Documente Academic
Documente Profesional
Documente Cultură
1. Discuss with the help of T S diagram, the effect of the variation of the following variables
on
efficiency and power output.
(i) inlet pressure (ii) initial temperature and initial pressure maintaining constant (iii)
condenser
pressure. (November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 1)
2. (a) What are the methods which can lead to increase in thermal efficiency of Rankine cycle ?
(November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 2)
(b) In a Rankine cycle, the steam at inlet to turbine is saturated at a pressure of 30 bar and the
exhaust pressure is 0.25 bar. Determine:
(i) the pump work (ii) turbine work (iii) Rankine efficiency (iv) condenser heat
flow (v) dryness at the end of expansion. (November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 2)
3. An adiabatic steam turbine receives dry saturated steam at 1.0 MN/m 2 and discharges at 0.1
N/m2.
The steam flow rate is 3 kg/s and the moisture at exit is negligible. If the ambient temperature
300 K, find the rate of entropy production and power lost. (November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 3)
4. (a) What is reheating ? What are the advantages of reheat Rankine cycle ?(May,2012/
(Supple)
(b) A simple Rankine cycle works between pressures of 28 bar and 0.06 bar, the initial
condition
of steam being dry saturated. Calculate the cycle efficiency, work ratio and specific steam
consumption rate. (May,2012/(Supple)
5. (a) What is regeneration ? Draw the schematic and T S diagram for an ideal regenerative
cycle.
(November/December,2012/
(Supple))
(b) Why ideal regenerative cycle cannot be practically possible ?
(November,2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 1)
(c) What are the advantages of a regenerative feed heating in steam power cycle ?
(November,2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 1)
6. Explain the working and analysis of the regenerative Rankine cycle with one feed water heater.
(November,2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 4)
7. An ideal regenerative cycle operates with steam supplied at 30 bar, 4000C and a condenser
pressure of 0.1 bar. For this cycle, find the cycle efficiency and steam rate. Also, calculate the
dryness fraction of steam extracted if at the point of extraction the pressure is 5 bar.
(November/December,2012/(Supple))
8. (a) Explain why reheat cycle is not used for low boiler pressures.
(November,2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 3)
(b) What are the desirable properties of a fluid for use as working substance in a steam engine
plant ? (November,2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 3)
UNIT II BOILERS
2. (a) What is the function of a boiler chimney ? What are the limitations of chimney draught ?
(November,2011/(Reg.)/Set
2)
(b) The equivalent evaporation of a boiler is found to be 22500 kg/hr. Steam is produced at 20
bar
pressure and 2500C. The feed water temperature is 360C. 1850 kg of coal/hr having a
calorific
value of 30,000 kJ/kg is utilized. Estimate the actual evaporation of the boiler in kg/hr and
efficiency. (November,2011/(Reg.)/Set
2)
4. (a) Explain the working of stirling boiler with the help of neat sketch. What are the advantages
of
using bent tubes over straight tubes ? (November,2011/(Reg.)/Set
4)
(b) What is the use of preheater in high pressure boiler ? (November,2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set
4)
5. With the help of neat sketch, explain an injector for feeding water to the boiler drum. Why it is
not used for large capacity boilers ? Explain its location in boiler installation.
(November,2011/(Reg.)/Set
1)
6. (a) What are the various types of artificial draught systems used in steam boilers indicating the
main advantages ? (November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 3)
(b) How much air is used / kg of coal burnt in a boiler having chimney of 35 m. height to create
a
draught of 20 mm. of water, when the temperature of flue gas in the chimney is 370 0C and
the
boiler house temperature is 340C. Does this chimney satisfy the condition of maximum
discharge ? (November/December, 2012/
(Supple)
7. (a) Define the chimney efficiency and find out expression for the same.
(November,2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 2)
(b) Find the height of chimney necessary to produce a draught of 30 mm of water column.
The
atmospheric air temperature is 2170C. Air fuel ratio is 13.5. What will be the power
required
if induced draught fan is used for producing the above draught ? Fuel consumption is 1500
kg/hr. (November,2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 2)
8. (a) Explain the procedure to draw the heat balance sheet. (November,2012/(Reg. &
Supple)/Set 3)
(b) Explain the working of an economizer with a neat sketch.
(November,2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 4)
1. (a) What is the function of a nozzle ? Explain about various types of nozzles and where are
they
used . (November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 2)
(b) Derive an expression for velocity of flow through a nozzle. (November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set
2)
2. (a) Discuss the various irreversibilities on nozzle efficiency with the help of a T S diagram.
