, with REM
leading strand during replication occurring within 10 minutes of sleep.
344. Name the four ventral 1. The lesser omentum (consisting 352.
mesentery derivatives. of the hepatoduodenal and
hepatogastric ligaments) 2.
Falciform ligament 3. Coronary 353.
ligament of the liver 4. Triangular
ligament of the liver Liver is
ventral; all other ligaments are 354.
dorsal mesentery derivatives.
Name the lipoprotein based on the HDL
following characteristics. apo A-1, apo E,
apo C-II
Name the lipoprotein based on the LDL
following characteristics. apo B-100
Name the lipoprotein based on the IDL
following characteristics. apo E

345. Name the GLUT GLUT 2 355. Name the lipoprotein based on the VLDL
transporter based on following characteristics. apo E, apo B-
the following: Found in 100, apo C-II
liver and pancreatic - 356. Name the lipoprotein based on the Chylomicrons
cells following characteristics. apo E, apo C-II,
346. Name the GLUT GLUT 3 and 4 apoB-48
transporter based on 357. Name the macrophages by location: CNS Microglial
the following: Found in cells
most tissues, including 358. Name the macrophages by location: Mesangial
brain and RBCs Kidney macrophages
347. Name the GLUT GLUT 4 359. Name the macrophages by location: Liver Kupffer cells
transporter based on
the following: Found in 360. Name the macrophages by location: Alveolar
skeletal muscle and Lungs macrophages
adipose tissues 361. Name the muscle type based on these Cardiac
348. Name the laryngeal Lateral cricoarytenoid muscles descriptions: Continuous involuntary muscle
muscle described by contraction, uninuclear striated branched
the following: Adducts fibers, actin and myosin overlapping for
the vocal ligaments, banding pattern, dyadic T tubules,
closes the air intercalated discs, troponin and desmin as
passageway during a Z disc intermediate filament.
swallowing, and allows 362. Name the muscle type based on these Skeletal
phonation descriptions: Discontinuous voluntary muscles
349. Name the laryngeal Posterior cricoarytenoid muscles contraction, multinuclear striated
muscle described by unbranched fibers, actin and myosin
the following: Only overlapping for banding pattern, triadic T
muscle to abduct the tubules, troponin and desmin as Z disc
vocal cords intermediate filament.

350. Name the laryngeal Thyroarytenoid muscles 363. Name the muscle type based on these Smooth
muscle described by descriptions: Involuntary contraction, muscle
the following: Pulls the uninuclear nonstriated fibers, actin and
arytenoids cartilages myosin not forming banding pattern; lack
closer to the thyroid, of T tubules, gap junctions, and calmodulin.
relaxing the vocal 364. Name the neurotransmitter at the ACh; think
ligaments and thereby neuromuscular junctions for all of the about the
decreasing the pitch voluntary muscles in the body. ANS.
351. Name the laryngeal Cricothyroid muscles 365. Name the ocular lesion; be specific. A Right nasal
muscle described by right lateral compression of the optic hemianopsia
the following: Tenses chiasm (as in aneurysms in the internal
the vocal ligaments, carotid artery)
increasing the distance 366. Name the ocular lesion; be specific. A Left
between the cartilages, right LGB lesion (in the thalamus) homonymous
thereby increasing the hemianopsia
pitch
367. Name the ocular lesion; be specific. Left Left
Meyer's loop lesion of the optic radiations. homonymous
hemianopsia
368. Name the ocular lesion; be specific. Left Left eye 379. Name the Plasmodium species based Plasmodium
optic nerve lesion anopsia (left on the following information:No malariae
nasal and persistent liver stage or relapse;
temporal blood smear shows rosette schizonts;
hemianopsia) 72-hour fever spike pattern
369. Name the ocular lesion; be specific. Optic Bitemporal 380. Name the Plasmodium species based Plasmodium vivax
chiasm lesion heteronymous on the following information:
hemianopsia Persistent hypnozoite liver stage with
370. Name the ocular lesion; be specific. Right Left relapses; blood smear shows
calcarine cortex lesion homonymous amoeboid trophozoites; 48-hour fever
hemianopsia spike pattern; the most prevalent form
worldwide
371. Name the pattern of genetic transmission: Autosomal
both M and F are affected; M-to-M recessive 381. Name the Plasmodium species based Plasmodium ovale
transmission may be present; both parents on the following information:Persistent
must be carriers; the trait skips hypnozoite liver stage with relapses;
generations; two mutant alleles are blood smear shows amoeboid
needed for disease; and affected children trophozoites with oval, jagged
may be born of unaffected adults? infected RBCs; 48-hour fever spike
pattern
372. Name the pattern of genetic transmission X-linked
characterized thus: both M and F affected; dominant 382. Name the primary vesicle the Rhombencephalon
no M-to-M transmission; affected M passes following structures are derived from
trait to all daughters, every generation; (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
affected F passes trait to both sons and rhombencephalon). Cerebellum
daughters; a single mutant allele can 383. Name the primary vesicle the Mesencephalon
produce the disease. following structures are derived from
373. Name the pattern of genetic transmission Autosomal (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
characterized thus: both M and F are dominant rhombencephalon). Cerebral
affected; M may transmit to M; each aqueduct
generation has at least one affected 384. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon
parent; and one mutant allele may following structures are derived from
produce the disease. (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
374. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell G0 phase rhombencephalon). Cerebral
cycle: Cells cease replicating (i.e., nerve hemispheres
cell) 385. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon
375. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell G2 phase following structures are derived from
cycle: Period of cellular growth (gap 2) (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
(translation and transcription) after DNA rhombencephalon). Diencephalon
synthesis 386. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon
376. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell G1 phase (gap following structures are derived from diencephalon
cycle: Period of cellular growth 1) (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or derivative
(translation and transcription) before DNA rhombencephalon). Eye
synthesis 387. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon
377. Name the phase of the eukaryotic cell S phase following structures are derived from diencephalon
cycle: Period of DNA replication (proencephalon, mesencephalon, or derivative
(preparing for mitosis) rhombencephalon). Hypothalamus

378. Name the Plasmodium species based on
the following information: No persistent
liver stage or relapse; blood smear shows
multiple ring forms and crescent-shaped
gametes; irregular febrile pattern;
associated with cerebral malaria
Plasmodium 388. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon
falciparum following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). Lateral
ventricles
389. Name the primary vesicle the Rhombencephalon
following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). Medulla
390. Name the primary vesicle the Rhombencephalon 403. Name the RNA subtype based on the mRNA
following structures are derived from following: Only type of RNA that is
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or translated
rhombencephalon). Metencephalon 404. Name the RNA subtype based on the Ribozymes
391. Name the primary vesicle the Mesencephalon following: RNA molecules with enzymatic
following structures are derived from activity
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or 405. Name the RNA subtype based on the rRNA
rhombencephalon). Midbrain following: The most abundant form of
392. Name the primary vesicle the Rhombencephalon RNA in the cell
following structures are derived from 406. Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: Dissociation
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or Separating oneself from the experience.
rhombencephalon). Myelencephalon The facts are accepted but the form is
393. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon changed for protection.
following structures are derived from diencephalon 407. Name these anxiety defense mechanisms: Rationalization
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or derivative Use of explanations to justify
rhombencephalon). unacceptable behaviors.
Neurohypophysis
408. Name these cluster A personality Paranoid
394. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon disorders: Baseline mistrust; carries
following structures are derived from diencephalon grudges; afraid to open up; uses
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or derivative projection as defense mechanism; lacks
rhombencephalon). Pineal gland hallucinations or delusions
395. Name the primary vesicle the Rhombencephalon 409. Name these cluster A personality Schizotypal
following structures are derived from disorders: Odd, strange; has magical
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or thinking; socially isolated, paranoid, lacks
rhombencephalon). Pons close friends; has incongruous affect
396. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon 410. Name these cluster A personality Schizoid
following structures are derived from disorders: Socially withdrawn, seen as
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or eccentric but happy to be alone
rhombencephalon). Telencephalon
411. Name these immature defense Blocking
397. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon mechanisms: Inability to remember a
following structures are derived from known fact (aware of forgetting)
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or
rhombencephalon). Thalamus 412. Name these immature defense Somatization
mechanisms: Psychic feelings converted
398. Name the primary vesicle the Proencephalon to physical symptoms
following structures are derived from
(proencephalon, mesencephalon, or 413. Name these immature defense Regression
rhombencephalon). Third ventricle mechanisms: Returning to an earlier
stage of development (e.g., enuresis)
399. Name the reaction that appears in Separation anxiety
babies who are temporarily deprived 414. Name these immature defense Introjection (a
of their usual caretaker. (This reaction mechanisms: Taking others' beliefs, sports fan is a
usually begins around 6 months of thoughts, and external stimuli and making good
age, peaks around 8 months, and them part of the self. (Hint: if it's done example)
decreases at 12 months.) consciously, it is called imitation.)

400. Name the RNA subtype based on the tRNA 415. Name these mature defense mechanisms: Sublimation
following: Carries AA to the Converting an unacceptable impulse to a
ribosome for protein synthesis socially acceptable form (Hint: it is the
most mature of all defense mechanisms)
401. Name the RNA subtype based on the snRNA
following: Found only in the nucleus 416. Name these mature defense mechanisms: Humor
of eukaryotes and functions to Easing anxiety with laughter
remove introns from mRNA 417. Name these mature defense mechanisms: Suppression
402. Name the RNA subtype based on the hnRNA Forgetting on purpose (so you can
following: Found only in the nucleus actually remember it)
of eukaryotic cells and are precursors
of mRNA
418. Name these mature defense mechanisms: Altruism 435. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN VII and
Helping others without expecting any return following foramina: Internal auditory VIII
419. Name these mature defense mechanisms: Anticipation meatus
Preparing for an upcoming event 436. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN IX, X, and
420. Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: Splitting following foramina: Jugular foramen XI; sigmoid
Everything in the world is perceived as sinus
either good or bad . No middle ground; it is 437. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN II and
all extremes. following foramina: Optic canal ophthalmic
421. Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: Denial artery
Not allowing reality to penetrate because 438. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN VII
afraid of becoming aware of painful aspect following foramina: Stylomastoid
of reality. foramen
422. Name these narcissistic defense mechanisms: Projection 439. Name the T-cell CD marker: Essential for CD40 ligand
Person takes his or her own feelings, Ab isotype switching (for B cell binding)
beliefs, wishes, and so on and thinks they are 440. Name the T-cell CD marker: Expressed CD3
someone else's. (e.g., a cheating man thinks on all T cells and is needed as a signal
his wife is unfaithful) transducer for the T cell receptor
423. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG Being 441. Name the T-cell CD marker: Interacts with CD4
patterns: Alpha waves awake MHC class II molecules
424. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG Stage 3 and 442. Name the T-cell CD marker: Interacts with CD8
patterns: Delta waves 4 MHC class I molecules
425. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG Stage 1 443. Name the T-cell CD marker: Is a CD28
patterns: Disappearance of alpha waves, costimulatory molecule in T cell activation
appearance of theta waves
444. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its Ventral
426. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG REM input and output. Input from globus anterior
patterns: Sawtooth waves, random low pallidus and substantia nigra; output to nucleus
voltage pattern primary motor cortex
427. Name the stages of sleep with these EEG Stage 2 445. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its Ventral
patterns: Sleep spindles, K-complexes input and output. Input from globus lateral
428. Name the structure that enters or exits the Internal pallidus and the cerebellum; output to the nucleus
following foramina: Carotid canal carotid primary motor cortex
artery and 446. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its MGB (think
sympathetic input and output. Input from inferior EARS)
plexus colliculus; output to primary auditory
429. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN I cortex
following foramina: Cribriform plate 447. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its Ventral
430. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN XI, input and output. Input from medial posterolateral
following foramina: Foramen magnum vertebral lemniscus and the spinocerebellar tracts; nucleus
arteries output to the primary somatosensory
431. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN V3 and cortex
following foramina: Foramen ovale the lesser 448. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its Medial
petrosal input and output. Input from the nuclear group
nerve amygdala, prefrontal cortex, and temporal (limbic
432. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN V2 lobe; output to the prefrontal lobe and the system)
following foramina: Foramen rotundum cingulated gyrus

433. Name the structure that enters or exits the Middle 449. Name the thalamic nucleus based on its Anterior
following foramina: Foramen spinosum meningeal input and output. Input from the nuclear group
artery mammillary bodies via the (Papez circuit
mammillothalamic tract and the cingulated of the limbic
434. Name the structure that enters or exits the CN XII gyrus; output to the cingulated gyrus via system)
following foramina: Hypoglossal canal the anterior limb of the internal capsule
450. Name the thalamic nucleus LGB (think EYES) 462. Name the type of mutation: New Silent
based on its input and codon specifies for the same AA
output. Input from the 463. Name the type of mutation: The Frameshift
optic tract; output projects deletion or addition of a base
to the primary visual
cortex of the occipital 464. Name the type of mutation: Unequal Large segment
lobe crossover in meiosis with loss of deletions
protein function
451. Name the thalamic nucleus Ventral posteromedial nucleus
based on its input and 465. Name three products of HIV's pol Protease,
output. Input from the gene. integrase, and
trigeminal pathways; reverse
output to primary transcriptase
somatosensory cortex of 466. Name three purine bases that are not Xanthine,
the parietal lobe found in nucleic acids. hypoxanthine,
452. Name the three hormones Melatonin, serotonin, and CCK theophylline,
produced by pinealocytes. theobromine,
caffeine, and uric
453. Name the three ketone Acetoacetate, acetone, and - acid are all
bodies. hydroxybutyrate purines.
454. Name the three Celiac, aorticorenal, and 467. Objective tests that base the result of Criterion-
postganglionic superior mesenteric ganglias. the examination on a preset standard referenced tests.
sympathetic ganglia that (Remember all " Splanchnics" use what form of reference? You need a
receive input from are Sympathetic except for certain number
thoracic splanchnics. the Pelvic splanchnics, which correct to pass
are Preganglionic (e.g., the USMLE).
Parasympathetic fibers.)
468. On what layer of the epidermis does all Malpighian layer
455. Name the two purine Adenine and guanine mitosis occur? (made up of the
bases found in both DNA stratum basale
and RNA. and stratum
456. Name the type of graft Isograft spinosum)
described by these 469. Ophthalmic artery is a branch of what Internal carotid
transplants: Between artery? artery
genetically identical
individuals 470. The ophthalmic artery is a branch of Internal carotid
what vessel? artery
457. Name the type of graft Allograft
described by these 471. Outburst to cover up true feelings Acting out
transplants: From one (emotion is covered, not redirected).
person to the next (the 472. A patient goes to the ER with Staphylococcus
same species) abdominal cramps, vomiting, diarrhea, aureus
458. Name the type of graft Autograft and sweating less than 24 hours after
described by these eating potato salad at a picnic; what is
transplants: From one the most likely responsible organism?
site to another on the 473. Per Freud, with what part of the Id
same person unconscious are sex and aggression
459. Name the type of graft Xenograft (instincts) associated?
described by these 474. Preeclampsia in the first trimester, hCG Hydatidiform
transplants: From one levels above 100, 00 mIU/mL, and an mole
species to another enlarged bleeding uterus are clinical
460. Name the type of Missense signs of what?
mutation: New codon 475. The probability that a person with a Negative
specifies a different AA negative test result is truly disease predictive value
461. Name the type of Nonsense free refers to what value?
mutation: New codon 476. The probability that a person with a Positive
specifies for a stop codon positive test result is truly positive predictive value
refers to what value?
477. Projectile nonbilious vomiting
and a small knot at the right
costal margin (olive sign) are
hallmarks of what embryonic
disorder?
478. The proportion of truly
diseased persons in the
screened population who are
identified as diseased refers
to?
479. Regarding neuroleptics, what
is the relationship between
potency and anticholinergic
side effects?
480. Regarding the Lac operon, for
what do the following genes
code? A gene
481. Regarding the Lac operon, for
what do the following genes
code? I gene
482. Regarding the Lac operon, for
what do the following genes
code? Y gene
483. Regarding the Lac operon, for
what do the following genes
code? Z gene
484. Regarding the viral growth
curve, is the external virus
present before or after the
latent period?
485. Regarding the viral growth
curve, is the internal virus
present before or after the
eclipse period?
486. Replacing normal affect with
"brain power"
487. The separation of 46
homologous chromosomes
without splitting of the
centromeres occurs during
what phase of meiosis?
488. Setting up to be let down (it is
unconscious; if conscious,
you're just rude)
489. Should information flow from
the patient to the family or
vice versa?
Hypertrophic pyloric
stenosis due to
hypertrophy of the
muscularis externa,
resulting in a narrowed
pyloric outlet
Sensitivity (it deals with
the sick)
Inversely proportional:
the higher the potency,
the lower the
anticholinergic side
effects.
Thiogalactoside
transacetylase
Lac repressor protein
Galactoside permease
494.
-Galactosidase
495.
After the latent period
After the eclipse period
Intellectualization
Meiosis I; disjunction with
centromere splitting
occurs during meiosis II.
Passive-aggressive
Your duty is to tell the
patient, not the family. The
patient decides who gets
to know and who doesn't,
not you.
490. Should you refer a Actually, yes. You should
patient to a form of encourage your patient to try
folk medicine even if other forms of medicine as long
you don't believe in it? as they are not contraindicated
with the patient's preexisting
illness. You must be able to
accept the health beliefs of your
patients, even if you don't agree.
491. Shuffling gait, Parkinson's disease
cogwheel rigidity,
masklike facies, pill-
rolling tremor, and
bradykinesia describe
what form of
dementia?
492. A single mRNA strand Polysome. Ribosomes read from
translated by a the 5' to the 3' end of the mRNA.
ribosome is termed
what?
493. A suspected Arthroconidia with hyphae
dermatophyte
infection is stained with
KOH. What spore type
do you expect to see?
To what does aldose Galactitol
reductase convert
galactose?
To what does failure to School phobia
resolve separation
anxiety lead?
496. To what host cell ACh receptor
receptor does the
rabies virus attach?
497. To what viral family Picornaviridae
does the polio virus
belong?
498. A tropical fish Mycobacterium marinum
enthusiast has
granulomatous lesions
and cellulitis; what is
the most likely
offending organism?
499. True or false? False. These beliefs are
According to social characteristic of people with an
learning theory, people external locus of control.
who believe that luck,
chance, or the actions
of others control their
fate have an internal
locus of control.
500. True or false? Adipose True. Adipose depends on
tissue lacks glycerol glucose uptake for
kinase. dihydroxyacetone phosphate
(DHAP) production for
triglyceride synthesis.
501. True or false? Ag-Ab binding
is irreversible
502. True or false? All negative
sense RNA viruses are
enveloped.
503. True or false? All of the
following are inactivated
vaccines available in the
United States: influenza,
Vibrio cholera, hepatitis A,
rabies, and adenovirus.
504. True or false? All of the
following are live attenuated
vaccines available in the
United States: measles,
mumps, varicella zoster, and
Francisella tularensis.
505. True or false? All Proteus
species are urease positive.
506. True or false? All spore
formers are gram positive.
507. True or false? All
streptococci are catalase-
negative
508. True or false? A patient can
refuse a feeding tube.
509. True or false? A patient has
to prove his or her
competency.
510. True or false? A positive PPD False. The PPD tests
skin test indicates the patient exposure to TB.
has active pulmonary disease.
511. True or false? B-cell Ag
receptors can be secreted.
512. True or false? Being college
educated increases a man's
risk of having premature
ejaculation.
513. True or false? Being single
increases your risk of suicide.
False. It is reversible
because the Ags and Abs
are not linked covalently.
True. They all have helical
nucleocapsids and virion-
associated polymerases
too.
False. Adenovirus vaccine
is a live pathogenic virus in
an enteric coated capsule.
All of the others are
inactivated vaccines.
True. So are rubeola,
smallpox, yellow fever, and
the Sabin polio vaccine.
TRUE
TRUE
TRUE
True. It is considered
medical treatment, so it can
be withdrawn or refused.
(Remember the Cruzan
case.)
False. You need clear
evidence the patient is not
competent; if you are
unsure, assume the patient
is competent.
True. B cell antigen
receptors are Abs.
True; also, stressful
marriage, early sexual
experiences in the back of
a car, and sex with a
prostitute all increase the
risk of premature
ejaculation.
False. Separation, divorce,
being widowed, and
unemployment increase
your risk, but being single
does not.
514. True or false? TRUE
Below the arcuate
line, all the
aponeurotic fibers
run anterior to the
rectus abdominis.
515. True or false? both True. on the right lung the oblique
the left and right fissure divides the middle from the
lungs have an inferior lobe and the horizontal fissure
oblique fissure? further divides the middle from the
upper lobe. On the left the oblique
divides the superior from the inferior
lobe.
516. True or false? True. They absorb nutrients from the
Cestodes have no host's GI tract.
GI tract.
517. True or false? CSF False. CSF is a clear isotonic solution
is a clear, with lower concentrations of K+ and
hypertonic solution HCO3-. It does have higher
with higher concentrations of Cl- and Mg2+.
concentrations of
K + and HCO3-,
than the serum.
518. True or false? True. Hyperpolarization inhibits the
Depolarization of postsynaptic membrane.
the postsynaptic
membrane excites
the neuron.
519. True or false? False. Direct tests detect Ags; indirect
Direct fluorescent tests detect Abs.
Ab test is used to
detect Abs in a
patient?
520. True or false? DNA True. DNA polymerases have 3'-5'
polymerases can exonuclease activity for proofreading.
correct mistakes,
whereas RNA
polymerases lack
this ability.
521. True or false? For True. Remember, it degenerates 4 to 5
implantation to days post fertilization, and
occur the zona implantation occurs 7 days post
pellucida must fertilization!
degenerate.
522. True or false? True; 80% have visited a doctor in the
Four-fifths of those previous 6 months. And 50% within the
who attempt last month!
suicide first give a
warning.
523. True or false? False. Water readily diffuses across
Glucose readily the blood-brain barrier, but glucose
diffuses across the requires carrier-mediated transport.
blood-brain
barrier.
524. True or false? False. Meningococcus is encapsulated; 534. True or false? More Ag False. Fewer Ags are needed to
Gonococcus is Gonococcus is not. is needed to produce a trigger a secondary response.
encapsulated. secondary immune
525. True or false? True. High-frequency sound waves response than a first
High-frequency stimulate the hair cells at the base of immune response.
sound waves the cochlea, whereas low-frequency 535. True or false? Neurons True. They are the sensory
stimulate hair cells sound waves stimulate hair cells at the in the dorsal horn component of a spinal reflex.
at the base of the apex of the cochlea. participate in reflexes.
cochlea. 536. True or false? Only Sad but true. Some women can
526. True or false? False. Histidine operon is activated men have refractory have multiple successive orgasms.
Histidine activates when there are low intracellular levels sexual periods.
the histidine of histidine. 537. True or false? Panic True. Yohimbine, sodium lactate,
operon. attacks can be induced and epinephrine can also induce
527. True or false? In a True. In positively skewed distributions by hyperventilation or panic attacks; they are considered
positively skewed the mode is less than the median is less carbon dioxide. panicogens.
curve the mean is than the mean.(Remember to name a 538. True or false? Paranoid True. Being female, having positive
greater than the skewed distribution: the tail points in and catatonic symptoms, quick onset, and family
mode. the direction of its name. positive skew schizophrenia are history of mood disorders are all
tails point to the positive end of a good prognostic good prognostic predictors of
scale.) predictors. schizophrenia.
528. True or false? In True. The elimination of the 539. True or false? Patients True. Common variable
females, meiosis II unfertilized egg is menses. with common variable hypogammaglobinemia first
is incomplete hypogammaglobinemia appears by the time patients
unless fertilization have B cells in the reach their 20s and is associated
takes place. peripheral blood. with a gradual decrease in Ig
529. True or false? False. Interferons are produced by levels over time.
Interferons are virally infected cells to inhibit viral 540. True or false? FALSE
eukaryotic replication via RNA endonucleases. Pregnancy ensures
proteins that They do not act directly on the virus, emancipation.
inhibit viral nor are they virus specific.
replication by 541. True or false? Prolactin True. PIF is dopamine in the
being virus levels can serve as a tuberoinfundibular system.
specific. rough indicator of
overall dopamine
530. True or false? True. Muscle spindles are modified activity.
Intrafusal fibers skeletal muscle fibers. They are the
form muscle sensory component of the stretch 542. True or false? RBCs True. Remember, RBCs do not
spindles. reflexes. anaerobically use contain mitochondria, so they
glucose in both the cannot metabolize aerobically.
531. True or false? False. Females are more likely to well-fed and fasting
Males are more develop femoral hernias then males states.
likely to develop (remember Female's Femoral).
femoral hernias 543. True or false? RBCs do True. Remember, all nucleated
than females. not have MHC class I cells (and platelets) have MHC
Ags on their surface. class I Ags, and RBCs are not
532. True or false? True; military service and independent nucleated.
Marriage self-care by a child over 13 years old
emancipates a also emancipate. 544. True or false? Serious False. Childbirth carries five times
child less than 17 psychiatric illness is as much risk of serious psychiatric
years old. more common after illness as abortion.
abortion than
533. True or false? True. Restriction endonucleases cut childbirth.
Methylation of only unmethylated DNA.
bacterial DNA 545. True or false? False. Staphylococci have
prevents Streptococci have catalase; streptococci do not.
restriction catalase.
endonuclease from
cutting its own
chromosomes.
546. True or false? T cells can
recognize, bind, and
internalize unprocessed Ags.
547. True or false? The central
vein of the liver lobule is the
first area affected during
hypoxia.
548. True or false? The epithelial
lining of the urinary bladder
and the urethra are
embryologic hindgut
derivatives.
549. True or false? The first
cervical vertebra has no
vertebral body.
550. True or false? The following
are functions of hepatocytes:
protein production, bile
secretion, detoxification,
conjugation, and lipid
storage.
551. True or false? The foramen
ovale closes just prior to
birth.
552. True or false? The
gallbladder functions to
produce bile.
553. True or false? The increased
oxygen consumption after
phagocytosis is for ATP
production.
554. True or false? The nucleus is
the site of transcription.
555. True or false? The portal
tract of the liver lobule is the
first area to be oxygenated in
the liver.
556. True or false? The presence
of PMNs in the CSF is always
abnormal.
568. Ventral rami of what cervical nerves
constitute the phrenic nerve?
False. B cells recognize
unprocessed Ags, but T
cells can recognize only
processed Ags.
True. Blood flows from the
portal tracts (distal) to the
central vein (proximal), so it
is the first area affected
during hypoxia.
TRUE
True. The odontoid process
of C2 acts as the vertebral
body of C1 allowing lateral
rotation of the head.
True. (They are quite a busy
bunch of cells!)
False. It closes just after
birth because the change in
pulmonary circulation
causes increased left atrial
pressure.
False. The gallbladder does
not produce bile, but it
concentrates bile via active
sodium transport; water
follows the sodium.
False; it is for the
production of toxic
metabolites.
True. Transcription
(conversion of DNA to
RNA), as well as replication,
occurs in the nucleus.
True. (Remember, blood
flows from the portal tracts
to the central vein, so it is
the first area to receive
blood and therefore
oxygen.)
True. Although the CSF
normally contains 0 to 4
lymphocytes or monocytes,
the presence of PMNs is
always considered
abnormal.
C3, C4, and C5
keep the
diaphragm alive!
557. True or false? There True. They lyse the host cell
are no persistent
infections with
naked viruses?
558. True or false? There True. IQ correlates well with
is a strong positive education and academic
correlation between achievement but is not a predictor of
IQ and academic success.
achievement.
559. True or false? There True. The energy status of the cell
is no hormonal dictates if the cycle is running or
control to the TCA relaxing.
cycle.
560. True or false? The True. The laryngotracheal
respiratory system is (respiratory) diverticulum is divided
derived from the from the foregut by the
ventral wall of the tracheoesophageal septum. ---------
foregut. ----------------------------------------
-------------------------------
561. True or false? The True. The thyroid gland, the lungs,
thyroid gland is an and the pharyngeal pouches are
embryologic foregut foregut derivatives that are not a
derivative. component of the gastrointestinal
system.
562. True or false? The True. Remember, carbamoyl
urea cycle takes phosphate synthetase and ornithine
place in both the transcarbamoylase are mitochondrial
cytoplasm and the enzymes.
mitochondria.
563. True or false? Vibrio True. Staphylococcus aureus and
parahaemolyticus group D enterococci also grow in
require NaCl in its high-salt media.
growth medium.
564. Unconsciously Repression
forgetting(forgetting
that you forgot
something!)
565. A unilateral lesion in Nucleus ambiguus, resulting in the
what nucleus will uvula deviating away from the side
produce ipsilateral of the lesion.
paralysis of the soft
palate?
566. A urethral swab of a Neisseria gonorrhoeae
patient shows gram-
negative diplococci
in PMNs; what
organism do you
diagnose?
567. Use of an outlet for Displacement
emotions (stuff flows
downhill).
569. The vertebral artery is a branch of what The subclavian 587. What abdominal muscle runs in a Internal abdominal
artery? artery posteroinferior direction, splits to oblique
570. Via what cell surface receptor does HDL Scavenger contribute to the rectus sheath,
cholesterol from the periphery enter receptor (SR-B1) contributes to the formation of the
hepatoceles? conjoint tendon, and in men gives rise
to the middle spermatic fascia and the
571. Via what pathway is glycolysis increased HMP shunt cremasteric muscle of the spermatic
after phagocytosis? cord?
572. What 11-amino acid peptide is the Substance P. 588. What Ab is an indication of low HBeAb
neurotransmitter of sensory neurons (Opioids relieve transmissibility for hepatitis?
that conveys pain from the periphery to pain in part by
the spinal cord? blocking 589. What Ab is an indication of recurrent HBc Ab
substance P.) disease for hepatitis?

