NEET | 06.04.

2017
COMBINED TEST (P, C, B)

COMBINED TEST 1 (P, C, B)

Time: 3 hrs
Part A (Physics)
1. A new unit of length is chosen such that the speed of light in vacuum is unity. The
distance between the sun and the earth in terms of the new unit if light takes 8 min
and 20s to cover this distance is
(1) 300 (2) 500 (3) 600 (4) 800
2. The mass of a box measured by a grocers balance is 2.3 kg. Two gold pieces of masses 20.15 g
and 20.17 g are added to the box. What is (i) the total mass of the box and (ii) the difference in
the masses of the pieces to correct significant figures?
(1) 2.34 kg, 0 g (2) 2.3 kg, 0.02 g (3) 2.34 kg, 0.02 g (4) 2.3 kg, 0 g
RT
3. The speed of sound in a gas is given by v where the letters have usual meanings. The
M
dimensional formula of is
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [MLT] (3) [MLT-2] (4) [M0L0T-1]
4. A rectangular beam which is supported at its two ends and loaded in the middle with weight W
Wl 3
sags by an amount such that , where l, d and Y represent length, depth and elasticity
4Yd 3 ?
respectively. Guess the unknown factor using dimensional considerations.
(1) Breadth (2) (breadth)2 (3) (breadth)3 (4) mass
a m .b n
5. Statement 1: If x , then the percentage error in the measurement of x,
c p .d q
x a b c d
m n p q .
x a b c d
Statement 2: The above is true for all values of a, b, c and d.
(1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
(2) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
(3) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true and statement -2 is a correct explanation for
statement 1
(4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true but statement -2 is not a correct explanation for
statement 1
6. In the equation X=3YZ2, X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic induction
respectively. In MKS system, the dimensional formula for Y is
(1) [M-3L-2T-2Q-4] (2) [ML-2] (3) [M-3L-2Q4 T8] (4) [M-3L-2Q4 T4]
x
7. The equation of a wave is given by y A sin k , where is the angular velocity and v is
v
the linear velocity. The dimensional formula of k is
(1) [LT] (2) [T] (3) [T-1] (4) [T2]

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8. The velocity v of water waves may depend on the wavelength ( ), the density of water ( ) and the
acceleration due to gravity (g). The method of dimensions gives the relations between these
quantities as
(1) v2 -1 -1
(2) v2 g (3) v2 g (4) g-1 3

9. If E, m J and G represent energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant

respectively, then the dimensional formula of EJ2/m5 G2 is
(1) Angle (2) Length (3) mass (4) time
10. The force F is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation F=A cos Bx+C sin Dt.
D
The dimensional formula of is
B
(1) [M0L0T0] (2) [M0L0T-1] (3) [M0L-1T0] (4) [M0L1T-1]
11. In a new system of units, unit of mass is 10 kg, unit of length is 1 km and unit of time is 1 minute.
The value of 1 joule in this new hypothetical system is
(1) 3.6 x 10-4 new units (2) 6 x 107 new units
(3) 1011 new units (4) 1.67 x 104 new units
12. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by MaLbTc, then the physical quantity will be
(1) Velocity if a=1, b=0, c=-1 (2) acceleration if a=1, b=1, c=-2
(3) force if a=0, b=-1, c=-2 (4) pressure if a=1, b=-1, c=-2
13. A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes five steps forward and three steps backward followed
again by five steps forward and three steps backward and so on. Each step is 1 m long and
requires 1s. The time the drunkard takes to fall in a pit 13 m away is
(1) 13 s (2) 32 s (3) 37 s (4) 49 s
-1
14. A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 500 km h ejects its products of combustion at the speed of
1500 km h-1 relative to the jet plane. The speed of the products of combustion with respect to an
observer on the ground is
(1) 500 km h-1 (2) 1000 km h-1 (3) 1500 km h-1 (4) 2000 km h-1
15. Two towns A and B are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction
every T minutes. A man cycling with a speed of 20 km h-1 in the direction A to B notices that a
bus goes past him every 18 min in the direction of his motion, and every 6 min in the opposite
direction. The period T of bus service is
(1) 4.5 min (2) 9 min (3) 12 min (4) 24 min
-1
16. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 30 km h fires a bullet at a theifs car speeding
away in the same direction with a speed of 192 kmh-1. If the muzzle speed of the bullet is 150 ms-1,
with what speed does the bullet hit the thiefs car?
(1) 90 ms-1 (2) 105 ms-1 (3) 110 ms-1 (4) 120 ms-1
17. Figure gives the x-t plot of a particle executing one dimensional simple harmonic motion. Mark the
correct combination. The signs of position, velocity and acceleration variables at

(1) t=0.3 s, x<0, v<0, a<0 (2) t=1.2 s, x>0, v>0, a>0
(3) t=-1.2 s, x>0, v>0, a<0 (4) t=-0.3 s, x>0, v<0, a<0

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18. Figure gives the x-t plot of a particle in one dimensional motion. Three different equal intervals
of time are shown. Let v1,v2,v3 be the average speed in each of the intervals respectively, then

(1) v1<v2>v3 (2) v1>v2>v3 (3) v3>v1>v2 (4) v2>v1<v3

19. On a long horizontally moving belt, a child runs to and fro with a speed 9 kmh -1 (with respect to
the belt) between his father and mother located 50 m apart on the moving belt. The belt moves
with a speed of 4 km h-1. The time taken by the child in running against the motion of the belt,
between his parents is
(1) 10 s (2) 20 s (3) 25 s (4) 30 s
20. The following figures show velocity v versus time t curves. But only some of these can be realized
in practice. These are

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) only (2) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (3) (ii) and (iv) only (4) all
21. Which one of the following represents the time displacement graph of two objects P and Q moving
with zero relative speed?

