Diagnostic CAT ASCENT EDUCATION

raul.
raghav
CAT Diagnostic Test

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education
Section I - 50 Questions
Questions 1 to 5: Use the information given in the passage below.

A joint project by the State and Central government is being undertaken in the state of TamilNadu. It is agreed
that the representatives work in small committees of three, with two representatives of the Central government.
It was also agreed that no committee be represented by members from the same department. The central
government was represented by the following civil servants: J, who is Joint Secretary of Finance, K, who is the
chairman of the Planning Commission, and L, who is Principal Secretary, Ministry of Education. The State
appointed the following: M, who heads the State Planning Commission, N, who is the Accountant General, O
and P who are under secretaries in the Department of Finance.
1. Which of the following represents a properly composed committee?
(1) K, L, N (2) J, K, L (3) J, K, M (4) O, M, K
2. Which of the following may serve with P?

(1) K and M (2) M and L (3) K and L (4) J and K
3. Which of the following must be true?

I If J cannot serve on a committee, then M cannot be assigned to that committee.
II If O does not serve on a committee, then J will be serving on that committee.
(1) I only (2) II only (3) I and II (4) Neither I nor II
4. If L is not available for service, which of the following must be on the committee?
(1) M and J (2) N and J (3) O and K (4) None of these
5. Which of the following must be true?

I N and O never serve on the same committee.
II When N serves in a committee, J will serve on the same committee.
(1) I only (2) II only (3) I and II (4) Neither I nor II
Questions 6 to 9: Use the information provided in the table below.
State Population (000) Area (1000 sq.km)
1 2500 35
2 3625 47
3 1725 28
4 6600 75
5 4213 42
6 2245 19
7 1675 25
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6. The state with the highest population density is:
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
7. The state with the lowest population density is:

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 7
8. For the seven states, the average population density is:

(1) 75 (2) 79 (3) 82 (4) 87
9. The average population of the seven states (in 000s) is:

(1) 3750 (2) 3200 (3) 4100 (4) 3500
Questions 10 to 13: The table provides production data of various petrochemical products at three
different plants for company A. All figures are in 000 tons, per month
Plant Polyethylene BoPP Naphtha
1 753 385 1623
2 815 700 840
3 650 650 1000
10. The maximum total production of all three products (per month) was for which plant, and what was the
amount? (In 000 tons)
(1) Plant 1, 2761 (2) Plant 2, 2355 (3) Plant 1, 2661 (4) Plant 3, 2451
11. The ratio of polyethylene production to that of BoPP (per month) for plant 2 is:
(1) 1.19 : 1 (2) 1.12 : 1 (3) 1.16 : 1 (4) 1.21 : 1
12. The total BoPP production for all 3 plants per month is: (in 000 tons)
(1) 1635 (2) 1735 (3) 1835 (4) 1745
13. The ratio of naphtha production to that of BoPP production for plant 1 is:
(1) 4.06 : 1 (2) 4.34 : 1 (3) 4.16 : 1 (4) 4.22 : 1
Questions 14 to 18: Use the information provided below.

I> A is north of E and west of C. II> B is north of A and west of F.
III> D is south and east of A. IV> E is north of F and east of D.
V> F is north of D and west of A. VI> C is south of F and west of D.
14. Which of the towns mentioned is furthest in the northwest direction?
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
15. Which of the following must be both north and east of F?

I A II C III E
(1) I only (2) III only (3) I and II (4) I and III
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16. Which of the following towns must be situated both south and west of at least one other town?
(1) A and F (2) D and F (3) D, C and F (4) C, D and E
17. Which of the following statements, if true, would make the information in the numbered statements
more specific?
(1) C is north of D. (2) E is north of D (3) C is east of F (4) B is north of F
18. Which of the numbered statements gives information that can be deduced from one or more of the other
statements?
(1) I (2) III (3) VI (4) V
Questions 19 to 24: The price and sales data of 3 products for a company, for five years, are
provided below
Product A Product B Product C

Year
Price(Rs) Sales(in 00) Price(Rs) Sales(in 00) Price(Rs) Sales(in 00)
1994 25 16 32 20 52 40
1995 28 17 35 36 50 45
1996 30 17 40 11 45 50
1997 32 15 40 12 50 45
1998 30 25 45 10 52 40
19. The total revenue from the three products for the year 1997 was: (in Rs)
(1) 3.21 lacs (2) 3.75 lacs (3) 3.32 lacs (4) 3.15 lacs
20. The total revenue from product A for all five years is:(in Rs)
(1) 1.96 lacs (2) 2.75 lacs (3) 2.62 lacs (4) None of these
21. The revenue from product B was highest in the year:

(1) 1994 (2) 1995 (3) 1996 (4) 1997
22. The revenue from product C was what % higher than that from product B for the year 1998?
(1) 36.2% (2) 453% (3) 362% (4) 3620%
23. The total revenues from the three products was what % higher in 1997 than that in 1996?
(1) 3% (2) 0.3% (3) 0.45% (4) 4.5%
24. The highest revenues from all 3 products for any of the five years was: (in Rs. Lacs)
(1) 3.76 (2) 3.86 (3) 3.42 (4) 3.99
Questions 25 to 31: The following table provides the statistics of students admitted and the numbers who
have passed from four departments of a college. For each year, the number of pass-outs in each department
(and the total number who were admitted for that batch for that department originally) are provided.
25. The total number of students who graduated in computer science from years 1995 to 2000 was:
(1) 205 (2) 195 (3) 185 (4) 175
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Grad Computer Science Mechanical Civil Metallurgical

Year Admitted Passed Admitted Passed Admitted Passed Admitted Passed
1995 35 32 57 55 42 42 45 43
1996 35 31 62 60 44 40 45 44
1997 37 29 65 58 45 42 47 45
1998 35 35 60 60 40 40 44 44
1999 38 35 71 66 44 43 47 40
2000 35 33 75 66 46 42 48 41
26. If the best year is the year in which the average % who passed ( as a percentage of those who were
admitted to all four courses) , is highest, the best year was:
(1) 1995 (2) 1997 (3) 1998 (4) 2000
27. For all the six years, the percentage of those passed ( as a percentage of those admitted) was how much
for Civil?
(1) 88.6 (2) 95.4 (3) 99.1 (4) 90.5
28. In all six years, how many more Mechanical students graduated than did Metallurgical?
(1) 111 (2) 110 (3) 109 (4) 108
29. If each of the four is a four-year course, then what was the total number of students admitted to all four
courses in 1995?
(1) 179 (2) 182 (3) 200 (4) 205
30. What was the lowest ratio of passed to admits for any year for any department?
(1) 0.83 (2) 0.72 (3) 0.75 (4) 0.78
31. For 1998, for all four departments together, what was the ratio of passed to admits?
(1) 0.96 (2) 1.0 (3) 0.975 (4) 0.991
Questions 32 to 36: Ajith, Bala, Chandran, Dinu and Easwar are running a 400m race. The
statistics are as follows:
1. Ajith can run the first 100 meters in 11 seconds, the second 100 metres at 13.5 seconds, the third at 14
seconds, and the last 100 metres at 15 seconds
2. Bala can run the first 100 meters at 12 seconds, the second at 13 seconds, the third at 13.5 seconds, and
the last 100 metres at 14.5 seconds
3. Chandran can the first 100 metres at 11 seconds, the second at 12 seconds, the third at 13 seconds, and
the fourth at 15.5 seconds
4. Dinu can run the first 100 metres at 10.5 seconds, the second at 12.5 seconds, the third at 14 seconds,
and the fourth at 15.5 seconds
5. Easwar can run the first 100 metres at 11 seconds, second 100 at 12 seconds, the third at 13 seconds and
the last at 14 seconds
32. Who wins the race?
(1) Bala (2) Chandran (3) Dinu (4) Easwar
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33. At the end of 200 meters, the person who is leading is:
(1) Chandran (2) Dinu (3) Easwar (4) All three
34. At the end of 300 meters, the person who is leading is:
(1) Dinu (2) Chandran (3) Easwar (4) (2) & (3)
35. If it is a 4*100 meters relay, and if each of the four runners run 100 meters each, the fastest combination
is:
(1) Ajith, Bala, Chandran and Dinu (2) Bala, Chandran, Dinu, Easwar
(3) Ajith, Chandran, Dinu, Easwar (4) Ajith, Bala, Dinu, Easwar
36. If it is a 2*200 meters relay, in which each of the two runners run 200 meters each, the best combination
is:
(1) Chandran, Easwar (2) Chandran, Dinu (3) Dinu, Easwar (4) All three
Questions 37 to 39: 5 different currencies are considered, and their exchange rates on a particular day are
as follows:
The numbers in cells in every horizontal row represent the number of units of currency of the column in
consideration that are the equivalent of 1 unit of currency in the row in consideration. For example, in row 1,
column 2, 1.55 denotes that 1.55 units of currency B are the equivalent of 1 unit of currency A
Currency A B C D E
A 1 1.55 0.95 1.25 1.1
B A1 1 A2 A3 A4
C A5 A6 1 A7 A8
D A9 A10 A11 1 A12
E A13 A14 A15 A16 1
37. A1 = ?
(1) 0.75 (2) 1.55 (3) 0.65 (4) None of these
38. A2 = ?
(1) Cant be determined (2) 0.73 (3) 0.62 (4) 0.75
39. A12 = ?
(1) 0.75 (2) 0.98 (3) 1.25 (4) 0.88
40. B is twice as old as A but twice younger than F. C is half the age of A but twice the age of D. Which two
persons form the pair of the oldest and youngest?
(1) F and A (2) B and F (3) F and C (4) F and D
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Questions 41 to 45: Each of the questions is followed by two statements. You have to decide whether
the information provided in the statements is sufficient for answering the question.
Mark 1. If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone, but cannot be answered by
using the other statement alone.
Mark 2. If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Mark 3. If the question can be answered by using both statements together, but cannot be answered by
using either statement alone.
Mark 4. If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
41. How much more salary did Krish get over Bama?
(A) Krish got a 25% increment on his salary at the end of last fiscal year.
(B) Bama got a 8% hike on her salary at the end of last fiscal year.
42. Did the transport department suffer a greater loss than the water board on account of the hike in salary
of their employees after the fifth pay commission revision at the beginning of this year.
(A) The transport department which made a profit of Rs.12 crores last year made a loss of Rs.3
crores this year.
(B) The water board which made a profit of Rs.11 crores last year made a lower profit of Rs.1.2
crores this year.
43. A trader offers a 25% discount on the marked price of a certain product at his shop. What is the usual
selling price?
(A) The amount of profit that he makes after the discount is 20%
(B) The Rupee value of the discount would have been Rs.10 less if he had offered a discount of 20%.
44. How many quintals of oat will 4 horses and 2 oxens consume in 5 days?
(A) The average quantity of oat consumed by a horse is a third more than that consumed by an oxen.
(B) 16 horses consume 14.4 quintals of oat in a month.
45. What day of the week did Shiv join IIM Indore in 2001?
(A) He joined in the month of July.
(B) He took CAT on the same date eight months ago on the second Sunday of that month.
Questions 46 to 50: In each question, there are two statements: A and B, either of which can be true or false
on the basis of the information given in the table about applicants for a job.
Choose 1 if only A is true
Choose 2 if only B is true
Choose 3 if both A and B are true
Choose 4 if neither A nor B is true
Number Number
Number. Number
Year Qualification attended selected for
applied Shortlisted
interview job
Graduates 6450 5780 4250 415
2002
Post graduates 3140 2940 2520 520
Graduates 7520 6460 5980 620
2003
Post graduates 4260 4080 3750 640
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46. Statement A: The ratio of the number of graduates who were shortlisted to those who applied in 2002
was higher than the ratio of the graduates who attended the interview to those who were
shortlisted in the same year.
Statement B: The ratio of the graduates who applied for the job to those who attended the interview
in 2002 is less than 0.7
47. Statement A: The proportion of post graduates who applied as a percentage of the total applicants
(comprising only graduates and post graduates) in the given two years was less than a
third.
Statement B: The growth in the number of postgraduate applicants between 2002 and 2003 was
higher than the growth in the number of graduate applicants.
48. Statement A: The ratio of post graduates shortlisted for interview as a percentage of those who
applied has been more than 95% in both the years.
Statement B: The ratio of graduates who attended interview as a percentage of those who were
shortlisted in 2003 was more than 90%.
49. Statement A: The percentage of postgraduates who have been selected for the job as a percentage of
the postgraduates who attended the interview has been decreasing between the two
years.
Statement B: The percentage growth in the number of graduates shortlisted for interview between the
two years is less than the percentage growth in the number of postgraduates shortlisted
between the two years.
50. Statement A: The percentage growth in the number of graduates selected between the two years is
higher than the percentage growth in the number of postgraduates selected between the
two years.
Statement B: The percentage growth in the total number of applicants recruited between the two
years has been in excess of 30%
End of Section I
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Sub-section II-A: Number of Questions = 20