573. What AA has a pKa of 13? Arginine 590. What AD dementia has a defect in Huntington's
chromosome 4, onset between the chorea. (Death in
574. What AA is a phenol? Tyrosine ages of 30 and 40, choreoathetosis, 15-20 years, often
575. What AA is a precursor of the following Glycine/arginine and progressive deterioration to an via suicide.)
substances? Creatine infantile state?
576. What AA is a precursor of the following Glutamate 591. What adult structures are derived Muscles of the
substances? GABA from preotic somites? internal eye
577. What AA is a precursor of the following Histidine 592. What aerobic branching rod that is Nocardia
substances? Histamine gram positive and partially acid-fast is asteroides
associated with cavitary
578. What AA is a precursor of the following Arginine
bronchopulmonary disease in
substances? N2O
immunosuppressed patients?
579. What AA is a precursor of the following Tryptophan
593. What Ag is needed to diagnose an HBeAg
substances? NAD
infectious patient with hepatitis B?
580. What AA is a precursor of the following Tryptophan
594. What antidepressant, which recently Venlafaxine. (It
substances? Serotonin
was approved for general anxiety also has a mild
581. What AA is broken down into N2O, Arginine disorder, inhibits the reuptake of NE dopaminergic
causing an increase in cyclic guanosine and 5-HT? effect.)
monophosphate (cGMP) of smooth
595. What antipsychotic movement Akathisia
muscle, hence vasodilation?
disorder can occur at any time and is
582. What AA is classified as basic even Histidine, characterized by a subjective sense
though its pK is 6.5 to 7? because of the of discomfort that brings on
imidazole ring restlessness, pacing, sitting down, and
found in the R getting up?
group, is basic.
596. What aphasia is seen as an inability to Receptive aphasia
583. What AA is the major carrier of nitrogen Glutamine comprehend spoken language and is due to a lesion
byproducts from most tissues in the speaking in a word salad? in Brodmann areas
body? 22, 39, and 40;
584. What AA undergoes N-glycosylation? Asparagine generally the
patient is unaware
585. What abdominal muscle contributes to External
of the deficit.
the anterior layer of the rectus sheath, abdominal
forms the inguinal ligament, and in men oblique 597. What aphasia produces a nonfluent Expressive aphasia
gives rise to the external spermatic pattern of speech with the abilty to
fascia of the spermatic cord? understand written and spoken
language seen in lesions in the
586. What abdominal muscle runs Transverse
dominant hemisphere?
horizontally, contributes to the posterior abdominis
rectus sheath, and contributes to form 598. What apoprotein is required for the apo B-48
the conjoint tendon? release of chylomicrons from the
epithelial cells into the lymphatics?
599. What apoprotein on HDL activates apo A-1
lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase
(LCAT)?
600. What AR disorder is seen by
age 1 to 2 with recurrent
sinopulmonary infections,
uncoordinated muscle
movements, and dilation of
the blood vessels?
601. What area of the brain acts as
the center for contralateral
horizontal gaze?
602. What area of the brain acts as
the center for ipsilateral
horizontal gaze?
603. What area of the brain is
responsible for emotion,
feeding, mating, attention, and
memory?
604. What area of the brain serves
as the major sensory relay
center for visual, auditory,
gustatory, and tactile
information destined for the
cerebral cortex, cerebellum,
or basal ganglia?
605. What area of the female
reproductive tract is lined by
stratified squamous
epithelium rich in |glycogen?
606. What area of the
hypothalamus is responsible
for recognizing a decrease in
body temperature and
mediates the response to
conserve heat?
607. What area of the
hypothalamus is responsible
for recognizing an increase in
body temperature and
mediates the response to
dissipate heat?
608. What area of the
hypothalamus is the feeding
center?
609. What area of the limbic
system is responsible for
attaching emotional
significance to a stimulus?
610. What area of the lymph node
contains germinal centers?
Ataxia-telangiectasia
Frontal eye field
(Brodmann area 8)
PPRF
The limbic system
The thalamus (I like to think
of the thalamus as the
executive secretary for the
cerebral cortex. All
information destined for
the cortex has to go
through the thalamus.)
The vagina
Posterior hypothalamic
zones; lesions here result
in poikilothermy
(environmental control of
one's body temperature).
Anterior hypothalamic
zone; lesions here result in
hyperthermia.
Lateral hypothalamic zone;
lesions here result in
aphagia. (Notice the
difference between the
feeding center and the
satiety center; they are in
different zones.)
Amygdala; it helps imprint
an emotional response in
memory.
The outer cortex contains
most of the germinal
centers and therefore also
most B cells.
611. What area of the lymph The inner cortex (paracortex)
node is considered the contains the T cells, so it is
thymic-dependent area? considered the thymic-
dependent area.
612. What area of the nephron Collecting ducts, which make
is sensitive to the effects of them readily permeable to
ADH? water reabsorption.
613. What area of the posterior The optic disk is the blind
aspect of the eye has no spot.
photoreceptors?
614. What area of the retina Fovea
consists of only cones and
has the greatest visual
acuity?
615. What area of the small Ileum
intestine is characterized
by Peyer's patches?
616. What area of the spleen Red pulp (Remember, Red
consists of splenic cords of pulp and RBCs begin with R.)
Billroth and phagocytoses
RBCs?
617. What are defined by Ag- Idiotypes
binding specificity?
618. What are five clinical signs Caput medusa, internal
of portal HTN? hemorrhoids, esophageal
varices, retroperitoneal
varices, and splenomegaly
619. What are the adult Ligamentum arteriosum
remnants of the following
structures? Ductus
arteriosus
620. What are the adult Ligamentum venosum
remnants of the following
structures? Ductus
venosus
621. What are the adult Fossa ovale
remnants of the following
structures? Foramen
ovale
622. What are the adult Ligament teres
remnants of the following
structures? Left umbilical
vein
623. What are the adult Medial umbilical ligaments
remnants of the following
structures? Right and left
umbilical arteries
624. What are the CAGE Cut down (ever tried and failed?) 634. What are the 1. Benefits of the procedure 2. Purpose of
questions? Annoyed (criticism makes angry?) five pieces of the procedure 3. Risks of the procedure
Guilty (about drinking behavior?) information 4. The nature of the procedure (what you
Eye opener (drinking to shake out considered are doing) 5. The alternative to this
the cobwebs?) necessary for procedure and its availability (Don't
625. What are the cells of Chief cells fully informed forget the last one; this is where
the parathyroid consent? physicians get in trouble.)
gland that produce 635. What are the 1. Temporal 2. Zygomatic 3. Buccal 4.
PTH? five terminal Mandibular 5. Cervical (Two Zebras Bit
626. What are the eight 1. Fructokinase 2. Glucokinase 3. branches of the My Clavicle.)
liver-specific Glycerol kinase 4. PEPCK 5. facial nerve?
enzymes? Pyruvate carboxylase 6. 636. What are the Y, W-135, and C and A capsular
Galactokinase 7. Fructose-1, 6- four capsular polysaccharides
bisphosphatase 8. Glucose-6- polysaccharides
phosphatase used in the
627. What are the first Snails Neisseria
intermediate hosts meningitides
for trematodes? vaccine?

628. What are the five Isoleucine, threonine, tryptophan, 637. What are the 1. C5a 2. Leukotriene B4 3. IL-8 4.
AAs that are both tyrosine, and phenylalanine four Bacterial peptides
ketogenic and chemotactic
glucogenic? agents?

629. What are the five Four Ms and a U 1. Median 2. Medial 638. What are the 1. Laminin 2. Heparan sulfate (heparitin
branches of the antebrachial 3. Medial pectoral 4. four sulfate) 3. Fibronectin 4. Type IV
median cord of the Medial brachial cutaneus 5. Ulnar components of collagen
brachial plexus? the basement
membrane?
630. What are the five STARS 1. Upper Subscapularis 2.
branches of the Thoracodorsal 3. Axillary 4. Radial 639. What are the 1. Incompetent patient (determined by
posterior cord of the 5. Lower Subscapularis four exceptions the courts) 2. Therapeutic privilege (in
brachial plexus? to requirements the best interest of the patient when he
for informed or she is unable to answer) 3. Waiver
631. What are the five Inferior pancreaticoduodenal, consent? signed by the patient 4. Emergency
branches of the middle colic,
superior mesenteric right colic, 640. What are the Steroid synthesis, drug detoxification,
artery? ileocolic, and 10 to 15 intestinal four functions of triglyceride resynthesis, and
arteries SER? Ca2+handling

632. What are the five Ig IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM 641. What are the 1. Recognize self from nonself 2. Amplify
isotypes? four major via cell division or complementation 3.
functions of the Control the level of the response 4.
633. What are the five Denial Anger Bargaining Depression acquired Remove foreign material
Kbler-Ross stages Acceptance No, they can be immune system?
of death and dying? skipped, repeated, and completed
Must they be out of sequence. 642. What are the 1. Masseter 2. Temporalis 3. Medial
completed in order? four muscles of pterygoid 4. Lateral pterygoid
mastication?
643. What are the 1. Phosphorylation of mannose
four (lysosomes only) 2. Removal of mannose
posttranslational residues 3. Formation of glycosylate
modifications proteins 4. Phosphorylation of sulfate
done by the amino acids
Golgi
apparatus?
644. What are the 1. Bunyavirus 2. Orthomyxovirus 3.
four segmented Arenavirus 4. Reovirus Remember BOAR
RNA viruses?

657. What are the Chondroitin sulfate and keratan

proteoglycans of sulfate
cartilage and bone?
645. What are the four 1. Decrease concentrations of Ag 658. What are the strongest Parental assignment and culture
ways to down- levels 2. Administer IgG in high determinants of gender (not biology)
regulate the immune concentrations 3. Inhibit B cells identity?
system? with Ag bound to IgG (complexes) 659. What are the three 1. Tinea coli 2. Haustra 3. Epiploic
4. Turn off the original T or B cell anatomic characteristics appendages
with anti-Ab that differentiate the
646. What are the functions To provide attachment between large bowel from the
of the zonula contiguous cells and to maintain a small bowel and the
occludens and the semipermeable barrier rectum?
zonula adherens 660. What are the three Oxazepam, temazepam, and
647. What are the genetic Allotypes benzodiazepines that do lorazepam (OTL) (mnemonic:
variants of a molecule not undergo microsomal Outside The Liver). They
within members of the oxidation? undergo glucuronide
same species? conjugation, not via the
648. What are the long Stereocilia cytochrome p450 system.
microvilli in the inner 661. What are the three The left gastric, splenic, and
ear and male branches of the celiac common hepatic arteries
reproductive tract trunk?
called? 662. What are the three Left colic, superior rectal, and
649. What are the Transketolase and transaldolase. branches of the inferior sigmoidal arteries
nonoxidative enzymes The reactions they catalyze are mesenteric artery?
of the HMP shunt? Are reversible. 663. What are the three 1. Lateral pectoral
the reactions they branches of the lateral 2. Lateral head of the median
catalyze reversible or cord of the brachial 3. Musculocutaneus
irreversible? plexus?
650. What are the only two Rhinovirus and hepatitis A virus 664. What are the three 1. Short attention span 2.
picornaviruses that do characteristics of Impulsivity 3. Hyperactivity
not lead to aseptic ADHD?
meningitis?
665. What are the three C's of 1. Cough 2. Coryza 3.
651. What are the Increased erection and libido measles? Conjunctivitis
pharmacologic effects
seen sexually with 666. What are the three 1. Nails 2. Hair 3. Sweat glands
Dopamine agonists? epidermal derivatives? (both apocrine and sebaceous)

652. What are the Erectile dysfunction 667. What are the three Barr bodies in females, T-cell
pharmacologic effects exceptions to the rule of receptor loci, and
seen sexually with codominant gene immunoglobulin light and heavy
Neuroleptics? expression? chain loci

653. What are the Inhibited orgasm 668. What are the three major 1. IgA receptor 2. Transport of
pharmacologic effects functions of secretory IgA across epithelial barriers 3.
seen sexually with IgA? Protection of IgA from
Serotonin? degradative proteases

654. What are the Priapism 669. What are the three Senile plaques, neurofibrillary
pharmacologic effects microscopic pathologic tangles, and granulovascular
seen sexually with changes seen in changes in neurons
Trazodone? Alzheimer's disease?

655. What are the Impaired ejaculation 670. What are the three 1. Picornavirus 2. Calicivirus 3.
pharmacologic effects naked RNA viruses? Reovirus (Remember PCR)
seen sexually with 671. What are the three Neutrophils, eosinophils, and
1-Blockers? polymorphonuclear basophils
656. What are the Impotence leukocytes? Be specific.
pharmacologic effects
seen sexually with -
Blockers?

672. What are the three 1. 7-methyl guanine cap on 684. What are the two exceptions Both Neisseria and
posttranscriptional the 5' end 2. Addition of to the rule "all cocci are gram Moraxella are gram-
modifications? the poly(A) tail to the 3' positive"? negative cocci.
end 3. Removal of introns
673. What are the three reasons
for the effectiveness of the
blood-brain barrier?
674. What are the three rules
governing a secondary
immune response?
675. What are the three rules of
clonal selection?
676. What are the three sites
where CSF can leave the
ventricles and enter the
subarachnoid space? (Name
the lateral and the medial
foramina.)
677. What are the three stages that 1. Protest 2. Despair 3.
children aged 7 months to 5
years go through when they
are separated from a primary
caregiver for a long time?
678. What are the three surrogate
criteria?
679. What are the three tissues
where triacylglycerols are
produced?
680. What are the top three causes
of infant mortality?
681. What are the two actions of
calcitonin?
682. What are the two chains of the gamma and delta chains
TCR that are mainly found on
the skin and mucosal
surfaces?
683. What are the two essential
fatty acids?
701. What artery turns into the dorsalis pedis
when it crosses the extensor retinaculum?
702. What artificial sweetener must patients
with PKU avoid?
1. Tight junctions 2.
Capillaries that lack
fenestration 3. Very
selective pinocytosis by
the capillaries
1. Covalent bonding
between the hapten and
carrier 2. B-cell exposure
to hapten twice 3. T-cell
exposure to carrier twice
1. One cell type 2. One Ab
type 3. Random selection
of hypervariable regions,
and only cells with bound
Ag undergo clonal
expansion
Two Lateral foramina of
Luschka and 1 Medial
foramen of Monroe (L for
Lateral and M for Medial)
Detachment
1. What did the patient
want? 2. What would the
patient say? 3. What is in
the patient's best interests?
1. Liver 2. Muscle 3.
Adipose tissue
Birth defects, low birth
weight (< 1500 g) with
neonatal respiratory
distress syndrome (NRDS),
and SIDS
It increases Ca2+ excretion
from the kidney and
increases bone
mineralization.
Linoleic acid and linolenic
acid
Anterior tibial
artery
Aspartame
685. What are the two functions of Hormone secretion for T-
the thymus in T-cell cell differentiation and T-
differentiation? cell education to
recognize self from
nonself
686. What are the two hepatitis Hepatitis B and hepatitis C
viruses that can be chronic and
can lead eventually to
hepatocellular carcinoma?
687. What are the two ketogenic Leucine and lysine
AAs?
688. What are the two most Lysine and arginine
common AAs found in
histones?
689. What are the two opsonizing The Fc region of IgG and
factors? C3b
690. What are the two precursors of Glycine and succinyl-CoA
heme?
691. What are the two ways that Aspartate and carbomoyl
nitrogen can enter into the PO4-
urea cycle?
692. What are the two ways to Recovery and death
leave the prevalence pot?
693. What are the vitamin K- Factors II, VII, IX, X, and
dependent coagulation proteins C and S
factors?
694. What artery is formed by the The basilar artery is
union of the two vertebral formed at the
arteries? pontomedullary junction.
695. What artery supplies most of Middle cerebral artery
the lateral surfaces of the
cerebral hemispheres?
696. What artery supplies the left Left coronary artery
ventricle, left atrium, and
interventricular septum?
697. What artery supplies the right Right coronary artery
atrium, right ventricle,
sinoatrial and atrioventricular
nodes?
698. What artery travels with the Left anterior descending
following veins? Great artery
cardiac vein
699. What artery travels with the Posterior interventricular
following veins? Middle artery
cardiac vein
700. What artery travels with the Right coronary artery
following veins? Small
cardiac vein
715. What basic reflex regulates The myotatic reflex is
muscle tone by contracting responsible for the tension
muscles in response to present in all resting
stretch of that muscle? muscle.
703. What ascending sensory system carries The DCML 716. What B cell disorder is Bruton X-linked
joint position, vibratory and pressure system. characterized by pre-B cells hypogammaglobinemia.
sensation, and discriminative touch from (Remember, in the bone marrow, no Tyrosine kinase deficiency
the trunk and limbs? everything but circulating B cells in plasma, leads to inadequate B cell
pain and normal cell-mediated maturation.
temperature.) immunity, low Igs, and
704. What aspects of sleep are affected during REM and stage appearance by 6 months of
benzodiazepine use? 4 sleep; they age?
decrease. 717. What bedside test is used to The Romberg sign is
705. What assay is used to identify MHC class I Microcytotoxic differentiate a dorsal column present if the patient sways
molecules? assay lesion from a lesion in the or loses balance when
vermis of the cerebral standing with eyes open. In
706. What attaches the cusps of the valves to Chordae cortex? a dorsal column lesion,
the papillary muscles in the heart? tendineae patients sway with eyes
707. What attaches to protons and allows them 2, 4- closed. (Don't forget this
to enter into the mitochondria without Dinitrophenol one.)
going through the ATP-generating 718. What blotting technique uses Southern blot
system? the following for analysis?
708. What axis I disorder is characterized by a Adjustment DNA
clinically significant syndrome that affects disorder. It is a 719. What blotting technique uses Western blot
social, occupational, and/or academic diagnosis of the following for analysis?
achievement; occurs less than 3 months exclusion Protein
after a stressor; and abates less than 6 (used if no
months after the stressor is removed? other choice). 720. What blotting technique uses Northern blot
the following for analysis?
709. What axis I disorder is characterized by Autism. Head- RNA
pronoun reversal, preference for banging,
inanimate objects, obliviousness to the rocking, and 721. What bonds are broken by Internal 3', 5' PDE bonds
external environment, lack of separation self-injurious endonucleases?
anxiety, and abnormalities in language behaviors are 722. What bonds are broken by External 3', 5' PDE bonds
development? also common exonucleases?
in autism. 723. What bone houses the ulnar Humerus (between the
710. What bacterium found in poorly Clostridium groove? medial epicondyle and the
preserved canned food causes flaccid botulinum trochlea)
paralysis? 724. What bones make up the Pubis, ilium, and ischium
711. What bacterium is a gram-negative, Pseudomonas acetabulum?
oxidase-positive aerobic rod that aeruginosa 725. What branches of CN X are The sensory component is
produces a grapelike odor and pyocyanin the sensory and motor through the superior
pigmentation? components of the cough laryngeal nerve, and the
712. What bacterium is characterized by large Bacillus reflex? Be specific. motor limb is via the
boxcar-shaped gram-positive rods and is anthracis recurrent laryngeal nerve.
spore-forming, aerobic, and associated 726. What branch off the PICA
with cutaneous infections and woolsorter's vertebral artery supplies
disease? The cerebellum and the
713. What bacterium is diagnosed using the Legionella dorsolateral part of the
Dieterle silver stain? medulla?
714. What bacterium is responsible for Bacillus 727. What branch off the Anterior spinal artery
woolsorter's disease? anthracis vertebral artery supplies
The ventrolateral two-thirds
of the cervical spinal cord
and the ventrolateral part of
the medulla?

