Mock Biochemistry Exam II

December 5, 2008
Prepared by : Namyr Martnez, Elvin Soto, and Carlos Pagn

Choose the BEST answer. Not the prettiest one.

1. Which of the following two compounds are the primary products of the pentose
phosphate pathway?
a. NAD+ and ribose
b. NADH and ribose
c. NADP+ and ribose
d. NADPH and ribose
e. NAD+ and glucose
f. NADH and glucose
g. NADP+ and glucose
h. NADPH and glucose

2. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes would impair the bodys ability to
maintain blood glucose concentration during the first 24 hours of prolonged fast?
a. Glycogen synthase
b. Phosphorylase
c. Debranching enzyme
d. PEP carboxykinase
e. Fructose 1,6-biphosphatase

3. Which of the following best explains why fructose is often used as a carbohydrate
substitute in special foods for patients with diabetes mellitus?
a. Fructose is a better substrate for hexokinase
b. Fructose stimulates residual insulin release
c. Fructose has a specific kinase in liver that allows bypass of
phosphofructokinase
d. Fructose is phosphorylated and cleaved to triose phosphates, which cannot
be used for gluconeogenesis.
e. Hexokinase phosphorylates fructose in extrahepatic tissues, and its activity
will not be affected by high glucose concentrations in diabetes

4. An infant with hypoglycemia and a palpable liver is evaluated for possible

glycogen storage disease. The parents, likely inbred hicks, are from a remote
region in the Siberia, and report that the childs older brother was diagnosed with
a debrancher enzyme deficiency with similar glycogen storage. This diagnosis
would imply accumulation of glycogen with which type of glucose linkages?
a. Linear 14 linkages with branching 16 linkages *
b. Linear 16 linkages with branching 14 linkages
c. Linear 14 linkages only
d. Linear 16 linkages only
 e. Branching 16 linkages only

5. Which of the following is a primary substrate for gluconeogenesis?

a. Galactose
b. Glycerol *
c. Glycogen
d. Sucrose
e. Mamalose

6. Which of the following is an energy-requiring step of glycolysis?

a. Glucokinase *
b. Lactate dehydrogenase
c. Phosphoglycerate kinase
d. Pyruvate kinase
e. Two of the above
f. All of the above

7. A pimple farming teenager is brought in by his parents after his physical

education teacher give him a failing grade. The teacher has called him a quitter
and failed him because he drops out of activities after a few minutes of exercise,
complaining of leg cramps and fatigue. A stress test is arranged with sampling of
blood metabolites and monitoring of exercise performance. Which of the
following results after exercise would support a diagnosis of glycogen storage
disease in this teenager?
a. Increase oxaloacetate, decreased glucose
b. Increase glycerol and glucose
c. Increased lactate and glucose
d. Increased pyruvate and stable glucose
e. Stable lactate and glucose

8. Glucose taken up by liver cells is rapidly phosphorylated to glucose 6-phosphate

with ATP serving as the phosphate donor in the initial step of metabolism and
assimilation of the sugar. Two enzymes, which may be considered isozymes, are
capable of catalyzing this re-action in the liver cell. Hexokinase has a low
Kmof~0.05 mM for glucose, whereas glu-cokinase exhibits sigmoidal kinetics
with an approximate Kmof ~5 mM. After a large meal, the glucose concentration
in the hepatic portal vein may approximate 5 mM. After such a large meal, which
of the following scenarios describes the relative activity levels for these two
enzymes? Hexokinase Glucokinase
a. Not active Not active
b. v 12Vmax Not active
c. vVmax Not active
d. vVmax v12Vmax
e. vVmax vVmax
9. Accidental ingestion of ethylene glycol, an ingredient of automotive antifreeze, is
fairly common among children because of the liquid's pleasant color and sweet
taste. Ethylene glycol itself is not very toxic, but it is metabolized by alcohol
dehydrogenase to the toxic compounds glycolic acid, glyoxylic acid, and oxalic
acid, which can produce acidosis and lead to renal failure and death. Treatment
for suspected ethylene glycol poisoning is hemodialysis to remove the toxic
metabolites and administration of a substance that reduces the metabolism of
ethylene glycol by displacing it from the enzyme. Which of the following
compounds would be best suited for this therapy?
a. Acetic acid
b. Ethanol
c. Aspirin
d. Acetaldehyde
e. Glucose