22. Four velocity-time graphs (namely I, II, III and IV) are shown in figure in which case is the
acceleration uniform and positive?

(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV

23. From a high tower at time t=0, one stone is dropped from rest and simultaneously another stone
is projected vertically up with an initial velocity. The graph of the distance s between the two
stones, before either hits the ground, plotted against time t will be as

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24. A particle stating from rest with uniform acceleration travels a distance x in first 2 second and a
distance y in next 2 second, then
(1) y=2x (2) y=3x (3) y=4x (4) y=x
25. Speeds of two identical cars are u and 4u at a specific instant. If the same deceleration is applied
on both the cars, the ratio of the respective distance in which the two cars are stopped from that
instant is
(1) 1:1 (2) 1:4 (3) 1:8 (4) 1:16
26. The position of a particle is given by r 3ti 2t 2 j 5k where t is in second and the coefficients
have proper units for r to be in metres. The direction of v(t) at t=1 s is
(1) 370 with the x-axis (2) 530 with the x-axis (3) 450 with the y-axis (4) 600 with the y-axis
27. A particle starts from origin at t=0 with a velocity 5i m/s and moves in x-y plane under action of a
force which produce a constant acceleration of (3i 2 j ) m/s2. The y-coordinate of the particle,
when its x-coordinate is 84 m is
(1) 12 m (2) 24 m (3) 36 m (4) 48 m
28. The ceiling of a long hall is 25 m high. What is the maximum horizontal distance that a ball thrown
with a speed of 40ms-1 can go without hitting the ceiling?
(1) 108 m (2) 120 m (3) 150 m (4) 162 m
29. A fighter plane flying horizontally at an altitude of 1.5 km with speed of 720 km/h passes directly
overhead an anti-aircraft gun. At what angle from the vertical should the gun be fired for the cell
with muzzle speed 600 ms-1 to hit the plane?
1 2 1 2
(1) sin (2) sin (3) cos (4) cos
1 1 1 1

3 3 3 3
30. What is the angle between ( A B ) and ( A B ) ?
3
(1) 00 (2) radian (3) radian (4) radian
2 2
31. The resultant of two forces 3P and 2P is R. If the first force is doubled, then the resultant is also
doubled. The angle between the two forces is
(1) 1200 (2) 600 (3) 1800 (4) 900
32. If i 2 j 2k and r 4 j 3k , then the magnitude of v is
(1) 29 units (2) 31 units (3) 37 units (4) 41 units
33. The area of a parallelogram formed from the vectors A i 2 j 3k and B 3i 2 j k as
adjacent sides is
(1) 8 3 units (2) 64 units (3) 32 units (4) 4 6 units
34. Given: A 3i 4 j 2k and B 2i 4 j 5k . The angle which A B makes with y-axis is
(1) 00 (2) 450 (3) 600 (4) 900
35. A projectile fired with initial velocity v at some angle , has a range R. If the initial velocity be
doubled at the same angle of projection then the range will be
(1) R/2 (2) R (3) 2R (4) 4R
36. Figure shows a 11 feet wide ditch with the approach roads at an angle of 150 with the horizontal.
With what minimum speed should a motor bike be moving on the road so that it safely crosses the

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ditch? Assume that the length of the bike is 5 feet and it leaves the road when the front part runs
out of the approach road. Take g=32 feet/s2

(1) 32 feet/s (2) 16 feet/s (3) 8 feet/s (4) 4 feet/s

-1
37. An aeroplane flying horizontally with a velocity of 216 kmh drops a food packet while flying at a
height of 490 m. The total horizontal distance travelled by the packet is
(1) 600 m (2) 490 m (3) 216 m (4) 490 x 216 m
38. The x and y coordinates of a particle at any time t are given by x=2t+4t2 and y=5t, where x and
y are in metre and t in second. The acceleration of the particle at t=5 s is
(1) 40 ms-2 (2) 20 ms-2 (3) 8 ms-2 (4) zero
39. Two projectiles, one fired from earth with 5 ms and the other fired from a planet with 3 ms-1 trace
-1