728. What branch of the Adaptive branch. The adaptive

immune system is branch of the immune system has
acquired in response to a slow initiation with rapid
an Ag? responses thereafter.
729. What Brodmann area is Areas 44 and 45 741. What case is best Brother Fox (Eichner vs. Dillon).
associated with known for use of the The substituted standard could not
Broca's area? "best interest apply because the patient had
730. What Brodmann area is Area 8 standard"? never been competent, so no one
associated with knew what the patient would have
Frontal eye fields? wanted. Therefore, the decision
was based on what a "reasonable"
731. What Brodmann area is Area 6 person would have wanted.
associated with
Premotor cortex? 742. What case is known as Infant Doe. Generally, parents
"let nature take its cannot forego lifesaving treatment,
732. What Brodmann area is Areas 41 and 42 course"? but this case states that there are
associated with exceptions to the rule.
Primary auditory
cortex? 743. What causes an Vitamin D
increase in bone
733. What Brodmann area is Area 4 mineralization and
associated with Ca2+ along with PO4-
Primary motor cortex? absorption from the
734. What Brodmann area is Areas 1, 2, and 3 GI tract and kidney
associated with tubules?
Primary somatosensory 744. What causes slow Hypermyelination of the corpus
cortex? writhing movements striatum and the thalamus (seen in
735. What Brodmann area is Area 17 (athetosis)? cerebral palsy)
associated with 745. What causes the lysis The lack of glutathione peroxidase
Primary visual cortex? of RBCs by oxidizing activity results in a decrease in
736. What Brodmann area is Areas 5 and 7 agents in a G-6-PD NADPH production, leaving
associated with deficiency? glutathione in the reduced state.
Somatosensory 746. What causes The poly(A) site on the DNA
association cortex? transcription to stop
737. What Brodmann area is Areas 18 and 19 in eukaryotes?
associated with Visual 747. What cell in bone is a Osteoclasts
association cortex? part of the
738. What Brodmann area is Area 22 and occasionally 39 and mononuclear
associated with 40 phagocytic system?
Wernicke's area? 748. What cell is under Sertoli cell
739. What bursa is inflamed Infrapatellar bursa control of FSH and
in clergyman's knee? testosterone; secretes
740. What capsular serotype K1 capsule inhibin, MIF, and
is associated with androgen-binding
Escherichia coli- protein; and
induced meningitis? phagocytizes the
excess cytoplasm of
the spermatid?
749. What cell membrane Microvillus
structure increases
the surface area of a
cell and has actin
randomly assorted
within its structure?
750. What cell of the Paneth cells
duodenum contains
high concentrations of
lysozymes and has
phagocytic activity?

751. What cell of the duodenum Enteroendocrine (EE) cells; 767. What cell surface marker is found CD19
secretes CCK? they also secrete secretin. on blood B cells?
752. What cell of the male
reproductive system
produces testosterone?
753. What cell of the nephron is
responsible for renin
production and secretion?
754. What cells are atypical on a
peripheral blood smear in
heterophil-positive
mononucleosis?
755. What cell's axons are the
only ones that leave the
cerebellar cortex?
756. What cells contribute to the
blood-brain barrier and
proliferate in response to
CNS injury?
757. What cells lining the
ventricles have cilia on their
luminal surface to move
CSF?
758. What cells of the adrenal
gland are neural crest
derivatives?
759. What cells of the epidermis
carry the pigment melanin?
760. What cells of the epidermis,
derived from the neural
crest, act as
mechanoreceptors?
761. What cells of the nephron
function as sodium
concentration sensors of the
tubular fluid?
762. What cells of the retina see
in black and white and are
used for night vision?
763. What cells of the retina sees
in color and needs bright
light to be activated?
764. What cells of the thyroid
gland secrete calcitonin?
765. What cell surface marker do
all T cells have?
766. What cell surface marker is
found on activated helper T
cells?
782. What classical conditioning therapy
or modification is described as
Pairing noxious stimuli to an
inappropriate behavior?
Leydig cells produce
testosterone. LH stimulates
Leydig cells. (Both start with
L.)
Juxtaglomerular (JG) cell
T cells, not B cells
The Purkinje cell
Astrocytes
Ependymal cells
Chromaffin cells (adrenal
medulla)
Keratinocytes, the most
numerous cells in the
epidermis, carry melanin
and produce keratin.
Merkel cells (Merkel's tactile
cells)
Macula densa
Rods
Cones (C for color and
cones)
Parafollicular C cells
CD3
CD40
Aversive
conditioning
768. What cell surface modification of Cilia
ependymal cells and respiratory
epithelium has a 9 + 2
microtubular configuration and
movement as its function?
769. What cell transports IgA, is M-cells
secreted by plasma cells, and is in
Peyer's patches to the
gastrointestinal lumen?
770. What cell type is found in the B cells are mainly
peripheral white pulp of the found in the peripheral
spleen? white pulp and
germinal centers in the
spleen.
771. What cell type of the body or Parietal cells
fundus of the stomach secretes IF? (Remember, they
secrete HCl, too.)
772. What cell type of the body or Chief cells
fundus of the stomach secretes
pepsinogen?
773. What cell type of the epidermis Langerhans cells
functions as antigen-presenting (found in the stratum
cells? spinosum)
774. What cell type of the epidermis Melanocytes
originates from the neural crest?
775. What cerebral vessel size is Small to medium-sized
affected in patients with vascular cerebral vessels
dementia?
776. What cestode causes Taenia solium
cysticercosis?
777. What chamber of the eye lies Posterior chamber
between the iris and the lens?
778. What chromosome 4, AD disorder Huntington's chorea;
is a degeneration of GABA patients have chorea,
neurons in the striatum of the athetoid movements,
indirect pathway of the basal progressive dementia,
ganglia? and behavioral
problems.
779. What chromosome codes for HLA The short arm of
gene products? chromosome 6
780. What chromosome is autism Chromosome 15
linked to?
781. What classical conditioning Exposure
therapy or modification is
described as Forcing patients to
confront their fears by being
exposed to them until they are
extinguished?
783. What classical conditioning therapy Systematic 799. What CNs are responsible for the CN II is the sensory
or modification is described as desensitization sensor and motor components of limb and CN III is the
Triage of a hierarchy of fears (from the light reflex? motor component
least to most), then teaching muscle through
relaxation techniques in the parasympathetic
presence of those fears until the stimulation.
subject is not afraid anymore? 800. What CNs arise from The CN IX, X, and XII CN XI
784. What CN carries preganglionic CN X (Remember, medulla? arises from the cervical
parasympathetic fibers that the vagus nerve spinal cord.
innervate the viscera of the neck, supplies the 801. What CNs arise from The CN III and IV
thorax, foregut, and midgut? parasympathetic midbrain?
information from the
802. What CNs arise from The pons? CN V, VI, VII, and VIII
tip of the pharynx to
the end of the midgut 803. What CNS demyelinating disease Multiple sclerosis
and all between.) is characterized by diplopia,
785. What CN is associated with the None; it degenerates. ataxia, paresthesias, monocular
Fifth pharyngeal arch? blindness and weakness, or
spastic paresis?
786. What CN is associated with the CN V
First pharyngeal arch? 804. What CN transmits sensory CN V1, the occulomotor
information from the cornea? division of the
787. What CN is associated with the CN X trigeminal nerve, is the
Fourth pharyngeal arch? sensory component of
788. What CN is associated with the CN VII the corneal reflex.
Second pharyngeal arch? 805. What color do fungi stain with Hot pink with PAS and
789. What CN is associated with the Vagus nerve PAS? Silver stain? grey to black with silver
sensory innervation of stain
Laryngopharynx? 806. What complement factor C1 inhibitor (C1-INH)
790. What CN is associated with the Maxillary division of deficiency leads to Hereditary
sensory innervation of CN V and angioedema?
Nasopharynx? glossopharyngeal 807. What complement factor C3 deficiency
nerves deficiency leads to Increased
791. What CN is associated with the Glossopharyngeal susceptibility to pyogenic
sensory innervation of nerve infections?
Oropharynx? 808. What complement factor C1, C2, or C4 deficiency
792. What CN is associated with the CN X deficiency leads to Leukocyte
Sixth pharyngeal arch? adhesion deficiency with poor
793. What CN is associated with the CN IX opsonization?
Third pharyngeal arch? 809. What complement factor C5-C8 deficiency
794. What CN nucleus receives auditory Superior olivary deficiency leads to Recurrent
information from both ears via the nucleus gonococcal infections?
cochlear nuclei? 810. What complement factor or C3a, C4a, C5a
795. What CNs are affected if there is a CN VI, VII, and VIII factors are associated with
lesion in Pontomedullary junction? Anaphylaxis?

796. What CNs are affected if there is a CN III and IV 811. What complement factor or C5a
lesion in The midbrain? factors are associated with
Chemotaxis?
797. What CNs are affected if there is a CN IX, X, and XII
lesion in The upper medulla? 812. What complement factor or C5-C9
factors are associated with
798. What CNs are affected if there is a CN V Membrane attack complex
lesion in The upper pons? (MAC)?
813. What complement factor or C3b
factors are associated with
Opsonization?

814. What complex is needed for Biotin, ATP, and CO2 829. What component of the Puborectalis
propionyl CoA carboxylase? pelvic diaphragm forms the
815. What complex of the ETC Complex 4 rectal sling (muscle of
contains Cu2+? continence)?
816. What component of the ANS,
when stimulated, results in
bronchoconstriction?
817. What component of the corneal
reflex is lost in a CN VII deficit?
818. What component of the ETC is
inhibited by the following?
Antimycin A
819. What component of the ETC is
inhibited by the following?
Atractyloside
820. What component of the ETC is
inhibited by the following?
Azide
821. What component of the ETC is
inhibited by the following?
Barbiturates
822. What component of the ETC is
inhibited by the following? CO
823. What component of the ETC is
inhibited by the following?
Cyanide
824. What component of the ETC is
inhibited by the following?
Oligomycin
825. What component of the ETC is
inhibited by the following?
Rotenone
826. What component of the inner
ear Contains endolymph and
gravity receptors monitoring
linear acceleration and
deceleration of the head, noting
changes in head position?
827. What component of the inner
ear Contains endolymph and
responds to head turning and
movement?
828. What component of the inner Semicircular canal
ear Contains perilymph and
responds to angular
acceleration and deceleration of
the head?
843. What deep cerebellar nuclei
receive Purkinje cell projections
in The lateral cerebellar
hemispheres?
Parasympathetic 830. What component of the Mesencephalic nucleus
stimulation, via the vagus trigeminal nuclei Forms the
nerve, results in sensory component of the
bronchoconstriction, jaw jerk reflex?
whereas sympathetic 831. What component of the Spinal trigeminal nucleus
stimulation results in trigeminal nuclei Receives
bronchodilation. sensory input (all but pain
Motor aspect and temperature) from the
face, scalp, dura, and the
Cytochrome b/c1 oral and nasal cavities?
832. What component of the Motor nucleus of CN V
trigeminal nuclei Supplies
ATP/ADP Translocase the muscles of mastication?
833. What connects the lateral Foramen of Monro
ventricles to the third
Cytochrome a/a3 ventricle?
834. What connects the third and Cerebral aqueduct
the fourth ventricles?
Complex I 835. What cycle is responsible Cori cycle
for converting to glucose in
the liver the lactate
Cytochrome a/a3 produced in the RBCs?
836. What cytokine do CD4 T IL-4 is secreted to activate B
Cytochrome a/a3 cells secrete to activate B cells. This begins the second
cells when the specific step in the immune response,
peptide in the groove of the known as Activation. CD4 T
MHC II molecule interacts cells secrete INF-alpha to
Fo/F1 complex with the TCR? activate macrophages
837. What cytokine do Th1 cells INF-gamma
secrete to inhibit Th2 cell
Complex I function?
838. What cytokines do Th2 cells IL-4, IL-10, and IL-13
secrete to inhibit Th1 cell
Utricle and saccule function?
839. What cytoplasmic organelle SER
carries the enzymes for
elongation and desaturation
of fatty acyl CoA?
Semicircular duct 840. What cytoplasmic pathway HMP shunt
produces NADPH and is a
source of ribose 5-
phosphate?
841. What deep cerebellar nuclei The lateral vestibular nucleus
receive Purkinje cell
projections in The
flocculonodular lobe?
842. What deep cerebellar nuclei The dentate nucleus
receive Purkinje cell
projections in The
intermediate hemispheres?
The interposed nucleus 855. What disease is associated with the Primary
HLA-A3 allele Hemochromatosis
856. What disease is associated with the Systemic lupus
HLA-DR2 and HLA-DR3 alleles erythematosus
844. What deep cerebellar nuclei
receive Purkinje cell projections
in The vermis?
845. What dementia is associated with
dilated ventricles with diffuse
cortical atrophy, decreased
parietal lobe blood flow, and a
decrease in choline acetyl
transferase activity?
846. What determines the rate of a
reaction?
847. What determines the rate of
reaction?
848. What direction does RNA
polymerase move along the
template strand of DNA during
transcription?
849. What direction does the
primitive gut rotate? What is its
axis of rotation?
850. What direction would the tongue
protrude in a left CN XII lesion?
851. What direct-pathway basal
ganglia disease is described by
masklike facies, stooped
posture, cogwheel rigidity, pill-
rolling tremor at rest, and a gait
characterized by shuffling and
chasing the center of gravity?
852. What disconnect syndrome
results from a lesion in the
corpus callosum secondary to
an infarct in the anterior cerebral
artery, so that the person can
comprehend the command but
not execute it?
853. What disease has a genetically
low level of UDPglucuronate
transferase, resulting in elevated
free unconjugated bilirubin?
854. What disease is a cavitation of
the spinal cord causing bilateral
loss of pain and temperature at
the level of the lesion?
865. What disorder is associated with
jaundice, white stools, and dark
urine due to biliary duct
occlusion secondary to
incomplete recanalization?
The fastigial nucleus 857.
upper limbs (LMN) and bilateral
These are the gross
pathologic changes
associated with
Alzheimer's disease.
858.
The energy of activation
(Ea)
The energy of activation
3'-5' direction,
synthesizing RNA in the
5'-3' direction
The gut rotates 859.
clockwise around the
superior mesenteric
artery.
Left CN XII lesion would 860.
result in the tongue
pointing to the left
(points at the affected
side). 861.
Parkinson's disease (I
can't underestimate all
of the buzzwords in this 862.
question. Remember it.)
Transcortical apraxia; 863.
Wernicke's area of the
left hemisphere cannot
communicate with the
right primary motor
cortex because of the
lesion in the corpus
callosum.
864.
Gilbert's syndrome
Syringomyelia
Extrahepatic biliary 880.
atresia
881.
882.
What disease is described by Amyotrophic lateral
bilateral flaccid weakness of the sclerosis (Lou
Gehrig's disease) is
spastic weakness of the lower limbs a LMN lesion at the
(UMN) beginning at the cervical level level of the lesion
of the spinal cord and progressing and UMN lesion
up or down the cord? below the level of
the lesion.
What disease is described by the Tourette's
following characteristics: multiple syndrome; it is
motor and vocal tics, average age of usually first
onset 7, a M:F ratio of 3:1, and reported by
association with increased levels of teachers as ADHD
dopamine? with symptoms of
obsessive-
compulsive
disorder and
learning disabilities.
What disease is produced by a Albinism. Tyrosine is
deficiency in the enzyme tyrosinase? converted to
melanin by the
enzyme tyrosinase.
What disease results in a failure of Hirschsprung's
neural crest cells to migrate to the disease (colonic
myenteric plexus of the sigmoid gangliosus)
colon and rectum?
What diseases are associated with Rheumatoid arthritis
HLA-DR4 and type 1 diabetes
(with HLA-DR3)
What diseases are associated with Psoriasis, ankylosing
the HLA-B27 allele spondylitis,
inflammatory bowel
disease, and Reiter's
syndrome
What diseases are associated with Sjogren's syndrome,
the HLA-DR3 allele active hepatitis,
systemic lupus
erythematosus (with
HLA-DR2) and type
1 diabetes (with
HLA-DR4)
What disorder, experienced more Generalized anxiety
than half of the time for a 6-month disorder
period, is described as being fearful,
worrisome, or impatient and having
sleep disturbances, poor
concentration, hyperactivity, and an
overall sense of autonomic
hyperactivity?
What does the tunica intima of An internal elastic
arteries have that veins do not? lamina
What do LMNs innervate? They innervate
skeletal muscle.
What do UMNs innervate? They innervate LMNs.
866. What disorder is characterized
by a depressed mood and a loss
of interest or pleasure for more
than 2 years?
867. What disorder is characterized
by an alternating pattern of
depressed mood with periods of
hypomania for more than 2
years?
868. What disorder is characterized
by autoantibodies to IF?
869. What disorder is described as
having Conscious symptoms
with conscious motivation?
870. What disorder is described as
having Conscious symptoms
with unconscious motivation?
871. What disorder is described as
having Unconscious symptoms
with unconscious motivation?
872. What disorder is due to a 5--
reductase deficiency, resulting in
testicular tissue and stunted male
external genitalia?
873. What DNA excision and repair
enzyme is deficient in patients
with xeroderma pigmentosum?
874. What DNA replication enzyme
breaks the hydrogen bond of
base pairing, forming two
replication forks?
875. What DNA viral disease is
associated with aplastic crisis in
patients with sickle cell anemia?
876. What DNA virus is associated HHV 6
with exanthem subitum (roseola)?
877. What DNA virus is associated
with heterophile-negative
mononucleosis?
878. What does Candida albicans do
that distinguishes it from other
fungi?
879. What does hepatitis D virus need
from hepatitis B virus to be
infective?
896. What embryonic structure forms the adult
male structure? Corpus cavernosus,
corpus spongiosum, and glans and body
of the penis
Dysthymia, which is also 883. What drug is being given to HIV- Nevirapine; it cuts
known as nonpsychotic positive mothers during labor and the rate from 20% to
depression. (Think of it to the children after birth to 10%. AZT is also used,
as the car running but decrease the risk of mother-to-child cutting the rate from
not well.) HIV transmission? 20% to 10%.
Cyclothymia 884. What drug is used to prevent Disulfiram
(nonpsychotic bipolar). alcohol consumption by blocking
Patients are ego aldehyde dehydrogenase?
syntonic. 885. What element is needed for the Copper (Cu+)
proper alignment of tropocollagen
Pernicious anemia molecules?
886. What elongation factor is eEF-2 is the site
Malingering inactivated by ADP ribosylation, where Pseudomonas
preventing translation? and Diphtheria toxins
work.
Factitious disorder 887. What embryonic structure, around The notochord
day 19, tells the ectoderm above it
to differentiate into neural tissue?
Somatoform disorder 888. What embryonic structure forms Mesonephric duct
the adult female structures?
Gartner's duct
Male pseudo- 889. What embryonic structure forms Phallus
intersexuality the adult female structures? Glans
(hermaphrodite); these clitoris, corpus cavernosus, and
individuals are 46XY. spongiosum
Excision endonuclease, 890. What embryonic structure forms Labioscrotal swelling
which removes thiamine the adult female structures? Labia
dimers from DNA majora
Helicase (requires ATP 891. What embryonic structure forms Urogenital folds
for energy) the adult female structures? Labia
minora
892. What embryonic structure forms Gubernaculum
Parvovirus B-19 the adult female structures?
Ovarian and round ligaments
893. What embryonic structure forms Gonads
the adult female structures?
Ovary, follicles, rete ovarii
CMV; remember, EBV is 894. What embryonic structure forms Urogenital sinus
associated with the adult female structures?
heterophile-positive Urinary bladder, urethra, greater
mononucleosis. vestibular glands, vagina
It forms a germinal tube 895. What embryonic structure forms Paramesonephric
at 37C. the adult female structures? ducts
Uterine tube, uterus, cervix, and
HBsAg as its envelope upper third of the vagina
Phallus
897. What embryonic structure forms the adult Mesonephric 910. What encapsulated group of Golgi tendon organs are
male structure? Epididymis, ductus duct nerve endings seen at the stimulated by Ib afferent
deferens, seminal vesicle, and ejaculatory muscle-tendon junction neurons in response to an
duct responds to an increase in increase in force or tension.
898. What embryonic structure forms the adult Gubernaculum tension generated in that The inverse muscle reflex
male structure? Gubernaculum testes muscle? (This is dropping a protects muscle from being
box that is too heavy to torn; it limits the tension on
899. What embryonic structure forms the adult Labioscrotal carry.) the muscle.
male structure? Scrotum swelling
911. What encapsulated Thymus gland. (Thymus
900. What embryonic structure forms the adult Gonads lymphoid organ is gland is essential for T cell
male structure? Testes, seminiferous characterized by presence maturation.)
tubules, and rete testes of Hassall's corpuscles, and
901. What embryonic structure forms the adult Urogenital absence of germinal centers
male structure? Urinary bladder, urethra, sinus and B cells?
prostate gland, bulbourethral gland 912. What encephalopathy Wernicke's encephalopathy
902. What embryonic structure forms the adult Urogenital causes ocular palsies,
male structure? Ventral part of the penis folds confusion, and gait
903. What embryonic structure forms the Mesonephric abnormalities related to a
following adult structures? Collecting duct (ureteric lesion in the mammillary
ducts, calyces, renal pelvis, and ureter bud) bodies and/or the
dorsomedial nuclei of the
904. What embryonic structure forms the Phallus, thalamus?
following adult structures? External urogenital
genitalia folds, and 913. What endotoxin receptor is CD14
labioscrotal the best marker for
swellings macrophages?

905. What embryonic structure forms the Urachus 914. What Enterobacteriaceae Salmonella
following adult structures? Median are prone to produce
umbilical ligament osteomyelitis in sickle cell
patients?
906. What embryonic structure forms the Metanephros
following adult structures? Nephrons, 915. What enzyme catalyzes the Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase,
kidney covalent bonding of the which uses 2 ATPs for this
AA's carboxyl group to the reaction.
907. What embryonic structure forms the Urogenital 3' end of tRNA?
following adult structures? Urinary sinus
bladder and urethra 916. What enzyme catalyzes the HMG-CoA reductase
rate-limiting step in
908. What embryonic week sees the formation Third week cholesterol metabolism?
of the notochord and the neural tube?
917. What enzyme catalyzes the Carnitine acyltransferase-I
909. What encapsulated gram-negative, Klebsiella rate-limiting step in fatty
lactose-fermenting rod is associated with pneumoniae acid oxidation?
pneumonia in patients with alcoholism,
diabetes, and chronic lung disease? 918. What enzyme catalyzes the Acetyl CoA carboxylase
rate-limiting step in fatty
acid synthesis?
919. What enzyme catalyzes the Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphatase
rate-limiting step in
gluconeogenesis?
920. What enzyme catalyzes the Glycogen phosphorylase
rate-limiting step in
glycogenolysis?
921. What enzyme catalyzes the -ALA synthase
rate-limiting step in heme
synthesis?
922. What enzyme catalyzes the PRPP aminotransferase
rate-limiting step in purine
synthesis?

923. What enzyme catalyzes the rate- Aspartate 941. What enzyme is Hepatic glycogen
limiting step in pyrimidine transcarbamylase deficient in the following phosphorylase
synthesis? glycogen storage
924. What enzyme catalyzes the rate- Isocitrate disease? Hers' disease
limiting step in the TCA cycle? dehydrogenase
925. What enzyme catalyzes the rate- Carbamoyl 942. What enzyme is Muscle glycogen phosphorylase
limiting step of the urea cycle? phosphate deficient in the following
synthetase I glycogen storage
926. What enzyme catalyzes the Glutamate disease? McArdle's
reversible oxidative deamination of dehydrogenase disease
glutamate and produces the TCA 943. What enzyme is Lysosomal -1, 4-glucosidase
cycle intermediate -ketoglutarate? deficient in the following
927. What enzyme deficiency results in Homogentisate glycogen storage
darkening of the urine when oxidase deficiency is disease? Pompe's
exposed to air? seen in patients with disease
alcaptonuria. 944. What enzyme is Glucose-6-phosphatase
928. What enzyme does HIV use to Integrase deficient in the following
integrate the proviral dsDNA into glycogen storage
the host? disease? von Gierke's
disease
929. What enzyme has a 5' to 3' synthesis DNA polymerase I
of the Okazaki fragments, 3' 945. What enzyme is inhibited Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.
exonuclease activity, and 5' by disulfiram? When this enzyme is blocked,
exonuclease activity? acetaldehyde builds up, and its
presence in excess results in
930. What enzyme, induced by insulin Lipoprotein lipase nausea and hypotension.
and activated by apo C-II, is
required for chylomicron and VLDL 946. What enzyme is used to S1 nuclease
metabolism? remove the hairpin loop
during production of
931. What enzyme is blocked by 5-FU? Thymidylate cDNA from mRNA?
synthetase
947. What enzyme of heme Uroporphyrinogen-I synthase
932. What enzyme is blocked by Aldehyde synthesis is deficient in
disulfiram? dehydrogenase the autosomal dominant
933. What enzyme is blocked by Ribonucleotide disorder acute
hydroxyurea? reductase intermittent porphyria?
934. What enzyme is blocked by Dihydrofolate 948. What enzyme of purine PRPP aminotransferase
methotrexate/ trimethoprim? reductase synthesis is inhibited by
935. What enzyme is deficient in acute Uroporphyrinogen I allopurinol and 6-
intermittent porphyria? synthetase mercaptopurine?