10. A noncompetitive enzyme inhibitor:

a. Decreases Vmax and increases Km
b. Decreases Vmax and has no effect on Km
c. Has no effect on Vmax o rKm
d. Has no effect on Vmax and increases Km
e. Has no effect on Vmax and decreases Km

11. The functions of many enzymes, membrane transporters, and other proteins can
be quickly activated or deactivated by phosphorylation of specific amino acid
residues catalyzed by enzymes called what?
a. Cyclases
b. Kinases
c. Phosphatases
d. Proteases
e. Zymogens

12. The chemotherapy drug fluorouracil undergoes a series of chemical changes in

vivo that result in a covalent complex such that it is bound to both thymidylate
synthase and methylene-tetrahydrofolate. The inhibition of deoxythymidilate
formation and subsequent blockage of cell division is due to which of the
following?
a. Allosteric inhibition
b. Competitive inhibition
c. Irreversible inhibition
d. Noncovalent inhibition
e. Noncatalytic inhibition

13. In the study of enzymes, a sigmoidal plot of substrate concentration ([S]) versus
reaction velocity (V) may indicate which of the following?
a. Michaelis-Menten kinetics
 b. Competitive inhibition
c. Noncompetitive inhibition
d. Cooperative binding
e. None of the above

14. Digestive enzymes such as pepsin, trypsin, and chymotrypsin are synthesized as
inactive precursors. What are the preproteins of the active enzymes termed?
a. Kinases
b. Inducers
c. Isozymes
d. Phosphatases
e. Zymogen

15. Which of the following is an explanation for rigor mortis?

a. Intracellular levels of ATP drop so ATP is not available to bind the S1
head of myosin; thus, actin does not dissociate from myosin.
b. Intracellular levels of ATP drop so ATP is not available to bind the S1
head of myosin; thus, actin dissociates from myosin
c. Intracellular levels of ATP rise so ATP is available to bind the S1 head of
myosin; thus, actin dissociates from myosin
d. Intracellular levels of ATP rise so ATP is available to bind the S1 head of
myosin; thus, actin does not dissociate from myosin

A. B.

Use the above graphics to answer the following question:

16. Of the above graphics we can conclude:

a. Graphics A and B represents the same inhibitor at different concentrations
 b. Graphics A represents an increase in Vmax
c. Graphic B demonstrates a non competitive inhibition
d. Inhibitor in graphic A binds to the enzyme at a site distinct from the
active site.

17. Which of the following statements is not true considering the above graphics.
a. The inhibitor in graphic B have a similar structure to the substrate of the
enzyme
b. The inhibitor in graphic B forms covalent bonding
c. In graphic A inhibition can be overcome increasing the substrate
d. The inhibitor in graphic A is not similar to the substrate of the enzyme

18. The graphic in A:

a. Is a competitive inhibitor
b. Do not modify the substrate binding site
c. Modify the substrate binding site, altering the Vmax of the reaction
d. Km is unaltered due to a modification of the binding site

19. The relationship between an enzyme and a reactant molecule can best be
described as:
a. An association stabilized by a covalent bond
b. A permanent mutual alteration of structure
c. One in which the enzyme is changed permanently
d. A temporary association
e. Noncomplementary binding

20. An enzyme reaction proceeds with maximal velocity (Vmax) when:

a. Allosteric effectors are present
b. The substrate concentration exceeds that of a noncompetitive inhibitor
c. The enzyme-substrate complex is maximal
d. The substrate concentration is equal to that of a competitive inhibitor
e. All of the substrate is bound to the enzyme.