(November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 2)
(b) The dry saturated steam at a pressure of 5 bar is expanded isentropically in a nozzle to a
pressure of 0.2 bar. Find the velocity of steam leaving the nozzle.
(November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 2)
4. Dry and saturated steam expands in a convergent-divergent nozzle from 12 bar to 1 bar. The
throat diameter is 1 cm. and the divergent portion of the nozzle is 8 cm. long. Neglecting the
effect of friction, find out the semi-cone angle of the divergent section.
(May, 2012/(Supple))
5. Explain the phenomenon of superheated expansion of steam and its effect on the discharge
from
a nozzle as compared to with expansion in thermal equilibrium condition. Give some idea of
limits within which condition of supersaturation may exist.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 1)
6. (a) The dry saturated steam is expanded from 10 bar to 6 bar in a nozzle. If the expansion is
supersaturated, determine the degree of under cooling and degree of supersaturation.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 3)
(b) A steam turbine develops 185 kW with a consumption of 16.5 kg/kWhr. The pressure and
temperature of steam entering the nozzle is at 12 bar and 2200C. The steam leaves the
nozzle
at 1.2 bar. The diameter of the nozzle at throat is 7 mm. Find the number of nozzles.
(November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 3)
7. For a nozzle, show the area on p v diagram which represents the conversion of heat energy
to
kinetic energy. Prove that this area equals the heat drop during expansion. Assume isentropic
flow in a nozzle. Further show the expansion for steam on T S and h S charts and for air
on
T S chart. (November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 4)
8. (a) What steady flow energy equation is as applied to steam nozzles ? Explain its use in the
calculation of steam velocity at the exit of a nozzle. (November/December, 2012/(Supple)
(b) Dry saturated steam at a pressure of 15 bar enters in a nozzle and is discharged at a
pressure of
1.5 bar. Find the final velocity of the steam, when the initial velocity of the steam is
negligible. If 10% of the heat drop is lost in friction, find the percentage reduction in the
final
velocity. (November/December, 2012/(Supple)
1. (a) Explain the significance of critical pressure ratio in a steam turbine. Obtain analytically its
value in terms of the index of expansion. (November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 1)
(b) Give a comparison between impulse turbine and reaction turbine.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple/Set 2)
4. (a) Prove that the net efficiency of a simple turbine is given by net = stage x N x mech
(November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 3)
(b) The rotor of an impulse turbine is 60 cm. in diameter and runs at 9600 rpm. The nozzles
are
at 200 to the plane of the wheel and the steam leaves at 600 m/s. The blade outlet angle is
300
and the friction factor is 0.8. Determine the power developed and diagram efficiency.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple/Set 2)
0
5. Steam is supplied to a turbine at 30 bar and 350 C. The turbine exhaust pressure is 0.08 bar.
The
main condensate is heated regeneratively in two stages by steam bled from the turbine at 5 bar
and 1.0 bar respectively. Calculate masses of steam bled off at each pressure per kg of steam
entering the turbine and the theoretical thermal efficiency of the cycle.
(November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 4)
6. (a) What are the important considerations for selection of blade material for a steam turbine ?
(May, 2012/(Supple))
(b) What do you mean by steam turbine governing ?(May, 2012/(Supple))
(c) What is by-pass governing ? Compare it with throttle governing.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple/Set 2)
7. The nozzles of a De-Laval turbine delivers 1.5 kg/s of steam at a speed of 800 m/s to a ring of
moving blades having a speed of 200 m/s. The exit angle of the nozzle is 18 0. If the blade
velocity coefficient is 0.75 and the exit angle of the moving blades is 250, calculate (i) inlet
angle
of moving and fixed blades (ii) diagram efficiency (iii) energy lost in blades per second (iv)
power developed (v) axial thrust on the turbine rotor.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple/Set 3)
8 . In an impulse turbine, the steam issues from the nozzle with a speed of 600 m/s and blade
speed is
120 m/s. The velocity is compounded by passing the steam through a ring of moving blades,
through a ring of fixed blades and finally through a ring of moving blades. The nozzle angle is
180 and the blade exit angles and relative velocity coefficients are the following:
Blades Exit angle Velocity coefficient
0
First row moving blades 20 0.8
0
Fixed-row blades 25 0.85
0
Second row moving blades 30 0.9
Find the diagram efficiency under these conditions and power output for steam flow rate of 5
kg/s. What would be the maximum possible diagram efficiency for given steam inlet velocity
and
nozzle angle ? (November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple/Set 4)
1. Explain the working of a single-stage reaction turbine. Sketch pressure and velocity variations
along the axis of the turbine. Show the expansion on h-s chart.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple/Set 1)
2. Further prove that the moving and fixed blades should have the same shape and also =
and
= for a 50% reaction turbine. (November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 1 & Set 2)
3. A Parson reaction turbine running at 400 rpm with 50% reaction develops 75 kW/kg of the
steam.