identical trajectories. If acceleration due to gravity on earth is 9.8 ms-2, then the acceleration due to
gravity on the planet is
(1) 1.5 ms-2 (2) 3.5 ms-2 (3) 7.5 ms-2 (4) 9.5 ms-2
40. Two particles move in a uniform gravitational field with an acceleration g. At the initial moment,
the particles where located at one point and move with velocity v1=4 ms-1 and v2=1 ms-1
horizontally in opposite directions. The distance between the particles at the moment when their
velocity vectors become mutually perpendicular is (take g=10 ms-2)
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m (3) 3 m (4) 5 m
41. A body is projected at 300 angle with the horizontal with velocity 30 ms-1. What is the angle with
the horizontal after 1.5 s? (take g=10 ms-2)
(1) 00 (2) 300 (3) 600 (4) 900
42. A projectile is thrown at angle with vertical. It reaches a maximum height H. The time taken to
reach the highest point of its path is
H 2H H 2H
(1) (2) (3) (4)
g g 2g g cos
43. A plane flying horizontally at 98 ms-1 releases an object which reaches the ground 10 s. The angle
made by the velocity of the object with the horizontal at the time of hitting the ground is
(1) 300 (2) 450 (3) 600 (4) 750
44. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed v0 at an angle of projection . From the same point and
at the same instant a person starts running with a constant speed v0/2 to catch the ball. Will the
person be able to catch the ball? If s, what should be the angle of projection?
(1) Yes, 600 (2) Yes, 300 (3) No (4) Yes, 450
45. Statement 1: A swimmer is swimming in the river for the shortest path. His average velocity is
perpendicular to the water flow.
Statement 2: The component of the resultant velocity of swimmer in the direction of flow
should be least for shortest path.
(1) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false
(2) Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true
(3) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true and statement -2 is a correct explanation for
statement 1
(4) Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is true but statement -2 is not a correct explanation for
statement 1
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Part B (Chemistry)
46. One of the following combinations illustrate law of reciprocal proportions:
(1) N2O3, N2O4, N2O5 (2) NaCl, NaBr, NaI (3) CS2, CO2, SO2 (4) PH3, P2O3, P2O5
47. Aspirin has the formula C9H8O4. How many atoms of oxygen are there in a tablet weighting 360
mg?
(1) 1.204 x 1023 (2) 1.08 x 1022 (3)1.204 x 1024 (4)4.81 x 1021
48. A sample of ammonium phosphate, (NH4)3PO4, contains 6 moles of hydrogen atoms. The number
of moles of oxygen atoms in the sample is:
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
49. Which of the following contains the largest mass of hydrogen atoms?
(1) 5.0 moles C2H2O4 (2) 1.2 moles C3H8O3 (3) 1.5 moles C6H8O6 (4) 4.0 moles C2H4O2
50. The hydrated salt Na2CO3.xH2O undergoes 63% loss in mass on heating and becomes anhydrous.
The value of x is:
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 18
51. What is the empirical formula of vanadium oxide, if 2.74 g of the metal oxide contains 1.53 g of
metal?
(1) V2O3 (2) VO (3) V2H5 (4) V2O7
52. The vapour density of a mixture containing NO2 and N2O4 is 27.6. The mole fraction of N2O4 in
the mixture is:
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.8
53. Two elements X (at. mass=75) and Y (at. mass=16) combine to give a compound having 75.8 %
of X. The formula of the compound is
(1) XY (2) X2Y (3) X2Y2 (4) X2Y3
54. Concentrated HNO3 is 63% HNO3 by mass and has a density of 1.4 g/mL. How many milliliters of
this solution are required to prepare 250 mL of a 1.20 M HNO3 solution?
(1) 18.0 (2) 21.42 (3) 20.0 (4) 14.21
55. 0.2 mole of HCl and 0.2 mole of barium chloride where dissolved in water to produce a 500 mL
solution. The molarity of the Cl- ions is:
(1) 0.06 M (2) 0.09 M (3) 1.2 M (4) 0.80 M
56. A certain public water supply contains 0.10 ppb (part per billion) of chloroform (CHCl3). How
many molecules of CHCl3 would be obtained in 0.478 mL drop of this water? (Assumed d=1
g/mL)
(1) 4 x 10-3 x NA (2) 10-3 x NA (3) 4 x 10-10 x NA (4) None of these
57. The oxidation state(s) of Cl in CaOCl2 (bleaching powder) is/are:
(1) +1 only (2) 1 only (3) +1 and 1 (4) None of these
58. When SO4 is passed into an acidified potassium dichromate solution, the oxidation numbers of
sulphur and chromium in the final products respectively are:
(1) +6, +6 (2) +6, +3 (3) 0, +3 (4) +2, +3
59. The oxidation number of nitrogen atoms in NH4NO3 are:
(1) +3, +3 (2) +3, - 3 (3) -3, +5 (4) -5, +3
60. When potassium permanganate is titrated against ferrous ammonium sulphate in acidic medium,
the equivalent weight of potassium permanganate is:
Molecular weight Molecular weight
(A) (2)
3 5
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Molecular weight Molecular weight