936. What enzyme is deficient in Uroporphyrinogen 949. What enzyme of Thymidylate synthase
congenital erythropoietic III cosynthase pyrimidine synthesis is
porphyria? inhibited by the
following? 5-FU
937. What enzyme is deficient in Ferrochelatase
hereditary protoporphyria? 950. What enzyme of Ribonucleotide reductase
pyrimidine synthesis is
938. What enzyme is deficient in patients NADPH oxidase is
inhibited by the
with CGD? deficient, resulting in
following?
an inability to
Hydroxyurea
produce toxic
metabolites. 951. What enzyme of Dihydrofolate reductase
pyrimidine synthesis is
939. What enzyme is deficient in patients Phenylalanine
inhibited by the
with PKU? hydroxylase
following?
940. What enzyme is deficient in Purine nucleoside Methotrexate
selective T cell immunodeficiency? phosphorylase

952. What enzyme of the purine salvage HGPRT 967. What excitatory fibers Climbing fibers;, they are
pathway is deficient in the following? arise from the inferior monosynaptic input on Purkinje
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome olivary nuclei on the cells. Mossy fibers, also excitatory,
953. What enzyme of the purine salvage Adenosine contralateral side of are axons of all other sources and
pathway is deficient in the following? deaminase the body? synapse on granule cells.
SCID
954. What enzyme of the purine salvage Purine nucleoside 968. What factors are EF-1 and GTP
pathway is deficient in the following? phosphorylase needed for elongation
Selective T-cell immunodeficiency in eukaryotes?
955. What enzyme of the TCA cycle also Succinate 969. What factors are EF-Tu or EF-ts and GTP
acts as complex II of the ETC? dehydrogenase needed for elongation
956. What enzyme of the TCA cycle Succinate in prokaryotes?
catalyzes the production of the dehydrogenase 970. What factors are Elongation factor-G and GTP
following: FADH2 needed for translation
957. What enzyme of the TCA cycle Succinyl CoA in prokaryotes?
catalyzes the production of the synthetase 971. What factors are EF-2 and GTP
following: GTP needed for
958. What enzyme of the TCA cycle Isocitrate translocation in
catalyzes the production of the dehydrogenase, eukaryotes?
following: NADH (hint: 3 enzymes) -ketoglutarate 972. What facultative Escherichia coli
dehydrogenase, gram-negative
and malate anaerobic rod is
dehydrogenase motile, ferments
959. What enzyme of the TCA cycle Succinyl CoA lactose, and is the
catalyzes the substrate level synthetase MCC of UTIs?
phosphorylation? 973. What facultative Histoplasma capsulatum infects
960. What enzyme produces an RNA Primase intracellular fungus is the cells of the RES and can result
primer in the 5'-3' direction and is associated with in hepatosplenomegaly.
essential to DNA replication because hepatosplenomegaly?
DNA polymerases are unable to 974. What family do the Bunyavirus
synthesize DNA without an RNA following viruses
primer? belong to? California
961. What enzyme requires molybdenum Xanthine oxidase encephalitis
as a cofactor? 975. What family do the Filovirus
962. What epidermal layer's function is to Stratum following viruses
release lipids to act as a sealant? granulosum belong to? Ebola

963. What ethnic group has the highest Native Americans 976. What family do the Bunyavirus
adolescent suicide rate? following viruses
belong to?
964. What eukaryotic translation enzyme is eEF-1 Hantavirus
associated with the following:
Elongation 977. What family do the Paramyxovirus
following viruses
965. What eukaryotic translation enzyme is eIF-2 in the P site belong to? Measles
associated with the following:
Initiation 978. What family do the Rhabdovirus
following viruses
966. What eukaryotic translation enzyme is No enzymes are belong to? Rabies
associated with the following: needed. When the
Termination stop codon 979. What family do the Paramyxovirus
reaches the A site, following viruses
it results in belong to? RSV
termination. 980. What fat-soluble Vitamin E
vitamin is connected
to selenium
metabolism?

981. What fissure of the cerebral
cortex runs perpendicular to the
lateral fissure and separates the
frontal and the parietal lobes?
Central sulcus (sulcus of 993. What form of bilirubin can Unconjugated free bilirubin
Rolando) cross the blood-brain
barrier?
994. What form of bilirubin is Unconjugated (indirect)
carried on albumin?
982. What fissure of the cerebral
cortex separates the frontal and
temporal lobes rostrally and
partially separates the parietal
and temporal lobes?
983. What five cofactors and
coenzymes are required by
pyruvate dehydrogenase?
984. What five main oxidizing
reactions are used to kill
ingested organisms?
985. What five pathways use SAM (S-
adenosylmethionine) as the
methyl donor?
986. What five things are checked in
the APGAR test?
987. What foramen must be
traversed for entry into the
lesser peritoneal sac?
988. What form of AA is found only
in collagen?
989. What form of alcohol causes
blindness?
990. What form of anxiety, appearing
at 6 months, peaking at 8
months, and disappearing by 1
year of age, is seen in the
presence of unfamiliar people?
991. What form of bias is due to false
estimates of survival rates?
992. What form of bias occurs when
the experimenter's expectation
inadvertently is expressed to
the subjects, producing the
desired effects? How can it be
eliminated?
1007. What Freudian psyche component is
described as The conscience, morals,
beliefs (middle of the road)?
1008. What Freudian psyche component is
described as The urges, sex
aggression, and "primitive" processes?
Lateral fissure (fissure of
Sylvius)
1. TTP 2. Lipoic acid 3.
Coenzyme A from
pantothenate 4. NAD(H)
(from niacin or
tryptophan) 5. FADH2
(from riboflavin)
1. H2O2 2. Superoxide 3.
Hydroxyl radical 4.
Myeloperoxidase 5.
Hypochlorous acid
1. Epinephrine synthesis
2. Phosphatidyl choline
3. Creatine 4.
Methylation of cytosine
5. N-methyl cap of
mRNA
1. Skin color 2. Heart rate
3. Reflexes 4. Muscle
tone 5. Respiratory rate
APGAR, Appearance,
Pulse, Grimace, Activity,
Respiration
Foramen of Winslow
Hydroxyproline
Methanol (wood
alcohol)
Stranger anxiety
Lead-time bias
(remember, patients
don't live longer with
the disease; they are
diagnosed sooner.)
Pygmalion effect
(experimenter
expectancy). This can be
eliminated with double-
blind studies.
Superego
Id (pleasure
principle)
995. What form of conditioning Operant conditioning
is defined as a new (reinforcement is after a
response to an old response)
stimulus resulting in a
consequence?
996. What form of continuous cDNA, when it is made from
DNA, used in cloning, has mRNA
no introns or regulatory
elements?
997. What form of dementia is Creutzfeldt-Jakob's disease.
characterized by onset at Patients first develop vague
age 40 to 50, rapid somatic complaints and
progression, infection by anxiety, rapidly followed by
a prion, and death within dysarthria, myoclonus, ataxia,
2 years? and choreoathetosis.
998. What form of depression Seasonal affective disorder
is due to abnormal (treat with bright light therapy)
metabolism of melatonin?
999. What form of immunity is Cell-mediated immunity
responsible for removal
of intracellular
infections?
1000. What form of Plasmodium Hypnozoite
species affects the liver?
1001. What form of the Sporozoites
Plasmodium species are
injected into humans by
mosquitoes?
1002. What form of the Gametocytes
Plasmodium species is
ingested by mosquitoes?
1003. What four branches of the 1. Dorsal scapular 2.
brachial plexus arise prior Suprascapular 3. Long thoracic
to the first rib? 4. Nerve to subclavius
1004. What four CN carry CN III, VII, IX, and X
preganglionic
parasympathetic fibers?
1005. What four substances 1. Glucagon 2. NADH 3. Acetyl
increase the rate of CoA 4. ATP
gluconeogenesis?
1006. What Freudian psyche Ego
component is described
as Reality, rationality,
language basis?
1020. What genus of bacteria is described by Staphylococcus
catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci in
clusters?
1021. What gland is found in the muscular Thyroid gland
triangle of the neck?
1009. What frontal lobe cortex is associated Prefrontal 1022. What glial cell is derived from Microglia
with organizing and planning the cortex; it is in mesoderm and acts as a scavenger, (Microglia and
intellectual and emotional aspect of front of the cleaning up cellular debris after injury? mesoderm both
behavior? premotor area. begin with M)
1010. What fructose metabolism enzyme is Aldolase B 1023. What gluconeogenic enzyme is absent in Glucose-6-
deficient in patients with vomiting, deficiencies are muscle, accounting for its inability to use phosphatase
apathy, diarrhea, jaundice, proximal treated by glycogen as a source for blood glucose?
renal tubular acidosis, hypoglycemia, eliminating 1024. What gluconeogenic mitochondrial Pyruvate
and hyperuricemia? fructose from enzyme requires biotin? carboxylase
the diet.
1025. What glycolytic enzyme has a high Glucokinase
1011. What fungus is characterized by India Cryptococcus Vmax, high Km, and low affinity for
ink staining of the CSF that produces neoformans glucose?
colorless cells with a halo on a black
background? 1026. What glycoprotein in the HIV virus GP120
attaches to CD4?
1012. What fungus is seen as colored Chromomycosis
cauliflower lesions? 1027. What glycoprotein in the HIV virus is GP41
used for fusion?
1013. What fungus is urease positive? Cryptococcus
1028. What gram-positive anaerobic rod with Actinomyces
1014. What ganglion receives preganglionic Sympathetic branching filaments is a component of israelii
sympathetic fibers from T1 to L1-2 and chain ganglion the normal flora of the mouth and female
innervates smooth muscle, cardiac genital tract and is responsible for
muscle, glands, head, thoracic viscera, draining abscesses with sulfur granules
and blood vessels of the body wall and in the exudates?
limbs?
1029. What gram-positive rod is distinguished Listeria
1015. What ganglion supplies the Ciliary ganglion by its tumbling motility?
postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
1030. What gram-positive spore-forming Clostridium
to the ciliary muscles of the eye?
anaerobic rod blocks the release of ACh botulinum
1016. What general pattern of sleep is NREM sleep. at the NMJ, resulting in reversible flaccid
described by slowing of EEG rhythms Remember paralysis?
(high voltage and slower awake body,
1031. What group of eukaryotic regulatory Homeodomain
synchronization), muscle contractions, sleeping brain
proteins has a major factor in controlling proteins
and lack of eye movement or mental
the gene expression embryonically?
activity?
1032. What happens to affinity if you increase Affinity
1017. What generate anterograde transport of Kinesins. Dynein
Km? decreases; they
information in a neuron? generates
are inversely
retrograde
proportional.
transportation
of information. 1033. What happens to cortisol levels in sleep- Cortisol levels
deprived individuals? increase.
1018. What genetic defect is characterized by I-cell disease is
Lymphocyte
coarse facial features, gingival a result of a
levels decrease
hyperplasia, macroglossia, psychomotor genetic defect
in sleep-
and growth retardation, club foot, claw affecting the
deprived
hand, cardiorespiratory failure, and phosphorylation
individuals.
death in the first decade of life? of mannose
residues. 1034. What happens to dopamine levels when Dopamine
we awaken? levels rise with
1019. What genus is known as the smallest Mycoplasma
waking;
free living bacteria? (hint: has no cell
dopamine is
wall and has sterols in the membrane)
associated with
wakefulness.

1035. What happens The hallmarks of LMN lesion injury are 1045. What histone binds two H1 histones
to muscle tone absent or decreased reflexes, muscle nucleosomes together?
and stretch fasciculations, decreased muscle tone, 1046. What HIV enzyme produces a Reverse transcriptase
reflexes when and muscle atrophy What two areas of the dsDNA provirus?
there is a LMN skin do flaccid paralysis). Don't forget,
lesion? LMN lesions are ipsilateral at the level of 1047. What HIV structural gene env structural protein
the lesion! produces GP120 and GP41?
1036. What happens Increase (5-HT and dopamine levels do 1048. What hormone causes milk Oxytocin
to NE levels in the same) letdown?
Bipolar 1049. What hormone is activated in Hormone-sensitive
disorder? adipose tissue when blood lipase
1037. What happens Decrease (5-HT and dopamine levels do glucose levels decrease?
to NE levels in the same) 1050. What hormone level increases in Prolactin
Major the first 3 hours of sleep?
depression?
1051. What hormone, produced by the Estrogen; the first 14
1038. What happens Prevalence increases. (Note: Incidence granulose cell, stimulates the days of the female
to prevalence does not change.) endometrium to enter the reproductive cycle
as duration proliferative phase? mark the proliferative
increases? phase.
1039. What happens Prevalence increases. 1052. What hormone, produced by the hCG
to prevalence syncytiotrophoblast, stimulates
as incidence the production of progesterone
increases? by the corpus luteum?
1040. What happens Prevalence increases. (Remember, 1053. What hormone's release is GH. The largest output
to prevalence prevalence can decrease in only two strongly associated with stage 4 of GH in a 24-hour
as the number ways, recovery and death.) sleep? period is during stage
of long-term 4 sleep.
survivors
increases? 1054. What hypothalamic nucleus is Supraoptic nuclei;
responsible for the production of lesions here result in
1041. What happens Increased REM sleep, decreased REM ADH? diabetes insipidus.
to REM, REM latency, and decreased stage 4 sleep,
latency, and leading to early morning awakening 1055. What hypothesis states that the Null hypothesis (what
stage 4 sleep findings of a test are a result of you hope to disprove)
during major chance?
depression? 1056. What Ig activates the alternate IgA
1042. What happens As the isotype is switched, the Ab pathway, neutralizes bacterial
to the Ab specificity does not change because it endotoxins and viruses, and
specificity does not affect the variable chains. prevents bacterial adherence?
when class 1057. What Ig activates the IgM
switching complement cascade most
occurs in efficiently?
mature B 1058. What Ig is associated with ADCC IgE
cells? for parasites?
1043. What has Bell pad 1059. What Ig is associated with Ag IgD; IgM is also
proved to be recognition receptor on the correct.
the best way surface of mature B cells?
to extinguish
1060. What Ig is associated with mast IgE. It attaches via
enuresis?
cell and basophil binding? receptor for the Fc
1044. What Trypanosoma cruzi region of the heavy
hemoflagellate epsilon chain
species is the
1061. What Ig is associated with IgA
cause of
mucosal surfaces and external
Chagas
secretions?
disease?

1062. What Ig is responsible for activation of IgG 1078. What is backward When showing two pictures in rapid
complement, opsonization, and ADCC masking, and is there succession, you split the pictures
and is actively transported across the a positive half a second apart, resulting in the
placenta? correlation with second picture masking the first
schizophrenic (indicating poor short-term
patients? memory). This is seen in nearly 33%
of schizophrenic patients.
1063. What Ig is responsible for Antibody- IgE 1079. What is defined as a IQ
Dependent Cell-mediated Cytotoxicity general estimate of
of parasites, has a high-affinity Fc the functional
receptor on mast cells and basophils, capacities of a
and is responsible for the allergic human?
response? 1080. What is determined The folding of an AA chain
1064. What Ig is the major protective factor in IgA by the secondary
colostrum? structure of an AA?
1065. What Ig mediates ADCC via K cells, IgG 1081. What is found in the If a carboxyl group is the R group, it
opsonizes, and is the Ig of the secondary R group if the AA is is acidic; if an amino group is the R
immune response? acidic? Basic? group, it is said to be basic.
1066. What Ig prevents bacterial adherence to IgA 1082. What is given to Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM),
mucosal surfaces? pregnant women an anti-RhD IgG antibody, prevents
1067. What IL do T cells secrete to induce T- IL-2. T cells within 24 hours after generation of RhD-specific memory
and B-cell division? express IL-2 birth to eliminate B cells in the mother.
receptors on Rh+ fetal blood cells
their surface to from their
induce self- circulation?
expression. 1083. What is needed to IF and GTP (eIF for eukaryotes)
1068. What IL down-regulates cell mediated IL-10 initiate translation?
immunity? 1084. What is the anatomic LARP: Left goes Anterior and Right
1069. What IL is essential for lymphoid cell IL-7 (A 7 upside positioning of the goes Posterior (because of the
development? down is an L; L right and left gastric rotation of the gut; remember your
is for Lymphoid) nerve plexus of the embryology!)
esophagus as they
1070. What IL is important in myeloid cell IL-3 (3 face pass through the
development? down is an M) diaphragm?
1071. What IL, produced by macrophages, is IL-8. It not only 1085. What is the binding The promoter indicates where
chemotactic for neutrophils? is chemotactic, site for RNA transcription will begin.
it also acts as an polymerase?
adhesive for
neutrophils. 1086. What is the Increased ACh to decreased NE
biochemical trigger levels. (NE pathway begins in the
1072. What immunologic syndrome is due to a DiGeorge's for REM sleep? pons and regulates REM sleep.)
pharyngeal pouch 3 and 4 failure? syndrome
1087. What is the bone 14 days
1073. What immunologic test checks for a Agglutination marrow maturation
reaction between Abs and a particular test time for a
Ag? (hint: ABO typing) phagocytic cell?
1074. What intermediate enables propionyl Succinyl CoA 1088. What is the central The patient decides about the health
CoA to enter into the TCA cycle? issue regarding the care she does or does not get even
1075. What intermediate of cholesterol Farnesyl Roe vs. Wade if it harms the fetus. This also means
synthesis anchors proteins in the pyrophosphate decision she can refuse blood transfusions
membranes and forms CoA? (FPP) (legalization of even if it harms the fetus.
1076. What is a plasma cell's life expectancy? 7 to 14 days abortion)?

1077. What is associated with prolonged Hypothyroidism. 1089. What is the Western blot
lithium use? (TSH levels confirmatory test for
must be HIV?
monitored.)

1090. What is the degree to
which two measures are
related? Does it imply
causation?
1091. What is the direction of
growth for the primitive
streak, caudal to rostral or
rostral to caudal?
Correlation. No, correlation 1105. What is the first Adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency
does not imply causation. human disease
successfully
treated with
The primitive streak grows gene therapy?
caudal to rostral.
1092. What is the drug of choice Methylphenidate (Ritalin) 1106. What is the first IgM; IgD follows shortly thereafter.
for treating ADHD? membrane-
1093. What is the drug of choice Allopurinol bound Ig on B
for treating a patient with cell
hyperuricemia due to membranes?
overproduction of uric 1107. What is the fluid Vitreous humor
acid? of the posterior
1094. What is the drug of choice Probenecid, a uricosuric compartment of
in treating a patient with agent the eye?
hyperuricemia due to 1108. What is the (MA/CA) x 100 = IQ score, where MA =
underexcretion of uric formula to mental age and CA = chronological age
acid? calculate IQ?
1095. What is the end product of Uric acid 1109. What is the Resorb CSF into the blood
purine catabolism? function of the
1096. What is the enzyme for the Glyceraldehyde arachnoid
oxidative reaction in dehydrogenase granulations?
glycolysis? 1110. What is the Initiate and manage gross skeletal
1097. What is the epithelial cell Stratified squamous function of the muscle movement control
lining the nasopharynx? nonkeratinized epithelium, basal ganglia?
which has cilia that beat 1111. What is the Planning and fine-tuning of voluntary
toward the oropharynx. function of the skeletal muscle contractions. (Think
1098. What is the epithelial lining Transitional epithelium. The cerebellum? coordination.) Remember, the function of
of the prostatic portion of distal portion of the penile the basal ganglia is to initiate gross
the urethra? urethra is composed of voluntary skeletal muscle control.
stratified epithelium. 1112. What is the They are preganglionic sympathetic
1099. What is the essential The cat function of white axons. They are white because they are
reservoir host for rami myelinated.
Toxoplasma gondii? communicantes?

1100. What is the first Ab a baby IgM 1113. What is the Ig IgM
makes? associated with
the primary
1101. What is the first Ag seen in HBsAg (incubation period) immune
an individual with response?
hepatitis?
1114. What is the key Formation of an identity through issues
1102. What is the first branch of Inferior phrenic artery issue of independence and rebellion; they
the abdominal artery? surrounding define who they are.
1103. What is the first epidermal Stratum lucidum teenagers'
layer without organelles maturation?
and nuclei 1115. What is the label Borderline
1104. What is the first formal IQ Stanford-Binet Scale, given to an
test used today for developed in 1905, is useful in individual whose
children aged 2 to 18? the very bright, the impaired, IQ is 70 to 79
and children less than 6 years 1116. What is the label Low average
old. given to an
individual whose
IQ is 80 to 89

1117. What is the label given to an Average 1136. What is the major Hydroxyapatite
individual whose IQ is 90 to 109 inorganic component
1118. What is the label given to an High average of bone?
individual whose IQ is 110 to 119 1137. What is the major -Hydroxybutyrate
1119. What is the label given to an Superior ketone body
individual whose IQ is 120 to 129 produced during
alcoholic
1120. What is the label given to an Very superior (<2.5% of ketoacidosis?
individual whose IQ is 130 the population)
1121. What is the label given to an Mentally disabled 1138. What is the male-to- M:F 4:1 committing, but M:F ratio of
individual whose IQ is Below 69 female ratio for attempts is 1:3 (males commit more
1122. What is the largest muscle in the Gluteus maximus committing suicide? but females try it more)
body? 1139. What is the maximum Vmax
1123. What is the largest nucleus in the The substantia nigra is rate possible with a
midbrain? the largest nucleus in given amount of
the midbrain. It contains enzyme?
melanin and uses GABA 1140. What is the most The granule cell. Its neurotransmitter
and dopamine as its abundant neuron in is glutamic acid, which is also the
neurotransmitters. the cerebellum? principal neurotransmitter of the
1124. What is the largest organ in the Integument (skin and its visual pathways.
body? derivatives) 1141. What is the most Isoniazid treatment
1125. What is the leading cause of Pregnancy common cause of
school dropout? vitamin B6
deficiency?
1126. What is the legal age to be 18 years old (except if
deemed competent to make emancipated) 1142. What is the most Alzheimer's (dementia of
decisions? common form of Alzheimer's type, DAT). (Remember,
dementia? Alzheimer's constitutes 65% of
1127. What is the limited portion of a Antigenic determinant dementias seen in patients 65 years
large Ag that will actually be (epitope). (Idiotypes old.)
recognized and bound to an Ab bind to epitopes.)
and that contains approximately 1143. What is the most G-6-PD deficiency; pyruvate kinase
five to six amino acids or four to common genetic deficiency is second.
five hexose units? deficiency resulting
in hemolytic anemia?
1128. What is the longest and most PCT
convoluted segment of the 1144. What is the most IgA deficiency; patients commonly
nephron? common Ig present with recurrent
deficiency? sinopulmonary infections and GI
1129. What is the lymphatic drainage of Internal iliac nodes disturbances.
the pelvic organs?
1145. What is the most Radial Immuno Diffusion (RID) for Ig
1130. What is the main inhibitor of Acetyl CoA (pyruvate common precipitin levels.
pyruvate dehydrogenase? to acetyl CoA) test used in clinical
1131. What is the major Ab of the IgM medicine?
primary immune response?
1132. What is the major cell membrane Ergosterol
sterol found in fungi?
1133. What is the major difference There are no valves and
between the veins in the face and no smooth muscle in
the veins in the rest of the body? the walls of the veins in
the face.
1134. What is the major Ig of the IgG
secondary immune response?
1135. What is the major Ig of the IgA
secondary immune response in
the mucosal barriers?