The exit angle of the blade is 200 and the steam velocity is 1.4 times the blade velocity.
Determine: (i) blade velocity (ii) blade inlet angle. (November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 3)
4. At a particular stge of 50% reaction turbine, the pressure is 1.4 bar and steam is 0.9 dry. The
inlet
and outlet angles are 350 and 250 respectively. The blade velocity is 67 m/s. Determine the
blade
height, if the ratio of drum diameter to blade height is 8.0 for a mass flow rate of 4.5 kg/s. Also
find the power developed. (November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 4)
5. (a) Determine the isenthalpic enthalpy drop in the stage of Parsons reaction turbine which has
the
following particulars: speed = 1500 rpm, mean diameter of rotor = 1 m., stage efficiency =
80%, speed ratio = 0.7 and blade outlet angle = 200. (November/December, 2012/(Supple))
(b) List the advantages of steam turbines over gas turbines. (November/December, 2012/
(Supple))
6. At a stage in a reaction turbine, the mean blade ring diameter is 1 m. The turbine runs at 3000
rpm. The blades are designed for a degree of reaction of 50% with exit angles of 30 0 and inlet
angles of 500. The turbine is supplied with a steam at 10000 kg/h and the stage efficiency is
85%.
Determine (i) power output of the stage (ii)specific enthalpy drop in kJ/kg (iii) percentage
increase
in relative velocity of steam over moving blades (iv) the specific steam consumption.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple/Set 3)
7. A Parsons steam turbine delivers dry saturated steam at 2.8 bar from the fixed blades at 85 m/s.
The mean blade height is 50 mm and the moving blade exit angle is 200. The axial flow
velocity
of the steam is 75% of the blade velocity at the mean radius. Flow rate of steam is 3 kg/s.
Effect
of the blade tip thickness on the annulus area can be neglected. Find (i) the rotational speed (ii)
power and efficiency (iii) the enthalpy drop of the steam in this stage.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple/Set 4)
8. In a reaction turbine, the blade tips are inclined at 350 and 200 in direction of motion. The
guide
blades are of the same shape as the moving blades, but reversed in direction. At a certain place
in
the turbine, the drum diameter is 1 metre and the blades are 100 mm high. At this place, steam
has
a pressure of 1.7 bar and dryness 0.935. If the speed of the turbine is 250 rpm and the steam
passes through the blades without shock, find the mass of steam flow and the power developed
in
the ring of the moving blades. (Example Problem 19.3 model/R.K. Rajput Text/Pages 888-
889)
2. Classify the surface condensers and explain with neat sketches the following:
(i) Down-flow type (ii) Regenerative type (iii) Evaporative type(November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set
2)
3. A surface condenser is designed to handle 12000 kg of steam per hour. The steam enters at 0.8
kPa, 0.9 dry. The condensate leaves the condenser at the corresponding saturation temperature.
Calculate the rate of cooling water, if cooling water temperature rise is limited to 12 0C.
(November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 3)
4. (a) Classify the steam condensers. (November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 1)
(b) What are the principal requirements of a steam condensing plant in power generation unit ?
Explain. (November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 4)
5. The pressure under the air baffle of a surface condenser is 52 mm of hg. Temperature of the
mixture leaving the cooler suction is 250C. Assuming available water at 15.50C and external
water might lower the temperature further at 200C. Explain the effect of this on the quantity of
vapour accompanying the air pump suction. (November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 2)
6. (a) State briefly the sources and effect of air leakage into a condenser. Discuss.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 3)
(b) Why are non-condensable gases removed from the surface condensers continuously ?
Explain
the function of Edward air pump. (November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 3)
7. (a) With a neat sketch, explain the working of a low level counterflow jet condenser.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 4)
(b) What are the advantages and limitations of surface condensers over jet condensers ?