(3) (4)
2 10

61. Equivalent weight of FeS2 in the half reaction, FeS2 Fe2O3+SO2 is:
(1) M/10 (2) M/11 (3) M/6 (4) M/1
62. Ratio of moles of Fe (II) oxidized by equal volumes of equimolar KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 solutions in
acidic medium will be
(1) 5:3 (2) 1:1 (3) 1:2 (4) 5:6
63. The equivalent weight of a metal is double than of oxygen. How many times is the equivalent
weight of its oxide than the equivalent weight of the metal?
(1) 1.5 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
64. 3.011 x 1022 atoms of an element weight 1.15 gm. The atomic mass of the element is
(1) 10 (2) 2.3 (3) 35.5 (4) 23
65. The relation between molarity (M) and molality (m) is given by: (( - density of solution (mg/mL),
M1=molecular weight of solute)
1000 M 1000 M 1000 MM 1000 M
(1) m (2) m (3) m (4) m
1000 M1 1000 MM 1 1000 MM 1 1000 MM 1
66. Woods metal contains 50.0 % bismuth, 25.0% lead, 12.5 % tin and 12.5% cadmium by weight.
What is the mole fraction of tin? (Atomic weights: Bi=209, Pb=207, Sn=119, Cd=112)
(1) 0.202 (2) 0.158 (3) 0.176 (4) 0.221
67. If mA gram of a metal A displaces mB gram of another metal B from its salt solution and if the
equivalent weights are EA and EB respectively then equivalent weight of A can be expressed as:
mA mA mB mB mA
(1) E A EB (2) E A (3) E A EB (4) EA EB
mB EB mA mB
68. What will be the normality of a solution obtained by mixing 0.45 N and 0.60 N NaOH in the ratio
2:1 by volume?
(1) 0.4 N (2) 0.5 N (3) 1.05 N (4) 0.15 N
N
69. When 2.5 g of a sample of Mohrs salt reacts completely with 50 mL of KMnO4 solution. The
10
% purity of the sample of Mohrs salt is:
(1) 78.4 (2) 70 (3) 37 (4) 40
70. 25 mL of 2 N HCl, 50 mL of 4 N HNO3 and x mL of 2 M H2SO4 are mixed together and the total
volume is made up to 1 L after dilution. 50 mL of this acid mixture completely reacted with 25 mL
of a 1 N Na2CO3 solution. The value of x is:
(1) 250 mL (2) 62.5 mL (3) 100 mL (4) None of these
71. The vapour pressure of a given liquid will decrease if:
(1) Surface area of liquid is decreased
(2) The volume of liquid in the container is decreased
(3) The volume of the vapour phase is increased
(4) The temperature is decreased
72. Raoults law is obeyed by each constituent of a binary liquid solution when:
(1) The forces of attractions between like molecules are greater than those between unlike
molecules
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(2) The forces of attractions between like molecules are smaller than those between unlike
molecules
(3) The forces of attractions between like molecules are identical with those between unlike
molecules
(4) The volume occupied by unlike molecules are different
73. For a binary ideal liquid solution, the total pressure of the solution is given as:
(1) Ptotal=PA*+(PA* - PB*) XB (2) Ptotal=PB*+(PA* - PB*) XA (3) Ptotal=PB*+(PB* - PA*) XA (4)
* * *
Ptotal=PB +(PB - PA ) XB
74. 6.0 g of urea (molecular weight =60) was dissolved in 9.9 moles of water. If the vapour pressure
of pure water is P0, the vapour pressure of solution is:
(1) 0.10 P0 (2) 1.10 P0 (3) 0.90 P0 (4) 0.99 P0
75. At 250 C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid A (mol. wt.=40) is 100 torr, while that of pure liquid
B is 40 torr, (mol. wt=80). The vapour pressure at 250C of a solution containing 20 g of each A
and B is:
(1) 80 torr (2) 59.8 torr (3) 68 torr (4) 48 torr
76. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water ethanol is less than that of both water and
ethanol. Then:
(1) The mixture will show negative deviation from Raoults law
(2) The mixture will show positive deviation from Raoults law
(3) The mixture will show no deviation from Raoults law
(4) The mixture cannot be considered as true solution
77. In a 0.5 molal solution KCl, KCl is 50% dissociated. The freezing point of solution will be (KF=1.86
K kg mol-1):
(1) 274.674 K (2) 271.60K (3) 273 K (4) None of these
78. Assuming complete ionization, the solution having maximum freezing point will be
(1) 1 M CaF2 (2) 1.5 M Al2(SO4)3 (3) 2 M NaCl (4) 1 M AgNO3
79. 0.1 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte AB3 is 90% ionized. The boiling point of the solution
at 1 atm is: (Kb(H2O)=0.52 K kg mol-1)
(1) 273.19 K (2) 374.92 K (3) 376.4 K (4) 373.19 K
80. Equal volumes of 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M glucose are mixed. The mixture will have
(1) Lower osmotic pressure (2) Same osmotic pressure (3) Higher osmotic pressure (4)
None of these
81. The relationship between osmotic pressures ( 1, 2 and 3) at a definite temperature when 1 g
glucose, 1 g urea and 1 g sucrose are dissolved in 1 litre of water is (assume i=1 for all)
(1) 1> 2 > 3 (2) 3> 1 > 2 (3) 2> 1 > 3 (4) 2> 3 > 1
82. The osmotic pressures of 0.010 M solutions of KI and of sucrose (C12H22O11) are 0.432 atm and
0.24 atm respectively. The vant Hoff factor for KI is:
(1) 1.80 (2) 0.80 (3) 1.2 (4) 1.0
83. According to Henrys law the solubility of a gas in a given volume of liquid increases with increase
in:
(1) Temperature (2) pressure (3) both (a) and (b) (4) none of these

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84. Which of the following curves represents the Henrys law?

85. When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous solution of KI, then the
(1) Freezing point is raised (2) Freezing point is lowered
(3) Freezing point does not change (4) Boiling point does not change
86. Which one of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?
(1) 0.015 M urea (2) 0.01 M KNO2 (3) 0.10 M Na2SO4 (4) 0.015 M glucose
87. Which solution have the highest vapour pressure?
(1) 0.02 M NaCl at 500C
(2) 0.03 M Sucrose at 150C
(3) 0.005 M CaCl2 at 500C
(4) 0.005 M CaCl2 at 250C
88. The vant hoff factor i for an electrolyte which undergoes dissociation and association in solvent
are respectively:
(1) Greater than one and less than one
(2) Less than one and greater than one
(3) Less than one and less than one
(4) Greater than one and greater than one
89. Which of the following is not a Colligative property?
(1) Vapour pressure
(2) Depression in f.pt
(3) Elevation in b.pt
(4) Osmotic pressure
90. Estimate the lowering of vapour pressure due to the solute (glucose) in a 1.0 M aqueous solutions
at 1000C:
(1) 10 torr (2) 18 torr (3) 13.45 torr (4) 24 torr