Note: Questions 51 to 70 carry one mark each
51. Swetha, a swimming and tennis coach, attended Euclids class on geometry. There, the professor
placed a big ball in the shape of a sphere on the table and alongside it placed a model of a conical tank
built by his grandson for his schools project. He said that the radius of the two objects being equal the
relation between the radius of the sphere and the height of the cone is related as....?. Swetha gave a
reply. The reply being ...........
(1) cant determine (2) h = r (3) h = 4/3r (4) r = 4/3h
52. f1(x) = - f2(x), f2(x) = - f3(x) . . . . f(n-1)(x) = -fn(x). If fn(x) is negative, then f1(x) and f2(x) are:
(1) Positive and negative respectively, if n is odd (2) Negative and positive respectively, if n is even
(3) Positive and negative respectively, if n is even (4) None of these
53. G1 = |a|. b . |c|. d . |e| . f . ..........|y|. z, and G2 = a. b . c. d . e . f . ..........y. z

If a = (-1)1, b = (-2)2, ...., z = (-26)26, then
(1) G1 = G2 (2) G1 = -G2
(3) G1 = (G2)2 (4) There is no relationship between G1 and G2
(x − 5)
54. The smallest integer for which the inequality (x 2 + 5x − 14) > 0 is satisfied is
(1) -6 (2) -2 (3) 5 (4) -5
55. The sum of an arithmetic progression consisting of 12 terms is 354. The ratio of the sum of even terms
to the sum of odd terms is 32 : 27. Find the common difference of the progression.
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 7 (4) 5
56. The points A (2, 1), B (0, 3) and C (-2, -2) are the vertices of a triangle. What are the co-ordinates of
the vertices A, B and C of a triangle formed by reflecting these points A, B and C in the x-axis?
(1) (2, -1), (2, -2) and (0, -3) (2) (-2, 1), (0, 3) and (2, -2)
(3) (2, -1), (0, -3) and (-2, 2) (4) (-2, -1), (0, -3) and (2, 2)
57. A right angled sector of a circle of radius 8 cm is rolled up into a cone in such a way that the two binding
radii are joined together. What is the total surface area of the cone in sq cm?
(1) 16 π sq cm (2) 8 π sq cm (3) 12 π sq cm (4) 20 π sq cm
58. For what value of m will the roots of the equation x 2 + 2(m 4)x + m2 + 6m = 0 be real and distinct?
(1) (8 7 , ∞) (2) (7 8 , 8 7 ) (3) (− ∞,7 8) (4) (− ∞,8 7)

59. What is the perimeter of the triangle bounded by the line 8x 15y = 120 and the x and y intercepts?
(1) 60 (2) 20 (3) 40 (4) 36
1 1
60. The value of log ð + log ð is
2 4.5
(1) < 2 (2) > 2 but < 4 (3) > 2 (4) > 4
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61. Tamiya asked a question to five of her classmates In what shape can one arrange 24 balls such that
there are 5 in each row? Bareera replied it is a pentagon. Zuvariya said it is tetrahedron. Fahika
replied it is a octagon. Shifaya replied it is a hexagon. Tabasum said it is impossible to have such
a combination. Who is correct?
(1) Zuvariya (2) Shifaya (3) Tabasum (4) Bareera
1 1
62. If f  x − x  = x + x 2 , then f(z) =
  2
 
(1) z2 (3) z2 2 (4) z2 + 2

1
(2)
z
63. a , a , ......, a are n negative integers, and b , b , ......, b are n positive integers.
1 2 n 1 2 n
If G = (a1 ) .(a 2 ) ...(a n ) is positive, then which of the following is not possible?
b1 b2 bn
(1) All bi , i = 1, ..., n are even (2) All bi , i = 1, ..., n are odd
(3) All bi , i = 1, ..., n are odd and n is even (4) All bi , i = 1, ..., n are odd and n is odd
64. If ax + by > cx + dy, and y, x, a, b, c, d > 0, and if x < y, then

a b
(1) a + b < c + d (2) a b > c d (3) a + b > c + d (4) >
b c
65. There are four balls, each with a distinct integer label, in a bag. It is known that the product of the
integers on the labels is 24. If a ball is picked at random, the probability that the label is an even natural
number is:
(1) ¼ (2) ¾ (3) ½ (4) None of these
66. An inventor asked for one grain of wheat for the first square on the chessboard, 2 for the second, four
for the third and so on... How many would he have asked for the 20th square?
(1) 1048576 (2) 131072 (3) 262144 (4) 524288
67. If the area of a right triangle whose height is equal to its base (a) plus two units , is the same as the area
of an equilateral triangle whose side is 2a, then a = ?
(1) Cant be determined(2) 0.75 (3) 0.81 (4) 0.92
68. If 75% of a class of 40 can sing, and only 20% cannot dance, the maximum number of students who
can either not sing or not dance is:
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 18 (4) Cannot be
determined
69. | a | * | -b | * | c | * ....... * | -z | is the same as:

(1) a . b . c . d ....... z (2) a . | b | . c . | d | . e ........ | z |
(3) | a | . | b | . | c | ...... | z | (4) None of these
70. If 2f(x) = f(2x), 3f(x) = f(3x), 4f(x) = f(4x), ......nf(x) = f(nx), then f(1) + f(2) + ..... + f(n)=?
(1) n (2) (3) (4)

n n (n + 1) n (n − 1)
2 2 2
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Sub-section II-B: Number of Questions = 15

Note: Questions 71 to 85 carry two marks each
71. Bhaskaram, the buzz kid, Sanghamam, the whiz kid and Depam, the tech kid went on a shopping spree
at DESCENT PLAZA to purchase such number of articles as equal to the number of letters in their
respective names. The buzz kid bought four BCs, two CDs and three BDs costing Rs.450. The whiz
kid bought three BCs, two CDs and four BDs costing Rs.450. Depam bought one CD, one BD and
thrice as many BCs as CDs for Rs.250. Mangalam wants to purchase a CD from the same PLAZA.
What would be her outflow?
(1) 30 (2) 40 (3) 50 (4) Cannot be
determined
72. In the adjoining figure, the inradius of the right angled triangle, with A
hypoteneuse of 53cms, is 10 cms.The value of AE could be
E
(1) 8cms (2) 18
(3) 28cms (4) Cannot be determined D
B C
F
73. Mathematicians Babu and Ibrahim were entrenched in their research work when Raghavan another
research scholar, suggested that they take a short break from their work and try solving a problem
posed by PT, a scholar in Maths, which went this way; There are two natural numbers whose sum is
a two digit number which is six times the sum of its digits and their product is 378. The sum of its
reciprocals is?
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 7 6 4
74. There are five statements:

I - If two corresponding sides and a corresponding angle of two triangles are same, then they are
congruent to each other.
II - 2 2 +1 is prime for every n
n
III - In an equilateral triangle of side 6 cm, the area of circumcircle is twice that of incircle
IV - Perpendicular distance is the shortest distance between two points.
V- There are 22 prime numbers between 100 and 200
How many of the above are true?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
75. Umer Sherif, a loquacious talker, picks up a conversation with people whom he comes across when he
regularly visits five places, viz, his office, his friends home, his uncles home, pool parlour and his
multimedia class. On average he meets, on a day, 12, 8, 15, 10, 13 people at the abovementioned places
respectively. He is also notorious for hurting the feelings of some persons. On average, he quarrels
with two people when he plays pool, he fights with three people when he is in classroom, engages in
heated arguments with three people in his office, is in good terms with people when he visits his uncles
home and quarrels with three of his friends when he visits his friends home. If one were to pick a
notorious activity of Umer, what is the probability that he has quarreled with a person when he plays
pool?
(1) 0.29 (2) 0.19 (3) 0.39 (4) 0.34
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76.
(4x + 7) 2
How many values can x take so that is an integer?
x +5
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
77. Sridevi goes daily to the pond in the Kanchi temple to fetch the roses that flower there. She decides to
count the number of roses she had taken from the pond . To her astonishment she finds that the sum
of flowers fetched on the 49th and 99th day is twice that of the number fetched on the 74 th day and the
number of flowers collected till 149th day and 211th day are 187889 and 377268 roses respectively.
How many more flowers did she collect on the 313 th day as compared to the previous day?
(1) 7 (2) 17 (3) 9 (4) 19
78. Let K = 2 where K is a natural number defined for 1<n<5

n 2 −2n + 3
Let L = 7n+1,where L is a natural number defined for 5<n<27

Let Z be a set containing elements equal to the number at which L equals K for different values of n.
Let X be a set which contains elements equal to one more than thrice the number in Z of which Z
number of elements are identical. If a person were to choose a maximum of Z number of elements
from the set X , she would choose them in how many ways?
(1) 2 32 (2) 2 64 (3) 2 128 (4) 2 256
79. A teacher asked her students to find out the number of custard apples(g) that she has and gives two
clues for the students to find out the same. Clue 1: The number satisfies the equation log 2 g = g .
Clue 2: The number lies between 5 and 500. Student 1 says that Clue 2 is redundant.Student 2 says
that Clue 1 is unnecessary. Student 3 says that he can get the answer using both the clues.Student 4 is
of the view that both the clues will not help anyone in determining an unique answer. Who is correct?
(1) Student 1 (2) Student 2 (3) Student 3 (4) Student 4
80. Let P be a set containing prime numbers upto 300. Let Q be a subset of P containing those prime
numbers which become composite when any digit is prefixed. The number of elements in Q is
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 7
81. PQRSTU represents a six digit number . It permutes within itself by retaining the same six digits, not
necessarily in the given order, when it gets multiplied by first six natural numbers. Which is the six digit
number and what is the sum of six such permuted numbers?
(1) 142857, 3666663 (2) 428571, 2999997 (3) 142857, 2999997 (4) 428571, 3666663
82. There are seven circles. The area of the second circle is thrice that of the first; the area of the fourth
circle is thrice that of the third, and so on till the seventh circle whose area is thrice that of the sixth.
The ratio of the radii of the seventh and first circle is:
(1) 81 : 1 (2) 27 : 1 (3) 729 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
83. Sushma cleared the entrance test of JPS Sain school of management and was called for a personal
interview. The interview panel vetted her application and found that she was strong in her mathematical
calculations. In order to test her number crunching abilities they asked How many times ZERO(0)
is written from 1 to 1000?. She replied 192. Again they asked How many times ZERO(0) is
written one to one lakh?.The panel was really amazed when she answered. What is the answer?
(1) 58892 (2) 38894 (3) 28893 (4) 48895
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84. Jacques, with his three children, went for a picnic to the Angel Falls. He wanted to use the given time
quite usefully. So he placed on the ground three glass tumblers of capacities 3 litres, 5 litres and 8 litres
with the last one having water to its fullest capacity and the other two being empty. He then asked his
children a question What is the minimum number of steps needed to make at least one glass tumbler
hold exactly 4 litres by pouring water from one glass tumbler to another such that in each step you
should transfer as much water as is required that will either empty the tumbler from which water is
being poured out or cause to fill up the tumbler into which water is being poured into?. The children
were unable to figure out. Can you help them?
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) Impossible
85. In a survey about the popularity of magazines A, B and C among 200 pupils, 78 pupils like A, 72 like B,
90 like C, 28 like A and B only, 22 like B and C only, 10 like A and C only. Find the maximum number of
pupils who do not like any of the magazines.
(1) 20 (2) 24 (3) 16 (4) None of these
End of Section II
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Section III - 50 Questions

Questions 86 to 90: For the word given at the top of each table, match the dictionary definitions on the
left (A, B, C, D) with their corresponding usage on the right (E, F, G, H). Out of the four possibilities given in
the boxes below the table, select the one that has all the definitions and their usages correctly matched.
86. BIND
Dictionary definition Usage

A. To tie someones hands or feet together so they E. The rape victim was bound and gagged in the boot
cannot move of the car
B. To make two people or groups feels as if they are F. The warring countries were forced to relinquish
connected to each other in a very close way animosity and sign a binding non-invasion treaty.
C. To limit what someone is allowed to do by making G. Add some more oil to bind the dough
them obey a rule or agreement
D. Sticking or mixing together of two or more H. The cultural similarity between the two tribes
substances so that they become one helped bind them closer together.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

A E A G A E A G
B G B F B H B E
C H C E C F C H
D F D H D G D F
87. FRONT

A. The surface of something that faces forwards E. Paste a recent passport size photograph on the
front page of your docket
B. The part of something that is nearest the direction F. Theres some good news on the investment front
it faces
C. A particular aspect of a situation G. Dont try to fool us we know that you are putting
a brave front, while you are actually very worried
about the results
D. A behaviour that is not sincere because you want H. Reema bore the brunt of the injury as she was
to hide your real feelings. sitting at the front of the bus.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

A E A E A G A F
B H B G B H B H
C F C F C F C E
D G D H D E D G
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88. MARGIN

A. The space at the left or right side of a page E. Engineers tend to pad their designs with a wide
margin of safety forgetting the need to be cost
efficient
B. The amount by which a competition or election is F. Bush won the US Presidential election with a
won wafer thin margin.
C. Additional time, space, money that is included in G. It is a high risk proposition to trade on margin in a
order to be certain volatile market like this
D. Money given to pay for possible losses on H. Do all your calculations in the margin. You will not
investment be provided extra scratch sheets.
(1) (2) (3) (4)

A E A H A G A H
B F B F B F B E
C H C E C E C F
D G D G D H D G
89. FRAME

A. To put a picture or photograph in a frame E. Sheela headed the team that framed the
proposal to ban use of throw away plastics
B. To form a border around something F. The judge took exception to the way the
prosecution lawyer conducted his investigation
of the witness and asked the lawyer to frame
his questions differently
C. To develop or make up something such as a plan G. W e had gone out to get the painting framed.
or law
D. To express something carefully in a particular way H. Long red hair framed her cherubic face
(1) (2) (3) (4)

A G A F A G A H
B F B H B H B E
C E C G C E C G
D H D E D F D F
90. CONNECT

A. To join two things together E. Take care while connecting the red and white
wires. High voltage current passes through
these wires.
B. Allow communication F. A modem allows you to connect to the internet
or to send a fax.
C. To show a relationship between one person or G. There is no way to connect Shiv with this
thing and another. project.
D. To manage to hit someone or something H. Her first punch did not connect
(1) (2) (3) (4)