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 4)
8. (a) Explain parallel flow low level jet condenser with a neat sketch.
(November/December, 2012/(Supple))
(b) A surface condenser is designed to handle 10000 kg of steam per hour. The steam enters at
0.08 bar absolute pressure and 0.9 dryness and the condensate leaves at the corresponding
saturation temperature. The pressure is constant throughout the condenser. Estimate the
cooling water flow rate per hour, if the cooling water temperature rise is limited to 10 0C.
(November/December, 2012/(Supple))
4. (a) Draw the layout of a gas turbine plant which has two stage compression with complete
intercooling. The high pressure turbine develops power enough only to drive the high
pressure compressor. The low pressure turbine drives both the LP compressor and the
load.
Indicate the ideal process of this plant on a T S diagram. (November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 4)
(b) A simple gas turbine cycle works with a pressure ratio of 8. The compressor and turbine
inlet temperatures are 300 K and 800 K respectively. If the volume flow rate of air is 250
m3/s, compute the power output and thermal efficiency.(November/December, 2012/
(Supple)
5. A gas turbine plant consists of two turbines. One turbine drives the compressor and the other
develops the power output. Both turbines have their own combustion chambers which are
served by air directly from the compressor. Air enters the compressor at 1 bar and 15 0C and
is
compressed to 8 bar with an isentropic efficiency of 80%. Due to heat addition in the
combustion chamber, the inlet temperature of gas to both the turbines reaches to 900 0C. The
isentropic efficiency of the turbine is 85%. The mass flow rate of air at the compressor is 20
kg/s. The calorific value of fuel is 42000 KJ/kg. calculate the output of plant and thermal
efficiency, if the mechanical efficiency is 96% and the generator efficiency is 95%. Take C p
=
1.128 kJ/kgK and = 1.34 for gases. Neglect the mass of fuel. (May, 2012/(Supple))
6. In a closed cycle gas turbine there is two-stage compressor and a two-stage turbine. All the
components are mounted on the same shaft. The pressure and temperature at the inlet of the
first-stage compressor are 1.5 bar and 200C. The maximum cycle temperature and pressure
are
limited to 7500C and 6 bar. A perfect intercooler is used between the two-stage compressors
and
a reheater is used between the two turbines. Gases are heated in the reheater to 750 0C before
entering into the L.P. turbine. Assuming the compressor and turbine efficiencies as 0.82,
calculate (i) efficiency of cycle without regenerator (ii) efficiency of cycle with a regenerator
whose effectiveness is 0.7 (iii) mass of the fluid circulated, if the power developed by the
plant
is 350 KW. The working fluid used in the cycle is air.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 1)
7. (a) What are the deviations in actual gas turbine cycle as compared with air standard cycle ?
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 2)
(b) Define isentropic efficiency of a compressor and turbine.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 2)
8. (a) Differentiate between closed cycle and open cycle gas turbine plant.
(November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 3)
(b) Define effectiveness of a regenerator. (November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set 3)
2. In a jet propulsion unit, the compressor pressure ratio is 3.5. The temperature rise during the
compression is 1.2 times that of isentropic compression. The maximum temperature of the
cycle
is 753 K. The gases are expanded in the nozzle to 283 K and 1.01325 bar. Calculate the
power
required to drive the compressor per kg of air, thrust developed, air-fuel ratio, if calorific
value of
fuel is 43000 kJ/g. (November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 2)
4. (a) Describe the bypass turbojet engine. When this type of engine is used ?
(November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 4)
(b) What are the field applications of pulse jet engines ? (November, 2011/(Reg.)/Set 4)
5. (a) What are the different types of rocket engines ? What are its applications ? (May, 2012/
(Supple))
(b) Explain the differences between jet propulsion and rocket propulsion.
(November/December, 2012/
(Supple))