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Part C (Biology)
91. Which of the following multiply through fragmentation?
(1) Fungi (2) filamentous algae (3) planaria (4) all of these
92. Reproduction cannot be an all-inclusive defining characteristic of living organisms because
(1) All living organism do not show growth
(2) Many organism do not reproduce
(3) Non-living things show reproduction
(4) All living organism show small period of reproductive phase in their life
93. Select the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) NBRI is situated at Lucknow
(B) Plant families like Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are included in the order polymoniales
mainly based on the floral characters
(C) All living organisms-present, past and future, are linked to one another by the sharing of the
common genetic material but to varying degree
(D) Order Solanum, Datura and Petunia are placed in Solanaceae
(1) A only (2) (B) and (D) only (3) D only (4) (B) and (C) only
94. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit metabolism
(2) Interactions among the molecular components of the organelles result into the properties of
cell organelles
(3) Properties of cellular organelles are present in the molecular constituents of the organelles
(4) Cellular organization of the body is the defining feature of life forms
95. Which two points are known as the twin characteristics of growth?
(A) Increase in mass (B) Metabolism
(C) Increase in number of individuals (D) Sense of environment
(1) (A) and (B) (2) (A) and (D) (3) (B) and (C) (4) (A) and (C)
96. Which of the following matching is incorrect?
Common name Genus Order Class
(1) Man Homo Primate Mammalian
(2) Mango Mangifera Sapindales Dicotyledonae
(3) Housefly Musca Coelopetra Insect
(4) Wheat Tritium Poales monocotyledonae
97. Which set of organisms multiply through fragmentation?
(1) Planaria, hydra, yeast (2) Echinoderms, fungi, bacteria
(3) Fungi, filamentous algae, protonema of mosses
(4) Amoeba, hydra, virus
98. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristic of living things?
(1) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro (2) Increase in mass from inside only
(3) Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory
(4) Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally
99. Growth, development and functioning of living body is due to
(1) A decrease in entropy (2) An increase in Gibbs free energy
(3) Metabolism (4) Adaptations

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100. A living organism can be exceptionally differentiated from a non-living thing on the basis of its
ability for
(1) Reproduction and excretion (2) Growth and movement
(3) Responsiveness to touch and temperature
(4) Interaction with environment and progressive evolution
101. In mangifera indica Linn, Linn stands for
(1) Latin (2) lower organism (3) Linnaeus (4) Lamarck
102. Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic categories.
(1) Species order kingdom phylum (2) Species family genus class
(3) Genus species order phylum (4) Species genus order phylum
103. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(1) Each statement in key is called lead
(2) Taxonomic keys are tools that help in identification based on characteristics
(3) ICZN stands for international code of zoological nomenclature
(4) Ernst Mayr used system a nature as the title of his publication
104. Find the incorrect statement from the following:
(1) Closely related species differ in morphological features
(2) Genus comprises a group of related species
(3) Taxonomic studies are useful in agricultural, forestry and industries
(4) Notochord and ventral hollow neutral system are common features of phylum chordate
105. ICBN is
(1) International Code for Biosphere Nomenclature
(2) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature
(3) International Class for Biological Nobel leurette
(4) International Committee for Biological Naming
106. Common features of chordate are
(1) Presence of notochord in any stage of life (2) Dorsal hollow neural system
(3) Paired pharyngeal gill slits (4) All
107. Which of the following is a common feature of category insecta?
(1) Presence of ostium (2) Presence of coxal gland for excretion
(3) Three pair of jointed legs in thoracic region
(4) Exoskeleton of cutin
108. Which of the following is incorrect about keys?
(1) Key is taxonomial aid used for identification of plants and animals based on the similarities
and dissimilarities
(2) Separate taxonomic keys are required for each taxonomic category such as family, genusand
species for identification purposes
(3) Keys are generally analytical in nature
(4) Key is another taxonomical aid used for nomenclature of plants and animals based on the
similarities and dissimilarities
109. Which of the following is a mean of recording description?
(1) Flora and manuals (2) Monographs (3) Catalogues (4) All
110. Manuals contain information for
(1) Habitat and distribution of animals of a given area
(2) Habitat and distribution of plants of a given area
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(3) Identification of names of species found in an area

(4) Habitat and distribution of some useful animals a given area
111. Which is the prime source of taxonomical studies?
(1) Collection of actual specimen (2) Nomenclature
(3) Characterization (4) Identification
112. Monkey, gorilla and gibbons belongs to which of the following order and class repectively.
(1) Primate and prototheria (2) Primate and mammalia
(3) Carnivora and eutheria (4) Carnivora and mammalia
113. Match the column:
Column I Column II
A. Man 1. Order Carnivora
B. Mango 2. Family Poaceae
C. Housefly 3. Genus - Musca
D. Tiger 4. Phylum Chordata
E. Wheat 5. Family - Anacardiacea
(1) A-1, B-5, C-3, D-4, E-2 (2) A-4, B-5, C-3, D-1&4, E-2
(3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1, E-5 (4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5
114. Select the incorrect combination:
(1) Fragmentation Fungi, Planaria, Protonema of moss
(2) Budding Yeast, hydra and sponges
(3) Order Mammalian, primata, dipteral, poales, polymoniales, sapindales
(4) Genus Homo, Triticum, Musca, Felis, Panthera, Datura, Petunia, Mangifera,
Solanum
115. Select the correct combination:
(1) Earliest classification based on Uses of various organisms
(2) Reproduction is synonymous with growth Primitive multicellular organism
(3) ICZN International Code of Zoo Nomenclature
(4) NBRI National Botanical Registered Institute
116. Single horned Rhinoes are found in
(1) Ghana (2) Bastar of Madhya Pradesh
(3) kaziranga National Park (4) Khasi in Meghalaya
117. Select total number of correct statements from the following:
(A) Photoperiod affects reproduction in seasonal breeders, both plants and animals
(B) All organism handle chemicals entering their bodies
(C) Metabolism is a characteristic feature of all living organisms
(D) In animals, growth is seen only up to a certain age
(E) Non-living object exhibits metabolism
(F) No non-living object is capable of reproducing or replicating by itself
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6
118. All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit
(1) Reproduction (2) Growth by increase in mass only
(3) Metabolism (4) Self-consciousness
119. Free swimming larva of Sycon is
(1) amphiblastula (2) cydippid (3) redia (4) parenchymula.

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120. Identify incorrectly matched pair.