1146. What is the most The junction where the anterior
common site for an communicating and anterior
aneurysm in cerebral cerebral arteries join. As the
circulation? aneurysm expands, it compresses
the fibers from the upper temporal
fields of the optic chiasm,
producing bitemporal inferior
quadrantanopia
1156. What is the name for the most
prominent spinous process?
1157. What is the name of a thin brown
ring around the outer edge of the
cornea, seen in Wilson's disease?
Vertebra prominens
(C7 in 70% of cases,
C6 in 20%, T1 in 10%)
Kayser-Fleischer ring
1147. What is the most Pseudomonas aeruginosa 1158. What is the name of bilateral Poliomyelitis; it is a
likely causative flaccid paralysis, hyporeflexia, and bilateral LMN lesion.
organism for a patient hypotonia due to a viral infection of
with folliculitis after the ventral horn of the spinal cord?
spending time in a hot 1159. What is the name of demyelination Subacute combined
tub? of the corticospinal tract and the degeneration, which
1148. What is the most Vibrio vulnificus dorsal column in the spinal cord is bilateral below the
likely organism due most commonly to a vitamin level of the lesion.
causing cellulitis in a B12 deficiency?
patient who was cut 1160. What is the name of depression and Rapid cycling bipolar
by an oyster shell? mania alternating within a 48-to 72- disorder
1149. What is the most Tinea favosa (favus) hour period?
serious form of tinea 1161. What is the name of hydrophilic Gap junctions
capitis, which results pores that allow the direct passage
in permanent hair of ions and particles between two
loss and is highly adjacent cells?
contagious?
1162. What is the name of inflammation Housemaid's knee
1150. What is the most The death of a spouse. The higher of the prepatellar bursa?
stressful event as the score, the greater the risk of
determined by the developing an illness in the next 6 1163. What is the name of RER in Nissl substances;
Holmes and Rahe months. neurons? there is a great deal
scale? of RER in neuron cell
bodies, indicating
1151. What is the most Stratum corneum (keratinized) high protein
superficial layer of synthesis.
the epidermis?
1164. What is the name of the 12-step Alcoholics
1152. What is the most SSRIs program believed to be the most Anonymous
widely used class of successful for the treatment of
antidepressants? alcohol abuse?
1153. What is the name for Duodenal atresia 1165. What is the name of the B cell-rich Primary follicle of the
failed recanalization area in the lymph node? cortex
of the duodenum
resulting in 1166. What is the name of the B cell-rich Primary follicle (in
polyhydramnios, bile- area of the spleen? the white pulp)
containing vomitus, 1167. What is the name of the B cell that Plasma cell (mature
and a distended secretes Ig? B lymphocyte)
stomach? 1168. What is the name of the Flumazenil
1154. What is the name for Patent urachus benzodiazepine antagonist used in
failure of the allantois the treatment of an overdose?
to close, resulting in a 1169. What is the name of the bullet- Rhabdovirus
urachal fistula or shaped virus?
sinus?
1170. What is the name of the exotoxin Shiga toxin
1155. What is the name for Dysmetria; this is seen in a finger- Shigella dysenteriae produces, (enterohemorrhagic
inability to stop a to-nose test. which interferes with the 60S Escherichia coli
movement at the ribosomal subunit and results in produces Vero toxin,
intended target? eukaryotic protein synthesis which is quite similar
inhibition? to shiga toxin)

1171. What is the name of the
hypothesis you are trying to
prove?
1172. What is the name of the major
chemotactic agent released
from Bacteria?
1173. What is the name of the major
chemotactic agent released
from Macrophages?
Alternative hypothesis 1183. What is the name of the program Al-Anon
(what is left after the null that deals with codependency
has been defined) and enabling behaviors for
F-Met-Peptides family members of alcohol
abusers?
1184. What is the name of the protein Vimentin
IL-8 (IL-1 and TNF-gamma coat that surrounds the nuclear
also) envelope?
1174. What is the name of the major Leukotriene B4 (LTB4) 1185. What is the name of the SER of Sarcoplasmic reticulum
chemotactic agent released striated muscle?
from Neutrophils? 1186. What is the name of the spinal Cauda equina
1175. What is the name of the major C5a cord passing within the
chemotactic agent released subarachnoid space and forming
from The blood serum? the spinal nerves that exit the
(Hint: it is a complement lumbar and sacral foramina?
factor.) 1187. What is the name of the Camper's fascia;
1176. What is the name of the Lipoxygenase pathway, superficial subcutaneous fascia Scarpa's fascia is devoid
pathway that produces from arachidonic acid of the abdomen containing fat? of fat. (Remember
leukotrienes? campers are fat.)
1177. What is the name of the Pterygopalatine ganglion 1188. What is the name of the T cell- Paracortex
postganglionic (I remember this as the rich area of the lymph node?
parasympathetic ganglion that only ganglion left.) 1189. What is the name of the T cell- PALS (Parietolateral
innervates The lacrimal rich area of the spleen? lymphocytic sheath)
gland and oral and nasal
mucosa? 1190. What is the name of the tremor Intention tremor; it is a
that occurs during movements sign of cerebellar
1178. What is the name of the Ciliary ganglion. (These and is absent while the person is lesions. A tremor at rest
postganglionic fibers are carried in CN III. at rest? (i.e., pill rolling) is seen
parasympathetic ganglion that Remember it like this:-ili-in in basal ganglia lesions.
innervates The papillary ciliary ganglion looks like
sphincter and ciliary muscle of the III of CN III.) 1191. What is the name of the urinary Urinary trigone
the eye? bladder where the ureters enter
and the urethra exits?
1179. What is the name of the The otic ganglion. (These
postganglionic fibers are carried in CN IX. 1192. What is the name of violent Hemiballismus
parasympathetic ganglion that Remember it like this: the - projectile movements of a limb
innervates The parotid oti-is in both otic ganglion resulting from a lesion in the
gland? and parotid gland.) subthalamic nuclei of the basal
ganglia?
1180. What is the name of the The submandibular
postganglionic ganglion. (Submandibular 1193. What is the only CN nucleus Accessory nucleus
parasympathetic ganglion that ganglion innervates the found in the cervical spinal cord?
innervates The submandibular gland; easy 1194. What is the only CN to arise from CN IV
submandibular and sublingual enough.) the dorsal surface of the
glands? midbrain?
1181. What is the name of the Chemotaxis 1195. What is the only DNA virus that Poxvirus replicates its
process in which cells migrate does not replicate its DNA in the DNA in the cytoplasm.
toward an attractant along a nucleus of the host cell?
concentration gradient? 1196. What is the only DNA virus that Hepadnavirus
1182. What is the name of the Allelic exclusion. It is to has the reverse transcriptase
process that ensures that each ensure that one B cell enzyme?
B cell produces only one produces only one Ab. 1197. What is the only DNA virus that Poxvirus
heavy-chain variable domain is not icosahedral?
and one light chain?
1198. What is the only drug that does Nicotine (but it sure has
not have an intoxication? a nasty withdrawal!)
1199. What is the only dsRNA virus? Reovirus

1200. What is the only Cryptococcus 1212. What is the only organ in The liver (in the mitochondria)
encapsulated the body that can
fungal pathogen? produce ketone bodies?
1201. What is the only Homocysteine methyl transferase 1213. What is the only organ Spleen
enzyme in the supplied by the foregut
body that uses N- artery that is of
5-methyl folate? mesodermal origin?
1202. What is the only
excitatory neuron
in the cerebellar
cortex, and what is
its
neurotransmitter?
1203. What is the only
factor of enzyme
kinetics that the
enzyme affects?
1204. What is the only
fatty acid that is
gluconeogenic?
1205. What is the only Hyaluronic acid (all sulfates bind to
glycosaminoglycan the core protein)
(GAG) that binds to
the linker portion
of the
proteoglycan?
1206. What is the only Ig
that crosses the
placenta?
1207. What is the only
laryngeal muscle
innervated by the
external laryngeal
nerve?
1208. What is the only
muscle of the soft
palate that is
innervated by CN
V3?
1209. What is the only
neuroglial cell of
mesodermal
origin?
1210. What is the only
nonmotile
pathogenic
Clostridium
species?
1211. What is the only
organ in the body
supplied by
preganglionic
sympathetic
fibers?
1228. What is the polarity
(i.e., 5'-3' or 3'-5') of a
positive sense RNA?
1229. What is the precursor
of all sphingolipids?
1230. What is the primary UMP
end product of
pyrimidine synthesis?
The granule cell is the only excitatory 1214. What is the only
neuron in the cerebellar cortex, and it pharyngeal muscle not
uses glutamate as its neurotransmitter. innervated by CN X?
All the other cells in the cerebellum
are inhibitory neurons, and they use 1215. What is the only
GABA as their neurotransmitter. Plasmodium that is
Ea (activation energy) quartan?
1216. What is the only
Rickettsia that is stable in
the environment?
Propionic acid 1217. What is the only specific
Ag-presenting cell?
1218. What is the only
sphingolipid that contains
choline and PO4?
1219. What is the only tongue
muscle innervated by CN
X?
IgG
1220. What is the only
trematode that is not
Cricothyroid muscle; all other hermaphroditic?
laryngeal muscles are innervated by
the recurrent laryngeal nerve. 1221. What is the only valve in
the heart with two cusps?
1222. What is the only vein in
The tensor veli palatine is innervated the body with a high O2
by the mandibular division of the content?
trigeminal nerve; all others are 1223. What is the only way to
innervated by CN X. increase maximum
velocity (Vmax)?
Microglia. All others are 1224. What is the only way to
neuroectodermal derivatives. increase the Vmax of a
reaction?
1225. What is the order of fuel
Clostridium perfringens use in a prolonged fast?
1226. What is the period
between falling asleep
Adrenal medulla and REM sleep called?
1227. What is the period
between going to bed
and falling asleep called?
Positive sense RNA means it can 1242. What is the rate-limiting step of
serve as mRNA and therefore has the following? Ketogenolysis
5'-3' polarity 1243. What is the rate-limiting step of
Ceramide the following? -Oxidation
1244. What is the region of the
fallopian tube where
fertilization most commonly
occurs?
Stylopharyngeus muscle is
innervated by CN IX; all other
pharyngeal muscles are
innervated by CN X.
Plasmodium malariae; the
others are tertian.
Coxiella burnetii
B cells; macrophages and
dendritic cells are nonspecific.
Sphingomyelin (lecithin also,
but it is not a sphingolipid)
Palatoglossus muscle is
innervated by CN X; all other
tongue muscles are innervated
by CN XII.
"Go to Vegas to win big"
Schistosoma have separate
males and females.
Mitral (bicuspid) valve
The pulmonary vein, which
carries oxygenated blood from
the lung to the left atrium.
Increase enzyme
concentrations
Increase the concentration of
enzymes
1. Glucose from liver glycogen
2. Glucose from
gluconeogenesis 3. Body
protein 4. Body fat
REM latency; normally it is
about 90 minutes.
Sleep latency
HMG CoA synthase
Carnitine acyltransferase
I
Ampulla
1231. What is the primary Facial expression (the second is 1245. What is the relationship As sample size increases,
method of nonverbal vocal intonation) between chance of error and the lower the chance of
communication of Sample size? error.
emotional states? 1246. What is the relationship As the standard
1232. What is the primary Hypertension between chance of error and deviation increases, the
predisposing factor Standard deviation? greater the chance of
for vascular error.
dementia? 1247. What is the reservoir for the Birds
1233. What is the primary Previous suicide attempt togavirus?
risk factor for 1248. What is the rule of one-third Upper third skeletal
suicide? regarding muscle type of the muscle, middle third
1234. What is the primary ELISA is used as a screening test esophagus? both skeletal and
screening test used because it is very sensitive; Western smooth muscle, and
to detect HIV- blot is used as a confirmatory test lower third smooth
infected individuals? because it detects antibodies muscle
Confirmatory test? (protein) to the HIV virus. 1249. What is the second arrested Metaphase of meiosis II
1235. What is the primer The hairpin loop made by reverse stage of development in the (in the oocyte of the
for the synthesis of transcriptase at the 3' end of the female reproductive cycle? graafian follicle)
the second strand in first strand is the primer. 1250. What is the second cell The CD4 T cell; the APC
production of cDNA involved in the immune is the first cell in the
from mRNA? response? immune response.
1236. What is the Orotic acid (purine metabolism) 1251. What is the size of a positive >15 mm
pyrimidine PPD test for the following?
intermediate that (Reactive) Healthy suburban
joins PRPP (5- male without any medical
Phosphoribosyl-1- illnesses
Pyrophosphate)?
1252. What is the size of a positive >10 mm
1237. What is the rate- Glycogen synthase PPD test for the following?
limiting enzyme of (Reactive) IV drug abuser
glycogen synthesis?
1253. What is the size of a positive >5 mm
1238. What is the rate- G-6-PD PPD test for the following?
limiting enzyme of (Reactive) Patient with AIDS
the HMP shunt?
1254. What is the size of a positive >5 mm
1239. What is the rate- Phosphofructokinase-1 and costs 1 PPD test for the following?
limiting enzyme on ATP (Reactive) Posttransplantation
glycolysis? patient taking
1240. What is the rate- HMG CoA reductase immunosuppressive agents
limiting step of the 1255. What is the size of a positive >10 mm
following? PPD test for the following?
Cholesterol synthesis (Reactive) Recent immigrant
1241. What is the rate- Acetyl CoA carboxylase from India
limiting step of the 1256. What is the size of the 70S ribosomes in
following? Fatty prokaryotic ribosome? prokaryotes and 80S
acid synthesis ribosomes in eukaryotes

1257. What is the start codon, and what
does it code for in eukaryotes?
Prokaryotes?
1258. What is the statistical term for the Specificity (it deals with
proportion of truly nondiseased
persons in the screened
population who are identified as
nondiseased?
The one start codon, 1271. What is the term for a single Hapten (not
AUG, in eukaryotes isolated antigenic determinant? immunogenic)
codes for methionine 1272. What is the term for a substance Cytokine. If a cytokine
and in prokaryotes secreted by a leukocyte in affects another class of
formylmethionine. response to a stimulus? leukocytes, it is called
an interleukin.
the healthy) 1273. What is the term for a unit of A gene (a rather simple
DNA that encodes a particular definition but accurate)
protein or RNA molecule?
1259. What is the stimulus for the
classical pathway activation?
1260. What is the T-cell area of the
spleen?
1261. What is the teratogenic effect
associated with lithium?
1262. What is the term for a complete
aversion to all sexual contact?
1263. What is the term for a deficiency
or absence of sexual fantasies or
desires?
1264. What is the term for a delay in
the onset of normal IgG synthesis
seen in the fifth to sixth month of
life?
1265. What is the term for a direct
connection between the intestine
and the external environment
through the umbilicus because
the vitelline duct persists?
1266. What is the term for Ags that
activate B cells without T-cell
signaling?
1267. What is the term for an
immunogenic agent that is too
small to elicit an immune
response?
1268. What is the term for an inhibited
female orgasm?
1269. What is the term for any stimulus Reinforcement
that increases the probability of a
response happening?
1270. What is the term for a
schizophrenic episode lasting
longer than 30 days with full
return to former functioning
capacity?
Ag-Ab complexes. The 1274. What is the term for Candida Thrush
alternative pathway infection of the oral mucosa?
protects without use of 1275. What is the term for chemicals Buffers (remember that
Abs; the pathogen is that keep the pH constant buffers are best when
the stimulus. despite the formation of acids they are used in a pH
PALS and bases during metabolism? range near its pK)
1276. What is the term for conversion Transcription (C comes
Epstein-cardiac of a dsDNA molecule to the before L in the
anomaly of the base sequence of an ssRNA alphabet, and
tricuspid valve molecule? transCription comes
Sexual aversion before transLation)
disorder 1277. What is the term for different Isotypes
Hypoactive sexual classes and subclasses of the
desire disorder same gene products?
1278. What is the term for ejaculation Premature ejaculation
Transient before or immediately after
hypogammaglobinemia vaginal penetration on a regular
of infancy; it usually basis?
resolves by age 16 to 1279. What is the term for failure of Cryptorchidism;
30 months. the testes to descend into the normally the testes
Vitelline fistula scrotum? descend into the
scrotum within 3 months
of birth.
1280. What is the term for failure to Fixation (arrested
give up infantile patterns of development)
Thymus-independent behavior for mature ones?
Ags 1281. What is the term for fungi that Dimorphic
can convert from hyphal to
Hapten; if it is coupled yeast forms?
with a carrier, it may 1282. What is the term for having Transvestite fetishism
become immunogenic. fantasies or dressing in female
clothes for sexual arousal by
Anorgasmia. (The heterosexual men?
overall prevalence is
30%.)
Brief psychotic
disorder. (In
schizophreniform
disorder the symptoms
last longer than 6
months.)

1283. What is the term for headaches, Posttraumatic 1294. What is the term for taking an Translation
inability to concentrate, sleep stress disorder. mRNA molecule and arranging
disturbances; avoidance of (Important: the AA sequence forming a
associated stimuli; reliving events as symptoms must be protein?
dreams or flashbacks following a exhibited for 1295. What is the term for the ability Reliability (think of it as
psychologically stressful event longer than 1 of a test to measure something "nice grouping" or
beyond the normal range of month.) consistently? "precise")
expectation?
1284. What is the term for hyphae with Pseudohyphae
constrictions at each septum that are
commonly seen in Candida albicans?
1285. What is the term for involuntary Vaginismus; it is the 1296. What is the term for the degree Validity (remember,
constriction of the outer third of the female to which a test measures what it reliability is necessary
vagina to prevent penile counterpart of is intended to measure? but not the only thing
penetration? premature needed for validity)
ejaculation. 1297. What is the term for the Vascular dementia. It is
1286. What is the term for making up Confabulation; it is dementia characterized by characterized as a
stories regarding past experiences commonly seen in decremental or patchy stepwise deterioration in
because of an inability to retrieve Korsakoff's deterioration in cognitive cognitive function.
them? syndrome. function due to a
1287. What is the term for new made-up Neologisms. cerebrovascular accident?
words? Thomas Jefferson 1298. What is the term for the Range
noted, "Necessity difference between the highest
obliges us to and the lowest score in a
neologize." population?
(Abnormal use of 1299. What is the term for the Epispadia
neologisms is external urethra opening onto
known as the dorsal surface of the penis?
neolalism.)
1300. What is the term for the Hypospadia
1288. What is the term for processing an Ag processing; it is external urethra opening onto
APC's pinocytosed material by fusing needed for class I the ventral surface of the
with a lysosomal granule and molecules. Class II penis?
cleaving the Ag into peptide molecules have an
fragments? invariant chain that 1301. What is the term for the first 3 Menses. (Ovulation
protects them from to 5 days of the female occurs 14 days before
breakdown. reproductive cycle? the beginning of
menses.)
1289. What is the term for production of a Reverse
DNA copy from an RNA molecule? transcription 1302. What is the term for the Immunogenicity;
inherent ability to induce a antigenicity refers to
1290. What is the term for pupils that react Argyll Robertson specific immune response? Ab/lymphocyte reaction
normally to accommodation but have pupils to a specific substance.
bilateral loss of constriction in
response to light? 1303. What is the term for the number Valence
of Ag-binding sites on an Ig?
1291. What is the term for recurrent and Dyspareunia. It is a
persistent pain before, after, or common complaint 1304. What is the term for the number Prevalence rate
during sexual intercourse? in women who of individuals who have an
have been raped attribute or disease at a
or sexually abused. particular point in time?

1292. What is the term for repetitive Compulsions. They 1305. What is the term for the number Incidence rate
actions blocking recurring bad are actions done of new events occurring in a
thoughts? to fix the bad population divided by the
thoughts. population at risk?
Obsessions are the 1306. What is the term for the number Anticipation, associated
thoughts. of trinucleotide repeats with fragile X syndrome;
1293. What is the term for RNA-dependent Reverse increasing with successive Huntington's disease is
DNA polymerase? transcriptase generations and correlating also associated with a
with increased severity of decrease in onset of
disease? age.

1307. What is the term for pI (isoelectric point) 1317. What is the term for thymic Negative selection.
the pH at which the induction of T cells with high- This helps to prevent
structure carries no affinity Ag receptors for self that autoimmune diseases.
charge? are programmed to undergo
1308. What is the term for pK (think of it as where half is base apoptosis?
the pH range where and half is acid) 1318. What is the term for vitamin D Rickets prior to
the dissociation of deficiency prior to epiphyseal fusion, osteomalacia
H+ occurs? fusion? if the deficiency
occurs after
epiphyseal fusion.
1309. What is the term for Median (think of it as the halfway 1319. What is the term given to Arboviruses
the point on a scale point) arthropod-borne viruses? (bunyavirus, flavivirus,
that divides the and togavirus)
population into two 1320. What is the term of the viral growth Eclipse period
equal parts? period when no viruses can be
1310. What is the term for Specific rate (e.g., men aged 55-60) found intracellularly?
the rate measured 1321. What is the term to describe a man Primary erectile
for a subgroup of a who has Never been able to disorder
population? achieve an erection?
1311. What is the term for Test-retest reliability 1322. What is the term to describe a man Selective erectile
the same results who has The ability to have an disorder
achieved again on erection sometimes and other
testing a subject a times not?
second or third
time? 1323. What is the term to describe a man Secondary erectile
who has Used to be able to disorder (Male
1312. What is the term for Avidity (more than one binding site) achieve an erection but now erectile disorder is
the strength of cannot? the same as
association between impotence.)
multiple Abbinding
sites and multiple 1324. What is the term to describe Mast cells
antigenic basophils that have left the
determinants? bloodstream and entered a tissue?

1313. What is the term for Affinity (one of each) 1325. What is the term to describe Ego syntonic
the strength of the homosexuals who Are
association between comfortable with their own person
Ag and an Ab? and agree with their sense of self?

1314. What is the term for Avidity. There is a positive 1326. What is the term to describe Ego dystonic
the strength of the correlation between valence homosexuals who Are
association between numbers and avidity. uncomfortable with their own
Ags and Abs? person and disagree with their
sense of self?
1315. What is the term for Accuracy (think of it as all the trues,
the total percentage because they are the ones correctly 1327. What is the term to describe Dissociative fugue.
of correct answers identified) inability to recall the past and (Patients are unaware
selected on a possible assumption of a of memory loss.)
screening test? completely new identity?

1316. What is the term for Argyll Robertson pupils accompany 1328. What is the term to describe Loose association
the type of pupil a loss of both direct and consensual jumping from one topic to the next
seen in light reflexes, but the without any connection?
neurosyphilis, and accommodation-convergence 1329. What is the term to describe the 5'- Palindrome
what ocular reaction remains intact. It can also be 3' sequence of one strand being
reflexes are lost? seen in patients with pineal tumors the same as the opposite 5'-3'
or multiple sclerosis. strand?
1330. What is the term to describe the Mean
average?

1331. What is the term to
describe the inability to
feel any pleasant
emotions?
1332. What is the term to
describe the limited
portion of an Ag that is
recognized by an Ab?
Anhedonia 1345. What judgment states that the Substituted
decision, by rights of autonomy and judgment. It is
privacy, belongs to the patient, but if made by the
the patient is incompetent to decide, person who best
Antigenic determinant the medical decision is based on knows the patient,
(epitope) subjective wishes? not the closest
relative.
1346. What large, spore-forming, gram- Clostridium tetani
positive anaerobic rod is associated
with infections due to puncture
wounds and trauma?
1333. What is the term to Hypotonia (rag doll 1347. What law was adopted to shield Good Samaritan
describe the soft, flabby appearance) physicians from liability when helping Law. (Physicians
feel and diminished at the scene of an accident? are not required
reflexes seen in patients to stop and help.)
with acute cerebellar injury 1348. What level of mental retardation is Mild (50-70)
to the deep cerebellar characterized by Being self-
nuclei? supportive with minimal guidance and
1334. What is the term when the Volkmann's contracture able to be gainfully employed
brachial artery is (includes 85% of the mentally
compressed, resulting in retarded)?
ischemic contracture of the 1349. What level of mental retardation is Moderate (35-49)
hand? characterized by Can work in
1335. What is the tetrad of Rigors, leukopenia, decrease sheltered workshops and learn simple
Jarisch-Herxheimer in blood pressure, and tasks but need supervision?
reaction? increase in temperature 1350. What level of mental retardation is Severe (range 20-
1336. What is the tetrad of SHIP: Shifting of the aorta, characterized by Having the ability 34)
tetralogy of Fallot? Hypertrophy of the right to communicate and learn basic habits
ventricle, Interventricular but training is usually not helpful?
septal defect, Pulmonary 1351. What level of mental retardation is Profound (I.Q.
stenosis characterized by Needing a highly range < 20)
1337. What is the triad of Ptosis (eyelid drooping), structured environment with constant
Horner's syndrome? miosis (pupillary constriction), supervision?
and anhydrosis (lack of 1352. What limb of the internal capsule is Anterior limb of
sweating) occur when the not supplied by the middle cerebral the internal
preganglionic sympathetic artery? capsule is
fibers from T1-to T4 are supplied by the
obstructed. anterior cerebral
1338. What is the triad of NPH? Dementia Urinary artery.
incontinence Gait apraxia 1353. What lipoprotein is formed if an IDL LDL
(NPH wet, wacky, wobbly) particle acquires cholesterol from a
1339. What is the triad of Thrombocytopenia, eczema, HDL particle?
Wiskott-Aldrich and immunodeficiency is the 1354. What liver enzyme, for triglyceride Glycerol kinase
syndrome? triad of this X-linked recessive synthesis, converts glycerol to
disorder. glycerol-3-phosphate?
1340. What is the valence of an The number of Ags that the 1355. What lower extremity nerve is Superior gluteal
Ig molecule equal to? Ab can bind described by the following motor nerve
1341. What is the vector for The reduviid bug loss? Loss of abduction of the hip
Chagas disease? resulting in Trendelenburg gait
1342. What is the vector for The sandfly 1356. What lower extremity nerve is Obturator nerve
Leishmania infections? described by the following motor
1343. What is the vector for Aedes mosquito loss? Loss of adduction of the thigh
yellow fever?
1344. What is the vector of The tsetse fly
African sleeping sickness?