6. A turbojet engine consumes air at the rate of 60.2 kg/s when flying at a speed of 1000 km/hr.
Calculate (i) exit velocity of the jet when the enthalpy change for the nozzle is 230 kJ/kg and
velocity coefficient is 0.96 (ii) fuel flow rate in kg/s when air-fuel ratio is 70 : 1 (iii) thrust
specific fuel consumption (iv) thermal efficiency of the plant when the combustion efficiency
is
92% and calorific value of fuel used is 42000 KJ/kg. (November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set
2)
7. For the combustion of 420 kg of petrol, a flying missile has a range of 240 km; an average
velocity of 576 km/h and a propulsive force of 2700 N. The maximum temperature rise in
the
combustion chamber is 8150C. The diameter of the discharge nozzle is 30 cm. The altitude
of
the flight is 610 m, where the atmospheric pressure is 0.944 bar. The calorific value of the
fuel
is 42000 kJ/kg. Cp for exhaust gases can be taken as 1.16 kJ/kgK. Calculate (i) air-fuel ratio
(ii)
exhaust gas temperature and their velocity relative to missile (iii) propulsive efficiency and
(iv)
overall efficiency of the unit. (November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set
3)
8. (a) What is meant by jet propulsion system ? (November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set
4)
(b) Derive efficiency of a diffuser. Show it on h s plot. (November, 2012/(Reg. & Supple)/Set
4)
3. The efficiency of Rankine Cycle in terms of mean temperature of heat addition(T m1) is given by
(where T2 is the temperature of heat rejection) [ ]
1 T2 Tm1
1 1(T 2 T m 1 ) 1 1
(A) T 2 T m1 (B) (C) Tm1 (D) T2
4. To control the erosion of turbine blades in the later stages, the maximum moisture content at the
turbine exhaust is not allowed to exceed [ ]
(A) 5% (B) 7% (C) 10% (D) 15%
5. The optimum reheat pressure for most of the modern power plants is about ________ of the
initial
steam pressure. [ ]
(A) 0.1 to 0.15 (B) 0.2 to 0.25 (C) 0.3 to 0.35 (D) 0.4 to 0.45
7. In ideal regenerative cycle, the condensate after leaving the pump circulates in
the____________
direction to the direction of vapour flow in the turbine [ ]
(A) same (B) opposite (C) perpendicular (D) none of the above
9. Regenerative heating i.e. bleeding steam to reheat feed water to boiler __________ thermal
efficiency of the cycle [ ]
(A) decreases (B) increases (C) does not change (D) may increase or decrease
depending
upon the point of extraction of steam
10. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle thermal efficiency [ ]
(A) increases with the increase of feed heaters (B) decreases with the increase of feed heaters
(C) remains unaffected by any number of feed heaters (D) none of the above
13. A large proportion of the heat supplied in the reheating process will be thrown to waste in the
________.
14. Because of regeneration, the thermal stresses set up in the boiler are __________.
17. For a given power output, Rankine cycle requires a ________ steam flow rate.
18. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of _________.
19. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant ________ in winter as compared to that in summer.
20. In Rankine cycle, the work output from turbine is given by change of _______ between inlet
and
outlet.
UNIT II BOILERS
Multiple Choice Questions:
3. The diameter of internal flue tubes of a Lancashire boiler is about ___ that of its shell.[ ]
(A) One-fourth (B) One-third (C) two-fifth (D) one-half
4. The device used to prevent the steam pressure in a boiler exceeding a predetermined maximum
pressure is [ ]
(A) Feed check valve (B) Junction valve (C) Dead weight safety valve (D) none
9. The velocity of flue gases (V) through the chimney under a static draught of H is given by
[ ]
(A) 4.43 H (B) 4.43 H ' (C) (4.43 H)2 (D) 4.43 (H)2
10. The remote water level indicator can be clearly read from a distance of _____. [ ]
(A) 10 m. (B) 20 m. (C) 30 m. (D) 40 m.
11. In internally fired steam boiler, the furnace is located ___________ the boiler shell.
13. Water tube boilers are suitable for the highest pressure of about _____.
14. The blow-off cock consists of conical ___________ plug fitted accurately in a conical casing.
16. The condition for maximum discharge from the chimney is that the temperature of flue gases
is
slightly greater than ________ the atmospheric temperature in Kelvin units.
19. __________ draught fan, due to higher temperature, may require water-cooled bearings.
20. In forced draught, the fan is placed ________ the fire grate.
UNIT III STEAM NOZZLES
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. For efficient expansion, the included angle of the divergent portion of the nozzle should be kept
between [ ]
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
(A) 5 to 8 (B) 10 to 20 (C) 25 to 28 (D) 29 to 32
4. For maximum discharge per unit area through nozzle, the throat pressure [ ]
n n n1 n+1
2 n1 2 n+1 n+1 n n1 n
(A) n+1 (B) n1 (C) 2 (D) 2
5. The maximum discharge through a nozzle when the steam is initially dry saturated is [ ]
(A) mmax = 0.685 A p1
v1 (B) mmax = 0.666 A p1
v1 (C) mmax = 0.637 A p1
v1 (D) none
11. For maximum flow, the velocity of the fluid at the throat of a nozzle is the _______.
12. ____________ nozzle will be used if the exit pressure is equal to or more than critical
pressure.