A E A H A E A H
B F B F B H B G
C G C G C G C F
D H D E D F D E
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Questions 91 to 96: For each of the words below, a contextual usage is provided. Pick the word from
the alternatives given that is closest in the given context.
91. DOCILE - It was a rude shock to see Prem, who is usually docile, fighting ferociously.
(1) Impudent (2) Obedient (3) Indignant (4) Brittle
92. NEOPHYTE CAT has remained an exam that challenges experts as well as neophytes.
(1) Tyro (2) Clairvoyant (3) Intelligent (4) Inane
93. RETINUE The chief weapons inspector with his retinue searched the palaces of Saddam Hussein
(1) Opponents (2) Superiors (3) Pall bearers (4) Attendants
94. GAINSAY Harish, known for his honesty, is not likely to gainsay the facts of the report.
(1) Deny (2) Lie (3) Prevaricate (4) Exaggerate
95. ACCOMPLICE The international community has learnt that it is more important to stop the
accomplices who abet crime than the terrorists themselves.
(1) Informers (2) Bootleggers (3) Partners in crime (4) Secret services
96. CONUNDRUM She invented new conundrums on their way to Kanyakumari and entertained the
children in the process.
(1) Puzzle (2) Songs (3) Rhymes (4) Stories
Questions 97 to 101: Sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced form a coherent
paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the
four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
97. A. The French High Command hoped they would be able to close the gap, and the Armies of the
north were under their orders.
B. Therefore, when the force and scope of the German penetration were realized and when a new
French Generalissimo, General Weygand, assumed command in place of General Gamelin, an
effort was made by the French and British Armies in Belgium to keep on holding the right hand of
the Belgians and to give their own right hand to a newly created French Army which was to have
advanced across the Somme in great strength to grasp it.
C. From the moment that the French defenses at Sedan and on the Meuse were broken at the end of
the second week of May, only a rapid retreat to Amiens and the south could have saved the British
and French Armies who had entered Belgium at the appeal of the Belgian King; but this strategic
fact was not immediately realized.
D. Moreover, a retirement of this kind would have involved almost certainly the destruction of the
fine Belgian Army of over 20 divisions and the abandonment of the whole of Belgium.
(1) CADB (2) ABCD (3) CDBA (4) ADBC
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98. A. I felt somehow for many years that George Washington and Alexander Hamilton just left me out
by mistake.
B. Earlier today we heard the beginning of the Preamble to the Constitution of the United States,
We, the people.
C. But through the process of amendment, interpretation, and court decision I have finally been
included in We, the people.
D. It is a very eloquent beginning. But when that document was completed, on the seventeenth of
September in 1787, I was not included in that We, the people.
(1) BCAD (2) BDAC (3) ACBD (4) ADCB
99. A. Students came forward to offer their services; now there is a teacher in the most remote area of
the country.
B. When the revolution came to power it found 22,000 teachers, and nearly one million children
without schools.
C. It has been easy to give teachers to the people, but it has been difficult to solve the problem in the
mountains, so we asked for volunteers to teach in distant corners of the country.
D. Today our country has 33,000 teachers, not a single area of Cuba is without teachers.
(1) ACDB (2) CDBA (3) DABC (4) BDCA
100. A. Let us see where we are as a people; how we act here and what we think we are.
B. If womans suffrage is wrong, it is a great wrong.
C. The difficulty with the men of this country is that they are so consistent in their inconsistency that
they are not aware of having been inconsistent.
D. If it is right, it is a profound and fundamental principle, and we all know, if we know what a
Republic is, that it is the fundamental principle upon which a Republic must rise.
(1) ADBC (2) BDAC (3) CBAD (4) CDAB
101. A. It is called the Red-Scholes theory named after Myron Scholes red pen, which was found
buried in a Big-Black hole just north of Manhattan.
B. One of the greatest limitations of the Black-Scholes approach, as Eurico has recently discovered,
is that it does not include the crucial higher-order terms required to model ego-driven, speculative
positions of the kind frequently employed by Long Term Capital Management.
C. This new model, which draws from a branch of mathematics known as Crony-Numbers, promises
to provide a much better representation of the problem involving sophisticated tricks by superstar
investors such as Eurico and the likes.
D. For those going into trading or contemplating a PhD in pricing theory, I recommend looking into a
new theoretical framework currently being developed among the Nobel laureates of higher finance.
(1) ACDB (2) BDAC (3) DACB (4) BACD
Questions 102 to 106: In each of the following sentences, a part of the sentence is left unfinished.
Beneath each sentence four different ways in which the sentence can be completed are indicated. Choose
the best alternative among the four.
102. Each state is divided into territorial ________ in such a manner that the ratio between the population
of each constituency and the number of seats allotted to it is, so far as ________ , the same throughout
the state.
(1) constituencies; practicable (2) districts; amenable
(3) units; required (4) boundaries; auditable
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103. ________ , French for citizen class, is a term used by Marxist Socialists to denote the class of
proprietors, capitalists, merchants, and members of liberal professions, as opposed to the _______ .
(1) Aristocrat; Royalty (2) Bourgeoisie; proletariat
(3) Cretins; Simpletons (4) None of these
104. The government had brought in a number of private buses from the districts to ________ over the
crisis that had gripped the city in the ________ of the strike.
(1) help; onslaught (2) take; view
(3) crush; aftermath (4) tide; wake
105. The use of mixed media captures the artistic ________ of the visual medium, however, the treatment
of colours limits their use to a tool rather than a symbolic ________ .
(1) creativity; dream (2) contours; passion
(3) splendour; expression (4) vagaries; palette
106. Life is a/an ________ of experiences with its mystic underplays waiting to be explored. The profundity
of the inner self is juxtaposed with the ________ of the outside world in the journey towards discovering
the eternal truth.
(1) vicissitude; distractions (2) labyrinth; vagaries
(3) agglomeration; distortions (4) mystery; profoundness
Questions 107 to 111: In each of the following questions, four different ways of phrasing the sentence
is used. Choose the best among the four choices.
107. (1) Unafraid of neither lightning nor thunder during a storm, Mr. Jones enjoyed walking in the park
during heavy downpours.
(2) Unafraid of neither lightning or thunder during a storm, Mr. Jones enjoyed walking in the park
(3) Afraid of both lightning and thunder during a storm, Mr. Jones enjoyed walking in the park during
heavy downpours.
(4) Unafraid of either lightning or thunder during a storm, Mr. Jones enjoyed walking in the park
108. (1) Should we be told that our recommendations pertinent to the kind of use made of our vehicles
have been accepted, we will gladly cooperate with the ultimate plan.
(2) Should we be told that our recommendations for the use of our vehicles have been accepted, we
will gladly cooperate with the ultimate plan.
(3) If we are told that recommendations about use of our vehicles has been accepted, we will gladly
cooperate with the ultimate plan.
(4) Our being told of the acceptance of our recommendations pertinent to use made of our vehicles
should cause us to gladly cooperate with the ultimate plan.
109. (1) Seventeenth-century authors used alliteration both to refine their writing and to increase a listener s
pleasure.
(2) Authors of the seventeenth century used alliteration to both refine their writing and increase a
listeners pleasure.
(3) Seventeenth-century authors utilized alliteration both to refine their writing and to increase a
listeners pleasure.
(4) Authors of the seventeenth century used alliteration to both refine their writing and increase a
listeners pleasure.
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110. (1) Married women raising young children do not respond to social stresses as poorly like unmarried
women do.
(2) Married women raising young children do not respond to social stresses as poorly as unmarried
women.
(3) Married women raising young children do not respond to social stresses as poorly as unmarried
women do.
(4) Married women raising young children do not respond to social stresses as much as unmarried
women have.
111. (1) Your incessant meddling in my affairs, your obnoxious ridiculing of my suggestions and sudden
departure prevented our conference yielding significant results.
(2) Your incessant meddling in my affairs, your obnoxious ridiculing of my suggestions and your
sudden departing prevented our conference yielding significant results.
(3) Your incessant meddling in my affairs, your obnoxious ridiculing of my suggestions and your
sudden departing caused the prevention of our conference yielding significant results.
(4) Your incessant meddling in my affairs, your obnoxious ridiculing of my suggestions plus your sudden
departure prevented our conference yielding significant results.
Questions 112 to 135: Each of the seven passages given below is followed by questions. Choose the
best answer for each question.
Passage 1
On a Saturday afternoon in late May 1993, I flew north from Ho Chi Minh City - the former Saigon - to Hanoi
on a Vietnam Airlines Tupolev 134B-3. A Soviet-built mid-range jetliner, the airplane had a proletarian blue
and white exterior, but the cabin hinted of something different. Hand carved, darkly varnished cabinets in the
forward bulkhead and circular portholes beside the seats created the illusion of an Art Deco sky-going yacht.
It would have been the perfect setting for the opening scene in a remake of Lost Horizon, updated to jet but
retaining an austere, 1930s panache.
That brief echo from one of the great survival classics was the first clue to what lay just ahead. A twice-
recycled boarding pass directed me to Seat 1A. In the Tupolev, all four positions in the first row allow a scant
five inches between the seat and the polished wall. This was going to be a problem.
The cabin was stifling. When at long last all the passengers were seated and the boarding ladder had been
rolled away, the air conditioning system erupted. Billows of frosty air blew down diagonally from spigots in the
ceiling and crisscrossed in the aisle. In moments the windows were opaque and the walls ran with condensed
moisture. Shangri-la had vanished in the vapour.
But the flight attendants were beautiful, dressed in powder blue skirts, stylized neckties, and impeccably white
blouses. It was a minor matter that not one of them knew a word of English, or that when a friendly translator
in the next seat asked about the type of airplane, they told him they didnt know. All the smoking and seatbelt
signs, at least, were in Vietnamese and English; until a few months before, the second language had been
Russian. One of the smiling attendants emerged from the mist with Saigon Coke. It tasted like the old soft
drink Moxie.
Ten minutes into the flight, the vapour dispersed, the porthole cleared, and far below the airplane, smoke from
farms and factories rose up to join the general haze. To the left, the mountains drifted off toward Cambodia in
folds of green and purple velvet. Here and there, patches of more brilliant green suggested rainforest, and one
imagined tigers. The landscape was so vast and serene it was hard to reconcile it with the labour that took
place there building and traversing the Ho Chi Minh Trail. From 25,000 feet there were no signs of the war,
nothing to connect this land to remembered images of the long-ago struggle, the noise, the suffering, the
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terrible assault on the earth that made a moonscape of the DMZ. Now it all appeared to be washed over with
new growth and salved by the haze of heat and altitude and time.
The Tupolev flew over the long barrier beaches north of Hue, where the river waters flowing down from the
Annam Cordillera are filtered in the tidal marshes before they mix with the South China Sea. Then the shore
bends inward toward the west, nearing the narrowest section of this hourglass country, and the jetliner headed
out over the Tonkin Gulf.
I visited Hanoi two and a half years ago to observe discussions between Vietnam Airlines and Continental,
one of several U.S. airlines then exploring business opportunities with the Vietnamese flag carrier. Even
before President Clinton lifted the trade embargo in February 1994, Continental, Northwest, Delta, United,
and American had all sent representatives to Vietnam, each hoping to share with VNA the traffic that would
be possible between the two countries once diplomatic relations were normalized. Which of the U.S. carriers
will prevail, however, depends not only on VNAs preference but on a tangle of bureaucratic procedures.
First, the number of routes available must be determined by negotiations between the Vietnamese aviation
authority and the U.S. departments of state and transportation. Once that number has been announced, the
airlines will file applications with the DOT, and the department will either make a ruling or send the case to an
administrative law judge for a recommendation. The process is long and complicated, but so is the establishment
of a business relationship with a state-owned institution in a communist country. So the American executives
started laying the groundwork for cooperation in 1992, and they found through the course of their negotiations
that both sides had a lot to learn.
112. The author of the passage could be any of the following except:
(1) A professional belonging to the airline industry
(2) A bureaucrat belonging to the aviation and transportation ministry
(3) An executive belonging to an airline company
(4) An aircraft engineer
113. The Tupolev aircraft was built by:

(1) The Vietnamese (2) Continental (3) The Soviets (4) None of these
114. It can be inferred from the passage that Lost Horizon was a/an:
(1) Name of World War II aircraft (2) Movie
(3) Yacht (4) None of these
115. It can be inferred from the passage that the authors opinion about the Tupolev aircraft was:
(1) Appreciative (2) Negative (3) Disinterested (4) Uninterested
116. The journey mentioned in the passage was undertaken in the year:
(1) 1930 (2) 1993 (3) 1994 (4) 1992
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Passage 2
Although nerves can be thought of as wires of telegraph cables carrying messages in the form of bursts of
energy, a nerve impulse is more complicated than a surge of electrons travelling along a copper wire. The
transmission of an impulse through a living cell involves the movement of electrically charged particles-ions-
across, not along, a membrane; in this case the wall of the axon. Axons are tiny tubes which grow from the
neuron and range in length from a few millimetres to several meters long.
Nerve cells are remarkable because they can communicate with each other. A stimulated neuron sends
messages in the form of the tiny rapid pulses of electricity along its axon, the synapses linking it to other
neurons. The electrical impulses themselves cannot jump across the synapses, but the signal is passed by
causing the release of a chemical transmitter substance that makes the surface of the next neuron develop an
impulse. Studying nerve communication is difficult because the synapses are usually so small that there can
be many linking nerve cells. Each may receive thousands of synaptic contacts from other neurons and, in turn,
may send the same number of axon branches. Another complication is the sheer number of nerve cells. The
human nervous system contains billions of neurons-more than 10 billion in the brain alone, and so scientists
have an incredibly difficult job in determining how the whole wiring system works.
117. What is the main idea of this passage?

(1) How ions move. (2) How nerves are like telegraph cables.
(3) How electrical impulses move. (4) How nerves send messages.
118. What is so special about nerve cells?