(1) Aurelia - Choanocytes
(2) Pleurobrachia - Colloblasts
(3) Hydra - Nematocyst
(4) Planaria - Solenocytes
121. Which among the following organisms show metagenesis?
(1) Leucosolenia (2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Obelia (4) Taenia
122. Acoelomate organism with bilateral symmetry is
(1) Pila (2) Ascaris
(3) Spongilla (4) Fasciola.
123. Select the correct statement.
(1) Indirect development of Schistosoma includes velliger and trochophore larva.
(2) Cartilaginous fishes have homocercal caudal fin and cycloid scales.
(3) In Hemidactylus, eyelids are movable and nictitating membrane is present.
(4) Spider has 3 pairs of legs.
124. Match the column I with column II.
Column-I Column-II
1. Physalia A. Green glands
2. Periplaneta B. Syrinx
3. Sepia C. Gonozooids
4. Columba D. Ink-sac
(1) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
(2) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
(3) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
(4) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
125. Ladder like nervous system is a peculiar feature of phylum
(1) Cnidaria (2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Echinodermata (4) Aschelminthes.

126. Fill in the blanks.

(i) Suckers and hooks are present in _____.
(ii) Preen glands are present in _____.
(iii) Salamander is _____.
(i) (ii) (iii)
(a) roundworms arthropods viviparous
(b) flukes birds oviparous
(c) ctenophores molluscs ovoviviparous
(d) tapeworms birds viviparous
127. Identify A, B and C in the given table.

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A B C
(1) Tissue level organisation Annelida Water vascular
and biradial symmetry system
(2) Tissue level organisation Annelida Jointed
and bilateral symmetry appendages
(3) Cellular level organisation Aschel- Comb plates
and radial symmetry minthes for locomotion
(4) Organ system level Aschel- Flat body and
organisation and bilateral minthes suckers
symmetry
128. Jacobsons organs for detecting odour are present in
(1) birds (2) snakes (3) star fish (4) insects.
129. How many cranial nerves are present in frog?
(1) 10 pairs (2) 12 pairs (3) 14 pairs (4) 31 pairs
130. Which of the following is not a characteristic of urochordates?
(1) Retrogressive metamorphosis. (2) Body covered in leathery tunicin.
(3) Notochord present in larval stages. (4) Copper containing blue respiratory pigment.
131. The jawless fish is
(1) Trygon (2) Torpedo (3) Myxine (4) Anabas
132. Rhabditiform larva is present in
(1) Ascaris (2) Wuchereria (3) Fasciola (4) Ancylostoma
133. Protostomic plan is seen in
(1) annelids and hemichordates (2) molluscs and arthropods
(3) roundworms and urochordates (4) only chordates
134. Type of symmetry in which body of an individual can be divided into equal halves by any plane
passing through centre from top to bottom is
(1) spherical symmetry (2) radial symmetry
(3) bilateral symmetry (4) biradial symmetry
135. Indian earthworm belongs to class
(1) Polychaeta (2) Hirudinea (3) Oligochaeta (4) Archiannelida
136. Match the following columns and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II Column-III
1. Holothuria p. Cuttle fish a. Porifera
2. Sepia q. Sea anemone b. Echinodermata
3. Cliona r. Sea cucumber c . Mollusc

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4. Adamsia s. Boring sponge d. Coelenterata

(1) 1-r-c, 2-p-a, 3-s-d, 4-q-b (2) 1-s-b, 2-r-a, 3-p-c, 4-q-d
(3) 1-r-b, 2-p-c, 3-s-a, 4-q-d (4) 1-q-b, 2-p-c, 3-r-a, 4-s-d
137. Excretory organs in Herdmania are
(1) coxal glands (2) neural glands (3) green glands (4) flame cells.
138. Heart of Exocoetus comprises of
(1) one auricle and two ventricles (2) one auricle and one ventricle
(3) two auricles and one ventricle (4) two auricles and two ventricles
139. Identify the plants shown in figure and select the incorrect statement..

(1) Plant A is Chara, which is fixed to the substratum by means of highly branched multicellular
rhizoids.
(2) Plant B is Polysiphonia, in which female sex organ remains attached to the plant and forms a
structure called carposporophyte.
(3) Plant C is Fucus, in which phycocolloids are sulphated mucopolysaccharides.
(4) Plant D is Ectocarpus, in which isomorphic alternation of generations occur.
140. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
A. Alginic acid (i) Rhodomela
B. Bromine (ii) Gracilearia
C. Agar (iii) Chlamydomonas
D. Sewage oxidation (iv) Polysiphonia
(v) Gelidium
(vi) Laminaria
(vii) Scenedesmus
(viii) Sargassum
(1) A-(ii, v) , B-(iii, iv), C-(i, viii), D-(vi, vii) (2) A-(vi, viii), B-(i, iv), C-(ii, v), D-(iii, vii)
(3) A-(vi, iii) , B-(ii, v), C-(i, viii), D-(iv, vii) (4) A-(vi, viii), B-(vii, iv), C-(ii, v), D-(i, iii)
141. Read the given statements and select the incorrect ones.
(i) In angiosperms, sporophylls are aggregated to form flowers.
(ii) Embryo sac of angiosperms have a three celled egg apparatus.
(iii) In angiosperms, size ranges from almost microscopic Wolffia to tall tree of Eucalyptus.
(iv) In angiosperms, synergids and antipodals degenerate before fertilisation.
(v) In angiosperms, embryo sac formation is preceded by meiosis.
(1) (ii) and (v) (2) (i) and (iv) (3) (v) only (4) (iv) only
142. Read the given statements and select the correct options.
Statement A : In Spirogyra, some cells in one of the two filaments become empty after
conjugation.