14. When a nozzle operates with the maximum mass flow it is said to be __________.
15. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of pressure at exit of nozzle,
the
nozzle is said to be ________________.
16. The limit line (which is limit of supersaturation) drawn on h s diagram to represent 94% to
96% dryness fraction is _________.
18. The difference between the saturation temperature and the supercooled temperature is known
as
____________.
19. The flow of supersaturated steam through the nozzle is called as __________.
20. When the inlet velocity is assumed to be negligible, then velocity coefficient is _________.
UNIT IV IMPULSE TURBINE
Multiple Choice Questions:
3. The relation between nozzle efficiency(nozzle), stage efficiency(stage) and blade efficiency(blade)
is
[ ]
(A) stage = blade x nozzle (B) blade = stage x nozzle (C) nozzle = blade x stage
(D) stage x blade x nozzle = 1
4. For a maximum value or minimum value of blade efficiency, the blade speed ratio() is equal
( is called as nozzle angle) [ ]
cos 2
(A) 2 cos (B) 2 (C) (cos )2 (D) cos
5. At the optimum value of the blade speed ratio (), the condition for maximum blade efficiency
is
[ ]
(A) (bl ) max = cos (B) (bl ) max = cos2 (C) (bl ) max = cos3 (D) (bl ) max = cos4
6. For 2 rows of moving blades, maximum work done per kg. of steam (Wb)max is related to linear
velocity of moving blade as [ ]
(A) (Wb)max = 8 x Cbl (B) (Wb)max = 8 Cbl (C) (Wb)max = 8 Cbl2 (D) (Wb)max = 8 Cbl3
7. The exit velocity of De Laval Turbine is ______ of the nozzle outlet velocity [ ]
(A) 1.8% (B) 2.6% (C) 3.3% (D) 4.2%
8. Because of friction, the relative velocity of steam reduces by ______ when it passes over the
moving blades [ ]
(A) 10% to 15% (B) 20% to 23% (C) 28% to 30% (D) 31% to 34%
9. For impulse turbine, the relation between entrance angle() and exit angle()of the moving
blades is [ ]
(A) > (B) = (C) < (D) + = 0
11. The ratio between the relative velocity of steam jet at exit of moving blade(C r0) to the relative
velocity (Cr1) at inlet is known as __________________.
12. In a two-stage impulse turbine, blade velocity is ________ for both the stages.
13. Since the pressure drop per stage in a reaction turbine is small, the number of stages required
is
much _________ than an impulse turbine of the same capacity.
14. In pressure compounding, the number of stages (or pressure reductions) depends on the
number
of rows of _________ through which the steam must pass.
15. The ratio between the work done on the blade to energy supplied to the blade is known as
___________.
16. The axial thrust on the wheel is due to ________ between the velocities of flow at entrance
and
exit.
17. A velocity compounded stage is used to give ______ blade speed ratio and better utilization of
steam K.E.
18. The objective of governing is to keep the turbine speed fairly ________ irrespective of load.
19. The efficiency of a steam turbine is considerably reduced if _________ governing is carried
out
at low loads.
20. The value of k varies from 0.75 to 0.85 depending upon the _________ of the blades.
UNIT V REACTION TURBINE
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. In reaction turbines, the expansion of steam and heat and pressure drop occur [ ]
(A) in fixed blades (B) in moving blades (C) both in fixed and moving blades (D) none
2. The shape of the moving blade and fixed blade is same for a reaction turbine when the degree
of
reaction is [ ]
(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 40% (D) 50%
3. If there is no heat drop in the moving blades, then the degree of reaction is [ ]
(A) 0 (B) 10% (C) 15% (D) 20%
6. The pressure on the two sides of the moving blades of a reaction steam turbine is [ ]
(A) same (B) higher at inlet (C) lower at inlet (D) may be higher or lower depending upon quality
of
entry steam
above
11. The ratio between heat drop over moving blades to the total heat drop in the stage is known as
_________.
15. In multi-stage reaction turbine, pressure drop per stage varies from _________.
16. In the Parsons reaction turbine, mean diameter of fixed as well as moving blades is _______.
17. In reaction turbine, propelling or driving force is the vector sum of _______ and ______
forces.