(1) That they contain ions. (2) That they are so complex.
(3) That they communicate with each other. (4) That they are linked to each other.
119. What does the electrical impulse cause?

(1) Ions to jump across the axon (2) Release of a chemical transmitter
(3) A burst of stimulation (4) Linking of neurons
Passage 3
Recently, a bizarre experiment in the United States showed that psychiatrists cannot always distinguish between
people who are mentally disturbed and those who are sane.
Eight perfectly normal people, by shamming mild symptoms, gained admission to psychiatric wards. Everything
they told the doctors about themselves and their past experiences was true, except their names and symptoms.
They all complained of hearing strange voices. Once inside the hospitals, they behaved as normally as they
could. Amazingly, none of the staff or doctors discovered the fraud, though many of the real patients in the
hospital did. Youre not crazy. Youre a journalist checking up on the hospital, they were told by their
inmates.
Critics of conventional psychiatry have argued that diagnostic terms for mental disease are often no more
than convenient labels designed to make life easier for doctors. This experiment would seem to support that
notion.
120. The experiment proved that
(1) Many sane people are wrongly hospitalized
(2) Psychiatrists are poorly trained
(3) Some psychiatrists cannot make accurate diagnoses
(4) Psychiatrists should not label their patients
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121. The eight people got admitted into the wards by
(1) Pretending to be totally insane (2) Lying about their experiences
(3) Paying an admission fee (4) Faking minor psychological problems
122. According to the passage,

(1) Only real patients suspected that the eight were normal
(2) Some real patients helped in the experiment
(3) The eight participants all heard strange voices
(4) The eight could not escape from the hospitals once they got in
Passage 4
Its hard to imagine our world without plastics, a large group of synthetic materials based on the chemistry of
carbon. The term derives from the Greek plastikos, meaning mouldable or formable, and it is flexibility that
underlies the success of plastics. The first synthetic plastic was made in 1869 from plant cellulose, hence its
name celluloid. Celluloid was used to make many things, including movie film, and it is used even today by
button makers. New plastics were rapidly developed starting in the 1930s. Nylon, introduced in 1938, was the
first plastic widely used in clothing. Later plastics like polyester surpass such natural fibres as cotton and wool
in retaining warmth when wet. Teflon, unusual because of its resistance to high heat, was created the same
year and is now common on non-stick cookware. Polyethylene has been commercially produced since the
late 1940s and is the most widely used plastic. Newer plastics are miracle materials. Acrylic can stand rough
outdoor conditions and is used in lighting fixtures, airplane windows, and car taillights. Some plastics are
excellent for electrical insulation and appear in wall switches and other electrical hardware; others are the
opposite and have excellent conducting properties, and these are likely to become very important in the
electronics industry. While many plastics are soft and brittle, new creations have strengths equivalent to
metals. Wherever you look from space shuttles in outer space, artificial hearts inside our bodies, to the garden
hose, you find plastics.
123. The word synthetic in line 3 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
(1) Artificial (2) Flexible (3) Strong (4) Hardened
124. According to the passage, what is the meaning of the Greek word plastikos?
(1) That which can be quickly heated (2) That which is visual
(3) That which is easily shaped (4) That which is unnatural
125. Which of the following plastics is used to make airplane windows?

(1) Acrylic (2) Celluloid (3) Polyethylene (4) Teflon
126. It can be concluded from the passage that plastic

(1) Will completely replace natural fibres in the clothing industry
(2) Do not have the water resistance to be used outdoors
(3) May even begin to replace metals
(4) Are cheaper than copper when used in electrical wiring
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Passage 5
I would like to share an encounter that shakes me up each time I think of it even though it actually took place
more than 30 years ago. I was young and newly married. Martha, a cousin of my husbands came to visit from
England. She was an elegant aristocratic woman who was ordinarily very formal and reserved in her behaviour.
I was, therefore, surprised to find her in my kitchen one morning. She began to tell me about Harold, her late
husband. He was a wonderful, gentle, and kindly man. She was the strong one in the family and he always
deferred to her. She ran the show and he never demanded anything from her. She went about, day-to-day
busily attending to the important things in her life, fully expecting that some day she would focus and spend
more time with Harold, who she assumed would always be there. There didnt seem to be any urgency.
Then, without warning and totally unexpectedly, one day he collapsed and died. I can still hear her sobs these
many years later. Feigele, she cried, I can perhaps come to terms with the fact that he died prematurely
and left me alone, but I am haunted and inconsolable that I took him and his presence for granted. I will never
forgive myself for not taking the time to tell him how much he meant to me.
I would remind the reader that while having a husband around 24-7 can be trying, that she not lose sight of the
bigger picture. Many interests in life appear to be terribly significant, but the greatest gift by far is the
presence and companionship of a spouse. Indeed, we must confront our issues, but at the same time we must
work hard not to allow our busy schedules to obscure our greatest blessing.
127. The objective of the passage is:

(1) Narrating how sad the author feels about losing her husband
(2) Advising widows how to best spend their lives
(3) Suggesting to married women to enjoy life continuously
(4) None of these
128. Martha is:

(1) The author of the passage (2) The authors cousin
(3) The authors husbands cousin (4) The authors cousins wife
129. Fiegele is:

(1) The author of the passage (2) The authors husbands cousin
(3) The authors cousins wife (4) Cannot be determined
Passage 6
Wow, first cloning and now immortality? Okay, were jumping the gun a bit. But seriously, scientists announced
that they have succeeded in producing cells that divide many times over their normal limit. In normal cells,
division takes place a certain number of times and then the cell stops dividing. Likewise, cells in vitro usually
divide about 50 times or so before they cease dividing. Scientists succeeded in producing cells that divided
over 90 times with no signs of slowing down! But how?
In the nucleus of a cell, each chromosome contains the genetic information, also known as DNA, for the
individual. When cells divide, DNA is replicated. On the end of chromosomes is a protective cap of sorts,
called a telomere. As cells divide, the telomere becomes shorter and shorter until the cell ages and stops
dividing. Scientists have known that telomere shortening is associated with the aging process, but it wasnt
known whether shortening is an exact cause or a by-product of aging.
Recently, scientists at Geron Corporation and the University of Texas Southwestern Medical Center added an
enzyme called telomerase to the cells chromosomes. Telomerase caused the telomeres to grow longer, thus
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circumventing the normal shortening process. From this experiment, scientists were able to conclude that
telomeres do act as a biological clock in the aging process.
This could have interesting implications. Theoretically, scientists would be able to treat a variety of genetic
defects and/or diseases by removing a group of cells from a person, rejuvenating them, and returning them.
There are several unanswered questions. Because cancerous cells have telomeres that do not shorten, there
is some debate whether or not the natural shortening of telomeres is an evolutionary adaptation to ward off
cancer. By circumventing this natural process, we may in fact be destroying a natural defense mechanism of
the body. As additional experiments and investigations are performed, we will be better able to see if this
process is indeed an immortality breakthrough.
130. Telomerase is:

(1) A protective cap on the end of chromosomes
(2) An enzyme
(3) Another name for a chromosome
(4) None of these
131. With the available knowledge and from the contents in the passage, an artificial lengthening of the
telomere is unlikely to result in which of the following?
(1) An advent of cancer (2) Enhanced cell division
(3) Better treatment for some diseases (4) None of these
Passage 7
The dismal science of economics lies at the heart of many public policy debates, but the range and quality of
economic opinion appearing in Canadas news media has never been more dismal. Not that long ago, editors
seeking expert advice on economic policy would canvass a wide range of opinion in the nations universities.
Their sources would be scholarly economists whose research appeared in peer-reviewed economics journals.
Today news coverage of economic issues ignores academic voices in favour of business-supported study
mills flogging neo-conservative nostrums for the nations economic ills.
Cloaked in pseudo-academic garb by virtue of their self-designation as institutes, the Fraser Institute, the
C.D. Howe Institute, the Atlantic Institute for Market Studies seek to influence news coverage and public
policy toward a consistent agenda: less government, lower and less progressive taxes, fewer social programs,
more freedom for the owners of capital, and less power for the purveyors of labour. Their studies, often
penned by junior-varsity economists, are assiduously promoted to key journalists and influential bureaucrats
with news releases and executive summaries that distil complex topics into easily digested simplicities.
Lars Osberg, a distinguished emeritus professor of economics at Dalhousie, recently compared his relationship
to the Atlantic Institute for Market Studies as that of a geographer to the Flat Earth Society. Economist
Michael Bradfield refers to AIMSs Ontario counterpart as the Seedy Howe Institute. Such criticism hasnt
blunted the success of these organizations, which has been astonishing. Newspapers eat them up. A host of
policy issues, the shift from income taxes to consumption taxes, the crippling of Canadas generic drug
industry and the consequent stratospheric rise in drug prices, the pursuit of international trade unhampered by
environmental safeguards or worker rights were all promoted heavily by these study mills. The left has
responded haltingly with counter-institutions like the Canadian Centre for Policy Alternatives, publisher of the
Alternative Budget, but its effectiveness has been hindered by the stigma of union financing in a way that
business financing has not impeded the right-wing institutes.
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Readers with Internet access can find a useful antidote to the tendentiousness of media economic coverage
in the work of Brian MacLean, an economist at Laurentian University. Every few weeks, MacLean distributes
an e-mail newsletter called Canadas Economy in the Newspapers. Each issue reviews several recent articles
on economics, pointing out questionable assumptions, faulty interpretations, and logical contradictions. His
style is engaging and easy to follow without sacrificing academic credibility. In one recent example, a pair of
AIMS papers portrayed Canadas system of equalization as a millstone that, far from assisting have-not
provinces, had imprisoned them in a welfare trap. The gist of the argument is that increased provincial
revenues from economic development, particularly resource based developments, are largely offset by reductions
in equalization payments, with the result that provincial governments have little or no incentive to promote
economic development. Readers probably dont need MacLeans help to detect the real -world absurdity of
this conclusion.
Since the Second World War; and likely for decades before that, economic development has been a nearly
universal obsession for provincial and federal governments alike. In the logic of AIMSs researchers, attempts
by provincial governments to wheedle better royalty deals out of oil companies and mining corporations are
misguided policies that could be eliminated if only the equalization program were gutted. MacLean points out
other distortions in the AIMS analysis, such as the fundamental misconception that equalization is somehow
supposed to be a tool for economic development, and Atlantic Canadas continued lack of prosperity is proof
of its failure. But equalization has nothing to do with economic development; its purpose is to ensure reasonable
comparable levels of critical government services like health, education, and welfare, without wildly different
levels of taxation.
132. Brian MacLean is:

(1) An economist
(2) Director of AIMS
(3) Producer of the newsletter Canadas Economy in the Newspapers
(4) Both (1) and (3)
133. According to the passage, the quality of economic reporting and analysis in Canadian media till some
time back was:
(1) Deplorable
(2) Academic
(3) Well researched
(4) The best in the world
134. Lars Osbergs opinion about AIMS, according to the passage is:
(1) Excellent (2) Unimpressed (3) Critical (4) Unbiased
135. AIMS is most likely to agree with which of the following economic opinions?
(1) The government should increase the expenditure on social reforms
(2) The government should increase the tax rates
(3) The government should interfere less with the market
(4) The educational system in Canada should be completely revamped
End of Section III
raul.raghav
CAT Diagnostic Test

Ascent Education CAT Diagnostic Solutions
14-B/1, Dr. Thirumurthy Nagar, 1st St, Nungambakkam, Chennai - 34. Ph: 5213 7211
Answer Key
(1) 1 (41) 4 (81) 3 (121) 4
(2) 3 (42) 4 (82) 2 (122) 1
(3) 1 (43) 1 (83) 2 (123) 1
(4) 2 (44) 4 (84) 1 (124) 3
(5) 1 (45) 3 (85) 4 (125) 1
(6) 4 (46) 1 (86) 3 (126) 3
(7) 3 (47) 2 (87) 1 (127) 3
(8) 3 (48) 2 (88) 2 (128) 3
(9) 2 (49) 3 (89) 3 (129) 1
(10) 1 (50) 3 (90) 1 (130) 2
(11) 3 (51) 1 (91) 2 (131) 4

(12) 2 (52) 3 (92) 1 (132) 1
(13) 4 (53) 2 (93) 4 (133) 3
(14) 2 (54) 1 (94) 1 (134) 3
(15) 4 (55) 4 (95) 3 (135) 3
(16) 3 (56) 3 (96) 1
(17) 1 (57) 1 (97) 1
(18) 2 (58) 4 (98) 2
(19) 1 (59) 3 (99) 4
(20) 3 (60) 1 (100) 2
(21) 2 (61) 2 (101) 3

(22) 3 (62) 4 (102) 1
(23) 2 (63) 4 (103) 2
(24) 4 (64) 3 (104) 4
(25) 2 (65) 4 (105) 3
(26) 3 (66) 4 (106) 2
(27) 2 (67) 3 (107) 4
(28) 4 (68) 3 (108) 3
(29) 3 (69) 3 (109) 1
(30) 4 (70) 3 (110) 3
(31) 2 (71) 3 (111) 2

ASCENT Education
(32) 4 (72) 2 (112) 4

(33) 4 (73) 2 (113) 3
(34) 4 (74) 1 (114) 2
(35) 3 (75) 2 (115) 2
(36) 4 (76) 2 (116) 2
(37) 3 (77) 2 (117) 4
(38) 3 (78) 3 (118) 3
(39) 4 (79) 3 (119) 2
(40) 4 (80) 1 (120) 3
Score Sheet
Section No. No. Attempted No. Correct Negative Net Score
Section 1
Section 2
Section 3
Total 185
An IIM Alumni Venture - Classes for CAT - XAT - GRE - GMAT Diag Sol - 1
e-mail: ascent@ascenteducation.com Web: www.ascenteducation.com
raul.raghav
CAT Diagnostic Test

Explanatory Answers
1. Go from the choices: Choice(1) K,L,N
K - Chairman planning commission (Central government),
L - Principal Secretary,Ministry of Education (Central government),
N - Accountant General (State government)
There are two representatives of Central government and one from State Government each from different
departments. It satisfies the given condition and hence the answer.
2. Choice(1) P, K, M here K and M are of the same department - Planning commission. Hence it is eliminated.
Choice(2) P, M, L in this P and M are State Government employees. Hence it is eliminated.
Choice(3) P, K, L all of them are from different departments and here K and L are from Central Government and
P from State government. It satisfies the given condition. Hence choice(3) is the answer.
3. From statement I, if J cannot serve on a committee then K and L should be present in the committee and K is
from Planning commission and hence M (planning commission) cannot participate in the committee. State-
ment I is true.
If O doesnt serve on the committee J can serve the committee with an exception that P should not serve on the
committee. As P and J are of same department (Finance). Hence statement II may not be true. Hence choice(1)
is the right answer.
4. Choice(2) N and J is the right answer. Here L and J are from Central Government and N from State government.
All of them are from different departments.
5. Statement I: N and O never serve on the same committee because they both belong to state government.
Hence it is true.
Statement II: N and J in the same committee. This is not possible because they both belong to same
department(Finance). Hence it is false.
Population
6. Go from the choices Highest population density = .
Area
State 1 Population density = 2500/35 = 71.42
State 4 Population density = 6600/75 = 88
State 5 Population density = 4213/42 = 100.4
State 6 Population density = 2245/19 = 118.4.
State 6 has the highest population density and hence choice 4 is the right answer.
7. State 3 has the lowest Population density of 61.61 than others [State 1 = 71.42, State 2 = 77.12,State 7 = 67.]
8. Total population = 22583and Total area = 271.

22583
∴ Average population density = 271 = 83 (approx) the nearest possible answer is 82.
Total . population
9. Average popoulation of the seven states = = 22583 / 7 = 3226(approx) the nearest answer
7
is 3200.
10. Total production of plant 1 = 753 + 385 + 1623 = 2761

Total production of plant 2 = 815 + 700 + 840 = 2355.
Total production of plant 3 = 650 + 650 + 1000 = 2300.
Hence the maximum total production of all the three products = 2761 and plant 1.
11. Polyethylene / BoPP for plant 2 = 815/700 = 1.16. Hence choice 3 is the answer.
12. Total BoPP production for all 3 plants per month = 385 + 700 + 650 = 1735 (000 tons).
Diag Sol - 2 An IIM Alumni Venture - Classes for CAT - XAT - GRE - GMAT
raul.raghav
Naptha 1623
13. For plant 1 = = = 4.22(approx ) .
BoPP 385
14.
North
B
A
E
F
West East
C D
South
Refer the diagram given.

The town that is furthest in the Northwest direction is B. Answer is (2).
15. From the diagram, we can see that towns A and E are both north and east of F. Answer is (4).
16. Town F is situated both south and west of town A. Town D is situated both south and west of town E. Town C is
situated both south and west of towns D and E.
Thus, towns C, D and F are situated both South and West of at least one other town. Answer is (3).
17. Refer diagram. We know that E is north of D, C is east of F and B is north of F.

The position of town C with respect to D is not clearly known.Thus, if the information C is north of D is given, then
the information will be more specific. Answer is (1).
18. The information, D is south and east of A can be obtained by combining the other statements. Thus the
information in statement III can be deduced from the other statements. Answer (2).
19. Revenue for Product A in 1994 = Price(25) * Sales(16).

Similarly, total revenue = Revenue calculated for all the products in all the years = 3.25 lacs.
20. Total revenue for product A for all five years = [ (25*16) + (28*17) + (30*17) +(32*15) + (30*25) ] = 2.62 lacs(approx).
21. It can be seen from the table that Product B revenue was highest in the year 1995 (35*36).
22. Revenue for product B in 1998 = 45 * 10 = 450 and revenue for product C in 1998 = 52*40 = 2080.
 2080 − 450 
Hence, revenue for product C is  × 100 = 362%( approx) higher than product B.
450 
23. Total revenues in 1996 for all 3 products = 30*17 + 40*11 + 45*50 = 510 + 440 + 2250 = 3200
Total revenues in 1997 for all 3 products = 32*15 + 40*12 + 50*45 = 480 + 480 + 2250 = 3210.
10
Hence, revenues in 1997 were higher by 10 and % increase in revenues = × 100 = 0.3%
3200
24. Revenue from all three products in 1994 = 3.12 lacs, in 1995 = 3.98 lacs, in 1996 = 3.2 lacs, in 1997 = 3.12 lacs
and in 1998 = 3.28 lacs. Hence the highest revenue from all 3 products was 3.98 lacs in 1995.
25. Summing the number of Computer Science passed students from the year 1995 to 2000 we get 195.
26. A quick glance at the table will help you to find the answer. It was in the year 1998 there was a 100% result.
27. Total admissions for Civil in all the five years = 261. Total number of students who graduated in civil = 249.
Hence, percentage of those passed in civil in all these 6 years = 249/261 = 95.4.
raul.raghav