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Statement B : In cells of Spirogyra, aplanogametes pass through conjugation tube into cells of
other filament.
(1) Both statements A and B are correct and statement B is the correct explanation of statement A.
(2) Both statements A and B are correct but statement B is not the correct explanation of
statement A.
(3) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
143. Select the mismatched pair.
(1) Selaginella - Club moss
(2) Dryopteris - Maiden hair fern
(3) Ophioglossum reticulatum - Adders tongue fern
(4) Equisetum - Horsetail
144. In which of the following options, do all listed genera belong to the same class of pteridophytes?
(1) Lycopodium, Psilotum, Selaginella, Rhynia
(2) Rhynia, Cooksonia, Psilotum, Tmesipterus
(3) Selaginella, Lycopodium, Equisetum, Dryopteris
(4) Psilotum, Adiantum, Lycopodium, Equisetum
145. Consider the following statements and select the correct option stating which one is true (T) and
which one is false (F).
(i) Both stem and leaves of Funaria are sporophytic structures.
(ii) Coralloid roots are irregular, negatively geotropic, dichotomously branched coral like root,
which possess root hairs and root caps.
(iii) Ginkgo biloba has not changed for the several millions of years since its appearance in triassic
period.
(iv) In seedless vascular plants, the gametophyte must develop on moist soil with a thin sheet of
water.
(v) Ophioglossum reticulatum has maximum number of chromosomes.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
(a) F T T F T
(b) T F F T F
(c) F T F T F
(d) F F T T T
146. Complete the following flow chart by selecting the correct option.

A B C D
(a) Carpogonium Cystocarp Tetrasporo- Tetraspore
phyte
(b) Cystocarp Carpo- Tetrasporo- Tetraspore
gonium phyte
(c) Tetrasporo- Cystocarp Carpogonium Tetraspore
phyte
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(d) Cystocarp Carpo- Tetraspore Tetrasporo

gonium phyte
147. Fill up the blank spaces in the table below by selecting the correct option.

A B C D
(a) Chlorophyll Mannitol Chlorophyll a,d, Floridean
a, c, fuco- phycoerythrin starch
xanthin
(b) Chlorophyll Floridean Chlorophyll a, c, Mannitol
a,d, fuco- starch phycoerythrin
xanthin
(c) Chlorophyll Mannitol Chlorophyll a,c, Floridean
a,d, phyco- fucoxanthin starch
erythrin
(d) Chlorophyll Floridean Chlorophyll a,d, Mannitol
a, c, phyco- starch fucoxanthin
erythrin
148. Following are the differences between liverworts and mosses.

Select the option with correct pair of differences.

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (v) (4) (i), (ii) and (v)
149. Fill the blanks in the given statements and select the correct option.
(i) ____ are peculiar to Selaginella.
(ii) The sperms of ____ are the largest in the biological world.
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(iii) In Marchantia, two types of ____ are anchoring smooth walled and capillary conducting
tuberculate.
(iv) ____ causes red rust of tea.
A B C D
(1) Rhizome Cycas Roots Cephaleuros
(2) Rhizophore Cycas Rhizoids Cephaleuros
(3) Rhizophore Eucalyptus Rhizoids Scendesmus
(4) Rhizophore Eucalyptus Rhizoids Scendesmus
150. If the leaf cells of Funaria have 24 chromosomes. What will be the number of chromosomes in its
seta?
(1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 48 (4) 36
151. Below is given the unorganised arrangement of reproductive structures of gymnosperm. Identify
the correct sequence of arrangements and select the correct option.
(i) Spores (ii) Sporangia (iii) Strobili (iv) Sporophylls
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
152. In which of the following plants stomata are not found in dominant stage of life cycle?
(1) Marchantia (2) Riccia (3) Funaria (4) Equisetum
153. Which of the following plants have ligule?
(1) Selaginella (2) Lycopodium (3) Pinus (4) Cycas
154. Leaves of ferns are covered with
(1) ramenta (2) spores (3) indusicum (4) wax.
155. Read the given statements and select the incorrect ones.
(i) A coenobium is a colony having definite number of cells in multiples of two in the adult stage.
(ii) All algae are autotrophic.
(iii) Heterotrichy means having branches modified into leaves and air bladders.
(iv) In Volvox, asexual reproduction occurs through formation of palmella stage.
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
156. In which of the following plant stem is jointed and ribbed with leaves and branches borne in
whorls?
(1) Equisetum (2) Selaginella (3) Lycopodium (4) Cooksonia
157. The development of gametophyte is endosporic and precocious in
(1) Marchantia (2) Lycopodium (3) Selaginella (4) Azolla.
158. Conifers differ from grasses in the
(1) formation of endosperm before fertilisation
(2) production of seeds from ovules
(3) lack of xylem tracheids
(4) absence of pollen tube.
159. Relative biological effectiveness (RBE) is usually referred to damages caused by
(1) Low temperature (2) High temperature (3) Encephalitis (4) radiation
160. Biosystematics aims at
(1) Identification and arrangement of organisms on the basis of their cytological characteristics

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(2) The classification of organisms based on broad morphological characters