21. An emergency room physician sees several patients with a wide range of
morbidities. Which of the following ailments is most likely caused by enzyme
denaturation?
a. An 18-year old boy presenting with a sore throat and fever of 101 F; he
has small minimally tender anterior cervical lymph nodes and a red
pharynx.
b. 58-year old man with chest pain and shortness of breath with increased
activity.
c. A 48-year old female complaining of knee pain after twisting her leg
playing tennis
d. An 18-month old male with a 4 day history of symptoms of an upper
respiratory infection presenting with fever, irritability, and pulling at his
left ear for the past 24 hours.
 e. A 34-year old man diagnosed with a gastrinoma (acid-secretion
stimulating tumor) complaining of diarrhea for 2 weeks.

22. If the standard free energy for an uncatalyzed reaction is 2500 kJ/mol, then what
can you say about the standard free energy for the enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
a. It is unchanged
b. It will be decreased
c. It will be increased
d. It will changed if there is an allosteric enzyme

Rufus Cox led a stressful life and he didnt exercise. He ate irregularly, and he smoked
and drank heavily. His physician suspected that a heart problem was imminent and had
tests performed to determine the problem.

23. Blood analysis gave an immediate indication of a problem. What component was
most likely markedly elevated?
a. LDL receptors
b. Cholesterol
c. HDL
d. Chylomicrons
e. Lipoprotein lipase

24. VLDL (the precursor to LDL) is synthesized where?

a. Small intestine
b. Kidney
c. Adrenal medulla
d. Liver
e. Adipose tissue

25. 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA (or -hydroxy--methylglutaryl-CoA)

a. can be converted to cholesterol
b. is the product of the HMG-CoA reductase
c. is an immediate precursor of a ketone body
d. can be converted to glutaric acid
e. activates squalene isomer

26. The mother of 3 y/o male comes to your clinic for follow-up of a preexisting Type
I diabetes. This condition causes all of the following except:
a. Hyperclicemia
b. Ketoacidosis
c. Polyurea
d. Obesity
e. Hipertriacilglicemia
27. Which of the following monosaccharides induces the formation of the
glucokinase regulatory protein complex (GKRP-GK complex), thereby
inactivating it:
a. glucose 6 P
b. fructose 6 P
c. fructose 2,6 Biphosphate
d. glyceraldehydes 3P
e. fructose 1,6 biphosphate

28. Pentose Phosphate pathway provide a source for:

a. NADH and Ribulose 5P
b. NADPH and Ribose 5P
c. NADH and Ribose 5P
d. NADPH and Glucose 6P
e. NADH and Glyceraldehyde 3P

29. A patient is admitted into the hospital suffering from weakness, fatigue, and
shortness of breath. His lab results show anemia (hemoglobin 6.4, normal is >
13.5 for a man his ag. Upon taking his history you discover he has experienced
drastic decreases in hemoglobin levels, usually following viral infections. You
also learned that he is capable of enhanced exercise levels and his red blood cells
contain a higher than normal level of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate. Which of the
following enzymes is most likely defective in this patient?
a. Pyruvate Kinase
b. Pyruvate carboxylase
c. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
d. Fructokinase
e. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase

30. Which of the following statements about low density lipoproteins (LDLs) is
correct?
a. LDLs are synthesized by the intestinal mucosal cells.
b. LDLs have apo B-100 as their only apoprotein.
c. LDLs are scavengers of cholesterol from tissues.
d. LDLs transport dietary triacylglycerols (TAG).
e. LDLs are the largest of the lipoprotein particles.

35. Which of the following pathways is incorrectly paired with one of its regulated
enzymes?
a. Fatty acid synthesis: acetyl-CoA carboxylase
b. -oxidation: carnitine acyl transferase I (CAT I)
c. Cholesterol synthesis: HMG-CoA dehydrogenase
d. Bile salt synthesis: cholesterol 7--hydroxylase
e. -oxidation : -ketothiolase

36. The regulation of cholesterol synthesis involves which of the following:

 a. Glucagon activates HMG-CoA reductase
b. Cholesterol activates the synthesis of HMG-CoA reductase
c. Cholesterol increases the degradation of HMG-CoA reductase
d. The phosphorylated form of HMG-CoA reductase is active
e. Cholesterol activates the synthesis of the low density lipoprotein (LDL)
Receptor