1357. What lower extremity nerve is
described by the following
motor loss? Loss of eversion;
inversion, dorsiflexion, and
plantarflexion of the foot
1358. What lower extremity nerve is Sciatic nerve
described by the following
motor loss? Loss of flexion of
the knee and all function
below the knee, weakened
extension of the thigh
Common peroneal nerve
1368. What malignant tumor of the Gestational trophoblastic
trophoblast causes high neoplasia (GTN or
levels of hCG and may choriocarcinoma)
occur after a hydatidiform
mole, abortion, or normal
pregnancy?
1369. What mast cell mediator is a Eosinophil chemotactic
chemotactic agent? factor A
1359. What lower extremity nerve is Tibial nerve
described by the following
motor loss? Loss of flexion of
the knees and toes,
plantarflexion, and weakened
inversion
1360. What lower extremity nerve is
described by the following
motor loss? Loss of knee
extension, weakened hip
flexion
1361. What lymphoid organ has the
following characteristics: outer
and inner cortical areas,
encapsulation, germinal
centers, and high endothelial
venules?
1362. What lymphoid organ is
characterized by germinal
centers, plasma cells that
secrete IgA, and no
encapsulation?
1363. What lysosomal enzyme is
deficient in Gaucher's
disease?
1364. What lysosomal enzyme is
deficient in Niemann-Pick
disease?
1365. What lysosomal enzyme is
deficient in Tay-Sachs
disease?
1366. What maintains the osmotic
gradient that is critical to the
concentrating ability of the
kidney?
1367. What major side effect of
neuroleptics is characterized
by pill rolling, shuffling gait,
and tremors that abate during
sleep?
1380. What muscle acts in all ranges
of motion of the arm?
1381. What muscle is most superior
in the orbit?
1382. What muscle is the chief flexor
of the hip?
1383. What muscle keeps the stapes
taut against the oval window?
1384. What muscle laterally rotates
the femur to unlock the knee?
1370. What medication is used to
help alcoholics avoid
relapse by decreasing
glutamate receptor activity?
1371. What MHC class acts to
remove foreign Ags from
Femoral nerve the body?
1372. What MHC class functions
as a target for elimination of
abnormal host cells?
Lymph nodes
1373. What MHC class of antigens
do all nucleated cells carry
on their surface
Peyer's patch membranes?
1374. What microaerophile is a
motile gram-negative
curved rod with polar
flagella that causes
Glucocerebrosidase infectious diarrhea at low
doses (<500)?
1375. What mineral is required for
Sphingomyelinase cross-linking of collagen
molecules into fibrils?
1376. What molecule
Hexosaminidase A differentiates the MHC class
I from II Ag? (Hint: it's in the
light chain.)
The venae recta maintain 1377. What molecule that is
the gradient via needed to trigger T cell
countercurrent flow. activation is noncovalently
linked to TCR?
Tardive dyskinesia. It 1378. What mosquito is the vector
persists even after for dengue fever?
treatment is discontinued 1379. What motile, gram-negative Helicobacter pylori
and has no treatment. spiral bacillus with flagella
Focus is on monitoring for is oxidase positive, urease
side effects and positive, and associated with
prevention. gastritis, peptic ulcer
disease, and stomach
cancer?
Deltoid 1397. What negative sense RNA virus is
associated with intracytoplasmic
Levator palpebrae inclusion bodies called Negri bodies?
superioris 1398. What negative sense RNA virus is
Psoas major associated with parotitis, pancreatitis,
and orchitis?
Stapedius muscle 1399. What nematode is known as
hookworms? What is the treatment?
Popliteus
Acamprosate (the number
of glutamate receptors
increases with chronic
alcohol abuse)
MHC class II Ags. This is
accomplished via CD4 T
cells.
MHC class I Ags (the
endogenous pathway). This
allows the body to eliminate
tumor cells, virus-infected
cellsanything the body
recognizes as nonself via
CD8+ T cells.
MHC class I antigens; they
are also found on the
surface of platelets.
Campylobacter jejuni
The enzyme lysyl oxidase
requires Cu2+and O2 to
function properly.
The Beta-2-microglobin. It is
the separately encoded
Beta-chain for class I Ags.
CD3 molecule. It transmits
signals to the inside of the T
cell to trigger activation
Aedes (the same for yellow
fever)
Rabies
Mumps
Necator
americanus is
treated with
mebendazole and
iron therapy.
1385. What muscle of the middle ear
is innervated by CN VII?
1386. What muscle of the middle ear
is innervated by the
mandibular division of CN V?
1387. What muscle or muscles are
innervated by the following
nerves? Long thoracic nerve
1388. What muscle or muscles are
innervated by the following
nerves? Suprascapular nerve
1389. What muscle or muscles are
innervated by the following
nerves? Thoracodorsal nerve
1390. What muscle or muscles are
innervated by the following
nerves? Upper subscapularis
nerve
1391. What muscles insert in or on
the intertubercular groove of
the humerus?
1392. What muscles in the hand
adduct the fingers?
1393. What muscles make up the
rotator cuff?
1394. What must be supplemented in
patients with medium-chain
acyl CoA dehydrogenase
(MCAD) deficiency?
1395. What naturally occurring
substances mimic the effects of
opioids?
1396. What negative sense RNA virus Measles (rubeola)
is associated with cough,
coryza, and conjunctivitis with
photophobia?
1412. What nerves carry the
sensory and motor
components of the blink
reflex?
1413. What nerves provide sensory
innervation above the vocal
cords? Below the vocal
cords?
The stapedius muscle
Tensor tympani
Serratus anterior
1402.
Supraspinatus and
infraspinatus
1403.
Latissimus dorsi
1404.
Subscapularis
"Lady between two
Majors": latissimus dorsi,
pectoralis major, and
teres major
The Palmar interosseus
ADducts, whereas the
Dorsal interosseus
ABducts (PAD and DAB)
SITSSubscapularis,
Infraspinatus, Teres minor,
Supraspinatus
Short-chain fatty acids
Enkephalins
CN V1 carries the sensory
and CN VII carries the
motor component of the
blink reflex.
The internal laryngeal
nerve supplies sensory
information from above the
vocal cords while the
recurrent laryngeal nerve
supplies sensory
information below.
1400. What nematode is known as Enterobius
pinworms? What is the treatment? vermicularis; the
treatment is
albendazole.
1401. What nematode is known as Trichuris trichiura
whipworms? What is the treatment? is treated with
albendazole.
What nerve and artery could be Axillary nerve and
affected in a humeral neck fracture? posterior humeral
artery
What nerve and artery could be Radial nerve and
affected in a midshaft humeral the profunda
fracture? brachii artery
What nerve is associated with the Musculocutaneous
following functions? Flex the nerve
shoulder, flex the elbow, and supinate
the elbow
1405. What nerve is associated with the Median nerve
following functions? Flex the wrist
and digits, pronate the wrist and the
LOAF (Lumbricales, Opponens
pollicis, Abductor pollicis brevis,
Flexor pollicis brevis) muscles of the
hand
1406. What nerve is associated with the Ulnar nerve
following functions? Innervation of
the flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digiti
profundus (pinky and ring fingers),
and the intrinsic muscles of the hand
1407. What nerve is associated with the Radial nerve
following functions? Supinate the
wrist, extend the wrist and digits,
extend the shoulder and elbow
1408. What nerve is compromised in carpal Median nerve
tunnel syndrome?
1409. What nerve lesion presents with ape Median nerve
or simian hand as its sign? lesion
1410. What nerve or nerves supply general CN IX and X
sensation and taste to the posterior
third of the tongue?
1411. What nerve roots constitute the C1 through C4
cervical plexus?
1423. What nucleus, found in the intermediate Clarke's nucleus
zone of the spinal cord, sends
unconscious proprioception to the
cerebellum?
1424. What nucleus of the hypothalamus is the Ventromedial
satiety center, regulating food intake? nucleus; lesions
here result in
obesity.
1425. What nucleus of the hypothalamus Suprachiasmatic
receives visual input from the retina and nucleus
helps set the circadian rhythm?
1414. What nerve supplies general Lingual nerve of CN V3 1426. What nucleus supplies the preganglionic Edinger-
sensation to the anterior two- parasympathetic fibers to the ciliary Westphal
thirds of the tongue? ganglion? nucleus (via CN
1415. What nerve supplies taste Chorda tympani of CN VII III)
sensation to the anterior two- 1427. What obligate extracellular fungus is Pneumocystis
thirds of the tongue? silver stain-positive and is associated carinii
1416. What neuronal cell bodies Preganglionic sympathetic with pneumonia in patients with AIDS?
are contained in the neurons 1428. What ocular ganglion is affected if the Ciliary ganglion
intermediate zone of the pupil on the affected side sluggishly producing a
spinal cord? (T1-L2) responds to light with normal tonic pupil
1417. What neuropsychologic test The Halsted-Reitan battery. accommodation?
has five basic scales testing It consists of finger 1429. What ocular muscle Abducts the Lateral rectus
for the presence and oscillation, speech sound eyeball and is involved in horizontal (CN VI) (LR6
localization of brain perception, rhythm, tactual, conjugate gaze? SO4)3
dysfunction? and category testing. 1430. What ocular muscle Adducts the Medial rectus
1418. What neuropsychologic test Bender Visual Motor eyeball and is involved in horizontal (CN III) (LR6
shows nine designs to the Gestalt Test conjugate gaze? SO4)3
patient, then asks for recall of 1431. What ocular muscle Depresses and Superior
as many as possible? abducts the eyeball? Oblique (CN IV)
1419. What neurotransmitter Glutamate (LR6 SO4)3
inhibits the optic nerve 1432. What ocular muscle Depresses and Inferior rectus
bipolar cell and shuts off in adducts the eyeball? (CN III) (LR6
response to light? SO4)3
1420. What neurotransmitter is Histamine 1433. What ocular muscle Elevates and Inferior Oblique
associated with sedation and abducts the eyeball? (CN III) (LR6
weight gain? SO4)3
1421. What nonmotile gram- Shigella 1434. What ocular muscle Elevates and Superior rectus
negative, non-lactose- adducts the eyeball? (CN III) (LR6
fermenting facultative SO4)3
anaerobic rod uses the
human colon as its only 1435. What operant conditioning therapy or Stimulus control
reservoir and is transmitted modification is described as Having a
by fecal-oral spread? stimulus take over the control of the
behavior (unintentionally)?
1422. What non-spore-forming Corynebacterium
gram-positive aerobic rod diphtheriae 1436. What operant conditioning therapy or Biofeedback
produces bull neck, sore modification is described as Providing
throat with the person with information regarding
pseudomembranes, his or her internal responses to stimuli
myocarditis, and sometimes with methods of controlling them?
respiratory obstructions?

1437. What operant conditioning therapy Shaping (successive 1450. What organism is associated with the Clostridium
or modification is described as approximation) following types of diarrhea? Watery perfringens
Reinforcing successive attempts diarrhea from beef, poultry, or gravies
that lead to the desired goal 1451. What organism is commonly associated Pasteurella
(gradual improvement)? with a cellulitis from an animal bite? multocida
1438. What operant conditioning therapy Fading 1452. What organism would you suspect in a Bacillus cereus
or modification is described as patient with diarrhea after eating rice?
Removing a reinforcement (without
the patient knowing) gradually 1453. What organ is responsible for the The kidneys
over time to stop a condition? elimination of excess nitrogen from the excrete the
body? excess nitrogen
from the body as
urea in the urine.
1439. What operant conditioning therapy Extinction 1454. What papillae are responsible for Circumvallate
or modification is described as sweet taste? papillae
Stopping the reinforcement that is 1455. What papillae are touch receptors on Filiform papillae
leading to an undesired behavior? the tongue and send their sensations
1440. What organelle is responsible for Nucleolus. Ribosomal via CN V3 (mandibular division)?
ribosomal RNA synthesis? assembly also takes 1456. What papillae send their senses via Fungiform
place in the chorda tympani of CN VII? papillae
nucleolus.
1457. What paraphilia is defined as A male Frotteurism
1441. What organelles make ATP, have Mitochondria rubbing his genitals on a fully clothed
their own dsDNA, and can female to achieve orgasm?
synthesize protein?
1458. What paraphilia is defined as Coprophilia
1442. What organelle synthesizes Free polysomes. Combining sex with defecation?
proteins that are intended to stay Membrane-
within the cell? associated 1459. What paraphilia is defined as Urophilia
polysomes are the Combining sex with urination?
site of protein 1460. What paraphilia is defined as Deriving Masochism
synthesis destined to sexual pleasure from being abused or
leave the cell. in pain?
1443. What organ functions to keep Liver 1461. What paraphilia is defined as Deriving Sadism
blood glucose levels normal sexual pleasure from other peoples'
through both well-fed and fasting pain?
states and produces ketones in 1462. What paraphilia is defined as Deriving Voyeurism
response to increased fatty acid sexual pleasure from watching others
oxidation? having sex, grooming, or undressing?
1444. What organism causes Q fever? Coxiella burnetii 1463. What paraphilia is defined as Having Exhibitionism
1445. What organism is associated with Diphyllobothrium a recurrent desire to expose the
megaloblastic anemia? latum genitals to strangers?
1446. What organism is associated with Enterohemorhagic 1464. What paraphilia is defined as Having Necrophilia
the following types of diarrhea? Escherichia coli sex with cadavers?
Bloody diarrhea associated with 1465. What paraphilia is defined as Sexual Zoophilia
hamburger ingestion fantasies or practices with animals?
1447. What organism is associated with Rotavirus 1466. What paraphilia is defined as Sexual Pedophilia
the following types of diarrhea? urges toward children?
Day care-associated diarrhea in
1467. What parasite found in raw fish can Diphyllobothrium
infants
produce vitamin B12 deficiency? latum
1448. What organism is associated with Vibrio
1468. What parasympathetic nucleus is found Dorsal motor
the following types of diarrhea? parahaemolyticus
on the floor of the fourth ventricle and nucleus of CN X
Diarrhea associated with raw or
supplies preganglionic fibers
undercooked shellfish
innervating the terminal ganglias of the
1449. What organism is associated with Vibrio cholera thorax, foregut, and midgut?
the following types of diarrhea?
Rice water stools

1469. What part of a neuron receives Dendrites 1485. What pattern of inheritance X-linked recessive
information? receive does G-6-PD deficiency
information, follow?
whereas axons 1486. What percentage of children 100%, with about 20%
send born to HIV-positive mothers remaining positive after 1
information. will test positive for HIV at year
1470. What part of the 30S ribosome binds to 16S subunit birth?
the Shine-Dalgarno sequence? 1487. What percent of sexual abuse 50%. The uncles and
1471. What part of the ANS (i.e., PNS or CNS) Parasympathetic cases are committed by family older siblings are the
controls the constriction of the pupil in members? most likely perpetrators,
response to light? although stepfathers also
have a high rate.
1472. What part of the ANS is affected in the The 1488. What percent of unwed 50%, with 50% of them
biofeedback model of operant biofeedback mothers are teenagers? having the child
conditioning? model is based 1489. What personality disorder Antisocial personality
on the affects 75% of the prison
parasympathetic population?
nervous system.
1490. What pharyngeal pouch and The second pharyngeal
1473. What part of the heart forms Anterior Right ventricle groove persist when a pouch and groove
wall? pharyngeal fistula is formed?
1474. What part of the heart forms Apex? Tip of the left 1491. What phase of Food and Drug Phase III. It is considered
ventricle Administration approval tests the definitive test.
1475. What part of the heart forms Base? Left atrium and The efficacy and occurrence of
tip of the right side effects in large group of
atrium patient volunteers?
1476. What part of the heart forms Left ventricle 1492. What phase of Food and Drug Phase II
Diaphragmatic wall? and tip of right Administration approval tests
ventricle The protocol and dose levels in
1477. What part of the heart forms Left Left ventricle a small group of patient
border? and auricle of volunteers?
left atrium 1493. What phase of Food and Drug Phase I
1478. What part of the heart forms Posterior Left atrium Administration approval tests
wall? The safety in healthy
volunteers?
1479. What part of the heart forms Superior Conus
border? arteriosus of the 1494. What phase of Interphase is G1 phase; G2 and S
right ventricle haploid (N)? phase are diploid (2N).
and right and 1495. What phase of the female The secretory phase is
left auricles reproductive cycle is 14 days progesterone-
1480. What part of the heart forms The right Right atrium long? dependent and 14 days
border? long, whereas the length
of the proliferative phase
1481. What part of the inner ear contains the Saccule and varies
gravity receptors for changes in the utricle
position of the head? 1496. What phobia is described as Agoraphobia. It also
the fear of open spaces? means having a sense of
1482. What pathway uses HMG CoA Cholesterol humiliation or
synthetase in the cytoplasm? biosynthesis hopelessness.
1483. What pattern of genetic transmission X-linked 1497. What picornavirus is associated Coxsackie A
affects only M and has no M-to-M recessive with hand-foot-and-mouth
transmission, and mother is usually an disease?
unaffected carrier?
1498. What pineal hormone's release Melatonin. It is a light-
1484. What pattern of genetic transmission is Mitochondrial is inhibited by daylight and sensitive hormone that is
characterized by no transmission from inheritance increased dramatically during associated with
M, maternal inheritance, and the sleep? sleepiness.
potential for the disease to affect both
sons and daughters of affected F?

1499. What pituitary hormone is inhibited TSH. 5-HT and 1514. What protein of the HIV virus does ELISA P24
during sleep? prolactin increase detect to determine whether a patient is
during sleep, and HIV positive?
dopamine levels 1515. What protein prevents ssDNA from Single-strand
decrease during reannealing during DNA replication? DNA binding
sleep. protein
1500. What portion of the intervertebral Nucleus pulposus 1516. What protozoal parasite forms flasked- Giardia lamblia
disk is a remnant of the notochord? shaped lesions in the duodenum, is (treat with
1501. What portion of the pericardium Fibrous pericardium transmitted via fecal-oral route, and is metronidazole)
adheres to the tunica adventitia of commonly seen in campers who drank
the great vessels? stream water?
1502. What potentially lethal side effect Agranulocytosis; 1517. What protozoal parasite results in Entamoeba
of clozapine should be monitored approximately 2% dysentery with blood and pus in the stool, histolytica
with frequent blood drawing? develop this side is transmitted via fecal-oral route, is (treat with
effect. diagnosed by cysts or trophozoites in the metronidazole)
1503. What preganglionic sympathetic Thoracic splanchnic stool, and forms liver abscesses and
fibers are responsible for fibers inverted flask-shaped lesions in the large
innervating the foregut and the intestine?
midgut? 1518. What purine base is contained in inosine Hypoxanthine
1504. What preganglionic sympathetic Lumbar splanchnics monophosphate? (remember,
fibers are responsible for IMP is a
innervating the smooth muscle and precursor for
glands of the pelvis and the AMP and GMP)
hindgut? 1519. What P value defines whether the hull P = .05; P < .05
1505. What projective test asks the patient TAT (Thematic hypothesis should or should not be rejects the null
to tell a story about what is going apperception test) rejected? hypothesis
on in the pictures, evaluating the 1520. What pyrimidine base is found In both Cytosine
conflicts, drives, and emotions of DNA and RNA?
the individual? 1521. What pyrimidine base is found Only in Thymine
1506. What prokaryotic positioning EF-G of the 50S DNA?
enzyme in translation is blocked by subunit 1522. What pyrimidine base is found Only in Uracil
the following? Erythromycin RNA?
1507. What prokaryotic positioning IF-2 of the 30S 1523. What pyrimidine base is produced by Uracil
enzyme in translation is blocked by subunit deaminating cytosine?
the following? Streptomycin
1524. What rare form of dementia is associated Pick's disease
1508. What prokaryotic positioning EF-Tu and EF-Ts of with personality changes and affects the
enzyme in translation is blocked by the 30S ribosomal frontal and temporal lobes?
the following? Tetracycline subunit
1525. What rate is indicated by 1- sensitivity? False-negative
1509. What protective covering adheres Pia mater rate
to the spinal cord and CNS tissue?
1526. What rate is indicated by 1-specificity? False-positive
1510. What protein allows Mycoplasma to P1 protein rate
attach to the respiratory epithelium?
1527. What rate removes any difference Standardized
1511. What protein carries free fatty acids Albumin between two populations, based on a rate
to the liver? variable, to makes groups equal?
1512. What protein catalyzes the DNA ligase 1528. What receptors are the best markers for CD16 and
formation of the last PDE bond NK cells? CD56
between the Okazaki fragments to
produce a continuous strand? 1529. What reflex enables the eyes to remain The vestibulo-
focused on a target while the head is ocular reflex
1513. What protein is required by Sigma factor turning?
prokaryotic RNA polymerases to
initiate transcription at the promoter
region of DNA?

1530. What reflex, seen in The Babinski reflex is present in 1542. What right-to-left shunt occurs Persistent truncus
lesions of the UMN lesions. Muscle atrophy due when only one vessel receives arteriosus
corticospinal tract, is to disuse, hyperreflexia, spastic blood from both the right and
an extension of the paralysis, increased muscle tone, left ventricles?
great toe with fanning and weakness are commonly seen 1543. What right-to-left shunt occurs Transposition of the
the of remaining toes? in UMN lesions. when the aorta opens into the great vessels arises from
1531. What region of the Ig Hypervariable region right ventricle and the a failure of the
does not change with pulmonary trunk opens into the aorticopulmonary
class switching? left ventricle? septum to grow in a
1532. What region of the Nasopharynx spiral.
pharynx does the
eustachian tube enter?
1533. What regulates the The rate of -oxidation 1544. What scale assesses a rank Ordinal scale (e.g.,
rate of ketone body order classification but does not faster/slower,
formation? tell the difference between the taller/shorter)
1534. What remains patent in A patent processus vaginalis two groups?
a hydrocele of the 1545. What scale has a true zero Ratio scale
testis, allowing point, graded into equal
peritoneal fluid to increments, and also orders
form into a cyst? them?
1535. What renal side effect Nearly 25% of patients taking 1546. What scale separates things Nominal scale
is commonly seen in lithium develop polyuria and into groups without defining the (categorical, e.g., male
patients taking lithium? polydipsia. relationship between them? or female)
1536. What restriction MstII; changing codon 6 (from A 1547. What segment of the Large intestine. Water is
endonuclease site is to T) destroys the restriction site. gastrointestinal tract lacks villi, passively removed from
destroyed in sickle - has crypts, and actively the lumen.
globin allele? transports sodium out of its
1537. What results when the Cleft lip lumen?
maxillary prominence 1548. What segment of the small Duodenum
fails to fuse with the intestine is associated with
medial nasal Brunner's glands?
prominence? 1549. What segments of the L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh;
1538. What results when the Cleft palate lumbosacral plexus form the L4 to S3, leg)
palatine prominences following nerves? Common
fail to fuse with the peroneal nerve
other side? 1550. What segments of the L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh;
1539. What reticular nuclei The raphe nuclei lumbosacral plexus form the L4 to S3, leg)
synthesize serotonin following nerves? Femoral
from L-tryptophan and nerve
plays a role in mood, 1551. What segments of the L2 to L4 (L2 to L4, thigh;
aggression, and lumbosacral plexus form the L4 to S3, leg)
inducing sleep? following nerves? Obturator
1540. What ribosomal The small subunit (40S) binds first. nerve
subunit binds first to 1552. What segments of the L4 to S3 (L2 to L4, thigh;
the mRNA strand? lumbosacral plexus form the L4 to S3, leg)
1541. What ribosomal 60S and 40S. The large subunits following nerves? Tibial nerve
subunit sizes do (60S) are made in the nucleolus
eukaryotic cells have? and the small subunits (40S) are
made in the nucleus.