28. Number of Mechanical students graduated in all these 6 years = 365 and number of Metallurgical students
graduated = 257. Hence there are 108 more Mechanical students graduated than Metallurgical students.
29. The total number of students admitted to all the four course in 1995 = numbers corresponding to graduation
year 1999 as it is a 4 year course = 38 + 71 + 44 + 47 = 200.
30. This is a question that you should skip, at least, in the first round. It takes time, though there is no difficult
concept involved.
31. The ratio of students passed to admits = 1.0(100%)
32. Bala takes 53.5 seconds, Chandran takes 53.0 secs, Dinu takes 52.5 secs and Easwar takes 50 secs. Hence
Easwar wins the race.
33. Go from the choices, for the first 200m Chandran takes 23 secs; Dinu takes 23 secs and Eawar takes 23 secs.
Hence all the three will be in the same position at the end of 200m.
34. Go from the choices, for the first 300m Dinu takes 37 secs, Chandran takes 36 secs and Easwar takes 36
secs. Hence, both Chandran and Easwar will be leading the race at the end of 300m.
35. Go from answer choices. In choice (3) - Ajith, Chandran, Dinu and Easwar will take 11 + 11 + 10.5 + 11 = 43.5
seconds which will be lowest amongst the four combination given. Note, for each of the four this is their first
100m.
36. Choice (1) - Chandran + Easwar = 23 + 23 = 46 seconds. Choice (2) - Chandran + Dinu = 23 + 23 = 46 seconds.
Choice (3) - Dinu + Easwar = 23 + 23 = 46 seconds. All three choices give the same answer. Hence, choice (4)
is correct. Note again that for each of them this will be their first 200 m.
37. A1 = As A1 is equal to Bs 1. But we know that Bs 1.55 is equal to As 1 unit (fromR1,C2) and from these Bs 1
1
= × 1 = 0.65 . Hence A1 = 0.65.
155
.
38. Cs A2 = Bs 1 unit. From the table Cs 0.95 unit = As 1 unit = Bs 1.55 unit. when Bs unit is 1 Cs unit is
1
× 0.95 = 0.61 . A2 = 0.61.
155
.
1
39. Ds 1 unit = Es A12 unit. From the table Ds 1.25 unit = Es 1.1 unit from these Ds 1 unit = . = 0.88 unit
× 11
125
.
of E.
40. From statement I F > B > A. Statement II A > C > D. Combining both the statements we get
F > B > A > C > D. Hence the oldest and youngest pair is F and D.
41. From statement A, we know that Krish got 25% more than what he got last year. Insufficient information to
determine how much he got more than Bama. Statement B talks of Bamas salary between 2 years. Again
cannot determine how much Bama got less than Krish. Data insufficient.
If we combine both the statements, we know that Krish got a higher increase than Bama - but we do not know
how much was their respective salaries before the rise and hence cannot determine the difference in their
current salaries.
42. From both the statements, we do not know if the hike in salary was responsible for the lowering of profits.
Hence data insufficient.
43. Statement B alone is sufficient, while statement A alone is not sufficient. From statement A, we will be able to
know the % markup and not the actual selling price.
44. Statement A talks about the average quantity consumed by a horse. We do not know if the 4 horses that we are
talking about consume the amount equal to the average or more or less. Insufficient data.
Statement B talks about 16 horses consuming 14.4 quintals - we do not know if all horses consume equal
quantities or not. Hence data insufficient.
raul.raghav

45. We can find out the date of the second Sunday of December 2000 (8 months before) from statement B. From
statement A, we know it was the same date he joined in July of 2001. So we can determine the day of the week.
5780
46. Statement A: The ratio of graduates who were shortlisted to those who applied in 2002 was = 0.89 .
6450
4250
The ratio of graduates who attended interview to those who were shortlisted in 2002 was = 0.74. Hence,
5780
statement A is true
6450
Statement B: The ratio of graduates who applied to those who attended the interview in 2002 was which
4250
is surely greater than 1. Hence, statement B is false. Correct answer (1)
3140
47. Statement A: Total applicants in 2002 = 6450 + 3140 = 9590. % of postgraduates = × 100 = 32.75%
9590
4260
Total applicants in 2003 = 7520 + 4260 = 11780. % of postgraduates = × 100 = 36.16%.
11780
As the percentage in 2003 is 36.16% which is greater than a third, statement A is false.
Statement B: The growth in postgraduate applicants = 4260 - 3140 = 1120. The growth in the number of
graduate applicants = 7520 - 6450 = 1070. Hence, statement B is true. Answer (2)
48. Statement A: The ratio of post graduates shortlisted for interview in 2002 as a percentage of those who applied
2940
= × 100 = 93.63%. Hence, this statement is false.
3140
Statement B:The ratio of graduates who attended interview as a percentage of those who were shortlisted in
2003 was more than 90% Hence, this statement is true. Hence (2).
49. Statement A: In 2002, the percentage of postgraduates who have been selected for the job as a
520
percentage of the postgraduates who attended the interview = × 100 = 20.63%
2520
In 2003, the percentage of postgraduates who have been selected for the job as a percentage of the post-
640
graduates who attended the interview = × 100 = 17.07%. Hence, this statement is true.
3750
Statement B: Number of graduates shortlisted for interview in 2002 is 5780.
Number of graduates shortlisted for interview in 2003 is 6460.
6460 − 5780
Therefore, the % growth in the number of graduates shortlisted for interview is × 100 = 11.76%
5780
Number of post graduates shortlisted for interview in 2002 is 2940.
Number of post graduates shortlisted for interview in 2003 is 4080.
4080 − 2940
Therefore, the % growth in number of postgraduates shortlisted for interview is × 100 = 38.77%
2940
Hence, this statement is true.
50. Statement A:
Number of graduates selected in 2002 is 415.
Number of graduates selected in 2003 is 620.
620 − 415
Therefore, the % growth in the number of graduates selected in the 2 years is × 100 = 49.4%
415
Number of post graduates selected in 2002 is 520.
Number of post graduates selected in 2003 is 640.
640 − 520
Therefore, the % growth in the number of post graduates selected in the 2 years is × 100 = 23.08%
520
Hence, this statement is true.
raul.raghav

Statement B:
Total number of applicants recruited in 2002 is 415 + 520 = 935.
Total number of applicants recruited in 2003 is 620 + 640 = 1260.
1260− 935
The % growth in the total number of applicants recruited between the two years is × 100 = 34.76%.
935
This is in excess of 30%. Hence, this statement is true.
51. As no information is given about the dimensions (volume) of the cone we cannot answer the questions. Hence,
cannot be determined.
52. fn(x) is negative.

From the four answer choices we know that the answer has to be either (2) or (3) as it talks about the two
possibilities when n is even. If n is even, let us take an example of n being = 2.
Then f2(x) is negative and therefore f1(x) = -f2(x) will be positive. Therefore, correct answer is 3.
53. G1 = | a | . b . | c | . d ... | y | . z i.e. every odd term is within modulus.

G2 = a.b.c.d.....y.z
If a = (-1)1, then the value of a is negative and that of | a | is positive.
Similarly, c = (-3)3 which is negative and | c | is positive.
b = (2)-2 which is positive and | b | is also positive.
G1 = | a | . b . | c | . d ... | y | . z = product of all positive terms and is, therefore, positive.
G2 = a.b.c.d.....y.z = product of 13 negative terms viz. a, c, e, g, .., y and 13 positive terms b, d, f, .., z.
Hence G2 is negative. Therefore, G1 = -G2
x −5
54. >0
x + 5x − 14
2
x−5
=> >0
(x + 7)(x − 2)
Substitute the different answer choices. When x = -6, (the smallest of the 4 answer choices)
x −5 −6−5 − 11 11
= = =
(x + 7)(x − 2) (− 6 + 7)(− 6 − 2) 1(− 8) 8
55. Term 2 = Term 1 + Common difference (d)
Term 4 = Term 3 + Common difference (d) & so on and so forth.
Therefore, Term 2 + Term 4 + Term 6 + Term 8 + Term 10 + Term 12
= Term 1 + Term 3 + Term 5 + Term 7 + Term 9 + Term 11 + (6 x d)
Sum of even terms : Sum of odd terms = 32 : 27 and total sum = 354
32
Therefore, Sum of even terms = 354 x = 192
59
27
Sum of odd terms = 354 x = 162
59
We know, sum of even terms = sum of odd terms + 6d => 192 = 162 + 6d => 6d = 30 => d = 5
56. When a point is reflected on the x-axis the value of the x co-ordinate remains same, while the sign of the y co-
ordinate changes. Hence, the reflection of A(2, 1) is A(2, -1), B(0, 3) is B(0, -3) and C(-2, -2) is C(-2, 2).
57. Total surface area = curved surface area + base area.

The curved surface area of cone = area of the right angled sector
1 2 1
= ð r = × ð × 64 = 16ð
4 4
Here base area = 0. Since, it is not a solid cone.
∴ T. S. A = 16 π + 0 = 16 π sqcm.
58. b2 - 4ac > 0

=> 4(m - 4)2 - 4 * 1 * (m2 + 6m) > 0
=> (m - 4)2 - m2 - 60 > 0
m2 - 8m + 16 - m2 - 6m > 0
-14m + 16 > 0 => 16 > 14m
raul.raghav
8 8
> m =>  − ∞, 

7  7
59. x intercept is when y = 0 in 8x - 15y = 120

8x = 120 => x = 15 i.e. (15, 0)
y intercept is when x = 0 i.e. -15y = 120 or y = -8 i.e. (0, -8)
AB = 15 2 + 82 = 289 = 17
∴ Perimeter = 15 + 8 + 17 = 40 cm
1 1
60. + = log ð 2 + log ð 4.5 = log ð 9
log2 ð log 4.5 ð
π x=9 (3.14)x = 9 32 = 9
∴ x < 2 for (3.14)x = 9
61. Shifayas answer is correct. Refer the adjoining figure
1 1
62. f x −  = x2 + 2 . Go from answer choice

 x x
Let us assume f(z) = z 2 ---- Choice (1)
1  1
2
1 1 1
then f  x −  =  x −  = x + 2 − 2 . But the question states that f  x −  = x + 2 .
 2  2
 x  x x  x  x
∴ f(z) = z2 + 2
63. a1, a2, a3 are all negative.
The product of even number of negative numbers will be positive and therefore, the even power of a negative
number will be positive.
Choice (1) - When all b i are even (ai )bi will all be positive. Hence G will be positive. (possible)
Choice (2) - All bi i = 1, ..., n are odd => all (ai )b i are negative. If n happens to be even, then G will be positive
(possible)
Choice (3) - All bi are odd and n is even then G will be positive (possible)
Choice (4) - All bi are odd and n is odd. Then all (ai )bi are negative and there will be odd number of negative
numbers, whose product will be negative. (Not possible)
64. ax + by > cx + dy
as all the numbers are positive and x < y a + b > c + d. Alternatively, substitute some values for
a, b, c, d and x and y which adhere to the above inequality and deduce the answer.
65. If there are four balls in a bag each with an integer label and the product = 24, then the labels have to be 1, 2, 3,
4 or (-1, -2, -3, -4) or (1, 2, -3, -4) or (1, -2, -3, 4) and so on. As the product of the 4 integers is positive either two
or four of the integers have to be positive. Taking conditional probabilities, the answer obtained is none of the
choices (1) to (3).
66. 20 for the 1st square. 21 for the second.