(3) Delimiting various taxa of organisms and establishing their relationships
(4) The classifications of organisms based on their evolutionary history and establishing their
phylogeny on the totality of various parameters from all fields of studies.
161. Which one of the following aspects is an exclusive characteristics of living things?
(1) Isolated metabolic reactions occur in vitro
(2) Increase in mass from inside only
(3) Perception of events happening in the environment and their memory
(4) Increase in mass by accumulation of material both on surface as well as internally
162. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according
to the international rules of nomenclature and correctly described?
(1) Musca domestica The common house lizard, reptile
(2) Plasmodium falciparum A protozoan pathogen causing the most series type of malaria
(3) Felis tigris The Indian tiger, well protected in gir forests
(4) E.coli Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine
163. Mycorrhiza is
(1) A symbolic association of plant roots and certain fungi
(2) An association of algae with fungi
(3) A fungus parasitizing root system of higher plants
(4) An association of Rhizobium with the roots of lenguminous plants
164. The hereditary material present in the bacterium Escherichia coli is
(1) Single stranded DNA
(2) Deoxyribose sugar
(3) Double stranded DNA
(4) Single stranded RNA
165. The plasmids present in the bacterial cells are
(1) Circular double helical DNA molecules
(2) Circular double helical RNA molecules
(3) Linear double helical DNA molecules
(4) Linear double helical RNA molecules
166. Transfer of genetic information from one bacterium to another in the transduction process is
through
(1) Conjugation
(2) Bacteriophages released from the donor bacterial strain
(3) Another bacterium
(4) Physical contact between donor and recipient strain
167. Which one of the following microorganisms is used for productions of citric acid in industries?
(1) Penicillium citrinum
(2) Aspergillus niger
(3) Rhizopus nigricans
(4) Lactobacillus bulgaris
168. Viruses are no more alive than isolated chromosomes because
(1) Both required the environment of a cell to replicate
(2) They require both RNA and DNA
(3) They both need food molecules
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(4) They both require oxygen for respiration

169. Viruses that infect bacteria multiply and cause their lysis, are called
(1) Lysozymes (2) lipolytic (3) lytic (4) lysogenic
170. Which one of the following is linked to the discovery of Bordeaux mixture as a popular fungicide?
(1) Bacterial leaf blight of rice
(2) Downy mildew of grapes
(3) Loose sumt of wheat
171. Black rust of wheat Which of the following character represents the affinities of Gnetum with
angiosperms and differences with Cycas and Pinus?
(1) Presence of vessel cells
(2) Two integuments
(3) Embryo development
(4) Absence of resin duct
172. In angiosperms, each embryo sac has a three celled egg apparatus, one egg cell and two (i) , three
(ii) cells and two (iii) .
(1) (i)-synergids, (ii)-antipodal cells, (iii)-polar nuclei
(2) (i)-antipodal cells, (ii)-synergids, (iii)-polar nuclei
(3) (i)-polar nuclei, (ii)-synergids, (iii)-antipodal cells
(4) (i)-synergids, (ii)-polar nuclei, (iii)-antipodal cells
173. Select the plant in which dominant phase is sporophyte.
(i) Pinus (ii) Riccia
(iii) Gnetum (iv) Marchantia
(v) Marsilea (vi) Anthoceros
(vii) Sphagnum (viii) Funaria
(ix) Polytrichum (x) Ephedra
(1) (i), (iii), (v) and (x) (2) (iii), (v) and (x)
(3) (ii), (iv) and (x) (4) (x), (v), (iii) and (i)
174. Which of the following is a living member of sphenopsida?
(1) Equisetum (2) Marsilea
(3) Selaginella (4) Lycopodium
175. Circinate vernation in ferns refers to
(a) uncoiling of young leaves from the base towards the apex
(b) system of leaf gaps in the stem
(c) acropetally arranged fronds
(d) presence of sori on the leaf surface.
176. Amphiphloic siphonostele is present in the rhizome of
(1) Pteris (2) Marsilea (c) Lycopodium (4) Psilotum.
177. Read the following statements and select the incorrect ones.
(i) The pollen tube in Cycas is of haustorial nature.
(ii) In Cycas antherozoids are motile.
(iii) The upper fertile portion of the microsporophyll of
Cycas is called apophysis.
(iv) The archegonium of Cycas lacks neck canal cell.
(v) The secondary wood of Cycas is pycnoxylic.
(1) (ii) and (v) (2) (iii) and (v) (3) (i) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv)
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178. Which of the following gives us fuel?

(1) Sphagnum (2) Marchantia (3) Marsilea (4) Adiantum
179. Which of the following genera have fungal association in form of mycorrhiza?
(1) Pinus (2) Cycas (3) Cedrus (4) Sequoia
180. The leaves of ferns are
(1) macrophylls (2) microphylls (3) protonema (4) gemmae

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ANSWER KEY 06.04.2017

PART A (PHYSICS)
Q.No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans 2 2 1 1 1 4 2 2 1 4
Q.No 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans 1 4 3 2 2 2 4 2 2 3
Q.No 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans 2 2 1 2 4 2 3 3 1 2
Q.No 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans 1 1 4 4 4 1 1 3 2 1
Q.No 41 42 43 44 45
Ans 1 2 2 1 3
PART B (CHEMISTRY)
Q.No 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans 3 4 2 4 1 3 2 4 2 3
Q.No 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
Ans 1 3 2 3 2 2 4 1 4 4
Q.No 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans 3 1 2 1 2 4 3 2 2 1
Q.No 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
Ans 2 2 4 4 2 3 1 2 1 1
Q.No 86 87 88 89 90
Ans 3 3 1 1 3
PART C (BIOLOGY)
Q.No 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans 4 2 3 3 4 3 3 2 3 4
Q.No 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans 3 4 4 4 2 4 3 4 4 3
Q.No 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans 1 2 2 3 1 3 3 3 1 1
Q.No 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 128 130
Ans 3 4 3 2 2 4 1 2 1 4
Q.No 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans 3 1 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 2
Q.No 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans 4 1 2 2 4 1 1 2 2 3
Q.No 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans 2 3 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 4
Q.No 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans 3 3 1 3 1 2 2 1 3 2
Q.No 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 1 1

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