1553. What sensory system Bilateral degeneration of the 1562. What small gram-negative facultative Francisella
is affected in the late dorsal columns in the spinal cord intracellular rod is transmitted to tularensis
spinal cord secondary to syphilis is known as human host by Dermacentor tick bite?
manifestation of tabes dorsalis. A high-step gait is 1563. What small gram-positive, non-spore- Listeria
syphilis? seen in patients with tabes dorsalis forming rod is a facultative intracellular monocytogenes
because of the inability to feel the parasite that grows in the cold and is
ground beneath their feet. associated with unpasteurized milk
1554. What serotonin Trazodone products?
reuptake inhibitor's 1564. What somatoform disorder is described Somatization
major sexual side as Having a F:M ratio of 20:1, onset disorder
effect is priapism? before age 30, and having 4 pains (2
gastrointestinal, 1 sexual, 1 neurologic)?
1555. What seven Esophagus, SVC, vagus nerve, 1565. What somatoform disorder is described Conversion
structures are found azygos vein, thoracic duct, thymus, as La belle indiffrence, suggestive of disorder
in more than one and phrenic nerve true physical ailment because of
mediastinum? alteration of function?
1556. What sided muscle Contralateral muscle weakness 1566. What somatoform disorder is described Hypochondriasis
weakness is seen in when above the decussation, as Preoccupied with illness or death, (they will begin
an UMN corticospinal whereas an UMN injury below the persisting despite reassurance, lasting with "I think I
tract injury above the pyramidal decussation results in longer than 6 months? have...")
pyramidal ipsilateral muscle weakness. 1567. What somatoform disorder is described Somatoform
decussation? as Severe, prolonged pain that pain disorder
1557. What signals are used Phosphorylation of mannose persists with no cause being found,
to direct an enzyme residues disrupts activities of daily living?
to a lysosome? 1568. What somatoform disorder is described Body
1558. What skin type on the Thick skin as Unrealistic negative opinion of dysmorphic
palms and soles is personal appearance, seeing self as disorder
characterized by the ugly?
absence of hair 1569. What specifies how accurately the Confidence
follicles and presence sample values and the true values of interval. It is a
of stratum lucidum? the population lie within a given range? way of admitting
1559. What small Yersinia pestis estimation for
coagulase-positive, the population.
gram-negative rod 1570. What sphingolipid cannot be produced Ganglioside
with bipolar staining without sialic acid and amino sugars?
is a facultative
intracellular parasite 1571. What sphingolipid is formed by the Sphingosine
resulting in buboes? union of serine and palmitoyl CoA?

1560. What small, Brucella 1572. What spinal nerves contribute to the S2, S3, S4
facultative gram- pelvic splanchnic (parasympathetic) keeps the pee-
negative intracellular nerves that innervate the detrusor pee off the
rod's transmission is muscle of the urinary bladder? floor!
associated with 1573. What splanchnic carries preganglionic Pelvic
unpasteurized dairy parasympathetic fibers that innervate splanchnics
products and the hindgut and the pelvic viscera? (They all begin
undulant fever? with P.)
1561. What small gram- Bordetella pertussis 1574. What ssDNA virus must make dsDNA Parvovirus (it is
negative aerobic rod before it makes mRNA? the only ssDNA
requires Regan-Lowe virus)
or Bordet- Gengou
medium for growth?

1575. What stage of sleep is associated Sleepwalking is 1589.
with somnambulism? associated with
stage 4 and occurs
most often in the
first third of sleep.
1576. What staphylococcal species is Staphylococcus 1590.
positive for Beta-hemolysis and aureus
coagulase?
1577. What statistical method do you use Odds ratio. (Case
when analyzing Case control control studies deal
studies? with prevalence.) 1591.
What structure of the knee is ACL
described thus? Prevents
anterior displacement and has
lateral-to-medial attachment on
the tibia
What structure of the knee is Posterior cruciate
described thus? Prevents ligament
posterior displacement and has
medial-to-lateral attachment on
the tibia
What structure or structures IVC Remember: 1 at T8,
cross the diaphragm at T8 level? 2 at T10, and 3 at T12
1578. What statistical method do you use Relative risk and/or 1592. What structure or structures Esophagus and
when analyzing Cohort studies? attributable risk. cross the diaphragm at T10 esophageal nerve
(Cohort studies level? plexus (CN X)
deal with Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at
incidence.) T10, and 3 at T12
1579. What statistical method do you use Chi-square. 1593. What structure or structures Aorta, azygos vein,
when analyzing Cross-sectional cross the diaphragm at T12 and thoracic duct
studies? level? Remember: 1 at T8, 2 at
1580. What statistical test checks to see The T-test (used T10, and 3 at T12
whether the groups are different by when comparing 1594. What subset of CD4 helper T-cell Th1; they are also
comparing the means of two groups two groups) function is helping the responsible for
from a single nominal variable? development of CD8 T cells? delayed-type
1581. What statistical test compares the Two-way ANOVA. hypersensitivity (type
means of groups generated by two It allows the test to IV)
nominal variables by using an check several 1595. What subset of CD4 helper T Th2
interval variable? variables at the cells stimulate B-cell division and
same time. differentiation?
1582. What statistical test compares the One-way ANOVA 1596. What subset of CD4 T cells is Th2 cells
means of many groups (>2) of a responsible for mast cell and
single nominal variable by using an eosinophil precursor
interval variable? proliferation?
1583. What statistical test, using nominal Chi-square (when 1597. What subset of T cells recognizes CD8+ T cells
data only, checks whether two you are in doubt the MHC class I Ags? (cytotoxic) Remember,
variables are independent events? and have nominal 81=8 (CD8MHC class
data, use chi- I=8); 42=8 (CD4 MHC
square) class II 8)
1584. What structure is derived from the The mouth 1598. What subset of T cells recognizes CD4+ T cells (helper)
prochordal plate? the MHC class II Ags?
1585. What structure of a protein Quaternary 1599. What substance do the JG cells of Renin
describes the interaction among structure the kidney secrete in response to
subunits? low blood pressure?
1586. What structure of the knee is Medial meniscus 1600. What substance found in Major basic protein
described thus? C-shaped shock eosinophils is toxic to parasitic
absorber; aids in attachment of the worms?
tibia to the femur via the medial 1601. What substrate builds up in Tay- GM2 ganglioside
collateral ligament Sachs disease? Caused by a deficiency
1587. What structure of the knee is Medial collateral of -hexosaminidase A
described thus? Prevents ligament 1602. What substrate gets built up in Glucosyl cerebroside
abduction Gaucher's disease?
1588. What structure of the knee is Lateral collateral 1603. What substrate is built up in Sphingomyelin
described thus? Prevents ligament Niemann-Pick disease?
adduction

1604. What subtype of IgG does not IgG4 1613. What syndrome is associated with the Medial pontine
activate complement cascade? following brainstem lesions? syndrome
1605. What subtype of IgG does not IgG3 Contralateral corticospinal and medial
bind to staphylococcal A lemniscus tract deficits and an ipsilatera
protein? medial strabismus secondary to a lesion
in CN VI
1606. What subtype of schizophrenia Disorganized
is characterized by Childlike schizophrenia
behaviors, unorganized speech
and behaviors, poor grooming,
incongruous smiling and
laughter, and the worst
prognosis?
1607. What subtype of schizophrenia
is characterized by Delusions
of persecution and/or grandeur,
auditory hallucinations, late
onset, and the best prognosis?
1608. What subtype of schizophrenia
is characterized by Stuporous
mute echopraxia and automatic
obedience, waxy flexibility with
rigidity of posture?
Paranoid schizophrenia
Catatonic schizophrenia
1614. What syndrome is associated with the Lateral
following brainstem lesions? Occlusion medullary
of the PICA, resulting in ipsilateral limb (Wallenberg's)
ataxia, ipsilateral facial pain and syndrome
temperature loss, contralateral pain and
body temperature loss, ipsilateral
Horner's syndrome, and ipsilateral
paralysis of the vocal cords, palate
droop, dysphagia, nystagmus, vomiting,
and vertigo

1609. What sulcus divides the occipital
lobe horizontally into a superior
cuneus and inferior lingual
gyrus?
1610. What sweat gland type is
associated with odor production
and hair follicles and is found in
the axilla?
1611. What syndrome causes inability
to concentrate, easy
distractibility, apathy, and
regression to an infantile
suckling or grasping reflex?
1612. What syndrome is associated
with the following brainstem
lesions? AICA or superior
cerebellar artery occlusion,
resulting in ipsilateral limb
ataxia, ipsilateral facial pain and
temperature loss, contralateral
loss of pain and temperature to
the body, ipsilateral Horner's
syndrome, ipsilateral facial
paralysis, and hearing loss
Calcarine sulcus 1615.
APocrinE glands (APES
is my memory aid)
Axilla, Areola, and Anus 1616.
all begin with A. APES
are hairy (associated
with hair follicles). They
smell (odor production), 1617.
and if confronted by an
APE, your Adrenergic
nervous system would
be firing (innervation).
Frontal lobe syndrome
(lesion in the prefrontal
cortex) 1618.
Lateral pontine
syndrome
1619.
What syndrome is associated with the Medial midbrain
following brainstem lesions? Posterior (Weber's)
cerebral artery occlusion resulting in a syndrome
contralateral corticospinal tract signs,
contralateral corticobulbar signs to the
lower face, and ipsilateral CN III palsy
What syndrome is associated with the Pontocerebellar
following brainstem lesions? Slow- angle syndrome
growing acoustic neuroma producing CN
VII deficiencies
What syndrome is associated with the Medial
following brainstem lesions? Vertebral medullary
artery or anterior spinal artery syndrome
occlusion, resulting in contralateral
corticospinal tract and medial lemniscus
tract deficits and an ipsilateral CN XII
lesion
What syndrome is characterized by Klver-Bucy
bilateral medial temporal lobe lesion, syndrome
placidity, hyperorality, hypersexuality,
hyperreactivity to visual stimuli, and
visual agnosia?
What syndrome is characterized by Kartagener's
dynein arm abnormality resulting in syndrome (also
chronic sinusitis, recurrent pulmonary known as
infections, and infertility? immotile cilia
syndrome) -----
------------------
------------------
------------------
------------------
---

1620. What syndrome is
characterized by
sweating, insomnia,
nausea, diarrhea, cramps,
delirium, and general
restlessness secondary to
MAOI and SSRI in
combination?
Serotonin syndrome. It is also
associated with high doses
and MAOI and synthetic
narcotic combinations
(Ecstasy). Treatment consists
of decreasing SSRI dosage,
removing the causative agent,
and giving cyproheptadine.
1629. What term describes Verbigeration
senseless repetition of words
or phrases?
1630. What term describes the Amnesia. (The person is
inability to recall personal aware of the memory loss.)
information, commonly
associated with trauma?
1631. What term describes the Accommodation
reflex that increases the
curvature of the lens,
allowing near vision?
1621. What syndrome is
described as bilateral
lesions of the amygdala
and the hippocampus
resulting in placidity,
anterograde amnesia, oral
exploratory behavior,
hypersexuality, and
psychic blindness?
1622. What syndrome is
described by a lesion in
the angular gyrus (area
39) resulting in alexia,
agraphia, acalculia, finger
agnosia, and right-left
disorientation?
1623. What syndrome is due to Respiratory distress syndrome;
a deficiency of surfactant? treatment with cortisol and
thyroxine can increase
production of surfactant.
1624. What syndrome occurs
when a 46XY fetus
develops testes and
female external genitalia?
1625. What T cell deficiency
syndrome is associated
with facial anomalies,
hypoparathyroidism,
thymic hypoplasia, and
recurrent viral and fungal
infections?
1626. What T cell line arises
from low affinity for self-
MHC class I Ags in the
thymus?
1627. What T-cell surface
projection recognizes and
reacts to foreign Ags
(presented by APCs)?
1628. What term describes how
an action potential is
propagated along an
axon?
Klver-Bucy syndrome
Gerstmann's syndrome;
spoken language is usually
understood.
Testicular feminization
syndrome (Dude looks like a
lady!)
DiGeorge syndrome, which is
due to a failure of the third
and fourth pharyngeal pouch
development. Remember, B
cell deficiencies are
associated with extracellular
infection. T cell deficiencies
are associated with
intracellular infections
CD8+ T cells
TCR
Saltatory conduction
1632. What term is defined as a
patient unconsciously placing
his or her thoughts and
feelings on the physician in a
caregiver or parent role?
1633. What test, by using specific
Abs to different receptors,
allows for rapid analysis of
cell types in a blood sample?
1634. What test is done to diagnose
CGD?
1635. What test is used to detect
anti-RBC Abs seen in
hemolytic anemia?
1636. What test is used to screen
for HIV?
1637. What test uses very small
amounts of DNA that can be
amplified and analyzed
without the use of Southern
blotting or cloning?
1638. What thalamic relay nucleus
do the mammillary bodies
project to?
1639. What three AAs are used to
synthesize the purine ring?
1640. What three AAs must patients Isoleucine, leucine, and
with maple syrup urine valine
disease not eat?
1641. What three actions should
take place when one person
threatens the life of another?
(Hint: think of the Tarasoff
decision.)
1642. What three bacteria are
positive to quellung reactive
test?
Transference. When it is
from the physician to the
patient it is called
countertransference.
Flow cytometric analysis
Nitroblue tetrazolium
reduction test (NBT). It is
negative in patients with
CGD because there is no
production of oxygen
radicals.
Coombs test
ELISA. It detects anti-p24
IgG.
PCR
The anterior nucleus of the
thalamus
1. Glycine 2. Aspartate 3.
Glutamine
1. Notify police. 2. Try to
detain the person making
the threat. 3. Notify the
threatened victim.
1. Neisseria meningitidis 2.
Haemophilus influenzae 3.
Streptococcus pneumoniae

1643. What three 1. Cytosine 2. Uracil (only in RNA) 3. 1654. What three muscles constitute 1. Sartorius 2. Gracilis 3.
bases are Thymidine the pes anserinus? Semitendinous
pyrimidines? 1655. What three organs can be Heart, esophagus, and
1644. What three 1. Burkitt's lymphoma 2. Nasopharyngeal affected by Trypanosoma cruzi? colon. Remember, you
carcinomas are carcinoma 3. Thymic carcinoma get megas:
associated with cardiomegaly,
EBV? megaesophagus, and
1645. What three cells Dendritic cells, macrophages, and thymic megacolon.
are essential for epithelial cells 1656. What three organs participate in 1. Skin 2. Liver 3. Kidney
T-cell production of vitamin D?
differentiation
in the thymus?
1646. What three cells Thymic epithelial cells, dendritic cells, 1657. What three steps of the TCA 1. Malate
are essential for and macrophages cycle generate NADH? dehydrogenase 2.
T-cell Isocitrate
maturation? dehydrogenase 3. -
1647. What three 1. The child poses an imminent danger to Ketoglutarate
circumstances self or others. 2. The child is unable to dehydrogenase
allow a child to self-care daily at the appropriate 1658. What three structures are in Left: stomach, spleen,
be committed developmental level. 3. The parents or contact with the left colic and left kidney; right:
to institutional guardians have no control over the child flexure? With the right colic liver, duodenum, and
care? or will not promise to ensure the child's flexure? right kidney
safety even though they refuse 1659. What three substances stimulate 1. Ca2+ : calmodulin
hospitalization. glycogenolysis? ratio 2. Epinephrine 3.
1648. What three CNs CN III, IV, and VI Glucagon
are associated 1660. What three substrates control 1. Cortisol (stimulates
with conjugate the enzyme PEPCK for the PEPCK) 2. Glucagon 3.
eye conversion of oxaloacetate GTP
movements? (OAA) to pyruvate in the
1649. What three C3a, C4a, and C5a cytoplasm?
complement 1661. What three things are needed to NADPH, O2, and
fragments are produce a double bond in a fatty cytochrome b5
also acid chain in the endoplasmic
anaphylatoxins? reticulum?
1650. What three 1. Cytotrophoblast 2. Syncytiotrophoblast 1662. What three vitamin deficiencies Folate, vitamin B12, and
embryonic cell 3. Extraembryonic mesoderm are associated with vitamin B6
layers form the homocystinemia?
chorion?
1663. What tick is the vector for Ixodes (also the vector
1651. What three Inhibin, mllerian-inhibiting factor, and babesiosis? for Lyme disease)
factors do androgen binding protein
Sertoli cells 1664. What topoisomerase makes Topoisomerase I
produce for ssDNA cuts, requires no ATP, (Relaxase)
normal male relaxes supercoils, and acts as
development? the swivel in front of the
replication fork?
1652. What three T cells, B cells, and macrophages
major cell lines 1665. What toxin ADP-ribosylates via Pertussis toxin
participate in Gi to increase cAMP?
the acquired 1666. What toxin ADP-ribosylates via Cholera toxin
immune Gs protein to increase cAMP?
system? 1667. What toxin, produced by Tetanospasmin (also
1653. What three 1. Iliocostalis 2. Longissimus 3. Spinalis ("I Clostridium tetani, binds to called tetanus toxin)
muscles Love Science" muscles) ganglioside receptors and blocks
constitute the the release of glycine and GABA
erector spinae? at the spinal synapse?

1668. What tract carries the The fasciculus gracilis (Graceful), 1681. What two cell lines of
ipsilateral dorsal column which lies closest to the midline the immune system do
fibers from the lower of the spinal cord. not belong to the innate
limbs in the spinal cord? branch?
1669. What tract carries the The fasciculus cuneatus
ipsilateral dorsal column 1682. What two CNs are
fibers from the upper responsible for the
limbs in the spinal cord? carotid body and sinus
reflexes?
1683. What two enzymes are
vitamin B12-dependent
1684. What two enzymes of
heme synthesis are
inhibited by lead?
T and B-cells belong to the
adaptive branch, whereas PMNs,
NK cells, eosinophils,
macrophages, and monocytes
belong to the innate branch.
CN IX and X
Homocysteine methyl
transferase and methylmalonyl
CoA transferase
ALA dehydrogenase and
ferrochelatase
1670. What tract carries Lower extremity and lower trunk 1685. What two factors cause A decrease in Ca2+ and an
unconscious information travels in the dorsal PTH to be secreted? increase in PO4-
proprioceptive spinocerebellar tract. The upper 1686. What two glycolytic 3-Phosphoglycerate kinase and
information from the trunk and extremity information enzymes catalyze the pyruvate kinase; this produces
Golgi tendon organs and travels in the cuneocerebellar substrate-level two ATPs per enzyme (total four
muscle spindles to the tract. (Cuneocerebellar and phosphorylations? ATPs)
cerebellum, helping fasciculus cuneatus both apply
monitor and modulate to upper extremities.) 1687. What two ligaments of Round and ovarian ligaments
muscle movements? the uterus are remnants
of the gubernaculum?
1671. What tract is Corticospinal tract
responsible for 1688. What two Galactose and glucose
voluntary refined monosaccharides are
movements of distal produced when lactose
extremities? is hydrolyzed?

1672. What tumor is derived Sacrococcygeal teratoma 1689. What two muscles do Trapezius and
from primitive streak you test to see whether sternocleidomastoid
remnants and often CN XI is intact?
contains bone, hair, or 1690. What two pathologic Omphalocele and gastroschisis
other tissue types? conditions occur when
1673. What two AAs do not Methionine (start) and the gut does not return
have more than one tryptophan are the only two AAs to the embryo?
codon? with only one codon. 1691. What two post- Prolyl and lysyl hydroxylases
1674. What two AAs have a Aspartic acid and glutamic acid transcriptional enzymes
pKa of 4? in collagen synthesis
require ascorbic acid to
1675. What two AAs have a Lysine and tyrosine function properly?
pKa of 10?
1692. What two regions of the Thoracic and sacral
1676. What two AAs require Proline and lysine vertebral column are
vitamin C for considered primary
hydroxylation? curvatures?
1677. What two Ags must be HBsAg and HBeAg 1693. What two requirements Lactose must be present and
positive for a patient to must be met for the Lac glucose must be absent
have chronic active operon to be activated?
hepatitis?
1694. What two sugars can be Glucose and galactose
1678. What two areas of the Palms and soles of the feet. used to produce
skin do not contain Sebaceous glands are cerebrosides?
sebaceous glands? associated with hair follicles,
which are lacking on the palms
and soles of the feet.
1679. What two arteries join to Ulnar and radial arteries (ulnar is
form the superficial and the main supplier)
deep palmar arches of
the hand?
1680. What two bacteria are Brucella and Listeria (has
associated with drinking tumbling motility)
unpasteurized milk?

1695. What two veins form the portal The superior mesenteric 1709. What type of bilirubin is found in Indirect or
vein? vein and the splenic vein neonatal jaundice? unconjugated
(after it receives the 1710. What type of binding occurs with Affinity
inferior mesenteric vein) one Fab or one idiotype of IgG?
join to form the portal
vein. 1711. What type of cell can never leave Plasma cell
the lymph node?
1696. What two vessels come 1. Posterior auricular vein
together to form the external 2. Posterior division of 1712. What type of cell surface Zonula occludens
jugular vein? the retromandibular vein projection lies on the lateral (tight junctions)
surface of cells closest to the apex
1697. What two viruses are associated Varicella virus and and acts to seal off the outside
with Reye's syndrome? influenza virus environment from the rest of the
1698. What two viruses get their HIV and poxvirus body?
envelope not from budding but 1713. What type of cerebral bleed is due Subarachnoid
from coding? to a rupture of a berry aneurysm in hematoma
the circle of Willis?
1699. What two vitamins are
inactivated when they come in
contact with acetaldehyde?
1700. What type II hypersensitivity
disorder is defined as
Autoantibodies against the type
IV collagen in the basement
membrane of the kidneys and
lungs?
1701. What type II hypersensitivity
disorder is defined as
Autoantibodies directed against
ACh receptors?
1702. What type II hypersensitivity
disorder is defined as
Autoantibodies directed against
platelet integrin?
1703. What type II hypersensitivity
disorder is defined as
Autoantibodies directed against
RBC Ag I?
1704. What type II hypersensitivity
disorder is defined as
Autoantibodies directed against
the TSH receptor?
1705. What type of Ag do B cells
recognize?
1706. What type of Ag do T cells
recognize?
1707. What type of bias is it when the Measurement bias
information is distorted because
of the way it is gathered?
1708. What type of bias is it when the
sample population is not a true
representative of the
population?
1725. What type of error is Type I error (alpha error).
made if you reject (Remember it as saying something
the null hypothesis works when it doesn't.) The chance
when it is true? of a type I error occurring is the P
value.
1726. What type of fatty Omega-3 fatty acids
acid is associated
with a decrease in
serum triglycerides
and cardiovascular
disease?
1727. What type of fiber or Both
fibers are carried in
(answer motor,
sensory, or both)
Dorsal rami?
Thiamine and folate 1714. What type of chromatin is
transcriptionally active?
Goodpasture syndrome
1715. What type of chromatin is
transcriptionally inactive?
Myasthenia gravis
1716. What type of collagen is associated Type IV collagen
with the basement membrane?
1717. What type of correlation compares
Autoimmune two interval variables?
thrombocytopenia 1718. What type of correlation compares
purpura two ordinal variables?
1719. What type of correlation is defined
Autoimmune hemolytic as One variable that diminishes in
anemia the presence of the other?
1720. What type of correlation is defined
as Two variables that go together
Graves disease in the same direction?
1721. What type of correlation is defined
as Two variables with no linear
relation to one another?
Free, unprocessed Ag
1722. What type of damage to the
kidneys is caused by drinking
Processed antigenic ethylene glycol (antifreeze)?
peptides bound in the
groove of the MHC 1723. What type of DNA library is made
molecule from the mRNA from a tissue
expressing a particular gene?
1724. What type of error is made if you
Selection bias accept the null hypothesis when it
is false?
1735. What type of hepatitis has the
highest mortality rate among
pregnant women?
1736. What type of hernia is
described as passing through
the deep lateral ring of the
inguinal canal?
1737. What type of hypersensitivity is
an Ab-mediated response
against our own cells,
receptors, or membranes via
IgG or IgM?
Euchromatin, the
dark stuff in the
nucleus on an
electron microscope
image.
Heterochromatin, the
light stuff in the
nucleus on an
electron microscope
image.
Pearson correlation
Spearman
correlation
Negative correlation
Positive correlation
Zero correlation
Nephrotoxic oxylate
stones
cDNA libraries are
derived from mRNA,
are continuous, and
contain no introns or
regulatory elements.
Type II error (beta
error). (Remember it
as saying something
doesn't work when it
does.)
Hepatitis E
Indirect hernia passes in
the inguinal canal; a
direct hernia passes
directly through
Hesselbach's triangle.
Type II hypersensitivity
reaction
1728. What type of fiber or Sensory 1738. What type of hypersensitivity is Type III hypersensitivity
fibers are carried in a result of high circulating reaction
(answer motor, levels of soluble immune
sensory, or both) complexes made up of IgG or
Dorsal root? IgM Abs?
1729. What type of fiber or Sensory 1739. What type of hypersensitivity is Type IV hypersensitivity
fibers are carried in a T cell-mediated response to reaction (delayed type
(answer motor, Ags that are not activated by because of the 48-96
sensory, or both) Ab or complement? hour latency)
Dorsal root 1740. What type of jaundice is seen in Conjugated (direct)
ganglion? Dubin-Johnson syndrome? hyperbilirubinemia, a
1730. What type of fiber or Both transport defect
fibers are carried in 1741. What type of jaundice is seen in Conjugated (direct)
(answer motor, Rotor's syndrome? hyperbilirubinemia
sensory, or both)
Spinal nerve? 1742. What type of lysosome is Secondary lysosome
formed when lysosome fuses (think of the primary as
1731. What type of fiber or Both with a substrate for inactive and secondary
fibers are carried in breakdown? as active)
(answer motor,
sensory, or both) 1743. What type of mortality rate is Proportionate mortality
Ventral rami? defined as the number of rate
deaths From a specific cause
1732. What type of fiber or Motor per all deaths?
fibers are carried in
(answer motor, 1744. What type of mortality rate is Case fatality rate
sensory, or both) defined as the number of
Ventral root? deaths From a specific cause
per number of persons with the
1733. What type of foods Foods rich in tyramine (e.g., cheese, disease?
should patients dried fish, sauerkraut, chocolate,
taking MAOIs avoid? avocados, and red wine) should be 1745. What type of mortality rate is Cause-specific mortality
Why? avoided. Hypertensive crisis occurs defined as the number of rate
when tyramine and MAOIs are deaths From a specific cause
mixed. per population?