37. The reciprocal regulation that ensures glycolysis and gluconeogenesis do not
happen concurrently within the same cell is centered around fructose 2,6-
bisphosphate. Which of the following correctly describes fructose 2,6-
bisphosphate?
a. Glucagon increases its levels by activating a kinase
b. It negatively regulates phosphofructokinase 1
c. It stimulates the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-
bisphosphate
d. Its levels will increase during times of starvation
e. It can directly activate fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase 1

38. A 2-month-old girl is brought to the emergency room because her mother had
difficulty awakening her from an overnight sleep. The baby is found to be
extremely lethargic. Physical examination revealed a markedly enlarged liver and
non-palpable spleen. Laboratory workup reveals a very low blood glucose level
and elevated lactate with a large anion gap. Hyperlipidemia was also evident.
Glucagon administration produced a large increase in lactate without
hyperglycemia. The patient is most likely deficient in what enzyme:
a. Glucokinase
b. Glucose 6-phosphatase
c. Hexokinase
d. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase
e. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase

39. After pulling an all-nighter with your friend, during which he had not eaten a
thing and only drank water, you decide to go to the zoo to blow off some steam.
Because of his sleep deprivation, your friend accidently falls into a pit with a
very hungry looking lioness. If you could isolate some muscles cells from your
friend at that moment, which of the following would you NOT expect to find?
a. Phosphorylated glycogen synthase
b. High intracellular levels of cAMP
c. Phosphorylated glycogen phosphorylase
d. Active phosphorylase phosphatase
e. Active adenylate cyclase

40. A person comes into the clinic with a rare disease in which his fasting glucose
levels are 3 mmol/L (normal fasting [glucose] = 5 mmol/L). If you assume that
the patients disease is not due to any defects in hexokinase or glucokinase,
which of the following would best describe the activity of these two enzymes in
 this patient following a 48 hour fast (Km for glucose are hexokinase = 0.1
mmol/L and glucokinase = 10 mmol/L)?
Hexokinase Glucokinase
a. At Vmax At Vmax
b. At Vmax Below Vmax
c. Below Vmax Below Vmax
d. Below Vmax At Vmax

41. The pentose phosphate pathway has clinical relevance for all of the following
reasons EXCEPT:
a. The produced NADPH is required for oxidative phosphorylation
b. The NADPH is required for the function of cytochrome p450s
c. It plays a role in Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
d. Helps maintain red blood cell membrane integrity during oxidative stress
e. Is involved in the phagocytosis and destruction of bacteria

42. Following a 3 day fast (i.e you are completely devoid of glycogen stores) which
of the following lists the components that are required for making glycogen
following a carbohydrate rich meal?
a. Glycogen phosphorylase, glycogenin, and glycogen synthase
b. Glycogen synthase, UDP-Glucose pyrophosphoryalse, and glucokinase
c. Glycogenin, glycogen phosphorylase, and debranching enzyme
d. Debranching enzyme, glycogen synthase, and glycogenin
e. Branching enzyme, UDP-Glucose pyrophosphorylase, and glycogen
phosphorylase.

43. Under which of the following conditions would you find the pyruvate
dehydrogenase complex active?
a. It is unphosphorylated and the cell has low acetyl CoA concentrations
b. It is phosphorylated and there are high systemic glucagon levels
c. It is unphosphorylated and there are high systemic glucagon levels
d. It is phosphorylated and the cell has high NADH concentrations
e. It is unphosphorylated and the cell has low pyruvate concentration

44. You want to engineer some cells that, starting with glucose 6-phosphate, will
just produce ribose 5-phosphate without producing any NADPH. Which of the
following enzymes are required for your engineered system?
a. Transketolase, transaldolase, and pyruvate kinase
b. Glucose 6-P dehydrogenase, transketolase, and transaldolase
c. Phosphoglucose isomerase, transaldolase, and transketolase
d. Phosphoglucose isomerase, glucose 6-P dehydrogenase, and
transaldolase
e. Transaldolase, pyruvate kinase, and 6-phosphogluconate
dehydrogenase
45. Which of the following CORRECTLY describes a step in the TCA cycle?
a. Increased concentration of FADH2 will activate the succinate
dehydrogenase enzyme
b. The reaction catalyzed by succinate thiokinase produces one mole
of GTP
c. Citrate synthase is positively regulated by ATP
d. Only two steps produce NADH
e. Malate dehydrogenase is positively regulated by a high NADH/NAD+
ratio