=> for the 20th square = 219
21 = 2, 22 = 4, 2 3 = 8, 24 = 16, 25 = 32, ....
The powers of 2 follow a pattern as far as their unit digits go. Every 4th power has the same unit digit. 2 19 will
have the same unit digit as 23 = 8. Hence the answer is (4)
3
67. Area of equilateral triangle = (2a )2 = 3a2
4
1 a2 + 2a
Area of right angled triangle = * (a + 2)(a) =
2 2
raul.raghav
a2 + 2a
=> 3a = => 2 3a 2 = a2 + 2a => 2 3 − 1 a 2 = 2a => 2 3 − 1 a = 2
( ) ( )
2
=> a =
2
=
( =
)
2 2 3 +1 4 3 + 2
= 0.81
2 3 −1 12 − 1 11
68. 30 out of 40 can sing. 8 out of 40 cannot dance => 32 out of 40 can dance
The maximum number that can either not sing or not dance = 8 + 10 = 18
69. | a | * | -b | * | c | * .... | -z | = | a | * | b | * | c | * .... | z |. Modulus of a quantity means the sign is converted from -ve
to the +ve i.e | -3 | = | 3 |.
70. For f(2) = 2f(1), f(3) = 3f(1), the function will have to be such that f(1) = 1, f(2) = 2, f(3) = 3... .
n(n + 1)
f(1) + f(2) + ...... f(n) = 1 + 2 + 3 +....+ n =
2
71. Choice (3).

4 BC+ 2CD + 3BD = 450 --- (1)
3BC+ 2CD + 4BD = 450----(2)
3BC+ 1CD+ 1BD = 250 ----(3)
9*(1) - 5*(2) -7*(3) = Rs.50
72. 28, 45, 53 is a pythogorean triplet. The value of AE = Semi-perimeter - BC . Semi-perimeter = 28+45+53/ 2 =
63. Therefore, AE can take two values (ie) 63 - 45 = 18 (or) 63 - 53 = 10. Since we have only 18 choice (2) is the
correct answer.
73. Choice (2).

The two digit number which is six times the sum of its digit is 54. Let the two numbers be a and b.
1 1 a +b 54 1
+ = = =
a b ab 378 7
74. Choice (1)

I - true
II- 2 2 n +1 is not prime for n=5
III - Area of circumcircle is 4 times that of the incircle
IV - true
V - There are 21 numbers.
75. Choice (2)

By dividing the probability of picking a quarrel in the pool parlour by the probability of his notoroius activities at
2
10 ≈ 0.19
other places we get the answer 3 3 0 2 3 .
+ + + +
12 8 15 10 13
(4x + 7) 2 (x + 5)(16x − 24) + 169

76. = . For the equation to have integer value 169 should be divisible by x +5. So
x +5 x +5
x can take two values (ie) 8 and 164.Hence choice (2)
77. Choice (2)

The number of roses fetched forms an arithmetic progression. The question asks you to find out the common
difference (ie) 377268/211 - 187889/149 = (211-149)* d/2. So d = 17 . So she collected 17 more flowers.
78. Choice (3)

K & L will be equal to 64 for n=3 & n=9 respectively which in turn equals Z. X = 3Z+1. No.of ways of selecting Z
elements out of 3Z+1 elements of which Z are identical is 2 . So ans is 2
2Z 128
79. Choice (3). Student 1 & 2 will get two answers viz 4 and 16. But when both the clues are used we can say that
the number is 16. So student 3 is correct.
raul.raghav

80. Choice (1)
2, 5, 149 are the numbers.
81. Choice (3)

142857*1 = 142857
142857*2 = 285714
142857*3 = 428571
142857*4 = 571428
142857*5 = 714285
142857*6 = 857142
-
2999997

82. Area of 2nd circle = 3(area of 1st circle)

Area of 3rd circle = 3(area of 2nd circle) = 3 (3(area of 1st circle)
∴ Area of 7th circle = 36(area of 1st circle)
=> radius of 7th circle = 3 (area of 1 circle) = 3 = 27
6 st 3
83. To find out the number of zeroes apply the following: n(10 n-1 + 1) - 10n - 1 /9 where n is the number raised to
the power of 10. As one lakh equals 10 5 substitute n = 5 to get the answer (ie) 38894. Choice (2)
84. Minimum number of steps involved is six (6). The sequence is as below:
START I II III IV V VI
008 053 323 026 206 251 341
85. Choice (4). Pupil who like at least one of the three magazines = A ∪ B ∪ C
= 78 + 72 + 90 - {28 + x + 22 + x + 10 + x} + x, where x is those who like all three magazines.
A ∪ B ∪ C = 180 - 2x.
The maximum number of pupil who do not like any of the three magazines = 200 - minimum number of pupil
who like at least one of the three magazines.
The minimum value that A ∪ B ∪ C can take will be dependant on the maximum value that x can take.
X can take a maximum value of 22 (as when x = 22, we get B taking a value of 72). Therefore, A ∪ B ∪ C will take
a minimum value of 180 - 44 = 136. Therefore, the maximum number of students who do not like any of the
magazines = 200 - 136 = 64.
91. Docile means "submissive" therefore obedient is the closest meaning and hence 3.
92. Neophyte means a novice or beginner , Tyro also means the same and hence 1.
93. Retinue means a group of attendants. Therefore 4 is the right choice.
94. Gainsay means to oppose or to deny . Hence 1.
95. Accomplice means an associate in wrong doing. Hence 3.
97. Conundrum means a riddle or a difficult problem . Among the given choices only 1 is suitable.
98. The paragraph clearly begins with B and has an AC link
99. The volunteers mentioned in C are the students as described in A. Hence A follows C. Note that only option4 has
this and others can be eliminated.
100. Sentence D says, " if it is right" which refers to woman's suffrage in B. Hence D follows B and the only suitable
choice is 2.
101. The pricing theory mentioned in D is the Red-Scholes theory and hence the DA link. Also, D clearly is the
opening sentence. Therefore 3 is the right choice.
102. Here, if you look at the second blank, practicable is most appropriate and therefore other choices can be
eliminated.
raul.raghav

103. One has to be aware of the synonyms for the words Bourgeoisie and proletariat to answer this .
104. "Tide Over" the crisis is the right usage and hence 4.
105. Artistic splendour and symbolic expression best complete the sentence. The best way to answer these
type of questions is by elimination of other choices.
106. labyrinth means something extremely complex in structure or arrangement and vagaries means unpredictable
actions. Hence 2 is the right choice.
107. In standard written english, Neither - Nor and Either- Or have to be used in sync. Though one might argue that
1 or 4 would suit, 1 is incorrect as it changes the meaning of the sentence.
108. 3 is the right as in this context should we be told is not appropriate as mentioned in choices 1 and 3.
109. Paralellism. Right usage is to refine and to increase. Hence 1.
110. Note that the sentence says about the response of both married and unmarried woman to social stress. Only
option 3 gives the correct usage.
111. Parallel construct. option 2 is more concise and clear.
112. The authors style and ideas present indicate that he is very unlikely to be an aircraft engineer.
113. Refer line 2 of the first paragraph.
114. The last sentence in para 1 says that it would be a perfect opening scene for the remake of last horizon. It can,
therefore, be inferred that it was a movie.
115. The tone of the author in the first 3 paras suggest that the author had a negative opinion.
116. Refer first line of the passage. Hence 2.
117. The author clearly tries to convey how nerves send messages along with other supporting details. Hence 4.
118. Refer line 1 of the 2nd para where the author states that Nerve cells are remarkable as they communicate with
each other.
119. Refer line 3 of the 2nd para.
120. Choices 2 and 4 seem to be categorical statements and hence eliminated. Choice 3 is the right answer.
121. Refer line 1 of the 2nd para.
122. Only choice 1 is within the scope of the passage.
123. Synthetic means Artificial. Hence 1.
124. Refer line 2 of the passage.
125. This is a specific detail question and the answer can be directly obtained from line 9 of the passage.
126. Remember, categorical statements like 1 and 2 will not be answers, unless stated explicitly in the passage.
There is no mention of it being cheaper than copper too. Hence 3.
127. The overall idea is to tell people to live and enjoy life. 3 limits its scope to married women as per the passage.
128. Refer line 2 of the 1st para.
129. Refer line 2 of the second para. Martha is talking to the author of the passage.
130. First sentence of the 3rd para states that telomerase is an enzyme.
131. From the passage , none of the results are unlikely.

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132. 1 as passage only says that Maclean distributes the newsletter. Nothing is mentioned about who produces it.
133. Para 1 suggests that 3 is the right choice.
134. Line 3 of the 3rd para says that such criticisms ......... hence 3.
135. Only choice 3 is appropriate.

Diagnostic CAT ASCENT EDUCATION

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CAT Diagnostic Test

Questions 1 to 5: Use the information given in the passage below.

2. Which of the following may serve with P?

3. Which of the following must be true?

5. Which of the following must be true?

Questions 6 to 9: Use the information provided in the table below.

State Population (000) Area (1000 sq.km)

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

7. The state with the lowest population density is:

8. For the seven states, the average population density is:

9. The average population of the seven states (in 000s) is:

Plant Polyethylene BoPP Naphtha

1 753 385 1623

2 815 700 840

3 650 650 1000

Questions 14 to 18: Use the information provided below.

15. Which of the following must be both north and east of F?

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

Product A Product B Product C

21. The revenue from product B was highest in the year:

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

Grad Computer Science Mechanical Civil Metallurgical

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

Sub-section II-A: Number of Questions = 20

53. G1 = |a|. b . |c|. d . |e| . f . ..........|y|. z, and G2 = a. b . c. d . e . f . ..........y. z

(1) (8 7 , ∞) (2) (7 8 , 8 7 ) (3) (− ∞,7 8) (4) (− ∞,8 7)

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

(1) z2 (3) z2  2 (4) z2 + 2

64. If ax + by > cx + dy, and y, x, a, b, c, d > 0, and if x < y, then

69. | a | * | -b | * | c | * ....... * | -z | is the same as:

(1) n (2) (3) (4)

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

Sub-section II-B: Number of Questions = 15

74. There are five statements:

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

78. Let K = 2 where K is a natural number defined for 1<n<5

Let L = 7n+1,where L is a natural number defined for 5<n<27

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

Section III - 50 Questions

Dictionary definition Usage

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Dictionary definition Usage

(1) (2) (3) (4)

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

Dictionary definition Usage

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Dictionary definition Usage

(1) (2) (3) (4)

Dictionary definition Usage

(1) (2) (3) (4)

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

113. The Tupolev aircraft was built by:

CAT Diagnostic Test Ascent Education

117. What is the main idea of this passage?

118. What is so special about nerve cells?

State Population (000) Area (1000 sq.km)

9. The average population of the seven states (in 000s) is:

(1) z2 (3) z2 2 (4) z2 + 2

61. Shifayas answer is correct. Refer the adjoining figure