1734. What type of Hypnopompic hallucinations occur 1746. What type of mortality rate is
hallucination occurs during awakening, whereas defined as the number of
during awakening? hypnagogic hallucinations occur deaths In the population?
while one is falling asleep. 1747. What type of personality test is
the Rorschach inkblot test,
objective or projective?
1748. What type of Plasmodium
affects Only mature RBCs?
Crude mortality rate
Projective test. Most
tests with a wide range
of possibilities for the
answers are projective.
Plasmodium malariae

1749. What type of Plasmodium vivax 1760. What type of spore is defined Blastoconidia
Plasmodium affects as an asexual budding
Only reticulocytes? daughter yeast cell?
1750. What type of Plasmodium falciparum 1761. What type of symptoms in Type I symptoms
Plasmodium affects schizophrenia are associated (positive); schizophrenics
RBCs of all ages? with Dopamine receptors? have them, but otherwise
1751. What type of pleura is Visceral pleura healthy persons do not.
adherent to the surface 1762. What type of symptoms in Type II symptoms
of the organ? schizophrenia are associated (negative); otherwise
1752. What type of questions It is best to begin with open- with Muscarinic receptors healthy persons have
should you begin with ended questions, allowing (ACh)? them, but schizophrenics
when a patient seeks patients to describe in their own do not.
your medical opinion? words what troubles them. You
can then move to closed-ended
questions when narrowing the
diagnosis.
1753. What type of random Double-blind study. It is the 1763. What type of test asks a Projective drawing. The
controlled test is least most scientifically rigorous study patient to draw a scene, artistic form is irrelevant,
subjective to bias? known. attempting to find out the but the size, placement,
1754. What type of scale is Interval scale (a ruler, for individual's unconscious erasures, and distortions
graded into equal example) perceptions in his or her life? are relevant.
increments, showing not 1764. What urease-positive non- Proteus
only any difference but lactose-fermenting gram-
how much? negative rod with swarming-
1755. What type of scheduled Fixed ratio (rewards set type motility is associated with
reinforcement states behaviors) staghorn renal calculi?
that after a desired 1765. What vascular injury may The popliteal artery, the
response, the result from a supracondylar deepest structure in the
reinforcement is given fracture of the femur? popliteal fossa, risks injury
After a set number of in a supracondylar
responses? fracture of the femur.
1756. What type of scheduled Fixed interval 1766. What vector is associated with Anopheles mosquito
reinforcement states malaria?
that after a desired 1767. What vein drains the lower Hemiazygous vein
response, the third of the thoracic wall?
reinforcement is given
On a set time schedule? 1768. What vein is formed by the Superior vena cava
union of the right and left
1757. What type of scheduled Variable ratio If it is based on brachiocephalic veins?
reinforcement states time, it is an interval, and if it is
that after a desired based on the number of 1769. What vertebral level is marked T9
response, the responses, it is a ratio. by the xiphoid process?
reinforcement is given 1770. What vessel can be found Subclavian vein
Varying in the number atop the scalene anterior?
of responses? 1771. What vessel does the right The right gonadal vein
1758. What type of scheduled Variable interval gonadal vein drain into? drains into the inferior
reinforcement states vena cava directly, and
that after a desired the left gonadal vein
response, the drains into the left renal
reinforcement is given vein.
Varying in time? 1772. What vessel is lacerated in an Middle meningeal artery
1759. What type of spore is Conidia epidural hematoma?
asexual and formed of 1773. What vessels carry The right and left
hyphae? deoxygenated blood into the pulmonary arteries, the
lungs from the right ventricle? only arteries that carry
deoxygenated blood

1774. What Vi-encapsulated gram-
negative motile anaerobic rod
that produces H2S is
associated with enteric fever,
gastroenteritis, and
septicemia?
1775. What viral infection is
associated with black vomit?
1776. What viral infection is known
to cause intracerebral
calcifications?
1777. What virus causes hoof-and-
mouth disease?
Salmonella typhi
Yellow fever (flavivirus)
CMV; Toxoplasma also
causes intracerebral
calcifications but it is a
parasite.
Vesicular stomatitis virus
1790. What water-soluble-vitamin Riboflavin (B2)
deficiency is associated with
cheilosis and magenta
tongue?
1791. What water-soluble-vitamin Folic acid
deficiency is associated with
neural tube defects in the
fetus?
1792. What water-soluble-vitamin Vitamin C
deficiency is associated with
poor wound healing, easy
bruising, bleeding gums,
anemia, and painful glossitis?
1793. What water-soluble-vitamin Biotin (only if eaten in large
deficiency may result from quantities)
eating raw eggs?
1778. What virus causes small pink
benign wartlike tumors and is
associated with HIV-positive
patients?
1779. What viruses are associated
with cervical carcinoma?
1780. What virus is associated with
Guarnieri bodies?
1781. What virus is associated with
progressive multifocal
leukoencephalopathy?
Molluscum contagiosum 1794. What water-soluble vitamin
deficiency results in
pellagra?
1795. What would be the result if
HPVs 16 and 18 an Ab were cleaved with
papain?
Variola virus (Smallpox) 1796. What would be the result if
an Ab were cleaved with
JC virus pepsin?
Niacin (B3)
There would be two Fab
and Fc regions.
There would be a Fab'
region; thus, it would still
be able to participate in
precipitation and
agglutination.

1782. What virus is associated with
the Norwalk agent?
1783. What virus lies dormant in the
Dorsal root ganglia?
1784. What virus lies dormant in the
Sensory ganglia of S2 and
S3?
1785. What virus lies dormant in the
Trigeminal ganglia?
1786. What vitamin is an important
component of rhodopsin?
Calicivirus 1797. What X-linked recessive Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
disorder is characterized by
hyperuricemia, spastic
Varicella cerebral palsy, mental
retardation, and self-
Herpes II mutilation?
1798. When attempting to make up About 80% of stage 4 sleep
sleep, what stage of sleep is is recovered,
Herpes I recovered? approximately half of REM
is recovered, and only one-
Vitamin A third of total sleep is ever
made up.

1787. What vitamin is necessary for
epithelial health?
1788. What vitamin is necessary for
the transfer of one amino
group from a carbon skeleton
to another?
Vitamin A is responsible 1799.
for vision and epithelial
health.
Pyridoxal phosphate is
derived from vitamin B6 1800.
and is needed to transfer
the amino groups of one
carbon skeleton to
another.
When does most of the
NREM sleep (stage 3 and 4)
occur, in the first or second
half of sleep?
When does most REM sleep
occur, in the first or second
half of sleep?
The deepest sleep levels
(stage 3 and 4) occur
mostly in the first half of
sleep.
REM sleep occurs more
often in the second half of
sleep. The amount of REM
sleep increases as the night
goes on.

1789. What water-associated
organism is a weakly stained
gram-negative rod that
requires cysteine and iron for
growth?
Legionella (think air 1801. When does the primitive gut 6 weeks 10 weeks
conditioners) herniate out of the embryo?
When does it go back into the
embryo?

1802. When is the first Prophase of meiosis I (between 12th and 1810. Where are the tonsillar Waldeyer's ring
arrested stage 22nd week in utero) tissues?
of development 1811. Where do adult tapeworms Adult tapeworms develop
in the female develop, in the intermediate in the definitive host,
reproductive or definitive host? whereas cysticerci or
cycle? larvae develop in the
1803. When more Confounding bias intermediate host.
than one 1812. Where does Beta-oxidation of In the peroxisome until it
explanation can very long chain fatty acids is 10 carbons long; the rest
account for the begin? is completed in the
end result, what mitochondria.
form of bias
occurs? 1813. Where does the parotid Opposite the second
(Stensen's) duct enter the oral upper molar tooth
cavity?
1804. When the Norm reference (i.e., 75% of the students 1814. Where do sperm go for Ductus epididymis, which
results of a test in the class will pass) maturation? is lined by
are compared pseudostratified
to findings for a epithelium with stereocilia.
normative 1815. Where do the primordial germ From the wall of the yolk
group, what cells arise? sac
form of
reference does 1816. Where in the body is heme RES(Reticular endothelial
the objective converted to bilirubin? system)
test use? 1817. Where is lithium metabolized 95% in the kidneys; that's
1805. Where are the The first sensory neuron is in the dorsal and excreted? why adequate Na+ and
cell bodies for root ganglia. It carries ascending sensory fluid intake is essential.
the DCML and information in the dorsal root of a spinal 1818. Where is the cupola of the The cupola of the lung is
spinothalamic nerve, eventually synapsing with second lung in relation to the posterior to the
sensory sensory neuron. In the brainstem (DCML) subclavian artery and vein? subclavian artery and vein.
systems? and the spinal cord (spinothalamic) the It is the reason one must
second neuron cell body sends its axons be cautious when
to synapse in the thalamus. The third performing subclavian
sensory neuron cell body is a thalamic venipuncture.
nuclei that sends its fibers to the primary 1819. Where is the lesion that Left abducens nerve
somatosensory cortex. produces these symptoms
1806. Where are the The inner membrane of the mitochondria when a patient is asked to
enzymes for the (cristae) look to the left? Left eye
ETC and can't look to the left
oxidative 1820. Where is the lesion that Left abducens nucleus or
phosphorylation produces these symptoms right cerebral cortex
found? when a patient is asked to
1807. Where are the In the ventral horn of the spinal cord. look to the left? Neither eye
LMN cell bodies UMN cell bodies are in the precentral can look left with a slow drift
of the gyrus of the frontal lobe. to the right
corticospinal 1821. Where is the lesion that Right medial longitudinal
tract? produces these symptoms fasciculus
1808. Where are the They are in ganglia in the PNS. when a patient is asked to
postganglionic look to the left? Right eye
neuron cell can't look left, left eye
bodies, the CNS nystagmus, and convergence
or the PNS? is intact
1809. Where are the They are in the grey matter of the CNS. 1822. Where is tropocollagen Outside the cell
preganglionic aggregated to form a collagen
neuron cell fibril?
bodies, the CNS
or the PNS?

1823. Where on the codon and 3'end of the codon 1838. Which dimorphic fungus is found as Blastomyces
anticodon does the wobble (third position) on hyphae with nondescript conidia in dermatitidis
hypothesis take place? mRNA and 5' end of rotting wood in the Upper Great
the anticodon (first Lakes, Ohio, Mississippi, eastern
position) on tRNA. seaboard of the United States, and
1824. Which acid-fast rod is an obligate Mycobacterium southern Canada?
intracellular parasite? leprae 1839. Which direction does the uvula A left CN X lesion
1825. Which bacteria are associated with Corynebacterium deviate in a left vagus nerve lesion? results in the uvula
the following pigment production? diphtheriae deviating to the
Black-gray pigmentation right. (Uvula points
away from the
1826. Which bacteria are associated with Pseudomonas affected side.)
the following pigment production? aeruginosa
Pyocyanin (blue-green) 1840. Which dopamine receptor excites the D1 receptor;
direct pathway of the basal ganglia? inhibition of the
1827. Which bacteria are associated with Serratia direct pathway
the following pigment production? occurs through the
Red pigmentation D2 receptors.
1828. Which bacteria are associated with Staphylococcus 1841. Which drug is used to treat opioid Clonidine
the following pigment production? aureus withdrawal, ADHD, and sometimes
Yellow pigmentation Tourette's syndrome?
1829. Which benzodiazepine has the Flurazepam 1842. Which drug is used to treat Naloxone or
longest half-life? respiratory depression associated naltrexone
1830. Which benzodiazepine has the Triazolam with an overdose of opioids?
shortest half-life? 1843. Which encapsulated fungus is found Cryptococcus
1831. Which carcinomaBurkitt's Hepatocellular in soil enriched with pigeon neoformans
lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma is droppings?
carcinoma, hepatocellular associated with 1844. Which fungus is found worldwide on Sporothrix
carcinoma, or thymic carcinoma hepatitis B and C plants, is a cigar-shaped yeast in schenckii
is not associated with EBV? infections, not with tissue form, and results in rose
EBV. gardener's disease?
1832. Which cestode infection results in Echinococcus 1845. Which genus of dermatophytes is Microsporum
alveolar hydatid cyst disease? multilocularis associated with the following sites of
1833. Which cestode in raw or rare beef Taenia saginata infection? Hair and skin only
containing cysticerci results in 1846. Which genus of dermatophytes is Epidermophyton
intestinal tapeworms? associated with the following sites of
1834. Which chromosome is associated Chromosome 6 infection? Nails and skin only
with MHC genes? 1847. Which genus of dermatophytes is Trichophyton
1835. Which CNs act as the sensory and The sensory limb is via associated with the following sites of
motor components of the gag CN IX, and the motor infection? Skin, hair, and nails
reflex? limb is from CN X. 1848. Which gram-negative diplococcus Meningococcus
1836. Which CNs are found in the CN I, II, III, VI, and XII ferments maltose? (Gonococcus does
midline of the brainstem? Add 1 + 1 = 2, 1 + 2 = 3, 1 not)
+ 2 + 3 = 6, 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 1849. Which gram-negative diplococcus Meningococcus
= 12 grows on chocolate agar? Thayer- grows on
1837. Which dimorphic fungus is found Coccidioides immitis Martin medium? chocolate agar,
as Arthroconidia in desert sand of and Gonococcus
the southwestern United States grows on Thayer-
(e.g., San Joaquin Valley)? Martin medium.
1850. Which gram-positive bacteria Clostridium
infection of infancy is associated with botulinum
ingestion of honey?

1851. Which hemoflagellate Leishmania donovani (kala azar 1865. Which muscle of the eye is under Dilator pupillae
species causes kala azar? is also known as visceral sympathetic control? muscle
leishmaniasis) 1866. Which muscles of the eye are under Constrictor
1852. Which hepatitis virus is in Hepatitis C parasympathetic control? pupillae and
the Flaviviridae family? ciliary muscles
1853. Which hepatitis virus is in Hepatitis A 1867. Which mycoplasma species is Ureaplasma
the Picornaviridae family? associated with urethritis, prostatitis, urealyticum
1854. Which IgG cannot activate IgG4 and renal calculi?
complement? 1868. Which of the colliculi help direct the Superior colliculus
1855. Which IL increases IgA IL-5. It also stimulates movement of both eyes in a gaze? (Remember S for
synthesis? eosinophil proliferation. Superior and
Sight). The inferior
1856. Which IL is associated with IL-4 colliculus
increases of IgG and IgE? processes
auditory
information from
both ears.
1857. Which immunoglobulin is
secreted by the plasma
cells in the
gastrointestinal tract?
1858. Which integrin mediates Beta2-integrins
the adhesion to
endothelial cells for
migration in and out of the
blood during an immune
response?
1859. Which is the conditioned
response, the conditioned
stimulus, the
unconditioned response,
the unconditioned
stimulus in this case? A
patient has blood
withdrawn and faints. The
next time she goes to
have blood taken, she
faints at the sight of the
needle.
1860. Which kidney is lower?
Why?
1861. Which leukotriene is
chemotactic for
neutrophils?
1862. Which leukotrienes are
associated with the late-
phase inflammatory
response?
1863. Which major cell type is
found in the red pulp of
the spleen?
1864. Which M-protein strain of
Streptococcus pyogenes
is associated with acute
glomerulonephritis?
1875. Which one of the cerebellar
peduncles is mainly
responsible for outgoing
(efferent) information?
1876. Which organism causes
multiple infections by
antigen switching?
1877. Which organism causes
trench fever?
1878. Which organism causes
trench mouth?
1879. Which organism causes
Weil's disease?
1880. Which organism releases
endotoxins prior to cell
death?
IgA
The blood withdrawn is the
unconditioned stimulus,
inducing the unconditioned
response (fainting). The needle
is part of the blood-drawing
procedure and is the
conditioned stimulus
(unconditioned and
conditioned stimuli are paired)
resulting in the conditioned
response (fainting at the sight
of the needle).
The right kidney is lower in the
abdominal cavity because of
the amount of space the liver
occupies.
LTB4
LTC4 and LTD4
RBCs. That is why it is called
red pulp.
M12 strains
Superior cerebellar
peduncle; the inferior and
the middle consist mainly of
incoming (afferent) tracts
and fibers.
Borrelia recurrentis
Rochalimaea quintana (now
called Bartonella quintana)
Fusobacterium
Leptospira
Neisseria meningitidis
1869. Which of the following characteristics Viruses
accurately describe fungi, bacteria,
viruses, or parasites? Acellular;
some are enveloped; replicate within
the host cell; no cell walls
1870. Which of the following characteristics Fungi
accurately describe fungi, bacteria,
viruses, or parasites? Eukaryotic
cell; 3 to 10 microns; 80S ribosomes;
chitinous cell wall; ergosterol in cell
membrane; replicate via cytokinesis
with mitosis and meiosis
1871. Which of the following characteristics Parasites
accurately describe fungi, bacteria,
viruses, or parasites? Eukaryotic
cell, 15 to 25 microns, 80S ribosomes,
no cell walls, replicates via
cytokinesis with mitosis and meiosis
1872. Which of the following characteristics Bacteria
accurately describe fungi, bacteria,
viruses, or parasites? Small
prokaryotic cells; no histones; 70S
ribosomes; no sterols in cell
membrane; peptidoglycans in cell
wall; replicate by binary fission
1873. Which of the followingDNA Histone acetylases
methylating enzymes, scaffolding is a regulator
proteins, histone acetylases, or favoring gene
deacetylasesis a regulator of expression. All of
eukaryotic gene expression? the others favor
inactivation.
1874. Which of the following is not part of Alveoli; they are
the conducting portion of the part of the
respiratory system: trachea, bronchi, respiratory
alveoli, or larynx? portion.
1889. Which streptococcal species is Enterococcus
characterized by being catalase (Streptococcus
negative, turning bile esculin agar faecalis)
black, producing a positive PYR
test, and resulting in biliary and
urinary tract infections?
1890. Which Streptococcus pyogenes Streptolysin O
toxin is immunogenic?
1891. Which thalamic nucleus receives MGB
auditory input from the inferior
colliculus?
1892. Which three CNs send sensory CN VII, IX, and X;
information to the solitary nucleus? taste and general
sensation for the
tongue is sent to the
solitary nucleus.
1881. Which organisms have
polycistronic mRNA?
1882. Which parasitic organism,
when it crosses the
placenta, results in
intracerebral calcifications,
chorioretinitis,
microcephaly,
hydrocephaly, and
convulsions?
1883. Which PG is associated with
maintaining a PDA?
1884. Which protein prevents
internal binding of self
proteins within an MHC
class II cell?
1885. Which protozoal parasitic
vaginal infection produces
a positive whiff test with
KOH staining?
1886. Which region of the
variable domain comprises
the Ag-binding site of the
Ab?
1887. Which serotypes of HPV
are associated with plantar
warts?
1888. Which shuttle is used to
bring fatty acyl CoA from
the cytoplasm for
ketogenesis?
Prokaryotes. Polycistronic
and prokaryotes both start
with P.
Toxoplasma gondii
PGE and intrauterine or
neonatal asphyxia maintain
patency of the ductus
arteriosus. Indomethacin,
ACh, and catecholamines
promote closure of the
ductus arteriosus.
Invariant chain
Trichomonas vaginalis (treat
with metronidazole)
Hypervariable region (three
per light chain; three per
heavy chain)
HPV serotypes 1 and 4
Carnitine acyl CoA
transferase II
1893. Which three organisms cause CMV, Toxoplasma
heterophilic negative gondii, and Listeria
mononucleosis?
1894. Which trematode is associated with Schistosoma
bladder carcinoma in Egypt and haematobium
Africa?
1895. Which trophoblast layer of the Syncytiotrophoblast.
placenta remains until the end of (The cytotrophoblast
pregnancy? gets incorporated
into the
syncytiotrophoblast.)
1896. Which type of hepatitis can cause Hepatitis B
hepatocellular carcinoma?
1897. Which type of hepatitis is a Hepatitis E (enteric)
calicivirus?
1898. Which type of hepatitis is a Hepatitis A
picornavirus? (infectious)
1899. Which way will the O2 dissociation Shifts it to the right
curve shift with the addition of 2, 3-
bisphosphoglycerate (2, 3-BPG) to
adult hemoglobin (Hgb)?
1900. Who decides competency and The courts. These are
sanity? legal, not medical
terms.
1901. Who is responsible for passing on Mitochondria-linked
mitochondrial DNA genetic disorders are always
disorders? inherited from the
mother.
1902. Why are eukaryotes unable to In eukaryotes
perform transcription and transcription occurs
translation at the same time like in the nucleus and
prokaryotes? translation in the
cytoplasm.

1903. Why are patients Catalase-negative bacteria secrete 1913. With what three 1. -Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 2.
with Chronic H2O2 as a byproduct (remember, enzymes is Pyruvate dehydrogenase 3.
Granulomatous catalase breaks down H2O2), allowing thiamin Transketolase Thiamine pyrophosphate
Disease not prone the neutrophils to use it as the pyrophosphate (TPP) functions as a coenzyme vital to
to develop substrate for the other toxic (TPP) tissue respiration. It is required for the
infections from metabolites. Patients with CGD are associated? oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to
catalase-negative prone to catalase-positive bacterial form acetyl-coenzyme A, providing
bacteria? infections. entry of oxidizable substrate into the
1904. Why isn't the Because incidence is defined as new Krebs cycle for the generation of energy
incidence of a events; treatment does not decrease 1914. With what virus EBV
disease decreased the number of new events. It does are Downey
when a new decrease the number of individuals type II cells
treatment is with the event (prevalence would associated?
initiated? decrease).
1905. Why is the liver Hepatocytes lack the enzyme succinyl
unable to CoA acetoacetyl CoA transferase
metabolize ketone (thiophorase).
bodies?
1906. Will a patient with Patients with unilateral cerebellar 1915. With which CN CN III
a unilateral lesion lesions fall toward the side of the are
in the cerebellum lesion. preganglionic
fall toward or parasympathetic
away from the axons arising
affected side? from the
1907. Will a unilateral Contralateral. The spinothalamic tract Edinger-
lesion in the enters the spinal cord and immediately Westphal
spinothalamic synapses in the dorsal horn, crosses nucleus
tract result in a over, and ascends contralateral in the associated?
contralateral or spinal cord, brainstem, thalamus, and 1916. With which DNA Variola (smallpox)
ipsilateral loss of postcentral gyrus. virus are
pain and Guarnieri bodies
temperature? associated?
1908. With what stage of Teeth grinding is associated with stage 1917. Would a G-C or G-C rich sequences, because they have 3
sleep are bruxisms 2 sleep. an A-T rich hydrogen bonds, where A-T has 2
associated? dsDNA hydrogen bonds, resulting in higher
1909. With what stage of REM sleep. Nightmares are frightening sequence have a melting points.
sleep are dreams that we recall. higher melting
nightmares point? Why?
associated?
1910. With what stage of NREM sleep. Night terrors are dreams
sleep are night that we are unable to recall.
terrors
associated?
1911. With what stage of Stage 3 and 4 most commonly. It can
sleep is enuresis occur at any stage in the sleep cycle
associated? and is usually associated with a major
stressor being introduced into the
home.
1912. With what thoracic Rib 7 articulates with T7 and T8. Each
vertebra or rib articulates with the corresponding
vertebrae does rib numerical vertebral body and the
7 articulate? vertebral body below it.