46. In a red blood cell which of the following enzymes are required to produce
NADPH and energy from glucose 6-phosphate?
a. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase, transketolase and glucokinase
b. transaldolase, glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase, and hexokinase
c. glucokinase, transaldolase, and phosphoglucose isomerase
d. glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase, transaldolase and
phosphofructokinase
e. transaldolase, transketolase and glucokinase

47. An interesting case study is brought to your attention of a patient with an

abnormally high intracellular concentration of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. If
you could completely analyze the patients metabolic pathways, which of the
following would you expect to find?
a. Abnormally high fructose1,6-bisphosphatase activity
b. Abnormally low phosphofructokinase activity
c. Normal phosphofructokinase activity
d. Abnormally high phosphofructokinase activity
e. Normal fructose1,6-bisphosphatase activity

48. In the presence of high glucagon levels, what is the status of glycogen
phosphorylase?
a. Is phosphorylated, active, and sensitive to glucose 6-phosphate levels
b. Is unphosphorylated, active, and sensitive to glucose 6-phosphate
levels
c. Is phosphorylated, inactive, and sensitive to glucose 6-phosphate
d. Is phosphorylated, active, and sensitive to glucose levels
e. Is unphosphorylated, inactive, and sensitive to glucose levels

49. The regulation of cholesterol synthesis involves which of the following:

a. glucagon dephosphorylates HMG-CoA reductase
b. cholesterol increases the synthesis of HMG-CoA reductase
c. cholesterol increases the synthesis of the LDL receptor
d. cholesterol inhibits the activity of HMG-CoA reductase
e. cholesterol inhibits the degradation of HMG-CoA reductase

50. Antimycin A blocks electron transfer between cytochromes b and c1. If intact
 mitochondria were incubated with antimycin A, excess NADH, and an
adequate supply of O2, which of the following would be found in the oxidized
state?
a) Coenzyme Q
b) Cytochrome a3
c) Cytochrome b
d) Cytochrome e
e) Cytochrome f

51. Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) are inhibitors of

mitochondrial aerobic phosphorylation. Which of the following statements
correctly describes the mode of action of the three inhibitors?
a) Cyanide and 2,4-dinitrophenol inhibit the respiratory chain, and
oligomycin inhibits the synthesis of ATP.
b) Cyanide inhibits the respiratory chain, whereas oligomycin and
2,4-dinitrophenol inhibit the synthesis of ATP.
c) Cyanide, oligomycin, and 2,4-dinitrophenol compete with O2 for
cytochrome oxidase (Complex IV).
d) Oligomycin and cyanide inhibit synthesis of ATP; 2,4-dinitrophenol
inhibits the respiratory chain.
e) Oligomycin inhibits the respiratory chain, whereas cyanide and 2,4-
dinitrophenol prevent the synthesis of ATP.

52. Which of the following statements about the chemiosmotic theory is correct?
a) Electron transfer in mitochondria is accompanied by an
asymmetric release of protons on one side of the inner
mitochondrial membrane.
b) It predicts that oxidative phosphorylation can occur even in the
absence of an intact inner mitochondrial membrance.
c) The effect of uncoupling reagents is a consequence of their ability to
carry electrons through membranes.
d) The membrane ATP synthase has no significant role in the
chemiosmotic theory.
e) All of the above are correct.

53. Upon the addition of 2,4-dinitrophenol (DNP) to a suspension of mitochondria

carrying out oxidative phosphorylation linked to the oxidation of malate, all of
the following occur except:
a) oxygen consumption decreases.
b) oxygen consumption increases.
c) the P/O ratio drops from a value of approximately 2.5 to 0.
d) the proton gradient dissipates.
e) the rate of transport of electrons from NADH to O2 becomes maximal.