18. To reduce the number of stages, steam velocity is arranged _______ than the blade velocity.
20. If moisture content in steam exceeds ___, the back of the inlet edge of the blade is most
affected.
UNIT VI STEAM CONDENSERS
Multiple Choice Questions:
2. The __________ in a condenser depends on the amount of air present in it and is generally read
by
the Bourdon Pressure gauge. [ ]
(A) pressure (B) vacuum (C) density (D) temperature
5. In __________ surface condenser, the steam flows perpendicular to the direction of flow of
cooling water [ ]
(A) down flow (B) central flow (C) regenerative (D) evaporative
7. For detection of air leakage, the plant is run till __________ are steady in the condenser
[ ]
(A) pressure and volume (B) pressure and temperature (C) volume and temperature (D) none
9. ________ condensers are provided when a limited quantity of water is available and to be
circulated again and again [ ]
(A) Inverted flow type (B) Regenerative type (C) Evaporative type (D) Central flow
10. The factors which affect the cooling of water in a cooling tower are [ ]
(A) Size and height of cooling tower (B) Velocity of air entering the cooling tower
(C) Temperature and humidity of air (D) All the above
12. In _________ flow condensers, steam and cooling water flow in the opposite direction.
14. Corrosive action is roughly proportional to the concentration of ________ present in the
condenser.
15. The air along with the condensate may be removed by ______________________.
16. In surface condensers of reciprocating steam engines, the air leakage is about ____ per 10,000
kg. of steam.
17. In a surface condenser, the rate of heat transmission varies approximately as ________ in
tubes.
18. The sump between the condenser and boiler is called as __________.
19. The condenser ________ expansion ratio of steam and hence plant efficiency increases.
20. When high level jet condenser(counter-flow type), the shell is placed at a height about
________
above hot well.
UNIT VII GAS TURBINES
Multiple Choice Questions:
7. For maximum work, the reheating should be done to an intermediate pressure(p3) which is equal
to
(where p1 and p6 are initial and final pressures) [ ]
p1 p6
p1 p6 p 1 x p6
(A) x (B) p6 (C) p1 (D)
rp
10. The air standard efficiency of a closed cycle gas turbine with pressure ratio is given by
[ ]
1 1 1 1
1 +1
1
1 1
1
(A) (r p ) (B) (r p ) +1 (C) (r p ) (D) (r p ) 1
11. In closed cycle gas turbine plants, the working fluid does not come in contact with the
_______.
12. In the constant pressure gas turbine, air is heated in the combustion chamber at
_____________.
14. A __________ cycle gas turbine is a combination of open cycle and closed cycle gas turbines.
15. ____________ is a measure of the amount of expansion carried out in the blade row
compared
with the total expansion through the stage.
16. The __________ of a closed cycle gas turbine for maximum work is a function of limiting
temperature ratio.
20. The water consumption per kWh for a closed cycle gas turbine is ___________
2. For maximum overall efficiency, the aircraft velocity Ca is _____ of the jet velocity Cj [ ]
(A) twice (B) thrice (C) one-half (D) one-third
.
4. Propulsive efficiency ( is given by [ ]
(where Ca is aircraft velocity and Cj is velocity of jet of gases)
C
2C j 2C a Ca 2( j +C a )
(A) . = C j +C a (B) . = C j +C a (C) . = 2(C j +C a) (D) C
.= j
8. Mass flow rate of fuel through the turbojet engine is normally about ________ of the mass flow
rate of air [ ]
(A) 0.5% (B) 1% (C) 2% (D) 4%
9. Turbo ram jet may be considered a distinct type of engine for flight at ________speed. [ ]
(A) subsonic (B) sonic (C) supersonic (D) none
10. If the diffuser efficiency reaches ____ because of isentropic compression of air in it, then it is
known as ram compression. [ ]
(A) 70% (B) 80% (C) 90% (D) 100%
11. For jet propulsion, the _______ cycle gas turbine is most suitable.
12. The principle of jet propulsion involves imparting ___________ to a mass of fluid.
13. The propulsive devices which carry their own propulsive fluid are known as _______ .
15. The product of forward thrust and aircraft speed is called as _____________.
16. The difference between the rate of kinetic energies of the entering air and exit gases is called
as
_______________.
18. Propellants which ignite upon contact with each other are called as ___________propellants.
19. The use of additional thrust by rocket motor at take off is termed as __________________.