54. Uncoupling of mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation:

a) allows continued mitochondrial ATP formation, but halts O2
 consumption.
b) halts all mitochondrial metabolism.
c) halts mitochondrial ATP formation, but allows continued O2
consumption.
d) slows down the citric acid cycle.
e) slows the conversion of glucose to pyruvate by glycolysis.

55. 2,4-Dinitrophenol and oligomycin inhibit mitochondrial oxidative

phosphorylation. 2,4-Dinitrophenol is an uncoupling agent; oligomycin
blocks the ATP synthesis reaction itself. Therefore, 2,4-dinitrophenol will:
a) allow electron transfer in the presence of oligomycin.
b) allow oxidative phosphorylation in the presence of oligomycin.
c) block electron transfer in the presence of oligomycin.
d) diminish O2 consumption in the presence of oligomycin
e) do none of the above.

56. Which of the following is correct concerning the mitochondrial ATP

synthase?
a) It can synthesize ATP after it is extracted from broken mitochondria.
b) It catalyzes the formation of ATP even though the reaction has a large
positive DG'.
c) It consists of F0 and F1 subunits, which are transmembrane (integral)
polypeptides.
d) It is actually an ATPase and only catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP.
e) When it catalyzes the ATP synthesis reaction, the DG' is actually
close to zero.

57. When the DG' of the ATP synthesis reaction is measured on the surface of
the ATP synthase enzyme, it is found to be close to zero. This is thought to be
due to:
a) a very low energy of activation.
b) enzyme-induced oxygen exchange.
c) stabilization of ADP relative to ATP by enzyme binding.
d) stabilization of ATP relative to ADP by enzyme binding.
e) none of the above.

58. During oxidative phosphorylation, the proton motive force that is generated
by electron transport is used to:
a) create a pore in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
b) generate the substrates (ADP and Pi) for the ATP synthase.
c) induce a conformational change in the ATP synthase.
+
d) oxidize NADH to NAD .
e) reduce O2 to H2O.
59. An enzyme that catalyzes the reaction shown below is called a/an

OH O
| //
CH3CHCH2COOH + NAD+ <==> CH3CCH2COOH + NADH + H+
a. isomerase.
b. dehydrogenase.
c. transferase.
d. mutase
e. dehydrase

60. An enzyme that catalyzes the following reaction: fructose-g-phosphate <===>

glucose-6-phosphate (see figure below) is a/an
a. isomerase.
b. transferase.
c. ligase.
d. lyase.
e. hydrolase.

61. Isocitrate dehydrogenase catalyzes the reaction

isocitrate + NAD+ <==> alpha-ketoglutarate + CO2 + NADH + H+
The curves at the left are obtained when the initial velocity (v) is plotted against
the isocitrate concentration in the presence of various levels of ADP and excess
NAD+.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Isocitrate dehydrogenase exhibits simple Michaelis-Menten kinetics in the
absence of ADP.
b. ADP increases the Km of the enzyme for isocitrate.
c. ADP increases the Vmax of the enzyme.
d. ADP decreases the Km of the enzyme.

62. Refer to the graph when answering. "X" represents the native enzyme
and "Y" the enzyme plus a fixed concentration of a modifier. The modifier
a. increases the Vmax of the enzyme.
b. increases the Km.
c. is a non-competitive inhibitor.
d. is a competitive inhibitor.
e. is an allosteric activator.
63. The reaction progress curves for the same reaction (1)
uncatalyzed reaction and catalyzed reaction (2) are shown below.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Both reactions release the same amount of free energy.
b. The rate at which A-->D exceeds the rate at which E-->J.
c. Both have the same reaction pathway.
d. The rate at which I-->J exceeds the rate at which I-->E.

64. Reaction coordinate diagram for uncatalyzed and enzyme-

catalyzed conversion of a reactant S to its product P (S<->P):
Activation energy for the catalyzed conversion is represented by the arrow:

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E